Easy to Learn….

CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

PROKARYOTIC CELLS
➢ These are the cells having primitive type of nucleus i.e. well defined & membrane bound nucleus
is absent.
➢ They do not have membrane bound cell organelle.
➢ The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria, blue-green algae, mycoplasma or PPLO (Pleuro
Pneumonia Like Organisms.)
➢ They are generally smaller and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells.
➢ They may vary greatly in shape and size. The four basic shapes of bacteria are bacillus (rod like),
coccus (spherical), vibrio (comma shaped) and spirillum (spiral).
➢ The organisation of the prokaryotic cell is fundamentally similar even though prokaryotes exhibit a
wide variety of shapes and functions.

Practice Section-01
Q.1 Plant cell differs from animal cell by
(1) Presence of vacuoles (2) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast
(3) Absence of cell wall (4) Absence of chloroplast

Q.2 Which is not found in prokaryotic cell?

(1) Plasma membrane (2) Nuclear membrane
(3) Cell wall (4) Ribosomes

Q.3 Which of the following cell organelles is found in both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells?
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome
(3) Golgi complex (4) Mitochondria

Q.4 Prokaryotic cell does not have

(1) Nucleolus (2) Membrane bound organelles
(3) Centrioles (4) All of these

Q.5 Prokaryotic ribosomes are

(1) 50 S (2) 60 S (3) 70 S (4) 80 S
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.6 Cell theory was proposed by:-
(1) Schleiden and Schwann (2) Mendel
(3) Robert Hooke (4) Aristotle

Q.7 Omnis cellula-e cellula generalisation was given by

(1) Lamarck (2) Dutrochet (3) Leeuwenhoek (4) Virchow

Q.8 The first living cell was discovered by

(1) Robert Brown (2) Leeuwenhoek (3) Virchow (4) Robert Hooke

Q.9 The main arena of various types of activities in a cell is:

(1) Nucleus (2) Plasma membrane
(3) Mitochondria (4) Cytoplasm

Q.10 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is:

(1) Plasma membrane (2) Nucleus
(3) Ribosomes (4) Cell wall

Q.11 Which one of the following organism is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(1) Amoeba proteus (2) Paramecium caudatum
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Euglena

EUKARYOTIC CELLS
➢ [Eu→ True, karyon→ Nucleus]
➢ Cell with true nucleus.
➢ Most advanced and complex type of cell.

Golgi Lysosome
Microvilli Smooth
apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Plasma endoplasmic
membrane reticulum
Centriole Plasmodesmata Nucleus
Smooth Nucleolus
endoplasmic Peroxisome Golgi apparatus
reticulum Microtubule
Lysosome Nuclear envelope
Nuclear Plasma membrane
envelope Ribosomes
Vacuole
Nucleolus Mitochondrion Middle lamella
Rough Cell wall
Peroxisome Mitochondrion
Endoplasmic Cytoplasm Ribosomes
Nucleus
Cytoplasm Chloroplast
Animal cell Plant cell

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

Practice Section-02
Q.1 Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycolipids (3) Nucleic acid (4) Phospholipids

Q.2 Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statement is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid
monolayer to the other (described as flipflop movement)?
(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
(2) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(4) While lipids can rarely flip–flop,proteins can not

Q.3 Plasmodesmata are:

(1) Cytoplasmic connections
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(3) Locomotory structures
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

Q.4 Middle lamella is composed mainly of:

(1) Phosphoglycerides (2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose plugs (4) Calcium pectate

Q.5 The plasma membrane consists mainly of:

(1) Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
(2) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(3) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
(4) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

Q.6 Which one of the following structure between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
(1) Plasmalemma (2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Plastoquinones (4) Endoplasmic reticulum

Q.7 Algae have cell wall made up of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins (2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.8 Which one of the following does not differ in [Link] and Chlamydomonas?
(1) Cell membrane (2) Ribosomes
(3) Chromosomal Organisation (4) Cell wall

Q.9 Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane:
(1) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
(2) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
(3) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane
(4) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part

Q.10 The most abundant substance of middle lamella is

(1) Suberin (2) Cutin (3) Lignin (4) Pectin

Q.11 According to Singer and Nicolson concept, cell membrane is

(1) Solid (2) Quasifluid (3) Fluid (4) Solidified sheath

Q.12 Outermost boundary of plant cell is

(1) Cell membrane (2) Tonoplast (3) Cell wall (4) Glycocalyx

Q.13 Proteins present in plasma membrane are classified as integral and peripheral on the basis of :-
(1) Density and size (2) Ease of extraction from membrane
(3) Structure (4) Quantity

Q.14 Which of the following layers is found closest to the cytoplasm?

(1) Middle lamella (2) Primary wall (3) Cell membrane (4) Secondary wall

CYTOPLASM:
➢ Term "Cytoplasm",was given by Strasburger for the part of cell, present between the nucleus and
cell membrane. Cytoplasm can be divided into two parts–
• Ground plasm / Hyaloplasm / Cytosol→ Liquid matrix of cytoplasm except organelles.
• Trophoplasm→ Part of cytoplasm containing organelles & non-living Inclusions (Deutoplasm).

CELL ORGANELLES:
➢ Metabolically active and living structures of cytoplasm are called organelles.
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Functions of mitochondria:
(1) Mitochondria is the site of aerobic respiration. Most of the oxidative metabolism and ATP
production occurs in mitochondria, thus mitochondria is known as power house of cell, where
organic compounds are broken down to release & store metabolic energy in the form of ATP
molecules. (Respiratory metabolism).
(2) Bring about the oxidation of carbohydrates, proteins and -oxidation of fats. Maximum enzymes
are present in Mitochondria.
(3) Participate in photorespiration in mesophyll cells of C3 plant.
(4) Also responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance.

SPOT LIGHT
➢ Mitochondria divide by fission.
➢ The number of mitochondria per cell is variable depending on the physiological activity of
the cells.
➢ Mitochondria is also named as–
(a) Power house of the cell or ATP mill in the cell.
(b) Cell within cell .
(c) Most busy and active organelle in the cell.
(d) Semi–autonomous cell organelle.
(e) Bacterial endosymbiont.

Practice Section-03
Q.1 Hydrolytic enzymes are abundantly found in which cell organelles?
(1) Ribosome (2) Lysosome (3) Oxysome (4) Endoplasmic reticulum

Q.2 Contractile vacuole of Amoeba is related with

(1) Respiration (2) Digestion
(3) Osmoregulation and Excretion (4) Both 1 and 2

Q.3 Oxysomes or F0 - F1 particles occur on

(1) Inner mitochondrial membrane (2) Mitochondrial surface
(3) Thylakoids (4) Chloroplast surface

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.4 Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
(1) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(2) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.
(3) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.
(4) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings.
Q.5 Vacuole in a plant cell:
(1) Lacks membrane and contains air
(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(4) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances

Q.6 Which one of the following has its own DNA?

(1) Peroxisome (2) Mitochondria (3) Dictyosome (4) Lysosome

Q.7 Identify the components labeled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)
given with:
Components:
(i) Cristae of mitochondria
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole
(viii) Nucleus
The correct component are:
(1) A-(i); B-(iv); C- (viii); D- (vi) (2) A-(vi); B-(v); C- (iv); D- (vii)
(3) A-(v); B-(i) ; C- (iii); D- (ii) (4) A-(v); B-(iv); C- (viii); D- (iii)

Q.8 Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is:

(1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Plastid

Q.9 Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system
(1) Vacuole (2) Lysosome (3) Golgi complex (4) Peroxisome
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.10 The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labeled (A), (B), (C)
and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.

(1) Part (C): Cristae – possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
(2) Part (A): Matrix – major site for respiratory chain enzymes
(3) Part (D): Outer membrane – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting
(4) Part (B): Inner membrane – forms infoldings called cristae

Q.11 The scientist, who first observed densely stained reticular structures near the nucleus is
(1) Robet Hooke (2) Robert Brown (3) Strasburger (4) Camillo Golgi

Q.12 The cristae in mitochondria is important because they:-

(1) Increase surface area (2) Decrease surface area
(3) Have fluid in it (4) None of the above

Q.13 Surface of Golgi cisternae towards nucleus is ............. face and towards plasma membrane is
................ face.
(1) trans, cis (2) maturing, forming
(3) maturing, trans (4) cis, maturing

Q.14 The Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum, because -
(1) Materials packaged by Golgi apparatus are transported to the ER
(2) Materials to be packaged by Golgi body transported to the Golgi body from ER
(3) Both Golgi apparatus and ER have cisternae
(4) Both Golgi apparatus and ER possess ribosomes

Q.15 ER divides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments, luminal ............ and extra luminal
............. compartments.
(1) Cytoplasm, inside ER (2) Inside ER, cytoplasm
(3) Nucleus, cytoplasm (4) Inside ER, nucleus

Q.16 Which of the following statements is not correct for the vacuoles ?
(1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in excretion
(2) Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions against the concentration gradient into the cytoplasm
(3) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles
(4) Sap vacuole is bound by a single membrane

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

SPOT LIGHT
➢ Role of nucleus in morphology of plant was first discovered in Acetabularia.
➢ Chromatin fibre represents de-condensed chromosomes, which become condensed at the
time of cell division to form chromosome.
➢ Every chromosome (visible only in dividing cells) essentially has a primary constriction or the
centromere on the sides of which disc shaped structures called kinetochores are present.
➢ The physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms is called
'Reductionist Biology'.

Practice Section-04
Q.1 The membrane of the thylakoids encloses a space called
(1) Lumen (2) Stroma (3) Matrix (4) Grana

Q.2 Which of the following is core of cilia/flagella?

(1) Shaft (2) Basal body (3) Axoneme (4) Basal plate

Q.3 Which is not a plastid?

(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitoplast (3) Chromoplast (4) Leucoplast

Q.4 Which of the following statement regarding cilia is not correct?

(1) Cilia contain an outer of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules.
(2) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane.
(3) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin.

Q.5 Select the wrong statement from the following:

(1) The chloroplast is generally much larger than mitochondria
(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
(3) Both chloroplast and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded
by the thylakoid membrane
(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain DNA

Q.6 Cytoskeleton is made up of:

(1) Proteinaceous constituents (2) Calcium carbonate
(3) Callose deposits (4) Cellulosic microfibrils
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.7 An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures presents in the cytoplasm which helps
in the maintenance of cell shape is called:
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum (2) Plasmalemma
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) Thylakoid
Q.8 Polypeptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in:
(1) Ribosomes (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondria (4) Chromoplast

Q.9 What is true about ribosomes?

(1) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs
(2) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient
(3) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
(4) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
Q.10 Which one of the following structure is an organelle within an organelle?
(1) Ribosome (2) Peroxisome (3) ER (4) Mesosome

Q.11 Which one of the following cellular part(s) is/are correctly described?
(1) Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
(2) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
(3) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S)
(4) Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about 8.5

Q.12 Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in:

(1) Ribosomes (2) Lysosomes (3) Nucleolus (4) Nucleoplasm

Q.13 Which structure is present in chromosomes?

(1) Nucleus (2) Centromere (3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body
Q.14 Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are similar in having-
(a) Two membranes (b) Cristae (c) DNA (d) Ribosomes
(e) Thylakoids
(1) a, c and d (2) a, b and d (3) a and d (4) a, c, d and e

Q.15 The ribosomes of the chloroplasts-

(1) Are smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes
(2) Are bigger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes
(3) Are of similar size to that of cytoplasmic ribosomes
(4) May be bigger or smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.16 Conversion of H2O2 into H2O and O2 occurs in ........ by the enzyme..............
(1) Glyoxysome, Catalase (2) Peroxisome, Urease
(3) Golgi body, Lipase (4) Peroxisome, Catalase

Q.17 Which of the following cellular structure is found only in plant cells?
(1) Peroxisome (2) Glyoxysome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Plasma membrane

Q.18 Which of the following arrangements of microtubules is correct for flagellum?

(1) 9 peripheral singlets + 2 central doublets (2) 9 peripheral triplets + 2 central singlets
(3) 9 peripheral doublets + 2 central singlets (4) 9 peripheral doublets + 2 central triplets

Q.19 Cell organelle which exhibit cart wheel structure in transverse section, :-
(A) Is helpful in cell division in almost all plant cells
(B) Is not covered by any membrane
(C) Is a self duplicating unit
(D) Contain microtubules composed of Dynien protein
(1) A and C are incorrect (2) B and C are correct
(3) Only A is incorrect (4) Only B is correct

Q.20 The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, while the prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S. Here 'S' stands for
.........., it indirectly is a measure of ................
(1) Svedberg unit, number of r-RNA in ribosome
(2) Smooth surface, surface area of ribosome
(3) Shortest organelle, size
(4) Sedimentation coefficient, size and density

Q.21 The interphase nucleus (nucleus of cell when it is not dividing) has highly extended and elaborate
nucleoprotein fibres called :-
(1) Chromatin (2) Nuclear matrix (3) Chromosomes (4) Nucleoli

Q.22 Nucleolus is the site for :-

(1) Protein synthesis (2) Ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) Messenger RNA synthesis (4) Chromatin synthesis

Q.23 Which of the following cells lack the structure discovered by Robert Brown?
(1) Erythrocyte of mammals (2) Sieve tube cells
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Liquid endosperm of coconut

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CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

QUICK FOLLOW UP
Cell theory Unicellular organism Multicellular organism Prokoryotic Cell Eukaryotic cell
• Schleiden and schwann together • Some are composed • Some are composed • Lacks nuclear • An organized
Formulated the cell theory. Rudolf of a single cell and are of many cells are called membrane and nucleus with a
virchow (1855) modified the cell called unicellular multicellular organism several cytoplasmic nuclear envelope
theory and explained that cells come organism • Eg. Plants and Animals organelles. and membrane
from pre-existing cells (omnis cellula- • Eg Amoeba, bacteria • Eg Eubacteria, bound organelles.
e-cellula) Archebacteria • Eg Plants and
• All living organism are composed of Animals cells.
cells and products of cells.
• All cells arise from pre existing cells.
• Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Outer membrane Plastids
Mitochondria • Plastids are found in
Inner membrane • Power house Cell : The Unit of Life all plant cells and in
• Cristae, possess of cell euglenoids.
F0-F1 particle
Chloroplast
Cell wall
Cell envelope Chromoplast
Cell membrane Leucoplast
Endomembrane system Nucleus
Nucleolus
SER Nuclear pores
• In the absence of ribosomes Lysosomes Golgi Apparatus Nuclear membrane
they appear smooth and are Endoplasmic Vacuoles
• Suicidal bags Nucleoplasm
Easy to Learn….

called SER. Reticulum

of cells Chromosomes
Trans face or Metacenttic
RER Contractile vacuole maturing face Sub-metacenttic
• The ER bearing ribosomes Acrocentric
on their surface is called Cis face or
Food vacuole Telocentric

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RER. Forming face
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

INTRODUCTION, CELL THEORY, AN Q.6 Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are
OVERVIEW OF CELL called
Q.1 Find the correct one. (1) Prokaryotic cells
(1) All living organisms are composed of (2) Eukaryotic cells
cells. (3) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(2) Anything less than a complete structure (4) Archaebacterial cells
of a cell does not ensure independent
Q.7 'Schwann' reported that animal cells had a thin
living.
outer layer, which is today known as
(3) Cell is the basic unit of life.
(1) Cell wall
(4) All of the above statements are correct.
(2) Plasma membrane
Q.2 Which is main arena of cellular activities in (3) Nucleus
both plants & animals and various chemical (4) Mitochondria
reactions occurring in it to keep the cell in
Q.8 Incorrect statement is
living state?
(1) Size of typical bacteria → 1-2 µm
(1) Cytoplasm (3) Ribosome
(2) Size of viruses → 0.02-0.2 µm
(2) Nucleoplasm (4) All of the above
(3) Size of Mycoplasma → 0.3 µm
Q.3 Who discovered the cell first? (4) Size of bacteria → 2 to 6 m
(1) G.N Ramachandran
Q.9 'Omnis cellula-e cellula', new cells arise from
(2) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
pre-existing cells; this statement is given by
(3) Robert Hooke
(1) Schleiden and Schwann
(4) Schwann
(2) Rudolf Virchow
Q.4 Which of the following non-membrane (3) Robert Brown
bound cell organelle is present in animal (4) Robert Hooke
cells, that helps in cell division?
Q.10 Ribosomes are non-membrane bound
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts organelles found in
(3) Lysosomes (4) Centrioles (1) Prokaryotic cells only
Q.5 Exception of cell theory is (2) Eukaryotic cells only
(1) Yeast (2) Virus (3) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(3) Animal cell (4) Plant Cell (4) All prokaryotic but in a few eukaryotic cells
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.11 Find the odd out. EUKARYOTIC CELLS:
CELL WALL, CELL MEMBRANE
(1) No organelles, like the ones in Q.15 The model given by Singer and Nicolson in
eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic cells _______ was ______ for plasma membrane.
except for ribosomes. (1) 1982, fluid mosaic model

(2) An extensive compartmentalization of (2) 1992, bilayer model

(3) 1972, fluid mosaic model
cytoplasm through the presence of
(4) 1952, bilayer model
membrane bound organelles is present in a
eukaryotic cell. Q.16 Plasma membrane is:

(3) Nuclear membrane is absent in (1) Semipermeable and symmetric

eukaryotes. (2) Selectively permeable, elastic and

asymmetric
(4) Centrioles help in cell division.
(3) Permeable and asymmetric
Q.12 Several ribosomes may attach to a single (4) Selective permeable with monolayer
mRNA and form a chain called. phospholipids
(1) Inclusion bodies
Q.17 Select the correct combination of the
(2) Pili
statements regarding the characteristics of
(3) Polyribosome/Polysome middle lamella:
(4) All of the above a. It holds the different neighbouring cells

Q.13 Which of the following is similar in respect together.

b. It is composed of magnesium pectate only.
of the structure of chemical compositions in
c. It gets dissolved during ripening of fruits.
both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
(1) a and c (2) b and c
(1) Plastid
(3) Only a (4) a, b and c
(2) Cell wall
Q.18 Depending on the …………, membrane
(3) Plasma membrane
proteins can be classified as integral and
(4) Nucleus
peripheral.
Q.14 Prokaryotic cells are generally _______and
(1) Ease of extraction
multiply________ than the eukaryotic cells. (2) Location
(1) Smaller, slower (2) Larger, slower (3) Bond with lipid bilayer
(3) Smaller, faster (4) Larger, faster (4) Position with polar part of membrane
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.19 Cell membrane is composed of: Q.22 Carbohydrates are present in the
(1) Proteins and cellulose plasmalemma in the form of:
(2) Proteins and phospholipids (1) Hemicellulose (2) Cellulose

(3) Proteins and carbohydrates (3) Starch (4) Glycoprotein

(4) Proteins, phospholipids and some Q.23 Synthesis of cell wall material takes place in:
carbohydrates (1) Dictyosome (2) Mitochondria
(3) Lysosome (4) ER
Q.20 The lipid molecules present in plasma
membrane have polar heads and non-polar Q.24 According to fluid mosaic model (proposed by
tails. Singer & Nicolson) plasma membrane is
composed of:
Polar head
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose
Non-polar tail (2) Phospholipid and integrated protein
Which figure represents the correct (3) Phospholipid, extrinsic protein, intrinsic

arrangement of lipids in lipid bilayer? protein

(4) Phospholipid and hemicellulose

(1) (2) Q.25 Carbohydrates which are present in the cell

membrane take part in:
(1) Transport of substance
(2) Cell recognition
(3) (4)
(3) Attachment to microfilament
(4) Attachment to microtubules
Q.21 Which of the following statement is incorrect
about the plasma membrane? Q.26 Plasma membrane is fluid structure due to
(1) The ratio of proteins and lipids varies presence of:

considerably in different cell types (1) Carbohydrate (2) Lipid

(2) 52% proteins are present in the (3) Glycoprotein (4) Polysaccharide

membrane of human RBCs Q.27 The most abundant lipid in cell membrane
(3) The arrangement of protein (P) and lipids are:
(L) is L-P-P-L. (1) Cutin (2) Cholesterol
(4) The head of phospho lipid is hydrophilic (3) Steroids (4) Phospholipids
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.28 The chemical substance abundantly present Q.35 Ingestion of large molecules by animal cell is
in middle lamella is: called:
(1) Cutin (2) Chitin (1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis
(3) Lignin (4) Pectin (3) Exocytosis (4) Endocytosis

Q.29 Which of following boundary is capable of Q.36 The property that plasma membrane exhibits
growth, which gradually diminishes as the cell for external substances is :-
matures? (1) Impermeability
(1) Primary cell wall (2) Semi permeability
(2) Secondary cell wall (3) Permeability
(3) Tertiary cell wall (4) Selective permeability
(4) Cell membrane
Q.37 In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane:
Q.30 The fluid nature of the membrane indicates (1) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
function of: (2) Polar layer is hydrophobic
(1) Cell growth (2) Cell division (3) Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer
(3) Endocytosis (4) All the above in middle part

Q.31 Amphipathic molecule in plasma membrane is: (4) Proteins form a middle layer

(1) Protein (2) Carbohydrates Q.38 According to widely accepted "fluid mosaic
(3) Phospholipids (4) All the above model" cell membranes are semi–fluid,

Q.32 Cell wall of algae is made up of: where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse
(1) Chitin randomly. In recent years, this model has
(2) Cellulose been modified in several respects. In this
(3) Peptidoglycan regard, which of the following statement is
(4) Cellulose, Galactans, mannan, Calcium incorrect:
carbonate (1) Proteins can also undergo flip–flop
Q.33 Na+/K+ pump is an example of movements in the lipid bilayer.
(1) Diffusion (2) Active transport (2) Many proteins remain completely
(3) Osmosis (4) Passive transport embedded within the lipid bilayer.

Q.34 Ingestion of solid food by plasma membranes (3) Proteins in cell membranes can travel
is called: within the lipid bilayer.
(1) Endosmosis (2) Pinocytosis (4) Proteins can remain confined within
(3) Cytokinesis (4) Phagocytosis certain domains of the membranes.
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.39 The main lipid components of the plant cell Q.44 In eubacteria, a cellular component that
membrane are: resembles eukaryotic cell is :-

(1) Phosphodiesters (1) Plasma membrane

(2) Glycocalyx (2) Nucleus

(3) Ribosomes
(3) Peptidoglycan
(4) Cell wall
(4) Phosphoglycerides
CYTOPLASM, ENDOMEMBRANE SYSTEM –
Q.40 Which one is false about osmosis?
(ER, GOLGICOMPLEX, LYSOSOME,
(1) It is specific form of diffusion
VACUOLE) MITOCHONDRIA
(2) It refers to the movement of water along
Q.45 A cell organelle ‘X’ is divided into two types
concentration gradient on the basis of a cell organelle ‘Y’, that helps
(3) It is a passive movement of water in the protein synthesis. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(4) It occurs through a carrier protein and respectively:
needs ATP (1) Golgi complex and ribosome
(2) ER and mitochondria
Q.41 Carbohydrates are present in the
(3) ER and ribosomes
plasmalemma in the form of :-
(4) Lysosome and ER
(1) Hemicellulose (2) Cellulose
Q.46 A number of proteins synthesised by
(3) Starch (4) Glycoprotein
ribosomes present on the ER are
Q.42 Carbohydrates which are present in the cell
transferred to:
membrane take part in :- (1) Vacuoles (2) Lysosome
(1) Transport of substance (3) Plastids (4) Golgi apparatus
(2) Cell recognition
Q.47 Which of the following cell organelle is
(3) Attachment to microfilament
involved in the synthesis of the cell organelle
(4) Attachment to microtubules
that contains hydrolytic enzymes?
Q.43 Plasmodesmata are :- (1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus

(1) Connections between adjacent cells (3) Plastids (4) Nucleus

(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells Q.48 Which cell organelle reduces the number of
(3) Locomotory structures other organelles?
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with (1) Oxysome (2) Mesosome
plasmalemma (3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.49 In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport Q.54 Golgi body originates from:
of a number of ions and other materials: (1) ER (2) Mitochondria
(1) Against concentration gradient into
(3) Nucleus (4) Pro-plastid
vacuole
(2) Along concentration gradient into Q.55 Which of the following cell organelle is present

vacuole in the highest number in secretory cells?

(3) Along concentration gradient into gas (1) Lysosome
vacuoles (2) Mitochondria
(4) Against concentration gradient in
(3) Golgi complex
contractile vacuole
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.50 Maximum enzymes are found in:
Q.56 Acrosome of sperm is derived from:
(1) Lysosomes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus (4) ER (1) Golgi vesicle (2) Lysosome

(3) Golgi tubule (4) Cisternae

Q.51 Rough ER is mainly responsible for:
(1) Protein synthesis Q.57 Which cell organelle synthesizes steroids?
(2) Cell wall formation
(1) SER (2) Golgi body
(3) Lipid synthesis
(3) RER (4) Lysosomes
(4) Cholesterol synthesis
Q.58 What would happen if lysosomes get
Q.52 Besides producing secretory vesicles, the
function of Golgi Body is: ruptured inside the cells, in which they are

(1) Lysosome formation present?

(2) Formation of spindle fibers (1) Cells will swell

(3) Formation of ER (2) Cells will die
(4) All of the above
(3) Cells will shrink
Q.53 Enzymes for ETS occur in (mitochondria):
(4) Nothing would happen
(1) Matrix
Q.59 Power house of cell is:
(2) Outer wall
(3) Inner membrane (1) Nucleus (2) DNA

(4) Between inner & outer membrane (3) Mitochondria (4) ATP
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.60 Proteins destined to be secreted move Q.64 Which cell organelle is site of aerobic
through the secretory pathway in which of the respiration?

following orders? (1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi–body

(3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosome
(1) Rough ER →smooth ER → Transport
vesicle → Golgi Cisternae →secretory Q.65 In which types of cells, lysosomes are
abundantly found:
vesicle → cell surface
(1) Storage cell (2) Glandular cell
(2) Rough ER → Transport vesicle → Golgi
(3) Phagocytic cell (4) Vasicular cell
Cisternae → secretory vesicle → cell
Q.66 Chemical modification of substance like
surface
glycosylation of lipid and protein mainly
(3) Golgi Cisternae→ Transport vesicle → occur in:
Smooth ER→ secretory vesicle → cell (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
surface (2) Golgi body

(4) Golgi Cisternae → Transport vesicle → (3) Lysosome

(4) Ribosome
rough ER → secretory vesicle → cell
Q.67 Which of the following feature is present in
surface
mitochondria?
Q.61 Elementary particles of mitochondria are: (1) Linear DNA, 70S ribosome
(1) F1 particles (2) Ribosomes (2) Circular DNA, ds DNA, 70S ribosome
(3) DNA (4) Lysosomes (3) Circular DNA, glycogen synthesis
(4) Circular DNA, single stranded DNA, 70S
Q.62 Where does TCA cycle takes place?
ribosome
(1) Cytoplasm
Q.68 Cisternae of Golgi apparatus has diameter of
(2) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(1) 0.5 m-1.0m (2) 0.5 nm-1.0 nm
(3) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(3) 5 m-1 m (4) 0.5 nm-3.0nm
(4) Mitochondrial matrix
Q.69 The Golgi components are bound by:
Q.63 Which of the following sets of cell organelles
(1) Single unit membrane
contain DNA?
(2) Double unit membrane
(1) Mitochondria, peroxisome (3) Cisternae by single, tubules and vacuole
(2) Plasma membrane, ribosome by double membranes
(3) Mitochondria, chloroplast (4) Cisternae and tubules by single and
(4) Chloroplast, dictyosome vacuole by double membrane
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.70 The innermost portion of a mature plant cell Q.76 The nuclear membrane originates from:
wall is the – (1) ER (2) Golgi cisternae
(1) Primary cell (3) Golgi vesicle (4) Lysosome
(2) Plasma membrane
Q.77 RER is well developed in cell engaged in the
(3) Secondary cell wall
synthesis of:
(4) Plasmodesmata
(1) Steroids (2) Fats
Q.71 The cell organelle having abundance of (3) Vitamin (4) Proteins
oxidizing enzymes is:
Q.78 The endomembrane system does not include:
(1) Golgi body
(1) Mitochondria (2) ER
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosomes (4) Vacuoles
(3) Centrioles
Q.79 Which cell organelle takes part in the
(4) Mitochondria
formation of lysosomes?
Q.72 Polymorphic cell organelles is:
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Ribosome (2) Lysosome
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus
(3) Both 1and 2
Q.73 Functional unit of protein synthesis in (4) Mitochondria
mitochondria is: Q.80 Mitochondrial matrix possesses:
(1) Dictyosome (2) Ribosome (1) Enzymes of Krebs cycle and protein
(3) Peroxisome (4) Lysosome synthesis

Q.74 ATP synthase activity occur in: (2) Formation of Leucocytes

(1) Head of F1–particle (3) Enzyme of Calvin cycle

(2) Stalk of F1–particle (4) None of these

(3) Base of F1–particle Q.81 Suicidal bags of cells are:

(4) All of the above (1) Endoplasmic reticulum

Q.75 Cell membrane is selective permeable. This (2) Lysosome

means that it – (3) Golgi bodies

(1) Allows all material to pass through (4) Vacuoles

(2) Allows only water to pass through Q.82 Synthesis of lipids is the function of
(3) Allows only certain material to pass through (1) SER (2 RER
(4) Allows only ions to pass through (3) Golgi body (4) Lysosome
Page | 48
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.83 Which of the following are involved in PLASTIDS, RIBOSOME, CYTOSKELETON,
Endomembrane system? CILIA & FLAGELLA, CENTROSOME
(1) ER (2) Lysosome [CENTRIOLES] MICROBODIES
(3) Golgi body (4) All the above
Q.89 Which is correct option amongst the
Q.84 A single unit membrane organelle is: following statements?
(1) Ribosome (2) Mitochondria
a. Nuclear membrane, chloroplast,
(3) Chloroplast (4) Lysosome
mitochondria, microtubules are absent in
Q.85 Cisternae is found in: prokaryotic cells.
(1) Only mitochondria
b. Nuclear membrane, chloroplast,
(2) Only Endoplasmic Reticulum
mitochondria, microtubules and pili are
(3) Endoplasmic Reticulum and Golgi body
present in eukaryotic cells.
(4) Only Golgi body
c. Ribosomes are 70S in prokaryotic cells
Q.86 Semiautonomous cell organelle is :-
chloroplast and mitochondria. They are
(1) Mitochondria
80S in animal cells.
(2) Ribosome
(1) a and b are wrong, c is correct
(3) Golgi body
(4) Peroxisome (2) a is correct, b and c are wrong

(3) a and b are correct, c is wrong

Q.87 Ground substance present inside the
(4) a and c are correct, b is wrong
mitochondria is called :-
(1) Stroma Q.90 Which of the following cell organelle is non-
(2) Matrix
membrane bound and found in both
(3) Cell sap
prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
(4) Cytoplasm
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome
Q.88 Cristae are found in :-
(3) Centrioles (4) Mitochondria
(1) Surface of grana
Q.91 Thylakoids are present in:
(2) Surface of plasma membrane.
(3) Membrane of Mitochondria (1) Aleuroplast (2) Elaioplast

(4) Nuclear Membrane (3) Chloroplast (4) Amyloplast

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.92 Which of the following statement is Q.98 All the following statements are correct,
incorrect w.r.t. ribosomes? except:
(1) The type of ribosomes of prokaryotes (1) Outer surface of SER is smooth due to

is 70S lack of ribosomes

(2) Ribosomes were discovered by George (2) Ribosome is single membrane bounded

Palade (3) The ER-bound ribosomes synthesise

(3) They are made up of RNA only secretory, membrane and lysosomal
protein
(4) Ribosomes are also known as protein
(4) Ribosome when associated with ER are
factories
attached with their 60S sub-unit
Q.93 Microbodies are:
Q.99 Larger subunit of ribosome is dome shaped
(1) Membrane bound minute vesicles
and attached to ER by:
(2) Non-membrane bound organelles
(1) Ribophorins (2) Amino acid
(3) Present only in animals
(3) Ca+2 (4) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Present only in plants
Q.100 (a) granular structure
Q.94 Organelle lacking DNA, but capable of
(b) first observed under the electron
duplication is: microscope as dense particles by George
(1) Ribosome (2) Centriole Palade
(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus (c) composed of RNA and proteins
Q.95 The leucoplasts, that store proteins are:
(d) not surrounded by any membrane
(1) Amyloplasts (2) Elaioplasts
Above given statements are true for which
(3) Aleuroplasts (4) Glyceroplasts cell organelle?
Q.96 In eubacteria, a cellular component that (1) Nucleolus (2) Ribosomes
resembles eukaryotic cell is (3) Cristae (4) Chloroplast

(1) Cell wall (2) Plasma membrane

Q.101 Factory for synthesis of sugars in
(3) Nucleus (4) Ribosome
autotrophic eukaryotes is:
Q.97 Which is also known as organelle with in (1) Mitochondria
organelle? (2) Ribosome
(1) Lysosome (2) Mitochondrion (3) Chloroplast
(3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosome (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.102 Plastids which store fats and oils are called: Q.108 Which of the following type of plastid does
(1) Aleuroplast (2) Amyloplast not contain stored food material.
(3) Etioplast (4) Elaioplast (1) Amyloplasts (2) Chromoplasts
(3) Elaioplasts (4) Aleuroplasts
Q.103 Which one is correct –
(1) In Amoeba, contractile vacuole is Q.109 Arrangement of microtubules in
important for excretion and centriole is:
osmoregulation (1) 9 + 2 (2) 2 + 9
(2) In many cells as in protists, food (3) 11 + 0 (4) 9 + 0
vacuoles are formed by engulfing the
Q.110 Non pigmented part of chloroplast is called:
food particles (1) Thylakoids (2) Grana
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) Stroma (4) Lamellae
(4) Vacuole is always large sized in all cells
Q.111 Which of following is not common in
of plants
chloroplasts & mitochondria?
Q.104 "Palade particles" are: (1) Both are present in animal cells
(1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi vesicles (2) Both contain their own genetic material
(3) Lysosomes (4) Spherosomes (3) Both are present in eukaryotic cells
(4) Both are present in plant cells
Q.105 The central part of the proximal region of
the centriole is Q.112 70s type of ribosomes is found in:
(1) Prokaryotic cells only
(1) Radial spokes
(2) Prokaryotic cells, chloroplasts and
(2) Glycolipid hub
mitochondria
(3) Proteinaceous hub
(3) Mitochondria only
(4) Centrosome
(4) Nucleus, mitochondria only
Q.106 Polysome structure is related to:
Q.113 Cilia and flagella arise from:
(1) Glyoxisomes (2) Phagosomes
(1) Basal bodies (2) Basal granules
(3) Microsomes (4) Ribosomes
(3) Blepharoplasts (4) All of the above
Q.107 Function of centrosome is:
Q.114 Cell organelle which is called cell engine is:
(1) Initiation of cell division
(1) Ribosome
(2) Inhibition of cell division
(2) Lysosome
(3) Termination of cell division (3) Vacuoles
(4) Cytokinesis (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.115 Plastids are found in Q.119 Which of these is not a function of Golgi
(1) All animal cells apparatus?
(2) All plant cells and Euglenoids (1) Site of synthesis of glycoproteins and
(3) Some animal cells
glycolipids
(4) All plant cells
(2) Secretion
Q.116 Cilia and flagella both have: (3) Synthesis of lysosomes and vesicles
(1) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules (4) Site of protein synthesis
(2) Protective structure of cells
(3) Only present in protozoa Animals Q.120 Which one of the following cellular parts is
(4) Only outgrowth structure of cytoplasm correctly described?

Q.117 Which of the following pair lack the unit (1) Thylakoids – flatted membranous sacs
membrane? forming the grana of chloroplasts
(1) Nucleus &ER (2) Centrioles – sites for active RNA
(2) Mitochondria & chloroplast synthesis
(3) Ribosome & nucleolus
(3) Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are
(4) Golgi body & lysosome
large (80s) while those in the cytoplasm
Q.118 Three of the following statements regarding
are smaller (70s)
cell organelles are correct while one is
(4) Lysosomes –Optimally active at a pH of
wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) Lysosomes are double membraned about 8.5

vesicles budded off form Golgi apparatus

Q.121 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in -
and contain digestive enzymes.
(1) Grana
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a
network of membranous tubules and (2) Only in stroma thylakoids

helps in transport, synthesis and secretion. (3) Stroma

(3) Leucoplasts are bound by two (4) Both grana and stroma
membranes lack pigment but contain
Q.122 In higher plants, the chloroplasts are :-
their own DNA and protein
(1) Discoidal or oval
synthesizing machinery.
(4) Spherosomes are single membrane (2) Spiral

bound and are associated with synthesis (3) Cup shaped

and storage of lipids. (4) Reticulate
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.123 During germination of seeds which cell NUCLEUS AND CHROMOSOME
organelle converts fatty acid into soluble Q.130 Chromatin consists of
carbohydrate ? (1) DNA only

(1) Peroxisome (2) Glyoxysome (2) DNA + RNA + Histones + Non-histones

(3) Golgi body (4) Lysosome (3) DNA + Histones only
(4) Ribonucleoproteins only
Q.124 DNA is not found in :-
(1) Nucleus (2) Mitochondria Q.131 Find out the correct option on the basis of
(3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosome following diagrams:
A
Q.125 Self duplication does not occur in :-
C
(1) Mitochondria (2) Centrioles B
D
(3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosome

Q.126 In which of the following tubulin protein is

not present?
(1) A – Satellite, B – Secondary constriction,
(1) Plasma membrane
C – Short arm, D – Long arm
(2) Cilia
(2) A – Satellite, B – Centromere, C – Short
(3) Flagella
arm, D – Long arm
(4) Microtubules
(3) A – Secondary constriction, B – Satellite,
Q.127 The peroxisomes are associated with the C – Long arm, D – Short arm
phenomenon of :- (4) A – NOR, B – Secondary constriction,
(1) Krebs cycle C – Short arm, D – Long arm
(2) Degradation of H2O
Q.132 The accompanying diagram shows a
(3) Anaerobic respiration
chromosome
(4) Photorespiration and degradation of
H2O2

Q.128 Basal body is :-

(1) Centriole like (2) Plastid like Which of the following tables refers
(3) Ribosome like (4) Mitochondria like correctly to the chromosome?
No. of No. of No. of
Q.129 In which one of the following would you
centromere Kinetochore arms
expect to find glyoxysomes ?
(1) 2 1 4
(1) Endosperm of wheat
(2) 1 2 4
(2) Endosperm of castor
(3) 2 2 4
(3) Palisade cells in leaf
(4) 1 2 2
(4) Root hairs
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.133 Nucleolus in Eukaryotic cell is: Q.138 Part of chromosome after secondary
(1) Nonliving constriction is called:
(2) Visible at Metaphase (1) Chromomere
(3) Bounded by a membrane (2) Telomere

(4) The site of packaging of r-RNA with (3) Satellite

proteins (4) Nucleolar organiser

Q.134 The accompanying diagram shows a Q.139 If the centromere is sub–median, the two
arms are unequal then the chromosome is
chromosome. A is –
called as:
A
(1) Metacentric (2) Submetacentric
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
(1) Centromere (2) kinetochore
Q.140 Which of the following scientist gave the
(3) Chromosome (4) Chromocentric
term chromatin ?
Q.135 Highest arm ratio occur in which (1) Robert Brown (2) Virchow
chromosome: (3) Flemming (4) Palade
(1) Telocentric (2) Metacentric
Q.141 Choose the incorrect pair.
(3) Submetacentric (4) Acrocentric
(1) Histones-Basic proteins
Q.136 The outer membrane of nucleus remains (2) Centromere-Primary constriction

continuous with which cell organelle? (3) Kinetochore- Disc-shaped structure

(1) Golgi body (4) Prokaryotic DNA- Contain histone protein

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum Q.142 Choose the false statement –

(3) Lysosomes (1) Centrosome – Cytoplasmic structure of
(4) Mitochondria animal cells
(2) Centrioles help in formation of spindle
Q.137 The chromatin material which takes darker
in animal cells
stain in interphase is called: (3) Centrioles – membrane less, but
(1) Euchromatin surrounding by amorphous
(2) Heterochromatin pericentriolar bodies.
(3) Primary constriction (4) Centrosome occurs in every animal
(4) Satellite body cells and most of the plants cells
Page | 54
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.143 Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs: Q.147 The protein nucleoplasmin occurs on :-
(1) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as (1) Nuclear pore
well as in mitochondria
(2) Sieve cells
(2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus
(3) Nucleolus
as well as in cytoplasm
(4) Heterochromatin
(3) Only on ribosomes attached to the
nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
Q.148 Salivary gland chromosome is concerned
reticulum
with :-
(4) Only on the ribosomes present in
(1) Vitellogenesis
cytosol
(2) Formation of ribosomes
Q.144 The inner and outer nuclear membranes
(3) Lipid synthesis
of nuclear envelope can be differentiated
in that– (4) Metamorphosis in some insects

(1) Inner membrane has ribosomes

Q.149 Part of chromosome after secondary
(2) Outer membrane has ribosomes
constriction is called :-
(3) Outer membrane is continuous with the ER
(4) Both 2 and 3 (1) Centromere

(2) Telomere
Q.145 Nucleolar organizer region is a :-
(3) Satellite
(1) Primary constriction
(2) Secondary constriction (4) Nucleolar organiser region
(3) Tertiary constriction
Q.150 Hetero-chromatin is :-
(4) Centriole
(1) Darkly stained part of chromatin
Q.146 The non-sticky chromosomal ends are
(2) Lightly stained part of chromatin
known as-
(3) Lightly stained part of grana
(1) Chromatids (2) Centromeres
(3) Satellites (4) Telomeres (4) Scattered lobes in cytoplasm

Page | 55
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

RANKER'S STUFF
Q.1 Consider the following five statements (A to E) Q.3 Which of the following statement is
w.r.t. chloroplast shown below. Select the incorrect about Golgi apparatus?
correct option stating which ones are True (T) (1) It help in formation of acrosome of
and which ones are False (F). sperm.
AA
(2) Secretion is the main function of the
BB
C
C Golgi complex
(3) It helps in glycosylation of lipids and
D
D
proteins
EE (4) Golgi body helps in animal cytokinesis
A. It is impermeable and lacks porins. Q.4 Identify the correct statements w.r.t. the
B. It is selectively permeable, having carrier given cell:
proteins for transport.
C. Stacked thylakoids one over the other, B
B
which is site of light reaction. C
D. Present between two grana and contains
AA
enzymes of dark reaction.
E. It contains enzymes for the synthesis of
sugar and proteins. D
D

(1) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-T, E-T E

E
FF
(2) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-F, E-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-T, E-T A. Concerned with lipid and steroid
(4) A-T, B-F, C-F, D-T, E-T hormone synthesis.
Q.2 Consider the following statements and B. Outer non-living rigid structure which
choose the incorrect option: gives shape to the cell and protects from
a. Large and more numerous nucleoli are mechanical damage and infection.
present in cells actively carrying out C. Both lie perpendicular to each other and
protein synthesis. each has an organisation like the cart wheel.
b. Nuclear pores allow bidirectional D. Responsible for trapping light energy for
movement of molecules the synthesis of sugar.
c. Cytoskeleton is a glycolipid structure for E. Present in cells actively involved in
mechanical support, motility and
protein synthesis.
maintenance of the shape of the cell.
F. Spherical structures, rich in hydrolytic
d. Steroidal hormones are synthesized by
enzymes.
Golgi complex.
(1) A, D and E (2) B, C and D
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) A, C and E (4) A, B, C and E
(3) c and d (4) a and d
Page | 56
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.5 ............. was a German scientist, who Q.8 The fluid nature of the membrane is also
observed that all plant tissues are made up of important from the point of view of

cells. At the same time ..........., German functions like:

scientist studied different type of animal (i) Cell growth

cells. Though he was able to observe the (ii) Formation of intercellular junctions
(iii) Secretions
nuclei, but he could not locate the cell wall,
(iv) Endocytosis (v) Cell division
he examined and realised that cell wall forms
(1) i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, v
a unique character of plants.
(3) i, iii, iv, v (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(1) Rudolf Virchow and Nageli respectively
(2) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Q.9 Identify the components labelled A, B, C, D

Schwann respectively and E in the diagram (cell membrane) below

(3) Theodore Schwann and Mathias from the list (i) to (vii) given along with:

Schleiden respectively A B
D
(4) Robert Hooke and Purkinje respectively
E
Q.6 Who proposed "cell lineage theory" by
stating "Omnis cellula e cellula"?
C
(1) Karl Nageli
Components:
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(i) Sugar
(3) Schwann (ii) Peripheral protein
(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (iii) Cholesterol
(iv) Phospholipid bilayer
Q.7 .......can not pass through the lipid bilayer,
(v) Integral protein
they require a carrier protein of the
(vi) Cell wall
membrane to facilitate their transport across
(vii) Protein
the membrane:
The correct components are:
(1) Nonpolar molecules
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) Polar molecules (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(3) Hydrophobic molecules (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(vi)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(vii), E-(v)
Page | 57
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.10 The figure given below show the structure of Q.13 Identify the components labelled A, B, C, D,
plasma membrane, with its parts labelled E and F in the diagram below from the list (i)
from A to E, Identify the correct:
to (vi) given alongwith:
A B
D A
F B
E

C
(1) A → 52 percent of erythrocyte membrane
D
(2) B → Movement of this measures fluidity
E
of membrane C
(3) C → Help in faciliated transport of polar Components
molecules
(i) SER (ii) Ribosome
(4) D → Its polar tail contain saturated
hydrocarbon (iii) Nucleus (iv) Cytoplasm
Q.11 Which is not the function of cell wall? (v) Nuclear pore (vi) RER
I. Provides shape to the cell
The correct components are:
II. Protects the cell from mechanical damage
(1) A-(v), B-(i), C-(vi), D-(iv), E-(ii), F-(iii)
and infection
III. Helps in cell to cell interaction (2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(vi), E-(v), F-(iv)
IV. Provides barrier to undesirable (3) A-(iii), B-(vi), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iv), F-(v)
macromolecules (4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(vi), E-(v), F-(iv)
V. Osmosis
(1) Only III Q.14 Which cell organelle divides the intracellular
(2) Only IV space into two distinct compartments, i.e.
(3) Only II, III and IV
luminal (inside) and extra luminal
(4) Only V
(cytoplasm) compartments?
Q.12 The endomembrane system includes:
(1) Golgibody
(1) ER, Lysosomes and Golgi body only
(2) Mitochondria
(2) ER, and Golgi body only
(3) ER and Lysosomes only (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) ER, Lysosomes, Golgi body and vacuoles (4) Lysosome
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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.15 Labell-A is representing: Q.20 Cristae are infoldings of ............ , present
A
toward the ................
(1) E and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) F and D

Q.21 Single, circular DNA molecule is found in:

(1) B (2) D
(3) E (4) C
(1) Cristae (2) Saccule
Q.22 Labelled-D contains:
(3) Cisternae (4) Columns
(A) A few RNA molecules
Q.16 Membrane bound vesicular structures formed
(B) 70s ribosome
by the process of packaging in the Golgi
(C) Enzymes
apparatus and filled with hydrolytic enzymes,
(D) Circular DNA
are called:
(1) B, D (2) A, B, D
(1) Vacuoles (2) Transitional vesicles
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C, D
(3) Lysosomes (4) Centrosome

Q. No. 17 to 22 are based on same diagram B

D
E Q.23 C
C B
D A A

The given diagram shows the sectional view of

a chloroplast. In which of the following all the
four parts labelled as A, B, C, D are correctly

Q.17 Which represents aqueous compartments? identified?

(1) A, B (2) D, C (1) A-Cytoplasm, B-Thylakoid, C-Stroma,

(3) A, D (4) B, D D-Granum

(2) A-Stroma, B-Granum, C-Stroma lamella,
Q.18 What is the average value of labelled F?
D-Thylakoid
(1) 0.2 µm (2) 0.5 µm
(3) A-Stroma lamella, B-Thylakoid, C-Stroma,
(3) 1.0 µm (4) 4.1 µm
D-Granum
Q.19 Which component has F1 particles? (4) A-Cytoplasm, B-Granum, C-Thylakoid,
(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) C D-Stromalamella
Page | 59
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.24 In below diagram, which part contains Q.27 Given diagram showing flagellum's internal

enzymes required for carbohydrates and structure. In which of the following all the
four parts labelled as A, B, C and D are
protein synthesis?
correctly identified?

B A
A
D
C BB

(1) In B part (2) In C part C

C
D
D
(3) In A part (4) In D part A B C D
Peripheral Central Central
(1) Bridge
microtubules tubule microtubule
Q.25 Which statement is correct for both
Central Radial Peripheral
(2) Bridge
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? microtubule spoke microtubules
Peripheral Central Central Radial
(1) Prokaryotic cells are genetically much (3)
microtubules sheath microtubule spoke
Radial Central Central Peripheral
larger than eukaryotic cells (4)
spoke sheath microtubule microtubules
(2) Only Eukaryotic cells have ribosomes
Q.28 Find incorrect statement with regard to
(3) Both have DNA as genetic material centrosome and centrioles:
(4) Eukaryotic cells have plasma membranes (a) Centrosomes are surrounded by
amorphous pericentriolar material
and prokaryotic cells do not
(b) In centrosome, both centrioles lie parallel
Q.26 An elaborate network of filamentous to each other in which each has an

proteinaceous structures present in the organisation like the cartwheel

(c) Centrioles are made up of nine evenly
cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of
spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin
cell shape is called:
(d) Hub is the central proteinaceous part of
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum centriole

(2) Plasmalemma (e) Proteinaceous radial spokes connect hub

to peripheral triplets
(3) Thylakoid
(1) a, b, e (2) only b
(4) Cytoskeleton (3) b, c (4) All are correct
Page | 60
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.29 Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct Q.33 Regarding to endoplasmic reticulum which
network of nucleoprotein fibres called of the following statements is wrong?
chromatin, but during different stages of cell
(1) ER divides the intra cellular space into
division, cells show "structured
two distinct compartments
chromosomes" in place of the:
(2) RER frequently observed in cells actively
(1) Nucleus (2) Nucleosome
(3) Solenoid (4) Plasmosome involved in secretion
(3) In animals steroidal hormones are
Q.30 Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Nuclear matrix or nucleoplasm contains synthesized in RER
nucleolus and chromatin.
(4) SER is the major site of lipid synthesis
(b) Outer nuclear membrane usually remains
continuous with the ER and also bears Q.34 Golgi complex receives proteins for

ribosomes on it. modification from RER at which face ?

(c) Small and less number of nucleoli are (1) Cis face
present in cells actively carrying out (2) Trans face
protein synthesis
(3) Concave face
(1) a and b (2) only a
(4) Maturing face
(3) a, and c (4) b and c

Q.31 Which of the following is essential for living Q.35 Chloroplast of higher plants contains
cells? (1) Only chlorophyll
(1) Flagella (2) Capsule (2) Only carotenoids
(3) Cell wall (4) Cell membrane
(3) Both chlorophyll and carotenoids
Q.32 According to fluid-mosaic model, the quasi- (4) Phycobillins
fluid nature of ............ enables lateral
movement of ............ within the overall Q.36 Regarding to cilia and flagella which of the

bilayer. This ability to move within the following statements is incorrect?

membrane is measured as its... (1) Cilia is small and flagella is long
(i) Carbohydrates (ii) Lipids (2) Cilia can move either cell or surrounding
(iii) Proteins (iv) Fluidity
fluid
(v) Selective permeability
(3) Flagella is responsible for movement of
Correct sequence is :-
(1) ii, iii, iv (2) iii, i, iv surrounding fluid

(3) iii, ii, v (4) i, ii, iv (4) Cilia work like oars
Page | 61
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.37 (A) Unicellular organisms are capable of Q.40 Vacuole in a plant cell :-
independent existence.
(1) Lacks membrane and contains air
(B) Cell is the fundamental structural and
functional unit of all unicellular (2) Lacks membrane and contains water and
organisms only.
excretory substances
(C) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(D) The cytoplasm is the main arena of (3) Is membrane-bound and contains storage
cellular activities of cells.
proteins and lipids
Options :-
(1) Statements À, C and D are correct (4) is membrane-bound and contains water
(2) Statements A, B and D are not correct
and excretory substances
(3) Statements A, B and C are correct
(4) Statements B, C and D are not correct
Q.41 The figure below shows the structure of a
Q.38 Which one of the following statements is not
correct for the vacuoles ? mitochondrion with its four parts labelled
(1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in
excretion (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the part correctly
(2) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing matched with its function.
the food particles
(3) Sap vacuole is bound by tonoplast
(4) Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions
against the concentration gradient into
cytoplasm
Q.39 Which of the following is true for
mitochondria? (1) Part (A): Matrix major site for respiratory
(A) Mitochondrial ribosome is smaller than
prokaryotic ribosome chain enzymes
(B) Single stranded circular DNA is present (2) Part (D): Outer membrane - gives rise to
in matrix
(C) Protein synthesis occurs in mitochondrial inner membrane by splitting

matrix (3) Part (B) : Inner membrane forms

(D) Outer membrane is highly folded and
infoldings called cristae
form cristae.
Options :- (4) Part (C): Cristae - possess single circular
(1) A, C and D only (2) A, B and D only
DNA molecule and ribosomes
(3) Only C (4) A and D only
Page | 62
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.42 Which one of the following cellular parts is Q.45 A student done the cell fractionation of a
correctly described ? tissue and forgot to label his tubes. The

(1) Ribosomes those on chloroplasts are content of one tube when studied showed
organelles bounded by membrane with
larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm
activity of catalase enzyme. These
are smaller (70s)
organelles could be :-
(2) Lysosomes-optimally active at a pH of (1) SER (2) Chloroplast
about 8.5 (3) Lysosome (4) Peroxisome
(3) Thylakoids-flattened membranous sacs Q.46 (a) Minute vesicles
forming the grana of chloroplasts (b) Membrane bound
(4) Centrioles-site for active RNA synthesis (c) Contain enzymes
(d) Present in plants and animals
Q.43 Which of the following are correct for the cell
Above statements are correct for:
which has naked ds circular DNA?
(1) Plastids (2) Microbodies
(a) Both 70S and 80S ribosomes (3) Nucleoli (4) Satellite bodies
(b) Histone absent
Q.47 Cilia are different from flagella:
(c) Compartmentalisation of cytoplasm (A) In having small size
absent (B) In having non coordinated movement
(d) Always diploid (C) In taking part in attachment, feeding and
Options :- sensation
(D) In number of microtubules
(1) a and d (2) b and c
(E) In working like oars
(3) a and c (4) b and d
Choose the correct option:
Q.44 Which of the following is/are function(s) of (1) A, C and E (2) A, C, D and E
Golgi complex ? (3) A, B, C, D and E (4) B and D
(I) Modification of lipids and proteins Q.48 A researcher made an observation about a
(II) Detoxification protein made by ribosome and eventually
(III) Formation of acrosome used to build a cell’s plasma membrane. The
(IV) Glycogen synthesis & breakdown protein in the membrane was actually slightly
different from the protein made by ribosome.
Choose the correct option –
The protein probably passed through:
(1) I and II are incorrect
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(2) I and III are correct (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) II is incorrect and remaining are correct (3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) II and III are incorrect (4) Ribosomes
Page | 63
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.49 If living cells, similar to those found on earth, Q.54 How many of the following is observed in the
were found on another planet, where there interphase nucleus?
was no oxygen, which cell organelle would Chromatid, Nucleosome, Centriole,
most probably be absent? Nucleolus, Centromere, Kinetochore
(1) Ribosomes
(1) Three (2) One
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Four (4) Two
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Endoplasmic Reticulum MATCH THE COLUMNS QUESTIONS

Q.50 Plant and prokaryotic cells are similar with Q.55 Match the column–I with column–II and
each other but differ from animal cells: select the correct answer:
(1) In possessing 70S ribosomes Column-I Column-II
(2) In possessing cell wall
(A) Mitochondria (i) Flat membranous
(3) In possessing Glycocalyx
sac in stroma
(4) In possessing inclusion bodies
(B) Endoplasmic (ii) Cristae
Q.51 Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of Reticulum
erythrocytes of human being is:
(C) Chloroplast (iii) 9 + 0 Microtubules
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.3 (3) 0.80 (4) 0.60
(D) Centrioles (iv) Part of
Q.52 Identify the cell organelle ‘A’:
Endomembrane
Eukaryotic cell
system

Plant cell (v) Membrane less

Structure
"A"
(vi) Divide by fission

Double membrane (vii) Gluconeogenesis

(viii) Microbody
Stroage of fat
(ix) Photosynthesis
(1) Mitochondria (2) Leucoplast
(3) Spherosome (4) SER (x) Detoxification
(1) A–iv, B–ii, vi; C–iii, viii; D–iv, x;
Q.53 Which of the following type of vacuole help
in osmoregulation and excretion in Amoeba? (2) A–ii, vi; B–iv, x; C–i, ix D–iii, v;

(1) Gas vacuole (2) Sap vacuole (3) A–v, ix; B–vi, x; C–vii, i; D–viii, ii;
(3) Food vacuole (4) Contractile vacuole (4) None of these

Page | 64
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.56 Match the Column-I and Column-II. Q.58 Match column I with column II and select the
Column-I Column-II correct option from the codes given below
(a) Cristae (i) Flat membranous Column-I Column-II
sacs in stroma A Leeuwenhoek (i) First saw the
(b) Cisternae (ii) Infolding in living cell
mitochondria B Robert Brown (ii) Presence of cell
(c) Thylakoids (iii) Disc-shaped sacs wall Unique to
in Golgi apparatus plant cells
(d) Kinetochores (iv) Disc-shaped C Schleiden (iii) Discovered the
structure present Nucleus
on D Schwann (iv) All plants are
chromosomes composed of
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv different types
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv of cells

(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (1) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)

(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
Q.57 Match the following and select the correct
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
option:
(A) Centriole (i) Infoldings in Q.59 Match the Column-I and Column-II.

mitochondria Column-I Column-II

(a) Human red (i) Branched and
(B) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
blood cells long
(C) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
(b) Nerve cells (ii) 7.0 μm in diameter
(D) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body
(c) Largest cells (iii) May be disc-like,
cilia or Polygonal, Cuboid,
flagella Columnar, thread-

(A) (B) (C) (D) like or irregular

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (d) Cell's shape (iv) Egg of an ostrich

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Page | 65
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.60 Match the Column-I and Column-II. Q.62 Match the Column-I and Column-II.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) RER (i) Intracellular and (A) Elaioplast (i) Protein
extracellular (B) Amyloplast (ii) Contain
digestion xanthophylls
(B) SER (ii) Lipid synthesis (C) Aleuroplast (iii) Carbohydrate

(C) Golgi (iii) Protein synthesis (D) Chromoplast (iv) Fat

(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
complex and secretion
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(D) Lysosomes (iv) Moves materials
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
out of the cells
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
A-R / STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Q.63 Assertion (A): Specialization of cells is
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
useful for organism.
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
Reason (R): It increases the operational
efficiency of an organism
Q.61 Match the Column-I and Column-II.
(1) Both the assertion and reason are true and
Column-I Column-II
reason explains the assertion.
(A) Golgi (i) Synthesis of
(2) Both are assertion and reason are true
apparatus protein but reason does not explain the assertion.
(B) Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
excretory (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
products Q.64 Assertion (A): Mitochondria and
(C) Vacuoles (iii) Formation of chloroplasts are double membrane bounded
glycoproteins and cell organelles.
glycolipids Reason (R): Both have DNA, RNA and 70S
ribosome.
(D) Ribosomes (iv) Digesting
(1) Both the assertion and reason are true and
biomolecules
reason explains the assertion.
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) Both are assertion and reason are true
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) but reason does not explain the assertion.
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
Page | 66
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.65 Assertion (A): Chloroplast is a cell Q.68 Statement-I: All living organisms are
organelle. composed of cells and products of cells.
Reason (R): An organelle is a distinct part of Statement-II: All cells arise from pre-
cell which has a particular structure and existing cells.
function. (1) Statement-I and Statement-Il both are
(1) Both the assertion and reason are true and correct
reason explains the assertion. (2) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement- II
(2) Both are assertion and reason are true is correct
but reason does not explain the assertion. (3) Statement-I and Statement-Il both are
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false incorrect
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true (4) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
Q.66 Assertion (A): The chromoplasts contain fat
soluble carotenoid pigments.
Q.69 Statement-I: The onion cell, has a distinct
Reason (R): These pigments provide colour
cell wall as its outer boundary and just within
to plant parts other than green.
it, is the cell membrane.
(1) Both the assertion and reason are true and
Statement-II: The cells of the human cheek
reason explains the assertion.
have an outer membrane as the delimiting
(2) Both are assertion and reason are true
structure of the cell.
but reason does not explain the assertion.
(1) Statement-I and Statement-Il both are
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
correct
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true
(2) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement- II
Q.67 Assertion (A): Cell is the fundamental
is correct
structural & functional unit of life.
(3) Statement-I and Statement-Il both are
Reason (R): Unicellular organisms are
incorrect
capable of independent existence
(4) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is
(1) Both the assertion and reason are true and
incorrect
reason explains the assertion.
(2) Both are assertion and reason are true
but reason does not explain the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

Page | 67
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

NEET–FLASHBACK
Q.1 The Golgi complex plays a major role: Q.4 Match the following and select the correct
[NEET-2013] answer: [NEET-2013]

(1) In post translational modification of a. Centriole i. Infolding in

mitochondria
proteins and glycosidation of lipids
b. Chlorophyll ii. Thylakoids
(2) In trapping the light and transforming it
c. Cristae iii. Nucleic acids
into chemical energy
d. Ribozymes iv. Basal body cilia or
(3) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates
flagella
(4) As energy transferring organelles (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Q.2 A major site for synthesis of lipids is:
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
[NEET-2013]
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Nucleoplasm (2) RER
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) SER (4) Symplast
Q.5 Which structures perform the function of
Q.3 Which one of the following organelle in the mitochondria in bacteria? [AIPMT-2014]
figure correctly matches with its functions? (1) Mesosomes (2) Nucleoid

[NEET-2013] (3) Ribosomes (4) Cell wall

Q.6 The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water

is chiefly regulated by: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Ribosomes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Vacuoles (4) Plastids

Q.7 The solid linear cytoskeleton elements

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a

single type of monomer are known as:
synthesis
[AIPMT-2014]
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation
(1) Lamins
of glycoproteins
(2) Microtubules
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis (3) Microfilaments
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids (4) Intermediate filaments

Page | 68
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.8 The motile bacteria are able to move by: Q.13 Match the columns and identify the correct
[AIPMT-2014] option. [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Pili (2) Fimbriae Column – I Column – II

(A) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in
(3) Flagella (4) Cilia
Golgi apparatus
Q.9 Which of the following are not membrane- (B) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of
bound? [AIPMT-2015] DNA
(1) Ribosomes (2) Lysosomes (C) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs
(3) Mesosomes (4) Vacuoles in stroma
(D) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in
Q.10 Which of the following structure is not found
mitochondria
in a prokaryotic cell? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(1) Ribosome (2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) Mesosome (3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) Plasma membrane (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) Nuclear envelope
Q.14 DNA is not present in: [AIPMT-2015]
Q.11 Balbiani rings are sites of: [AIPMT-2015] (1) Nucleus (2) Mitochondria

(1) Nucleotide synthesis (3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosomes

(2) Polysaccharide synthesis Q.15 Nuclear envelope is a derivative of:

(3) RNA and protein synthesis [AIPMT-2015]
(4) Lipid synthesis (1) Microtubules
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q.12 Cellular organelles with membranes are:
(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
[AIPMT-2015]
(4) Membrane of Golgi complex
(1) Chromosomes, ribosomes and
Q.16 The structures that are formed by stacking of
endoplasmic reticulum
organized flattened membranous sacs in the
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and
chloroplasts are: [AIPMT-2015]
nuclei
(1) Stroma lamellae
(3) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and
(2) Stroma
mitochondria (3) Cristae
(4) Nuclei, ribosome and mitochondria (4) Grana
Page | 69
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.17 Select the correct matching in the following Q.23 Mitochondria and chloroplast are
pairs: [AIPMT-2015] [NEET-2016-I]
(1) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen A. Semi-autonomous organelles
(2) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids B. Formed by division of pre-existing
(3) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
organelles and they contain DNA but lack
(4) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
protein synthesizing machinery
Q.18 The chromosomes in which centromeres are Which one of the following options is
situated close to one end are: [AIPMT-2015]
correct?
(1) Telocentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) Metacentric (4) Acrocentric
(2) (B) is true but (A) is false
Q.19 A protoplast is a cell : [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(3) (A) is true but (B) is false
(1) without cell wall
(4) Both (A) and (B) are false
(2) without plasma membrane
(3) without nucleus Q.24 Spindle fibres attach on to: [NEET-2016-I]
(4) undergoing division (1) Telomere of the chromosome

Q.20 A complex of ribosomes attached to a single (2) Kinetochore of the chromosome

strand of RNA is known as :- (3) Centromere of the chromosome
[NEET-2016-I] (4) Kinetosome of the chromosome
(1) Polysome (2) Polymer
Q.25 Microtubules are the constituents of:
(3) Polypeptide (4) Okazaki fragment
[NEET-2016-I]
Q.21 Which one of the following cell organelles is (1) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
enclosed by a single membrane ? (2) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cillia
[NEET-2016-I]
(3) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and chromatin
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts
(4) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
(3) Lysosomes (4) Nuclei

Q.22 Water soluble pigments found in plant cell Q.26 A cell organelle containing hydrolytic

vacuoles are :- [NEET-2016-I] enzymes is: [NEET-2016-II]

(1) Xanthophylls (2) Chlorophylls (1) Ribosome (2) Mesosome
(3) Carotenoids (4) Anthocyanins (3) Lysosome (4) Microsome

Page | 70
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.27 A complex of ribosomes attached to a single Q.30 The correct sequence of involvement of cell
strand of mRNA is known as: organelles in secretion of proteins from the
[NEET 2017-Gujarat] cell is: [NEET 2017-Gujarat]
(1) Okazaki fragment (1) Nucleus → Endoplasmic reticulum →
(2) Polymer Ribosomes → Golgi apparatus
(3) Polyribosome →Secretory vesicles → Plasma
(4) Polypeptide membrane

Q.28 The type of ribosomes is same in (2) Nucleus → Ribosomes → Endoplasmic

[NEET 2017-Gujarat] reticulum → Golgi apparatus →

(1) Eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria and Secretory vesicles → Plasma membrane

endoplasmic reticulum (3) Nucleus → Ribosomes → Endoplasmic

(2) Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, their reticulum → Lysosomes → Plasma
mitochondria and chloroplasts membrane
(3) Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, their (4) Nucleus → Endoplasmic reticulum →
chloroplasts and microbodies Ribosomes → Golgi apparatus →
(4) Prokaryotes, mitochondria and Lysosomes → Plasma membrane
chloroplasts
Q.31 Which of the following cell organelles is
Q.29 Which of the following pathways is involved responsible for extracting energy from
for packaging of secretory proteins? carbohydrates to form ATP?
[NEET 2017-Gujarat] [NEET 2017]
(1) RER → Trans face of Golgi body → Cis
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome
face of Golgi goby → Secretory vesicles
(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondrion
(2) Trans face of Golgi body → Cis face of
Golgi body → RER → SER → Secretory Q.32 Many ribosomes may associate with a single

veiscles mRNA to form multiple copies of a

(3) RER → Cis face of Golgi body → Trans polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of
face of Golgi body → Secretory vesicles ribosomes are termed as [NEET -2018]
(4) Cis face of Golgi body → Trans face of (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
Golgi body → RER → Secretory vesides (3) Plastidome (4) Nucleosome
Page | 71
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.33 Which of the following event does not occur Q.37 Which of the following statement regarding
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
mitochondria is incorrect? [NEET -2019]
[NEET -2018]
(1) Outer membrane is permeable to
(1) Protein folding
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
(2) Protein glycosylation
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide proteins.

(4) Phospholipid synthesis (2) Enzymes of electron transport are

Q.34 The Golgi complex participates in embedded in outer membrane.

[NEET -2018] (3) Inner membrane is convoluted with

(1) Fatty acid breakdown infoldings.
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles (4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single
(3) Respiration in bacteria
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
(4) Activation of amino acid
Q.38 The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
Q.35 Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
regarding cell division was first proposed by
[NEET -2018]
[NEET -2019]
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cells. (1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Theodor Schwann

(2) It is a membrane-bound structure. (3) Schleiden (4) Aristotle

(3) It takes part in spindle formation.
Q.39 Which of the following statement is not
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
correct? [NEET -2019]
synthesis
(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
Q.36 Select the incorrect match : [NEET -2018]
enzymes.
(1) Lampbrush Diplotene
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
chromosomes bivalents
(2) Allosomes Sex chromosomes active under acidic pH.

(3) Submetacentric L-shaped (3) Lysosomes are membrane bound

chromosomes chromososmes structures.
(4) Polytene Oocytes of (4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
chromosomes amphibians
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
Page | 72
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.40 The shorter and longer arms of a Q.44 Match the column-I with column-II :-
[NEET -2019 (Odisha)]
submetacentric chromosome are referred
Column-I Column-II
to as [NEET -2019] (a) Golgi (i) Synthesis of protein
apparatus
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively excretory products
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively (c) Vacuoles (iii) Formation of
glycoproteins and
(4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
glycolipids
(d) Ribosomes (iv) Digesting
Q.41 Which of the following pair of organelles
biomolecules
does not contain DNA ? [NEET -2019] Choose the right match from options given
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes below :-
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
Q.45 The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism
Q.42 Which of the following cell organelles is (PPLO) is: [2020 Covid Re-NEET]
present in the highest number in secretory (1) 1 – 2 µm (2) 10 - 20 µm
(3) 0.1 µm (4) 0.02 µm
cells ? [NEET -2019 (Odisha)]
Q.46 Match the following columns and select the
(1) Mitochondria correct option; [2020 Covid Re-NEET]
(2) Golgi complex Column- I Column- II
a. Smooth (i) Protein
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
Endoplasmic synthesis
(4) Lysosomes Reticulum
b. Rough (ii) Lipid
Q.43 Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures
endoplasmic synthesis
in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of:- reticulum
c. Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation
[NEET -2019 (Odisha)]
d. Centriole (iv) Spindle
(1) Protein synthesis formation
(2) mRNA (1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
(3) rRNA
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) tRNA (4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
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 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.47 The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs Q.50 Which of the following is an incorrect
in: [2020 Covid Re-NEET]
(1) Golgi apparatus (2) Microbodies statement? [NEET 2021]

(3) Nucleolus (4) Ribosomes (1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
conspicuous nucleus and usual
Q.48 Q.53Which is the important site of formation cytoplasmic organelles.
of glycoproteins and glycolipids in (2) Microbodies are present both in plant and
eukaryotic cells? [NEET 2020] animal cells.
(1) Polysomes (3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum between the materials present inside the
(3) Peroxisomes nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
(4) Golgi bodies (4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins

Q.49 Match List-I with List-II. [NEET 2021] and RNA molecules in both directions

List-I List-II between nucleus and cytoplasm.

(a) Cristae (i) Primary Q.51 When the centromere is situated in the middle
constriction in of two equal arms of chromosomes, the
chromosome chromosome is referred as: [NEET 2021]
(b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs (1) Metacentric
in Golgi apparatus (2) Telocentric
(c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in (3) Sub-metacentric
mitochondria (4) Acrocentric
(d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened
Q.52 The organelles that are included in the
membranous
endomembrane system are: [NEET 2021]
sacs in stroma of
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
plastids
Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
given below.
Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria,
(2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Page | 74
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.53 Match the columns. [NEET 2021 (Paper-2)] Q.56 Match list -I with list-II
Column-I Column-II
List-I List-II
(a) Endoplasmic (i) Stack of cisternae
A Metacentric i Centromere situated
reticulum
chromosome close to the end
(b) Sphaerosomes (ii) Stores oil
forming one
(c) Dictyosomes (iii) Synthesis and
storage of lipids extremely short and
(d) Peroxisomes (iv) Photorespiration one very long arm
(e) Elaioplasts (v) Detoxification of B Acrocentric ii Centromere at the
drugs terminal end

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-iv, e-ii C Sub- iii Centromere in the
(2) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-i metacentric middle forming two
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv, e-v equal arms of
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii chromosomes
Q.54 Which of the following is the incorrect D Telocentric iv Centromere slightly
matching of three items and their grouping away from the
category ? [NEET 2021 (Paper-2)] middle forming one
(1) ER, Golgi body, lysosome shorter arm and one
–Endomembrane system
longer arm
(2) Chromoplast, chloroplast, leucoplast
Choose the correct answer from the options
–Plastids
given below. [NEET 2022]
(3) Amyloplast, elaioplast, aleuroplast
–Leucoplast (1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) Abrin, ricin, concanavalin – Toxins (2) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

Q.55 The middle lamella is (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

[NEET 2021 (Paper-2)] (4) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

(1) A lignified layer which glues the Q.57 Which of the following statements with
neighbouring cells together.
respect to endoplasmic reticulum is
(2) A membrane which connects cell
incorrect? [NEET 2022]
membrane and cell wall.
(1) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
(3) A structure which connects the cytoplasm
of neighbouring cells. (2) SER is devoid of ribosomes

(4) A layer which holds the different (3) In prokaryotes only RER are present
neighbouring cells together. (4) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
Page | 75
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.58 Given below are two statements: Q.60 Match List - I with List – II
[NEET 2022] [NEET 2022 (OVERSEAS)]
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through Column-I Column-II
less than 1 micron filter size. (a) Chromoplasts (i) Proteins
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with (b) Amyloplasts (ii) Oil and fats
cell wall. (c) Elaioplasts (iii) Starch
In the light of the above statements, choose (d) Aleuroplasts (iv) Carotene
the most appropriate answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
incorrect
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
incorrect
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct Q.61 If the pH in lysosomes is increased to
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are alkaline, what will be the outcome?
correct [Re-NEET 2022]
(1) Hydrolytic enzymes will function more
Q.59 Given below are two statements:
efficiently
[NEET 2022 (OVERSEAS)]
(2) Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive
Statements-I : Membrane-bound organelles
(3) Lysosomal enzymes will be released into
of the endomembrane system coordinate
the cytoplasm.
cellular functions.
(4) Lysosomal enzymes will be more active
Statement-II: Mitochondria and chloroplasts
are not considered a part of the Q.62 Which of the following are NOT considered
endomembrane system. as the part of endomembrane system?
In the light of the above statements choose A. Mitochondria
the most appropriate answer from the options B. Endoplasmic reticulum
given below : C. Chloroplasts
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II D. Golgi complex
is correct E. Peroxisomes
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Choose the most appropriate answer from the
correct options given below: [NEET 2023]
(1) A, C and E only
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) A and D only
incorrect
(3) A, D and E only
(4) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is
(4) B and D only
incorrect
Page | 76
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.63 Which of the following function is carried out Q.66 The DNA present in chloroplast is:
by cytoskeleton in a cell? [NEET 2023] [NEET 2024]
(1) Protein synthesis (2) Motility (1) Circular, single stranded
(3) Transportation (4) Nuclear division (2) Linear, double stranded
(3) Circular, double stranded
Q.64 Which of the following statements are correct (4) Linear, single stranded
with respect of Golgi apparatus ? Q.67 Match List I and List II: [NEET 2024]
[NEET 2023 (MANIPUR)] List I List II
(A) It is the important site of formation of A. Axoneme i. Centriole
B. Cartwheel ii. Cilia and
glycoprotein and glycolipids.
pattern flagella
(B) It produces cellular energy in the form of C. Crista iii. Chromosome
ATP. D. Satellite iv. Mitochondria
(C) It modifies the protein synthesized by Choose the correct answer from the options
ribosomes on ER. given below:
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(D) It facilitates the transport of ions.
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(E) It provides mechanical support. (3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
options given below : Q.68 Match List-I with List-II:
(1) (B) and (C) only (2) (A) and (C) only List-I List-II
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (D) and (E) only A. Metacentric i. Chromosome has a
chromosome terminal centromere
Q.65 Match List I with List II [NEET 2024] B. Sub- ii. Middle centromere
List I List II metacentric forming two equal
chromosome arms of chromosome
A. Nucleolus i. Site of formation of
C. Acrocentric iii. Centromere is
glycolipid chromosome slightly away from
B. Centriole ii. Organization like the the middle of
cartwheel chromosome
resulting into two
C. Leucoplasts iii. Site for active ribosomal
unequal arms
RNA synthesis D. Telocentric iv. Centromere is
D. Golgi iv. Apparatus for storing chromosome situated close to its
apparatus nutrients end forming one
Choose the correct answer from the options extremely short and
one very long arm
given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv given below: [Re-NEET 2024]
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
Page | 77
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
Q.69 Match List-I with List-II: Q.71 Given below are two statements : one is
labelled as Assertion (A), and the other is
List-I List-II
labelled as Reason (R). [NEET-2025]
A. F1 Particles i. Chromosomes Assertion (A) : The primary function of the
Golgi apparatus is to package the materials
B. Histones ii. Cilia
made by the endoplasmic reticulum and
C. Axoneme iii. Golgi apparatus deliver it to intracellular targets and outside
the cell.
D. Cisternae iv. Mitochondria
Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials
Choose the correct answer from the options made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with
given below: [Re-NEET 2024] the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they
are modified and released from the trans face
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii of the Golgi apparatus.
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
below :
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
Q.70 Given below are two statements: (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Statement I: Concentrically arranged explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the
cisternae of Golgi complex are arranged near
correct explanation of A
the nucleus with distinct convex cis or Q.72 From the statements given below choose the
correct option : [NEET-2025]
maturing and concave trans or forming face.
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and
Statement II: A number of proteins are prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
modified in the cisternae of Golgi complex
C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are
before they are released from cis face. 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S
and 30 S .
In the light of the above statements, choose
D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are
the correct answer from the options given 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S
below: [Re-NEET 2024] and 20 S .
E. The two sub-units of 80 S are 60 S and 30
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (1) A, B, E are true
(2) B, D, E are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) A, B, C are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (4) A, B, D are true
Page | 78
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.73 Match List-I with List- II. [NEET-2025] Q.74 Which one of the following statements refers
List - I List – II to Reductionist Biology? [NEET-2025]
(A) Centromere (I) Mitochondrion (1) Behavioural approach to study and
(B) Cilium (II) Cell division understand living organisms.
(C) Cristae (III) Cell (2) Physico-chemical approach to study and
movement understand living organisms.
(D) Cell (IV) Phospholipid (3) Physiological approach to study and
membrane Bilayer understand living organisms.
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Chemical approach to study and
given below : understand living organisms.
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Page | 79
 Easy to Learn…. CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

ANSWER KEY
PRACTICE SECTION-01
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Ans: 2 2 2 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 3

PRACTICE SECTION-02
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans: 3 4 1 4 3 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 3

PRACTICE SECTION-03
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans: 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 1 4 2 2
Que. 16
Ans: 2

PRACTICE SECTION-04
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans: 1 3 2 2 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans: 4 2 3 2 4 1 2 3

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 1 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 1 1 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 3
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 4 1 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 2 3 4 2
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 3 1 3
Que. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 1 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 4 1
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
Ans. 1 1 2 4 4 1 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 2 4
Que. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 2 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 1 4 3 1

Page | 80
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

RANKER'S STUFF
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 4 3 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 4 3 2 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 1 1 1 1 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
Ans. 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1

NEET-FLASHBACK
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 1 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 4 1 1 3 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 1 4 2 4 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 4 4 1 3 2 2 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74
Ans. 2 1 2 2 2 3 4 4 2 4 4 3 2 2

Page | 81
 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

Practice Section-01
Q.1 Astral rays arise from
(1) Centriole (2) Cytoplasm (3) Chromatid (4) Centromere
Q.2 Most of the organelle duplication occurs during
(1) M-phase (2) Interphase (3) Interkinesis (4) Cytokinesis
Q.3 G1, S and G2 are stages of
(1) Interphase (2) Prophase (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
Q.4 Nucleolus, Golgi apparatus, ER reform in
(1) Anaphase (2) Prophase (3) Telophase (4) Metaphase
Q.5 Phragmoplast is the precursor of
(1) Chloroplast (2) Chromoplast (3) Cell plate (4) Leucoplast
Q.6 Significance of mitosis involves
(1) The growth of multicellular organism.
(2) Cell repair.
(3) Production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement.
(4) All of the above
Q.7 In mitosis, centromere divides during
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
Q.8 Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle:

Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle:
(1) A – Cytokinesis (2) B – Metaphase (3) C – Karyokinesis (4) D – Synthetic phase
Q.9 During mitosis ER and nucleolus being to disappear at:
(1) Early prophase (2) Late prophase (3) Early metaphase (4) Late metaphase
Q.10 Which stage of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?

(A) (B)
(1) Prophase - Anaphase (2) Metaphase - Telophase
(3) Telophase - Metaphase (4) Late Anaphase - Prophase

Page | 94
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.11 Select the correct option with respect to mitosis:
(1) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase.
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the center of the cell in anaphase.
(3) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
(4) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.

Q.12 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:

(1) Kinetochores (2) Centromere (3) Satellites (4) Secondary constrictions

Q.13 First gap phase in cell cycle is :-

(1) Interval between mitotic phase and initiation of DNA replication phase
(2) Interval between DNA replication phase and DNA separation phase
(3) Interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) Interval between DNA replication phase and second gap phase

Q.14 A cell that is entering the M-phase of cell cycle is:-

(1) Always haploid and with duplicated chromosomes
(2) Either haploid or diploid and with duplicated chromosomes
(3) Either haploid or diploid and with duplicated or unduplicated chromosomes
(4) Always diploid and with unduplicated chromosomes

Q.15 A cell examined during prophase of cell cycle contained 100 units of DNA and 50 chromosomes.
What would be the number of DNA and chromosomes in anaphase of this cell cycle?
(1) 200 DNA & 100 chromosomes (2) 100 DNA & 50 chromosomes
(3) 100 DNA & 100 chromosomes (4) 50 DNA & 25 chromosomes

MEIOSIS
➢ "Term meiosis" was proposed by Farmer and Moore.
➢ The production of offspring by sexual reproduction includes the fusion of two gametes, each with a
complete haploid set of chromosomes. Gametes are formed from specialised diploid cells.
➢ The special kind of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half results in the
production of haploid daughter cells. This kind of division is called meiosis.
➢ Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms
whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase.
➢ Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis, leads to the formation of haploid gametes.
Page | 95
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

Practice Section-02
Q.1 Non-sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes exchange segments during
(1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene (3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene

Q.2 “Bouquet-stage” occur in which substage of prophase I?

(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene

Q.3 Gap between meiosis-I and meiosis-II is called

(1) Interphase (2) Interkinesis (3) Diakinesis (4) Metakinesis

Q.4 Histone protein synthesis occurs during

(1) G1-phase (2) G2-phase (3) S-phase (4) Prophase

Q.5 Which one ensures maintenance of chromosome number generation after generation?
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis (3) Splicing (4) Metamorphosis

Q.6 Synapsis occurs between:

(1) Two homologous chromosomes (2) A male and a female gamete
(3) Two non-homologous chromosomes (4) Spindle fibres and centromere

Q.7 Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division.
Which is this stage?

(1) Both prophase and metaphases of mitosis (2) Prophase I during meiosis
(3) Prophase II during meiosis (4) Prophase of Mitosis

Q.8 During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during:

(1) Prophase-II (2) Metaphase-I (3) Anaphase-II (4) Prophase-I

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.9 Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister

chromatids remain associated at their centromeres:

(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II (3) Anaphase I (4) Anaphase II

Q.10 Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Leptotene - formation of bivalents (2) Diplotene - chiasmata appear

(3) Pachytene - chiasmata terminalisation (4) Zygotene - formation of bouquet

Q.11 Meiosis involves-

(1) One nuclear division and one chromosome division

(2) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division

(3) One nuclear division and two chromosome divisions

(4) Two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions

Q.12 During meiosis, centromeres of chromosomes divide during-

(1) Anaphase of meiosis-II (2) Metaphase of meiosis-l

(3) Anaphase of meiosis-I (4) Prophase of meiosis-II

Page | 106
 Page | 107
Easy to Learn….

QUICK FOLLOW UP
G1-Phase S-Phase (Synthesis phase)
(First growth phase or postmitotic gap phase) • Replication of nuclear DNA & synthesis of histone protein G2-Phase
• Period of maximum growth. takes place in s-phase. (Second growth phase or pre mitotic phase)
• Take place. at the end of cell division. • No increase in chromosome number. • Formation of RNA and protein continues.
• RNA and Protein synthesizes.
Interphase
• Non-dividing phase
• Also called Intermitosis and occupies more than 95% of the total generation preparatory phase or energy phase
• The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates
its genome and synthesises the other constituents
Cell cycle and cell Division of the cell and eventually divides into two
daughter cells is termed as cell cycle.
Involves Karyokinesis
M-Phase two types (nuclear division)
• The M-phase represents the phase when
the actual cell division or mitosis occurs. Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Somatic Mitosis Telophase
cells It is an equational division
in which parent cell divides Cytokinesis
into 2 identical daughter (cytoplasmic division)
calls.
Plant cell usually by
Germ cell plate formation
cells Meiosis
It is reductional division in
BIOLOGY

which parent diploid cell Animal cell by

divides into haploid cells. constriction and furrow
formation
 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

CELL CYCLE Q.4 What is not true about cell cycle?
Q.1 The sequence of events by which cells
a. During G1 phase, active synthesis of
duplicate their genome, synthesize the other
RNA and proteins takes place but no
components of cell which eventually
change in its DNA content.
distribute into two daughter cells is called:
b. In synthesis or S phase, each chromosome
(1) Quiescent stage carries a duplicate set of genes.
(2) Generation time c. During G2 phase, a cell contains double
(3) Cell cycle the amount (4C) of DNA present in the
(4) Kinetochore original diploid cell (2C).

Q.2 Interphase is called the resting phase d. In S-phase a cell doubles the original

because: diploid (2n) chromosome number.

(1) c and d (2) b and c
(1) It is the most active phase of the cell cycle
(3) d only (4) b, c and d
(2) There is no apparent activity related to
cell division Q.5 Identify the mismatched pair:
(3) It does not prepare cell for cell division
(4) It is the phase where cell rests before
entering into mitosis

Q.3 Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cell

cycle:
(1) Duplication of genes occurs twice in
meiosis
(1) A – Starts with karyokinesis and ends
(2) Karyokinesis occurs twice during meiotic
with cytokinesis
division
(2) B – Stage where cells are inactive
(3) DNA synthesis occurs only during one
metabolically
specific stage in the cell cycle.
(3) C – Cell grows and carries out normal
(4) After telophase-I, chromosome number is metabolism
reduced to half (4) D – Period of cytoplasmic growth

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.6 Most active stage of cell cycle is: Q.13 During cell cycle, RNA and protein synthesis
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
takes place in:
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase
(1) G1 and G2 - phase only
Q.7 Which of the following is the method of
cytokinesis in plant cell: (2) S - phase only

(1) By cell plate formation (3) M – phase

(2) By constriction
(4) Interphase
(3) By furrow formation
(4) (1) and (3) both Q.14 A cell is bound to divide, if it has entered:

Q.8 What happens in interkinesis: (1) G2 - phase (2) G1 - phase

(1) DNA - replication (3) Prophase (4) S - phase
(2) Chromosome duplication
(3) Preparation of second meiotic division. Q.15 During cell division chromosome move
(4) Resting stage towards different poles due to:
Q.9 In cell cycle, changes of which stage are not (1) Centriole (2) Vacuole formation
visible under microscope:
(3) Microtubules (4) Cytokinesis
(1) Interphase (2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase Q.16 Observe the following scheme. Which stage
Q.10 During G2 - phase a diploid cell contains the of cell division occurs after G2phase?
amount of DNA equal to a:
(1) Diploid cell (2) Tetraploid cell
(3) Haploid cell (4) Nothing can be said

Q.11 In which order, cytokinesis occurs in plants:

(1) Centripetal (2) Centrifugal
(3) Oblique (4) Equatorial
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
Q.12 Which of the two events restore the normal
(3) Anaphase (4) Diakinesis
number of chromosomes in life cycle of
sexually reproducing organism? Q.17 In cell cycle, which stage is normally called
(1) Mitosis and Meiosis
resting phase:
(2) Meiosis and fertilisation
(3) Fertilization and mitosis (1) S–phase (2) Telophase

(4) Only meiosis (3) Cytokinesis (4) Interphase

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.18 The following diagram refers to a typical cell Q.22 During cytokinesis in plants, which of the
cycle.
following secretes the middle lamella:

(1) Golgibody (2) SER

(3) RER (4) Lysosomes

Q.23 Cell Cycle of an ordinary animal cell:

(1) 2n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
M i t osis
→ n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Fertilization
→ 2n ⎯⎯⎯
Meiosis
→ 2n

(2) n ⎯⎯⎯
Meiosis
→ 2n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Fertilization
→ 2n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
M i t osis
→n

(3) 2n ⎯⎯⎯
Meiosis
→ n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Fertilization
→ 2n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
M i t osis
→ 2n
Identify the parts marked as X, Y and Z:
(1) X-G1, Y–S, Z–G2 (4) 2n ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Fertilization
→ (n) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
M i t osis
→ 2n ⎯⎯⎯
Meiosis
→n

(2) X–G2, Y–S, Z–G1

Q.24 The number of DNA in a chromosome at G2
(3) X–G0, Y–S, Z–G2
state of cell cycle:
(4) X–G1, Y–G2, Z–G0
(1) One (2) Two
Q.19 What happens in synthesis phase during cell
(3) Four (4) Eight
cycle?
(1) DNA synthesis Q.25 In the somatic cell cycle:

(2) Chromosome number becomes double (1) DNA replication takes place in S–phase
(3) Formation of two nuclei (2) A short interphase is followed by a long
(4) DNA content becomes triple
mitotic phase

Q.20 Cell plate which appears during cytokinesis, (3) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
ultimately transforms in: (4) In G 1 phase DNA content is double
(1) Middle lamella the amount of DNA present in the
(2) Primary wall
original cell
(3) Sec. wall
(4) Plasma membrane Q.26 At what stage of the cell cycle are histone

Q.21 Which stage of cell cycle is characterised by proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell:

DNA - replication, synthesis of Histones and (1) During telophase

formation of new nucleosomes? (2) During S–phase
(1) S-phase (2) G1-phase (3) During G2–stage of prophase
(3) G2-phase (4) M-phase
(4) During entire prophase

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
MITOSIS Q.30 Select an incorrect statement w.r.t.
Q.27 Which of the following statement is true? metaphase:
(1) Cell plate represents the middle lamella (1) Spindle fibres are attached to small disc
between the walls of two adjacent cells shaped structure at the surface of
(2) At the time of cytokinesis, organelles like centromeres called kinetochores
mitochondria and plastids get distributed
(2) The plane of alignment of the
between the daughter cells.
homologous pair of chromosomes at
(3) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and
metaphase is referred to as the
takes place by cell plate formation while
metaphasic plate
animal cells by furrowing and is centripetal.
(3) Chromosome appears to be made up of
(4) All of these
two sister chromatids
Q.28 Read the following statements:
(4) The size of chromosomes can be studied
(a) Complete disintegration of the nuclear
in this phase
envelope marks the start of the second
phase of mitosis. Q.31 Best stages to study morphology and shape of
(b) Metaphase chromosome is made up of chromosomes are respectively:
one sister chromatid. (1) Metaphase, Telophase
(1) Only (b) is correct (2) Prophase, Anaphase
(2) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect (3) Telophase, Anaphase
(3) Only (a) is correct (4) Metaphase, Anaphase
(4) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Q.32 Reason of chromosomal movement in
Q.29 The two daughter cells formed during mitosis
contains: anaphase is :-
(1) The same amount of DNA but a set of (1) Astral rays
chromosomes different from those of (2) Centrioles
parental cells (3) Kinetochore
(2) The same amount of DNA and the same
(4) Kinetochore and spindle fibres
set of chromosomes as those of the
parent cell Q.33 The cellular structure which disappear during

(3) Half the amount of DNA and the same set mitosis is:
of chromosomes as those of the parent cell (1) Plasma membrane
(4) Double the amount of DNA and a set of (2) Nuclear membrane only
chromosomes different from those of the (3) Mitochondria
parent cell (4) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus both

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.34 During cell division, spindle fibers attach to Q.39 Mitosis occurs in:
which part of chromosome: (1) Haploid individuals
(1) Primary constriction (2) Diploid individuals
(2) Sec. Constriction (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Chromomere (4) In bacteria only
(4) Chromatid Q.40 Morphology of chromosomes is most easily

Q.35 Reappearance of nuclear membrane & studied during:-

nucleolus along with thinning & (1) Metaphase (2) Prophase

elongation in chromosomes are diagnostic (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

characters for the phase: Q.41 Centromere is required for:

(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase (1) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
(3) Interphase (4) Telophase (2) Cytoplasmic cleavage

Q.36 Chromosomal morphology (Structure) is best (3) Crossing over

observed at: (4) Transcription

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase Q.42 How many divisions will occur in an isolated

(3) Interphase (4) Anaphase root tip cell to form 128 cells?

Q.37 In anaphase, a metacentric chromosome (1) 128 (2) 127 (3) 32 (4) 7

appears: Q.43 Which statement is true for mitosis:

(1) i shaped (2) J - shaped (1) Daughter cells are genetically different
(3) V - shaped (4) L – shaped from mother cell
(2) Daughter cells are exactly similar in all
Q.38 Find the correct stage sequence of mitosis
respect
(= karyokinesis)
(3) Daughter cells have half the number of
(1) Prophase → Anaphase → Metaphase chromosomes as compared to mother cell
→ Telophase (4) Daughter cells have differences in genetic
characters
(2) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase
Q.44 Which does not occurs in prophase ?
→ Telophase
(1) Decondensation of chromatin
(3) Prophase → Metaphase → Telophase
(2) Condensation of chromatin
→ Anaphase
(3) Appearance of chromosome
(4) Telophase → Anaphase→ Metaphase (4) Disappearance of nuclear membrane and
→ Prophase nucleolus

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.45 In which stage of cell division, number of Q.51 Many cells function properly and divide
chromosomes can be best counted? mitotically even though they do not have :-

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) Plasma membrane

(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase
(3) Mitochondria
Q.46 How many chromosomes shall be present in (4) Plastids
a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if ovum of Q.52 The two asters together with spindle fibres
same species has ten chromosomes? form:-
(1) 10 (Ten) (2) 20 (Twenty) (1) Mitotic apparatus
(3) 30 (Thirty) (4) 40 (Forty) (2) Centromere
(3) Astral fibres
Q.47 In which stage of mitosis, the chromosomes
(4) Centrosome
are composed of two chromatids ?
Q.53 In prophase centrosome, which had
(1) Prophase & metaphase
undergone duplication during interphase,
(2) Anaphase and telophase
begins to move towards :
(3) Prophase and telophase (1) Same pole of the cell
(4) Metaphase and anaphase (2) Opposite poles of the cell
(3) One towards centre while another
Q.48 Reappearance of nucleolus along with
towards pole
thining & elongation in chromosomes are
(4) Both towards centre
diagnostic characters for the :-
Q.54 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase
the spindle fibres by their :-
(3) Interphase (4) Telophase
(1) Centromere

Q.49 Condensation of chromosomes and (2) Satellites

(3) Secondary constrictions
appearance of astral rays occur during :-
(4) Kinetochores
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase MEIOSIS
Q.55 Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of
Q.50 If the cell is diploid in G₁ than after the S bivalent is called:
phase cell remain/become :- (1) Terminalisation (2) Diakinesis
(1) n (2) 4n (3) 8n (4) 2n (3) Interkinesis (4) Heteropycnosis

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.56 All are the essential stages that take place Q.59 Which of the following not occurs in
during meiosis, except: Anaphase–I but occurs in Anaphase–II?

(1) Two successive divisions without any (1) Condensation of chromosomes

(2) Poleward movement of chromosome
DNA replication occurring between them
(3) Contraction of spindle fibers
(2) Formation of chiasmata and crossing over
(4) Splitting of centromere
(3) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
Q.60 Crossing over takes place in:
(4) Number of chromosomes in daughter
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
cells after meiosis II is reduced to half but (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
the amount of DNA remains the same
Q.61 Constancy of the chromosome number in

Q.57 Diplotene phase of meiosis is also sexually producing generation is brought

by the process of:
characterized by:
(1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis
a. Desynapsis
(3) Amitosis (4) None
b. Complete terminalisation of chiasmata
Q.62 At anaphase - II of meiosis each chromosome
c. Dictyotene stage contains:
d. Complete disappearance of nuclear (1) 4 DNA (2) 3 - DNA
membrane and nucleoli (3) 2 - DNA (4) 1 - DNA

e. Complete development of astral rays Q.63 In meiosis I- nuclear membrane and

and aster nucleolus disappear during:
f. Longest phase of prophase-I (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene

(1) a, b, c and e (2) b, d, e and f (3) Diakinesis (4) Metaphase - I

(3) a, c and f (4) b, d and f Q.64 Which one of the following statement is
correct?
Q.58 The paradox of meiosis is: (1) Cells divide by cytokinesis only in
(1) Conservation of specific chromosome mitosis
number from generation to generation (2) DNA is replicated before the start of
(2) Produces four haploid cells after meiosis only

meiosis II (3) Spindles consisting of microtubule form

only in mitosis
(3) It is a double division
(4) Exchange of genetic materials occurs
(4) Does not involve DNA replication
only in meiosis

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.65 Which of the following does not occurs in Q.69 In which stage the centromeres lie at equator
Anaphase –I? and arms are directed towards poles:
(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes (1) Metaphase of mitosis
(2) Shortening in spindle (2) Metaphase -I
(3) Poleward movement of chromosomes (3) Metaphase -II
(4) Division of centromere (4) 1 and 3 both

Q.66 In meiosis: Q.70 Crossing over takes place on:

(1) Division of nucleus twice but replication (1) Two stranded stage
of DNA only once (2) Three stranded stage
(2) Division of nucleus twice and replication
(3) One stranded stage
of DNA twice
(4) Four stranded stage
(3) Division of nucleus once and replication
Q.71 DNA replication is found in:
of DNA is also once
(1) Before Mitosis and before meiosis–I
(4) Division of nucleus once and DNA -
replication is twice (2) Mitosis and meiosis–I and meiosis–II
(3) Meiosis only
Q.67 After meiosis-I, the two chromatids of a
(4) Mitosis only
chromosome are:
(1) Genetically similar Q.72 In which stage the homologous Chromosomes

(2) Genetically different begin to separate from each other during

(3) There occurs only one chromatid in each meiosis cell division:
chromosome (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(4) None of the above (3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis

Q.68 A parent cell has 16 chromosomes and Q.73 The significance of Meiosis is that it:
28 picogram DNA content. What must be (1) Produce four cells having chromosomal
the chromosome number and DNA content number equal to mother cell
respectively in anaphase-II in each (2) Occurs in all types of cells
daughter cell? (3) Maintains the constant Chromosomes
(1) 8, 14 (2) 16, 14 number in a particular species
(3) 8, 28 (4) 16, 28 (4) Growth of animal body organs

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.74 Crossing over that results in genetic Q.79 Which of the two events maintain the
recombination in higher organisms constant number of chromosomes across
occurs between: generations?
(1) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent (1) Mitosis and Meiosis
(2) Two daughter nuclei (2) Meiosis and fertilisation
(3) Two different bivalents (3) Fertilisation and mitosis
(4) Sister chromatids of a bivalents (4) Only meiosis

Q.75 Which stage of meiosis is responsible for Q.80 Which part of plant is suitable for the study
reduction in chromosome number by half? of meiosis?
(1) Anaphase–I (2) Anaphase–II (1) Root apex (2) Ovary
(3) Telophase–I (4) Telophase–II (3) Anther (4) Shoot apex
Q.76 Chiasmata are formed as a result of:
Q.81 "Bouquet-stage" occur in which sub stages of
(1) Exchange of parts of paired homologous
prophase -I ?
chromosome
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(2) Exchange of part of unpaired
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
non– homologous chromosome
(3) Duplication of parts of paired Q.82 At anaphase II of meiosis each chromosome
homologous chromosome contains:-
(4) Loss of parts of unpaired non– (1) 4 chromatids (2) 3 chromatids
homologous chromosome (3) 2 chromatids (4) 1 chromatid

Q.77 When synapsis is complete all along the Q.83 In Anaphase each chromosome become
chromosome, the cell is said to have entered composed of:
a stage called: (1) One chromatid
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene (2) Two chromatids
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(3) Four chromatids

Q.78 Which of the following not ocurs in (4) Many chromatids

Anaphase-l but occurs in Anaphase-ll :- Q.84 In meiosis, division of centromere occurs

(1) Condensation of chromosomes during:-
(2) Poleward movement of chromosomes (1) Interphase (2) Anaphase - I
(3) Shortning of spindle fibers
(3) Anaphase - II (4) Metaphase - I
(4) Splitting of centromere

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.85 Separation of homologous chromosomes Q.90 If in a diploid plant cell the 'n' value is 16 then
during anaphase-l is called :- what is possible in metaphase - I of meiosis ?
(1) Synapsis (2) Disjunction (1) 32 Bivalents (2) 64 Bivalents
(3) Nondisjunction (4) Crossing over (3) 16 Bivalents (4) 8 Bivalents
Q.86 Synaptonemal complex is characteristic of :-
Q.91 Which one of the following statements is
(1) Mitotic chromosomes
incorrect for interkinesis ?
(2) Leptotene chromosomes
(1) It is the stage between the two subphases
(3) Paired meiotic chromosomes
(I & II) of a meiotic division
(4) Metaphase
(2) There is no replication of DNA
Q.87 Each chromosome composed of one
(3) DNA replicate but chromosome number
chromatid in:-
remains same
(1) Anaphase -I (2) Anaphase II
(4) It is generally short lived.
(3) Metaphase - I (4) Metaphase - II

Q.88 If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase-I, Q.92 At anaphase-II, sister chromatids move

what shall be the number of chromosomes in towards opposite poles of the cell by :

daughter cells after meiosis-I and meiosis - II (1) Elongation in spindle fibre attached to
respectively:- kinetochores
(1) 8 and 4 (2) 4 and 4 (2) Shortening of microtubules attached to
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 16 and 8 kinetochores

Q.89 After meiosis -I:- (3) Lengthening of microtubules attached to

(1) The two chromatids of a chromosome are kinetochores
genetically similar (4) Relaxation in spindle fibre attached to
(2) The two chromatids of a chromosome are kinetochores
genetically different
(3) There occurs only one chromatid in each
chromosome
(4) Four similar daughter cells are formed

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

RANKER'S STUFF
Q.1 Which one is correct for G0 stage? Q.3 Label the structure indicated by (i), (ii), (iii)

I. It is a quiescent stage. and (iv):

II. In this phase cell cycle is stopped

III. G0 cells do not grow or proliferate but

remain metabolically active

IV. G0 cells may divide in response to some (1) (i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centriole,

(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromosome
stimulus
(2) (i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centriole,
(1) All are correct (iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromatid
(2) I, II, III are correct (3) (i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centromere,
(iii)-Centriole, (iv)-Chromosome
(3) I, II are correct
(4) (i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centromere,
(4) Only I and IV are correct
(iii) Centriole, (iv)-Chromatid

Q.2 Which of the following does not correctly Q.4 In a diploid cell after S phase quantity of DNA
is 20 pg (pico gram), after Telophase–II
match a phase of the cell cycle with its
situation, in each daughter nucleus will be:
function?
(1) Diploid, 10 pg DNA
Column–I Column–II (2) Haploid, 10 pg DNA

Second gap Period of cytoplasmic (3) Haploid, 5 pg DNA

(1) (4) Diploid, 5 pg DNA
phase growth
Q.5 Mark incorrect statements:
First gap Most of the organelle (A) Meiosis involves only a single cycle of
(2)
phase duplication DNA replication
(B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end
Phase of preparation
(3) Interphase of meiosis–I
for cell division (C) Mitosis usually restricted to diploid cells
DNA Doubling of number only
(D) In yeast, cell cycle takes about 90
(4) synthesis of chromosomes in
minutes.
phase cell (1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) All are correct

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.6 Interval between mitosis and initiation of Q.12 The events shown below occur during

DNA replication is called: different phases:

(1) G2 – Phase (2) G1 – phase A. Centromere splits, chromatids separate

and move to opposite poles, chromatids
(3) Karyokinesis (4) S–phase
are now called chromosome
Q.7 Recombinase enzyme is involved in which B. Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles,
phase of meiosis: decondensation of chromosome,

(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene reappearance of NM, GB and ER.

(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene C. DNA replication

D. Kinetochores attach to spindle fibres and
Q.8 Diploid cell in human, where cell division
chromosome are arranged at equatorial plate
does not occur:
E. Condensation of chromosomal materials
(a) Heart cell (b) Muscle cell
Which of the following correctly
(c) Nerve cell identifies each of the phases described:
(1) Only c (2) b and c Inter Pro Meta Ana Telo
[Link].
-phase -phase -phase -phase -phase
(3) a and c (4) a, b and c
(1) C E D A B
(2) C D E A B
Q.9 In yeast, duration of cell cycle is about:
(3) C E D B A
(1) 80 minutes (2) 99 minutes (4) C A D E B

(3) 1.30 hrs. (4) 60 minutes

Q.13
Q.10 In which phase of the cell cycle centrioles

move towards opposite poles of the cell. Identify A to C

(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase [Link]. A B C

(3) Telophase (4) Prophase (1) Meiosis N N

(2) Meiosis 2N 2N
Q.11 The M-phase starts with the:
(3) Mitosis N N
(1) G1 (2) Karyokinesis
(4) Mitosis 2N 2N
(3) Cytokinesis (4) Telophase

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.14 Synaptonemal complex is visible or Q.18 Identify the following diagram:
found from:
(1) Zygotene to pachytene
(2) Leptotene to diplotene
(3) Zygotene to metaphase
(1) Transition to Metaphase (mitosis)
(4) Pachytene to diplotene
(2) Transition to Anaphase-II (meiosis)
Q.15 Which one of the following is correctly
(3) Transition to Metaphase-I (meiosis)
matched?
(4) Transition to Anaphase (mitosis)
(1) Leptotene - formation of bivalents
(2) Diplotene - chiasmata formation Q.19 The drawing below shows a cell whose
(3) Pachytene - chiasmata terminalisation diploid chromosome number is four. This
(4) Zygotene - formation of bouquet cell is in :-
Q.16 Arrange the following events of meiosis in
the correct sequence:
A. Terminalisation of chiasmata
B. Crossing over (1) Metaphase
C. Synapsis (2) Anaphase of mitosis
D. Disjunction of chromosomes
(3) First metaphase of meiosis
E. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Second anaphase of meiosis
The correct sequence is:
Q.20 Mark incorrect statements :-
(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A (A) Meiosis involves only a single cycle of

(3) C → B → D → E → A DNA replication

(4) C → B → E → A → D (B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end

Q.17 Significance of meiosis lies in: of meiosis-l

(1) Production of genetic variability (C) Meiosis occurs in diploid cells

(2) Maintaining the number of chromosomes (D) In yeast, cell cycle takes about 90 minutes.
through generations Options :-
(3) Forming the basis of evolution (1) A and B (2) A and C
(4) All of the above (3) Only B (4) All are correct

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.21 Interkinesis is stage between :- Q.26 Meiosis ensures the production of _______
(1) Two mitotic divisions phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing
(2) Two phases of meiotic divisions organism, where as fertilisation restores
(3) Anaphase and telophase
_______ phase.
(4) Leptotene and zygotene
(1) Diploid, haploid
Q.22 It is significant to note that in the 24 hour (2) Haploid, triploid
average duration of cell cycle of human cell, (3) Diploid, triploid
cell division proper lasts for only about:- (4) Haploid, diploid
(1) Four hours (2) 90 minutes
(3) An hour (4) 10 hours Q.27 Regarding key features of meiosis select out
the wrong one -
Q.23 Condensation of chromosomes is completed
(1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
in:-
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase nuclear and cell division called meiosis- I

(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase & meiosis- II

(2) Meiosis is initiated after the parental
Q.24 Which of the following statements is correct?
chromosomes have replicated to produce
(1) In G0 phase, cells are metabolically
identical sister chromatids at the S - Phase
inactive
(2) In G0 phase, cells are metabolically active (3) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous

(3) Diploid somatic cells of animals divide chromosomes and recombination

only by meiotic division between non homologous chromosome

(4) In plants only haploid cells can show (4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end
mitotic divisions of meiosis-II

Q.25 Which of the following is not a significance

Q.28 Which of the following is not a significance
of mitosis ?
of meiosis ?
(1) Maintenance of identical genetic
(1) Helps in conservation of specific
complement
chromosome number in each species
(2) Cell repair
(3) Restore nucleo cytoplasmic ratio (2) Increase in genetic variability

(4) Genetic variability (3) Helps in evolution

(4) Helps in growth of organism

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.29 A cell has 46 chromosomes at each pole in Q.33 Select the correct option with respect to
mitotic telophase. In this division the number mitosis
of chromatids at the metaphase was :- (1) Chromatids separate but remain in the
(1) 23 (2) 46 (3) 92 (4) 69 centre of the cell in anaphase.
(2) Chromatids start moving towards oposite
Q.30 Number of chromatids in each chromosome
poles in telophase.
at anaphase is- (3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum
(1) One in mitosis, one in meiosis-l and two are still visible at the end of prophase.
in meiosis-II (4) Chromosomes move to the spindle
(2) One in mitosis, two in meiosis-l and one equator and get aligned along equatorial
in meiosis-II plate in metaphase
(3) Two in mitosis, one in meiosis-l and two Q.34 Identify the meiotic stage in which the
in meiosis-II homologous chromosomes separate while the
(4) Two in mitosis, two in meiosis-l and two sister chromatids remain associated at their
in meiosis-II centromeres :-
(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II
Q.31 During meiosis how many cycles of nucleus
(3) Metaphase I (4) Metaphase II
division, DNA replication and division of
centromere take place respectively? Q.35 Which of the following organelles can be

(1) Three, Two, One observed in a cell even after completion of

prophase?
(2) One, Two, Two
(1) Golgi complex
(3) Two, Two, One
(2) Mitochondria
(4) Two, One, One
(3) Nucleus
Q.32 Multinucleated condition in the liquid (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
endosperm of coconut arises because :-
Q.36 Number of chromosome pairs at equator
(1) DNA replication does not occur
in a diploid plant cell in metaphase-I
during cell cycle
(for which n = 25) shall be-
(2) Separation of sister chromatids does not (1) 50 (2) 100 (3) 75 (4) 25
occur in anaphase
Q.37 In a diploid cell before S-phase if quantity of
(3) Condensation of chromosomal material
DNA is 20 pico gram (pg) then after meiosis
does not occur in prophase
I what will be the quantity of DNA in each
(4) Karyokinesis is not followed by daughter cell ?
cytokinesis (1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg (3) 5 pg (4) 40 pg

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

MATCH THE COLUMNS QUESTIONS Q.40 Match the column–I with column–II and
Q.38 Match the column–I with column–II and select the correct answer:
select the correct answer: Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II (A) Division of (i) Undividing
Compaction of nucleus cells
(A) Pachytene (i) Chromosomes (B) Division of (ii) Cytokinesis
starts cytoplasm
(B) Zygotene (ii) Chiasmata visible (C) Quiescent stage (iii) Formation of
Terminalisation of syncytium
(C) Diplotene (iii)
chiasmata (D) Karyokinesis (iv) Karyokinesis
(D) Leptotene (iv) Distinct tetrad not followed by
(E) Diakinesis (v) Synapsis cytokinesis
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv, E–v (1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–iii (2) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–v, D–ii, E–i (3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i, E–v (4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

Q.39 Match the column–I with column–II and Q.41 Match the column–I with column–II and
select the correct answer:
select the correct answer:
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) Separation of (i) Interphase
(A) Disintegration of (i) Anaphase
daughter
nuclear membrane
chromosomes
(B) Appearance of (ii) Prophase
(B) Division of (ii) Karyokinesis
nucleolus
cytoplasm
(C) Division of (iii) Telophase
(C) Phase between (iii) S-phase
centromere
two successive
(D) Synthesis of RNA (iv) G1- phase
M-Phases
and proteins
(D) Synthesis phase (iv) Cytokinesis
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii) (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) (4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.42 Match the column–I with column–II and Q.44 Match the column–I with column–II and
select the correct answer: select the correct answer:
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) Pachytene (i) Pairing of
homologous (A Leptotene (i) Crossing over
chromosomes ) occurs
(B) Metaphase-I (ii) Terminalisation of (B) Zygotene (ii) Lasts for months or
chiasmata years in vertebrates
(C) Diakinesis (iii) Crossing over takes (C) Pachytene (iii) First sub-stage of
place
prophase I
(D) Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align
(D Diplotene (iv) Synapsis
at equatorial plate
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) )
(2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Q.43 Match the column–I with column–II and
select the correct answer:
Column-I Column-II Q.45 Match the column–I with column–II and
(A) Chromosomes in (i) Metaphase select the correct answer:
matching pairs plate Column-I Column-II
(B) Cell divides to give two (ii) Homologous
(A) G1 phase (i) Cells quiescent
daughter cells chromosomes
(B) M phase (ii) Longest phase of the
(C) Precursor for cell wall (iii) Cell plate
cell cycle
formation that represents
the middle lamella (C) S phase (iii) Less than 5% of the
between the walls of two total duration of cell
adjacent cells is called cycle
(D) The plane of alignment of (iv) Mitosis (D) G0 phase (iv) DNA content
the chromosomes at
doubles
metaphase is referred to
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
as the
(1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) (3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.46 Match the column–I with column–II and A-R / STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
select the correct answer:
Q.48 Assertion: Every chromosome, during
Column-I Column-II
metaphase has two chromatids.
(A) Centriole (i) S phase
Reason: Synthesis of DNA takes places in
duplication
the S-phase of interphase.
(B) Alignment of (ii) Metaphase
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
chromosomes at
correct explanation of A.
equator
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
(C) Chromatids move (iii) Anaphase
correct explanation of A.
to opposite poles
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
(D) Chromosomes (iv) Telophase
(4) If A is false, but R is true.
lose their
Q.49 Assertion: Cell growth is a continuous
individuality
process in terms of cytoplasmic increase.
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
Reason: DNA synthesis occurs only during
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
two specific stages in the cell cycle.
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
correct explanation of A.
Q.47 Match the column–I with column–II and (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
select the correct answer: correct explanation of A.
Column-I Column-II (3) If A is true, but R is false.
(A) G1 phase (i) Synthesis of tubulin (4) If A is false, but R is true.
protein
Q.50 Assertion: G1 phase is the interval between
(B) S phase (ii) Most dramatic
mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
period of cell cycle
Reason: The cell is metabolically inactive
(C) G2 phase (iii) DNA replication
during G1 phase.
(D) M phase (iv) Duplication of most
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
of the cell organelles
correct explanation of A.
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
correct explanation of A.
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) If A is false, but R is true.

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.51 Assertion: Meiosis increases the genetic Q.54 Assertion- Meiotic division occurs in
variability in the population of organisms reproductive cells.
from one generation to the next. Reason- As a result of meiosis, gametes are
Reason: Meiosis involve crossing over. formed.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false. (3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) If A is false, but R is true. (4) If A is false, but R is true.

Q.52 Assertion – In mitosis, two identical cells are Q.55 Assertion- Small disc- shaped structures at
produced from a single cell and karyokinesis the surface of the centromeres are called
is followed by cytokinesis. kinetochores.
Reason – Cytokinesis is of two types, i.e. by Reason- Kinetochores are proteinaceous
cell-furrow method and cell plate method structures.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false. (3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) If A is false, but R is true. (4) If A is false, but R is true.

Q.53 Assertion- Meiotic division occurs in Q.56 Assertion- Some cells undergo G0- phase
reproductive cells. due to inactivation of cell cycle.
Reason- Synapsis occurs during zygotene of Reason- Cells at this stage remain
meiosis. metabolically active, but no longer proliferate.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false. (3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) If A is false, but R is true. (4) If A is false, but R is true.

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.57 Statement-I: Diplotene can last for months Q.60 Statement I – M phase is also called an
or years in oocytes of some vertebrates.
equational division.
Statement-II: In telophase-I, chromosome
do not reach the extremely extended state of Statement II- The number of chromosomes
the interphase nucleus.
in the parent and progeny cells is the same in
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is M phase.
incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
is correct. (2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
incorrect.
Q.58 Statement-I: Mitotic divisions in the
meristematic tissues- the apical and the (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
lateral meristem, result in a continuous
is correct.
growth of plants throughout their life.
Statement-II: The cells of the upper layer of the (4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
epidermis, cells of the lining of the gut and blood
Q.61 Statement I- In some organisms,
cells are being constantly replaced by mitosis.
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. multinucleate condition arises when
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis.
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II Statement II- Cytokinesis in animals occurs
is correct.
by formation of furrow in cell wall.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
Q.59 Statement-I: Daughter cells are exactly (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
similar in all respect in case of mitosis.
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
Statement-II: Daughter cells have half the
number of chromosomes as compared to incorrect.
mother cell in mitosis.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is is correct.
incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

NEET-FLASHBACK
Q.1 A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Q.3 In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle:
Select the answer which gives correct [AIPMT-2014]

identification of the stage with its (1) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in

characteristics: [NEET-2013] each cell

(2) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(3) Amount of DNA remains same in each
cell
(4) Chromosome number is increased

(1) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum Q.4 During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount
and nucleolus not of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the
reformed yet. initial amount is denoted as 2C?

(2) Telophase Nuclear envelope [AIPMT-2014]

reforms, Golgi complex (1) G2 and M (2) G0 and G1

(3) G1 and S (4) Only G2
reforms.
(3) Late Chromosomes move Q.5 The enzyme recombinase is required at

Anaphase away from equatorial which stage of meiosis? [AIPMT-2014]

plate, Golgi complex not (1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene

present. (3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene

(4) Cytokinesis Cell plate formed, Q.6 Arrange the following events of meiosis in
mitochondria distributed correct sequence: [AIPMT-2015]

between two daughter A. Crossing over

cells. B. Synapsis
C. Terminalisation of chiasmata
Q.2 The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
D. Disappearance of nucleolus
homologous chromosomes is called:
(1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
[NEET-2013]
(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(1) Axoneme (2) Equatorial plate
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) Kinetochores (4) Bivalent (4) (B), (A), (D), (C)

Page | 128
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.7 A somatic cell that has just completed the S Q.9 In meiosis, crossing over is initiated at:
phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete
[NEET-2016 – I]
of the same species, has: [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Pachytene
(1) Twice the number of chromosomes and
four times the amount of DNA (2) Leptotene

(2) Four times the number of chromosomes (3) Zygotene

and twice the amount of DNA
(4) Diplotene
(3) Twice the number of chromosomes and
twice the amount of DNA Q.10 Which of the following is not a characteristic
(4) Same number of chromosomes but twice feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
the amount of DNA
[NEET-2016 – I]
Q. 8 Select the correct option: [Re-AIPMT 2015]
Column I Column II (1) Spindle fibres
Synapsis aligns the (2) Disappearance of nucleolus
A Homologous i Anaphase-II
(3) Chromosome movement
chromosomes
Synthesis of RNA (4) Synapsis
B ii Zygotene
and Protein
Q.11 Spindle fibres attach on to :-
Action of enzyme
C iii G2-phase [NEET-2016 – I]
Recombinase
(1) Telomere of the chromosome
Centromeres do not
(2) Kinetochore of the chromosome
separate but
D chromosomes move iv Anaphase-I (3) Centromere of the chromosome
towards opposite
(4) Kinetosome of the chromosome
poles
v Pachytene Q.12 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv place in: [NEET-2016 – II]
(2) A-ii B-iii C-iv D-v
(1) G2 phase (2) M phase
(3) A-ii B-i C-iii D-iv
(4) A-ii B-iii C-v D-iv (3) S phase (4) G1 phase

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.13 When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, Q.16 Which of the following statements is correct

which checkpoint should be predominantly with respect to cell cycle? [2017-Gujarat]

activated? [NEET-2016 – II] (1) DNA content of cell remains constant

(1) M (2) Both G2/M and M during entire cell cycle

(3) G1/S (4) G2/M (2) A cell in G1 phase has double the amount
Q.14 Match the stages of meiosis in Column–I to of DNA than a cell in G2 phase
their characteristic features in Column–II and (3) Each chromosome has two chromatids in
select the correct option using the codes G1 phase
given below: [NEET-2016 – II] (4) Nerve cells in adult human are in G0 state
Column I Column II
A Pachytene i Pairing of homologous Q.17 DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

Chromosomes [2017-Delhi]

B Metaphase ii Terminalisation of (1) During S-phase

chiasmata (2) Within nucleolus
C Diakinesis iii Crossing over takes (3) Prior to fission
place (4) Just before transcription
D Zygotene iv Chromosomes align at
Q.18 Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a
equatorial plate
protein degradation machinery necessary for
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
defective in a human cell, which of the
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
following is expected to occur? [2017-Delhi]
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(1) Chromosomes will not condense
Q.15 At what phase of meiosis homologous
(2) Chromosomes will be fragmented
chromosomes are separated?
(3) Chromosomes will not segregate
[2017-Gujarat]
(4) Recombination of chromosome arms
(1) Anaphase II (2) Prophase I
will occur
(3) Prophase II (4) Anaphase I

Page | 130
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.19 Which of the following options gives the Q.23 After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells
correct sequence of events during mitosis? have:- [NEET-2019 (Odisha)]
[NEET-2017] (1) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell
(1) Condensation → Nuclear membrane in S phase
disassembly → Crossing over → (2) Twice the amount of DNA in comparison
Segregation → Telophase to haploid gamete.
(2) Condensation → Nuclear membrane (3) Same amount of DNA in comparison to
disassembly→ Arrangement at equator →
haploid gamete
Centromere division → Segregation →
(4) Four times the amount of DNA in avibs
Telophase
comparison to haploid gamete
(3) Condensation → Crossing over →
Nuclear membrane disassembly → Q.24 Crossing over takes place between which
Segregation → Telophase chromatids and in which stage of the cell
(4) Condensation → Arrangement at equator cycle ? [NEET-2019 (Odisha)]
→ Centromere division → Segregation → (1) Non-sister chromatids of non-
Telophase homologous chromosomes at Zygotene

Q.20 The stage during which separation of the stage of prophase I.

paired homologous chromosomes begins is (2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous

[NEET-2018] chromosomes at Pachytene stage of

(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene prophase I.
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes at Zygotene stage of
Q.21 Cell in G0 phase [NEET-2019]
(1) Exit the cell cycle prophase I.

(2) Enter the cell cycle (4) Non-sister chromatids of non-

(3) Suspend the cell cycle homologous chromosomes at Pachytene

(4) Terminate the cell cycle stage of prophase I.

Q.22 The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle Q.25 Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
is: [NEET-2019] enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
(1) M → G1→ G2→ S quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
(2) G1→ G2→ S → M the end of: [NEET-2020]
(3) S → G1 → G2→ M (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(4) G1→ S → G2→ M (3) G2 phase (4) M phase

Page | 131
 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.26 Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex Q.30 Match the following events that occur in their
occurs during: [NEET-2020] respective phases of cell cycle and select the
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene correct option: [2020 Covid Re-NEET]
(3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene
A G1 phase i Cell grows and
Q.27 Identify the correct statement with regard
organelle
to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
Duplication
[NEET-2020]
B S phase ii DNA replication and
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components
takes place. chromosome

(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but duplication

does not replicate its DNA. C G2 phase iii Cytoplasmic growth

(3) Nuclear division takes place. D Metaphase iv Alignment of
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
in M-phase chromosomes
Q.28 Match the following with respect to meiosis: (1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
[NEET-2020]
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
Column – I Column – II
A Zygotene i Terminalization (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

B Pachytene ii Chiasmata (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

C Diplotene iii Crossing over

Q.31 Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores
D Diakinesis iv Synapsis
of chromosomes becomes evident in:
Select the correct option from the following:
[2020 Covid Re-NEET]
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (1) Telophase (2) Prophase

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase

(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

Q.32 In a cell cycle, the correct sequence of
Q.29 During Meiosis I, in which stage synapsis phases is [2020 Covid Re-NEET]
takes place? [2020 Covid Re-NEET]
(1) G1, S, G2, M (2) M, G1, G2, S
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
(3) G1, G2, S, M (4) S, G1, G2, M
(3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene

Page | 132
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.33 Match List-I with List-II. Q.36 The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each

[2020 Covid Re-NEET] cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the

number of chromosomes at G₁ phase is 8,
List - I List - II
what would be the number of chromosomes
(A) S phase (i) Proteins are
after S phase ? [NEET-2021]
synthesized
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 4 (4) 32
(B) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
Q.37 Which stage of meiotic prophase shows as its
(C) Quiescent (iii) Interval between terminalisation of chiasmata distinctive
stage mitosis and feature? [NEET-2021]
initiation of DNA (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene

replication (3) Diakinesis (4) Pachytene

(D) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication Q.38 The synaptonemal complex formed by a pair

Choose the correct answer from the options of synapsed homologous chromosomes is
called [NEET-2021 (Paper-2)]
given below.
(1) Bivalent (2) Tetravalent
(1) A-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) Tetrad (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) A-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i) Q.39 Which is incorrect statement about meiosis?
(3) A-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) [NEET-2021 (Paper-2)]
(4) A-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) (1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division called meiosis I
Q.34 The centriole undergoes duplication during:
and meiosis II but only a single cycle of
[NEET-2021] DNA replication.
(1) S-phase (2) Prophase (2) Meiosis I is initiated after parental
(3) Metaphase (4) G2 phase chromosome have replicated to produce
sister chromatids at the S-phase.
Q.35 Which of the following stages of meiosis
(3) Meiosis involves pairing of non-
involves division of centromere? homologous chromosomes and
[NEET-2021] recombination between them.

(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II (4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end
of meiosis-II.
(3) Anaphase II (4) Telophase II

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.40 The following figure represents Q.43 The appearance of recombination nodules on

[NEET-2021 (Paper-2)] homologous chromosomes during meiosis

characterizes [NEET-2022]
(1) Synaptonemal complex
(2) Bivalent
(3) Sites at which crossing over occurs
(4) Terminalisation

Q.44 Regarding meiosis. which of the statements

(1) Metaphase is Incorrect? [NEET-2022]
(2) Transition to metaphase (1) There are two stages in meiosis,
meiosis -l and II
(3) Anaphase
(2) DNA replication occurs in S phase of
(4) Telophase
meiosis -ll.
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Q.41 Which one of the following never occurs
and recombination occurs m meiosis-I.
during mitotic cell division? [NEET-2022]
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end
(1) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of of meiosis – II
chromosomes Q.45 Given below are two statements one is
(2) Movement of centrioles towards opposite labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
[NEET-2022 (OVERSEAS)]
(4) Coiling and condensation of the Assertion (A): The growth of multicellular
chromatids organism is due to mitosis.
Reason (R): Mitosis is also called as
Q.42 Select the incorrect statement with reference
equational division and it offers genetic
to mitosis. [NEET-2022] stability.
(1) All the chromosomes lie at the equator at In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
metaphase
below:
(2) Spindle fibres attach to centromere of (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
chromosomes (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Chromosomes decondense at telophase.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(4) Splitting of centromere occurs at the correct explanation of (A)
anaphase. (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.46 In prophase I of Meiosis, chromosomes Q.49 Select the correct sequence of events
start pairing together and synapsis takes occurring during Prophase-I of Meiosis-I.
place. This process occurs during which of
(a) Nuclear envelope breakdown
the following stage?
[NEET-2022 (OVERSEAS)] (b) Synaptonemal complex formation

(1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene (c) Compaction of chromosomes

(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
Q.47 Given below are two statements one is (e) Crossing over
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
labelled as Reason (R).
[NEET-2022 (OVERSEAS)] options given below :

Assertion (A): The beginning of diplotene is [NEET-2022 (OVERSEAS)]

recognised by the dissolution of the (1) (c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (e)
synaptonemal complex and formation of X
(2) (b) → (c) → (a) → (d) → (e)
shaped structures called chiasmata.
Reason (R): In oocytes of some vertebrates, (3) (c) → (a) → (b) → (e) → (d)

diplotene can last for months or years. (4) (c) → (b)→(e) → (d) → (a)
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given Q.50 Which stage of meiosis can last for months or

below: years in the oocytes of some verterbrates ?

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct [Re-NEET-2022]
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis

the correct explanation of (A)

Q.51 In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
genetic material between homologous
Q.48 The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested
for years or months in: chromosomes are catalyzed by the enzyme:-

[NEET-2022 (OVERSEAS)] [Re-NEET-2022]

(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis (1) Phosphorylase (2) Recombinase
(3) Metaphase – I (4) Telophase - I
(3) Transferase (4) Polymerase

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.52 Identify the correct sequence of events during Q.55 The process of appearance of recombination
Prophase I of meiosis: nodules occurs at which sub stage of
(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes prophase I in meiosis? [NEET-2023]
(b) Chromosomes become gradually visible (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
under microscope (3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
(c) Crossing over between non-sister Q.56 Select the correct statements. [NEET-2023]
chromatids of homologous chromosomes A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split
(e) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex and chromatids separate.
Choose the correct answer from the options C. Terminalization takes place during
given below : [Re-NEET-2022] Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
reformed during Telophase.
(2) (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
E. Crossing over takes place between sister
(3) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
chromatids of homologous chromosome.
(4) (a), (c), (d), (e), (b)
Choose the correct answer from the
Q.53 Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a options given below:
characteristic feature observed during: (1) B and D only (2) A, C and E only
[Re-NEET-2022] (3) B and E only (4) A and C only
(1) Synaptonemal complex in zygotene stage Q.57 Given below are two statements:
(2) Chiasmata in Diplotene stage [NEET-2023]
(3) Synaptonemal complex in Pachytene Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle,
stage the cell is metabolically inactive.
(4) Chiasmata in zygotene stage Statement II: The centrosome undergoes
duplication during S phase of interphase.
Q.54 With respect to metaphase, which of the
In the light of the above statements, choose
following statements is incorrect?
the most appropriate answer from the options
[Re-NEET-2022]
given below:
(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
envelope takes place incorrect.
(2) Chromosomes are highly condensed (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Metaphase chromosomes are made up incorrect.
of four sister chromatids held together (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
by centromere is correct.
(4) Chromosomes lie at the equator of the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
cell correct.

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.58 Which of the following stages of meiosis Q.62 During which stages of mitosis and meiosis,
involves division of centromere? respectively does the centromere of each
[NEET-2023]
chromosome split ?
(1) Metaphase II (2) Anaphase II
[NEET-2023 (MANIPUR)]
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase I
(1) Metaphase, Metaphase II
Q.59 Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes
(2) Prophase, Telophase I
place in: [NEET-2023]
(3) Telophase, Anaphase I
(1) S phase (2) G1 phase
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase (4) Anaphase, Anaphase II

Q.60 Match List I with List II: Q.63 Which one of the following is the quiescent
List-I List- II
stage of cell cycle ?
A M Phase i Proteins are
synthesized [NEET-2023 (MANIPUR)]

B G2 Phase ii Inactive phase (1) M (2) G2

C Quiescent iii Interval between (3) G1 (4) G0
stage mitosis and initiation
Q.64 Select correct sequence of substages of
of DNA replication
Prophase-I of Meiotic division:
D G1 Phase iv Equational division
Choose the correct answer from the options (A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene

given below: [NEET-2023] (C) Diakinesis (D) Leptotene

(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (E) Diplotene
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
given below : [NEET-2023 (MANIPUR)]
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(1) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)
Q.61 The dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(2) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
occurs during : [NEET-2023 (MANIPUR)]
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene (3) (D), (A), (B), (E), (C)

(3) Diakinesis (4) Leptotene (4) (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q.65 Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of Q.68 Match List I and List II:

chromosomes during [NEET 2024] List I List II

(Sub Phases of (Specific characters)
(1) Telophase (2) Prophase Prophase I)
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase A. Diakinesis i. Synaptonemal

complex formation
Q.66 Given below are two statements:
B. Pachytene ii. Completion of
Statement I: Chromosomes become
terminalisation of
gradually visible under light microscope
chiasmata
during leptotene stage.
C. Zygotene iii. Chromosomes look
Statement II: The begining of diplotene
like thin threads
stage is recognized by dissolution of

synaptonemal complex. D. Leptotene iv. Appearance of

In the light of the above statements, recombination

choose the correct answer from the nodules

options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true given below: [NEET 2024]
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

Q.67 Following are the stages of cell divisions. (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
A. Gap 2 phase B. Cytokinesis

C. Synthesis phase D. Karyokinesis Q.69 Recombination between homologous

E. Gap 1 phase
chromosomes is completed by the end of:
Choose the correct sequence of stages from
[Re-NEET 2024]
the option given below: [NEET 2024]
(1) Diakinesis (2) Zygotene
(1) C-E-D-A-B (2) E-B-D-A-C
(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene
(2) B-D-E-A-C (4) E-C-A-D-B

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.70 Match List-I with List-II: Q.71 Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II List-I List-II

A. Cells are metabolically i. G2 phase
(Event) Stage of prophase-I
active and proliferate
(Meiosis-I) B. DNA replication takes ii. G1 phase
A. Chiasmata i. Pachytene place

formation C. Proteins are synthesized iii. G0 phase

D. Quiescent stage with iv. S phase
B. Crossing over ii. Diakinesis
metabolically active cells
C. Synaptonemal iii. Diplotene Choose the correct answer from the
complex formation options given below:
[Re-NEET 2024]
D. Terminalisation of iv. Zygotene
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
chiasmata
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
Choose the correct answer from the (3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

options given below: [Re-NEET 2024] (4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) Q.72 What is the main function of the spindle
fibers during mitosis? [NEET-2025]
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(1) To repair damaged DNA
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) To regulate cell growth
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (3) To separate the chromosomes
(4) To synthesize new DNA

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 Easy to Learn…. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

ANSWER KEY

PRACTICE SECTION-01
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans: 1 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 2 4 1 1 1 2 3

PRACTICE SECTION-02
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans: 4 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 1

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 4 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 4 1 4 3 1 4 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 4 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 1 2 3 1 1
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
Que. 91 92
Ans. 3 2

RANKER'S STUFF
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 3 4 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 4 4 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 1
Que. 61
Ans. 4

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BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

NEET-FLASHBACK
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 2 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 2 3 4 1 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 2 1 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
Ans. 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 3

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