Week 1

1. Biodiversity refers to —

A. Variety of life forms

B. Variety of planets
C. Variety of rocks
D. None
Ans: A

2. Earth Summit 1992 de ned biodiversity as variability among —

A. Animals
B. Living organisms of all sources
C. Marine animals only
D. Plants only
Ans: B

3. Which of the following is NOT a level of biodiversity?

A. Genetic
B. Species
C. Ecosystem
D. Geological
Ans: D

4. Genetic diversity refers to —

A. Diversity between ecosystems

B. Variation of genes within species
C. Number of species in region
D. All of these
Ans: B

5. Species richness means —

A. Equality of species
B. Number of species present
C. Number of genes
D. Total biomass
Ans: B

6. Species evenness means —

A. Equal number of species

B. Equal abundance of individuals
fi
 C. Equal biomass
D. Equal genes
Ans: B

7. Ecosystem diversity refers to —

A. Diversity of habitats
B. Diversity of ecosystems
C. Diversity of communities
D. All of the above
Ans: D

8. Consumptive use value is —

A. Aesthetic value
B. Use of products directly consumed
C. Ethical value
D. Cultural value
Ans: B

9. Productive use value includes —

A. Bird watching
B. Timber and medicinal product trade
C. Worship of plants
D. Pollination
Ans: B

10. Indicator species include —

A. Lions
B. Orchids
C. Frogs
D. Elephants
Ans: C

11. Keystone species example —

A. Sparrow
B. Star sh
C. Ant
D. Pigeon
Ans: B

12. Foundation species include —

A. Corals
B. Mosquitoes
C. Tigers
D. Snakes
Ans: A
fi
13. Endemic species means —

A. Found everywhere
B. Found only in one region
C. Extinct species
D. Migratory species
Ans: B

14. Extinct species means —

A. No individuals alive
B. Small population
C. Migratory
D. Newly discovered
Ans: A

15. Rare species means —

A. Not endangered but low population

B. Extinct
C. Found everywhere
D. High population
Ans: A

16. Exotic species are —

A. Always harmful
B. Native
C. Introduced by humans
D. Extinct
Ans: C

17. Predation is —

A. One organism kills and eats another

B. Both bene t
C. Only plants involved
D. None
Ans: A

18. Parasitism is —

A. Both bene t
B. One bene ts, one harmed
C. Both harmed
D. Neither harmed
Ans: B

19. Competition occurs when —

fi
fi
fi
A. Unlimited resources
B. Limited resources shared
C. No organisms present
D. Only plants exist
Ans: B

20. Biodiversity hotspots must contain at least —

A. 500 endemic plants

B. 1500 endemic vascular plants
C. 1000 endemic mammals
D. None
Ans: B

21. Hotspot must have lost —

A. 10% vegetation
B. 30%
C. >70%
D. 5%
Ans: C

22. Number of global biodiversity hotspots —

A. 10
B. 20
C. 36
D. 50
Ans: C

23. India has how many hotspots?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: D (Western Ghats, Himalayas, Sundaland, Indo-Burma)

24. Western Ghats are known for —

A. Desert ecosystem
B. Heavy rainfall and endemism
C. Grasslands
D. Tundra
Ans: B

25. Megadiverse countries must have —

A. 5000 endemic plant species

B. 100
C. 50
D. 1
Ans: A

26. What % of world species does India have?

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 20%
Ans: C

27. The main cause of biodiversity loss is —

A. Habitat destruction
B. Ocean waves
C. Natural disasters
D. None
Ans: A

28. Habitat fragmentation results in —

A. Larger continuous habitats

B. Smaller patches
C. Better biodiversity
D. None
Ans: B

29. Deforestation leads to —

A. Increase in species
B. Loss of biodiversity
C. More rainfall
D. Less soil erosion
Ans: B

30. Poaching refers to —

A. Legal hunting
B. Illegal killing or capturing of animals
C. Bird watching
D. Domesticating animals
Ans: B

31. Man-wildlife con ict example —

A. Honey production
B. Elephants killing humans in Orissa
C. Fish farming
D. Zoo animals
Ans: B
fl
32. Invasive species are —

A. Native
B. Non-native and harmful
C. Extinct
D. Always safe
Ans: B

33. GM crops contain genes inserted by —

A. Natural selection
B. Genetic engineering
C. Climate
D. Soil
Ans: B

34. First GM plant was —

A. Bt cotton
B. Antibiotic-resistant tobacco
C. Golden rice
D. Flavr Savr tomato
Ans: B

35. First commercial GM crop —

A. Golden rice
B. Flavr Savr tomato
C. Bt brinjal
D. GM mustard
Ans: B

36. Drought-resistant maize is called —

A. SunGard
B. DroughGard
C. WaterGard
D. DryMaize
Ans: B

37. Bioremediation uses —

A. Machines
B. Chemicals
C. Microorganisms
D. Robots
Ans: C

38. GMOs may cause —

A. Superweeds
B. More rainfall
C. Less nutrients
D. More soil
Ans: A

39. Horizontal gene transfer refers to —

A. Transfer from parent to child

B. Transfer between unrelated organisms
C. Transfer by insects
D. None
Ans: B

40. Greenhouse gases include —

A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. N₂O
D. All
Ans: D

41. Global warming is caused primarily by —

A. Increase in greenhouse gases

B. Earthquakes
C. Moon
D. Volcanoes only
Ans: A

42. Melting ice increases warming because —

A. Ice absorbs heat

B. Ocean absorbs more radiation
C. Ice produces CO₂
D. None
Ans: B

43. Acidic oceans are due to —

A. CO₂ absorption
B. More algae
C. Less salt
D. None
Ans: A

44. Sea levels have risen by —

A. 1 cm
B. 3 cm
 C. 8 inches since 1880
D. No rise
Ans: C

45. Climate change increases —

A. Wildlife extinction
B. Droughts
C. Heat waves
D. All of the above
Ans: D

46. The biggest contributor among greenhouse gases —

A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. O₂
D. He
Ans: A

47. Volcanic eruptions cause —

A. Cooling
B. Warming
C. Acid rain
D. Ozone healing
Ans: A (due to SO₂ re ecting sunlight)

48. Increasing livestock increases —

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Methane
C. Ozone
D. Hydrogen
Ans: B

49. Melting permafrost releases —

A. Oxygen
B. Methane & CO₂
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium
Ans: B

50. Re ection/absorption of sunlight is affected by —

A. Deforestation
B. Snow cover
C. Clouds
fl
fl
 D. All
Ans: D

Week 3
✅ 50 MCQs FROM YOUR MODULES
(WITH ANSWERS)
(ALL based on PDFs you uploaded)

🌞 SOLAR ENERGY ([Link]

)
1. Energy resources are classi ed into:
a) Thermal & Non-thermal
b) Renewable & Non-renewable
c) Solar & Nuclear
d) Natural & Arti cial
Ans: b

2. Net energy =
a) Output energy only
b) Input energy only
c) Output – Input energy
d) Solar energy collected
Ans: c

3. Which of the following is an indirect form of solar energy?

a) Solar cooker
b) PV cell
c) Wind energy
d) Solar heater
Ans: c

4. Solar cooker works on the principle of:

a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Re ection
d) Absorption (Black surface)
Ans: d
fl
fi
fi
 5. Passive solar system does NOT require:
a) Pumps
b) Fans
c) Electricity
d) All of the above
Ans: d

6. Flat plate collector is an example of:

a) Concentrating collector
b) Non-concentrating collector
c) PV collector
d) Solar turbine
Ans: b

7. The working principle of PV cells is:

a) Thermionic emission
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Induction
d) Pyrolysis
Ans: b

8. Largest solar park (given in your module) is located in:

a) Gujarat
b) Rajasthan
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Karnataka
Ans: b

9. PV cells produce:
a) AC directly
b) Only heat
c) DC
d) Sound energy
Ans: c

10. The semiconductor mostly used in PV cells is:

a) Copper
b) Aluminum
c) Silicon
d) Magnesium
Ans: c

💧 HYDROELECTRIC ENERGY ([Link]

)
11. Hydroelectricity converts:
a) Mechanical → Chemical
b) Kinetic → Mechanical → Electrical
 c) Electrical → Mechanical
d) Thermal → Electrical
Ans: b

12. Penstock carries:

a) Air
b) Steam
c) Water at high pressure
d) Coal
Ans: c

13. Pumped storage plants mainly operate during:

a) High demand
b) Low demand / off-peak
c) Monsoon
d) Power cuts
Ans: b

14. Ef ciency of hydropower plants is approximately:

a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 80%+
d) 10%
Ans: c

15. A major disadvantage of hydroelectric dams is:

a) Zero emissions
b) Cheap operation
c) Displacement of people
d) No water needed
Ans: c

16. Hydropower is:

a) Non-renewable
b) Indirect solar energy
c) Fossil-based
d) Nuclear-based
Ans: b

🌬 WIND ENERGY ([Link])

17. Wind energy originates from:
a) Earth’s rotation
b) Solar heating of Earth
c) Moon’s gravity
d) Seismic vibrations
Ans: b

18. Most commonly used wind turbine:

a) Vertical axis
fi
 b) Horizontal axis
c) Water turbine
d) Geothermal turbine
Ans: b

19. Wind mills convert:

a) Solar → Thermal
b) Kinetic → Mechanical
c) Mechanical → Chemical
d) Chemical → Electrical
Ans: b

20. Wind energy has the disadvantage:

a) Non-renewable
b) High noise
c) Emits CO₂
d) Low ef ciency
Ans: b

21. A collection of wind turbines is called:

a) Wind zone
b) Wind park
c) Wind farm
d) Wind pool
Ans: c

22. Wind energy is:

a) Guaranteed 24/7
b) Highly inconsistent
c) Non-renewable
d) Always predictable
Ans: b

🌿 BIOMASS & BIOFUELS ([Link]

)
23. Biomass is mainly:
a) Metals
b) Organic matter
c) Nuclear waste
d) Minerals
Ans: b

24. Biomass combustion produces:

a) Electricity via steam turbine
b) Hydrogen directly
c) Solar energy
fi
 d) Nuclear ssion
Ans: a

25. Anaerobic digestion produces:

a) CO only
b) Methane-rich biogas
c) Only liquid fuel
d) Hydrogen
Ans: b

26. Main gas in biogas:

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Methane (~65%)
d) Helium
Ans: c

27. Pyrolysis occurs in:

a) Presence of oxygen
b) Absence of oxygen
c) Underwater
d) High wind
Ans: b

28. Bioethanol is produced by:

a) Combustion
b) Fermentation of sugar/starch
c) Gasi cation
d) Pyrolysis
Ans: b

29. First-generation biofuels use:

a) Coal
b) Lignocellulosic waste
c) Carbohydrate crops (sugarcane, corn)
d) Plastic
Ans: c

30. Biodiesel is made from:

a) Water
b) Vegetable oils + alcohol
c) Oxygen only
d) Sand
Ans: b

31. Byproduct of biogas plant:

a) Toxic sludge
b) Biofertilizer
c) CO gas
d) Uranium
Ans: b
fi
fi
 32. Biomass is considered carbon-neutral because:
a) It contains no carbon
b) It absorbs and releases same CO₂ amount
c) No burning involved
d) It is arti cial
Ans: b

⚪ HYDROGEN ENERGY ([Link]

)
33. Hydrogen is:
a) Energy source
b) Energy carrier
c) Fossil fuel
d) Metal
Ans: b

34. Most hydrogen today is produced by:

a) Electrolysis
b) Photolysis
c) Steam methane reforming
d) Biomass pyrolysis
Ans: c

35. Electrolysis splits:

a) CO₂
b) Water
c) Nitrogen
d) Methane
Ans: b

36. Hydrogen fuel cells produce:

a) CO₂
b) Smoke
c) Water + Electricity + Heat
d) Hydrogen gas
Ans: c

37. In fuel cells, hydrogen is supplied to the:

a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Center
d) Electrolyte
Ans: b

38. Solar-hydrogen cycle includes:

a) Solar heater + fan
b) Solar PV + Electrolyzer + Hydrogen tank + Fuel cell
fi
 c) Only solar cooker
d) None
Ans: b

39. Hydrogen storage is dif cult because:

a) Highly dense
b) Highly reactive & low volume energy density
c) Produces soot
d) Expensive electricity
Ans: b

40. Main advantage of hydrogen:

a) Zero emission
b) High CO₂ release
c) Non-renewable
d) Extremely cheap
Ans: a

🚗 ELECTRIC & CNG VEHICLES ([Link]

)
41. EVs run on:
a) Petrol
b) Diesel
c) Electric motor + Battery
d) Nuclear reactor
Ans: c

42. BEV stands for:

a) Basic Electric Vehicle
b) Battery Electric Vehicle
c) Boost Engine Vehicle
d) Balanced Energy Vehicle
Ans: b

43. PHEV has:

a) Only battery
b) Only petrol
c) Battery + Internal combustion engine
d) None
Ans: c

44. HEV gets energy from:

a) Plug-in charging
b) Solar only
c) Petrol + Regenerative braking
d) Hydrogen
Ans: c
fi
45. FCEV uses:
a) Coal cell
b) Zinc cell
c) Hydrogen fuel cell
d) Diesel
Ans: c

46. CNG mainly contains:

a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Propane
d) Butane
Ans: b

47. CNG is stored at:

a) 10 psi
b) 100 psi
c) 3000–3600 psi
d) 1 psi
Ans: c

48. CNG cost compared to petrol:

a) Same
b) Double
c) One-third / One- fth
d) Higher
Ans: c

49. EVs are quieter because:

a) No tyres
b) No moving parts like IC engines
c) No brakes
d) They use steam
Ans: b

50. Main drawback of EVs:

a) Zero emissions
b) Range anxiety + Charging time
c) Too noisy
d) Cannot use batteries
Ans: b

Week 4
fi
 📘 SECTION 1 — GLOBAL CLIMATE
CHANGE & GREENHOUSE EFFECT
(From [Link]

1. The natural greenhouse effect is caused by gases that:

a) Re ect UV light
b) Absorb and re-emit infrared radiation
c) Convert CO₂ to oxygen
d) Trap UV-C
Ans: b

2. Which gas has the highest concentration among greenhouse gases naturally?
a) CO₂
b) CH₄
c) Water vapor
d) Ozone
Ans: c

3. Global warming refers to:

a) Natural heating of Earth
b) Human-enhanced warming of the atmosphere
c) Volcano-driven heating
d) Only ozone loss
Ans: b

4. Heat waves increase due to:

a) Falling humidity
b) Warmer atmosphere holding more moisture
c) Less cloud formation
d) Melting glaciers
Ans: b

5. Melting ice accelerates warming because:

a) Ice absorbs heat
b) Ice re ects 10% sunlight
c) Darker ocean absorbs more radiation
d) CO₂ forms on ice
Ans: c

6. Permafrost thaw releases:

a) Hydrogen
b) Methane & CO₂
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Ozone
Ans: b
fl
fl
7. Increased ground-level ozone is associated with:
a) Cooler temperatures
b) High rainfall
c) Higher temperatures & sunlight
d) Earthquakes
Ans: c

8. Oceans become acidic mainly because they:

a) Release CO₂
b) Absorb excess CO₂
c) Evaporate faster
d) Emit methane
Ans: b

9. Global sea level has risen since 1880 by about:

a) 1–2 inches
b) 8 inches
c) 1 foot
d) 2 feet
Ans: b

10. Arctic temperatures are rising:

a) Same as global rate
b) Slower than global rate
c) Twice as fast
d) Not changing
Ans: c

11. Maldives is at risk because:

a) All islands lie above 100 m
b) Islands lie <1 m above sea level
c) Frequent volcanoes
d) Strong earthquakes
Ans: b

12. Vertebrate species are disappearing:

a) As expected
b) 114× faster
c) Not affected
d) 2× slower
Ans: b

13. Largest contributor to global warming is:

a) Methane
b) CO₂ from human activities
c) Ozone
d) CFCs
Ans: b

14. CO₂ concentration today is approximately:

a) 200 ppm
b) 300 ppm
 c) 414.8 ppm
d) 500 ppm
Ans: c

15. Which methane source is most noted?

a) Oceans
b) Livestock
c) Forests
d) Volcanic emissions
Ans: b

16. Urban heat islands occur due to:

a) Higher forests
b) Dark surfaces absorbing more heat
c) More lakes
d) More rainfall
Ans: b

17. Past ice ages were triggered mainly by changes in:

a) Ozone
b) Earth’s orbit
c) Forest res
d) Volcanoes
Ans: b

18. Volcanic aerosols generally:

a) Warm Earth
b) Cool Earth
c) Have no effect
d) Increase sea level
Ans: b

19. Solar output measured since 1978 shows:

a) Large increase
b) Large decrease
c) No net increase
d) Doubled UV
Ans: c

20. Natural CO₂ levels over ages changed due to:

a) Deforestation
b) Glacial cycles
c) Ozone formation
d) Volcanoes only
Ans: b

📘 SECTION 2 — KYOTO PROTOCOL &

PARIS AGREEMENT
fi
(From [Link]

21. UNFCCC was held in:

a) Geneva
b) Rio de Janeiro
c) New York
d) Paris
Ans: b

22. COP stands for:

a) Climate Orientation Program
b) Conference of the Parties
c) Convention of Protocols
d) Country Operational Plan
Ans: b

23. India’s net-zero pledge at COP-26 is for:

a) 2030
b) 2050
c) 2070
d) 2100
Ans: c

24. Kyoto Protocol came into force in:

a) 1997
b) 2000
c) 2005
d) 2010
Ans: c

25. Kyoto Protocol is based on:

a) Equal responsibilities
b) Historical emissions
c) Common but differentiated responsibilities
d) No differentiation
Ans: c

26. Annex-I countries are:

a) Only developing
b) Developed + economies in transition
c) African nations
d) Island nations
Ans: b

27. Kyoto Protocol restricts:

a) Only CO₂
b) 7 greenhouse gases
c) Only CH₄
d) Only N₂O
Ans: b
 28. The U.S. position on Kyoto Protocol:
a) Rati ed fully
b) Never rati ed
c) Rati ed & withdrew
d) Led the treaty
Ans: b

29. International Emission Trading deals with:

a) Trading electricity
b) Trading unused emission units
c) Trading carbon credits between individuals
d) Trading minerals
Ans: b

30. CER stands for:

a) Clean Emission Rate
b) Certi ed Emission Reduction
c) Carbon Energy Resource
d) Clean Energy Ratio
Ans: b

31. 1 CER equals:

a) 1 kg CO₂
b) 1 tonne CO₂
c) 10 tonnes CO₂
d) 100 kg CO₂
Ans: b

32. Joint Implementation allows Annex-I countries to:

a) Reduce emissions only domestically
b) Invest in other Annex-I for reductions
c) Stop reporting emissions
d) Emit unlimited CO₂
Ans: b

33. Paris Agreement long-term goal is limiting temperature rise to:

a) <5°C
b) <3°C
c) <2°C (preferably 1.5°C)
d) <4°C
Ans: c

34. Paris Agreement came into force in:

a) 2015
b) 2016
c) 2018
d) 2020
Ans: b

35. Major emitter not ratifying Paris Agreement (as per le):
a) India
b) Iran
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
 c) Germany
d) Japan
Ans: b

📘 SECTION 3 — OZONE DEPLETION &

MONTREAL PROTOCOL
(From [Link]

36. Ozone layer is located in:

a) Troposphere
b) Lower stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
d) Thermosphere
Ans: b

37. Ozone absorbs:

a) All UV
b) Only UV-A
c) Most of UV-B & all of UV-C
d) Only visible light
Ans: c

38. The ozone hole thickness falls to around:

a) 400 DU
b) 300 DU
c) 220 DU or below
d) 50 DU
Ans: c

39. Largest ozone hole was recorded in:

a) 1987
b) 1995
c) 2000
d) 2010
Ans: c

40. PSCs (Polar Stratospheric Clouds) form at:

a) 0°C
b) –30°C
c) –80°C
d) 20°C
Ans: c

41. CFC breakdown produces:

a) Oxygen radicals
b) Chlorine radicals
 c) Nitrogen radicals
d) Methane
Ans: b

42. One chlorine atom can destroy:

a) 1 ozone molecule
b) 10
c) 100
d) Thousands
Ans: d

43. The ozone hole is largest over:

a) Arctic
b) Antarctic
c) Tropics
d) Equator
Ans: b

44. Landmark treaty for ozone protection:

a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Paris Agreement
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Rio Declaration
Ans: c

45. Class I ODS include:

a) CFCs
b) HFCs only
c) CO₂
d) Water vapor
Ans: a

46. HFCs do not harm ozone because they lack:

a) Carbon
b) Fluorine
c) Chlorine
d) Hydrogen
Ans: c

47. Foam insulation earlier used:

a) Water
b) HCFCs
c) Oxygen
d) CO₂
Ans: b

📘 SECTION 4 — ROLE OF IT IN
ENVIRONMENT
(From [Link]

48. LED bulbs are considered green tech because they:

a) Consume more energy
b) Last 50× longer and are 60% more ef cient
c) Emit UV
d) Are disposable
Ans: b

49. GIS is mainly used for:

a) Gaming
b) Mapping & analyzing Earth data
c) Cooking
d) Mining only
Ans: b

50. Remote sensing collects data by:

a) Direct physical contact
b) Satellites detecting re ected energy
c) Underwater cameras
d) Only thermometers
Ans: b
fl
fi