General bacteriology:

[Link] of the following is true about bacterial cell walls?

A. Gram-positive bacteria contain lipopolysaccharide

B. Gram-negative bacteria have thick peptidoglycan

C. Gram-positive cell walls have teichoic acids

D. Both types have periplasmic space

E. Mycoplasma has peptidoglycan layer

Answer: C.

[Link] statement about bacterial ribosomes is correct?

A. They are 80S like eukaryotes

B. They are site of lipid synthesis

C. They are 70S with 30S and 50S subunits

D. They are nonfunctional in spores

E. They contain nuclear membrane

Answer: C.

[Link] lag phase of the bacterial growth curve is characterized by:

A. Rapid cell division

B. No increase in cell number

C. Spore formation

D. Maximum metabolic activity

E. Death of cells

Answer: B
[Link] of the following is true regarding bacterial endospores?
A. They are produced by all gram-positive cocci
B. They are resistant due to thick polysaccharide coat
C. They contain dipicolinic acid and calcium
D. They are formed during rapid growth
E. They can be destroyed by boiling

Answer: C

[Link] bacterial growth curve, antibiotics are most effective during:

A. Lag phase

B. Log phase

C. Stationary phase

D. Death phase

E. Plateau phase

Answer: B

6. The principle of autoclaving is:

A. Dry heat denatures proteins

B. Moist heat under pressure kills spores

C. Radiation destroys nucleic acids

D. Chemicals inactivate enzymes

E. Heat evaporates toxins

Answer: B

[Link] that require oxygen but are inhibited by high concentration of oxygen are:
A. Obligate aerobes

B. Facultative anaerobes

C. Microaerophiles

D. Obligate anaerobes

E. Aerotolerant anaerobes

Answer: C

[Link] enzymes that detoxify oxygen radicals include:

A. Lysozyme and catalase

B. Superoxide dismutase and catalase

C. DNAase and lipase

D. Urease and oxidase

E. Peroxidase and coagulase

Answer: B

[Link] bacterial structure is most important for adherence to epithelial surfaces?

Answer: C.

[Link] temperature and pressure in an autoclave are:

B. 121°C, 15 psi

C. 134°C, 20 psi

D. 160°C, 10 psi

E. 90°C, 5 psi

Answer: B

11. A plasmid is best described as:

A. Protein structure on surface

B. Extra-chromosomal DNA

C. Cell wall component

D. Ribosomal RNA molecule

E. Transposon

Answer: B

[Link] process by which DNA is transferred via bacteriophage is:

A. Transformation

B. Conjugation

C. Transduction

D. Translation

E. Recombination

Answer: C
[Link] process of gene transfer involving direct cell-to-cell contact is:

A. Conjugation

B. Transformation

C. Transduction

D. Recombination

E. Transposition

Answer: A

[Link] ability of bacteria to take up free DNA from the environment is called:

A. Conjugation

B. Transformation

C. Transduction

D. Transcription

E. Translation

Answer: B

15. F factor in bacteria is responsible for:

A. Drug resistance

B. Toxin production

C. Fertility and conjugation

D. Transformation

E. Sporulation

Answer: C
16. Transposons are characterized by:

A. Self-replication outside chromosome

B. Ability to move within genome

C. Viral DNA integration

D. Plasmid conjugation

E. Antibiotic degradation

Answer: B

[Link] normal flora of the skin mainly consists of:

A. E. coli

B. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C. Enterococcus faecalis

D. Neisseria

E. Klebsiella

Answer: B

[Link] normal flora of the vagina during reproductive age is:

A. Candida albicans

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Lactobacillus species

D. Bacteroides

E. Clostridium

Answer: C
Systemic Bacteriology

[Link] most important virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus is:

A. Catalase

B. Coagulase

C. Protein A

D. Leukocidin

E. Enterotoxin

Answer: B

2. Staphylococcus epidermidis is distinguished from S. aureus by:

A. Catalase test

B. Coagulase test

C. Mannitol fermentation

D. Hemolysis on blood agar

E. Gram reaction

Answer: B

[Link] organism is best identified by the CAMP test?

Answer: B.
4. Rheumatic fever is caused by:

A. Type-specific capsule

B. M-protein cross-reactivity

C. Streptolysin O toxicity

D. Exotoxin A

E. Hemolysin α

Answer: B

5. Streptococcus agalactiae is primarily associated with:

A. Neonatal meningitis

B. Pneumonia in adults

C. Skin infection

D. Rheumatic fever

E. Food poisoning

Answer: A

6. Gas gangrene is caused by:

A. C. perfringens

B. C. difficile

C. C. tetani

D. C. botulinum

E. B. cereus

Answer: A
7. The diphtheria toxin acts by:

A. Inhibiting EF-2

B. Increasing cAMP

C. Damaging myelin

D. Lysing RBCs

E. Blocking DNA replication

Answer: A

[Link] cereus causes:

A. Botulism

B. Food poisoning

C. Meningitis

D. Scarlet fever

E. Gas gangrene

Answer: B

[Link] meningitidis is transmitted by:

A. Sexual contact

B. Respiratory droplets

C. Contaminated food

D. Arthropods

E. Fomites
Answer: B

10. Complication of N. gonorrhoeae in newborns:

A. Meningitis

B. Ophthalmia neonatorum

C. Pneumonia

D. Sepsis

E. Jaundice

Answer: B

[Link] major virulence factor of E. coli causing diarrhea is:

A. Endotoxin

B. Enterotoxin

C. Capsule

D. Flagella

E. Adhesin

Answer: B

12. Proteus species are recognized by:

A. Swarming on agar

B. Capsule

C. Green pigment
D. β-hemolysis

E. Acid-fast property

Answer: A

[Link] typhi can be identified by:

A. Lactose fermentation

B. H₂S production

C. Oxidase positivity

D. β-hemolysis

E. Urease test

Answer: B

[Link] differs from Salmonella because it is:

A. Motile

B. H₂S positive

C. Lactose fermenter

D. Non-motile and H₂S negative

E. Urease positive

Answer: D

[Link] (O157:H7) causes:

A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome

B. Typhoid fever
C. Diarrhea with fever

D. Cholera

E. Traveler’s diarrhea

Answer: A

16. The main reservoir of Salmonella typhi is:

A. Soil

B. Human carrier

C. Animal feces

D. Water

E. Rodents

Answer: B

[Link] aeruginosa produces:

A. Pyocyanin pigment

B. Swarming colonies

C. Capsule only

D. Beta-hemolysis on chocolate agar

E. H₂S

Answer: A

18. Pseudomonas infections are common in:

A. Burns and cystic fibrosis

C. Normal gut flora

D. Throat carriers

E. Neonates only

Answer:A

19. The cholera toxin acts by:

A. Increasing cAMP

B. Decreasing cAMP

C. Blocking protein synthesis

D. Inhibiting EF-2

E. Destroying RBCs

Answer: A

20. Vibrio cholerae grows best in:

A. Acidic medium

B. Alkaline medium

C. Neutral medium

D. High salt

E. Anaerobic condition

Answer: B

21. Helicobacter pylori produces:

A. Urease

B. Coagulase
C. Catalase only

D. Exotoxin A

E. Collagenase

Answer: A

22. Diagnostic test for syphilis is:

A. Widal

B. VDRL

C. Coagulase

D. CAMP

E. Catalase

Answer: B

23. The cell wall of Mycobacterium contains:

A. Mycolic acid

B. LPS

C. Peptidoglycan only

D. Capsule

E. Chitin

Answer: A

24. M. leprae primarily infects:

A. Liver

B. Skin and nerves

C. Lungs

D. Kidney
E. Intestine

Answer: B

25. Rickettsia rickettsii causes:

A. Typhus fever

B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

C. Q fever

D. Trench fever

E. Lyme disease

Answer: B

26. Chlamydia trachomatis infection commonly causes:

A. Trachoma and urethritis

B. Typhoid

C. Meningitis

D. Cholera

E. Tuberculosis

Answer: A

27. Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks:

A. DNA

B. Ribosomes

C. Cell wall

D. Plasma membrane
E. RNA

Answer: C

28. Coxiella burnetii causes:

A. Q fever

B. Typhus

C. Leptospirosis

D. Plague

E. Relapsing fever

Answer: A

29. Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion bodies are seen in:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Nucleus

C. Membrane

D. Cell wall

E. Capsule

Answer: A

30. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes:

A. Atypical pneumonia

B. Tuberculosis

C. Typhoid

D. Influenza

E. Diphtheria

Answer: A
IMMUNOLOGY

1. Innate immunity differs from adaptive immunity by being:

A. Specific and long-lasting

B. Nonspecific and immediate

C. Memory-based

D. Antigen dependent

E. Delayed response

Answer: B

2. The first line of defense against microorganisms is:

A. Antibody

B. Skin and mucous membranes

C. Complement system

D. Cytotoxic T cells

E. Natural killer cells

Answer: B

3. Immunologic memory is a feature of:

A. Innate immunity

B. Adaptive immunity

C. Natural barriers

D. Phagocytosis

E. Inflammation

Answer: B
4. The major cells of innate immunity include:

A. B lymphocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. Neutrophils and macrophages

D. Plasma cells

E. Mast cells only

Answer: C

5. The primary lymphoid organs are:

A. Lymph nodes and spleen

B. Thymus and bone marrow

C. Peyer’s patches and tonsils

D. Appendix and spleen

E. Liver and thymus

Answer: B

6. T lymphocytes mature in the:

A. Bone marrow

B. Thymus

C. Liver

D. Lymph node

E. Spleen

Answer: B

7. Antigen presentation to T cells occurs mainly in:

A. Bone marrow
B. Spleen and lymph nodes

C. Liver

D. Skin

E. Thymus

Answer: B

8. The part of an antigen recognized by an antibody is called:

A. Hapten

B. Epitope

C. Adjuvant

D. Carrier

E. Ligand

Answer: B

9. The most abundant immunoglobulin in serum is:

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgG

D. IgD

E. IgE

Answer: C
10. The first immunoglobulin produced in primary immune response is:

A. IgA

B. IgE

C. IgM

D. IgG

E. IgD

Answer: C

11. Secretory antibody found in mucosal surfaces is:

A. IgG

B. IgA

C. IgM

D. IgE

E. IgD

Answer: B

13. The immunoglobulin involved in allergic reactions is:

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgE

D. IgD

E. IgA

Answer: C
14. The antibody capable of crossing the placenta is:

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgD

E. IgE

Answer: A

15. The pentameric antibody is:

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgE

D. IgD

E. IgG

Answer: B

16. The central component of the complement system is:

A. C1

B. C2

C. C3

D. C4

E. C9

Answer: C

17. The membrane attack complex (MAC) is formed by:

B. C5b–C9

C. C1–C3

D. C2–C4

E. C7–C9

Answer: B

18. The classical complement pathway is activated by:

A. Antibody–antigen complex

B. Bacterial endotoxin

C. Mannose-binding lectin

D. Properdin

E. C3 hydrolysis

Answer: A

19. The alternative complement pathway is activated by:

A. Antigen–antibody complex

B. Polysaccharides and endotoxins

C. Mannose-binding lectin

D. Antigenic peptides

E. IgE

Answer: B

20. The secondary immune response is characterized by:

A. IgM predominance

B. IgG predominance
C. No memory response

D. Slow onset

E. Short duration

Answer: B

21. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes destroy target cells via:

A. Antibody binding

B. Perforin and granzymes

C. Complement activation

D. IL-4 secretion

E. Interferon release

Answer: B

22. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules present

A. CD4+ T cells

B. CD8+ T cells

C. B cells

D. NK cells

E. Macrophages

Answer: B
23. MHC class II molecules are present on:

A. All nucleated cells

B. Antigen-presenting cells

C. RBCs

D. T cells

E. Endothelial cells

Answer: B

24. The cytokine responsible for macrophage activation is:

A. IL-2

B. IL-4

C. IL-10

D. IFN-γ

E. IL-17

Answer: D

25. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:

A. IgG

B. IgE

C. IgM

D. IgA

E. Complement

Answer: B
26. Type III hypersensitivity involves:

A. IgE and mast cells

B. Immune complex deposition

C. T-cell cytotoxicity

D. Complement deficiency

E. Phagocytosis inhibition

Answer: B

27. Example of Type III hypersensitivity:

A. SLE

B. Tuberculin test

C. Asthma

D. Hemolytic anemia

E. Rh reaction

Answer: A

28. Example of Type IV hypersensitivity:

A. Urticaria

B. Contact dermatitis

C. Serum sickness

D. SLE

E. Arthus reaction

Answer: B
29.A 5-year-old child develops a local reaction with swelling and redness 24 hours after a
tuberculin skin test. This reaction represents:
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
E. Autoimmunity

Answer: D.