09-11-2025

9610ZMD801300020010 MD

PHYSICS

1) By Huygen's wave theory of light, we cannot explain the phenomenon of :-

(1) Interference
(2) Diffraction
(3) Photoelectric effect
(4) Refraction

2) Plane wavefronts are incident on a spherical mirror as shown. The reflected wavefronts will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Young's double-slit experiment is carried out by using green, red and blue light, one colour at a time.
The fringe widths recorded are βG, βR and βB respectively. Then :-

(1) βG > βB > βR

(2) βB > βG > βR
(3) βR > βB > βG
(4) βR > βG > βB

4) In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
wavelengths λ1 = 12000Å and λ2 = 10000Å. At what minimum distance from the common central
bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern
coincide with a bright fringe from the other ?

(1) 3 mm
(2) 8 mm
(3) 6 mm
(4) 4 mm

5) The equations of two interferring waves are Y1 = b cos ωt and Y2 = b cos (ωt+ϕ) respectively.
Destructive interference will take place at the point of observation for the following value of ϕ :–

(1) 0°
(2) 360°
(3) 180°
(4) 720°

6) Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance 'd' as shown in figure. The

fringes obtained on the screen will be

(1) points
(2) straight lines
(3) semi-circles
(4) concentric circles

7) The amplitude of light depends upon the distance of the point from the axis of a cylinderical
source as follows -

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

8)

Which of the following is true in YDSE :-

(1) Fringes are of unequal width
(2) Slits and the screen are very close to each other
(3) When screen is moved away fringe width increases
(4) CBF (Central Bright Fringe) is a dark fringe

9) n incoherent sources of intensity I0 are superimposed at a point, the intensity of the point is:-

(1)

(2) nI0
2
(3) n I0

(4)

10) If = then = ?

(1) 100 : 64
(2) 64 : 100
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

11) Two coherent light sources S1 and S2 (λ = 6000 Å) are 1mm apart from each other. The screen is
placed at a distance of 25 cm from the sources. The width of the fringes on the screen should be

(1) 0.015 cm
(2) 0.025 cm
(3) 0.010 cm
(4) 0.030 cm

12) A unpolarised light wave has amplitude A and angle between analyser and polariser is 45°. Light
is transmitted by analyser has amplitude.

(1)

(2)

(3) 2A
(4) A

13) If an unpolarised light is converted into plane polarised light. its intensity become :-

(1) Half
(2) One fourth
(3) One third
(4) One eight
14) Unpolarized light is incident on a plane glass surface. The angle of incidence so that reflected
and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, then :-

(1)

(2)
(3) sin i = μ
(4) cos i = μ

15) When a light ray incident on a denser medium at an angle of 60° then reflected light ray become
completely polarised then what is refractive index of denser medium :-

(1) 1.732
(2) 1.414
(3) 1.5
(4) 1.2

16) Power of point source is 18 mW. Find the intensity 2.5 m away from the source :-

(1) 0.23 mW/m2

(2) 9 mW/m2
(3) 2.88 mW/m2
(4) 0.23 W/m2

17) Two monochromatic light waves of amplitude 3A and 2A interfering at a point have a phase
difference of 60°. The square of resultant amplitude at that point will be :-

(1) 19A2
(2) 13A2
(3) 7A2
(4) 5A2

18) Four light waves are given by

(i) y = 3 sin 100t
(ii)
(iii) y = 3 sin 200t
(iv) y = 4 sin 300t
The stable interference may be observed due to _______

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

19) Two coherent sources of intensities I1 and I2 produce an interference pattern. The maximum
intensity in the interference pattern will be :
(1) I1 + I2
(2)
2
(3) (I1 + I2)

(4)

20) The phenomenon of interference is shown by :

(1) Longitudinal mechanical waves only

(2) Transverse mechanical waves only
(3) Electromagnetic waves only
(4) All the above type of waves

21) Two ball of same mass m are released from different extreme position as shown in diagram. If
there collision is elastic, then at what time particle A will reach at same position again?

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec

(3)
sec

(4)
sec

22) Molten wax of mass m drops on a block of mass M, which is oscillating on a frictionless table as

shown. Select the correct statements. (I) If the collision takes place at
extreme position, amplitude does not change
(II) If the collision takes place at mean position, amplitude decreases
(III) If the collision takes place at mean position, time period increases
(IV) If the collision takes place at extreme position, time period increases
Options :-

(1) Only (I), (II)

(2) Only (II), (III)
(3) Only (I), (IV)
(4) All (I), (II), (III), (IV)

23) A 1 kg block is compressed with spring of spring constant K = 100 N/m by 20 cm as shown. Now
a block of mass 3 kg moving with speed 2 m/sec collides with 1 kg at mean position of oscillating
block & sticks to this oscillating 1 kg block, then new amplitude of combined mass will be : -

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 5 cm

24) The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y = sin3 ωt. The motion is : -

(1) non-periodic
(2) periodic but not simple harmonic
(3) simple harmonic with period 2π/ω
(4) simple harmonic with period π/ω

25) The equation of simple harmonic motion of a particle is . Its time period is
approximately : -

(1)
sec

(2)
sec

(3)
sec

(4)
sec

26) The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y = 3 cos . The motion of
the particle is : -

(1) simple harmonic with period 2π/ω

(2) simple harmonic with period π/ω
(3) periodic but not simple harmonic
(4) non-periodic

27) In a string transverse wave speed is 100 m/s, frequency is 500 Hz and amplitude is 2 × 10–2 m.
Its wave equation is :-

Y = 2 × 10–2 sin
(1)
(2) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (1000πt – 10πx)
(3) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (500πt – πx)
(4) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (200πt – 10πx)

28) A transverse wave travels along the Z-axis. The particles of the medium must move : -

(1) along the Z-axis

(2) along the X-axis
(3) along the Y-axis
(4) in the XY-plane

29) Angle between wave velocity and particle velocity of a transverse wave is : -

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 0°
(4) 120°

30) A source of frequency 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.2 m. How long does it take the wave
to travel 300 m?

(1) 70s
(2) 60s
(3) 12s
(4) 3s

31) A wave going in a solid : -

(1) must be longitudinal

(2) may be longitudinal
(3) may be transverse
(4) both (2) and (3) are correct

32) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y = 6 sin 2π (2t – 0.1x), where x and y are in
mm and t is in seconds. The phase difference between two particles 2 mm apart at any instant is : -

(1) 18°
(2) 36°
(3) 54°
(4) 72°

33) If the equation of a progressive wave is given as:

, where x is in metres and t is in seconds, then the distance through which the
wave moves in 8s is : -
(1) 2 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 8 m

34) In interference if , then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Two identical waves 1 and 2 each of intensity I0 are superimposed. The resulting intensity is :

(1) I0
(2)
(3) 4I0
(4) 2I0

36) 26 tuning fork are placed in a series such that each tuning fork produces 4 beats with its
previous tuning fork. If the frequency of last tuning fork be three times the frequency of first tuning
fork then frequency of first tuning fork will be :-

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 76

37) Two waves are represented by : y1 = 4 sin 404 πt and y2 = 3 sin 400 πt. Then :-

(1) Beat frequency is 4 Hz and the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is 49 : 1

(2) Beat frequency is 2 Hz and the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is 49 : 1
(3) Beat frequency is 2 Hz and the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is 1 : 49
(4) Beat frequency is 4 Hz and the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is 1 : 49
38) The transverse displacement of a string (clamped at its both ends) is given by

y(x, t) = 0.6 sin cos (120 πt)

where x and y are in metre and t in second. The length of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is 3.0 ×
10–2 kg the tension in the string will be :-

(1) 648 N
(2) 1248 N
(3) 324 N
(4) 162 N

39) The vibration of four air columns under identical conditions are represented in the figure below.
The ratio of frequencies np : nq : nr : ns will be:
(Lenths of columns are same)

(p) (q)

(r) (s)

(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

40) The equation for the displacement of stretched string is given by y = 4sin2π
where x and y are in cm and t in sec. Then frequency and velocity of the wave are :-

(1) 50 Hz; 50 m/s

(2) 60 Hz; 20 m/s
(3) 80 Hz; 80 m/s
(4) 50 Hz; 30 m/s

41) What is the beat frequency produced when following two waves are sounded together ?
x1 = 5 cos (354πt– 4πx),
x2 = 5 cos (350πt – 4πx).

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2
42) Two sources have frequency 256 Hz and 258 Hz, then time difference between two consecutive
minima is –

(1) 1 s
(2) 0·5 s
(3) 2 ms
(4) None

43)

Column I Column II

Particles of the medium vibrate

A Longitudinal waves P perpendicular to the wave
propagation.

Two progressive waves of slightly

B Transverse waves Q different frequencies superimpose
in the same direction

Two progressive waves of same

C Beats R frequency superimpose in the opposite
directions

Particles of the medium vibrate along

D Stationary waves S
the wave propagation.
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R

44) Stationary wave is represented by Y = A sin (100 t) cos (0.01 x) where y and A are in mm, t in
sec and x in m. The velocity of the wave:

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 102 m/s
(3) 104 m/s
(4) zero

45) The string of length 20 m and linear mass density 0.040 Kg/m is fixed at both end and is kept
under a tension 16 N. A wave pulse at t = 0 near an end as shown in fig., which travels towards the

other end. When will the string have the same shape as shown in figure.

(1) after 1 sec

(2) after 2 sec
(3) after 0.55 sec
(4) None

CHEMISTRY

1) Which statement is wrong?

(1)
Oxidation number of oxygen is in superoxides.
(2) Oxidation number of oxygen is +2 in oxygen difluoride
(3) Oxidation number of oxygen is +1 in peroxides
(4) Oxidation number of oxygen is (–2) in most of its compounds.

2) In the following conversion of sulphite of phosphorous

P4S3 → P2O5 + SO2
Equivalent weight of P4S3 (molecular weight = M) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Statement-1 : Moles of KMnO4 required for oxidation of Fe+2 in acidic and basic medium will be
different.
Statement-2: Final oxidation state to which Mn+7 is reduced will be different in case of acidic and
basic medium.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

4) 1 mole of argon is expanded isothermally and irreversibly (not against vacuum) from 10 L to 100
L. Which of the following is incorrect for the process?

(1) Heat supplied (q) = 0

(2) ΔT = 0
(3) ΔH = 0
(4) ΔU = 0

5) In an isothermal expansion of a gaseous sample the correct relation is (consider w (work) with
sign according to new IUPAC convention)
[The reversible and irreversible processes are carried out between same initial and final states.]

(1) qrev > qirrev

(2) wirrev > wrev
(3) wrev > wirrev
(4) cannot be predicted

6) For reaction 2A(g) + 3B(g) → 4C(g) + D(s)

Calculate work involved during reaction if reaction occurs at constant pressure and 300 K :

(1) 150 cal

(2) 300 cal
(3) 600 cal
(4) 1200 cal

7) Which of the following parameter is correct regarding adsorption of gases over solid?

(1) ΔH > 0
(2) ΔG > 0
(3) ΔSsystem > 0
(4) ΔSsurrounding > 0

8) The change in entropy of the system when 2 moles of a diatomic ideal gas is heated from 400 K to
800 K under constant pressure : (Cpm) = 7/2 R for diatomic

(1) R ln 2
(2) 3 R ln 2
(3) 5 R ln 2
(4) 7 R ln 2

9) For the reaction,

0
N2H4(l) → N2(g) + 2H2(g) ΔH = –50.6 kJ.
This reaction is :

(1) non-spontaneous at all temperatures.

(2) spontaneous at all temperatures.
(3) spontaneous only at high temperatures.
(4) spontaneous only at low temperatures.

10) Use the bond energies in the table to estimate ΔH for this reaction.
H2C=CH2 + Cl2 → ClH2C―CH2Cl

Bond Energies

C–C 347 kJ mol–1

 C=C 612 kJ mol–1

C–Cl 331 kJ mol–1

C–H 414 kJ mol–1

Cl–Cl 243 kJ mol–1

(1) ΔH = +89 kJ
(2) ΔH = –684 kJ
(3) ΔH = –154 kJ
(4) ΔH = +177 kJ

11)

The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is

(1) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0

(2) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
(3) ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0
(4) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0

12) Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1L to 0.25L against a constant
external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is :- [Given that 1L bar = 100 J]

(1) 25 J
(2) 5kJ
(3) 30 J
(4) –30 J

13) If for a certain reaction ΔrH is 30 kJ mol–1 at 450 K, the value of ΔrS (in JK–1 mol–1) for which the
same reaction will be spontaneous at the same temperature is

(1) –70
(2) 70
(3) 33
(4) –33

14) Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

In above balanced reaction, value of will be :

(1) 8
(2) 1.2
(3) 5
(4) 1.3

16) In the following reaction hydrazine is oxidized to N2.

N2H4 + OH– → N2 + H2O + e¯
The equivalent weight of N2H4 (hydrazine) is:

(1) 64
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 8

17) HNO3 oxidises ions to nitrogen and itself gets reduced to NO2. The moles of HNO3 required
by 1 mole of (NH4)2SO4 is :

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

18) The value of ΔH–ΔU when 2 moles of solid benzoic acid undergoes combustion at 300K is given
by :
(1) –2.494 kJ
(2) –1.247 kJ
(3) +1.247 kJ
(4) +2.494 kJ

19) Heat of combustion of CH4,C2H6, C2H4 and C2H2 gases are –212.8, –373.0, –337.0 and –310.5 kCal
respectively at the same temperature. The best fuel among these gases is :

(1) CH4
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C2H2

20) The work done in ergs for a reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10
litres to 20 litres at 25°C is :

(1) –2.303 × 0.0821 × 298 log 0.5

(2) –2.303 × 0.0821 × 298 log2
(3) –2.303 × 8.31 × 107 × 298 log2
(4) –2.303 × 2 × 298 log2

21) Arrange the following in the increasing order of oxidation state of Mn :-

(i) Mn2+ (ii) MnO2 (iii) KMnO4 (iv) K2MnO4

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)

(2) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(4) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)

22) Oxidation states of chlorine in HClO4 and HClO3 are : -

(1) +7, +5
(2) +4, +3
(3) +3, +4
(4) +5, +7

23) Choose the set of coefficients that correctly balances the following equation :
xCr2O72– + yH+ + ze– → aCr+3+ + bH2O

x y z a b

(1) 2 14 6 2 7

(2) 1 14 6 2 7

(3) 2 7 6 2 7

(4) 2 7 6 1 7
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Which of the following reactions is a decomposition redox reaction ?

– – –
(1) Cl2(g) + 2OH (aq) → ClO (aq) + Cl (aq) + 4H2O(ℓ)
(2) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g)
(3) 2 Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2 PbO(s) + 4 NO2(g) + O2(g)
– –
(4) P4(s)+3OH (aq)+3H2O(l) → PH3(g)+3H2PO 2(aq)

25) The for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol–1 respectively the standard
enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g)+ H2O(g) is -

(1) 524.1
(2) 41.2
(3) –262.5
(4) –41.2

26) Which has maximum IE ?

(1) Mg
(2) Mg+
(3) Mg2+
(4) Equal

27) Nitrogen is found to have higher value of ionisation energy because

(1) it has half-filled p-orbitals

(2) it has chemically inert
(3) its shielding effect overcomes the nucleon charge
(4) All of the above are correct

28) Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species ?

(1) I > I– > I+

(2) I+ > I– > I
(3) I > I+ > I–
(4) I– > I > I+

29) Which is correct order of size of O–, O2–, F– and F

(1) O2– > O– > F– > F

(2) O– > O2– > F– > F
(3) O2– > F– > F– > O–
(4) O2– > F– > O– > F

30) The newly discovered element with atomic number 117 would be placed in

(1) alkali metals

(2) alkaline earth metals
(3) halogens
(4) noble gases

31) Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element. Which
one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell?

(1) Valence principal quantum number (n)

(2) Nuclear charge (Z)
(3) Nuclear mass
(4) Number of core electrons

32) For the process,

X(g) + e– → X–(g) ; ΔH = x and
X–(g) → X(g) + e– ; ΔH = y
Select the correct alternate

(1) Ionisation energy of X–(g) is y

(2) Electron affinity of X(g) is x
(3) Electron affinity of X(g) is –y
(4) All of the above are correct statements

33) Assertion (A) :- Removal of s-electron is relatively difficult than removal of p-electron of the
same main shell.
Reason (R) :- s-electrons are closer to the nucleus than p-electrons of the same shell and hence, are
more strongly attracted by nucleus.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

34) Which of the following species has tetrahedral geometry ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
+
(4) H3O

35) All the following molecules are linear except one

(1) SO2
(2) CO2
(3) HCN
(4) NO

36) Electronegativity value of

W = 1.0 X = 2.0 Y = 2.5 Z = 3.5
Based on the given values, which bond is least polar ?

(1) WX
(2) WZ
(3) XY
(4) XZ

37) Number of π and σ-bonds in the following structure is

(1) 6, 19
(2) 4, 20
(3) 5, 19
(4) 5, 20

38) The strength of bonds by overlapping of atomic orbitals are in order

(1) s-s > s-p > p-p

(2) s-s < p-p < s-p
(3) s-p < s-s < p-p
(4) p-p < s-s < s-p

39) Assertion (A) :- Sodium chloride formed by the action of chlorine gas on sodium metal is a
stable compound.
Reason (R) :- This is because sodium and chloride ions acquire octet in sodium chloride formation.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

40) Match the following oxides with their nature.

 Column-I Column-II

A H2O 1 Basic

B Na2O 2 Amphoteric

C ZnO 3 Acidic

D SO3 4 Neutral
(1) A→4, B→1, C→2, D→3
(2) A→1, B→4, C→2, D→3
(3) A→4, B→2, C→1, D→3
(4) A→4, B→1, C→3, D→2

41) Octet rule is not followed in

(1) CCl4, N2O4 and N2O5

(2) BF3, BeCl2 and NO2
(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and MgO
(4) PCl3, NH3 and H2O

42) In the compound

the hybridisation at C2 and C3 carbon respectively are

(1) sp-sp
(2) sp2-sp2
(3) sp-sp2
(4) sp2-sp

43) The water molecule has a ……….. (X) ……….. geometry because its central atom has ……….. (Y)
……….. bonds and ……….. (Z) ……….. lone pair of electrons.
X Y Z

(1) bent 2 2
(2) linear 2 2
(3) pyramidal 3 1
(4) tetrahedral 4 0

44) The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of N in , and respectively are

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp, sp3, sp2
(3) sp2, sp, sp3
(4) sp2, sp3, sp
45) The structure of XeO3 is

(1) linear
(2) planar
(3) pyramidal
(4) T-shaped

BIOLOGY

1) Which is/are statement are correct ?

(a) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially physiological ecology.
(b) Ecosystem is a structural unit of community.
(c) Boundaries of ecosystem are distinct.
(d) Ecology is the study of the interaction between biotic and abiotic factor

(1) (c) & (d) are correct

(2) (b) & (d) are correct
(3) (a) & (d) are correct
(4) (a) & (b) are correct

2) An assemblage of populations of plants, animals bacteria and fungi in an area which interact with
each other and form :-

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Biological community
(3) Ecology
(4) Environment

3) Major ecosystem that occur over wide areas of land are called :-

(1) Biomes
(2) Communities
(3) Habitats
(4) Niche

4) The Prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920's caused havoc by spreading
rapidly in to millions of hectares of rangeland because -

(1) There is no competitor

(2) Due to less intra specific competition
(3) Absence of natural predator
(4) Availability of high nutrient

5) What benefits does fig tree offers to wasp in return for its pollination ?

(1) Delicious fruits

(2) Nectar
(3) Pollens
(4) Oviposition and developing seeds

6) Select the correct match in the following :-

(1) Brood parasitism - Partial stem parasite

(2) Holoparasite - Cuckoo & crow
(3) Hemiparasite - Parasite which totally dependent upon the host
(4) Hyper parasite - A parasite living on another parasite

7) Select the correct match :-

A B C
Mutualism Parasitism Commensalism

(1) Barnacle & Whale Loranthus & Mango Yucca plant & Pronuba moth

(2) Leech on cattle Orchid & Bee Pilot fish & Shark

(3) Fig tree & Wasp Viscum & Oak Orchid & Mango

(4) Sucker fish & Shark Lichen Ticks on dog

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) In rocky intertidal communities removal of which of the following predator became the cause of
extinction of 10 species of invertebrates?

(1) Abingdon tortoise

(2) Monarch butterfly
(3) Pisaster starfish
(4) Calotropis

9)
In above diagram four areas are given. In which area has maximum and minimum species diversity
respectively.

(1) Maximum - B, Minimum - D

(2) Maximum - A, Minimum - D
(3) Maximum - A, Minimum - B
(4) Maximum - C, Minimum - D

10) Fig trees can maintain community structure during food scarcity in tropical deciduous forest.
These act as

(1) Exotic species

(2) Pioneer species
(3) Edge species
(4) Key stone species

11) Match the following given symbols with interactions :

(a) + / + (i) Predation
(b) – / – (ii) Ammensalism
(c) + / – (iii) Competition
(d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

12) Statement -I- Ecology is basically concerned with three level of biological organisation
organism, population and communities.
Statement-II- On planet earth life only exist in a few favourable habitats not in extreme and harse
habitats.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

13) Read the following statements

(i) High reproductive capacity
(ii) Tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator species of wasp and fig tree
(iii)Intimate relationship between algae and fungi in Lichens
(iv)Close association in grazing cattle and cattle egret birds
Find correct option w.r.t. inter species interactions
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Consider the following four statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones:-
(a) Sparrow eating any seed is not less than a predator
(b) Commensalism is +– type of relationship
(c) Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be phytophagous.
(d) Mutualism is ++ type of relationship

(1) Statements- (a), (c), (d)

(2) Statements- (a), (b)
(3) Statements- (a), (b), (c)
(4) Statements- (b), (d)

15) Match the ecological hierarchy given in Column-I with their explanation in Column-II. Choose
the correct answer from options given below.

Column-I Column-II

i. Organism a. Flora and fauna of an area

ii. Population b. Populations of different species of an area.

iii. Community c. Organisms of same kind inhabiting an area.

iv. Biome d. Basic unit of hierarchy.

(1) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a
(2) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(3) i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
(4) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d

16) Basic unit of ecology is :-

(1) Population
(2) Ecosphere
(3) Organism
(4) Community

17) Which one is not an example of endoparasite ?

(1) Ticks
(2) Plasmodium
(3) Ascaris
(4) Taenia

18) Brood parasitism is found in

(1) Plasmodium & human

(2) Ticks & dogs
(3) Cuckoo & crow
(4) None of the above

19) Which one of the following is an example of total stem parasite?

(1) Santalum
(2) Rafflesia
(3) Cuscuta
(4) Viscum

20) What is/are incorrect about parasite ?

(a) Parasite can be host specific
(b) Biotic potential of parasite is high
(c) Parasite does not directly kill their host
(d) Parasite and host tend to co-evolve

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) None

21) The famous Australian "havoc" is associated with which of the following invasive species ?

(1) Nile Perch

(2) Parthenium
(3) Clarias gariepinus
(4) Prickly pear cactus

22) Assertion : Cattle or goats never graze on Calotropis.

Reason : Plants produce highly poisonous cardiac glycosides.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true.

23) If the female bee's colour pattern changes, the orchid flower co-evolves to maintain the
resemblance of its petals for the successful pollination is known as :-

(1) Commensalism
(2) Protocooperation
(3) Co-evolution
(4) Predation

24) In competition both the participating species are harmed. So in competition which of the
following is most adversely affected?

(1) Plants
(2) Herbivores
(3) Carnivores
(4) All are equally affected

25) How many examples in the given list below are of competition ?
Flamingo and fish, Cattle egret bird and cattle, Lice on Human, Fig tree and wasp.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Four

26) Statement–1 : Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources
that are limited.
Statement–2 : If two species compete for the same resources they could avoid competition by
resource partitioning.

(1) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true.

(2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true.
(3) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false.
(4) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is false.

27) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Connell’s elegant field experiment showed that on the rocky sea, the larger and
competitively superior barnacles dominate the intertidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle
from that area.
Reason R : Generally herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition
than Carnivores.
In the light of tha above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

28)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Gause’s competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species
competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.

Statement II : According to Gause’s principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated.
This may be true if resources are limiting.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

29) Identify the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Species diversity (a) Great influence on community characters

(ii) Species dominance (b)According to the need of light

(iii) Stratification (c) Different types of species in a community

(iv) Keystone Species (d) Highest no. of one type of species

​
(1) i–c, ii–b, iii–a, iv–d
(2) i–c, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a
(3) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c
(4) i–b, ii–d, iii–a, iv–c

30) Mycorrhizae a relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants is ?

(1) Parasitic relationship

(2) Saprophytic relationship
(3) Symbiotic relationship
(4) Epiphytic relationship

31) Which of the following is a correct option for species diversity ?

(1) Species diversity is a structural characterstics of population.

(2) Minimum species diversity present at higher latitude area.
(3) As increasing altitude species diversity also increase.
(4) Species diversity is a functional characteristic of community.

32) Assertion :- Removal of key stone species from any ecosystem may leads to destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason :- Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Assertion :- Competition always occurs between closely related species compete for same
resources that are limiting.
Reason :- Totally unrelated species could not compete for same resources.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

34) Assertion ( A): Resource partitioning is a mechanism to promote co-existence of two species
rather than their exclusion.
Reason (R) : If two species compete for same resource, they could avoid competition by predating
on each other.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

35)

Which one is not an example of mutualism :

(1) Epiphytes
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Fig tree and wasp
(4) Lichen

36) Assertion :- Biological control methods of agricultural pest management programmes are based
on predation.
Reason :- Predators maintain prey populations.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false

37) Why does cactus have so many thorns ?

(1) Avoiding their predators

(2) Minimizing the Transpiration
(3) Minimizing the Photosynthesis
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) Statement-I : The size of a population for any species is a static parameter.
Statement-II : Natality and emigration contribute to increase in population density.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

39) When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic

model is given as :-

(1) when N/K is exactly one.

(2) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(3) when N/K equals zero.
(4) when death rate is greater than birth rate.

40)

Individuals of species which occur in a particular area constitute :

(1) Flora
(2) Fauna
(3) Population
(4) Flora and Fauna

41) What is the primary source of variation in a population?

(1) Mutation
(2) Migration
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Natural selection

42) Which of the following is an example of homologous organs?

(1) Wings of birds and insects

(2) Forelimbs of humans and wings of birds
(3) Fins of fish and flippers of whales
(4) Eyes of humans and octopuses

43) Who proposed the theory of natural selection independently along with Charles Darwin?

(1) Alfred Russel Wallace

(2) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
(3) Thomas Malthus
(4) Hugo de Vries

44) Which gas was absent in the primitive Earth's atmosphere?

(1) Methane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Oxygen
(4) Water vapor

45) The process by which new species form is called:

(1) Speciation
(2) Adaptation
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Gene flow

46) Which of the following is an example of adaptive radiation?

(1) Evolution of the horse

(2) Darwin’s finches
(3) Development of pesticide resistance
(4) Formation of fossils

47) The Hardy-Weinberg principle applies to a population that is:

(1) Small and isolated

(2) Undergoing natural selection
(3) Large and non-evolving
(4) Experiencing high mutation rates

48) Which scientist proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
(3) Alfred Russel Wallace
(4) Thomas Huxley
49) What is the term for random changes in allele frequencies in a small population?

(1) Natural selection

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene flow
(4) Mutation

50) Which of the following is a vestigial structure in humans?

(1) Appendix
(2) Lungs
(3) Heart
(4) Liver

51) The first cellular forms of life likely appeared about:

(1) 1 billion years ago

(2) 2 billion years ago
(3) 3.8 billion years ago
(4) 5 billion years ago

52) Which of the following supports the theory of evolution?

(1) Embryology
(2) Taxonomy
(3) Physiology
(4) All of the above

53) The concept of ‘survival of the fittest’ was introduced by:

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Herbert Spencer
(3) Alfred Russel Wallace
(4) Thomas Malthus

54) Which type of selection favors extreme phenotypes over the average?

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Sexual selection

55) The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that:

(1) Life could evolve from inorganic compounds

(2) Organic molecules could form under primitive Earth conditions
(3) Oxygen was present in the early atmosphere
(4) DNA was the first genetic material

56) Statement I: Genetic drift can lead to the loss of genetic diversity in small populations.
Statement II: Genetic drift is more significant in large populations.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

57) Statement I: Homologous organs indicate divergent evolution.

Statement II: Analogous organs indicate convergent evolution.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

58) Statement I: Lamarck’s theory of evolution is based on the inheritance of acquired characters.
Statement II: Darwin’s theory relies on natural selection acting on genetic variations.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

59) Statement I: Adaptive radiation leads to the formation of new species from a single ancestor.
Statement II: It occurs only in isolated populations.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

60) Statement I: Fossils provide direct evidence of evolution.

Statement II: All fossils are formed by the same process.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

61) Which of the following statements about evolution are correct?

1. Evolution is a slow and gradual process.
2. Natural selection is the only mechanism of evolution.
3. Mutations are random and may be beneficial or harmful.
4. Convergent evolution leads to homologous structures.

(1) 1 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4

62) Which statements about the Hardy-Weinberg principle are true?

1. It applies to populations in genetic equilibrium.
2. It requires no mutations.
3. It is applicable only to small populations.
4. It predicts allele frequencies remain constant.

(1) 1, 2, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 2, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 3, and 4

63) Which of the following are true about fossils?

1. Fossils are remains of ancient organisms.
2. They provide evidence of evolution.
3. All fossils are bones.
4. Transitional fossils show intermediate forms.

(1) 1, 2, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 2, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 3, and 4

64) Which statements about natural selection are correct?

1. It acts on phenotypic variations.
2. It always increases genetic diversity.
3. It favors traits that improve survival and reproduction.
4. It can lead to speciation.

(1) 1, 3, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 2, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 2, and 4

65) Which statements about the origin of life are true?

1. The Miller-Urey experiment simulated early Earth conditions
2. The first life forms were likely prokaryotes.
3. Oxygen was abundant in the primitive atmosphere.
4. Organic molecules formed before cellular life.

(1) 1, 2, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 2, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 3, and 4

66) Assertion: Natural selection leads to the survival of the fittest.

Reason: Organisms with advantageous traits reproduce more successfully.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

67) Assertion: Homologous organs have different functions.

Reason: They share a common evolutionary origin.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true

68) Assertion: Genetic drift can cause speciation.

Reason: It leads to random changes in allele frequencies.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

69) Assertion: The Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes no evolution.

Reason: It requires no mutation, selection, or migration.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

70) Assertion: Adaptive radiation is an example of divergent evolution.

Reason: It results in multiple species from a common ancestor.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

71) Assertion: Lamarck’s theory of evolution is discredited.

Reason: Acquired traits are not inherited.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

72) Assertion: Analogous organs show convergent evolution.

Reason: They have different origins but similar functions.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

73) Assertion: The presence of vestigial organs supports evolution.

Reason: They are remnants of structures functional in ancestors.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

74) Assertion: The Miller-Urey experiment supported the chemical origin of life.
Reason: It produced organic molecules from inorganic compounds.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

75) Assertion: Speciation requires reproductive isolation.

Reason: Gene flow prevents divergence between populations.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true

76) Match the scientist with their contribution to evolutionary biology:

Column A (Scientist) Column B (Contribution)

A. Charles Darwin 1. Inheritance of acquired characters

B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck 2. Theory of natural selection

C. Alfred Russel Wallace 3. Mutation theory

(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

77) Match the term with its definition:

Column A (Term) Column B (Definition)

A. Genetic drift 1. Formation of new species

B. Speciation 2. Random change in allele frequencies

C. Natural selection 3. Differential survival of traits

D. Gene flow 4. Transfer of alleles between populations

(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

78) Match the organ with its evolutionary significance:

Column A (Organ) Column B (Significance)

A. Human appendix 1. Homologous organ

B. Wings of birds and bats 2. Vestigial organ

C. Forelimbs of humans and dogs 3. Analogous organ

D. Eyes of octopuses and humans 4. Convergent evolution

(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

79) Match the fossil with its significance:

Column A (Fossil) Column B (Significance)

A. Archaeopteryx 1. Early mammal

B. Coelacanth 2. Transitional form between reptiles and birds

C. Dinosaur 3. Lived on both land and water

D. Mammoth 4. Extinct large reptile

(1) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(2) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

80) Match the type of selection with its effect:

 Column A (Selection) Column B (Effect)

A. Stabilizing selection 1. Favors extreme phenotypes

B. Directional selection 2. Reduces variation around the mean

C. Disruptive selection 3. Shifts population toward one phenotype

D. Sexual selection 4. Favors traits enhancing mating success

(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

81) Limbs of humans, bats, and whales indicate?

(1) Analogous evolution

(2) Homologous evolution
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Adaptive radiation

82) Darwin’s finches showing varied beak shapes represents:

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Stabilizing selection
(4) Convergent evolution

83) Fossil of Archaeopteryx with feathers and reptilian features indicates:

(1) Extinction
(2) Transitional form
(3) Analogous structures
(4) Genetic equilibrium

84) Miller-Urey experiment setup would primarily demonstrate:

(1) Formation of inorganic molecules

(2) Synthesis of organic molecules
(3) Presence of oxygen in early Earth
(4) Formation of cellular life

85) The branching of species from a common ancestor represents:

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Gene flow
(4) Genetic drift
86) Arrange the following evolutionary events in chronological order:
A. Appearance of first cellular life
B. Formation of organic molecules
C. Evolution of photosynthetic organisms
D. Appearance of oxygen in the atmosphere

(1) B, A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, A, D, C
(4) A, B, D, C

87) Arrange the following in the order of their contribution to evolutionary theory:
A. Lamarck’s theory
B. Darwin’s theory
C. Wallace’s contribution
D. Mutation theory by de Vries

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) C, A, B, D

88) Arrange the following in the order of increasing complexity in early life forms:
A. Prokaryotes
B. Eukaryotes
C. Multicellular organisms
D. Organic molecules

(1) D, A, B, C
(2) A, D, B, C
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) A, B, D, C

89) Arrange the following types of selection in order of their effect on population diversity:
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Directional selection
C. Disruptive selection
D. Sexual selection

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D, C
(3) C, B, A, D
(4) A, D, B, C

90) Arrange the following in the correct sequence of human evolution:

A. Homo sapiens
B. Homo erectus
C. Australopithecus
D. Homo habilis

(1) C, D, B, A
(2) A, B, D, C
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) D, C, B, A
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 4 2 1 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 4 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 1 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 1 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 4 1 1 4 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : Identify the phenomenon that Huygens' wave theory cannot explain
Concept : This question is based on Huygens' wave theory explains
Interference, Diffraction and Refraction. The Photoelectric Effect requires the particle nature
of light (photons), which is explained by Einstein's quantum theory, not Huygens' wave theory.
Solution :
Photoelectric effect
Final Answer : (3)

2) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on According to Huygens' principle, plane wavefronts
(light from infinity) reflecting from a concave mirror converge to the focal point
Solution :
The reflected wavefronts will be converging spherical wavefronts centered at the mirror's
focal point
Final Answer : (1) Spherical and converging

3) Explaining : Compare the fringe widths in YDSE using green, red, and blue
light
Concept : The fringe width ( ) is directly proportional to the wavelength . For visible light
(VIBGYOR), the wavelength order is
FORMULAS USED :
CALCULATION : Since , therefore
Solution :
VIBGYOR λ↑
λR > λG > λB
⇒ βR > βG > βB
Final Answer : (4)

4) Explaining : Find the minimum distance (Xmin) from the central bright fringe where a
bright fringe from coincides with a bright fringe from in
YDSE Given: d = 2 and D = 2m.
Concept : Condition for coincidence of bright fringes: . The

position is

Formula : ;

Calculation : , Minimum n1 = 5 and n2 = 6

m = 6×10-3 m = 6mm
Final Answer : (3)

5) Explaining : Find the phase difference ( or ) required for destructive interference

between two waves
Concept : This question is based on Destructive interference occurs when the phase
difference ( ) is an odd integral multiple of
FORMULAS USED :
CALCULATION : For n = 1, °
Solution :
When Δϕ = (2n – 1)π then destructive interference take place.
Final Answer : (3)

6) Explaining : Determine the shape of the interference fringes on the screen when two
coherent point sources (S1 and S2) are used
Concept : For two point sources, the locus of points on the screen having a constant path
difference ( = constant) forms a concentric circle centered on the line connecting the
sources and the screen
CALCULATION : Not applicable. The fringes will be concentric circles.
Solution :
It will be concentric circles.
Final Answer : (4)

7) Explaining : State how the amplitude (A) of light depends on the distance (r) from the axis
of a cylindrical source.

Concept : This question is based on For a cylindrical source, Intensity

. Since Intensity , we have

Solution :
For Cylindrical source

Intensity , I =
where I = kA2 P → power

kA2 =

⇒A∝
Final Answer : (4)

8) Explaining : Identify the true statement regarding the features of the interference
pattern in YDSE

Concept : This question is based on the fringe width is . Therefore, is directly

proportional to the screen distance (D). All bright and dark fringes are of equal width ( ) .
The central fringe is bright (CBF)

FORMULAS USED :
Solution :
From , when the screen is moved away (D increases), the fringe width ( ) increases.
When screen is moved away fringe width increases.
Final Answer : (3)

9) Explaining : Find the resultant intensity (IR) when 'n' incoherent sources of intensity I0 are
superimposed
Concept : This question is based on For incoherent sources, the resultant intensity is the
algebraic sum of the individual intensities
FORMULAS USED ;
Solution : (n times)

Final Answer : (2)

10) Explaining : Find the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity given the ratio of

interfering intensities .
Concept : This question is based on The ratio of intensity is related to the ratio of

amplitude squared: .
Maximum and minimum intensities are related to the sum and difference of amplitudes

FORMULAS USED :
Solution :

,
Final Answer : (3)

11) Explaining : Calculate the fringe width ( ) for YDSE. Given: , d = 1 mm,
and D = 25 cm

Concept : This question is based on The fringe width ( ) in YDSE is given by .

FORMULAS USED :
Solution :
Convert units:

Final Answer : (1)

12) Explaining : Calculate the amplitude (ARes) of light transmitted by an analyser when
unpolarised light of amplitude is incident, and the angle between the analyser and polariser
is
Concept : This question is based on After the polariser, the intensity is I/2. The intensity
transmitted by the analyser follows

Malus' Law:

FORMULAS USED : ,
Solution :

Since

Final Answer : (1)

13) Explaining : State the change in intensity when unpolarised light is converted into
plane polarised light
Concept : When unpolarised light passes through a polariser, the intensity of the transmitted
plane-polarised light is exactly half the intensity of the incident unpolarised light
Formula :
Solution :
The intensity becomes Half
Final Answer : (1)

14) Explaining : Find the angle of incidence (i) so that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular when unpolarized light is incident on a plane glass surface.
Concept : This question is based on The condition that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular is Brewster's Law. The angle of incidence is the polarising angle (ip) and

FORMULAS USED : Brewster's Law:

Solution :
Not applicable. The condition is .
Final Answer : (2)

15) Explaining : Find the refractive index ( ) of a denser medium when the angle of
incidence is and the reflected light is completely polarised.
Concept : This question is based on When reflected light is completely polarised, the angle
of incidence is the polarising angle (ip) , and the refractive index is given by Brewster's
Law:
FORMULAS USED : Brewster's Law:
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

16) Explaining : Find the intensity (I)r = 2.5 m away from a point source with power P
= 18mW
Concept : For a point source, the intensity is the power divided by the surface area of a

sphere of radius
FORMULAS USED :
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

17) Explaining : Calculate the square of the resultant amplitude (A'2) when two waves
with a1 = 3A and a2 = 2A interfere with a phase difference of
Concept : This question is based on The resultant amplitude squared is given by the law of
superposition for amplitudes
FORMULAS USED ;
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

18) Explaining : Identify which pair of the given light waves can produce stable
interference
Concept : This question is based on For stable interference, the sources must be coherent,
meaning they must have the same frequency (or angular frequency ) and a constant phase
difference
FORMULAS USED : General wave equation
Solution :
Waves (i) (y = 3sin(100t) and (ii) (y = 4 sin (100t) have the same angular frequency ( =
100) and a constant (zero) phase difference
Final Answer : (2)

19) Explaining : Find the maximum intensity (Imax) in the interference pattern produced by
two coherent sources of intensities I1 and I2
Concept : This question is based on The maximum intensity occurs during constructive
interference and is given by the square of the sum of the square roots of the individual
intensities
FORMULAS USED :
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

20) Explaining : Determine which types of waves can exhibit the phenomenon of
interference
Concept : This question is based on Interference is a property of all wave motion[cite:
300, 301]. This includes longitudinal mechanical waves (like sound), transverse mechanical
waves (like string waves), and electromagnetic waves (like light)
Solution: Interference is shown by all types of wave.
Final Answer : (4)
21) Explaining : Find time taken.
Concept : This question is based on simple pendulum.
Solution : After t = T / 4 = 1 sec, ball will collide at C and velocity will interchange now ball A
will oscillate with angular amplitude 4°. Now time taken to move from mean position to 2°

0
means half of angular amplitude will be calculated by using θ = θ sin

2° = 4° sin ⇒ sin =

⇒ sec
So, time taken by ball to reach at A position again is

t' = 1 sec + sec = 4/3 sec

Final Answer : (4)

22) Explain - select correct statement if wax of mass m drops or a block of mass M.
Concept - If mass of block is increased so time Period will always increase but amplitude will
not change change at extreme position.

Formula -
Calculation- if M is increased then T also increased and amplitude of system changes if
collision occurs other than extreme position.

23) Explaining : Find new amplitude of combined mass.

Concept : This question is based on spring block system.
Solution : At mean position
Velocity of 1 kg block just before collision will be :

⇒ v1 = 2 m/sec
Now at the time of collision just before and after collision . Hence from momentum
conservation

m/sec

Now v' = ω'A' ⇒

⇒ ⇒ A' = 20 cm
Final Answer : (2)

24) Explaining : The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y = sin3 ωt.
The motion is : -
Concept : This question is based on simple harmonic motion.
Solution : y = sin3 ωt is a periodic motion
Because sin3 ωt repeat itself

After

or time
so but not SHM.
Final Answer : (2)

25) Explaining : Find time period.

Concept : This question is based on eqn of SHM.

Solution :
a = –ω2x
ω2 = 36
ω= 6

T= sec
Final Answer : (3)

26) Explaining : The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y = 3 cos

. The motion of the particle is : -

Concept : This question is based on eqn of SHM.
Solution : This is standard equation of SHM with

(Coefficient t)
Final Answer : (2)

27) Concept-:- equation of wave

Formula :- y = a sin (wt - kn)
Calculation :- w = 2λf
∴ f = 500 Hz
w = 2 λ 500
w = 1000 λ

k = 10 λ
- A = 2 × 10–2 m
Put the values in wave equation
y = A sin (wt - kn)
y = 2 × 10–2 sin [1000 λ t - 10λx]
correct answer with option -2
[Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (1000πt – 10πx)]
28) Explaining : A transverse wave travels along the Z-axis. The particles of the medium must
move : -
Concept : This question is based on transverse wave.
Solution : Particle must move perpendicular to the wave motion. So, xy-plane.
Final Answer : (4)

29) Explaining : Angle between wave velocity and particle velocity of a transverse wave is : -
Concept : This question is based on relation b/w wave velocity & particle velocity.
Solution : In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate about their mean
positions in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Hence, the angle

between particle velocity and wave velocity in a transverse wave is .

Final Answer : (1)

30) Question Explanation :

To find time taken by wave to travel 300 m displacement.

Concept :
This question is based on SOUND WAVE CHARACTRISTIC.

Formula :

Time taken t =
Solution :
Given Frequency n = 500 Hz
wave length λ = 0.2 m
Speed of sound v = nλ = 500 × 0.2 = 100 m/s
Displacement = S = 300 m

time t = = 3s

Hence,
Option (4) is correct

31) Explaining : A wave going in a solid : -

Concept : This question is based on characteristics of wave.
Solution : Wave in solid may be longitudinal or transverse.
Final Answer : (4)

32) Explaining : Find phase difference.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : From the given equation, k = 0.2π

⇒ = 0.2π ⇒ λ = 10 mm

Final Answer : (4)

33) Explaining : Find distance.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : Given,
So, wave speed

= 2 m/s
So, travelled distance by wave in
s = v × t = 2 × 8 = 16 m
Final Answer : (2)

34) Question Explanation: Find Imax​/Imin​ from the ratio of intensities.

Concept: Interference of Waves

Solution: First, find the ratio of the amplitudes (A) using the fact that intensity (I) is
proportional to A2.

Now, use the formula for the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity:

Final Answer: (3)

35) Explaining : Find resulting intensities.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

36) Solution/Explanation : to find first frequency of tuning for K.

Concept : Bests producer by tuning fork.

Formula : last termite A.P

S = at (n–1)d
S → last teem of AP
a → first term of B
d → Common difference
Calculation : Supper first term (frequency) is 'a'. them last term S = 3a
d(beats) = 4, n = 2b.
S = a → (n–1) d
3a = a + (26–1) × 4
2a = 100 ⇒ a = 50
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

37) Explaining : Two waves are represented by : y1 = 4 sin 404 πt and y2 = 3 sin 400 πt. Then
:-
Concept : This question is based on beat freq.
Solution : Given y1 = 4 sin 404 πt, y2 = 3 sin 400 πt
∴ ω1 = 404 π, ω2 = 400 π, A1 = 4, A2 = 3
ω1 = 2 πv1
or 404 π = 2πv1
or v1 = 202 Hz
ω2 = 2πv2
or 400 π = 2 πv2
or v2 = 200 Hz
Beat frequency = v1 – v2 = 202 – 200 = 2 Hz

∴
Final Answer : (2)

38) Explaining : Find tension in string.

Concept : This question is based on standing wave.

Solution : V = = = 180 m/s

V=

⇒ T = μV2 =
= 2 × 10–2 × 32400
= 648 N
Final Answer : (1)

39) Explaining : The vibration of four air columns under identical conditions are represented
in the figure below. The ratio of frequencies np : nq : nr : ns will be:
(Lenths of columns are same)

(p) (q)
(r) (s)
Concept : This question is based on organ pipes.

Solution : ....(1), .....(2)

...(3), .....(4)

np : nq : nr : ns : : : : :
or np : nq : nr : ns : : 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
Final Answer : (2)

40) Explaining : Find freq. & velocity of wave.

Concept : This question is based on eqn of wave.

Solution : w =

2πn =

n= × 100 = 50 mg

v=

v= = 5000 = 50 m/s
Final Answer : (1)

41)

Explanation:
We need to determine the best frequency produced by two waves given by their equations. The
beat frequency occurs due to the interference of two waves with slightly different frequencies.

Concept:
The best frequency is given by the difference in frequencies of the two waves:

Formula:
From the wave equations, the general form is:
xn = Acos(2πfnt – kx)
Comparing this with the given equations, the angular frequency ω is related to frequency by:

f=

Calculation:
Given the two wave equations:
x1 = 5 cos(354πt – 4πx)
x2 = 5 cos(350πt – 4πx)
Step 1: Identify the frequencies
from the first wave:

= 177 Hz
From the second wave

Step 2: Calculate the beat frequency.

= |177 Hz – 175 Hz| = 2Hz

Conclusion
The beat frequency produced by the two waves is 2 Hz.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

42) Question Explanation:- To find the Beat time period for given frequency
Concept:- /FORMULA
If two sources of sound of frequency n1 and n2, sounds together then Beats/sec
n = n1 -n2 or n2 - n1

So beat time period

Solutions / Calculation:- given frequency first source n1 = 256
second - n2 = 258
No. of beat/ sec n = 258 - 256
n=2

⇒ Time period of beat

Formula:- time period of Beat

Option:- (2) correct

43) Question Explanation:- To match the column for given question

Concept:-
Definition of longitudinal wave
medium particles oscillate along the Direction of propagate
Transverse Wave: If medium particles oscillate up and down about their rest positions in a
direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave, then the wave is
called transverse wave. For example, light is a transverse wave.
Solution: According to given column

Option:- (2) correct

44) Question Explanation:- Find the velocity of Stationery wave

Concept:- Stationery wave
Solution:- In Stationary wave two waves of same amplitudes and Some frequencies
superimpose in opposite direction so Stationary wave produced due to which no energy
transfer in medium. So Net Displacement is zero.
Formula:-
 Option:- (4) correct

45)

Concept :
Speed and time period of wave on stretched string.

Formula :
The wave speed on a stretched string is:

ν=

The time for the wave to travel to the other end and back is:

t=

Calculation :

Step 1: Calculate Wave Speed

= 20 m/s
Step 2: Time Calculation

t=c
Thus, the string will regain the same shape after 2 seconds.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : Which statement is wrong ?

Concept : This question is based on oxidation number.
Solution : Oxidation number of oxygen is (–1) in peroxide.
Final Answer : (3)

47)

Explaining : Equivalent weight of P4S3.

Concept : This question is based on equivalent weight
Solution :
Final Answer : (4)

48)

Explaining : Which statement correct ?

Concept : This question is based on oxidation number.
Solution :

V.f. = 5

V.f. = 1
Final Answer : (1)

49)

Explaining : Incorrect for the process ?

Concept : This question is based on FLOT
Solution :
For an isothermal process, ΔT = 0
⇒ ΔH, ΔU = 0
⇒ q = –w
Final Answer : (1)

50)

Explaining : Correct relation is ?

Concept : This question is based on Thermodynamic process
Solution : In isothermal expansion, wirrev < wrev and qirrev > qrev.
Final Answer : (3)

51)

Explaining : Work ?
Concept : This question is based on work done in chemical reaction.
Solution : w = –ΔngRT = +1 × 2 × 300 = 600 cal
Final Answer : (3)

52)

Explaining : Which is correct ?

Concept : This question is based on entropy.
Solution : ΔSuniv > 0 ; ΔH < 0, ΔG < 0, ΔSsys < 0
Final Answer : (4)

53)

Explaining : Change in entropy ?

Concept : This question is based on change in entropy.
Solution :

ΔS = nR ln

2 × R ln 2 = 7 R ln 2
Final Answer : (4)

54)

Explaining : Reaction is ?
Concept : This question is based on ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Solution :
ΔG = ΔH –TΔS ;
ΔS = +ve ;
ΔG = –ve = always negative
Final Answer : (2)

55)

Explaining : ΔH for this reaction

Concept : This question is based on bond energy.
Solution :
ΔH = (612 + 4 × 414 + 243) – (4 × 414 + 2 × 331 + 347)
= –154 kJ
Final Answer : (3)

56)

Explaining : Correct for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature.

Concept : This question is based on ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Solution :
For spontaneous reaction ΔG < 0
From ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
For always ΔG < 0
ΔH < TΔS
ΔS > 0, ΔH < 0
Final Answer : (1)

57)

Explaining : Work done by the gas is ?

Concept : This question is based on work done.
Solution :
T = 300K, V1 = 0.1 L, V2 = 0.25 L, Pext = 2 bar
w=?
w = –PΔV = –2bar (0.25 – 0.1) = –30J
Final Answer : (4)
58) Explaining : Value of ΔS ?
Concept : This question is based on change in entropy.
Solution :
ΔH = 30 KJ mol–1 T = 450 K, ΔS = ?
For spontaneity ΔG < 0
ΔH < TΔS

T>

ΔS > ⇒
ΔS > 66.66
ΔS = 70
Final Answer : (2)

59)

Explaining : Maximum work

Concept : This question is based on work
Solution : Work done = area under the curve
Final Answer : (2)

60)

Explaining : Value of
Concept : This question is based on balancing of redox reaction.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

61)

Explaining : Equivalent weight of N2H4

Concept : This question is based on equivalent weight in redox reaction
Solution :
N2H4 + OH– → N2 + H2O + e–

Final Answer : (4)

62)

Explaining : Mole of HNO3

Concept : This question is based on equivalent weight
Solution :

n.f = 1

n × 1 = 1 × (3 × 2)
n = 6 mole
Final Answer : (2)

63)

Explaining : The value of ΔH–ΔU ?

Concept : This question is based on ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
Solution :

C6H5COOH(s) + O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

ΔH – ΔU = ΔngRT = = –1.247 kJ
∴ For 2 moles = –1.247 × 2 = –2.494 kJ
Final Answer : (1)

64)

Explaining : Best fuel among theses of gases

Concept : This question is based on heat of combustion
Solution :

← best fuel

Final Answer : (1)

65)

Explaining : Work done in ergs

Concept : This question is based on work done in reversible isothermal process
Solution :
For reversible expansion
n = 1 mol
V1 = 10L, V2 = 20L
For isothermal reversible expansion
1 J = 107erg

W = –2.303 nRT log10

W = –2.303 × 1 × 8.314 × 298 × 107 log

Final Answer : (3)

66)
Explaining : Increasing order of oxidation state of Mn
Concept : This question is based on oxidation number
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

67)

Explaining : Oxidation number

Concept : This question is based on oxidation number
Solution :
HClO4 : +1 + x – 8 = 0, x = +7
HClO3 : +1 + x – 6 = 0, x = +5
Final Answer : (1)

68)

Explaining : Choose the set of coefficients.

Concept : This question is based on balancing of redox reaction.
Solution :

Balance oxygen atom

Balance Hydrogen atom

Final Answer : (2)

69)

Explaining : Decomposition redox reaction.

Concept : This question is based on types of redox reaction
Solution :
2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
is a decomposition redox reaction.
Final Answer : (3)

70)

Explaining : =?
Concept : This question is based on heat of formation.
Solution :
= (CO2) = –393.5
(CO) = –110.5
(H2O) = –241.8
C + O2 → CO2 –393.5 … (1)

C+ O2 → CO –110.5 … (2)

H2 + O2 → H2O –241.8 … (3)

CO2 + H2 → CO + H2O …(4) ∆H = ?
Eq. (4) = (2) + (3) – (1)
Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : From the given sps. of Mg which has max it

Concept : This question is based on Successive IE.
Solution :
An electron is lost, effective nuclear charge increases, force of attraction increases.
Hence, (IE)1 < (IE)2 < (IE)3
Thus, Mg2+ has maximum (IE)
Final Answer : (3)

72)

Explaining : Why does nitrogen have higher value of IE

Concept : This question is based on IE
Solution : Nitrogen has higher value of IE because it has stable half filled p-orbital.
Final Answer : (1)

73)

Explaining : Correct order of size of given species.

Concept : This question is based on Atomic radii.
Solution :
Anion formed after the gain of electron to the neutral atom and cation formed after the lose of
electron from outer shell.
Hence, cation has smaller size but anion has bigger size than its neutral atom. Thus, I– > I > I+.
Final Answer : (1)

74)

Explaining : Correct order of size of O–, O2–, F– and F.

Concept : This question is based on Atomic radii.
Solution :
O>F O – > F– O2– > F–
Thus, O2– > O– > F– > F
Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : The Newly discovered element with Atomic no. 117 would be placed in
Concept : This question is based on Modern periodic table-Identify the Block period & Group.
Solution :
For element Z = 104 to 118
group no. = last two digit of atomic no. 117 = Group no. = 17
Final Answer : (3)

76)

Explaining : What factor does not effect valence shell.

Concept : This question is based on Modern periodic table.
Solution :
Nuclear mass (protons + neutrons) does not effect the valence shell only protons, i.e. nuclear
charge affect the volume, shell.
Final Answer : (3)

77)

Explaining : Choose the correct relation for given process

Concept : This question is based on Relation of IE & EA.
Solution :
X(g) + e– → X–(g) ; ΔH = x = EA of X(g)
X–(g) → X(g) + e– ; ΔH = y = (IE) of X–(g)
= –(EA) of X(g)
Thus (a), (b), (c) are true.
Final Answer : (4)

78)

Explaining : Why removal of s electron is difficult compare to p-orbital.

Concept : This question is based on Penetrating.
Solution :
Reason is the correct explanation of assertion as s-subshell has more penetration power than
p-subshell.
Final Answer : (1)

79)

Explaining : Which of the following has tetrahedral geometry

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR.
Solution :
⇒ 4 bond pairs + 0 lone pair
⇒ sp3-hybridised = tetrahedral geometry
⇒ V-shape
⇒ Triangular planar
+
H3O ⇒ Pyramidal
Final Answer : (1)
80)

Explaining : Which of the following molecule is not linear.

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR.
Solution : SO2 has sp2-hybridisation with angle 119° (bent shape).
Final Answer : (1)

81)

Explaining : Which is least polar if value of EN is given.

Concept : This question is based on Polarity based on ΔEN.
Solution : With minimum (EN) difference
Final Answer : (3)

82)

Explaining : Number of π and σ-bonds in the Naphthalene.

Concept : This question is based on σ & π bond
Solution :
The given compound will have the correct structure as

There are 5 π-bonds and 8C—H+ 11C—C σ-bonds, i.e.

19 σ-bonds are present in the above molecule.
Final Answer : (3)

83)

Explaining : The strength of bonds by overlapping atomic orbital are.

Concept : This question is based on VBT
Solution :
Bond formed due to linear axial overlapping is stronger than that due to sideway overlapping.
Final Answer : (1)

84)

Explaining : Assertion & Reason on how NaCl is formed

Concept : This question is based on Octet completion.
Solution : Both A & R is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
Final Answer : (1)

85)

Explaining : Nature of given oxide.

Concept : This question is based on Nature of oxide.
Solution :
Zn, Be, Al, Sb, As, Pb, Sn, Ga, Cr+3 = Amphoteric
None metal oxide → Acidic
Metal oxide → Basic
Final Answer : (1)

86)

Explaining : From the given sets of molecule which does not follow octet rule.
Concept : This question is based on Octet rule.
Solution : BF3, BeCl2 and NO2 all are electron-deficient compound.
Final Answer : (2)

87)

Explaining : Hybridisation of C2 & C3 carbon respectively.

Concept : This question is based on Hybridisation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

88)

Explaining : Water molecule structure & lone pair.

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR
Solution :

X–bent ; Y–bonds ; Z–2 lone-pairs

Final Answer : (1)

89)

Explaining : Hybridisation of N in , and

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR
Solution :
 Final Answer : (1)

90)

Explaining : The structure of XeO3.

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR.
Solution :

sp3-hybridised Xe with one lone-pair.

Hence, shows pyramidal structure.
Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation: (a) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially physiological ecology which
studies how individual organisms respond to their environment including their physiological
processes and adaptions.
(d) Ecology indeed studies the interactions between and abiotic factors in the invironment
focusing on how living organisms interact with their with their surroundings.
Final Answer : (3)

92) Solution : The assemblage of all interacting living populations (plants, animals,
bacteria, fungi) within a specific area form Biological Community.
Final Answer : (2)

93)

Solution : A 'biome' is a large ecological area on the Earth's surface with distinct climate,
flora, and fauna. It represents a major ecosystem type like forests, deserts, or tundras that
span wide geographic areas.
Final Answer : (1)

94) Concept:- Competition

Solution :- Invasive species can species can spread unchecked in new areas due to the
absence of natural predators or competitors.
Absence of natural predator- In Australia, the cactus faced no natural control, allowing it to
invade millions of hectares.
Final Answer :- (3)

95) Concept:- Mutualism

Solution :- Mutualism is a type of interaction where both species benefit. In the fig-wasp
mutualism, the wasp pollinates the fig flower.
In return, the fig provides a site for oviposition (egg-laying) and developing seeds, offering
protection and nutrients.
Final Answer :- (4)

96) Concept:- Hyperparasite

Solution :- Hyper parasite-A parasite living on another parasite-This is the correct definition
of a hyperparasite.
Final Answer :- (4)

97) Solution : Mutualism benefits both species involved; Parasitism benefits one species (the
parasite) while harming the other (the host); Commensalism benefits one species without
affecting the other.
Fig tree and wasp for mutualism, Viscum (a parasitic plant) and oak tree for parasitism, orchid
and mango for commensalism.
Final Answer : (3)

98) Concept:- Predation

Solution :- Pisaster starfish is a keystone predator. Its removal disrupts species balance,
leading to the competitive exclusion of several invertebrates.
Final Answer :- (3)

99) Solution : Area A = maximum no of different species in a given area (A B C D E F G) ,so

that maximum species diversity in area A .
Area B = minimum no of different species in given area (only A ), so that minimum species
diversity in area B.
Final Answer: (2)

100) Solution :- Keystone species are crucial in maintaining community structure, especially
when resources are low.
-Fig trees provide fruits year-round and help other species survive in tough conditions.
Final Answer :- (4)
101) Concept:- Ecology, Interactions
Solution :- In ecology, interactions between two species are often denoted as:
• A (+/+)→ (IV) Mutualism (both species benefit)
• B (-/-)→ (III) Competition (both species are harmed)
• C (+/-) → (I) Predation or parasitism (one benefits, one is harmed)
• D (-/0) →(II) Amensalism (one harmed, other unaffected)
Final Answer :- (3)

102) Solution : Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organisation –
organisms, populations, communities and biomes.
Life is found in a variety of environments, including many extreme or harsh habitats (like hot
springs or deep-sea vents).
Final Answer : (1)

103) Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

104) Solution : (a) Sparrow eating any seed is not less than a predator: Correct.
Consuming a seed is an act of predation, as the seed (potential new plant) is killed and
consumed.
(b) Commensalism is + / - type of relationship: Incorrect . Commensalism is a + / 0
relationship.
(c) Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be phytophagous: Correct . This is statement
from the NCERT text regarding plant-insect interactions.
(d) Mutualism is + / + type of relationship: Correct . Both species benefit in mutualism.
Final Answer : (1)

105) Solution :- i. Organism-d. Individual living being (basic unit)

ii. Population-c. Group of same species
iii. Community-b. All populations of different species
iv. Biome-a. Large ecosystem with distinct flora and fauna
Final Answer : (1)

106) Solution :- Organism-Ecology starts with studying an individual organism's interactions

with the environment.
Final Answer :- (3)
107) Solution : Ticks are ectoparasites because they live on the outside surface of the
host's body.
Plasmodium, Ascaris, and Taenia are all endoparasites because they live inside the host's
body.
Final Answer : (1)

108) Solution : Brood parasitism is when a parasitic organism (like the Cuckoo) lays its
eggs in the nest of a host organism (like the Crow) for the host to raise the young.
Final Answer : (3)

109) Solution : Cuscuta (Dodder or Amarbel) is a total stem parasite because it lacks
chlorophyll and relies completely on the host plant's stem for both water and organic food.
Final Answer : (3)

110) Solution : (a) Host specific: Correct. Many parasites are specialized to infect only one
or a few host species.
(b) Biotic potential is high: Correct. Parasites often produce many offspring to overcome
the high risk of not reaching a new host.
(c) Does not directly kill their host: Correct. A successful parasite keeps its host alive, as
the host is its energy source.
(d) Tend to co-evolve: Correct. The host and parasite co-evolve.
Final Answer : (4)

111) Explanation : The famous Australian "havoc" is associated with the Prickly pear cactus.
Prickly pear cactus (scientifically known as Opuntia species) caused significant ecological
damage in Australia, particularly in the early 20th century. It became an invasive species and
spread uncontrollably, leading to major agricultural and environmental problems. The term
"havoc" refers to the widespread destruction and disruption it caused.
Final Answer : (4)

112)

Solution : Assertion (A) is True: Cattle and goats avoid grazing on Calotropis.
Reason (R) is True: Calotropis produces toxic cardiac glycosides.
Link: The plant's production of these highly poisonous chemicals (R) is the direct reason why
grazers avoid eating it (A).
Final Answer : (1)

113) Solution : One species have to evolve according to other if they are interdependent.
Final Answer : (3)

114) Explanation : In the context of competition, plants can indeed be the most adversely
affected. Plants compete for resources like sunlight, water, and nutrients, and this competition
can severely limit their growth and reproduction.
Final Answer : (1)
 115) Solution : ∎ Flamingos and resident fishes compete for their common food, the
zooplankton in the lake.
∎ Cattle egret and cattle - Commensalism.
∎ Lice on human - Parasitism.
∎ Fig tree and wasp - Mutualism.
Final Answer : (2)

116) Explanation : Both the given statements are true.

Statement–1 : Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same
resources that are limited.
Statement–2 : If two species compete for the same resources they could avoid competition by
resource partitioning.
Final Answer : (1)

117) Explaining the Question :- This is an Assertion-Reason type question.

Concept :- Competition.
Solution :- Assertion A Connell's experiment (on the rocky sea coast of Scotland) showed that
the larger barnacle (Balanus) excludes the smaller barnacle (Chthamalus) from the lower
intertidal zone due to competition. This Assertion is true.
The reason talks about herbivores and plants being more affected by competition than
carnivores – This Reason is true.
This is a general ecological observation but unrelated to Connell's experiment. This Reason is
true
Final Answer :- (1)

118) Solution : Statement I: False. Gause's principle states that two closely related species
competing for the SAME resources CANNOT coexist indefinitely (one will be eliminated).
Statement II: True. Gause's principle predicts the elimination of the inferior competitor,
which is true if the resources are limiting.
Final Answer : (4)

119) Solution : i–c, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a

Column-I Column-II

(i) Species diversity (c) Different types of species in a community

(ii) Species dominance (d) Highest no. of one type of species

(iii) Stratification (b)According to the need of light

(iv) Keystone Species (a) Great influence on community characters

Final Answer : (2)

120) Concept: Symbiosis

Solution: Mycorrhizae represent a mutually beneficial association between fungi and the
roots of higher plants. The fungi help the plant absorb water and essential nutrients, while the
plant provides the fungi with carbohydrates produced during photosynthesis. This mutualistic
relationship is a classic example of symbiosis.
Final Answer: (3)

121) Solution : Species diversity refers to the number and variety of species in a given
ecological community. It is a component of biodiversity and can be influenced by
environmental factors like latitude and altitude. Typically, species diversity decreases at
higher latitudes (closer to the poles) and tends to be higher near the equator.
Final Answer : (2)

122) Solution :- • Keystone species are species that play a crucial role in maintaining the
structure and stability of an ecosystem.
• Their removal can cause drastic changes in the food web, leading to the collapse of the
entire ecosystem.
• Example: Starfish Pisaster (a keystone predator) helps maintain species diversity by preying
on dominant mussels. Its removal leads to overgrowth of mussels, reducing species diversity.
• Since keystone species regulate major ecosystem functions, their absence can disrupt the
entire ecosystem.
Final Answer :- (1)

123) Explanation: Assertion: False. Competition is not always restricted to closely related
species. (Example: Flamingos and fish compete for zooplankton).
Reason: False. Totally unrelated species can compete for the same resource (as shown by the
flamingo and fish example).
Final Answer : (4)

124) Solution : Assertion (A): True. Resource partitioning is a mechanism for co-
existence (avoiding exclusion).
Reason (R): False. Competition is avoided by resource partitioning, not by predating on
each other (predation is a + / - interaction).
Final Answer : (4)

125) Explanation: Mutualism is a type of interaction where both species benefit. Let's analyze
the options:
Epiphytes (Correct Answer) – Not mutualism, but commensalism.
• Epiphytes (e.g., orchids on trees) use the host plant for physical support but do not take
nutrients from it.
• The host tree is neither harmed nor benefited, making this commensalism, not mutualism.
Final Answer : (1)

126) Concept: Predation

Solution: ∎ Assertion: Biological control methods of agricultural pest management
programmes are based on predation → True.
∎ Reason: Predators maintain prey populations → True.
∎ Since predators help regulate pest (prey) numbers, this is exactly why biological control is
effective. So, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Final Answer: (1)
 127) Concept :- Predation
Solution :- Thorns avoid herbivores to predate (predators) and also reduce transpiration by
minimizing surface area, helping the cactus survive in arid climates.
Final Answer : (4)

128) Solution : Statement I: Incorrect. Population size is a dynamic (changing) parameter,

not static.
Statement II: Incorrect. Natality increases density, but Emigration (moving out)
decreases density.
Final Answer : (4)

129) Solution : The logistic growth model is represented by the equation:

dN/dt = rN(K−N\K)

A. N = Population size
B. K = Carrying capacity
C. r = Intrinsic growth rate
D. dN/dt = Population growth rate

The growth rate (dN/dt) becomes zero when the population reaches the carrying capacity (K).
This happens when N/K = 1, meaning N = K.
Final Answer: (1)

130) Concept:- Population

Solution :- Population- All individuals of one species in a given area constitute a population,
not flora/fauna.
Final Answer : (3)

131) Solution : Mutations introduce new genetic variations by altering DNA sequences, which
are the primary source of variation in a population. Migration, genetic drift, and natural
selection act on existing variations but do not create new ones.
Final Answer : (1)

132) Solution : Homologous organs have a common structural origin but may have different
functions. Forelimbs of humans and wings of birds share a common skeletal structure,
indicating common ancestry.
Final Answer : (2)

133) Solution : Alfred Russel Wallace independently proposed the theory of natural selection,
which prompted Darwin to publish his work.
Final Answer : (1)

134) Solution : The primitive Earth's atmosphere was reducing, containing methane,
ammonia, and water vapor but lacking free oxygen, which appeared later due to
photosynthetic organisms.
Final Answer : (3)
135) Solution : Speciation is the evolutionary process where new, distinct species arise, often
due to reproductive isolation or genetic divergence.
Final Answer : (1)

136) Solution : Darwin’s finches are a classic example of adaptive radiation, where a single
ancestor species diversified into multiple species with different beak shapes adapted to
various food sources.
Final Answer : (2)

137) Solution : The Hardy-Weinberg principle describes a population in genetic equilibrium,

which is large, randomly mating, and free from evolutionary forces like mutation, selection, or
drift.
Final Answer : (3)

138) Solution : Lamarck proposed that traits acquired during an organism’s lifetime could be
passed to offspring.
Final Answer : (2)

139) Solution : Genetic drift refers to random fluctuations in allele frequencies, especially
significant in small populations, leading to loss or fixation of alleles.
Final Answer : (2)

140) Solution : Vestigial structures are reduced organs with little or no function. The human
appendix is vestigial, likely a remnant of a digestive structure in ancestors.
Final Answer : (1)

141) Solution : Fossil evidence suggests the first cellular life forms (prokaryotes) appeared
around 3.8 billion years ago.
Final Answer : (3)

142) Solution : Embryology, taxonomy, and physiology provide evidence for evolution through
similarities in development, classification, and function across species.
Final Answer : (4)

143) Solution : Herbert Spencer coined the phrase ‘survival of the fittest’ to describe natural
selection, though it is often associated with Darwin.
Final Answer : (2)

144) Solution : Disruptive selection favors extreme phenotypes, leading to increased diversity
in a population, unlike stabilizing or directional selection.
Final Answer : (3)

145) Solution : The Miller-Urey experiment showed that organic molecules like amino acids
could be synthesized from inorganic compounds under conditions mimicking early Earth.
Final Answer : (2)

146) Solution : Genetic drift significantly affects small populations, causing random loss of
alleles and reducing diversity. In large populations, its effect is minimal due to averaging out
of random changes.
Final Answer : (2)

147) Solution : Homologous organs (e.g., forelimbs of mammals) show divergent evolution
from a common ancestor, while analogous organs (e.g., wings of birds and insects) show
convergent evolution due to similar functions despite different origins.
Final Answer : (1)

148) Solution : Lamarck proposed that acquired traits (e.g., stretched necks in giraffes) are
inherited, while Darwin’s theory emphasizes natural selection acting on heritable variations.
Final Answer : (1)

149) Solution : Adaptive radiation results in multiple species from a single ancestor due to
varied ecological niches (e.g., Darwin’s finches). It does not require isolation but is often
enhanced by it.
Final Answer : (2)

150) Solution : Fossils show past life forms, supporting evolution. However, fossils form
through various processes like petrification, molds, or impressions, not a single method.
Final Answer : (2)

151) Solution : Evolution is gradual (Statement 1). Mutations are random and can be
beneficial or harmful (Statement 3). Natural selection is not the only mechanism (e.g., genetic
drift, Statement 2 is false). Convergent evolution leads to analogous, not homologous,
structures (Statement 4 is false).
Final Answer : (1)

152) Solution : The Hardy-Weinberg principle applies to populations in equilibrium

(Statement 1), requires no mutations (Statement 2), and predicts constant allele frequencies
(Statement 4). It applies to large, not small, populations (Statement 3 is false).
Final Answer : (1)

153) Solution : Fossils are remains or traces of ancient organisms (Statement 1) and provide
evolutionary evidence (Statement 2). Transitional fossils like Archaeopteryx show intermediate
forms (Statement 4). Fossils include bones, shells, or impressions, not only bones (Statement 3
is false).
Final Answer : (1)

154) Solution : Natural selection acts on phenotypes (Statement 1), favors traits enhancing
survival/reproduction (Statement 3), and can lead to speciation (Statement 4). It often reduces
diversity by eliminating unfit alleles (Statement 2 is false).
Final Answer : (1)

155) Solution : The Miller-Urey experiment showed organic molecule formation under early
Earth conditions (Statement 1). The first life forms were likely prokaryotes (Statement 2), and
organic molecules preceded cellular life (Statement 4). The primitive atmosphere lacked
oxygen (Statement 3 is false).
Final Answer : (1)

156) Solution : Natural selection favors organisms with traits that enhance survival and
reproduction, leading to the ‘survival of the fittest.’ The reason explains why natural selection
results in fitter organisms prevailing.
Final Answer : (1)

157) Solution : Homologous organs (e.g., human arm and bat wing) have different functions
but share a common structural origin, indicating divergent evolution.
Final Answer : (1)

158) Solution : Genetic drift can lead to speciation by causing random allele frequency
changes, which may result in reproductive isolation in small populations.
Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution : The Hardy-Weinberg principle describes a non-evolving population where

allele frequencies remain constant, assuming no mutation, selection, or migration.
Final Answer : (1)

160) Solution : Adaptive radiation is divergent evolution, where a single ancestor diversifies
into multiple species adapted to different niches, as seen in Darwin’s finches
Final Answer : (1)

161) Solution : Lamarck’s theory, based on the inheritance of acquired traits, is discredited
because genetic evidence shows only heritable traits are passed to offspring.
Final Answer : (1)

162) Solution : Analogous organs (e.g., wings of birds and insects) evolve similar functions
independently due to similar environmental pressures, exemplifying convergent evolution.
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : Vestigial organs (e.g., human appendix) are reduced structures that were
functional in ancestors, providing evidence for evolutionary change.
Final Answer : (1)

164) Solution : The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that organic molecules like amino
acids could form from inorganic compounds under early Earth conditions, supporting chemical
evolution.
Final Answer : (1)

165) Solution : Speciation occurs when populations diverge into distinct species, requiring
reproductive isolation to prevent gene flow, which would otherwise maintain genetic
similarity.
Final Answer : (1)

166) Solution : Darwin proposed natural selection, Lamarck suggested inheritance of

acquired characters, Wallace co-proposed natural selection, and de Vries introduced the
mutation theory.
Final Answer : (1)

167) Solution : Genetic drift involves random allele frequency changes, speciation is new
species formation, natural selection favors survival of adaptive traits, and gene flow is allele
transfer between populations.
Final Answer : (1)

168) Solution : The human appendix is vestigial, wings of birds and bats are analogous,
forelimbs of humans and dogs are homologous, and eyes of octopuses and humans show
convergent evolution.
Final Answer : (1)

169) Solution : Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil, coelacanth evolved into the first
amphibia that lived an both land and water, dinosaurs are extinct reptiles, and mammoths are
early mammals.
Final Answer : (1)

170) Solution : Stabilizing selection reduces variation, directional selection shifts toward one
phenotype, disruptive selection favors extremes, and sexual selection enhances mating
success.
Final Answer : (1)

171) Solution : Homologous organs (similar structure, different functions) indicates divergent
evolution, where a common ancestor diverged into species with modified structures.
Final Answer : (2)

172) Solution : Darwin’s finches with different beak shapes illustrates adaptive radiation,
where a single ancestor diversified into multiple species adapted to different ecological niches.
Final Answer : (2)

173) Solution : Archaeopteryx, with both reptilian (teeth, claws) and avian (feathers) features,
is a transitional fossil showing the evolutionary link between reptiles and birds.
Final Answer : (2)
174) Solution : The Miller-Urey experiment setup that produced organic molecules (e.g.,
amino acids) from inorganic compounds, supporting the chemical origin of life.
Final Answer : (2)

175) Solution : A branching diagram (phylogenetic tree) shows divergent evolution, where a
common ancestor gives rise to different species with varied adaptations.
Final Answer : (2)

176) Solution : Organic molecules formed first (B), followed by cellular life (A),
photosynthetic organisms (C), which produced oxygen, leading to its accumulation in the
atmosphere (D).
Final Answer : (1)

177) Solution : Lamarck proposed his theory (1809), followed by Darwin’s and Wallace’s
natural selection (1859), and later de Vries’ mutation theory (1901).
Final Answer : (1)

178) Solution : Organic molecules (D) formed first, followed by prokaryotes (A), eukaryotes
(B), and then multicellular organisms (C).
Final Answer : (1)

179) Solution : Stabilizing selection reduces diversity (A), directional selection shifts it
moderately (B), sexual selection may enhance specific traits (D), and disruptive selection
increases diversity by favoring extremes (C).
Final Answer : (2)

180) Solution : Human evolution progressed from Australopithecus (early hominid), to Homo
habilis (tool user), Homo erectus (upright walker), and finally Homo sapiens (modern humans).
Final Answer : (1)