Chapter 12: Environmental Issues

1. According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great
harm to human health are of diameter
(1) 2.50 μm
(2) 5.00 μm
(3) 10.00 μm
(4) 7.5 μm

2. All automobiles and fuel petrol and diesel have to meet the Euro-IV norms in ______ by April, 2010
(1) Delhi only
(2) Kanpur only
(3) 11 Indian Cities
(4) All Indian Cities

3. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. The
converters are made up of metals namely
(1) Fe, Cu and Rh.
(2) Pt, Pd and Rh.
(3) Al, Pd and Th.
(4) Fe, Cu and Pd.

4. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) O3 destruction (i) Hyper saline lakes
(b) Arresters (ii) Particulate matter
(c) Dunalliela (iii) Sherwood Rowland and Mario
Molina
(d) Aerosols (iv) Control of particulate matter
(1) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (i); (b) – (iv); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (iv)

5. Which is incorrect about electrostatic precipitator (ESP)?

(1) Corona produces electrons.
(2) Collecting plants are grounded, so use to attract the charged dust particle.
(3) Velocity of air between the plates must be low.
(4) Electrodes wires that are maintained at hundred volts produces corona.

6. What is/are done by catalytic converters?

(1) Unburnt hydrocarbons are converted to CO2 and H2O
(2) CO is converted to CO2
(3) Nitric oxide is changed to N2
(4) All of these

7. The most widely used and effective device for removing particulate matter is
(1) arrester.
(2) scrubber.
(3) electrostatic precipitator.
(4) converters.

1
8. ESP removes approximately _________ of particulate matter present in exhaust from a thermal
power plant.
(1) 60% (2) 80% (3) 99% (4) 85%

9. The pollutants emitted by jet aeroplanes in outer atmosphere flourocarbons are known as
(1) smog.
(2) photochemical oxidants.
(3) aerosols.
(4) loess.

10. Bharat stage III is applicable to two and three wheelers throughout the country since
(1) 2008.
(2) 2009.
(3) 2010.
(4) 2011.

11. Match Column-I with Column-II (composition of waste water which contains 0.1% impurities) and
select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Suspended solid (i) Nitrate, NH3, sodium, calcium and phosphate
(b) Colloidal material (ii) Faecal matter, bacteria, cloth and paper
(c) Dissolved material (iii) Sand, silt and clay
(1) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iii); (b) – (ii); (c) – (i)
(3) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i)
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii)

12. Of the following, pick out the constituents of a photochemical smog

(a) Ozone (b) Nitrogen oxides (c) PAN (d) H SO
2 4

(e) DDT (f )BHC (g) CO

2

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (g)
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (g)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (e), (f) and (g)

13. Which method is used for the removal of sulphur dioxide and ammonia from the polluted air?
(1) Wet scrubbers (2) Absorption
(3) Gravitational method (4) Electrostatic precipitator

14. Photochemical smog differs from classical/London smog in

(1) having a reducing climate.
(2) its development during high temperature.
(3) not having polluting components of secondary origin.
(4) having SO2 as major pollutant.

15. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they

(1) show association between algae and fungi.
(2) grow faster than others.
(3) are sensitive to SO2.
(4) flourish in SO2 rich environment.

2
16. Acid rain is rainfall with a pH of
(1) 7 (2) 6.56 (3) < 5.65 (4) 11

17. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Incinerator – Aerobic burning at 900–1200° C
(2) Pyrolysis – Aerobic burning at 1650°C
(3) Sanitary landfills – Solid waste
(4) Polybend – Recycled modified plastic

18. Which of the following is not an effect of acid rain in a pond?

(1) Increased fungal growth (2) Decreased insect population
(3) Increased insect population (4) NO3− and SO4− saturation

19. Which of the following causes thinning of fish eating bird’s egg shell and their premature breaking?
(1) DDT (2) Mercury (3) Faecal matter (4) Paper fibres

20. Find the correct match.

(1) Black foot disease – Cadmium (2) Itai-itai– Arsenic
(3) Minimata– Nitrate (4) Hardened bones – Fluoride

21. Cultural (Accelerated) eutrophication is

(1) natural ageing of lake.
(2) aging process of water body due to pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from industries
and homes.
(3) natural conversion of water body into land.
(4) less algal growth in water body.

22. Which of these is/are true about DDT?

(1) Undergo biomagnification in aquatic ecosystem
(2) Disturb calcium metabolism in bird
(3) Causes thinning of eggshell leads to premature breaking
(4) All of these

23. Select the correct statement from the following:

(a) Thermal wastewater eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature.
(b) In a young lake, the water is cold and clear supporting the little life.
(c) DDT disturbs calcium anabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshell and their premature
breaking, eventually causing decline in bird’s population.
(d) Terror of Bengal grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies.
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) All of these

24. Which of these facts are true with regard to wastewater treatment in the town of Arcata, California?
(1) The cleaning occurs in two stages.
(2) In the first stage conventional sedimentation, filtering and chlorine treatment are given.
(3) In the second stage, biologists developed a series of six connected marshes of over 60 hectares of
marshland, appropriate plant, algae, fungi and bacteria are seeded in this area, which neutralizes,
absorb and assimilates the pollutants.
(4) All of these

3
25. Select the incorrect matching.
(1) BOD − Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(2) JFM − Joint Forest Management
(3) DU − Degree of Unsaturation
(4) FOAM − Friends of the Arcata March

26. What happens to sewage water from the point of sewage discharge?
(1) Dissolved oxygen decreases
(2) Mortality of fish increases
(3) Biological oxygen demand increases
(4) All of these

27. The presence of large amount of nutrients in water causes excessive growth of planktonic (free-
floating) algae. This is called
(1) red tide. (2) biomagnification.
(3) algal bloom. (4) biofortification.

28. Increase in concentration of the toxic substances at successive trophic levels is known as
(1) biofortification. (2) biowar.
(3) bioinformatics. (4) biomagnification.

29. If the water contains 0.003 ppb of DDT, then fish eating birds contain what level of DDT?
(1) 0.04 ppm (2) 2 ppm (3) 0.5 ppm (4) 25 ppm

30. When domestic sewage mixes with river water,

(1) small animals like rats will die after drinking river water.
(2) the increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron.
(3) the increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen.
(4) the river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%.

31. Cleaning of waste water in Arcata Marsh involves

(1) only conventional method of sewage treatment.
(2) removal of dissolved heavy metals through biological process.
(3) chlorination like chemical processes.
(4) utilization of microorganisms only for pollution control.

32. Which of the following statements about eutrophication are true?

(a) It is a naturally occurring process.
(b) It is commonly found in standing rather than running water.
(c) It can lead to oxygen depletion
(d) It is commonly associated with high levels of nitrates and sulphates
(e) It is commonly associated with high levels of phosphates and nitrates.
(1) All of these (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (e)

33. In an area where DDT has been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly
because
(1) birds stopped laying eggs.
(2) earthworms in the area got eradicated.
(3) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds.
(4) many of the birds laid, did not hatch.

4
34. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for
(1) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(2) working out the efficiency of oil-driven automobiles engines.
(3) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisaein producing curd on a commercial scale.
(4) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.

35. Which of the following is not a useful method for reducing agricultural runoff into waterways?
(1) Maintain or re-establish riparian woodlands
(2) Use natural organic fertilisers in place of synthetic inorganic fertilisers
(3) Maintain vegetation or a mulch cover over soil
(4) Allow livestock to wade in and drink from the water

36. Release of phosphates and nitrates in water bodies (i.e., in rivers and lakes) leads to
(1) nutrient enrichment (eutrophication).
(2) reduced algal growth.
(3) increased algal growth.
(4) increased growth of decomposers.

37. Water pollution is best assessed by determining

(1) DO.
(2) BOD and turbidity.
(3) DO and acidity.
(4) hardness and alkalinity.

38. Find the incorrect statement.

(1) Sanitary landfills were adopted as the substitute for open burning dumps.
(2) Seepage of chemical from landfills pollutes the underground water resources.
(3) All waste that we generate can be categorized into three types, that is, bio-degradable, recyclable
and non-biodegradable.
(4) Open dumps inhibit breeding of rats and flies.

39. Select the correct statement.

(a) Use of incinerator is crucial for the disposal of hospital waste.
(b) Recycling is the only solution for the treatment of e-waste.
(c) Fish-eating birds containing 2 ppm DDT, become agents of biomagnifications.
(d) Polybend is a fine power of bitumen.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

40. Which of these is/are true with regard to nuclear radiation coming from nuclear waste?
(1) It causes mutation at a very high rate.
(2) High doses of radiations is lethal.
(3) Low doses causes diseases like cancer
(4) All of these

41. How deep should nuclear waste after sufficient pre-treatment be buried (in shielded containers)
within the rocks below the earth’s surface?
(1) 100 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 500 m

5
42. Which is a degradable pollutant?
(1) DDT (2) Aluminium foil
(3) Domestic wastes (4) Mercury salts

43. One of the most dangerous radioactive pollutant to Homo sapiens is

(1) strontium-90.
(2) phosphorus-32.
(3) sulphur-35.
(4) None of these.

44. Road laid by polybend with bitumen have all of the following properties except one. Identify it
(1) More water repellent
(2) Increase road life by factor of three
(3) Less bleeding in summer
(4) Increase cost of road laying

45. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) PAN (4) Aerosol

46. The effect of today’s radioactive fallout will be harmful to children of future generation than to
today’s children because
(1) infants are more frequently recessive.
(2) susceptibility to radiation increase with age.
(3) mutated genes are frequency recessive.
(4) contamination of milk supply is not cumulative.

47. Eco-san toilets are not associated with which of the following?
(1) Working in Sri Lanka and Kerala
(2) Composting method for recycling of human excreta
(3) Recycled material forms natural fertiliser
(4) Enhance the need for chemical fertilisers

48. What did Chernobyl, Three Mile Island, the Love Canal and Bhopal all have in common?
(1) They all qualified as technological disasters.
(2) They all are involved in environmental racism.
(3) Environmental problems were caused by economic development in all these places.
(4) Nuclear disasters took place in all these places.

49. Which of the following is considered the greatest problem associated with the use of pesticides?
(1) The speed with which they kill organisms.
(2) Modern pesticides are more dangerous to use.
(3) Development of genetic resistance in pest organisms.
(4) They increase costs for farmers, making it more difficult for them to make a living.

50. The ideal modern sewage system is one in which

(1) sanitary sewage water is collected and treated, but storm water is not.
(2) individual home owners operate private septic systems on large lots.
(3) all sanitary sewage water and storm water is collected in a single sewer system and treated in a
single treatment plant.
(4) all sanitary sewage water is collected separately from storm water and fully treated to remove all
pollutants before the water is released to natural systems.

6
51. Which of the following is an example of negative soil pollution?
(1) Addition of radioactive dust (2) Addition of herbicides
(3) Deforestation (4) Addition of industrial wastes

52. Thermal pollution is more prevalent near

(1) hot water springs.
(2) coal-based power plants.
(3) temperate zones.
(4) tropical zones.

53. Wastes may be sealed in concrete-filled drums and discharged to a depth of about 500 m. This
specific statement is true for
(1) y-radiation pollutants.
(2) UV radiation pollutants.
(3) b-particle pollutants.
(4) all radioactive pollutants.

54. Select the incorrect statement for e-wastes.

(1) Recycling is the only solution of treatment.
(2) They are buried in landfills for incineration.
(3) Bulk of the waste is biodegradable.
(4) Used to recover metals like copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.

55. Prolonged water logging in agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
(1) poor aeration and low salinity.
(2) poor aeration and high salinity.
(3) poor aeration and high acidity.
(4) metal toxicity and proper aeration.

56. Greenhouse gases absorb ______ radiation from the earth and emit it again towards the earth. The
cycle continues till the earth’s surface has no_______ radiation to emit.
(1) long wave (infrared); long wave
(2) short wave (UV); long wave
(3) long wave (infrared); short wave (UV)
(4) short wave (UV); short wave (UV)

57. Which of these is incorrect about ozone depletion?

(1) CFCs releases Cl atom which causes degradation of O3.
(2) Cl atom acts as catalyst.
(3) Cl atom is not consumed in the reaction.
(4) It is minimum over Antarctica region.

58. In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of
cornea, a disease known as
(1) night. (2) xerophthalmia. (3) epicanthus. (4) snow-blindness.

59. Today the concentration of greenhouse gases is very high because of the
(1) use of refrigerator.
(2) increased combustion of oils and coal.
(3) deforestation.
(4) All of these.

7
60. Rise in temperature is leading to deleterious changes in the environment and resulting in odd climatic
change such as
(1) ozone depletion.
(2) greenhouse effect.
(3) water logging.
(4) El Nino effect.

61. Bad ozone is formed in

(1) stratosphere. (2) ionosphere.
(3) troposphere. (4) lithosphere.

62. In coming years, skin related disorders will be more common due to
(1) pollutants in air.
(2) use of detergents.
(3) water pollution.
(4) depletion of ozone layer.

63. The presence of ozone (O3) in the atmosphere of earth

(1) hinders higher rate of photosynthesis.
(2) helps in checking the penetration of ultra-violet rays to earth.
(3) has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in recent years.
(4) is advantageous since it supplies O2 for people travelling in jets.

64. Choose the odd one out with respect to ozone depletion in the stratosphere.
(1) UV rays have the ability to both degrade as well as form ozone layer.
(2) UV rays are depleting the good ozone in the troposphere.
(3) CFCs are disturbing the balance of ozone equilibrium.
(4) UV-B rays cause inflammation of cornea called snow blindness.

65. What was the focus of Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring in 1962?
(1) Rapid global warming resulting from fossil fuel burning and deforestation.
(2) The potential for resource depletion leading to global poverty and starvation from increasing
population growth.
(3) The potential ecological devastation of pesticides such as DDT in the ecosystem.
(4) Economic and social chaos resulting from a computer virus under a society with an over-
concentration on technology and computers.

66. Which of the following is not one of the major environment problems resulting from human
interference in the nitrogen cycle?
(1) Nitrous oxide release increases global warming
(2) Increased acid rain
(3) Eutrophication
(4) Stratospheric ozone depletion

67. Which of the following is not a major feedback mechanism in which the activity of humans to
increase global climate temperatures leads to an even further increase?
(1) Global warming causes increased rainfall, plant growth and photosynthesis.
(2) Global warming causes increased CO2 release from biomass decomposition.
(3) Tropical deforestation causes warming and drying so that remaining forests begin to decline.
(4) Global warming causes snow to melt in polar regions and therefore increase global albedo.

8
68. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Part of ozone is destroyed over poles during polar spring.
(b) Ozone present in stratosphere filters out UV-B.
(c) Ozone hole over Antarctica was first detected by Farman et al.
(d) Ozone hole over Antarctica appears during August and September.
(e) CFCs split up in stratosphere to release chlorine by the action of UV-C.
(1) All of these (2) None of these
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (c) and (e)

69. The single best way to reduce acid deposition would be to

(1) prohibit the construction of nuclear power plants.
(2) enhance the use of kerosene oil.
(3) decrease emissions from automobiles.
(4) reduce the use of coal.

70. Fill up the blanks.

(a) Clouds and gases reflect about ____(i)_____ of the incoming solar radiation, and absorb some of
it but almost half of incoming solar radiation falls on earth’s surface heating it, while a small
proportion is reflected back. Earth’s surface re-emits heat in the form of ____(ii)_____ radiation,
but part of this does not escape into space as atmospheric gases (e.g., carbon dioxide,
____(iii)_____, etc.) absorb a major fraction of it.
(b) During the past century, the temperature of earth has increased by ____(i)_____, most of it
during the last three decades. Scientists believe that this rise in temperature is leading to
deleterious changes in the environment and resulting in odd climatic changes (e.g.____(ii)____),
thus leading to increased melting of polar ice caps as well as of other places like the Himalayan
snow caps.
(c) In human’s eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation
of cornea, called ____(i)_____, cataract, etc. Such exposure may permanently damage the
cornea.
(1) (a) – (i) one-fourth, (ii) infrared, (iii) methane; (b) – (i) 0.6°C, (ii) El Nino effect; (c) – (i) snow
blindness
(2) (a) – (i) three-fourth, (ii) red, (iii) methane; (b) – (i) 0.6°C, (ii) El Nino effect; (c) – (i) snow
blindness
(3) (a) – (i) one-fourth, (ii) infrared, (iii) methane; (b) – (i) 0.6°C, (ii) Emersion effect; (c) – (i) snow
blindness
(4) (a) – (i) one-fourth, (ii) red, (iii) methane; (b) – (i) 0.6°C, (ii) El Nino effect; (c) – (i) colour
blindness

71. Which of the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect has the lowest degree of
certainty?
(1) Global warming will result in an increase in the number of tropical storms.
(2) Addition of greenhouse gases to the atmosphere results in increased heat energy in the
atmosphere.
(3) Global warming will result in rising sea levels.
(4) Full recovery from the enhanced greenhouse effect will require many centuries.

72. Global warming can be controlled by

(1) reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel.
(2) increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population.
(3) increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage.
(4) reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel.

9
73. Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone depletion, an international treaty, known as ________,
was signed at _____.
(1) Montreal Protocol, Canada (2) Kyoto Protocol, Brazil
(3) Earth Summit, Montreal (4) World Summit, South Africa

74. Consider the following statements and select the correct set with respect to global warming.
(a) El Nino effect
(b) Cooling of stratosphere and earth surface
(c) Shifting of climatic zones
(d) Snow blindness
(e) Impairment of hearing
(f )Excessive deposition of ice at poles
(g) Rise in sea level
(h) Increase in eutrophication
(1) (a), (c), (e), (g) and (h)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e), (f), and (g)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (f) and (h)
(4) (a), (c) and (g)

75. Greenhouse gases are

(1) absorbers of long-wave radiations from Earth.
(2) transparent to both solar radiations for warming the atmosphere.
(3) absorbers of solar radiations for warming the atmosphere.
(4) transparent to emissions from earth for passage into outer space.

76. National Forest Policy (1988) of India has recommended _______ % forest cover for the plains and
______ % for the hills.
(1) 60; 40
(2) 33; 67
(3) 40; 60
(4) 67; 33

77. Which of these statements is/are true about slash and burn agriculture?
(1) Farmers cut down trees of the forest and burn the plant remains.
(2) Ash is used as fertilizer.
(3) Land is used for farming or cattle grazing.
(4) All of these.

78. Problems which came with Green Revolution were

(1) water logging.
(2) increased soil salinity.
(3) Both (1) and (2).
(4) None of these.

79. In recent years, there has been an increasing incidence of floods in the plains of northern India
because
(1) there has been an increase in annual rainfall
(2) there has been increased deforestation in the catchment areas
(3) the rate of silting of dams has gone up
(4) increased areas of land is being self-cultivated

10
80. Government of India has recently instituted which award for individuals or communities from rural
areas that have shown extra ordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife?
(1) PadamBhushan
(2) Chipko Award
(3) Baharat Ratna
(4) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award

81. Deforestation has an alarming effect on all except

(1) increase in grazing area.
(2) sunlight.
(3) weed control.
(4) soil erosion or desertification of habitat.

82. Desertification is a major problem nowadays, mainly due to

(1) over grazing.
(2) over cultivation.
(3) increased urbanization.
(4) water logging.

83. In India, jhum cultivation is practiced mainly in

(1) North East states.
(2) Gangetic plains.
(3) Western Ghats.
(4) Deccan plateau.

84. Which of the following is correct about El Nino effect?

(1) Temperature rise leads to odd climatic changes
(2) Cutting down the use of fossil fuels.
(3) Planting trees
(4) Slowing down the growth of human population

85. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Montreal Protocol?

(a) Persistent organic pollutants.
(b) Global warming and climate change.
(c) To control the emission of ozone depleting substances.
(d) Biosafety of genetically modified organisms.
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) Only (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)

86. Identify the correct matches.

(a) Environmental (protection) act, 1986 – Protection and quality improvement of air, water and soil.
(b) Kyoto protocol – To mitigate climate change, to reduce greenhouse gases
(c) Montreal protocol – ODS reduction
(d) Chipko movement – Trees protection
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) All of these

11
87. Read the following statements given below and select the correct option.
(a) Kyoto protocol, 1997 conference obtained commitments from different countries for reducing
overall greenhouse gas emission at level 5% below 1990 by 2008–2012.
(b) Montreal protocol was signed in 1987.
(c) Montreal protocol became effective in 1989.
(d) Montreal protocol was signed to control the emission of ozone depleting substances.
(1) All of these
(2) All except (b).
(3) All except (a).
(4) All except (c).

88. Which of the statements given below is correct?

(a) Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987.
(b) Earth summit 1992 was held at Rio-de-Janeiro.
(c) World Environment Day is 5 June.
(d) World Environment Day coincides with commemoration of the first United Nations Conference
on Human Environment.
(1) All of these (2) All except (d)
(3) All except (b) and (c) (4) None of these

89. Since the Montreal Protocol was signed,

(1) CFC production has increased.
(2) CFC level in the troposphere has decreased significantly.
(3) the ozone layer has recovered.
(4) production of methyl bromide, halogen and HFCs has fallen.

90. Fill up the blanks:

(a) _____(i)_____ were adopted as the substitute for open-burning dumps. In a _____(ii)_____,
wastes are dumped in a depression or trench after compacting and covered with dirt every day.
(b) Deforestation is the conversion of forested areas to non-forested ones. According to an estimate,
almost _____(i)_____ % forests have been lost in the tropics, compared to only _____(ii)_____
% in the temperate region. The present scenario of deforestation is particularly grim in India. At
the beginning of the twentieth century, forests covered about _____(iii)_____ % of the land of
India. By the end of the century, it shrunk to _____(iv)_____ %, whereas the National Forest
Policy (1988) of India has recommended 33% forest cover for the plains and 67% for the hills.
(1) (a) – (i) sanitary landfills, (ii) sanitary landfill; (b) – (i) 40, (ii) 1, (iii) 30, (iv) 19.4
(2) (a) – (i) compost pits, (ii) incinerator; (b) – (i) 20, (ii) 1, (iii) 15, (iv) 19.4
(3) (a) – (i) sanitary landfills, (ii) incinerator; (b) – (i) 10, (ii) 1, (iii) 5, (iv) 19.4
(4) (a) – (i) incinerator, (ii) anaerobic digester; (b) – (i) 40, (ii) 1, (iii) 30, (iv) 19.4

91. The Kyoto Protocol specifies regulations on the emission of greenhouse gases. If defines a term
known as Carbon- Credits. The following statements pertaining to Carbon- Credit:
(a) The mandatory limit of Carbon-Credit for each country is directly proportional to its size and
population.
(b) One Carbon-Credit defines the emission of one ton of carbon dioxide or equivalent gases
responsible for greenhouse effect.
(c) Carbon-Credit are exchangeable among countries/ industries.
(d) An industry emitting higher than prescribed limit can do so by purchasing Carbon-Credits.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

12
92. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty
drawn at
(1) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972.
(2) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992.
(3) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002.
(4) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen 2009.

93. Consider the following statements:

(a) 40% of the forest has been lost in tropics.
(b) JFM was introduced in 1965 by the UNCED.
(c) Bishnoi community belongs to Odisha who played a major role in conservation of forest.
(d) Chipko movement started in Garhwal Himalayas.
(1) (a) and (c) are correct (2) (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) (c) is correct (4) (c) and (d) are correct

94. Choose the incorrect match with respect to peoples participation in saving trees:
(1) Chipko– SunderlalBahuguna
(2) Appiko– Pandurang Hedge
(3) Bisnois– Khejri
(4) Zero waste – Ahmed Khan

95. Find the incorrect match.

(1) Biodiversity Bill 2002
(2) Earth Summit Held at Rio de Janeiro
(3) Central Potato Research Institute Dehradun
(4) Aridity Due to lack of irrigation

96. Consider the following statements:

(a) Noise causes psychological disorder in humans.
(b) Noise causes physiological disorder in humans.
(c) Noise measurable unit is dB but sometimes it is measured in Dobson unit.
(d) 150 dB is tolerable for human.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)

97. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (i) 1987
(b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (ii) 1981
(c) Noise added as air pollutant (iii) 1974
(d) Environment (Protection) Act (iv) 1986
(1) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)

98. Noise is undesirable high level of sound and it causes all of these except
(1) psychological disorder. (2) increasedheart beat.
(3) altered breathing pattern. (4) sleepiness.

13
99. Salinity of the soil is often caused due to
(1) accumulation of soluble minerals near or in the surface in arid region.
(2) excessive addition of water.
(3) rapid evaporation of surface water.
(4) excessive leaching.

100. Given below are the four statements each with two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up
the blank in any two statements.
(a) Bhopal gas disaster took place on ____(i)____ 1984 and this day is now observed as the
____(ii)____ day in India to make the anniversary of the Bhopal gas disaster.
(b) ____(i)____ is degradable pollutant while ____ (ii)____ is non-degradable pollutant.
(c) When pollutants are released from a single point it is called ____(ii)____ pollution, but when it is
over a large area, then it is called ____(ii)____ pollution.
(d) ____(i)____ is the world’s most problematic aquatic weed, introduced in India for their lovely
flowers, also called ____(ii)____ of Bengal.
(1) (a) – (i) December 5, (ii) National pollution prevention; (d) – (i) Parthenium, (ii) terror
(2) (a) – (i) December 2, (ii) Bhopal Gas Day; (b) – (i) DDT, (ii) sewage
(3) (b) – (i) sewage, (ii) DDT; (c) – (i) point source, (ii) diffuse source
(4) (c) – (i) line source, (ii) fixed source; (d) – (i) Eichhornia, (ii) tiger

101. Pollution in big cities can be controlled to a large extent by

(a) Improving traffic condition and road
(b) Road side plantation
(c) proper disposal of garbage and domestic as well as municipal wastes
(d) Avoiding use of fertilisers and pesticides
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) All of these

102. DDT
(a) is a non-degradable pollutant.
(b) showsbiomagnification.
(c) is harmful to fishes and birds.
(d) is a pesticide.
(1) Only (d) is correct
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) None is correct
(4) All are correct

103. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

(a) Fossil fuel burning – CO2 release
(b) Nuclear plant – Radioactive wastes
(c) CO2 – Greenhouse effect
(d) Montreal protocol – Control O3 depletion
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) All of these

14
104. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Nitrogen oxide (i) Water-logging
(b) Land degradation (ii) Accumulation of water in alveoli
(c) Wasteland (iii) Scratchy throat and smarting eyes
(d) Cyclone collectors (iv) Culturable and unculturable
(e) Sulphur Dioxide (v) Particulate pollutants

(1) (a) – (ii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (v); (e) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iv); (b) – (i); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii); (e) – (v)
(3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (i); (e) – (v)
(4) (a) – (v); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii); (e) – (iv)

105. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Arsenic (i) Minamata disease
(b) Nitrate (ii) Itai-itai
(c) Mercury (iii) Blue-baby syndrome
(d) Cadmium (iv) Skeletal fluorosis
(e) Fluoride (v) Black-foot disease

(1) (a) – (ii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (v); (e) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iv); (b) – (i); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii); (e) – (v)
(3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (i); (e) – (v)
(4) (a) – (v); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii); (e) – (iv)

106. Which of the following statements are true?

(a) Pollution is any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristic of air, land
water or soil.
(b) Agents that bring about such an undesirable change are called pollutants.
(c) In order to control environmental pollution, the Government of India has passed the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1976 to protect and improve the quality of our environment.
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c)

107. A dose that is represented as LD50,

(1) shows a response in 50% of the population.
(2) kills that of the study group.
(3) is a dose that has an acceptable risk level of 50%.
(4) is a dose that has a threshold response of 50%.

108. Which of the following statements are false?

(a) In marine ecosystems, UV radiation can damage the tiny single-celled plants known as
phytoplankton (which form the basis of the food chain).
(b) 5th June is World’s Environment Day.
(c) Drinking mineral water/aerated drink with low levels (–0.02 ppm) of pesticide for long period
would result in pesticide accumulation in the body.
(d) NEERI (National Environmental Engineering Research Institute) is at Nagpur.

15
 (e) Chernobyl nuclear tragedy occurred in April, 1986.
(f) Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984 took place because methyl isocyanate reacted with water.
(g) Lead concentration of blood is considered alarming at 30 µg/100 ml.
(h) CO2, CH4, N2O, CFCs are called greenhouse gases because they can absorb long wave infrared
radiations.
(i) High amount of Escherichia coli in water is an indicator of sewage/faecal pollution.
(j) Ozone, chlorine, chloramine are passed through swimming pool because they act as disinfectants.
(k) Noise pollution does not have any residue. Noise pollution creates nervous disorder.
(l) If there was no CO2 in the atmosphere, the earth’s temperature would be less than the present.
(1) All except (j) and (k)
(2) All except (b), (d) and (h)
(3) All except (c), (e) and (g)
(4) None of these

109. Fill up the blanks.

(a) _____(i)_____ disposal into water without proper treatment may cause outbreak of serious
diseases, such as, dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera, etc.
(b) High concentrations of _____(i)_____ disturb _____ (ii)_____ metabolism in birds, which causes
thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, eventually causing decline in bird populations.
(c) Without greenhouse effect, the average temperature at surface of earth would have been a chilly
_____ (i)_____ rather than the present average of 15° C.
(d) Presence of large amounts of nutrient in waters also causes excessive growth of free-floating
_____ (i)_____ called and _____(ii)_____ bloom which imparts a distinct colour to the water
bodies. _____ (iii)_____ cause deterioration of the water quality and fish mortality. Some bloom
forming algae are extremely toxic to human beings and animals.
(1) (a) – (i) Sewage; (b) – (i) DDT, (ii) calcium; (c) – (i) –18ºC; (d) – (i) phytoplanktons, (ii) algal,
(iii) Algal blooms
(2) (a) – (i) DDT; (b) – (i) Sewage, (ii) calcium; (c) – (i) –8ºC; (d) – (i) planktons, (ii) algal, (iii)
Algal blooms
(3) (a) – (i)Sewage; (b) – (i) DDT, (ii) fat; (c) – (i) –20ºC; (d) – (i) planktons, (ii) algal, (iii) Algal
blooms
(4) (a) – (i) Sewage; (b) – (i) DDT, (ii) calcium; (c) – (i) –10ºC; (d) – (i) zooplanktons, (ii) animal,
(iii) Zoo blooms

110. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

(1) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas.
(2) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.
(3) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon.
(4) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies.

111. Mark the odd one with respect to anthropogenic pollution.

(1) Particulate matter by volcanoes
(2) Thermal power plant
(3) Flour mill dust
(4) Pesticides

112. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Biodegradable pollutant – Domestic sewage
(2) Non-degradable pollutant – DDT
(3) Secondary pollutant – SO2
(4) Quantitative pollutant – Nitrogen oxides

16
113. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Ozone thickness (i) UV-rays
(b) CFC (ii) Refrigerator
(c) EI Nino effect (iii) Temperature increase
(d) Skin cancer (iv) Dobson unit

(1) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii); (d) – (iv)

(2) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iv); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iv); (d) – (i)

114. Which of the following is correct?

(1) CFC is discharged in the lower part of the atmosphere, then it moves upward and reaches
stratosphere.
(2) Montreal protocol was signed to reduce CO2.
(3) Ozone hole is a small pore created in tropospheric ozone layer.
(4) Jhum cultivation is a method of afforestation.

115. Black foot disease is due to

(1) oil spills.
(2) arsenic.
(3) copper.
(4) mercury.

116. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(1) NEERI – Nagpur
(2) Byssinosis – Lung fibrosis due to iron particles
(3) Hay fever – Skin allergy and asthma
(4) Photochemical smog – Inhibits ETS

117. Select the correct statement from the following.

(1) A mere 0.1% impurities cannot make domestic sewage unfit for human use.
(2) High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds.
(3) Phaeophytization in lichens is caused due to nitrogen oxides.
(4) Bad ozone as well as good ozone both is found in the upper part of the atmosphere.

118. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Production of sulphur dioxide Burning of coal

(2) Depletion of ozone layer Release of CFCs in the atmosphere
(3) Eutrophication Increase in nitrogen and phosphorus
content in aquatic bodies
(4) Decrease in BOD of pond water Increase in global temperature

119. Select the incorrect match.

(1) IAP – Indian Atmospheric Pollution
(2) UNEP – United Nation’s Environment Programme
(3) CCC – Convention on Climate change
(4) ODP – Ozone depleting Potential

17
120. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Pyrolysis (i) Methaeglobinemia
(b) Carbon monoxide (ii) Chronic exposure to arsenic
(c) Blue baby syndrome (iii) Asphyxia and giddiness
(d) Black foot disease (iv) Disposal of hospital waste

(1) (a) – (iv); (b) – (i); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii)

(2) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)
(3) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)

18