Chapter 1: Industry Driven Transformation –

Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The main goal of digital transformation is to:

A. Reduce employee strength
B. Adopt hardware upgrades
C. Rethink how an organization creates value
D. Increase server capacity
✅ Answer: C

2. Which technology is not a core part of digital transformation?

A. IoT
B. Cloud
C. Blockchain
D. Manual typewriters
✅ Answer: D

3. What percentage of companies reported delays or failures in digital transformation?

A. 25%
B. 42%
C. 81%
D. 63%
✅ Answer: C

4. Which of the following is a key driver for digital transformation success?

A. Restricting data access
B. Removing automation
C. Enhancing collaboration and decision-making
D. Increasing manual tasks
✅ Answer: C

5. What does ROI stand for in digital initiatives?

A. Rate of Internet
B. Return on Investment
C. Resource on Inventory
D. Range of Innovation
✅ Answer: B

6. Which generation is leading the shift toward purpose-driven digital workplaces?

A. Gen X
B. Baby Boomers
C. Millennials
D. Post-millennials
✅ Answer: C

7. Digital transformation makes employees focus more on:

A. Manual record-keeping
B. Paperwork
C. Innovation and problem-solving

1
 D. Physical labor
✅ Answer: C

8. Which sector uses predictive maintenance as a digital practice?

A. Telecom
B. Retail
C. Mining
D. Education
✅ Answer: C

9. Fast Radius and UPS use 3D printing for:

A. Real estate planning
B. Medical diagnosis
C. On-demand manufacturing
D. Marketing surveys
✅ Answer: C

10. World Economic Forum's DTI project emphasizes:

A. Reducing digital exposure
B. Slowing innovation
C. Speeding up transformation and lowering cost barriers
D. Investing only in physical assets
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Digital transformation is only about upgrading IT infrastructure.

❌ False

12. Digital technologies are now cheaper and more accessible.

✅ True

13. In modern businesses, value chains become more connected and visible.
✅ True

14. Digital disruptors are only found in the telecom sector.

❌ False

15. Companies can now reach $1 billion valuation faster than in the past.
✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. Digital transformation uses ______ to improve customer experience and operations.
✅ Answer: Technology

17. ______ intelligence and analytics are key enablers of transformation.

✅ Answer: Artificial

18. The ______ Revolution is the backdrop of current industrial transformation.

✅ Answer: Fourth Industrial

19. Digitalization enables ______ assets to become autonomous and self-aware.

✅ Answer: Physical

2
 20. In logistics, ______ analytics helps reduce cost and improve efficiency.
✅ Answer: Real-time

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Retail Sector a. Omnichannel shopping

2. Healthcare b. Robotics and wearable tech

3. Logistics c. Autonomous trucks and drones

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Fast Radius a. 3D printing partner

2. Cloud Computing b. Scalable IT infrastructure

3. Millennials c. Purpose-driven workforce

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Digital transformation affects value chains.

Reason (R): It connects systems and provides real-time insights.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Digital tools make decision-making slower.

Reason (R): They increase data confusion.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): Smart grids are part of electricity sector transformation.
Reason (R): They support decentralized energy systems.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based Questions

26. A mining company predicts equipment failure before it happens. Which technology is in
use?
✅ Answer: Predictive maintenance

27. A bank moves from ATM-based service to mobile UPI payments. This is an example of:
✅ Answer: Digital transformation in banking

28. A retailer uses facial recognition to suggest products. This shows use of:
✅ Answer: AI and customer personalization

3
29. A logistics firm uses shared warehouses and driverless trucks. This reflects transformation
in:
✅ Answer: Delivery and distribution

30. An automotive company collects real-time data from its cars. This supports:
✅ Answer: Connected and autonomous vehicles

4
 Chapter 2: Effective Communication Skills – Objective
Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of effective communication (6 C’s)?

A. Clarity
B. Courtesy
C. Complexity
D. Conciseness
✅ Answer: C

2. Communication is what the ____ understands, not what the sender says.
A. Boss
B. Team
C. Receiver
D. Manager
✅ Answer: C

3. Which of these is NOT a communication media?

A. Written communication
B. Face-to-face communication
C. Psychological communication
D. Audio-visual communication
✅ Answer: C

4. In the communication process, decoding occurs at the:

A. Sender’s end
B. Receiver’s end
C. Channel
D. Ideation
✅ Answer: B

5. Which type of communication involves exchanging ideas at the same organizational level?
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Horizontal
D. Grapevine
✅ Answer: C

6. What is a major advantage of written communication?

A. Cannot be retained
B. Has legal validity
C. Limited by time
D. Difficult to distribute
✅ Answer: B

7. What does the term ‘feedback’ in communication indicate?

A. Sender's next message
B. Noise in transmission
C. Receiver's response

5
 D. Channel of communication
✅ Answer: C

8. The communication process begins with:

A. Decoding
B. Encoding
C. Ideation
D. Transmission
✅ Answer: C

9. Which is NOT a barrier to communication?

A. Semantic problems
B. Filtering
C. Active listening
D. Emotions
✅ Answer: C

10. Listening with empathy and intensity is part of:

A. Passive hearing
B. Active listening
C. Encoding
D. Transmission
✅ Answer: B

True or False

11. Written communication is the fastest form of communication.

❌ False

12. Feedback must always be positive to be effective.

❌ False

13. Active listening includes asking questions and showing interest.

✅ True

14. Grapevine communication is formal and well-structured.

❌ False

15. Semantic barriers arise from differences in language interpretation.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. The six C’s of communication include Clarity, Conciseness, Completeness, Consideration,
Courtesy, and ________.
✅ Answer: Correctness

17. ______ communication includes posters, pictures, and charts.

✅ Answer: Visual

18. The process of converting an idea into symbols or language is called ______.
✅ Answer: Encoding

19. ______ is the transfer of understanding from one person to another.

✅ Answer: Communication
6
 20. In active listening, one should avoid ______ the speaker.
✅ Answer: Interrupting

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Downward Communication a. Between same levels

2. Upward Communication b. To subordinates

3. Horizontal Communication c. To superiors

✅ Match:
1–b, 2–c, 3–a

22.

A B

1. Clarity a. Personal attacks avoided

2. Courtesy b. Simple and specific language

3. Completeness c. 5 Ws answered

✅ Match:
1–b, 2–a, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Communication is essential for organizations to function.

Reason (R): It enables coordination, information sharing, and decision-making.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C. A is true, R is false
D. Both A and R are false
✅ Answer: A

24. Assertion (A): Silence is never a form of communication.

Reason (R): Communication requires spoken or written words.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): Active listening helps in better understanding.

Reason (R): It involves attention, reflecting, and feedback.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

7
Chapter 3: Project Management – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What is the main objective of project management?

A. Daily operations
B. Managing routine tasks
C. Meeting goals within time, cost, and quality limits
D. Reducing organizational size
✅ Answer: C

2. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a project?

A. Setting up a new call center
B. Designing a new software
C. Day-to-day operations of a helpdesk
D. Launching a new product
✅ Answer: C

3. Which of the following is part of the Project Management Life Cycle?

A. Repetition
B. Need Identification
C. Hiring
D. Promotion
✅ Answer: B

4. What happens during the "Initiation" phase?

A. Actual work starts
B. Budget gets spent
C. Project gets closed
D. Stakeholders reach an agreement to start
✅ Answer: D

5. The most important phase in project management is:

A. Execution
B. Planning
C. Initiation
D. Closing
✅ Answer: B

6. Which is NOT a constraint in project management?

A. Cost
B. Time
C. Motivation
D. Quality
✅ Answer: C

7. Which technique is used for time estimation in PERT?

A. Weighted average of three time estimates
B. Median formula
C. Fixed duration
D. Arithmetic mean
✅ Answer: A

8. What does PERT stand for?

A. Performance Evaluation Resource Technique
8
 B. Project Estimation and Resource Tool
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
D. Planned Execution Resource Tracker
✅ Answer: C

9. What defines the longest path of project activities?

A. Slack time
B. Gantt chart
C. Critical path
D. Task hierarchy
✅ Answer: C

10. Which of the following activities cannot be delayed without affecting the project deadline?
A. Non-critical tasks
B. Tasks on critical path
C. Parallel tasks
D. Optional tasks
✅ Answer: B

True or False

11. PERT allows uncertainty in time estimation.

✅ True

12. The closing phase can be skipped if the deliverables are met.
❌ False

13. Slack time allows delay in non-critical tasks.

✅ True

14. Feasibility studies are done in the closing phase.

❌ False

15. Project manager leads and motivates the team.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. The ______ phase ensures that actual performance is compared with planned performance.
✅ Answer: Controlling

17. ______ is used to shorten project duration by adding extra resources.

✅ Answer: Project crashing

18. ______ diagram shows activities and milestones in a network.

✅ Answer: PERT

19. ______ time is the maximum time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
✅ Answer: Slack

20. In PERT, the expected time is calculated using the formula:

(OT + 4 × MT + PT) / ___
✅ Answer: 6

9
Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Initiation a. Coordination of team

2. Execution b. Formal agreement to begin

3. Closing c. Lessons learned

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Project manager a. Report progress

2. Planning b. Define scope, time, risk

3. PERT c. Time estimation technique

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Planning phase defines project activities, schedules, and cost.
Reason (R): Planning comes after execution.
A. A is true, R is false
B. Both A and R are true
C. Both A and R are false
D. A is false, R is true
✅ Answer: A

24. Assertion (A): A continuous process is not a project.

Reason (R): Projects are temporary with defined start and end points.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation

25. Assertion (A): Primavera is used for document editing in project reports.
Reason (R): Primavera is a word processing tool.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Software & Tools Based

26. Which of the following software is NOT typically used in project management?
A. Primavera
B. MS Project
C. Gantt
D. Excel for Browsing
✅ Answer: D

10
 27. Which chart represents tasks in horizontal bars?
A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Histogram
D. Scatter plot
✅ Answer: B

28. Which is a modern tool for real-time project portfolio performance?

A. Notepad
B. Primavera P6
C. WinZip
D. Excel
✅ Answer: B

Scenario Based

29. If a task on a non-critical path is delayed by 5 days and has 10 days slack, the project
completion time will:
A. Reduce
B. Increase
C. Remain unchanged
D. Get cancelled
✅ Answer: C

30. A project where the planning is skipped will likely face:

A. Clear goal setting
B. Smooth resource usage
C. Budget overruns and confusion
D. Accurate progress tracking
✅ Answer: C

11
 Chapter 4: ISO 9001:2015 Quality Management System –
Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What does ISO stand for?

A. Indian Standards Organization
B. International Standards Organization
C. International Organization for Standardization
D. Integrated Standards Organization
✅ Answer: C

2. What is the latest version of ISO 9001 currently in effect?

A. 2008
B. 2012
C. 2010
D. 2015
✅ Answer: D

3. What is the core focus of ISO 9001:2015?

A. Safety control
B. Environmental regulations
C. Consistent quality output and continual improvement
D. Market expansion
✅ Answer: C

4. Which clause in ISO 9001:2015 is about "Leadership"?

A. Clause 4
B. Clause 5
C. Clause 6
D. Clause 10
✅ Answer: B

5. What is the key principle in defining “quality” according to ISO?

A. Customer popularity
B. Product cost
C. Fulfillment of inherent characteristics to requirements
D. Business size
✅ Answer: C

6. Which clause deals with performance evaluation?

A. Clause 8
B. Clause 6
C. Clause 9
D. Clause 10
✅ Answer: C

7. Which clause replaced “Management Responsibility” from ISO 9001:2008?

A. Performance
B. Planning
C. Leadership
D. Operation
✅ Answer: C

12
 8. What is NOT an internal benefit of ISO 9001 certification?
A. Better working conditions
B. Higher motivation
C. Free government grants
D. Reduced internal failure cost
✅ Answer: C

9. What is the document referred to for terms and definitions in ISO 9001:2015?
A. ISO Glossary
B. ISO Vocabulary Document
C. ISO 9001 Fundamentals and Vocabulary
D. ISO Handbook
✅ Answer: C

10. Which principle promotes long-term success through stakeholder alignment?

A. Risk thinking
B. Engagement of people
C. Relationship management
D. Strategic shortcutting
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. ISO 9001:2015 is applicable only to manufacturing industries.

❌ False

12. Top management has no role in ISO implementation.

❌ False

13. Quality is defined as “degree to which requirements are fulfilled.”

✅ True

14. BSNL was the first in India to be ISO certified.

❌ False (ALTTC was first among BSNL units)

15. Clause 10 focuses on continual improvement.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. The ISO 9001:2015 standard is based on ______ quality management principles.
✅ Answer: 10

17. Clause 4 of ISO 9001:2015 is titled _______.

✅ Answer: Context of the organization

18. Continual improvement is addressed in Clause ______.

✅ Answer: 10

19. ______ is the clause responsible for support and resources.

✅ Answer: Clause 7

20. The ISO certification enhances customer ______.

✅ Answer: Satisfaction

13
Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Clause 4 a. Planning

2. Clause 6 b. Leadership

3. Clause 5 c. Context of the organization

✅ Match: 1–c, 2–a, 3–b

22.

A B

1. External benefit a. Reduced rework cost

2. Internal benefit b. Higher customer confidence

3. Performance Evaluation c. Analysis & review

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): ISO 9001:2015 is a process standard.

Reason (R): It sets specifications for uniform product dimensions.
✅ Answer: A is true, R is false

24. Assertion (A): Leadership in ISO involves promoting risk-based thinking.

Reason (R): Top management must promote process approach and resource provision.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

25. Assertion (A): Clause 8 deals with planning.

Reason (R): It includes goals, policies, and vision.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Scenario-Based

26. An organization wants to improve customer satisfaction using feedback. Which ISO clause
applies?
A. Clause 4
B. Clause 9
C. Clause 6
D. Clause 3
✅ Answer: B

27. Which clause helps in ensuring timely delivery of compliant products?

A. Clause 10
B. Clause 8
C. Clause 5
D. Clause 3
✅ Answer: B

14
 28. BSNL circles were directed to obtain ISO certification for which sections?
A. Finance only
B. SSAs and customer-related sections
C. Only Training Centers
D. Only Electrical Wing
✅ Answer: B

Process Based

29. What is the first step when a non-conformity occurs?

A. Close the complaint
B. Ignore and record
C. Take action to control and correct
D. Wait for evaluation
✅ Answer: C

30. In continual improvement, what is considered for identifying opportunities?

A. Customer complaints only
B. Results of evaluation and management reviews
C. Competitor’s audits
D. Sales numbers only
✅ Answer: B

Chapter 5: Restructuring & New Roles – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What is the name of the transformation project for restructuring BSNL?

A. Project PARIVARTAN
B. Project SHIKHAR
C. Project GROWTH
D. Project VISION
✅ Answer: B

15
2. Which consulting group helped BSNL in the restructuring process?
A. McKinsey
B. KPMG
C. Deloitte
D. Boston Consulting Group
✅ Answer: D

3. What is the approach used in the restructuring of BSNL?

A. Bottom-Up
B. Lateral
C. Top-Down
D. Centralized
✅ Answer: C

4. How many Business Units (BUs) were introduced under the new structure?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
✅ Answer: C

5. Which is NOT a Business Unit (BU) in BSNL’s new structure?

A. Consumer Fixed Access
B. Digital Transformation
C. Enterprise
D. Consumer Mobility
✅ Answer: B

6. Which BU is responsible for GSM, WiMax, and related services?

A. Enterprise
B. Consumer Fixed Access
C. Consumer Mobility
D. New Business
✅ Answer: C

7. Which post reports directly to CMD in Consumer Fixed Access BU?

A. Circle AGM
B. Director (HR)
C. GM (Strategy & Planning)
D. Director (CFA)
✅ Answer: D

8. Which circle classification is NOT correct?

A. Large
B. Medium
C. Urban
D. Small
✅ Answer: C

9. Which new concept was introduced for clarity in roles?

A. Uniform Mandate
B. JD with KRAs & KPIs
C. Rotation Program
D. Hybrid Teaming
✅ Answer: B
16
 10. Dual reporting exists in which type of positions?
A. Technical Officers
B. Call Center Heads
C. CFA/CM CSC Heads
D. Legal Advisors
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Restructuring applies only to BSNL Corporate Office.

❌ False

12. KRAs and KPIs are part of job descriptions in the new structure.
✅ True

13. Restructuring aims to eliminate duplication of resources.

✅ True

14. Territorial Circles are not part of restructuring.

❌ False

15. All BUs have end-to-end responsibility for their services.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ is the new designation for Director (Operations).

✅ Answer: Director (Consumer Fixed Access)

17. Job Descriptions in the new structure are aligned with ______.
✅ Answer: Group Performance Management System

18. CFA deals with services like ______ and broadband.

✅ Answer: Landline

19. Enterprise BU focuses on medium and large ______ customers.

✅ Answer: Enterprise/Corporate

20. Project SHIKHAR was launched to enable BSNL to return to ______.

✅ Answer: Growth and profitability

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. CFA a. GSM, WiMax

2. CM b. Corporate voice/data

3. Enterprise c. Landline, Broadband

✅ Match: 1–c, 2–a, 3–b

17
 22.

A B

1. Top-Down a. Employee-led changes

2. Job Description b. Clear role definition

3. BU Structure c. Head office initiates

✅ Match: 1–c, 2–b, 3–a

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): BSNL’s restructuring created separate BUs for major business areas.
Reason (R): It helps develop accountability and focus.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Project SHIKHAR was designed to reduce BSNL’s subscriber base.
Reason (R): Customer complaints increased post-restructuring.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): CFA business is responsible for BTS and MSC operations.
Reason (R): CFA handles the entire mobile network.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Scenario-Based

26. If a BA head manages 2G/3G and customer churn, they likely belong to:
A. CFA
B. HR
C. CM
D. Enterprise
✅ Answer: C

27. A circle-level manager handling IPTV and DSL should report to which BU?
A. CM
B. CFA
C. Enterprise
D. Admin
✅ Answer: B

28. An AGM in a Circle manages call centers and grievance handling. Which unit?
A. HR

18
 B. Enterprise
C. Consumer Mobility
D. CFA
✅ Answer: C

Process/Implementation Based

29. Which is the correct restructuring sequence?

A. BA → Circle → HO
B. HO → Circle → BA
C. BA → HO → Circle
D. Circle → BA → HO
✅ Answer: B

30. In the new structure, which element ensures coordination and reduced overlap?
A. Dual jobs
B. Business Unit structure
C. Horizontal promotion
D. Ad-hoc committees
✅ Answer: B

Chapter 6: Role & Responsibility – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following best defines “Role”?

A. Set of instructions
B. Process checklist
C. Function or part performed in a particular process
D. None of the above
✅ Answer: C

2. Responsibility means:
A. Being a passive worker
B. Performing roles informally
C. Duty to ensure specific outcomes or results
D. Avoiding accountability
✅ Answer: C

19
3. What is the new approach adopted by BSNL to define roles and responsibilities?
A. Verbal instructions only
B. JD with KRAs & KPIs
C. Staff memos
D. Ad-hoc committees
✅ Answer: B

4. Which method helps avoid duplication of work in teams?

A. Strict deadlines
B. Micromanagement
C. Role Charting
D. Daily reporting
✅ Answer: C

5. A key factor in increasing innovation and productivity in BSNL is:

A. Centralized power
B. Pushing power downward
C. Top-only decisions
D. Minimizing communication
✅ Answer: B

6. Competency mapping is used to:

A. Track attendance
B. Identify employee income
C. Match job needs with individual skills
D. Promote based on age
✅ Answer: C

7. Which of the following is a generic role of a BSNL executive?

A. Design uniforms
B. Handle taxation matters
C. Supervise subordinates and improve their KSAs
D. Oversee political campaigns
✅ Answer: C

8. Functional, Managerial, and Human are types of:

A. Bonus systems
B. Communication tools
C. Competency categories
D. Work permits
✅ Answer: C

9. A key objective of role clarity is to:

A. Reduce hierarchy
B. Assign overlapping duties
C. Improve efficiency and accountability
D. Avoid documentation
✅ Answer: C

10. Which of these is NOT part of competency mapping strategy?

A. Organization-wide core competencies
B. Project-based hiring
C. Job family competencies
D. Position-specific competencies
✅ Answer: B
20
True or False

11. Job descriptions in BSNL now include KPIs and KRAs.

✅ True

12. Executives are not expected to lead teams.

❌ False

13. Competency mapping helps put the right person in the right job.
✅ True

14. Role charting reduces ambiguity in work assignments.

✅ True

15. Executives must discourage their subordinates from using BSNL intranet.
❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ is a structured list of responsibilities, KRAs and KPIs for a post.
✅ Answer: Job Description

17. Leadership, Communication, and Decision-making are examples of ______ competencies.

✅ Answer: Managerial

18. BSNL’s role definition strategy is aligned with the ______ Performance Management System.
✅ Answer: Group

19. Executives must be both good leaders and good ______.

✅ Answer: Followers

20. Competency includes a combination of knowledge, skills, and ______.

✅ Answer: Attributes

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Role a. Duty or task one performs

2. Responsibility b. Accountability for outcomes

3. Competency Mapping c. Aligning skills to job needs

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Core Competencies a. Organization-wide skills

2. Functional Competencies b. Job-specific abilities

21
A B

3. Human Competencies c. Teamwork & Communication

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): BSNL executives are expected to supervise and lead teams.
Reason (R): They hold senior positions and must ensure team growth.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Competency mapping only applies to recruitment.

Reason (R): It helps identify training gaps.
✅ Answer: C. A is false, R is true

25. Assertion (A): Communication of roles prevents duplication.

Reason (R): Staff know clearly who does what.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. If two team members work on the same task unknowingly, what is likely missing?
A. Power delegation
B. Team leader
C. Role clarity
D. Punishment
✅ Answer: C

27. An executive frequently checks competitor websites and shares insights. This
demonstrates:
A. Gossiping
B. Market Intelligence role
C. Avoidance
D. Media handling
✅ Answer: B

28. A Circle executive ensures staff is fully trained in latest tools. This supports:
A. Job enrichment
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Continual improvement
D. Cost management
✅ Answer: C

Conceptual Understanding

29. Which activity is most aligned with defining KRAs?

A. Assigning travel budgets
B. Setting measurable performance targets
C. Printing circulars
D. Organizing office parties
✅ Answer: B
22
 30. In role charting, “Direction” refers to:
A. GPS usage
B. Task delegation
C. Setting clear goals and alignment
D. Monitoring weather
✅ Answer: C

Chapter 7: Transactional Analysis – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Transactional Analysis (TA) is primarily a tool for:

A. Budgeting
B. Communication and personality analysis
C. Financial audits
D. Data processing
✅ Answer: B

2. The three ego states in TA are:

A. Parent, Teacher, Student
B. Adult, Manager, Child
C. Parent, Adult, Child
D. Leader, Member, Observer
✅ Answer: C

3. Which ego state represents logical and rational behavior?

A. Parent
B. Child
C. Adult
D. Supervisor
✅ Answer: C

23
 4. Which ego state is formed by copying parents and authority figures?
A. Adult
B. Natural Child
C. Parent
D. Adaptive Child
✅ Answer: C

5. Which type of transaction continues communication on parallel lines?

A. Crossed
B. Ulterior
C. Complementary
D. Silent
✅ Answer: C

6. Which type of transaction stops communication due to misaligned ego states?

A. Complementary
B. Crossed
C. Parallel
D. Closed
✅ Answer: B

7. Which transactions contain double meanings?

A. Complementary
B. Crossed
C. Ulterior
D. Authentic
✅ Answer: C

8. What is the term for giving recognition in TA?

A. Acknowledgment
B. Stroke
C. Nod
D. Greeting
✅ Answer: B

9. What does a negative stroke imply?

A. Encouragement
B. Reassurance
C. Disapproval or neglect
D. Celebration
✅ Answer: C

10. The PAC model is used to describe:

A. Transaction procedures
B. Performance metrics
C. Ego states
D. Sales strategies
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Ulterior transactions are considered positive communication.

❌ False

24
 12. The Parent ego state includes both nurturing and controlling aspects.
✅ True

13. The Adult ego state is developed at around 10 months of age.

✅ True

14. Strokes can only be positive.

❌ False

15. TA can improve understanding, reduce stress, and improve relationships.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. The ego state responsible for feelings, playfulness, and creativity is the ______.
✅ Answer: Child

17. ______ transactions are when one ego state addresses a different, unexpected ego state.
✅ Answer: Crossed

18. TA encourages ______ communication.

✅ Answer: Positive

19. The Adult ego state responds based on the ______ and now.
✅ Answer: Here

20. The Child ego state includes both the Free Child and the ______ Child.
✅ Answer: Adapted

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Parent a. Rational and data-driven

2. Adult b. Nurturing or critical

3. Child c. Playful and emotional

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Stroke a. Life view

2. Life Position b. Communication exchange

3. Transaction c. Recognition given

✅ Match: 1–c, 2–a, 3–b

Assertion and Reason

25
 23. Assertion (A): Complementary transactions encourage smooth communication.
Reason (R): The ego states involved align as expected.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Crossed transactions improve team cooperation.

Reason (R): They reduce misunderstanding in communication.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): TA is useful in training and development programs.

Reason (R): It helps analyze interpersonal behavior and improve relationships.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Conceptual Understanding / Scenario-Based

26. A manager says “We need results, now!” and an employee responds “You always blame
me!”—this is an example of:
A. Complementary transaction
B. Crossed transaction
C. Ulterior transaction
D. Perfect alignment
✅ Answer: B

27. An employee smiles and says “Yes sir” while muttering under his breath “Whatever…” This
is likely a(n):
A. Open transaction
B. Crossed transaction
C. Ulterior transaction
D. Transparent transaction
✅ Answer: C

28. “I’m OK, You’re OK” reflects which life position?

A. Cooperative
B. Defensive
C. Inferior
D. Avoidant
✅ Answer: A

29. A person believes “I’m OK, You’re not OK.” Their attitude will likely be:
A. Assertive and confident
B. Critical and dominating
C. Supportive and empathetic
D. Passive and submissive
✅ Answer: B

30. The goal of TA is to help individuals achieve:

A. Aggression
B. Dependency
C. Autonomy
D. Superiority
✅ Answer: C

26
Chapter 8: Motivation – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Motivation is best defined as:

A. The ability to perform a task
B. The desire conditioned by need to satisfy an internal state
C. A fixed personality trait
D. Only financial incentives
✅ Answer: B

2. In the formula “Job performance = Ability × Motivation,” if motivation is zero, performance

is:
A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Dependent on ability
D. Unchanged
✅ Answer: B

3. Which of these is NOT one of Maslow’s five needs?

A. Safety
B. Belongingness (Love)
C. Self-actualization
D. Compensation
✅ Answer: D

4. According to Hygiene Theory, factors that prevent dissatisfaction are called:

A. Motivators
B. Hygiene factors
C. Expectations

27
 D. Drives
✅ Answer: B

5. Expectancy Theory links effort to performance and performance to:

A. Ability
B. Seniority
C. Reward attractiveness
D. Workload
✅ Answer: C

6. Which personality type seeks popularity and expression?

A. Dominating
B. Influencing
C. Steady
D. Careful
✅ Answer: B

7. In Maslow’s hierarchy, which need is satisfied internally?

A. Physiological
B. Safety
C. Esteem
D. All lower-order needs
✅ Answer: C

8. A fair living wage is a prerequisite before applying motivational theories because:

A. Money is the only motivator
B. It ensures basic physiological and safety needs
C. It removes all motivation issues
D. It simplifies performance measurement
✅ Answer: B

9. Which of the following is a “motivator” in Hygiene Theory?

A. Company policy
B. Work itself
C. Supervision
D. Salary
✅ Answer: B

10. Key to applying Expectancy Theory is identifying each individual’s:

A. Salary band
B. Career path
C. Personal goals and rewards linkage
D. Reporting structure
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Motivation and ability together determine job performance.

✅ True

12. According to Maslow, once a need is substantially satisfied, it no longer motivates.

✅ True

28
 13. Removing hygiene factors automatically creates motivation.
❌ False

14. Expectancy Theory involves variables: effort→performance, performance→reward,

reward→personal goals.
✅ True

15. Motivation is an art to be practiced rather than an exact science.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. In Maslow’s hierarchy, the lowest-order needs are ______ and ______.
✅ Answer: Physiological and Safety

17. Hygiene factors and motivators are separate and distinct according to ______ Theory.
✅ Answer: Hygiene (Two-Factor)

18. The strength of a tendency to exert effort depends on expectation of outcome and its
______.
✅ Answer: Attractiveness

19. A ______ living wage is the cornerstone of recruiting and retaining committed workers.
✅ Answer: Fair

20. People motivated by growth, planning change, and conflict-free environment are of the
______ personality type.
✅ Answer: Steady

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Maslow’s Self-actualization a. Pay, status, security

2. Hygiene Motivators b. Achievement, responsibility

3. Hygiene Hygiene Factors c. Supervision, company policy

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Expectancy Theory variables a. Effort→Performance→Reward→Goals

2. Dominating Personality motivator b. Authority, control over results

3. Influencing Personality motivator c. Popularity, recognition, freedom of expression

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

29
 23. Assertion (A): Motivators and hygiene factors operate independently.
Reason (R): Eliminating dissatisfaction does not create satisfaction.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
✅ Answer: A

24. Assertion (A): A substantially satisfied need no longer motivates.

Reason (R): Maslow’s theory states higher-order needs then emerge.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
✅ Answer: A

25. Assertion (A): People only work for monetary rewards.

Reason (R): Money is the only factor impacting morale.
D. Both A and R are false
✅ Answer: D

Scenario-Based

26. An employee feels unappreciated despite good pay. Which theory explains this?
A. Maslow’s Hierarchy
B. Hygiene Theory
C. Expectancy Theory
D. Equity Theory
✅ Answer: B

27. To motivate a meticulous detail-oriented person, you should emphasize:

A. Popularity and expression
B. Quality standards and autonomy
C. Authority and power
D. Rapid change
✅ Answer: B

28. A manager links bonus directly to meeting clear targets. This best illustrates:
A. Hygiene factors
B. Maslow’s Love need
C. Expectancy Theory
D. Maslow’s Safety need
✅ Answer: C

29. An employee with full safety and physiological needs will next seek:
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem and Recognition
C. Love and belongingness
D. All higher needs simultaneously
✅ Answer: C

30. The statement “I want meaningful work, not just a paycheck” reflects motivation beyond:
A. Hygiene Needs
B. Physiological Needs
C. Both A & B
D. Self-actualization only
✅ Answer: C

30
Chapter 9: Cost Management – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Cost is defined as:

A. Time used in a process
B. A fixed expense per product
C. Sacrifice made in terms of resources for goods/services
D. Value of profit
✅ Answer: C

2. Cost Centre refers to:

A. Place of purchase
B. Unit where costs are incurred and accumulated
C. Vendor location
D. Asset category
✅ Answer: B

3. Which is not a feature of Cost Accounting?

A. Tracks all income
B. Ignores expenditure
C. Controls cost
D. Prepares periodic reports
✅ Answer: B

4. Cost Audit involves:

A. Financial forecasting
B. Verification of cost accounts
C. Asset depreciation
D. Inventory calculation
✅ Answer: B

31
 5. Cost Allocation is used when:
A. Expense can't be identified
B. Expense is easily identifiable
C. Expense is tax-related
D. Cost is unmeasurable
✅ Answer: B

6. Which technique is not used in cost control?

A. Standard costing
B. Trend analysis
C. Budgetary control
D. Guesswork
✅ Answer: D

7. Cost unit refers to:

A. Monetary budget
B. Vendor classification
C. Unit of product/service for cost measurement
D. Accounting rule
✅ Answer: C

8. Opportunity cost is:

A. Always a fixed cost
B. Book value of old assets
C. Cost of the next best alternative forgone
D. Profit margin loss
✅ Answer: C

9. Relevant cost is one which:

A. Is recorded in audit report
B. Is always overhead
C. Is considered in specific decision-making situations
D. Is outdated
✅ Answer: C

10. Standard cost is used to:

A. Replace actual cost
B. Determine sale price
C. Benchmark actual cost and assess efficiency
D. Calculate tax
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Cost management is done in isolation from general management.

❌ False

12. Cost Audit ensures adherence to the cost plan.

✅ True

13. Indirect costs are also known as overheads.

✅ True

32
 14. Fixed costs vary with production volume.
❌ False

15. Marginal cost includes all fixed costs.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. Costs allocated to cost centres equitably are called ______ costs.
✅ Answer: Apportioned

17. ______ costs cannot be avoided under any circumstances.

✅ Answer: Unavoidable

18. The ratio of gross profit to sales is a type of ______.

✅ Answer: Key Performance Indicator

19. In BSNL, the two types of cost centres are Operation and ______ cost centres.
✅ Answer: Service

20. ______ cost varies directly with volume of activity.

✅ Answer: Variable

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Cost Unit a. Repair of internet lines

2. Direct Labour b. Cost per call handled

3. Variable Cost c. Depends on usage volume

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Performa A a. Cost data of operation

2. Performa B b. Asset register

3. Performa D c. Apportionment of cost

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Cost accounting helps in tariff decisions.

Reason (R): It gives service-wise cost data.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation

33
 24. Assertion (A): Historical cost refers to estimated cost.
Reason (R): Standard cost is based on current pricing.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): BSNL follows Cost Accounting Records Rules, 2011.
Reason (R): It aids in financial consolidation.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. A cost that occurs even when the plant is idle is:
A. Opportunity cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Shut down cost
D. Fixed cost
✅ Answer: C

27. If an expense benefits multiple departments and cannot be directly traced, it is:
A. Direct cost
B. Avoidable cost
C. Indirect cost
D. Variable cost
✅ Answer: C

28. A telecom circle wants to compare ISP revenue with its cost. Which Performa helps?
A. Performa A
B. Performa B
C. Performa D
D. Performa C
✅ Answer: C

29. Which of the following is a BSNL service product?

A. Electrical fittings
B. Cellular mobile
C. Budget report
D. Invoice format
✅ Answer: B

30. A cost that changes with output level is called:

A. Fixed
B. Marginal
C. Variable
D. Apportioned
✅ Answer: C

34
Chapter 10: Asset Management – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Asset management primarily involves:

A. Hiring assets
B. Managing liabilities
C. Managing and maintaining company’s assets efficiently
D. Recording depreciation
✅ Answer: C

2. Which law governs the asset records of BSNL?

A. Contract Act
B. Company Act, 1956
C. Telecom Regulatory Act
D. SEBI Act
✅ Answer: B

3. Which of the following is a fixed asset?

A. Cash
B. Bank balance
C. Computers
D. Prepaid rent
✅ Answer: C

4. Which asset type lacks physical substance?

A. Tangible
B. Intangible
C. Liquid
D. Functional
✅ Answer: B

5. Which of the following is NOT an intangible asset?

A. Trademark
B. Computer software
C. Land
D. Patent
✅ Answer: C
35
 6. Which schedule in the Companies Act deals with pro-rata depreciation?
A. Schedule VI
B. Schedule IV
C. Schedule XIV
D. Schedule XII
✅ Answer: C

7. Which method is used by BSNL for depreciation?

A. Straight-line
B. Revaluation
C. Written-down value method
D. Amortization
✅ Answer: C

8. What type of depreciation is provided for low-cost petty assets (below ₹5000)?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 100%
D. 0%
✅ Answer: C

9. Asset retired from active service is shifted to:

A. Investment schedule
B. Decommissioned asset inventory
C. Bank ledger
D. Trial balance
✅ Answer: B

10. ACE-9 form is used for:

A. Procurement
B. Salary calculation
C. Scrapping valuation
D. Maintenance logging
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. All decommissioned assets are scrapped automatically.

❌ False

12. ERP scrapping numbers start with 62 for assets.

✅ True

13. Inventory includes slow-moving and non-moving items.

✅ True

14. Depreciation is provided only on fixed assets in BSNL.

✅ True

15. Depreciation is charged on inventory and WIP.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

36
 16. Land is considered a ______ asset.
✅ Answer: Tangible

17. Inventory items lying unused for 3 years are considered ______.
✅ Answer: Non-moving

18. The useful life of buildings in BSNL is ______ years.

✅ Answer: 50

19. Cost of fixed assets includes purchase price and ______ costs.
✅ Answer: Directly attributable

20. ______ depreciation is calculated based on usage period within a year.

✅ Answer: Pro-rata

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. ZSOA a. Non-asset material

2. ZSON b. Inventory

3. ZSOI c. Asset material

✅ Match: 1–c, 2–a, 3–b

22.

A B

1. Obsolete asset a. Not usable anymore

2. Surplus asset b. In excess of requirement

3. Unserviceable asset c. Beyond economic repair

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Fixed Asset Registers must be maintained at SSA and Circle levels.
Reason (R): Asset tracking and accountability are statutory requirements.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Intangible assets depreciate over time.

Reason (R): They have physical existence.
✅ Answer: D. A is true, R is false

25. Assertion (A): Asset scrapping requires a committee.

Reason (R): Disposal decisions must be evaluated formally.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based
37
26. An air conditioner is not working and beyond repair. It is classified as:
A. Inventory
B. Obsolete asset
C. Unserviceable asset
D. WIP
✅ Answer: C

27. A working modem lying unused due to technology change is:

A. Surplus
B. Non-moving
C. Obsolete
D. Inventory
✅ Answer: C

28. Fan issued from stock is used less than 10% annually for 2 years. It is:
A. Fast moving
B. Obsolete
C. Slow moving
D. Non-performing
✅ Answer: C

29. An asset cost is ₹20,000 and depreciation rate is 10%. Depreciation in first year (WDV) is:
A. ₹1,800
B. ₹2,000
C. ₹1,000
D. ₹3,000
✅ Answer: B

30. To scrap an asset, a valuation committee uses:

A. ERP forecast
B. Tender rate
C. ACE-9 form and local quotations
D. Annual report
✅ Answer: C

38
Chapter 11: ERP and E-Office – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. ERP stands for:

A. Enterprise Revenue Planning
B. Employee Resource Program
C. Enterprise Resource Planning
D. Enterprise Reporting Protocol
✅ Answer: C

2. The key goal of ERP is to:

A. Reduce payroll expenses
B. Isolate department functions
C. Integrate data and processes
D. Replace e-office
✅ Answer: C

3. The ERP solution provider for BSNL is:

A. Infosys
B. Wipro
C. SAP
D. TCS
✅ Answer: C

4. Which of the following is NOT an ERP module?

A. Finance and Management Accounting
B. Plant Maintenance
C. Call Center Operations
D. Project Systems
✅ Answer: C

5. Which location hosts the primary ERP data center for BSNL?
A. Mumbai
B. Hyderabad
C. Pune
D. Delhi
✅ Answer: B

6. Which BSNL center is setting up the ERP Development Centre?

A. RTTC Bhopal
B. ALTTC Ghaziabad
C. BRBRAITT Jabalpur
D. Corporate Office Delhi
✅ Answer: B

7. Which team acts as the facilitator during ERP implementation?

A. HR Team
39
 B. Finance Circle
C. IT Cell / IT Project Circle
D. Corporate Procurement
✅ Answer: C

8. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of ERP?

A. Fragmented data
B. Single version of truth
C. Improved decision-making
D. Real-time information
✅ Answer: A

9. The ERP system at BSNL uses which type of architecture?

A. Distributed
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Centralized
D. Modular
✅ Answer: C

10. e-Office project in BSNL is implemented by:

A. ERP Cell
B. NIC
C. Recruitment Section, Corporate Office
D. DOT
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. ERP replaces all standalone software systems in BSNL.

✅ True

12. ERP only integrates HR functions.

❌ False

13. E-File is part of the e-Office suite.

✅ True

14. The objective of e-office is to eliminate paperwork and increase transparency.

✅ True

15. MIS reports cannot be generated in e-File.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. The ERP solution in BSNL is developed by ______.

✅ Answer: SAP

17. ______ is the centralized backup site for BSNL's ERP.

✅ Answer: Kolkata

18. The e-File workflow begins with the ______ of inward documents.
✅ Answer: Diarization

40
 19. The ERP module handling finance is known as ______.
✅ Answer: FICO (Finance and Management Accounting)

20. Employee data in e-Office is maintained through the ______ application.

✅ Answer: EMD (Employee Master Details)

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. MM Module a. Procurement and Inventory

2. HRM Module b. Employee records and payroll

3. PM Module c. Equipment maintenance

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. ERP Architecture a. Centralized

2. EMD Manager b. Creates organization units

3. Super Administrator c. Creates File Codes

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): ERP improves cycle time and productivity.

Reason (R): It reduces duplication and integrates systems.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): e-Office creates more paperwork than before.

Reason (R): It works alongside manual systems.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): BSNL’s ERP allows circle-wise restricted data access.
Reason (R): The centralized system gives unit-wise secured access.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. A manager wants to view stock levels and raise a purchase request. Which ERP module
should be used?
A. HRM
B. MM
C. REM
D. S&D
✅ Answer: B
41
27. An employee logs in to e-Office to create a draft note. What is the correct module?
A. EMD
B. Noting
C. Dispatch
D. Receipts
✅ Answer: B

28. A scanned letter is entered and tracked in e-Office. It becomes a:

A. File
B. Folder
C. Receipt
D. Dispatch
✅ Answer: C

29. For sending a reply to an official query through e-Office, which function is used?
A. Drafting and Dispatch
B. Receipts
C. MIS Report
D. Noting
✅ Answer: A

30. Which e-File role allows user management at department level?

A. Employee
B. EMD Manager
C. Super Admin
D. HR Admin
✅ Answer: B

42
 Chapter 12: Capital Budgeting and Revenue Budgeting –
Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Capital Budget refers to planning for:

A. Day-to-day operations
B. Recurring services
C. Long-term assets like buildings and machinery
D. Office stationery
✅ Answer: C

2. Revenue Budget refers to planning for:

A. Capital asset purchase
B. Land acquisition
C. Recurring maintenance activities
D. Equipment disposal
✅ Answer: C

3. Which date is the deadline for submission of Revenue Budget to BSNL Corporate Office?
A. 31st March
B. 15th August
C. 15th September
D. 30th September
✅ Answer: C

4. The Revised Estimate (RE) includes actuals for how many months?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 7
D. 5
✅ Answer: D

5. Budget Estimate (BE) is prepared for which financial year?

A. Current
B. Last
C. Ensuing (next)
D. Past 5 years average
✅ Answer: C

6. Figures for Working Expenses in RE and BE are shown in:

A. Lakhs
B. Thousands
C. Crores
D. Dozens
✅ Answer: B

7. Revenue estimates are based on average revenue per:

A. Staff member
B. Equipment type
C. Telephone line
D. Vendor supplied unit
✅ Answer: C

43
 8. Capital works proposals in BSNL are sent in which month?
A. March
B. October
C. December
D. June
✅ Answer: B

9. Minimum value for works to be included in the capital works program is:
A. ₹5 Crores
B. ₹10 Lakhs
C. ₹20 Crores
D. ₹1 Crore
✅ Answer: C

10. Cash budget is a tool for:

A. Past performance reporting
B. Salary forecasting only
C. Futuristic financial planning
D. Tax computation
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Capital and revenue budgets are submitted together.

✅ True

12. Estimates of License Fee and Spectrum Charges must be shown separately.
✅ True

13. Cash Flow Statement is historical, while Cash Budget is forward-looking.

✅ True

14. Revenue collected by SSAs can be spent locally.

❌ False

15. Fleet card use was introduced to control vehicle fuel expenses.
✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. Budget Estimate for the next year is prepared alongside the ______ Estimate.
✅ Answer: Revised

17. The figures for Revenue Receipts are presented in units of ______.
✅ Answer: Lakhs

18. Capital proposals include components like Land, Buildings, and ______.
✅ Answer: Equipment

19. For expenditures above ₹20 crores, circles submit proposals to ______ Division.
✅ Answer: BBF

20. ______ Estimate is based on actual expenditure from April to August and estimated from
September to March.
✅ Answer: Revised
44
Match the Following

21.

A B

1. BE a. Current FY actuals + estimate

2. RE b. Next FY

3. Capital Budget c. Infrastructure creation

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Cash Flow Statement a. Historical data

2. Cash Budget b. Future projections

3. Revenue Budget c. Recurring expenditure

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): BSNL emphasizes accurate budget projections.

Reason (R): Over-projection leads to inefficiency in cash flow.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Revenue budget includes capital expenditures.

Reason (R): All funds are fungible in public enterprises.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): DDOs are authorized to spend revenue collected locally.
Reason (R): This supports decentralization of funds.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Scenario-Based

26. An SSA estimates ₹10 crore for building repairs. Where should this go?
A. Revenue Budget
B. Working Expenses
C. Capital Budget
D. Miscellaneous
✅ Answer: C

27. A budget increase for honorarium due to pending inquiries requires:

A. Verbal approval
B. Circle certificate
C. Justification and approval from BSNL CO

45
 D. Leave encashment
✅ Answer: C

28. An SSA needs more funds for fuel; how should this be controlled?
A. Issue cash from collection
B. Request imprest
C. Use Fleet Card under prescribed limit
D. Skip vehicle usage
✅ Answer: C

29. To match past revenue trends, which estimation method is used?

A. Regression
B. Revenue based on line count × ARPU
C. Interest analysis
D. Vendor average
✅ Answer: B

30. To limit expenses on conferences and seminars, BSNL mandates:

A. Advance payments
B. No ceiling
C. 10% budget cut
D. Only virtual meetings
✅ Answer: C

Chapter 13: Traditional and Digital Marketing – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

46
1. Which of the following is a key function of marketing?
A. Tax filing
B. Customer grievance
C. Customer acquisition and retention
D. Equipment leasing
✅ Answer: C

2. The extended marketing mix for services includes how many Ps?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
✅ Answer: D

3. Which of the following is a ‘People’ element in marketing mix?

A. Competitor
B. Supplier
C. Employee interacting with customer
D. Investor
✅ Answer: C

4. In BSNL, ‘Product’ refers to:

A. Handsets
B. Billing software
C. Telecom services like broadband, landline
D. None of the above
✅ Answer: C

5. Which of these is not one of the traditional 4 Ps of marketing?

A. Promotion
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Planning
✅ Answer: D

6. Digital marketing includes all EXCEPT:

A. Email
B. Internet
C. Mobile apps
D. Physical brochures
✅ Answer: D

7. In telemarketing, lead generation aims to:

A. Close sales
B. Collect information
C. Provide warranty
D. Solve complaints
✅ Answer: B

8. The term “Outbound Telemarketing” means:

A. In-store interaction
B. Customer calls company
C. Company calls customer
D. None of the above
✅ Answer: C
47
 9. Which is not part of promotion mix?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Auditing
D. Public relations
✅ Answer: C

10. The most adaptable but costly promotion method is:

A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Sales promotion
D. Publicity
✅ Answer: B

True or False

11. Marketing aims only at acquiring new customers.

❌ False

12. Product life cycle includes stages like Introduction and Decline.
✅ True

13. Coupons and rebates are forms of sales promotion.

✅ True

14. Physical evidence helps reduce perceived risk in services.

✅ True

15. Telemarketing is always done from office setups only.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ marketing uses channels like web, mobile, and digital TV.
✅ Answer: Digital

17. ______ are customers who influence service perception of others.

✅ Answer: Fellow customers

18. A ______ is a return of part of the purchase price.

✅ Answer: Rebate

19. ______ segmentation includes lifestyle and personality.

✅ Answer: Psychographic

20. Positioning is developing product ______ in buyer’s mind.

✅ Answer: Image

Match the Following

21.

48
A B

1. Pricing a. Discounts, affordability

2. Promotion b. Advertising, selling

3. Place c. Channels of delivery

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Outbound Calls a. Company initiates call

2. Inbound Calls b. Customer initiates call

3. Lead Generation c. Collects prospect info

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): BSNL uses telemarketing to reach prospects.

Reason (R): Telemarketing is effective for both lead generation and sales.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): All customers have similar needs.

Reason (R): Segmentation helps divide markets based on needs.
✅ Answer: D. A is false, R is true

25. Assertion (A): Digital marketing replaces traditional marketing.

Reason (R): Only internet-based techniques are effective.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Scenario-Based

26. A customer registers broadband online and pays by card. This is an example of:
A. Offline marketing
B. Traditional selling
C. Digital marketing
D. Telemarketing
✅ Answer: C

27. BSNL offers 1% discount via ECS. This is part of:

A. Product feature
B. Promotion strategy
C. Pricing strategy
D. Loyalty plan
✅ Answer: C

28. A prospective buyer is called and later persuaded to purchase. This follows:
A. One-call strategy
B. Two-call telemarketing
C. Walk-in approach
49
 D. Push selling
✅ Answer: B

29. BSNL uses customer segmentation based on occupation and education. This is:
A. Geographic
B. Demographic
C. Psychographic
D. Behavioral
✅ Answer: B

30. To maintain positive buyer perception during service, marketers focus on:
A. Product only
B. Sales volume
C. People, process, and physical evidence
D. None of the above
✅ Answer: C

Chapter 14: Contract Management – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Contract is defined as:

A. Any written agreement
B. Verbal understanding
C. Agreement enforceable by law
D. Promise between two parties
✅ Answer: C

2. A proposal when accepted becomes a:

A. Promisee

50
 B. Contract
C. Agreement
D. Promise
✅ Answer: D

3. A person is competent to contract if he is:

A. Minor
B. Drunk
C. Of sound mind and major
D. Disqualified by law
✅ Answer: C

4. Which of the following makes a contract voidable?

A. Lawful object
B. Fraud
C. Mutual consent
D. Written agreement
✅ Answer: B

5. A contract without consideration is void unless:

A. Made between friends
B. Oral
C. Due to natural love and affection
D. Recorded on stamp paper
✅ Answer: C

6. Performance of reciprocal promises is governed by:

A. Sec-10
B. Sec-51 to 55
C. Sec-25
D. Sec-73
✅ Answer: B

7. If time is of essence and not met, the contract is:

A. Enforceable
B. Not affected
C. Voidable by promisee
D. Automatically renewed
✅ Answer: C

8. Which of the following is a valid reason for revocation of acceptance?

A. After signing agreement
B. After communication is complete
C. Before communication is complete
D. None of these
✅ Answer: C

9. Breach of contract leads to compensation under:

A. Sec-55
B. Sec-75
C. Sec-73
D. Sec-20
✅ Answer: C

51
 10. Penalty clause in contracts is dealt under:
A. Sec-70
B. Sec-73
C. Sec-74
D. Sec-51
✅ Answer: C【66:2†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

True or False

11. Proposal becomes promise after acceptance.

✅ True

12. A minor can enter into a valid contract.

❌ False

13. Consideration is essential for all valid contracts.

✅ True

14. Contracts without lawful object are void.

✅ True

15. Contracts remain valid even if made by coercion.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ is the person who makes the proposal.

✅ Answer: Promisor

17. ______ is the person who accepts the proposal.

✅ Answer: Promisee

18. Agreement without free consent is ______.

✅ Answer: Voidable

19. Consideration must be ______ by the promisor.

✅ Answer: Desired

20. Sec-73 deals with ______ for loss caused by breach of contract.
✅ Answer: Compensation

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Sec-51 a. Performance order

2. Sec-52 b. Reciprocal readiness

3. Sec-53 c. Prevention of performance

✅ Match: 1–b, 2–a, 3–c

52
 22.

A B

1. Sec-73 a. Breach loss compensation

2. Sec-74 b. Penalty clauses

3. Sec-75 c. Compensation on rescission

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Contracts must have lawful consideration.

Reason (R): Unlawful consideration makes the contract void.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Breach of contract gives no remedy.

Reason (R): Contracts are moral but not legal obligations.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): Communication of acceptance is complete for acceptor when received.
Reason (R): Law assumes control lies with the acceptor.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. A contractor fails to perform work on time where time is essential. Contract becomes:
A. Valid
B. Not affected
C. Voidable by the promisee
D. Automatically extended
✅ Answer: C

27. If one party prevents performance of a contract, the other party can:
A. Sue for fraud
B. Cancel without notice
C. Treat contract as voidable and claim compensation
D. Transfer the contract
✅ Answer: C

28. If contract includes penalty for breach, court grants:

A. Full penalty
B. No compensation
C. Reasonable compensation up to penalty
D. Jail term
✅ Answer: C

29. A proposal is revoked after acceptance is dispatched but before received. Status?
A. Valid revocation
B. Invalid revocation
C. Void contract

53
 D. Depends on time zone
✅ Answer: B

30. An agreement made without free consent is:

A. Enforceable
B. Illegal
C. Voidable
D. Criminal
✅ Answer: C

Chapter 15: Enterprise Sales – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Enterprise sales primarily aim at:

A. Mass promotion
B. Small ticket items
C. High volume business through client development
D. Branding only
✅ Answer: C

2. BSNL uses what kind of approach for enterprise sales?

A. Mass retailing
B. One-size-fits-all strategy
C. Customized client solutions
D. Advertising-led push
✅ Answer: C

54
3. Enterprise sales usually involve:
A. Price increase with short-term contracts
B. Small orders with fixed pricing
C. Volume discounts and long-term contracts
D. Barter arrangements
✅ Answer: C

4. Which of the following is a platinum customer?

A. Turnover below ₹10 Cr
B. Turnover between ₹10–50 Cr
C. Turnover above ₹500 Cr
D. Small business customers
✅ Answer: C

5. Enterprise sales in BSNL began with setting up:

A. Franchisee offices
B. BD cells in circles and corporate office
C. Sales kiosks in malls
D. eTender portal
✅ Answer: B

6. Which vertical in BSNL handles long distance network revenue?

A. IT Wing
B. Career Wholesale
C. Retail Sales
D. Digital Wing
✅ Answer: B

7. Enterprise business solutions in BSNL are segmented by:

A. Age and gender
B. ARPU
C. Customer turnover and telecom usage
D. Brand perception
✅ Answer: C

8. Channel partners in BSNL are primarily used for:

A. Platinum accounts
B. Retail subscribers
C. Silver category customers
D. Internal training
✅ Answer: C

9. NAM/KAM are appointed to manage:

A. Franchisee partners
B. Internal vendors
C. Key enterprise customers
D. CM clients
✅ Answer: C

10. System integrators are brought in mainly to provide:

A. HR training
B. Server space
C. End-to-end solutions including hardware and integration
D. Advertising services
✅ Answer: C
55
True or False

11. Enterprise sales is focused only on small regional clients.

❌ False

12. NAMs/KAMs are reimbursed for travel and work-related expenses.

✅ True

13. BSNL deals with Silver customers directly without any channel partner.
❌ False

14. Enterprise sales involve only fixed telecom services.

❌ False

15. System integrators can also bring new business to BSNL.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ customers in BSNL are those with turnover above ₹500 crore.
✅ Answer: Platinum

17. Enterprise sales are more about selling ______ than plain services.
✅ Answer: Solutions

18. BSNL created a separate post of DGM (__________) to support delivery in enterprise sales.
✅ Answer: Service Delivery/Service Assurance

19. ______ services combine BSNL bandwidth and hosted contact center.
✅ Answer: HCCS (Hosted Contact Center Services)

20. ______ is a written understanding signed with enterprise clients for mutual benefits.
✅ Answer: MoU

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Gold Customers a. ₹50–500 crore turnover

2. Silver Customers b. > ₹10 crore but < ₹50 crore

3. Platinum Customers c. > ₹500 crore

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. KAM a. Key account manager

2. HCCS b. Hosted contact center

56
A B

3. Channel Partners c. Silver customer handling

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): BSNL gives direct attention to Platinum customers.

Reason (R): These customers generate highest telecom spend and revenue.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): Enterprise sales focus only on bandwidth.

Reason (R): BSNL has no scope to offer software or integration.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): System Integrators support BSNL in enterprise sales.

Reason (R): BSNL lacks in-house hardware/software expertise for bundled services.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. A client asks for VPN, voice, billing and project support. BSNL should offer:
A. Retail solution
B. Mobile package
C. Enterprise integrated solution
D. Prepaid combo plan
✅ Answer: C

27. For a customer with ₹60 Cr turnover, BSNL assigns:

A. KAM from circle team
B. Channel partner
C. CFA officer
D. Platinum manager
✅ Answer: A

28. Customer wants a solution bundled with hosted email, software, and fiber. BSNL should
use:
A. Franchisee model
B. Channel partner only
C. System integrator along with BSNL
D. Retail kiosk
✅ Answer: C

29. To offer bundling of PCs with broadband, BSNL tied up with:

A. IBM
B. Lenovo
C. HCL
D. HP
✅ Answer: C

30. BSNL’s managed services are supported by NOC located at:

A. Pune

57
 B. Hyderabad
C. Bangalore
D. Chennai
✅ Answer: C

Chapter 16: Retail Sales – Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Retailing involves selling goods in:

A. Large quantities to businesses
B. Small lots to end-users
C. Export-only mode
D. Government procurement
✅ Answer: B

2. Which of the following is an example of counter service?

A. Online bill payment
B. Recharge voucher sale at BSNL counter
C. SMS-based activation
D. Home delivery of SIM
✅ Answer: B

3. What does FABV stand for in retail sales technique?

A. Features, Advantages, Benefits, Value
B. Fast, Agile, Bold, Verified
C. Functions, Analysis, Base, Validation

58
 D. Finance, Audit, Billing, Verification
✅ Answer: A

4. Door-to-door selling in BSNL is handled by:

A. CSCs
B. Retailers
C. DSAs
D. Call Centers
✅ Answer: C

5. Which of the following is not a key issue for retailers?

A. Margins
B. Layout
C. R&D investment
D. Stock availability
✅ Answer: C

6. In BSNL, franchisees are appointed through:

A. Lottery
B. Interview
C. EoI route
D. Corporate referral
✅ Answer: C

7. Primary products for BSNL channel partners include:

A. Landline
B. Broadband
C. GSM, WiMAX, EVDO
D. AMC Services
✅ Answer: C

8. Sales in retail is best described as:

A. Logistics planning
B. Need-satisfying process
C. Product engineering
D. Technical support
✅ Answer: B

9. Self-service sales are typically seen in:

A. Vehicle dealerships
B. Jewelry counters
C. Supermarkets
D. Telecom call centers
✅ Answer: C

10. Sales management includes:

A. Inventory financing
B. Auditing and compliance
C. Coordinating and establishing sales activities
D. Network rollout
✅ Answer: C【74:3†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

True or False

59
 11. Retailing is the same as wholesaling.
❌ False

12. DSAs are responsible for managing broadband servers.

❌ False

13. FABV technique emphasizes benefits and perceived value.

✅ True

14. Sales is only about closing a deal, not solving customer needs.
❌ False

15. Project Shikhar helped define retail sales job roles in BSNL.
✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ is the exchange of goods or services for an amount of money.

✅ Answer: Sales

17. ______ is a technique where customers handle goods before buying.

✅ Answer: Self-service

18. Retailers are at the ______ of the supply chain.

✅ Answer: End

19. Franchisees are required to appoint ______ in rural territories.

✅ Answer: Rural Distributors (RDs)

20. FABV stands for Feature, ______, Benefit, Value.

✅ Answer: Advantage

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Counter Service a. Over-the-counter goods sale

2. Door-to-door b. DSA approach

3. Self-service c. Customer picks product

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Feature a. What the product is

2. Benefit b. What customer gains

3. Value c. Worth in money terms

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

60
Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Retail sales require selling skills and customer understanding.
Reason (R): Salespersons represent the company and build customer trust.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion (A): All BSNL products are sold only by CSCs.
Reason (R): Franchisees are restricted to prepaid services.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): Retailers are responsible for stock ownership in all models.
Reason (R): They purchase from BSNL and resell with margins.
✅ Answer: B. A is false, R is true

Scenario-Based

26. A customer buys a new SIM at a kiosk. What model is this?

A. Self-service
B. Counter Service
C. Door-to-door
D. eCommerce
✅ Answer: B

27. A franchisee fails to meet performance score. BSNL may:

A. Ignore the issue
B. Issue extra commission
C. Impose financial penalty
D. Reward them
✅ Answer: C

28. Retail sales strategy with layout design and visual merchandising supports:
A. Procurement
B. Branding
C. Sales conversion
D. Vendor management
✅ Answer: C

29. A sales person explains the benefit of “fast upload” in broadband. This refers to:
A. Feature
B. Benefit
C. Advantage
D. Value
✅ Answer: B

30. BSNL's 2018 distribution policy introduced:

A. Wholesale-only partnerships
B. Single-tier urban model
C. Rural Distributor (RD) between franchisee and retailer
D. Doorstep delivery for all plans
✅ Answer: C

61
Chapter 18: Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 – Objective
Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The RTI Act came into force in:

A. 2002
B. 2005
C. 2007
D. 2010
✅ Answer: B

2. The primary objective of the RTI Act is to:

A. Increase taxation
B. Promote red tape
C. Bring transparency and accountability
D. Protect trade secrets
✅ Answer: C

3. Under RTI, “Public Authority” refers to:

A. Only Central Ministries
B. Private Companies
C. Government-funded organizations and departments
D. Judiciary only
✅ Answer: C

4. Which officer is responsible for receiving and replying to RTI applications?

A. Collector
B. Public Information Officer (PIO)
C. Director of Audit

62
 D. Legal Officer
✅ Answer: B

5. The appellate authority under RTI is:

A. Chief Secretary
B. Any subordinate staff
C. An officer senior to the PIO
D. Prime Minister’s Office
✅ Answer: C

6. What is the fee to file an RTI application in central government departments?

A. ₹1
B. ₹5
C. ₹10
D. ₹100
✅ Answer: C

7. Who is responsible for forwarding RTI requests to the correct authority?

A. PIO
B. APIO (Assistant PIO)
C. Chief Vigilance Officer
D. Accountant
✅ Answer: B

8. The RTI Amendment Act, 2019 allows:

A. State control of RTI
B. Central Government to prescribe the tenure and salary of Information Commissioners
C. Scrapping of RTI
D. Local body control of applications
✅ Answer: B

9. Exempted information includes all except:

A. National security matters
B. Trade secrets
C. Public interest matters
D. Cabinet papers
✅ Answer: C

10. If a PIO delays or denies information without reasonable cause, penalty may be:
A. ₹1000
B. ₹10,000
C. ₹250/day up to ₹25,000
D. ₹5000 fixed
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. PIO must respond to RTI applications within 30 days.

✅ True

12. There is no penalty under the RTI Act.

❌ False

63
 13. RTI is applicable only to central government.
❌ False

14. RTI overrides all previous acts in case of conflict.

✅ True

15. BSNL has designated PIOs and APIOs at Circle and SSA levels.
✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. The RTI Act was passed in ________.

✅ Answer: 2005

17. PIO stands for ______.

✅ Answer: Public Information Officer

18. APIO has to forward applications within ______ days.

✅ Answer: 5

19. If life or liberty is involved, information must be provided in ______ hours.

✅ Answer: 48

20. The penalty for PIO non-compliance is ₹250 per day up to a maximum of ₹_______.
✅ Answer: 25,000

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. CPIO a. Central PIO

2. SPIO b. State PIO

3. CAPIO c. Central Assistant PIO

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. RTI Act a. Transparency

2. Appellate Authority b. First appeal

3. Information Commission c. Final redressal body

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

64
 23. Assertion: The RTI Act enhances transparency.
Reason: It allows citizens to access public information.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: BSNL is not required to comply with RTI.

Reason: It is a telecom PSU.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion: RTI can be used to ask questions about private companies.
Reason: Private companies are public bodies.
✅ Answer: C. A is false, but R is true

Scenario-Based

26. An applicant seeks salary details of a government employee. The PIO denies it citing privacy.
What should the applicant do next?
✅ Answer: File an appeal to the Appellate Authority

27. A PIO refuses to accept an RTI application. What action can be taken?
✅ Answer: File complaint with Information Commission

28. Information sought is denied beyond the 30-day limit. This is termed:
✅ Answer: Deemed refusal

29. If a CAPIO receives an RTI, within how many days must they forward it?
✅ Answer: 5 days

30. A citizen seeks information on a PSU's subsidies. Is it valid under RTI?

✅ Answer: Yes

65
 Chapter 17: Customer Acquisition, Retention, and Delight –
Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Customer acquisition refers to:

A. Getting feedback
B. Attracting new customers
C. Handling complaints
D. Offering discounts only
✅ Answer: B

2. Which one is not part of the customer lifecycle?

A. Acquisition
B. Retention
C. Termination
D. Delight
✅ Answer: C

3. Customer retention focuses on:

A. Terminating low-value clients
B. Keeping existing customers satisfied
C. Collecting bills faster
D. Offering credit limits
✅ Answer: B

4. Delight in customer experience is achieved by:

A. Meeting expectations only
B. Offering freebies always
C. Exceeding customer expectations
D. Ignoring feedback
✅ Answer: C

66
 5. BSNL defines churn as:
A. New customers
B. Customers added
C. Customers lost
D. Customers with complaints
✅ Answer: C

6. Which of the following is a proactive retention strategy?

A. Ignoring customer issues
B. Waiting for complaints
C. Proactive feedback and loyalty programs
D. Delaying responses
✅ Answer: C

7. The purpose of KYC norms is to:

A. Delay service activation
B. Avoid revenue
C. Verify identity and reduce fraud
D. Maintain address books
✅ Answer: C

8. Which of these best describes ‘Customer Delight’?

A. Meeting SLAs
B. Zero complaints
C. Exceeding expectations leading to emotional connection
D. Issuing free data
✅ Answer: C

9. Customer loyalty leads to:

A. Decreased revenues
B. Increased customer acquisition cost
C. More referrals and reduced churn
D. Higher complaints
✅ Answer: C

10. Complaint resolution TAT refers to:

A. Ticket after tracking
B. Turnaround time to resolve customer complaint
C. Technical assistance tool
D. Telecom audit tool
✅ Answer: B【78:0†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

True or False

11. Customer satisfaction is only about fulfilling contractual terms.

❌ False

12. Delighted customers often become brand advocates.

✅ True

13. Customer churn is a positive metric.

❌ False

67
 14. The cost of retaining a customer is usually lower than acquiring a new one.
✅ True

15. All complaints should be seen as opportunities for improvement.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ is the process of bringing new customers to the organization.

✅ Answer: Acquisition

17. ______ refers to keeping existing customers and reducing churn.

✅ Answer: Retention

18. Customer ______ means going beyond satisfaction.

✅ Answer: Delight

19. ______ marketing is used to increase the average revenue from existing users.
✅ Answer: Upsell or Cross-sell

20. The ______ rate is a measure of customer loss over a period.

✅ Answer: Churn

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Acquisition a. Gaining new customers

2. Retention b. Keeping existing customers

3. Delight c. Exceeding expectations

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Churn a. Lost customers

2. Upselling b. Higher package offer

3. KYC c. Identity verification

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): Customer delight ensures loyalty.

Reason (R): Delighted customers often return and refer others.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

68
 24. Assertion (A): All customers are equally valuable to the organization.
Reason (R): Equal resources should be spent on every customer.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): KYC is mandatory for all telecom connections.

Reason (R): It helps prevent fraud and complies with regulatory norms.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. A BSNL customer has been with the company for 10 years and recommends it to friends.
This shows:
A. Indifference
B. High churn risk
C. Loyalty and advocacy
D. Revenue loss
✅ Answer: C

27. Customer leaves due to repeated call drops and delay in complaint resolution. This is an
example of:
A. Acquisition
B. Delight
C. Churn
D. Inquiry
✅ Answer: C

28. Offering a high-speed plan to an existing broadband user is:

A. Retention
B. Cross-sell
C. Upsell
D. Delight only
✅ Answer: C

29. A helpdesk ensures complaint is resolved within SLA. This supports:

A. Marketing
B. Customer retention
C. Price hike
D. Complaint closure only
✅ Answer: B

30. A new connection is offered with home delivery and instant activation. This is aimed at:
A. Retention
B. Acquisition
C. Churn
D. Audit
✅ Answer: B

69
 Chapter 18: Customer Service and CRM – Objective
Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Customer service begins at which stage?

A. After product installation
B. At the time of billing
C. From pre-sales stage
D. Post-delivery
✅ Answer: C

2. CRM stands for:

A. Central Revenue Management
B. Customer Relationship Management
C. Client Referral Module
D. Customer Records Management
✅ Answer: B

3. Which of these is not a customer service access mechanism?

A. Call Center
B. Online Portal
C. Retailer
D. BTS
✅ Answer: D

4. An effective CRM aims at:

A. Only billing customers
B. Managing complaints
C. Building long-term relationships
D. Ignoring low-paying customers
✅ Answer: C

70
 5. SLA in customer service stands for:
A. Subscriber Level Audit
B. Service Level Agreement
C. Software Listing Access
D. Sales Lead Assignment
✅ Answer: B

6. A major goal of CRM systems is:

A. Revenue forecasting
B. Customer file sharing
C. Automating customer interactions
D. Pricing control
✅ Answer: C

7. Complaint and grievance systems should be designed to be:

A. Centralized and responsive
B. Offline only
C. Agent-specific
D. Manual-entry based
✅ Answer: A

8. Which of the following helps ensure SLA adherence in customer service?

A. KPI Monitoring
B. Inventory turnover
C. Advertising
D. Equipment replacement
✅ Answer: A

9. Call abandonment rate is a KPI used in:

A. Inventory audit
B. Call centers
C. HR management
D. Billing systems
✅ Answer: B【82:3†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

10. CRM as part of BSNL’s CDR system is included in:

A. Sales force automation
B. Call center agent dashboards
C. CDR CRM module
D. Network traffic control
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. CRM systems only track complaints.

❌ False

12. Customer service ends with service delivery.

❌ False

13. Customer delight is a goal of both service and CRM functions.

✅ True

71
 14. Internal SLAs may be needed even within departments.
✅ True

15. CRM software can be used for marketing and lead tracking.
✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ management begins even before service activation.

✅ Answer: Customer

17. ______ level agreement defines service quality expectations.

✅ Answer: Service

18. A key function of CRM is to manage ______ interactions.

✅ Answer: Customer

19. Complaint systems should have defined ______ for resolution.

✅ Answer: Timelines or TAT

20. CDR CRM module in BSNL handles sales and ______ processes.
✅ Answer: Service

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. CRM a. Relationship tool

2. SLA b. Service quality contract

3. CSC c. Customer walk-in center

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Call Abandon Rate a. Call center KPI

2. Complaint TAT b. Resolution speed

3. CRM Module c. Centralized customer tool

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion (A): CRM helps improve customer loyalty.

Reason (R): It ensures systematic and personalized interactions with customers.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

72
 24. Assertion (A): BSNL has no direct customer touchpoints.
Reason (R): CRM is only for backend operations.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion (A): Poor SLA adherence leads to dissatisfaction.

Reason (R): It reflects on the organization's service credibility.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based

26. A BSNL customer’s broadband is delayed beyond SLA. This is a failure in:
A. Procurement
B. Sales policy
C. Service delivery
D. CRM design
✅ Answer: C

27. Customer calls repeatedly for a complaint already closed in system. This reflects failure in:
A. Hardware team
B. Customer education
C. Complaint tracking CRM
D. Vendor management
✅ Answer: C

28. Call center failing to pick 25% of incoming calls affects which KPI?
A. Revenue assurance
B. Call abandonment rate
C. Network QoS
D. Conversion ratio
✅ Answer: B

29. A system that records customer preferences, complaints, and service history is:
A. ERP
B. CRM
C. Payroll
D. Audit tool
✅ Answer: B

30. Customer care centers and web portals are part of:
A. Product development
B. Service access mechanisms
C. Inventory planning
D. Network management
✅ Answer: B

73
Chapter 19: Time and Stress Management – Objective
Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Time management is best defined as:

A. Tracking other people’s work
B. Making schedules for teams
C. Managing ourselves within the available time
D. Controlling others’ tasks
✅ Answer: C

2. Which quadrant in the “Clock and Compass” model represents “Important but Not Urgent”
tasks?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
✅ Answer: B

3. Effective time management leads to:

A. More confusion
B. Better sleep
C. Efficient use of life
D. Extra meetings
✅ Answer: C

4. Which is a common enemy inside for time management?

A. Interruptions
B. Laziness
C. TV noise
D. Spam email
✅ Answer: B

5. Stress is best described as:

A. Just workload
B. Reaction to events perceived as overwhelming
74
 C. A type of disease
D. Fatigue
✅ Answer: B

6. Which of the following is not a type of stress?

A. Eustress
B. Distress
C. Work-stress
D. Unistress
✅ Answer: D

7. Which technique is not used in stress reduction?

A. Yoga
B. Meditation
C. Procrastination
D. Deep breathing
✅ Answer: C

8. Excessive stress may lead to:

A. Clarity
B. Health issues
C. Creativity
D. Relaxation
✅ Answer: B

9. One of the best strategies to manage daily time is:

A. Random task selection
B. Procrastination
C. Prioritization based on urgency and importance
D. Avoid planning
✅ Answer: C

10. Which hormone is primarily responsible for stress response?

A. Insulin
B. Adrenalin
C. Estrogen
D. Thyroxine
✅ Answer: B

True or False

11. Time management without goal orientation is a waste of time.

✅ True【125:2†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

12. A positive attitude has no role in stress management.

❌ False

13. Emotional stress includes frustration and irritability.

✅ True

75
 14. Poor nutrition can increase vulnerability to stress.
✅ True

15. Procrastination is an effective time management strategy.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. ______ is the hormone secreted in stress conditions.

✅ Answer: Adrenalin

17. Positive stress is also called ______.

✅ Answer: Eustress

18. The part of the nervous system involved in stress is the ______ nervous system.
✅ Answer: Autonomic

19. Time management is equal to ______ management.

✅ Answer: Life

20. Excessive TV watching and gossip are examples of ______.

✅ Answer: Time wasters

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Eustress a. Positive stress

2. Autonomic nervous system b. Controls stress response

3. Compass goal setting c. Long-term priorities

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Procrastination a. Delays task completion

2. Yoga Nidra b. Relaxation technique

3. Adrenalin c. Stress hormone

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion: Time cannot be stored for future use.

Reason: Time is a continuously flowing, limited resource.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: All stress is harmful to the body.

Reason: Adrenalin always causes illness.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false
76
 25. Assertion: Deep breathing helps reduce stress.
Reason: It slows heart rate and calms the nervous system.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based Questions

26. An employee frequently misses deadlines due to TV and phone calls. This reflects:
✅ Answer: Time wasters and poor planning

27. A person feels energized under deadlines and performs well. This is due to:
✅ Answer: Eustress

28. Someone experiences memory loss, quick anger, and fears. These are signs of:
✅ Answer: Mental stress

29. A simple method to regain confidence before public speaking is:

✅ Answer: Self-hypnosis using finger-squeeze technique

30. Spending time with family and pursuing hobbies helps in:
✅ Answer: Emotional reserve building

77
Chapter 20: BSNL CDA Rules – Objective-Type Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. BSNL CDA Rules came into force on:

A. 1st Jan 2000
B. 10th Oct 2006
C. 5th Sep 2004
D. 2nd Apr 2010
✅ Answer: B

2. How many rules are included in the BSNL CDA Rules (as updated on 05.11.2020)?
A. 50
B. 55
C. 61
D. 65
✅ Answer: C

3. BSNL CDA Rules apply to:

A. Casual workers only
B. All BSNL employees except those under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
1946
C. Contract workers only
D. Only Group A officers
✅ Answer: B

4. The term "Appointing Authority" refers to:

A. Anyone assigning a task
B. The person who evaluates performance
C. The authority empowered to make appointments
D. The HR clerk
✅ Answer: C

5. What is Rule 33 concerned with?

A. Training procedure
B. Penalties for misconduct
C. Leave rules
D. Transfers
✅ Answer: B

6. Penalty of “Censure” is classified under:

A. Major Penalty
B. Suspension
C. Minor Penalty
D. Criminal Charge
✅ Answer: C

78
 7. A major penalty under CDA Rules includes:
A. Withholding of increment
B. Reduction to lower stage in pay scale
C. Verbal warning
D. Suspension
✅ Answer: B

8. Which rule deals with the treatment of suspension period?

A. Rule 21
B. Rule 32
C. Rule 45
D. Rule 18
✅ Answer: B

9. Disciplinary proceedings after retirement continue under:

A. No provision
B. Rule 61
C. Rule 47
D. Rule 59
✅ Answer: B

10. Appeals against disciplinary action should be made within:

A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
✅ Answer: B

True or False

11. CDA Rules are mandatory only for executives.

❌ False

12. Drunkenness at the workplace is considered misconduct.

✅ True

13. Penalties under Rule 33 are both minor and major.

✅ True

14. Misuse of official position for renting own property to BSNL is misconduct.
✅ True

15. Orders under Rule 36 can be appealed.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. CDA stands for ______, Discipline and Appeal.

✅ Answer: Conduct

17. Rule ______ describes the types of penalties applicable to employees.

✅ Answer: 33

79
 18. Every appeal must be filed within ______ days.
✅ Answer: 30

19. Rule 32 deals with ______ of the period of suspension.

✅ Answer: Treatment

20. Reduction to a lower stage in pay scale is a ______ penalty.

✅ Answer: Major

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Rule 33 a. Penalties

2. Rule 61 b. Retiring employees

3. Rule 45 c. Appeal rights

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Misuse of BSNL property a. Misconduct

2. Withholding increment b. Minor penalty

3. Reduction to lower post c. Major penalty

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion: CDA Rules create a corruption-free environment.

Reason: They define clear penalties and conduct expectations.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: Employees can approach media directly for grievances.

Reason: CDA Rules permit external communication freely.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion: Appellate authorities are clearly defined in CDA Rules.

Reason: They are based on the hierarchy and cadre.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based Questions

26. An executive is found tampering with records. This is a violation under:

✅ Answer: Rule 33 – Major Penalty (Forgery)

27. An appeal is filed after 45 days of penalty order. It can be accepted if:
✅ Answer: Justified cause for delay is shown
80
28. A non-executive misuses company internet for personal business. Action can be taken under:
✅ Answer: Misconduct provisions of CDA Rules

29. A retired employee faces ongoing disciplinary action. Rule applicable is:
✅ Answer: Rule 61

30. An officer wants to appeal against censure. He should file it under:

✅ Answer: Rule 45 – Orders against which appeal lies

81
Chapter 21: Gender Issues – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Vishaka Guidelines were issued by:

A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. Ministry of Women and Child Development
D. BSNL Corporate Office
✅ Answer: B

2. The landmark year when sexual harassment was recognized as a violation of human rights by
the Supreme Court:
A. 1995
B. 1997
C. 2001
D. 2005
✅ Answer: B

3. Which Act defines human rights in India?

A. Women Protection Act, 2005
B. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
C. Gender Justice Act, 2000
D. Indian Penal Code
✅ Answer: B

4. One key preventive measure under Vishaka Guidelines is:

A. Hiring more male officers
B. Implementing performance appraisals
C. Adopting a sexual harassment policy
D. Outsourcing employee grievances
✅ Answer: C

5. BSNL implemented Vishaka Guidelines through instructions from:

A. Ministry of Labour
B. DOT
C. BSNL CO Welfare & Sports Cell
D. TRAI
✅ Answer: C

6. The complaints committee should have at least how many members?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Ten
✅ Answer: B

7. The head of the sexual harassment complaints committee must be:

A. A male employee
B. Legal advisor
C. A woman
82
 D. HR manager
✅ Answer: C

8. Time limit to file a sexual harassment complaint is:

A. 7 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. No limit
✅ Answer: B

9. Third-party harassment refers to:

A. Harassment from within the company
B. Harassment by customers, vendors, or visitors
C. Harassment by supervisors
D. Harassment by co-workers only
✅ Answer: B

10. Which of the following is not sexual harassment?

A. Touching without consent
B. Suggestive remarks
C. Fair and respectful feedback
D. Showing pornography
✅ Answer: C

True or False

11. Gender equality is a human right.

✅ True

12. Sexual harassment applies only to permanent employees.

❌ False

13. Complaints committee can include external NGO members.

✅ True

14. BSNL provides gender training at training centres.

✅ True

15. There is no need to document or report incidents of sexual harassment.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. The ______ Guidelines were the first formal framework against sexual harassment.
✅ Answer: Vishaka

17. Sexual harassment includes physical, verbal, and ______ behavior.

✅ Answer: Non-verbal

18. The complaints committee must make an annual report to the ______ department.
✅ Answer: Government

19. ______ harassment occurs when a person in power demands sexual favors for promotions.
✅ Answer: Quid pro quo

83
 20. BSNL must ensure ______ display of names and contact details of committee members.
✅ Answer: Prominent

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Sexual Harassment a. Unwelcome sexual conduct

2. Third Party Harassment b. External persons involved

3. Complaints Committee c. Redressal body

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Vishaka Guidelines a. Supreme Court

2. Training on gender b. BSNL training centres

3. Redressal mechanism c. Complaint Committee

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion: Vishaka Guidelines are legally binding.

Reason: They were issued by the Supreme Court.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: Only women can be victims of workplace harassment.

Reason: Law protects men equally.
✅ Answer: C. A is true but R is false

25. Assertion: BSNL is exempt from forming complaint committees.

Reason: It’s a public sector enterprise.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Scenario-Based Questions

26. A female employee complains about being shown offensive pictures by a colleague. What
kind of misconduct is this?
✅ Answer: Sexual harassment

27. A contract worker faces harassment. Can she complain under Vishaka Guidelines?
✅ Answer: Yes

28. A complaint is submitted after 20 days. What happens?

✅ Answer: Committee may accept it with justification

84
 29. A male manager offers promotion in exchange for favors. What is this?
✅ Answer: Quid pro quo sexual harassment

30. A female employee faces harassment by a vendor. BSNL must:

✅ Answer: Provide all support and take preventive action

Chapter 22: Staff Welfare – Objective Questions

85
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The primary objective of BSNL Staff Welfare Board is:

A. Employee transfers
B. Revenue planning
C. Staff and family welfare
D. Disciplinary control
✅ Answer: C

2. Financial assistance to employees for serious illness is up to:

A. ₹10,000
B. ₹15,000
C. ₹25,000
D. ₹30,000
✅ Answer: C

3. The annual grant to Circle Welfare Boards is given on:

A. Staff performance
B. Revenue generation
C. Pro-rata staff strength
D. Financial year-end report
✅ Answer: C

4. How much percentage of the total grant is given as an ad hoc advance in May?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 10%
✅ Answer: B

5. Book Award is given to children scoring at least:

A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 75%
✅ Answer: D

6. The maximum relaxation in Book Award marks for SC/ST/OBC is:

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. No relaxation
✅ Answer: B

7. Transport assistance to handicapped children in metro cities is:

A. ₹50
B. ₹100
C. ₹150
D. ₹200
✅ Answer: C

8. The maximum immediate relief for death of an employee is:

A. ₹10,000

86
 B. ₹15,000
C. ₹20,000
D. ₹25,000
✅ Answer: B

9. The financial support given to sports winners in national events is called:

A. BSNL Star Award
B. Sanchar Kalyan Award
C. Sanchar Krida Award
D. Telecom Games Award
✅ Answer: C

10. BSNL Welfare Board is managed by:

A. TRAI
B. DoT
C. Circle Heads
D. BSNL Staff Welfare Board
✅ Answer: D

True or False

11. Scholarship is provided only to regular employees.

❌ False

12. Funds to SSAs are allotted based on their staff strength.

✅ True

13. Holiday Homes are funded by BSNL Welfare Board.

✅ True

14. Excursion trips receive no subsidy from BSNL.

❌ False

15. Book Award and Scholarship are the same.

❌ False

Fill in the Blanks

16. Book Award is given for students of class II to class ______.

✅ Answer: XII

17. ______% of total welfare grant is earmarked for scholarships.

✅ Answer: 35

18. Sanchar ______ Awards are given for excellence in sports.

✅ Answer: Krida

19. ______% transport subsidy is provided for excursion trips.

✅ Answer: 75

20. In absence of full audited accounts, only ______% of grant is released initially.
✅ Answer: 25

87
Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Book Award a. 75%+ marks

2. Scholarship b. Professional courses

3. Sports Cash Award c. Krida award winners

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. Hostel subsidy a. Handicapped children

2. Excursion trip b. 75% fare subsidy

3. Natural calamity relief c. ₹3,000 max

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion: BSNL Staff Welfare Fund supports employee families.

Reason: It provides assistance in education, illness, and death cases.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: Only executives benefit from staff welfare activities.

Reason: Non-executives are excluded by rule.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion: Funds are released in full before the audit.

Reason: Audit of previous year is not necessary.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

Scenario-Based Questions

26. A ward of BSNL staff scored 73% in class X. She belongs to SC category. Is she eligible for
Book Award?
✅ Answer: Yes, due to 10% relaxation

27. A Circle receives ₹40 lakh. How much should ideally go to scholarships?
✅ Answer: ₹14 lakh (35%)

28. A staff member loses property in a declared flood zone. Relief amount can be:
✅ Answer: ₹3,000

29. A recreation club with 100 members will get:

✅ Answer: ₹2,000 + ₹2,000 matching = ₹4,000 grant

30. A Circle wants to change fund allocation ratio due to more applicants. Is it allowed?
✅ Answer: Yes, with justification and within norms

88
 Chapter 23: Reservation Policy – Objective
Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

89
1. Article 15 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
A. Right to Freedom
B. Equality before Law
C. Prohibition of discrimination
D. Freedom of religion
✅ Answer: C

2. Article 16 guarantees:
A. Equality of income
B. Equal rights in marriage
C. Equality in public employment
D. Equal property distribution
✅ Answer: C

3. Which Article emphasizes educational and economic interests of SCs/STs?

A. Article 19
B. Article 46
C. Article 48
D. Article 14
✅ Answer: B

4. Relaxation in upper age limit for SC candidates is:

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
✅ Answer: C

5. Which of the following is not exempted for OBC candidates?

A. TA
B. Exam fee
C. Application fee
D. All of the above
✅ Answer: D

6. Which article permits reservation in promotion for SC/STs?

A. Article 21
B. Article 335
C. Article 19
D. Article 50
✅ Answer: B

7. Rule of exclusion (creamy layer) is applicable to:

A. SC only
B. ST only
C. OBC only
D. All categories
✅ Answer: C

8. The post-based roster replaced:

A. Department-wise rosters
B. Region-based rosters
C. Vacancy-based rosters
90
 D. None of the above
✅ Answer: C

9. Reservation for SC/ST/OBC combined should not exceed:

A. 33%
B. 45%
C. 50%
D. 60%
✅ Answer: C

10. Reservation does not apply to:

A. Promotion
B. Deputation/Transfer
C. Direct Recruitment
D. Regular Appointment
✅ Answer: B【141:4†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

True or False

11. Candidates selected on merit should be counted towards reservation quota.

❌ False

12. SC/ST candidates are entitled to TA for attending interviews.

✅ True【141:1†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

13. OBC candidates receive age relaxation of 3 years.

✅ True【141:1†E2-E3_MGMT.pdf**

14. Post-based rosters apply only until the reservation quota is filled.
❌ False – They continue with appointment adjustments.
✅ True

15. SC/ST/OBC reservation is based on posts, not vacancies.

✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. Article ______ ensures equality in public employment.

✅ Answer: 16

17. Reservation is not applicable in ______ or deputation.

✅ Answer: Transfer

18. Article 335 was amended in the year ______.

✅ Answer: 2000

19. A person from reserved category selected on merit is treated as ______ category.
✅ Answer: General

20. For a cadre of 200 posts, ______-point rosters will be maintained.

✅ Answer: 200

Match the Following

91
 21.

A B

1. Article 15 a. Prohibition of discrimination

2. Article 16 b. Public employment equality

3. Article 46 c. Weaker section promotion

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

A B

1. SC Age Relaxation a. 5 years

2. OBC Creamy Layer b. Rule of exclusion

3. TA for SC/ST c. 2nd class rail fare

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion: Post-based roster promotes efficiency in implementation.

Reason: It maintains prescribed percentages in filled posts.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: SC/ST/OBC reservation is applicable in every recruitment method.

Reason: It is a constitutional obligation.
✅ Answer: C. A is true but R is false

25. Assertion: Creamy layer rule ensures benefit to the truly needy.
Reason: It excludes advanced OBC individuals.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

Scenario-Based Questions

26. An OBC candidate clears an exam purely on merit. Should he be counted in the reserved
quota?
✅ Answer: No – merit-based selection is treated as general

27. A SC candidate applies for a post with age limit of 30. He is 34. Is he eligible?
✅ Answer: Yes, due to 5-year age relaxation

28. BSNL wants to apply vacancy-based roster in 2024. Is it permissible?

✅ Answer: No, post-based rosters are mandated

29. A cadre has 100 direct recruitment and 100 promotion posts. How many rosters should be
made?
✅ Answer: Two – one for each mode

30. Can a reserved category person be denied TA for an interview?

✅ Answer: No – SC/ST are eligible for 2nd class fare reimbursement

92
 Chapter 24: OCSC, TEEVRA, SANCHAR AADHAAR,
SANCHARSOFT & FMS – Objective Questions
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. OCSC in BSNL stands for:

A. Online Channel Sales Centre
B. Outsourced Customer Service Centre
C. Original CSC
D. Onsite Circle Support Cell
✅ Answer: B

2. Which portal is used for DKYC and CAF entries in BSNL?

A. MyBSNL
B. HRMS
C. Sanchar Aadhaar
93
 D. Teevra
✅ Answer: C

3. Which software manages BSNL's franchisee operations and SIM inventory?

A. FMS
B. Sancharsoft
C. SAP
D. Pyro
✅ Answer: B

4. Teevra App is used for:

A. Tracking customer complaints
B. Checking health of network elements
C. Managing revenue reports
D. CAF entry
✅ Answer: B

5. Which application supports broadband fault monitoring and DSLAM status?

A. CRM
B. Teevra
C. Sanchar Aadhaar
D. Pyro
✅ Answer: B

6. FMS stands for:

A. Fiber Management System
B. Franchisee Management System
C. Field Maintenance Service
D. Financial Monitoring System
✅ Answer: B

7. Sanchar Aadhaar mobile app allows:

A. Landline billing
B. Online chatting
C. DKYC-based CAF entry
D. Content streaming
✅ Answer: C

8. What is CTOPUP used for?

A. Financial audit
B. Recharge & commission handling
C. Employee appraisal
D. Complaint tracking
✅ Answer: B

9. OCSC franchisees operate under which login system?

A. BSNL Connect
B. Intranet
C. Single Sign-On (SSO)
D. Teevra Login
✅ Answer: C

10. In Sancharsoft, OCSC users are added via:

A. CRM
B. SSA Marketing Menu
94
 C. CSC Portal
D. Manual Form
✅ Answer: B

True or False

11. Sanchar Aadhaar supports both DKYC and eKYC.

✅ True

12. FMS supports franchisee registration and fault rectification.

✅ True

13. Teevra is used for voice quality testing.

❌ False

14. OCSC is the only channel to collect BSNL postpaid bills.

❌ False

15. Franchisee agents must generate MPIN during their first login.
✅ True

Fill in the Blanks

16. The ______ App shows the online/offline status of OLTs and DSLAMs.
✅ Answer: Teevra

17. ______ software manages prepaid SIM stock, sales reports, and inventory.
✅ Answer: Sancharsoft

18. CAF in BSNL refers to ______.

✅ Answer: Customer Application Form

19. FMS provides support for ______ orders and customer fault tickets.
✅ Answer: Provisioning

20. ______ based CAF entries allow real-time capture via mobile.
✅ Answer: DKYC

Match the Following

21.

A B

1. Sancharsoft a. SIM Inventory Management

2. Sanchar Aadhaar b. CAF & DKYC Entry

3. Teevra c. Network Status Monitoring

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

22.

95
A B

1. OCSC a. Outsourced CSC Partner

2. FMS b. Franchisee and Fault Tracking

3. CTOPUP c. Recharge Commission Platform

✅ Match: 1–a, 2–b, 3–c

Assertion and Reason

23. Assertion: DKYC reduces errors in CAF entry.

Reason: It captures data directly from Aadhaar and photos.
✅ Answer: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

24. Assertion: FMS is unrelated to network faults.

Reason: It is purely for HR-related functions.
✅ Answer: D. Both A and R are false

25. Assertion: Sanchar Aadhaar allows agents to approve CAFs.

Reason: Approval is restricted to CSC employees only.
✅ Answer: C. A is false but R is true

Scenario-Based Questions

26. A counter agent wants to do partial bill payment for a GSM postpaid number. Which platform
will he use?
✅ Answer: OCSC Portal

27. A franchisee needs to verify DSLAM port status. Which app should he use?
✅ Answer: Teevra

28. An SSA marketing team wants to create a new OCSC code. Where do they do it?
✅ Answer: Pyro & Sancharsoft

29. A user wants to assign faults to field teams and track resolution. Use:
✅ Answer: FMS

30. A dealer wants to offer new SIM activation with Aadhaar scan and live photo. Use:
✅ Answer: Sanchar Aadhaar Mobile App

96
97