16-10-2025

1015CMD303001250026 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two bodies of mass M and 4M are kept at a distance y apart. Where should a small particle of
mass m be placed from M so that the net gravitational force on it is zero :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A point mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of radius R and mass M at a distance from the
centre of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

3) Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the gravitational field (I)
with the distance (r) from the centre of a spherical shell of mass M and radius a :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) Gravitation field intensity at centre "O" due to following system of particles placed at vertices of

an equilateral triangle of side length "a" :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The acceleration due to gravity on a planet A is 6 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet
B. A man jumps to a height of 2 m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person
on the planet B :–

(1)
m
(2) 3 m
(3) 12 m

(4)
m

6) The radius of the earth is R and g is the acceleration due to gravity on its surface. What should be
the angular speed of the earth, so that the bodies lying on the equator may appear weightless?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Gravitational potential difference between surface of a planet and a point situated at a height of
20m above its surface is 2 J/kg. If gravitational field is uniform, then the work done in taking a 5kg
body upto height 4 meter above surface will be :

(1) 2 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 10 J
8) If three particles each of mass m are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side

a, then work done to increase the side of that triangle to is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two concentric shells have masses M and m and their radii are R and r respectively, where R > r.
What is the gravitational potential at their common centre ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The gravitational field in a region is given by , then work done by an

external force in carrying a mass of 0.4 kg from point (0, 0) to (3, 4) metre is :-

(1) 22J
(2) –22J
(3) –44J
(4) 44J

11) A particle starts from point 'A' reaches to B in a uniform circular motion. Find angular
displacement of the particle (during which it reaches from A to B ) as seen from centre:- (if AC line

is diameter)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) A disc starts from rest and it gains an angular acceleration given by α = 3t – t2. Calculate the
angular velocity after 2 sec in rad/s :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 20
(4) 10

13) A car of mass m is moving through circular arc of radius R with constant speed , what will

be normal force applied by track on car at point A.

(1) 3mg
(2) 2mg
(3) 1mg
(4) 4mg

14) A pendulum bob has a speed 3 m/s while passing through its lowest position, length of the
pendulum is 0.5 m then its speed when it makes an angle of 60° with the lower vertical is:– (g = 10
m/s2)

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

15) A cylindrical vessel of 90 cm height is kept filled up to the brim. It has four holes 1, 2, 3, 4 which
are respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 45 cm and 50 from the horizontal floor PQ. The water

falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the vessel comes from

(1) hole number 4

(2) hole number 3
(3) hole number 2
(4) hole number 1
16) A needle of length 10 cm is floating on liquid surface. Find maximum weight of needle. Surface
tension of liquid = 0.036 N/m :-

(1) 72 × 10–4 N
(2) 36 × 10–4 N
(3) 18 × 10–4 N
(4) 72 × 10–3 N

17) Assertion (A) : The change in surface tension of the liquid depends upon the degree of
contamirition of the impurity.
Reason (R) : The concept of surface tension is held only for liquids.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

18) A ring having radius 2.5 cm and mass 10 gram floats on a liquid surface having surface tension
0.06 N/m. Find force required to just lift the ring from liquid surface.

(1) 0.06 N
(2) 0.12 N
(3) 0.24 N
(4) 0.03 N

19) If T is the surface tension of soap solution, the amount of work done in blowing a soap bubble
from a diameter D to 2D is :-

(1) 2 πD2T
(2) 4 πD2T
(3) 6 πD2T
(4) 8 πD2T

20) 64 identical water drops are combined to form a big drop. If surface energy of big drop is m
times of any small drop. m is :–

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

21) Pressure inside two soap bubbles is 1.01 and 1.02 atmosphere. Ratio between their volume is :

(1) 102 : 101

(2) (102)3 : (101)3
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

22) A vessel has a small hole at its bottom. If water can be poured into it upto a height of 7 cm
without leakage (g = 10ms–2), the radius of the hole is (surface tension of water is 0.07 Nm–1)

(1) 2 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.1 mm
(4) 0.4 mm

23) Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4cm and 5cm are touching each other over a

common surface S1, S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be:-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 4.5 cm

24) Water rises in a capillary upto a height of 4 cm. If it is tilted to from the vertical, then the
length of water column in it will be:-

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

25) A soap bubble of radius R is surrounded by another soap bubble of radius 2R, as shown. Take
surface tension = S. Then the pressure inside the smaller soap bubble, in excess of atmospheric

pressure, will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26) Two capillaries of same material but of different radii are dipped in a liquid. In one of the
capillary, the liquid rises to a height of 22 cm and in other to 66 cm. The ratio of their radii is :-

(1) 9 : 1
(2) 1 : 9
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

27) A sphere of mass m and radius r is falling in the column of a viscous fluid. terminal velocity
attained by falling object is proportional to

(1) r2
(2) 1/r
(3) r
(4) –1/r2

28) A metal plate of area 2m2 is pulled horizontally with a velocity of 0.5 ms–1 on a liquid layer 1mm

thick. The force required if the viscosity of liquid is is : -

(1) 1.2 N
(2) 12 N
(3) 12000 dyne
(4) 1200 N

29) On celsius scale, temp. of a body increases by 30°C the increase in temperature on fahrenheit
scale (°F) will be :-

(1) 50°
(2) 40°
(3) 30°
(4) 54°

30) The graph between two temperature scales A and B is shown in figure. Between upper fixed
point and lower fixed point there are 150 equal division on scale A and 100 on scale B. The

relationship for conversion between the two scales is given by :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) An iron rod of length 50cm is joined at an end to an aluminium rod of length 100 cm. All
measurements refer to 20°C. The coefficients of linear expansion of iron and aluminium are 12 ×
10–6/°C and 24 × 10–6/°C, respectively. The coefficient of linear expansion of composite system is :-

(1) 36 × 10–6/°C
(2) 12 × 10–6/°C
(3) 20 × 10–6/°C
(4) 48 × 10–6/°C

32) Consider a square thin plate of side 12 cm with uniformly distributed mass. If small square part
is removed as shown, then the coordinate of centre of mass of the remaining section will be at (in

cm)

(1) (4,4)
(2) (5,5)
(3) (6,6)
(4) (7,7)

33) A boat of length 10m and mass 450 kg is floating without motion in still water. A man of mass 50
kg standing at one end of it, walks to the other end of it and stops. The magnitude of the
displacement of the boat in meter relatively to ground is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 1 m
(3) 2m
(4) 5m

34) A mass of 20 kg moving with a speed of 10 m/s collides with another stationary mass of 5 kg. As
a result of the collision both masses stick together. The kinetic energy of the composite mass will be
:

(1) 600 J
(2) 800 J
(3) 1000 J
(4) 1200 J

35) Body A of mass m and B of mass 3m move towards each other with velocities V and 2V
respectively from the positions as shown, along a smooth horizontal circular track of radius r. After

the first elastic collision, they will collide again after the time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A ball starts falling from a height h0. There are n collisions with the earth. If after n collisions the
ball rises to a height hn, then coefficient of restitution e is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A bullet of mass 10 gm is fired from the gun of mass 400 gm with a speed of 500 m/sec. What is
the recoil speed of gun.

(1) 4 × 10–3 m/sec

(2) 12.5 m/sec
(3) 14 × 10–3 m/sec
(4) 2 m/sec

38) The ratio of the densities of the two bodies is 3 : 4 and the ratio of specific heats is 4 : 3. The
ratio of their thermal capacities for unit volume is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 2 : 7

39) Work done in converting one gram of ice at –10°C into steam at 100°C is

(1) 3045 J
(2) 6056 J
(3) 721 J
(4) 616 J

40) A bullet moving with velocity v collides against wall. consequently one third of its kinetic energy
is converted into heat. If the whole heat is acquired by the bullet, the rise in temperature will be :–

(1) v2/6S
(2) 2v2/3S
(3) v2/3S
(4) v2/S

41)

Heat required to melt 1 gm of ice is 80cal. A man melts 60 gm of ice by chewing in one minute. His
power is :-

(1) 4800W
(2) 336 W
(3) 1.33W
(4) 0.75W

42) A solid material is supplied heat at a constant rate. The temperature of material is changing with

heat input as shown in the figure. What does the slope of DE represent?

(1) Latent heat of liquid

(2) Latent heat of vaporization
(3) Heat capacity of vapour
(4) Inverse of heat capacity of vapour

43) What is the percentage change in length of 4m iron rod if its temperature changes by 200°C.
(αiron = 2 × 10–5/°C)

(1) 0.2%
(2) 0.4%
(3) 0.6%
(4) 0.5%

44) A circular hole is made in a plate. The plate is now heated. Which of the following statements is

correct?

(1) radius of the hole starts to decrease

(2) no stress is developed in the material of plate
(3) volume of the plate material will decrease
(4) none of these

45) A rod of length 10m rests on smooth horizontal floor. If rod is heated from 20°C to 80°C. Find

the longitudinal strain developed?

(1) 1.8×10-3
(2) 1.8×10-4
(3) 1.8×10-2
(4) zero

CHEMISTRY

1) If A, B and C are the three element of Dobereiner's Triad and atomic mass of A and B are 7 and 15
respectively, then the atomic mass of C is

(1) 1
(2) 11
(3) 23
(4) 25

2) Which of the following element was present in Mendeleev's periodic table?

(1) Sc
(2) Tc
(3) Ge
(4) None of these

3)

Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

4) The element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d104s1 belongs to :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

5) Which of the following configuration belongs to s-block elements

(1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1

(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

6) Which of the following is not correct match ?

(Mark your answer between atomic number 100 to 120)

(1) Next inert gas = Uuo

(2) Next pnicogen = Uup
(3) Next alkaline earth metal = Ubn
(4) Last d-block metal = Uut

7) Which pair have maximum gap of Zeff ?

(1) Li, Be
(2) B, C
(3) C, F
(4) C, N

8) The correct order of variation in the sizes of atoms is

(1) Be > C > F > Ne

(2) Ne > Be > C > F
(3) Be < C < F < Ne
(4) F > Ne > Be > C

9) What is the correct order of ionisation energy:

(1) B > Al < Ga > In < Tl

(2) B < Al > Ga > In > Tl
(3) B > Al > Ga > ln > Tl
(4) B > Al < Ga < In < Tl

10) Which of the following represents correct order of electron affinity ?

(1) Cl > F > S > O

(2) F > O > S > Cl
(3) F > Cl > S > O
(4) Cl > S > O > F

11) Which is the correct order of electronegativity -

(1) Cl > S > P > Si

(2) Si > Al > Mg > Na
(3) F > Cl > Br > I
(4) All

12)

Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B:

Column-A Column-B

(i) Na2O (a) Neutral

(ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic

(iii) N2O (c) Acidic

(iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric

Which of the following options has all correct pairs?

(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

13) In BX3, the B–X bond length is less than the theoretical value, Because (X = F)

(1) sp3 hybridisation of B, is responsible for B–X small bond length

(2) Due to back bonding B–X have double bond character
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Due to large size of X, B–X bond length decreases

14) Assertion :- Al2Cl6 exists but B2Cl6 does not exist. Reason :- Due to smaller size of B and larger
size of halogen, there is more steric repulsion in B2Cl6.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Which is correct option ?

3
(1) BeH2(s) ⇒ sp , octet incomplete
3
(2) BeCl2(s) ⇒ sp , octet incomplete
3
(3) Al2(CH3)6 ⇒ sp , octet complete
3
(4) (SiH3)2 ⇒ sp , octet incomplete

16) Correct order for stability -

(1) PbCl4 > PbCl2

(2) AlCl > AlCl3
(3) BiCl3 > BiCl5
(4) GeCl2 > GeCl4

17) Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed?

(i) SiCl4 (ii) CCl4
(iii) BCl3 (iv) NF3
Choose the correct alternative :

(1) (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

18) Purest form of carbon is

(1) Diamond
(2) Graphite
(3) Coal
(4) Fullerene

19) Each metal ion is surrounded by how many water molecule in Alum ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Eight

20) Al4C3 is an ionic carbide, which is named as:

(1) Acetylide
(2) Methanide
(3) Allylide
(4) Alloy

21) Which of the following is most basic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Strongest –I group is :-

(1) –OH
(2) –COOH
(3) –F

(4)

23) Which of the following can not act as electrophile ?

(1) CO2
(2) : CCl2

(3)

(4) AlCl3

24) Nucleophile is :-

(1) CH3–CH2–NH2
(2) CH2=CH2
(3)
(4) All of these

25) Find the total number of geometrical isomers formed by :-

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 16

26) Which is correct for given molecules ?

(1) Boiling point I > II

(2) Stability II > I
(3) Melting Point II > I
(4) All

27)

Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH=N–OH

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

28) Identify the configuration

(1) E–
(2) Z–
(3) R–
(4) S–

29)

The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 1-Bromo-2-chloro benzene-4-carboxylic acid

(2) 4-Bromo-1-carboxy-3-chloro benzene
(3) 4-Bromo-3-chloro benzoic acid
(4) 1-Bromo-2-chloro-4-carboxy benzene

30) IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 3-Carbonitrile-3-methyl butanal

(2) 3-Formyl-2-methyl propane nitrile
(3) 3-Cyanobutanal
(4) 2-Methyl-4-oxobutane nitrile

31) How many carbon atom are present in the parent carbon chain of given compound ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 2

32) What is the IUPAC name of following compound ?

(1) 2-chlorocarbonyl-1-ethylbenzoate
(2) 2-chlorocarbonyl-1-ehyl-4-formylbenzoate
(3) Ethyl-2-chlorocarbonyl-4-formylbenzoate
(4) 2-Ethoxycarbonyl-5-formylbenzoylchloride

33) and

shows which type of isomerism :-

(1) Position
(2) Ring chain
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional

34) and exhibit the isomerism :-

(1) Chain isomers
(2) Position isomers
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional isomers

35) Most stable conformation of glycol is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which of the following don't show conformational isomerism ?

(1) CH3–CH3

(2)

(3) CH4
(4) CH3–CH2–CH3

37) What is the IUPAC name of following compound ?

(1) 1,1,1-Trimethylpropane
(2) N,N,2-Trimethylpropane
(3) 1-Dimethylamino-2-Methylpropane
(4) Isobutyl dimethyl amine

38) Which of the following is not a state function ?

(1) Internal energy

(2) Enthalpy
(3) Work
(4) Entropy

39) In thermodynamic which one of the following is not an intensive property ?

(1) Pressure
(2) Density
(3) Volume
(4) Temperature

40) If in a container neither mass and nor heat exchange occurs then it constitutes a

(1) Closed system

(2) Isolated system
(3) Open system
(4) Imaginary system

41) Some amount of hot water enclosed in closed container which is not insulated. This is an
example of

(1) Open system

(2) Closed system
(3) Isolated system
(4) None of these

42) Thermodynamic is concerned with

(1) Total energy of a system

(2) Energy changes in a system
(3) Rate of chemical change
(4) Mass change in nuclear reactions

43) A well stoppered thermos flask containing some ice cubes is an example of

(1) Closed system

(2) Open system
(3) Isolated system
(4) None

44) Statement-I : Temperature is a state function.

Statement-II : Change in the state is completely defined when initial and final states are specified.

(1) Both Statements are correct.

(2) Both Statements are not correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct.
(4) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is not correct.

45) Statement-I : Heat and work are state functions

Statement-II : Heat and work are not properties of a system.

(1) Both Statements are correct.

(2) Both Statements are not correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct.
(4) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is not correct.

BIOLOGY

1) Excretory organs in Crustacea are :-

(1) Green gland

(2) Coxal gland
(3) Nephridia
(4) Flame cell

2) If loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephron, then urine will be -

(1) Concentrated
(2) Diluted
(3) No change
(4) No urine

3) Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs due to :-

(1) Bowman's capsule has higher hydrostatic pressure than glomerulus

Colloidal osmotic pressure and capsule's hydrostatic pressure are lower than glomerular
(2)
hydrostatic pressure
(3) Glomerulus hydrostatic pressure is less than capsular pressure
(4) Osmotic pressure is more than Hydrostatic pressure

4) The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidney per minute is called GFR (Glomerular filtration
rate). The GFR of a healthy adult is :-

(1) 80 ml/min
(2) 125 ml/min
(3) 300 ml/min
(4) 20 ml/min

5)

In humans, excretory system consists of :-

a. Kidney b. Urinary bladder
c. Ureters d. Urethra
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c only
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) a only

6) Given is the figure of longitudinal section of kidney. Identify the parts labelled as A to D and

select the correct option :-

A B C D

(1) Cortex Calyx Renal column Ureter

(2) Calyx Cortex Renal column Ureter

(3) Medulla Cortex Renal capsule Urethra

(4) Calyx Cortex Renal pelvis Urethra

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Kidney stones are produced due to :-

(1) Precipitation of cholesterol.

(2) Deposition of sand particles.
(3) Blockage of fat.
(4) Crystallization of oxalates.

8) In micturition, signal is initiated by :-

(1) CNS
(2) Stretching of urinary bladder
(3) Stretching of internal urethral sphincter
(4) Stretch receptors on urethra

9) Which of following help to increase GFR and B.P.?

(1) JGA
(2) Renin
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the above

10) Which of the following condition are indicative of diabetes mellitus ?

(1) Glucosuria
(2) Proteinuria
(3) Ketonuria
(4) Glucosuria and ketonuria (both)

11) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) In ureotelic organisms, ammonia is not a product of metabolism.

(2) In mammals, some amount of urea may be retained in the kidney matrix to maintain osmolarity.
(3) In fish, kidneys do not play any significant role in the removal of ammonium ions.
(4) Urea and uric acid are less toxic than ammonia.

12) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Vasa recta is well developed in Bowman's capsule.

(2) PCT and DCT are situated in the medulla of the kidney.
(3) The glomerulus encloses the Bowman's capsule.
(4) The ascending limb of the Henle's loop extends as the DCT.

13) The given figure represents the Malpighian body. Identify the labelled parts A to D and select

the correct option :-

A-Efferent arteriole,
B-Afferent arteriole,
(1)
C-Bowman's capsule,
D-Proximal convoluted tubule
A-Afferent arteriole,
B-Efferent arteriole,
(2)
C-Renal artery,
D-Proximal convoluted tubule
A-Afferent arteriole,
B-Efferent arteriole,
(3)
C-Bowman's capsule,
D-Proximal convoluted tubule
A-Afferent arteriole,
B-Efferent arteriole,
(4)
C-Bowman's capsule,
D-Distal convoluted tubule

14) The dotted appearance of cortex of kidney is due to :-

(1) Ducts of Bellini
(2) Convoluted parts
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Collecting tubes

15) A notch present on the inner medial side of kidney is known as :-

(1) Ureter
(2) Pelvis
(3) Hilus
(4) Pyramid

16) The given figure shows reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the
nephron. the movement of which of the following substances is wrongly depicted ?

(1) NaCl and K+ at DCT

(2) NaCl and NH3 at PCT
(3) NaCl at ascending limb of loop of Henle
(4) H2O at descending limb of loop of Henle

17) Which of the following sequences is correct regarding regulation of kidney function ?

An excess loss of water from body → Hypothalamus → Osmoreceptors → Neurohypophysis →

(1)
ADH → Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus → Neurohypophysis → ADH
(2)
→ Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of fluid from body ® Osmoreceptors ® Hypothalamus → Neurohypophysis →
(3)
Aldosterone → Water permeability of DCT and CT increases → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of water from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus → Adenohypophysis →
(4)
ADH → Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis

18) Which is the correct sequence of air passages in man ?

 External nostril → Nasal passage → Internal nostril → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi →
(1)
Bronchioles ® Alveoli
(2) Nose → Larynx → Pharynx → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Alveoli
(3) Nose → Pharynx → Trachea → Larynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(4) Nose → Larynx → Bronchi → Pharynx →Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveoli

19) Which of the following diseases is/are occupational respiratory disorder ?

(1) Silicosis, fibrosis and asbestosis

(2) Emphysema and mountain sickness
(3) Asthma and Emphysema
(4) Asthma and Hepatitis

20) If a person takes deep and fast breaths for some time forcefully then after this act his desire to
breath reduces for some time. This is due to:

(1) Increased pO2 in blood

(2) Decreased pCO2 in blood
(3) Decreased pO2 in blood
(4) Increased pCO2 in blood

21) 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver .....ml of O2 under normal physiological condition:-

(1) 5
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4) 15

22) Total percentage of O2 transported by haemoglobin or RBC is :-

(1) 3%
(2) 97%
(3) 49%
(4) 25%

23) Amount of oxygen transported by one gram of haemoglobin is :-

(1) 1.34 ml
(2) 13.4 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 3.7 ml

24) Dorsal respiratory group is located in ____ and mainly causes _____ :-

(1) Pons Varolii, expiration

(2) Medulla, inspiration
(3) Medulla, expiration
(4) Pons Varolii, inspiration

25) In mammals the body cavity is partitioned into thoracic and abdominal parts by

(1) Liver
(2) Lungs
(3) Ribs
(4) Diaphragm

26) Mammalian lungs contain an enormous number of minute alveoli. This is to allow :

(1) more space for increasing the total volume of inspired air
(2) more surface area for diffusion of gases
(3) more spongy texture for keeping lungs in proper shape
(4) more nerve supply to keep, the organs working more efficiently

27) In the given statements choose the odd one :-

(1) Thoracic chamber is anatomically an air-tight chamber

(2) Any change in volume of the thoracic cavity is reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity
(3) The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining
(4) The inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface

28) Some symptoms of a disorder are given read them and identify the disorder :-
(a) Alveolar walls are damaged
(b) Respiratory surface is decreased
(c) Smoking is major cause

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis
(4) Pneumonia

29) Muscle of expiration are :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) EICM
(3) Diaphragm and EICM
(4) Abdomen muscle and IICM

30) Which process is not active :-

(1) Normal inspiration

(2) Normal expiration
(3) Forceful breathing
(4) Forceful expiration

31) What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and oxygen in atmospheric air ?

(1) pCO2 159 mm Hg, pO2 40 mm Hg

(2) pCO2 0.3 mm Hg, pO2 159 mm Hg
(3) pCO2 40 mm Hg, pO2 45 mm Hg
(4) pCO2 45 mm Hg, pO2 116 mm Hg

32)

Match the column-I, II and III and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1. TV a. 1200 ml (i) Amount of air which remains in lungs after forceful expiration.

2. VC b. 3000 ml (ii) Amount of air which is normally inspired.

3. IRV c. 500 ml (iii) Amount of air which is forcefully expired after forceful inspiration

4. RV d. 4600 ml (iv) Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by forceful inspiration
(1) 1-a-i, 2-d-ii, 3-c-iv, 4-b-iii
(2) 1-c-ii, 2-d-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-a-i
(3) 3-b-i, 4-a-ii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-iii
(4) 3-b-ii, 4-a-i, 2-d-iii, 1-c-iv

33) Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) is incorrect

34) Oxygen evolved by the green plants comes from H2O, not from CO2. This was proved with the
help of

(1) Ganong screen method

(2) Paper chromatography method
(3) Radioisotopic technique
(4) Half leaf experiment

35) Variegated leaf experiment proves that is essential for photosynthesis:-

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) Soil

36) Which of the following chemicals is or are produced in light reaction of higher plants ?

(1) ATP only

(2) NADPH only
(3) ATP & NADPH
(4) ATP & Glucose

37) In the chromatogram prepared using paper chromatography, chlorophyll-b appears as

(1) Bright green

(2) Yellow-green
(3) Yellow
(4) Yellow-orange

38) Photolysis of water takes place :-

(1) in stroma
(2) in stromal lamellae
(3) on outer side of granal thylakoids
(4) on inner side of granal thylakoids

39) Where does the secondary fixation of CO2 takes place in leaves of sugarcane ?

(1) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells

(2) Cytoplasm of mesophyll cells
(3) Cytoplasm of bundle sheath cells
(4) Chloroplasts of mesophyll cells

40) Which one of the following would not be a limiting factor for photosynthesis ?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Light
(4) CO2

41) Kranz anatomy is an exceptional feature of :-

(1) C4 Plants
(2) CAM plants
(3) C3 Plants
(4) Bryophytes

42) Light saturation occurs at _________ % of the fall sunlight :-

(1) 2 %
(2) 5 %
(3) 10 %
(4) 20 %

43) The current level of CO2 is limiting to :

(1) C3 plants
(2) C4 plants
(3) Both C3 and C4 plants
(4) Neither C3 nor C4 plants

44) During photosynthesis, when PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde, which of the
following reaction occurs ?

(1) oxidation
(2) reduction
(3) electrolysis
(4) hydrolysis

45) The CO2 acceptor in the Calvin cycle is :-

(1) A 5-Carbon protein

(2) A 3-Carbon acid
(3) A 5-Carbon ketose sugar
(4) A 5-Carbon phospholipid

46) What is the final electron acceptor when both photosystem works together :-

(1) Oxygen
(2) Water
(3) NAD+
(4) NADP+

47) Find out the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) Dark reaction depends on product formed by light reaction

(2) In stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporates CO2 into the plant leading to synthesis of sugar
(3) Purple and green sulphur bacteria use H2S as hydrogen donor
(4) There is no division of labour in chloroplast
48)
Find the correct one with respect to given absorption spectra :-

(1) It is showing action spectrum of photosynthesis super-imposed on absorption spectrum of chl.a

(2) It is absorption spectra of chlorophyll b
(3) It show maximum absorption takes place at 700 nm
(4) there is no absorption at 600 nm

49) Give diagram is of ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Find out the correct statement :-

(A) A is a transmembrane protein which carries out active

transport of protons across the thylakoid membrane
(B) NADP-reductase enzyme is concerned with D and is located on the stromal side of thylakoid
membrane
(C) Water spliting complex is associated with C and D which is found in granal thylakoid as well as
stromal thylakoid

(1) All are correct

(2) Only A is correct
(3) Only B is correct
(4) A and C are correct

50)
A. Only PS-I is present
B. Both PS-I and PS-II are present
C. Enzymatic reactions synthesise sugar.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C :-

(1) only B is correct

(2) only A and B are correct
(3) only A and C are correct
(4) A, B and C are correct

51) 2H2O → 4H+ + O2 + 4e–

Consider the following w.r.t. above equation
(i) Site is stroma side of thylakoid membrane
(ii) Associated with PS-I
(iii) Take place in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(iv) Source of proton in both cyclic and non cyclic photophosphorylation
How many are not related.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

52)

Which of the following is correctly labelled A, B, C and D for the given figure ?

(1) A-PSII, B-PSI, C-e--acceptor, D-LHC

(2) A-LHC, B-e- -acceptor, C-PSI, D-PSII
(3) A-PSI, B-PSII, C-e- -acceptor, D-LHC
(4) A-e- -acceptor, B-LHC, C-PSII, D-PSI

53) Chemiosmosis requires :-

(1) Only membrane and proton pump

(2) Only proton gradient and proton pump and ATP synthase
(3) Proton pump, membrane, ATP synthase proton gradient
(4) Only ATP synthase

54)

Which of the following is correct according to chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis in

chloroplast ?

(1) Protons accumulate in stroma

 Breakdown of proton gradient provides enough energy to cause conformational change in F0-
(2)
particle of ATP synthase
(3) The breakdown of proton gradient leads to the synthesis of ATP
(4) Energy is used to diffuse the proton from thylakoid lumen to stroma

55) The figure below shows three stages (A, B, C) of Calvin cycle. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents?

(1) C-Regeneration of the decarboxylating agent, step require action of RuBisCO enzyme
(2) A-Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a stable 4 carbon intermediate.
(3) B-Reduction that do not require NADPH
(4) C-Regeneration of RuBP by utilisation of ATP

56) How many turns of Calvin cycle, ATP and NADPH are required to form a sucrose molecule in
wheat?

Cycles ATP NADPH

(1) 6 24 36

(2) 18 36 36

(3) 12 36 24

(4) 6 12 12
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) In the photosynthesis of purple and green sulphur bacteria, the oxidation product is sucrose or
starch instead of O2.
(b) During photosynthesis the enzymatic reactions, which synthesise sugar in the stroma of
chloroplast, are not directly light driven but are light dependent.
(c) During chemiosmosis in chloroplast, energy is used to pump protons across thylakoid membrane
to create a high concentration of protons within the thylakoid lumen.
(d) C4 plants are more efficient than C3 plants, because in C4 plants C3 cycle can occur in bundle
sheath cell as well as in mesophyll cells.
(e) If C3 plants are allowed to grow in CO2 enriched atmosphere that leads to higher yields because
current availability of atmospheric CO2 levels is limiting to the C3 plants.
Options :-

(1) a,b,c,d & e

(2) only b,c,d & e
(3) only c & e
(4) only b, c & e

58) The Nissl’s granules are present in

a. Cell body
b. Axon
c. Dendrites
d. Glial cells

(1) a only
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a, b, c and d

59) The autonomic neural system is a division of

(1) Sympathetic neural system

(2) Central neural system
(3) Peripheral neural system
(4) Somatic neural system

60) Assertion (A): Protein synthesising granules, called the Nissl's granules, are absent in axons of
neurons.
Reason (R): Nissl's granules are composed of RER and ribosomes. In the light of above statements,
choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

61) Neuroglia approximately forms how much part of the neural tissue?

(1) > Half of the neural volume

(2) > One third of neural volume
(3) > One fourth of neural volume
(4) > One fifth of neural volume

62) Match column-I with column-II w.r.t. types of neurons in humans and their respective locations.

Column-I Column-II

a. Unipolar (i) Cerebral cortex

b. Bipolar (ii) Retina of eye

c. Multipolar (iii) Embryonic stage

Select the correct option
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

63) Parasympathetic neural system is a component of

(1) Autonomic neural system

(2) Somatic neural system
(3) Peripheral and somatic neural system
(4) Central neural system

64) Which of the following are excitable cells?

(1) Hepatic cells

(2) Neural cells
(3) Pancreatic cells
(4) Renal cells

65)

Which category of nervous system comprises the whole complex of nerves, fibres, ganglia and plexus
by which impulses travel from central nervous system to visceral organs and vice versa?

(1) Visceral nervous system

(2) Sympathetic nervous system
(3) Peripheral nervous system
(4) Somatic nervous system

66) Macrophages of brain are :-

(1) Dust cell

(2) Kuffer cell
(3) Monocytes
(4) Microglial cell
67) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a-axons, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,

(1)
d-dendrites, e-node of Ranvier, f-Schwann cell
a-dendrites, b-axon, c-Schwann cell,
(2)
d-cell body, e-myelin sheath, f-node of Ranvier
a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schwann cell,
(3)
d-axon, e-myelin sheath, f-Node of Ranvier
a- synaptic knobs, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,
(4)
d-axon, e-Schwann cell, f-Node of Ranvier

68) Blood-brain barrier is formed by :-

(1) Oligodendrocyte
(2) Schwann cell
(3) Microglial cell
(4) Astrocyte

69) Nerve cell do not divide beacuse they do not possess :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Golgi body
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Centriole

70) Skeletal muscles are controlled by :-

(1) Sympathetic Nervous system

(2) Parasympathetic Nervous system
(3) Autonomic Nervous system
(4) Somatic Neural system

71) Simplest neural organisation is present in :-

(1) Hydra
(2) Insect
(3) Worms
(4) Vertebrates

72)

Match the Column:

Column-I Column-II

A Unipolar i Cell body with one axon only, found usually in the embryonic stage.

B Bipolar ii Cell body with one axon and two or more dendrites, found in cerebral cortex.

C Multipolar iii Cell body with one axon and one dendrite, found in retina of eye.
(1) A−i, B−iii, C−ii
(2) A−ii, B−i, C−iii
(3) A−iii, B−ii, C−i
(4) A−i, B−ii, C−iii

73)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The central neural system (CNS) includes the brain and the spinal cord and is the site
of information processing and control.
Statement II: The afferent nerve fibres transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the
concerned peripheral tissues/organs. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

74) Which of the following is true sequence of transmission of impulse within neuron?

(1) C→B→A
(2) B→A→C
(3) A→B→C
(4) Either (1) or (2)

75) Bamboo, grass, sugarcane & mint stem elongate by the activity of

(1) Lateral meristem

(2) Cambium
(3) Inter fascicular cambium
(4) Intercalary meristem

76) Meristematic tissue :-

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Interfascicular cambium
(4) All of these

77) Which of the following is only primary meristem ?

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) 1 and 3 both

78) Which of the following is a feature of meristematic cells?

(1) Large vacuole

(2) Presence of intercellular space
(3) Presence of one prominent nucleus
(4) Presence of thick cell wall

79) Choose the correct statement :

(1) Different organs in a plant show differences in their internal structure.

(2) The anatomy of seed plants by Katherine Esau.
(3) The anatomy of seed plants to as Webster's of plant biology
(4) All of the above

80) Root apex is subterminal because is -

(1) Covered with root hair

(2) Covered with root cap
(3) Covered with epidermis
(4) Under the soil

81) Axillary bud arise from :-

(1) Hypodermis
(2) Shoot apical meristem
(3) Root apical meristem
(4) Shoot apical meristem & root apical meristem both

82) Parenchyma containing chloroplasts is known as :-

(1) Prosenchyma
(2) Aerenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Chlorenchyma

83) A branch or a flower is developed in the axil of leaves by:

(1) Apical bud

(2) Axillary bud
(3) Root cap
(4) Intrafascicular cambium

84) Both apical meristem & intercalary meristems are __A__ because they appear __B__ in the life of
a plant.
A and B are :-

(1) A - Secondary meristem, B - Later

(2) A - Secondary meristem, B - Early
(3) A - Primary meristem, B - Early
(4) A - Primary meristem, B - Later

85)

Meristems are :-

(1) Mature cells

(2) Well differentiated cells
(3) Collenchyma cells
(4) Not differentiated cells

86) Axillary buds are present in the axils of leaves and are capable of forming :-

(1) Branch
(2) Flower
(3) Root
(4) (1) & (2) both

87) Lateral meristem is :-

(1) Cambium of dicot roots

(2) Apical meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Promeristem

88) The type of meristem absent in most of the monocot plants :-

(1) Apical meristems
(2) Intercalary meristems
(3) Lateral meristems
(4) Both 1 and 2

89) Lateral meristems bring an increase in :-

(1) Length
(2) Diameter
(3) Photosynthesis
(4) Leaf formation

90) Dermatogen gives rise to :-

(1) Cortex
(2) Epidermis
(3) Stele
(4) Vascular bundle
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 2 1 1 3 4 4 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 1 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 2 1 4 3 4 4 4 1 1 4 3 4 4 4 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 3 4 4 1 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Let m be at x distance far from M.

∴
∴ (y –x)2 = 4x2 ∴ y – x = 2x

2) If a point mass is placed inside a uniform spherical shell, the gravitational force on the point
mass is zero. Hence, the gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is zero.

3) Intensity will be zero inside the spherical shell.

4) Explanation of the problem :-

We have an equilateral triangle with particles at each vertex. Each particle creates a
gravitational field. We need to find the net gravitational field intensity at the center of the
triangle.
Concept :
Gravitational field intensity :The gravitational field intensity at a point is defined as the force
per unit mass placed at that point. It's a vector quantity.
Superposition principle : The net gravitational field intensity at a point due to multiple
particles is the vector sum of the individual field intensities due to each particle.
Formula :-
Gravitational field intensity due to a point mass : The gravitational field intensity (E) at a
distance 'r' from a point mass 'M' is given by :

E=
where G is the gravitational constant. The direction of E is towards the mass M.
Distances : The center of an equilateral triangle is equidistant from all its vertices. This
distance (r) can be calculated using geometry. If 'a' is the side length then.

Individual field intensities Let's assume each particle has mass 'm'. The magnitude of the
gravitational field intensity due to each particle at the center is :
Let the masses be named as (1), (2),(3)

E=

E1 =
 E2 =

Resultant of E1 and E2 = enet =

Enet = E1 or E2

∴ E1 = E2 and cos120°–

∴ Enet =

E3 = = Now E3 and Enet (E1 and E2) are in opposite direction :

Efinal =

5) ∵ mgh = constant

gAhA = gBhB ⇒ hB = × hA = =12 m

6) =0

7) Gravitational field intensity

Eg =
Hence gravitational force = mEg
= 5(0.1) = 0.5N
Work = Force × displacement = (0.5)(4) = 2J

8) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No. 192

9) 1. Explanation of question:
We have two concentric spherical shells with masses M and m and radii R and r, respectively
(R > r). We need to find the gravitational potential at their common center.
2. Concept:
This question based on the gravitational potential due to a spherical shell.
3. Formula:
The gravitational potential (V) due to a spherical shell of mass M and radius R at a point inside
or on the surface of the shell is given by:
V = –GM/R
4. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Potential due to the outer shell (mass M, radius R) at the center:

B. Potential due to the inner shell (mass m, radius r) at the center:
 .............(2)

A. Total potential at the center: The total potential is the sum of the potentials due to both

5. Conclusion: the correct option is (4)

10) = 5i + 10j (N/Kg)

= = 0.4(5i + 10j) = (2i + 4j)N

displacement = = (3i + 4j)m
Work done by gravitational force
= 6 + 16 = 22 Joule
Thus work done by external force
= –22 Joule

11)

angle is measured from centre not C.

12) Question Explanation:

A disc starts from rest with angular acceleration α = 3t – t2. Find the angular velocity after 2
seconds using integration.
Concept:
Variable angular acceleration requires integration to calculate angular velocity over a time
interval from rest.
Formula:

Calculation:

At t = 2

Final Answer: rad/s

13)

Explanation Question: A car is moving through circular are with constant speed and it is
asked to find normal force on can of A.
Concept: This question is based on dynamics of circular motion
Solution:
N = mg +

N = mg + 2 Rg
N = 3mg
Final Answer:
The correct option is (1)

14)

h = ℓ – ℓcos60° = ℓ – ℓ × = ℓ/2

by law of conservation of mechanical energy

∴ v2 = u2 –

m/s

15)

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given the vessel height is 90 cm, and holes at heights
cm from the floor:
Calculate
for each hole: -
Hole 1 : (20 cm) :
Hole 2 : (30 cm):
Hole 3 : (45 cm):
Hole 4 : (50 cm):
The maximum is at hole 3 with cm, since is maximized at .

16) Mmaxg = 2Tℓ = 2 × 0.036 ×

= 2 × 3.6 × 10–3
= 72 × 10–4
 17) The surface tension depends upon molecular force which may different for different
impurities.
Liquids form variable free surface under the molecular forces in presence of external gas
pressure and the gravity.

18)

F = 4πrT + Mg
= 4 × 3.14 × (2.5 × 10–2) × 0.06 + (10 × 10–3) × 9.8

= 0.01884 + 0.098 = 0.12 N

19) Work done = change in surface energy

=
= 2(4πD2 – πD2)T
= 2(3πD2)T
= 6πD2T

20)

Explain question : When 64 identical small drops merge into one big drop, find how many
times its surface energy becomes that of one small drop.
Concept : This question is based on Surface energy ∝ surface area ∝ R2, with volume
conservation R = n1/3r.
Solution :
Let radius of each small drop = r
Volume conservation

⇒ R = 4r
Surface energy of big drop
Eb ∝ 4πR2 = 4π(4r)2 = 64πr2
Ratio

Final answer : Option (1) 16

21) Pa = 1.01 =

Pb = 1.02 =

0
and (∵ P = 1 atmosphere)
∴ or

22) Excess pressure from top and bottom side of water which is trying to come out of the hole

is balanced ⇒ = ρgh

23)

rcommon =

where a and b are radii of big and small bubble

24)
h will be same
ℓcos30 = h

25)

&

∴ Excess pressure =

26)

27)
28)

29)

ΔF = 54°

30)
From the graph
For the scale A,
Lower fixed point = 30°A
Upper fixed point = 180°A
For the scale B,
Lower fixed point = 0°B
Upper fixed point = 100°B
∴ The relationship between the two scales A and B is given by

31) αC =

αC =

32)
Coordinate

33) Let mass of boat = M; Mass of man = m

displacement of boat

= = =1m
L = 1m travelled distance

34)
 35)
Velocity of separation = 3V

Required time =

36) hn = e2n h0

e2n =

37)

v = 12.5 m/sec

38)

39)

B. Explanation: This problem asks us to determine the total work (energy) required to
transform one gram of ice at -10°C into steam at 100°C. This involves several stages of heating
and phase transitions. The work done is equal to the total heat energy absorbed by the ice.
C. Concept: The process occurs in distinct steps:
1. Heating the ice: Raising the ice's temperature from -10°C to 0°C. Q1 = m × sice × ΔT
2. Melting the ice: Changing the ice at 0°C to water at 0°C. Q2 = m × Lf
3. Heating the water: Raising the water's temperature from 0°C to 100°C. Q3 = m × swater ×
ΔT
4. Vaporizing the water: Changing the water at 100°C to steam at 100°C. Q4 = m × Lv
Where:

A. m = mass
B. sice = specific heat of ice (≈ 2100 J/kg°C)
C. swater = specific heat of water (≈ 4186 J/kg°C)
D. Lf = latent heat of fusion of ice (≈ 3.34 x 10^5 J/kg)
E. Lv = latent heat of vaporization of water (≈ 2.26 x 10^6 J/kg)
F. ΔT = change in temperature
The total heat (and work) is the sum of the heat for each step: Qtotal = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4
D. Mathematical Calculation:
Given: m = 1 g = 0.001 kg
1. Q1 (Heating ice): Q1 = (0.001 kg) × (2100 J/kg°C) × (0°C - (-10°C)) = 21 J
2. Q2 (Melting ice): Q2 = (0.001 kg) × (3.34 x 105 J/kg) = 334 J
3. Q3 (Heating water): Q3 = (0.001 kg) × (4186 J/kg°C) × (100°C - 0°C) = 418.6 J
4. Q4 (Vaporizing water): Q4 = (0.001 kg) × (2.26 x 106 J/kg) = 2260 J
5. Qtotal: Qtotal = 21 J + 334 J + 418.6 J + 2260 J = 3033.6 J
E. Final Answer:
The work done is approximately 3034 J. The closest option is 3045 J.
Option 1

40) Explain Question: To find rise in temperature when a bullet hit the wall and energy
converts in heat.
Concept: This question is based on mechanical equivalent of heat.
Solution: 1/3rd of ICE converts into heat to mathematically

⇒
Final Answer: v2/6S

41)

Work done by man = mL

= 60 × 80 × 4.2 Joule

Then power =
and P= 336 Watt

42) dQ = C·dT

43) % change =

= = αΔT × 100
= 2 × 10–5 × 200 × 100
= 0.4%

44)

Theroy

45) since rod rest on smooth horizontal floor.

There will be no resistance to expansion and thus no strain.
CHEMISTRY

46)

Atomic mass of element B will be average of element A & element C.

47) These elements were added after Mendeleev's periodic table.

48)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon.

49)

[Ar]3d10 4s1 -Copper (Cu) → d-block.

50)

1s22s22p63s23p63d10 4s1 → Cu(29) → d-block

1s22s22p6 3s23p6 4s1 → K(19) → s-block

51)

Last d-block metal = Cn

Atomic number = 112

52)

53) Radius: Ne > Be > C > F.

54)

The trend is irregular due to poor shielding. Poor shielding by d-electrons makes Ga > Al,
Down the group from Ga to In the IE drops as size increases. and very poor shielding by f-
electrons (lanthanide contraction) makes Tl > In.
So, the correct order of IP - B > Al < Ga > In < Tl.

55)

Conceptual
 O < S < F < Cl

56) Conceptual (Based on EN values)

57)

Na2O → Basic (metal oxide)

Al2O3 → Amphoteric
N2O → Neutral
Cl2O7 → Acidic (non-metal)

58)

In BF3 back bonding is present.

59)

Conceptual

60) BeH2(s) ⇒ sp3 tetrahedral ⇒ e– deficient molecule

61)

The correct order for stability is 3. BiCl3 > BiCl5.

Here's why:

A. Inert Pair Effect: As you go down Group 15 (Nitrogen family), the tendency for the s
electrons in the valence shell to remain unshared increases. This is known as the inert
pair effect. Bismuth (Bi) is a heavy element in this group, and the +3 oxidation state is
much more stable than the +5 oxidation state due to this effect. Therefore, BiCl3 is more
stable than BiCl5.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

A. PbCl4 > PbCl2: The opposite is true. PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4. Lead (Pb) also exhibits
the inert pair effect, where the +2 oxidation state is favored over the +4 state.
B. AlCl > AlCl3: The opposite is true. AlCl3 is the stable form. AlCl is only stable in the gas phase
at very high temperatures.
C. GeCl2 > GeCl4: The opposite is true. GeCl4 is more stable than GeCl2. Although Ge can exhibit
both +2 and +4 oxidation states, +4 is the more stable oxidation state.

62)

CCl4​ & NF3 do not hydrolyse due to absence of vacant orbital

 63) Fullerene does not have dangling bonds.

64) each ion in alum represented by

[M(H2O)6]+ & [M(H2O)6]+3

65)

Al4C3 + H2O → 4Al(OH)3 + CH4

Al4C3 is an ionic carbide which is named as methanide.

66)

BS ∝ EDG ∝ +1

67)

–COOH > –F > –OH > –Ph

Explaining the Question: Strongest –I group is
Concept: –I Order ;- Experimental

Solution: –I order = –COOH > F > – OH >

Final Answer: Option_2

68) complete octet.

69) A. Question: Question ask which of the following is a nucleophile?

B. Given Data: 1 CH3CH2-NH2 2 CH2=CH2 3 4 All of these

C. Concept:

A. Nucleophile: A nucleophile is a chemical species that donates an electron pair to form a

chemical bond in a reaction. Nucleophiles are Lewis bases (electron pair donors). They are
typically negatively charged or have a lone pair of electrons.

(i) Negatively charged species :

Θ
H, ΘOH, ΘOR, ΘCN, Θx, R,RCOOΘ , ΘNH2, ΘSH etc.
(ii) Neutral containing lone pair :

(iii) π-electron donor : Alkene, alkyne, benzene etc.

(iv) R - MgX, LiAIH4 and NaBH4 are nucleophiles.
D. Explanation:
1. CH3-CH2-NH2 (Ethylamine): The nitrogen atom in ethylamine has a lone pair of electrons,
making it electron-rich and capable of donating electrons. Thus, it acts as a nucleophile.
2. CH2=CH2 (Ethene/Ethylene): The double bond in ethene represents a region of high electron
density. This is π-electron donor to an electrophile, making ethene a nucleophile.

3. : A carbanion is a species with a negatively charged carbon atom. The negative charge
indicates an excess of electrons, which can be donated to form a bond, making it a strong
nucleophile.
Since all three options exhibit the characteristic of donating electron pairs, they all qualify as
nucleophiles.
E. Final Answer: 4

70)

n = 3 (compound is symmetrical)
No. of GI = 2n–1 + 2P–1

= 2 2 + 21 = 6

71)

Dipole moment → cis > trans

BP ∝ dipole moment

Stability ∝
Melting point ∝ packing efficiency

72)

73)

74)
75)

76)

77)

78)

79)
Both compound have different functional group.

80) Gauche form is more stable due to intramolecular H-bonding.

81) Atleast 3 continuous σ bond should be present to show conformational isomerism.

82)

83) Heat and work path function.

84) Volume is extensive property.

 85) An isolated system neither shows exchange of heat nor matter with surrounding.

86) Closed system can exchange energy but not matter with its surrounding.

87) NCERT, Pg. # 137

88) An isolated system neither show exchange of energy nor matter with surrounding.

89) NCERT, Pg. # 138

90) NCERT, Pg. # 138

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT, Pg. # 291

92)

NCERT, Pg. # 293

93) Explain Question : Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs in ?

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.
Solution : option (2) is correct
Blood colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular Hydrostatic pressure are lower than glomerular
Hydrostatic pressure
Net filtration = BGHP – (BCOP + CHP)
= 10-25 mg
Final Answer : option (2)

94) Question Explanation:

Asks for the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healty asult, expressed in milliliters
per munute (ml/min).
Solution Explanation:
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular
capillaries into Bowman's capsule per unit time. In a healty adult, the GFR is approximately
125 ml/min.
Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is:
Option 2. 125 ml/min

95) Explain Question : In humans excretory system consists of

 Concept : This question is based on Human excretory system
Solution : Human excretory system consist of one pair of kidney, one pair of ureters, A
Bladder and one Urethra.
Final Answer : option (3)

96)

Question Explanation:
The question asks you to identify the parts of the kidney labeled A, B, C, and D in the
given diagram.
Solution Explanation:

A. A - This lable points to the cup-shaped projections that surround the renal papillae.
These are the calyces (or calyces).
B. B - This lable points to the outer region of the kidney. This is the cortex.
C. C - This label points to the extensions of the cortical tissue that project inw
D. D - Ureter

Hence, option (2) is correct.

97) Explain Question: The question is about the formation of kidney stones, specifically
the cause of their crystallization.
Concept: Kidney Stones, Crystallization
Solution: The correct answer is option 4: Crystallization of oxalates.

A. Kidney stones are primarily formed due to the crystallization of substances like calcium
oxalate or uric acid that precipitate in the kidneys. This process can cause the formation of
hard, painful stones.

Final Answer: 4. Crystallization of oxalates

98) Explain Question : In micturition, signal is initiated by ?

Concept : This question is based on micturition
Solution : In micturition, signal is initiated by Stretching of urinary Bladder.
Final Answer : option (2)

99) Explanation :

A. JGA: The JGA indirectly helps increase GFR and BP by releasing renin.
B. Ronin: Ronin directly initiates the RAAS pathway, leading to increased GFR and BP.
C. Both (1) & (2): This is the correct answer. Both the JGA (through renin release) and renin itself
play essential roles in increasing GFR and BP.
D. None of the above: Since option 3 is correct, this option is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (3) : Both (1) & (2). Both the JGA and renin contribute to
increasing GFR and BP through the RAAS pathway.

100) Explain Question: Identify the condition are indicative of diabetes mellitus ?
Solution:

A. Indicative Conditions of Diabetes Mellitus:

 B. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL

C. Random blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL with classic symptoms

D. 2-hour blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL after OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test)

E. HbA1c ≥ 6.5%

F. Presence of the 3 P's:

A. Polyuria – Frequent urination

B. Polydipsia – Increased thirst

C. Polyphagia – Increased hunger

G. Unexplained weight loss

H. Fatigue, blurred vision, slow wound healing

Final Answer: (4)

101)

NCERT Pg. No: 205

102)

NCERT, Pg. # 293

103)

NCERT Page # 208

104)

NCERT, Pg. # 293

105)

NCERT, Pg. # 293

 106)

NCERT - Pg. # 295

107)

Explain Question : correct regarding regulation of kidney function ?

Concept : This question is based on Regulation of kidney function.

Solution : An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus →

Neurohypophysis → ADH → Increases in H2O permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of
diuresis

Final Answer : option (2)

108)

NCERT, Pg. # 270

109)

NCERT Pg.# 191

110)

NCERT, Pg. # 272

111)

The correct answer is 1) 5.

A. Oxygen Delivery: Each 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of oxygen to

the tissues under normal physiological conditions. This means that while the blood carries a lot
of oxygen, only about 5% of it is released to the tissues during each circulation.

112) Explain Question : Total % of O2 transported by 'Hb' or RBC is ?

Concept : This question is based on Transport of oxygen.
Solution : 97% of O2 is Transported by Hb in the form of HbO2
Final Answer : option (2)

113)

Explanation :

Each gram of hemoglobin (Hb) can bind to 1.34 ml of oxygen (O₂).

In a normal healthy adult, there are about 15 grams of Hb per 100 ml of blood.
So, the total oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is:

1.34 ml/g × 15 g/100 ml = ~20.1 ml O₂ per 100 ml of blood

Final Answer : (1)

114)

NCERT, Pg. # 276

115) Explanation :
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity (containing the
heart and lungs) from the abdominal cavity (containing digestive organs, etc.). It plays a
crucial role in respiration by contracting and flattening during inhalation, creating space for
the lungs to expand.
The correct answer is (4) : Diaphragm

116)

NCERT, Pg. # 270

117) Explanation:
To identify the statement that is different or does not fit with the other statements regarding
the thoracic cavity and pleural membranes.
Solution:
The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining: This is incorrect. The
outer pleural membrane also known as the parietal pleura lines the thoracic. The inner
pleural membrane. (visceral pleura) is in contact with the lung surface, and the outer pleural
membrane (parietal pleura) is in contact with the thoracic lining. There the inner and outer
pleural membrane.
Conclusion:
This answer is option (3): The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining

118) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 275; para-5

119)

NCERT, Pg. # 277

120)

NCERT, Pg. # 271

121)

NCERT XI, Page # 187

122) Explain Question : Match the column.
Concept : This question is based on Respiration volume and capacities.
Solution :
1 – c – ii,
2 – d – iii,
3 – b – iv,
4–a–i
Final Answer : option (2)

123)

Question Explanation: Is pO₂ in atmosphere = 0.3 mmHg and pCO₂ in alveoli = 104 mmHg?
Concept: Exchange of gases
Solution: Assertion says pO₂ in atmosphere = 0.3 mmHg → wrong, it is 159 mmHg .
Reason says pCO₂ in alveoli = 104 mmHg → wrong, it is 40 mmHg .
So, both A and R are incorrect.
Final answer: 4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

124) NCERT Pg. # 208

125)

NCERT-XI Pg#133

126) NCERT Pg. # 209

127) NCERT Pg. # 210

128) NCERT Pg. # 214

129) NCERT Pg. # 218

130) NCERT Pg. # 222

131) NCERT Pg. # 218

132) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 222

133) NCERT (XIth) Pg.#223

134) Module-3, Page # 189

 135) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 216, (3rd Para)

136) NCERT XIth Pg no. # 214

137)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 208, 209

138) NCERT Pg.# 3.13 (c)

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 214

140) Explain Question : The question asks to identify which statements about the labeled
parts of the chloroplast (A, B, and C) are correct.
Concept : Where does Photosynthesis take place?
Solution:
A: Stroma lamellae: Only PS-I is present
B: Grana : Both PS-I and PS-II are present
C: Stroma : Site of enzymatic reactions synthesizing sugar (Calvin cycle)
So, the correct answer is: 4.
Final answer: option (4)

141) NCERT Pg # 212

142) NCERT XI Pg. # 212 (E) & (H)

143) NCERT Pg. # 142

144) NCERT Pg. # 215

145) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 217

146)

Explain Question: The question asks how many Calvin cycle turns, ATP, and NADPH
molecules are needed to produce one sucrose molecule in wheat (a C₃ plant).
Concept: C3 Cycle/ Calvin Cycle.
Solution:

A. Sucrose = Glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) + Fructose (C₆H₁₂O₆)

B. So, to produce 1 sucrose molecule, the plant needs to produce 2 hexose sugars (12 carbon
atoms total).

Thus, we need:
A. 12 turns of the Calvin cycle
B. 12 CO₂ fixed
C. 12 × 3 = 36 ATP
D. 12 × 2 = 24 NADPH
E. So, the correct answer is: Calvin cycles: 12; ATP:36 ; NADPH: 24

Final answer: 3

147)

NCERT-XI Pg # 208, 209, 215, 220, 223.

148) Nissle's granules are found in the cyton as well as the dendrites but are absent in axon

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231

150) Hint: Present in perikaryon

Sol.: Nissl's granules are made up of RER and ribosomes. Thus, they participate in protein
synthesis.
They are absent in axons of neurons.
They are found in dendrites and cyton.

151) > Half of the neural volume

152) Hint: Multipolar neurons are neurons with one axon and two or more dendrites.
Sol.: Based on the number of axon and dendrites, the neurons are of 3 types:
• Multipolar - 1 axon and 2 or more dendrites (found in the cerebral cortex)
• Bipolar- 1 axon and 1 dendrite (found in retina of eye)
• Unipolar - Cell body with 1 axon only (found in the embryonic stage)

153) Hint: Branch that includes sympathetic neural system.

Sol.: The CNS (Central Neural System) includes the brain and the spinal cord. The PNS
(Peripheral Neural System) is divided into two divisions called somatic neural system and
autonomic neural system.
The autonomic neural system is further classified into sympathetic and parasympathetic neural
system.

154) Neural cells

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231

156)
 The correct answer is Option 4: Microglial cell.

A. Microglia are the resident macrophages of the brain and spinal cord. They are part of the
immune system of the central nervous system (CNS).

157) The correct answer is 3. a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schwann cell, d-axon, e-myelin
sheath, f-Node of Ranvier
Let's break down the components of the neuron:
• Dendrites (a): These are short, branching fibers that receive signals from other neurons.
• Cell Body (b): This is the main part of the neuron, containing the nucleus and other
organelles.
• Schwann Cell (c): These cells wrap around the axon, forming the myelin sheath.
• Axon (d): This is a long, slender projection that transmits signals away from the cell body.
• Myelin Sheath (e): This is a fatty layer that insulates the axon and speeds up signal
transmission.
• Node of Ranvier (f): These are gaps between segments of the myelin sheath.

158) The correct answer is Option 4: Astrocyte.

Astrocytes are star-shaped glial cells that play a crucial role in forming the blood-brain
barrier. They create a tight seal between the blood vessels and the brain tissue, restricting the
passage of most substances from the bloodstream into the brain.

159) The correct answer is 4 Centriole.

A. Centrioles are small, cylindrical organelles that play a crucial role in cell division. They are
involved in the formation of the spindle fibers that separate chromosomes during mitosis (cell
division). Nerve cells (neurons) in mature mammals generally do not divide because they lack
centrioles.

160) Explain Question : Skeletal muscles are controlled by

Concept : This question is based on Skeletal muscles
Explanation : The somatic neural system sends motor impulses from the CNS to skeletal
muscles for voluntary movements.
Final answer : 4 – Somatic Neural system

161) Correct Answer: 1. Hydra

Explanation:

A. Hydra belongs to the phylum Cnidaria, which represents some of the simplest multicellular
animals. Their nervous system is a nerve net, a diffuse network of interconnected neurons
with no centralized control center like a brain. This is considered the most basic form of neural
organization.

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 232

163) Statement I: Correct. The central neural system (CNS) indeed comprises the brain and
the spinal cord and is responsible for information processing and control.
Statement II: Incorrect. Afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from tissues/organs to the
CNS, not from the CNS to the peripheral tissues/organs. It is the efferent fibres that transmit
regulatory impulses from the CNS to the peripheral tissues/organs.

164)

Module.6

165)

Module-2, Pg. # 43

166)

Module, Pg. # 44

167) Module-2, Pg. # 44

168)

Module, Pg. # 44

169)

Module-1, Pg. # 42

170)

Module, Pg. # 76

171) Module-2, Pg. # 45

172)

Module-2, Pg. # 47

173)

Module-2, Pg. # 46

174)

Module-2, Pg. # 45
175)

Module-2, Pg. # 43

176)

Module, Pg. # 44

177) Module, Pg. # 43, 44

178) Module-2, Pg. # 44, 45

179)

Module-2, Pg. # 46

180)

Module-2, Pg. # 46