READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 on pages 2 and 3.

Tunnelling under the Thames

The first tunnel ever to be built under a major river was the tunnel under London's River
Thames

At the beginning of the 19th century, the port of London was the busiest in the world.
Cargoes that had travelled thousands of miles and survived all the hazards of the sea
were unloaded on the banks of the Thames, only for their owners to discover that the
most frustrating portion of their journey lay ahead. Consignments intended for the
southern parts of Britain had to be lifted onto horse carts, pulled through the docks and
across London Bridge, built in the 12th century and as impractical as its early date
implies. By 1820, London Bridge had become the centre of the world's largest traffic
jam.

It was an intolerable situation, and it was clear that if private enterprise could build
another crossing closer to the docks, there would be good money to be made in tolls
paid by users. Another bridge was out of the question, as this would deny sailing ships
access to the city centre and ambitious men turned their thoughts to tunnelling beneath
the Thames instead. This was not such an obvious idea as it might appear. Although
increasing demand for coal had meant a great many tunnels had been dug in mines in
Britain, working methods remained primitive. Tunnels were dug by men with simple
tools, by candlelight. However, in 1807, a group of businessmen set themselves up as
the Thames Archway Company. Their ambition was to tunnel below the Thames, but
there was little to guide them as there had been no previous attempt to do this. Their
chief engineer was Richard Trevithick, designer of the world's first high-pressure steam
engine. His men made progress at the beginning, but then things began to go
disastrously wrong, with muddy soil pouring into the tunnel. Eventually, the Thames
Archway Company had had enough. Its funds were exhausted, Trevithick was sick from
exposure to the river water, and its efforts had proved only that a passage under the
river exceeded the limits of contemporary mining technology.

At that time, the only machines used in mines were pumps. It took a man of genius to
recognise that a different sort of machine was needed, a machine that could prevent the
roof and walls of a tunnel from collapsing. This man was Marc Brunel, a Frenchman
who had become one of the most prominent engineers in Britain. Not long after the
failure of the Thames Archway Company, Brunel saw a rotten piece of wood lying on
the riverbank. Examining the wood through a magnifying glass, he observed it was
infested with something that looked like a worm. Brunel realised that as it tunnelled
through the wood, it would push chewed wood into its mouth and digest it, then excrete
a hard substance that lined the new tunnel. Brunel realised that the worm's digging
technique could be adapted to produce a new way of tunnelling. His realisation led him
to invent a device that has been used in one form or another in most major tunnels built
since – the tunnelling shield. It consisted of a heavy iron frame that could be pushed
forward a few inches at a time. The front of the frame was made up of a series of iron
frames that could be folded back to allow miners to dig the ground ahead. Behind these
frames was a wall consisting of a series of iron plates pressed against the tunnel face
and supported on a set of horizontal wooden planks, that would prevent the face from
collapsing. It was a complex and rather cumbersome machine and not easy to use, but
it seemed that it would protect the miners from the worst of the river's water. Brunel's
team carefully examined earth samples taken from beneath the riverbed, and
subsequently decided to dig the tunnel close to the muddy river bottom, where he could
expect to find clay. This would be a more solid and safe substance to dig through than
the sand that was found deeper down.

Brunel began work on his tunnel in 1825, but the problems of such an operation soon
became apparent. Although the shield itself worked well, water began to drip into the
tunnel. This was more of an annoyance than a danger while the pump was working, but
this machine proved unreliable and sometimes failed altogether. When the pump broke
down, work had to stop as the tunnel quickly flooded. There were occasions when the
miners had to abandon their tools and flee for their lives. Even when Brunel's men were
able to work, they had to run the constant risk of the pumps failing. They also
complained of frequent headaches and dizziness, caused by the poor air quality. The air
underground was dirty and stale, contaminated due to the lack of an adequate
ventilation system. There were lighting problems too. Illuminating the tunnels by
candlelight was a constant challenge. Lamps give off only a very weak glow, and there
were a number of accidents because the miners could not see what they were doing.
Lastly, a number of Brunel's miners walked off the job because they could not tolerate
the excessive temperatures that developed in the cramped conditions underground.

Despite all these setbacks, the tunnel finally emerged on the opposite river bank on
August 12, 1841. Brunel's triumph, however, was only partial. The small payment per
person made by the thousands of visitors who flocked to see the marvel hardly paid
even a penny per foot of the tunnel's construction costs. Brunel had gone bankrupt long
before the project was completed, and the government loan he had required to
complete the project had to be paid back with interest. As a result, there was not
enough funding to make it accessible to horse-drawn vehicles, as intended. Instead, the
passageways were filled with souvenir sellers and entertainers. In the end, the tunnel
was closed two years later, used at night, before it was finally closed entirely and fell
into dereliction for decades.

It was only when the underground railway came to London in the 1880s that the
Thames Tunnel found and achieved a measure of real usefulness. It was bought in
1869 by the East London Railway, who found it to be in such excellent condition that it
was immediately pressed into service as a route for passenger trains heading east. The
tunnel became, and remains, part of the London Underground network.
Questions 1-8

In boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet, write

• TRUE if the statement agrees with the information given in Reading Passage 17
• FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
• NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. In the early 19th century, the port of London was considered a safer destination
than other ports.
2. London Bridge provided quick access for cargo being sent to southern Britain.
3. It was generally believed that a new river crossing would be profitable.
4. Building a second bridge crossing was initially considered to be the best solution.
5. It was believed that coal could be found under the River Thames.
6. The Thames Archway Company was the first group to try tunnelling below the
Thames.
7. Some of Trevithick's men were injured during a mudslide at his tunnel.
8. The Thames Archway Company ran out of money to finance the tunnel project.

Questions 9-13
Complete the notes below
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.
Marc Brunel's tunnel

Preparing to build the tunnel

• Brunel noticed how a kind of 9worm

………….. made its tunnels in wood.
• Brunel created a device called a tunnelling shield, to protect people working
under the river.
• Brunel planned to build a shallow tunnel so the earth would have a higher
content of 10 …………..

Problems faced by miners

• There were frequent floods caused by mechanical breakdowns.

• The miners suffered from 11 ………….. because of pollution in the tunnels.
• Lighting problems led to several 12 …………..
• Some workers quit because of the high temperatures in the tunnel.

After the tunnel was finished

• The tunnel was finally completed in 1841.

• Brunel did not have enough money to repay his debt to the 13 …………..
• The tunnel was abandoned until the 1880s.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on pages 6 and 7.

Children’s comprehension of television advertising

A In 1874, long before the advent of television, the English Parliament passed a law to
protect children 'from their own lack of experience and from the wiles of pushing
tradesmen and moneylenders' (James, 1965). The act is one of the earliest
governmental policies to address children's vulnerability to commercial exploitation
and was produced before major corporations earned huge profits by marketing
products directly to children. Yet the issues underlying this 19th-century policy remain
much the same in the 21st century.

B Television has long been the predominant medium that advertisers have chosen for
marketing products to children. It is estimated that the average child sees more than
40,000 television commercials a year, most of which are 15 to 30 seconds in length
(Kunkel, 2001). According to another estimate, children aged 14 years and under
make $ 424 billion in direct purchases and influence $ 4190 billion in family purchases,
underscoring the high stakes involved (McNeal, 1998). In addition, companies now
recognize that brand loyalty built at an early age may reap economic rewards over a
child's lifetime (McNeal, 1987).

C A number of factors have contributed to an unprecedented growth in both the

amount and type of advertising directed at children. First and foremost among these
are changes in the media environment. In decades past, television programming
targeted at children was limited and relegated to time slots unpopular with their
parents, such as Saturday mornings (Turow, 1981). Today, the number channels
received in the average US home has escalated with the diffusion of cable television
and satellite technologies. In this new multichannel era, there are numerous national
program services devoted exclusively to children. Naturally, these channels deliver
significant amounts of child-oriented marketing messages. Although parents may be
pleased that their youngsters can now watch children's programming at any hour of
the day they may not recognize that such viewing opportunities entail much greater
exposure to advertising than any previous generation of youth has experienced.

D Approximately 80% of all advertising targeted at children falls within four product
categories: toys, cereals, candies, and fast-food restaurants (Kunkel et al, 1992).
Commercials are highly effective at employing specific features designed to attract
children's attention. For example, they use the strategy of introducing unique sound
effects and rapidly moving images (Greer et al, 1982). The other most common
persuasive strategy employed in advertising to children is to associate product with
playfulness and happiness, rather than to provide any actual product - related
information (Kunkel et al, 1992). For example, a commercial featuring Ronald
McDonald dancing, singing and smiling in McDonald's restaurants without any
mention of the actual food products available reflects a playful or happy theme. This
strategy is also found frequently with cereal ads, which often include cartoon
characters to help children identify the product. In contrast, most commercials fail to
mention even the major grain used in each cereal.

F Another common feature of advertising to children is the use of product disclosures

such as 'batteries not included' or 'each part sold separately. Studies make clear that
young children do not comprehend the intended meaning of these disclaimers. For
example, fewer than one in four kindergarten through second grade children could
grasp the meaning of 'some assembly required' in a commercial. In contrast, the use
of child-friendly language such as' you have to put it together' more than doubled the
proportion of children who understood the qualifying message (Lieber et al, 1977). The
phrase 'part of a balanced breakfast' is also a frequent disclosure included in most
cereal ads to combat the concern that sugared cereal holds little nutritional value for
children. Research shows that most children below age 7 years have no idea what the
term 'balanced breakfast' means(Palmer & McDowell, 1981). Rather than informing
young viewers about the importanceof a nutritious breakfast, this common disclaimer
actually leaves many children with the misimpression that cereal alone is sufficient for
a meal. This pattern of employing creative terminology in advertising content so as to
obscure certain information that might be unhelpful to the sponsor 16 is a long
standing practice that often misleads the consumer (Geis, 1982).

F Very young children do not recognize that there are two fundamentally different
categorises of television content: programs and commercials. Most children below the
age under 4 or 5 exhibit low awareness of the concept of commercials, frequently
explaining them as if they were a scene in the program itself. Once this confusion
diminishes, children first recognize the difference between programs and commercials
based on either affective ('commercials are funnier than TV programs') or perceptual
('commercials are short and programs are long') cues (Blatt et al, 1972).

G Although most children's programs indicate that a commercial break is coming (e.g.
by saying 'We'll be right back after these messages'), research reveals that these
'separators' generally do not help children to recognize advertising content (Palmer &
McDowell, 1979). This likely occurs because they are not perceptually distinct from the
adjacent programming that surrounds them; in fact, many separators feature
characters that appear in the same show that the commercial has just interrupted.
When an ad includes one of the characters featured in a program, this is known as
host-selling. This type of advertising makes the task of discriminating between
program and commercial content particularly difficult for young children (Kunkel, 1988)
and is thus restricted in the US by the Federal Communications Commission during
children's programs.

H In sum, because young children lack the cognitive skills and abilities of older
children and adults, they do not comprehend commercial messages in the same way
as more mature audiences, and are therefore uniquely susceptible to advertising
influence.

Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A-H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

14 a description of recent innovations in TV broadcasting

15 a mention of the main goods and services advertised to children
16 a reference to a current limitation on television advertising aimed at children
17 two techniques used to encourage children to watch TV commercials
18 a type of advertisement that may make children believe the opposite of what is true

Questions 19 - 22
Look at the following statements (Questions 19-22) and the list of researchers below.
Match each statement with the correct researcher(s), A-H.
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

19 Advertisments often aim to teach children that a brand is fun rather than telling
them about what is being sold.
20 Originally children's programmes were only broadcast when adults rarely watched
TV.
21 Children have a significant impact on what adults buy.
22 Tests showed that children can follow information if simple words are used.

A Kunkel
B McNeal
C Turow
D Kunkel et al
E Greer et al
F Liebert et al
G Palmer & McDowell
H Geis
Questions 23-26
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

How very young children perceive commercials.

Children below the age of 4 or 5 do not understand the difference between television
programmes and commercials. In fact, these children often mistake an advertisement
for a 23...………….from the programme they are watching. This is despite the fact that
children's TV programmes usually include announcements called 24.............. to show
that there is going to be a commercial break. The problem is made more difficult
because of a technique called 25..............whereby a person or cartoon figure from the
programme is used to sell a product during the commercial break. From the age of 4
or 5, children begin to realise that commercials are different from TV programmes: for
example, they may than recognise that there is a difference in length of that
advertisements are 26……………….than actual TV.
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.

BUSINESS INNOVATION

As new ‘wonder products’ are getting harder and harder to find, what should
companies do to survive in today’s ever more competitive markets?

The Oxford English Dictionary defines innovation as 'making changes to something

established'. Invention, by contrast, is the act of 'coming upon or finding; discovery'.
Revolutionary 'inventions' of 20th-century US firms include, for example, the safety
razor, the hydraulic brake, and DNA fingerprinting. However, as Adrian Slywotsky of
Mercer Management Consulting says. 'In most industries, truly differentiating new-
product breakthroughs are becoming increasingly rare'. And as 'blockbuster' novel
products become steadily more elusive, big companies would do well to focus instead
on making lots of small things better.

Unfortunately, big companies often have big problems with innovation. 'Innovators try
to change the status quo', says Bhaskar Chakravorti of the Monitor Group, 'which is
why markets tend to resist them". Innovations frequently disrupt the way companies
do things (and may have been doing them for years). And it is not just markets that
are nervous of innovation. Michael Hammer, co-author of 'Re-engineering the
Corporation', cites the case of a PC-maker that set out to imitate Dell's famous 'Build
to Order' system of computer assembly. The company found its attempts were
frustrated by both its head of manufacturing, who feared for his job, and its head of
marketing, who did not want to upset his existing retail outlets. So the proposal got
nowhere, and Dell continued to dominate the business.

Clayton Christensen, a Harvard Business School Professor, describes how disruptive

innovations - simpler, cheaper and more convenient products that seriously upset the
stajus quo - often herald the rapid downfall of thriving, long-standing businesses. This,
it is widely recognised, is because most such organisations are designed to grow
through a series of sustaining innovations - the sort which simply improve on existing
products for existing markets.

William Baumol, professor at New York • University, argues that large companies have
been learning important lessons from the history of innovation. Most have bôth cut
back and redirected their Research and Development spending in recent years.
Innovation by big companies is now based less on the discoveries of white-coated
scientists, and more on incremental improvements in the processes that constitute
daily operations.
According to marketing specialist Vijay Vishwanath, companies also need to adjust to
the ongoing fragmentation of markets. Once-uniform mass markets are breaking up
into countless 'niches', in whith everything has to be customised for a small group of
consumers. Looking for blockbusters in such a world is a daunting task. Another
problem, according to Chakravorti, lies in the marketing of innovations. Too many
executives are still stuck with the strategies used to sell Kodak's first camera 120
years ago, when the product was so revolutionary that the company could forget about
competition for at least a decade. Today, rival products can be rushed onto the market
at speeds which would have been unimaginable in those days.

Companies that fail to come up with headline-hitting new products should not despair.
'There are plenty of other, albeit less glamorous, areas where innovation can take
place, says Erik Brynjolfsson of the MIT Sloan School of Management. He claims that
the roots of the USA's productivity surge originate in 'a genuine revolution in how
American companies are using information technology to reinvent their business
processes from top to bottom'.

Hammer highlights several instances where firms, have added considerably to their
shareholder value through what he calls operational innovations - creativity in their
business processes. Notable among these is the American retail giant Wal-Mart. While
superficially mundane, their pioneering idea of 'cross-docking - shifting merchandise
off trucks from suppliers and straight onto trucks heading for stores - has been
fundamental to the company's ability to offer low prices, the platform for its
outstanding success.

Companies are also being encouraged to embrace strategic innovations, following the
example of such firms as Southwest Airlines, a low-cost American regional carrier,
whose creative strategies and shrewd timing won it a victory over its ailing competitor
US Airways. The Swedish packaging company Tetra Pak also used this style of
innovation, by moving away from delivering ready-made containers for customers into
providing machinery and supplying dedicated materials for them to make their own
packaging. This strips out many costs from the process, and also makes it very
diffigult for the customer to switch suppliers. Like Southwest Airlines, they achieved
success through strategic innovations alone, with little innovation in either the
underlying technology or the product sold.

In his book 'How to Grow When Markets Don't', Slywotsky and his co-author Richard
Wise recommend what they call demand innovations. A few far-sighted organisations
such as the French industrial gas company Air Liquide have found success not - as in
the case of strategic innovations - by meeting existing demand in a new way, but by
discovering new forms of demand and adapting to supply the products or services
required. Air Liquide had been areading supplier of industrial gases until the early
1990s, when gas became a commodity and their operational income plunged.
Realising the value of the skills they bad gained over the decades, the company
became a supplier not only of gas, but also of the management services to
accompany it. Within a short time their profits rose again.
There are certain things that manager can do to make innovations like these happen
within their organisations. For example, projects with potential should be rapidly hived
off into independent business units, away from the smothering influence of the status
quo. The ultimate outcome of any one innovation may still be unpredictable, the
process from which it emerges is not.
Questions 27-31
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27 In order to stay in the market, companies today need to concentrate their efforts on
finding genuinely original products.
28 Disruptive innovations often pose serious threats to even successful, well-
established companies.
29 A key stage in the development of sustaining innovations involves research into the
strengths and weaknesses of competitors' products.
30 Manufacturers today are able to compete with innovations over shorter time
periods than in the past.
31 It is hard to tell what the long-term result of any innovation might be.

Questions 32-35

Look at the following points mentioned in the passage (Questions 32-35) and the list of
people below.
Match each point with the correct person, A-E
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

32 The need for companies to cater for ever more specialised sets of customers
33 An explanation for the recent upward trend in the US economy
34 An example of company personnel who resisted innovation
35 A shift in the way many companies are organising their budgets

A Bhaskar Chakravorti
B Michael Hammer
C WiLlam Baumol
D Vijay Vishwanath
E Erik Brynjolfsson
Questions 36-40
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

Type of Definition Example Company

innovations
Operational Being innovative in Moving goods by Wal-Mart
innovations the way exisitng system known as
business 36 ……….. 37 …………….
are carried out
38 …………….. Developing new Giving customers Tetra Park
innovations appraoches to means to
meeting needs of manufacture
existing markets products
themselves
39 ………………… Identifying and Offering customers Air Liquide
meeting new types 40 ………………. to go
of customer needs with the main
products
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 on pages 1 and 2.

Katherine Mansfield

Katherine Mansfield was a modernist writer of short fiction who was born and brought
up in New Zealand

Katherine Mansfield Beauchamp Murry was born in 1888, into a prominent family in
Wellington, New Zealand. She became one of New Zealand's best-know writers, using
the pen name of Katherine Mansfield. The daughter of a banker, and born into a
middle-class family, she was also a first cousin of Countess Elizabeth von Arnim, a
distinguished novelist in her time. Mansfield had two older sisters and a younger
brother. Her father, Harold Beauchamp, went on to become the chairman of the Bank
of New Zealand. In 1893, the Mansfield family moved to Karori, a suburb of Wellington,
where Mansfield would spend the happiest years of her childhood; she later used her
memories of this time as an inspiration for her Prelude story.

Her first published stories appeared in the High School Reporter and the Wellington
Girls' High School magazine in 1898 and 1899. In 1902, she developed strong feelings
for a musician who played the cello, Amold Trowell, although her feelings were not, for
the most past, returned. Mansfield herself was an accomplished cellist, having
received lessons from Trowell's father. Mansfield wrote in her journals of felling
isolated to some extent in New Zealand, and, in general terms of her interest in the
Maori people (New Zealand's native people), who were often portrayed in a
sympathetic light in her later stories, such as How Pearl Button Was Kidnapped.

She moved to London in 1903, where she attended Queen's College, along with her
two sisters. Mansfield recommenced playing the cello, an occupation that she
believed, during her tome at Queen's, she would take up professionally. She also
began contributing to the college newspaper, with such a dedication to it that she
eventually became its editor. She was particularly interested in the works of the
French writers of this period and in the 19th-century British writer, Oscar Wilde, and
she was appreciated amongst fellow students at Queen's forher lively and charismatic
approach to life and work. She met follow writer Ida Baker, a South African, at the
college, and the pair became lifelong friends. Mansfield did not actively support the
suffragette movement in the UK. Women in New Zealand had gained the right to vote
in 1893.
Mansfield first began journeying into the other parts of Europe in the period 1903-
1906, mainly to Belgium and Germany. After finishing her schooling in England, she
returned to her New Zealand home in 1906, only then beginning to write short stories
in a serious way. She had several works published in Australia in a magazine called
Native Comparison, which was herfirst paid writing work, and by this time she had her
mind set on becoming a professionalwriter. It was also the first occasion on which
she used the pseudonym "K. Mansfield".

Mansfield rapidly grew discontented with the provincial New Zealand lifestyle, and
with her family. Two years later she headed again in London. Her father sent her an
annual subsidy of €100 for the rest of her life. In later years, she would express both
admiration and disdain for New Zealand in her journals.

In 1911, Mansfield met John Middleton Murry, the oxford scholar and editor of the
literary magazine Rhythm. They were later to marry in 1918. Mansfield became a co-
editor of Rhythm, which was subsequently called the The Blue Review, in which more of
her works were published. She and Murry lived in various houses in England and
briefly in Paris. The Blue Review failed to gain enough readers and was no longer
published. Their attempt to set up as writers in Paris was cut short by Murry's
bankruptcy, which resulted from the failure of this and other journals. Life back in
England meant frequently changed addressed and very limited funds.

Between 1915 and 1918, Mansfield moved between England and Bandoi, France. She
and Murry developed close contact with other well-known writers of the time such as
DH Lawrence, Bertrand Russell and Aldous Huxley. By October 1918 Mansfield had
become seriously ill; she had been diagnosed with tuberculosis and was advised to
enter a sanatorium. She could no longer spend writers in [Link] the autumn of
1918 she was so ill that she decided to go to Ospedale in Italy. It was the publication
of Bliss and Other Stories in 1920 that was to solidify Mansfield's reputation as a
writer.

Mansfield also spent time in Menton, France, as the tenant of her father's cousin at
"The Villa Isola Bella". There she wrote eight stories including Miss Britt and The
Daughters of the Later Colonel, the latter of which she pronounced to be " ...the only
story that satisfies me to any extent".

Mansfield produced a great deal of work in the final years of her life, and much of her
prose and poetry remained unpublished at her death in 1923. After her death, her
husband, Murry, took on the task of editing and publishing her works. His efforts
resulted in two additional volumes of short stories. The Doves' Nest and Something
Childish, published in 1923 and 1924 respectively, the publication of her Poems as well
as a collection of critical writings (Novels and Novelist) and a number of editions of
Mansfield's previously unpublished letters and journals.
Questions 1 - 6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1 - 6 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 The name Katherine Mansfield, that appears on the writer's book, was exactly the
same as her origin name.
2 Mansfield won a prize for a story she wrote for the High School Reporter.
3 How Pearl Button Was Kidnapped portrayed Maori people in a favorable way.
4 When Mansfield was at Queen's College, she planned to be a professional writer.
5 Mansfield was unpopular with the other students at Queen's College.
6 In London, Mansfield showed little interest in politics.

Questions 7 - 13
Complete the notes below
Choose ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer
Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet

Katherine Mansfield's adult years

• 7 ……………………….
- moved from England back to New Zealand
- first paid writing work was in a publication based in 8 ……………
- her 9 …………….and the New Zealand way of life made her feel dissatisfied

• 1908
- returned to London

• 1911 – 1919

Met John Middleton Murry in 1911

- 10 …………… perverted Mansfield and Murry from staying together in Paris
- spent time with distinguished 11 ..................
- from 1916, tuberculosis restricted the time she spent in Londo

1920
- her 12 …………..as consolidated when Bliss and Other Stories was published
- wrote several stories at "Villa Isola Bella"

1923 - 1924
Mansfield's 13.. ………………… published more of her works after her death
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on pages 6 and 7.

The Tasmanian Tiger

The Tasmanian tiger, or thylocine, was a carnivorous marsupial (a meat-eating

mammal which carries its young in a pouch). It was given the name 'tiger' because it
had striped fur, and because it was ferocious. Between 24 million and 15 million years
ago, many types of thylocine roamed across Australia, their powerful jaws playing a
role in maintain a balance in the ecosystems of their day. Some species were fox-
sized, while others were barely the size of kittens.

But when a period of climate change cooled Australia about 12 million years ago, the
numbers of these ancient thylocines began to decline. By about 3 million years ago,
only one species was left. About 4,000 years ago, these vanished completely from
Australia mainland, so that Tasmania, a large islaid to the south of Australia, was then
the last remaining place where thylocines existed. They ruled the animal life of that
island unchallenged until Europeans with sheep, dogs and a great indifference to
native flora and fauna, seem to have brought about their extinction. In 1936, the last
captive Tasmanian tiger died in Hobart Zoo. Since then, many expeditions have
searched for tigers in the Tasmanian bush, but no definitive evidence has been found.
Despite this, there are many who keep searching.

In 1981, Dutch- born zoologist Hans Naarding was in Tasmania conducting a survey
of Latham's snipe, a species of endangered bird. One night he saw an animal in the
light from the searchlight mounted on his vehicle. He described it as about the size of
a large dog, but with slightly sloping hindquarfers and a fairly thick tail continuing
straight on from its backbone. He said that it had 12 distinct stripes on its back,
running down to the point where the tail began. He reported the sighting to Director of
Tasmania's National Parks. When the news broke, said Naarding, 1 was besieged by
televisions crews, including four or [Link] Japan, and others from the United
Kingdom, Germany, New Zealand and South America.

Government and private search parties combed the region, but no further sightings
were made. The tiger, as always, had escaped to its lair - a place that many insist
exists only in the imagination. Others disagree, there have been more than 4,000
claimed sightings of the animal since it supposedly died out, and the average number
of claims reported to the authorities each year is now 150. So is it out there? Even
experts differ in opinion.

Randolph Rose, Associate professor of Zoology at the University of Tasmania, says

that he dreamed of seeing a thylocine, but is now convinced that his dream will go
unfulfilled. The consensus among conservationists is that any animal with a population
base of less than 1,000 is headed for extinction within 60 years.
'Sixty years ago, le says, 'there was only thylocine that we know of, and that was in
Hobart Zoo. Take it from me, the tiger is gone.' But Dr David Pemberton, curator of
zoology at the Tasmanian Museum, states that, despite scientific thinking that a
relatively large number of animals is required to sustain a population, 'the Florida
panther is down to a dozen or so animals, and, while it does have some inbreeding
problems, is still ticking along! After all, animals can be notoriously elusive. The
strange fish known as the coelacanth, with its ' proto legs', was thought to have died
out with dinosaurs 700 million years ago until a specimen was dragged to the surface
in shark net off the coast of South Africa in 1938.

Wildlife biologist Nick Mooney has unenviable task of investing all so-called sightings
of the tiger. It was Mooney who was first consulted in late February 2005 about
authenticity of new digital photographic images of a thylocine allegedly taken by a
tourist. On face value, Mooney says, this particular account of a sighting and the
photographs submitted as proof amount to one of the most convincing cases for the
species' survival that he has seen. Many other 'sightings' have been hoaxes, and
many sincere seekers are victims of obsession. 'It is a blind optimism that something
is, rather than cynicism that something isn't, Mooney says. "if something crosses the
road, it's not a case of "I wonder what that was?" Rather, it is a case of "That's a
thylocine!"

However, Mooney treats all sightings on face value. ' I never try to embarrass people,
he says, '.. but the fact that I don't pack the car immediately after they telephone can
often be taken as ridicule. Obsessive characters get angry that someone in my
position is not out there when they think they thylocine is there.

Hans Naarding, whose sighting of striped animal two decades ago was the highlight of
a lifetime of animal spotting, remains puzzled by the time and money people waste on
tiger searches. He says resources would be better applied to saving another
endangered animal, the Tasmanian devil, and helping declining migratory bird
populations. Could the thylocine still be out there? 'Sure,' Naarding says. I know the
vast south-west wilderness of Tasmania well. They could survive ... [But] if this is the
case, it will not be long before they do disappear completely. Naarding believes that
any discovery of surviving thylocines would be 'rather pointless'. 'How do you bring a
species back from extinction?' he asks. 'What could you do with it? If there are
thylocines out there, they are better off right where they are.'
Question 14-18
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passge for
each answer.
Write your answer in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

The thylocine was a dog-like animal which had a 14………….... coat and was
carnivorous. It was orginally spread widely throughout the mainland of 15……………..
that area around 16 ..................ago because of climate change.

In the end, thylocines were found only on the island of 17……… , until the arrival of
18………………... with their farming pratices brought about a drastic reduction in
thylocine numbers. The last one is thought to have died in Hobart Zoo in 1936.

Question 19-24
Look at the following statemes (questions 19-24) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D.
Wirte the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

19 There is no longer any hope of fidning a surving Tasmanian tiger.

20 It would be prefarable not to disturb any surviving Tasmanian tigers.
21 Many who claim to have seen Tasmanian tigers are not objective witnesses.
22 Expert estimates of numbers needed to ensure species survival may be inaccruate.
23 There is a great deal of international interest in tasmanian tiger stories.
24 Some fresh evidence provided by a visitor to Tasmania seems credible.

A Hans Naarding
B Randolph Rose
C David pemberton
D Nick Mooney
Questions 25 and 26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 25 and 26 on your answer sheet.

25 Has Naarding's sighting of a Tasmanian tiger resulted in

A the capture of the tiger.

B an extensive follow-up.
C many other sightings.
D the death of the tiger.

26 The example of coelacanth is used to show that

A new animal species are still evolving.

B animals can possess surprising phyical characteristics.
C species of sea animals can be saved from extinction.
D opinions regarding extinction of animal species can be mistaken.
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Question 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.

The art of deception

Do tiny changes of facial expression show whether someone is telling lies?

Forty years ago, the research psychologist Dr Paul Ekman was addressing a group of
young psychiatrists in training when he was asked a question, the answer to which has
kept him busy ever since. Suppose the group wanted to know, a particular patient
swears they are telling the truth. They look and sound sincere. So here is the question:
is there any way you can be sure they are telling the truth? Ekman did not know the
answer then, but wanted to find out.

As part of his research, he had already filmed a series of 12-minute interviews with
psychiatric patients. In a subsequent conversation, one of the patients told him that she
had lied to him. So, Ekman sat and looked at the film but saw nothing noteworthy. Then
he slowed it down and looked again. Then he slowed it even further. And suddenly,
there, across just two frames of the film, he saw it: an intense expression of extreme
anguish. It lasted less than a 15th of a second, but once he had spotted the first
expression, he soon found three more examples in that same interview. He termed his
discovery "micro-expression: very rapid intense demonstrations of emotion that the
subject intended to be concealed.

Over the course of the next four decades, Ekman successfully demonstrated a
proposition first suggested by Charles Darwin: that the ways in which we express rage,
disgust, contempt, fear, surprise, happiness and sadness are universal. The facial
muscles triggered by those seven basic emotions are, he has shown, essentially
standard, regardless of language and culture, from the US to Japan and Brazil to Papua
New Guinea. What is more, expressions of emotion are impossible to suppress and,
particularly when we are lying, micro-expressions of powerfully felt emotions will
inevitably flit across our face before we get the chance to stop them.

Fortunately for liars, most people will fail to spot these fleeting signals of inner torment.
Of the 15,000 Ekman has tested, only 50 people, whom he calls "naturals", have been
able to do it. But given a little more training, Ekman says, almost anyone can develop
the skill. He should know, since these tests were completed in the mid- 1980s and the
first publication of his research, he has been called in by the FBI and CIA (among
countless more law-enforcement and other agencies around the world), not just to solve
cases, but to teach them how to use his technique for themselves. He has held
workshops for defense and prosecution lawyers, health professionals, even jealous
spouses, all of them wanting to know exactly when someone is not being 100 percent
candid.

Most recently, Ekman's research has resulted in a new television series about the
exploits of the fictional Dr Cal Lightman, a scientist who studies involuntary body
language to discover not only if you are lying. But why might you have been motivated
to do so? According to the publicity blurb, Lightman is a human lie detector, even more
accurate than a polygraph test. Ekman concedes he was skeptical when the producer
first approached him with the idea of turning his life's work into a TV series, and initially
would have stopped the project if he could. In particular, he was fearful that the show
would exaggerate the effectiveness of his techniques and create the quite inaccurate
impression among audiences that criminals could no longer hope to get away with lying.
In the worst-case scenario, he was concerned about unfair convictions, that one day
someone not properly trained in his techniques might be sitting on a jury and wrongly
find someone guilty of a crime simply on the basis of a television programme.

In the end though, he was won over because the series is unusual in several respects.
It is the first time, as far as Ekman is aware, that a commercial TV drama has been
based on the work of just one scientist. That scientist is also deeply involved in the
project, talking through plot ideas and checking five successive drafts of each script to
ensure details are correct. He was also impressed with the producer's manifestly
serious and well-intentioned reasons for making the programme. Now that the first
series has been completed, he believes probably 80-90 per cent of the show is based
on fact and that's good enough for what is. After all, a drama, not a documentary.

Ekman, incidentally, professes to have been a terrible liar ever since he was a small boy
and observes that the ability to detect a lie and the ability to lie successfully are
completely unrelated. He has been asked by people running for high office if he could
teach them to become more credible with the public but has always refused to use his
skills in that way on ethical grounds. He also insists that there are various kinds of lies.
A "true" lie can be identified by having two essential characteristics: there must be a
deliberate intent to mislead and there must be no notification that this is what is
occurring. This means that an actor or a poker player isn't a true liar. They are supposed
to deceive you, it's part of the game, and the same is true of flattery. He prefers to focus
on the kinds of lies where the liar would be in grave trouble if they were found out, and
where the target would feel properly aggrieved if they knew.
Questions 27 - 31

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet

27 According to the writer, Ekman became interested in lying after a question from his
A peers.
B patients.
C students.
D teachers.

28 The writer refers to the 12-minute interviews in order to

A illustrate how frequently patients lie.
B describe the origins of Ekman's theories.
C compare Ekman's research to previous studies.
D show how patients behaviour is affected by filming.

29 What is the writer's point in the third paragraph?

A Micro-expressions are common to all people.
B Recent research has refuted an old idea.
C With practice we can learn to control our micro-expression.
D Human society is too complex to allow for generalisations.

30 What are we told about Ekman's conclusions from his tests?

A It's natural for people to lie.
B Few untrained people can detect lying.
C Most liars suffer from periods of depression.
D All of his subjects were trained to identify micro- expressions.

31 What point does the writer make about Ekman's techniques in the fourth paragraph?
A They take a decade to teach.
B They have been in great demand.
C They have aroused the suspicions of some agencies.
D They can be used by a limited range of occupations.
 Questions 32-36

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-l, below

Write the correct letter, A-l, in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet

The television series based on Ekman's work

A new TV series based on Ekman's work features a hero named Lightman, who detects
lies. Initially, Ekman was unenthusiastic about the TV project because he feared the
possibility of encouraging viewers' 32 ....................................... For example, he was
worried that one day the programme could result in 33.......................... not being carried
out. Ultimately though, he has given the show his blessing because he is not aware of
any other comparable programme based on a single person's 34..................................
The 35......................... of the show's producer have been another pleasant surprise
considering the genre of the programme. Ekman is happy with the show's overall
36.............................................

A consequences B crimes C false beliefs

D mo0ves E jus0ce F accuracy
G ac0ng H research I ra0ngs

Question 37-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

37 Ekman regrets the lies he told as a child.

38 People who are good at lying tend to be good at detecting lies.
39 Ekman has worked with poker players to help them lie more convincingly.
40 Ekman is more interested in the types of lies with serious consequences.
READING PASSAGE 2
Achieving a Work–life Balance

Research suggests that working fewer hours may be beneficial

A Anthropologists calculate that in the Stone Age, approximately one to two million years ago,
the ancestors of modern humans worked on average two or three hours a day hunting and
gathering food. This amount of labour was all that was necessary for survival. Today, it’s not
uncommon to work 50–60 hours a week, and sometimes more. At the same time, there is a
substantial body of international research showing that levels of work-related stress have never
been higher. However, psychologist Dr Gina McDowell argues that the problem of stress caused
by working too many hours still doesn’t receive sufficient recognition and ought to be addressed
with greater commitment by executives, employees and academics. Dr McDowell is one of many
calling for a better work–life balance: spending an appropriate amount of time at work, but
leaving sufficient hours in the day to enjoy family, friends and recreations.

B Perhaps leading the search for work–life balance are technology companies, who frequently
allow employees greater flexibility in everything from working hours and dress code to office
design. Global tech giant MEdia operates what it calls the ‘20% scheme’: its engineers are free to
use 20% of their working week (one full day) in any way they want. Ryan Schmidt, the director
of human resources at MEdia, says that ‘Productivity in the economy generally has increased
significantly over the last 50 years but there’s a common perception in the workforce that
standards of living have not kept pace. Our company intends to turn that around.’ Business
analyst Carla Deng has made a study of MEdia’s 20% scheme and says the results are
overwhelmingly positive. Says Deng, ‘Our research found that when employees have greater
individual choice and responsibility for their work time, they still devote some of those “free”
hours to fulfilling their normal working roles. And they also feel a lot happier.’

C An alternative approach taken by some other American companies is the four-day week.
Ordinarily, Americans work eight hours a day, five days a week, making 40 hours in total. In a
four-day week, they work four 10-hour days instead, still completing 40 hours in total but having
three days off. In general, several studies have shown benefits, including reduced stress,
increased productivity and more fulfilled employees. However, there may also be downsides,
according to Dean Hazel, a professor of economics. For example, customers may expect a
certain employee to be present five days a week and feel disappointed when they are not
available. ‘The truth is that such a four-day week has many attractions but it will not be
appropriate in every instance,’ says Professor Hazel. ‘It depends very much on the company
concerned, its size, internal structure and the nature of its relationships with customers, partners
and suppliers.’

D Indeed, some commentators question the very idea of work–life balance. Faisal Hadi, a
lecturer in sociology, argues that the term work–life balance implies that the two represent
distinct aspects of life that are easily separable. But in fact, for many of us ‘work’ and ‘life’
intrude on each other all the time and trying to ‘balance’ them precisely represents a goal that
can never be achieved. ‘This term work–life balance has become a cliché,’ says Hadi. ‘In reality,
life is an intricate mix of work and leisure and the relationship between the two has so many
strands that they cannot be neatly divided. The idea of work– life balance as it is often
understood has limited value.’

E However, a recent experiment has certainly challenged this idea. Employees at the New
Zealand company involved worked four eight-hour days a week, but were paid for five. The
experiment was conducted at Certified Life, a firm which has sold insurance for more than six
decades. At the end of the experiment, 78% of employees felt they were able to manage their
work–life balance, up from 54%, when working a standard 40-hour week. The 240 employees at
Certified Life completed surveys at the beginning and end of the experiment to provide
information for the study. The employees themselves worked out how all the necessary tasks
could be completed within deadlines while working fewer hours, and were then responsible for
implementing those decisions. Lead researcher Dr Hannah Graham says that the experiment
produced such positive results partly because employees were given a role in decision-making
throughout it.

F The New Zealand experiment also showed a 7% drop in stress levels when working fewer
hours, without any drop in productivity. The chief executive of Certified Life, Tane Robinson,
says that the four-day week boosted the firm’s reputation and made it easier to retain staff who
might otherwise have moved on. Furthermore, cooperation between employees was seen to
improve significantly when working shorter hours and team cohesion was significantly
enhanced, according to the supervisors. Quite apart from the benefits at Certified Life, Dr
Graham also suggests that such schemes might also address the issue of congestion in major
cities by restricting the numbers going to work each day. Roland Gillespie, workplace relations
minister in the New Zealand government, described the findings as ‘enormously encouraging’
and said that he was keen to see businesses experiment with similar new and improved work
models. Meanwhile, Certified Life has plans to see the four-day week implemented long term. It
may become an initiative that is replicated in other companies.

Questions 14 – 17
The text has six paragraphs (A – F). Which paragraph contains the following information?
Choose the correct paragraph (A – F).

14 The claim that one workplace initiative may not be suitable for all businesses.
15 An estimate of how much time ancient humans spent working.
16 A reference to a politician who is interested in changing the way people’s working lives are
organized.
17 The claim that today people are working harder but feel that their lives have not improved.

Questions 18 – 22
Choose the correct person (A – F) for each statement.

18 One expression that is commonly used today may not be helpful because it oversimplifies a
complicated situation.
19 After the experiment people had a higher opinion of the business and staff were happy to
continue working for us.
20 Evidence shows that workers who are given more personal time actually spend some of that
time on activities that benefit the company.
21 Over-working is a more significant issue than is sometimes realised and should be taken more
seriously by those involved.
22 Involving staff at every stage of organising the trial was one of the reasons for its success.

List of people
A Dr Gina McDowell
B Carla Deng
C Ryan Schmidt
D Faisal Hadi
E Dr Hannah Graham
F Tane Robinson

Questions 23 – 26
Answer the questions. Write ONE WORD ONLY from the text in each gap.

23 What service was provided by the company in the New Zealand experiment?

24 What research method was used to gather data in the New Zealand experiment?

25 Which group of people reported that staff worked together more closely during the New
Zealand experiment?

26 According to Dr Graham, what problem outside the workplace might be addressed by

working shorter hours?
READING PASSAGE 1

The history and production of chocolate

Early history in Central America

The climate of tropical rain forests combines great quantities of rainfall with high year-
round temperatures and humidity. This results in the perfect conditions for the
cultivation of the cacao tree plant from whose bean chocolate is derived. This tree has
grown in the wild in Central America for about 10.000 years. The Olmec Indians,
whose civilization flourished in what is more southern Mexico from 1500 to 300 BC
are believed to have been the first to grow cocoa beans as a domestic crop.

The cacao tree was worshipped from about 600 AD by the Mayan people of Central
America and southern Mexico, who believed it to be of divine origin Cacao, which the
early explorers renamed to as cocoa, is actually a Mayan word meaning 'god food'.
The Mayans brewed a spicy, bitter sweet drink by pounding the cocoa beans with
maize and chilli peppers and letting the mixture ferment. This drink was reserved for
use in traditional ceremonies as well as for drinking by the wealthy and by priests, who
also ate a porridge made from the beans.

In about 1200 AD the Aztects of central Mexico were introduced to cocoa beans and
came to highly prize them, but because they lived further north at more arid, higher
altitudes not suitable for the cultivation of the cacao tree, they had to acquire the
beans through trade or by force. The Aztecs used cocoa beans as currency and taxes
were paid in the beans to their rulers. In fact, the Aztec royal treasury consisted not of
precious metals but of cocoa beans. The Aztecs also enjoyed a beverage made from
the beans, and this again featured prominently in rituals and as anuxury available only
to the very wealthy. The Aztecs called this drink "xocolati". The Spanish explorers
found this word almost impossible to pronounce and so corrupted it to "chocolat",
which the English subsequently changed to chocolate.

Introduction to Europe and North America

Chocolate was brought back to Spain in the early 16th century by Spanish explorers,
who at first found the Aztec drink distasteful because of its bitterness. However, they
learned to improve its taste by mixing the ground roasted beans with sugar and
vanilla. Chocolate factories were established in Spain and by the early 17th century,
chocolate powder was being exported to other parts of Europe. The Spanish kept the
source of the drink- the beans- a secret for many years, so successfully, in fact, that
when English pirates boarded a Spanish ship they thought carried great treasure and
only found a load of cocoa beans, they burned the ship in frustration. If only they had
known that chocolate at that time was extremely valuable.
Within a few years, the cocoa beverage produced in Spain was sought after
throughout Europe. The first chocolate house in England opened in 1657, followed
rapidly by many others. These establishments were used as clubs where wealthy
people could meet to talk to their friends and to discuss business over a cup of
chocolate. The first recorded instance of chocolate being eaten in solid form occurred
when a baker in England began adding cocoa powder to cakes in the mid-1600s. Then
in 1828, a Dutch chemist, Johannes Van Houten invented a method of extracting the
bitter-tasting Cocoa butter from the roasted beans. His aim was to make the cocoa
drink smoother and more palatable, however, unknowingly he paved the way for the
chocolate bar that we consume today.

In the early 18th century, certain companies owned by prominent English families
including the Frys, Rowntrees and Cadburys, began making chocolate. Many of these
chocolate factory owners were noticed for their enlightened treatment of employees,
providing not just jobs but facilities such as housing and schools. In fact, the Cadbury
company constructed a large purpose-built town near Birmingham. And interestingly,
Millton Hermshey, founder of perhaps the most famous US chocolate-making
company of its day, also established a town in Pennsylvania in 1900.

The production of chocolate

Producing chocolate is a time-consuming and complicated process. After being

harvested and separated from the pods which contain them the beans are allowed to
ferment and then dried either in the sun (which produces the best chocolate) or
artificially, using specially designed machines, (which creates an interior chocolate).
After that the beans are roasted according to various formulas which affect the favour
of the final product.

The bears are then lightly crushed, the outer layer of shell discarded, and the internal
kernel or 'nib' returned. At this point, the nibs, which contain high quantities of a fat
known as cocoa butter may be treated to develop their flavour and colour. The nibs are
finely ground, and in the grinding process heat is produced which liquefies the product
into substance called the liquor'. This is cooled and allowed to solidity. After this
stage, the chocolate is made into any of a multitude of solid forms or is ground into
cocoa powder, depending on the ultimate intended use.
Question 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agree wittithe information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 A climate with seasonal variation in temperature is ideal for growing the cacao tree.
2 It is likely that the Olmec Indians were the first people to cultivate the cacao trees.
3 The location of the Azteca homeland meant that they had to obtain cocoa beans
from elsewhere.
4 The Aztec rulers demanded heavy taxes from their subjects
5 Drinks made from cocoa beans were widely consumed by ordinary Aztecs

Question 6-10
Complete me notes below
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet

The history of chocolate

Introduction to Europe and North America

• Spanish explorers introduced chocolate drink to Europe in 16th century
• ingredients added to reduce 6……………
• chocolate houses established in 17th century in England for social, 7.............. and
other activities

Developments in the production of chocolate

• Englishman who was a 8 .........creates first known edible chocolate product in 1600s
• Dutch scientist invents process leading to creation of the chocolate 9…………..
• many English producers provide variety of facilities for 10…………………..
• Cadbury (in England) and Hershey (in America) each establish a town
Questions 11-13
Complete the flow chart below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers.

The chocolate manufacturing process

After being separated from their pods, cocoa beans are 11 ………….. naturally or
mechanically

Beans then 12 ………………….. to create distinctive tastes

Nibs are separated from the shells

Heat generated during the grinding of the nibs produces 13 …………………

Further treatment produces desired final chocolate product

READING PASSAGE 3

A Sometimes ideas just pop up out of the blue. Or in Charlie Paton's case, out of the
rain. 1 was on a bus in Morocco traveling through the desert,' he remembers. 'It had
been raining and the bus was full of hot, wet people. The windows steamed up and I
went to sleep with a towel against the glass. When I woke, the thing was soaking wet.
had to wring it out. And it set me thinking. Why was it so wet?

B The answer, of course, was condensation. Back home in London, a physicist friend,
Philip Davies, explained that the glass, chilled by the rain outside, had cooled the hot
humid air inside the bus below its dew point, causing droplets of water to form on the
inside of the window. Intrigued, Paton - a lighting engineer by profession - started
rigging up his own equipment. 1 made my own solar stills. It occurred to me that you
might be able to piduce water in this way in the desert, simply by cooling the air.
wondered whether you could make enough to irrigate fields and grow crops.'

C Today, a decade on, his dream has taken shape as a giant greenhcuse on a desert
island off Abu Dhabi in the Persian Gulf - the first commercially viable version of his
'seawater greenhouse'. Local scientists, working with Paton, are watering the desert
and growing vegetables in what is basically a giant dew-making machine that
produces freshwater and cool air from sun and seawater. In awarding Paton first prize
in a design competition two years ago, Marco Goldschmied, president of the Royal
Institute of British Architects, called it 'a truly original idea which has the potential to
impact on the lives of millions of people living in coastal water- starved areas around
the world'.

D The seawater greenhouse as developed by Paton has three main parts. They both
air-condition the greenhouse and provide water for irrigation. The front of the
greenhouse faces into the prevailing wind so that hot dry air blows in through a front
wall. The wall is made of perforated cardboard kept moist by a constant trickle of
seawater pumped up from the ocean. The purpose is to cool and moisten the
incoming desert air. The cool moist air allows the plants to grow faster. And, crucially,
because much less water evaporates from the leaves, the plants need much less
moisture to grow than if they were being irrigated in the hot dry desert air outside the
greenhouse.

E The air-conditioning of the interior of the greenhouse is completed by the second

feature: the roof. It has two layers: an outer layer of clear polyethylene and an inner
coated layer that reflects infrared radiation. This combination ensures that visible light
can stream through to the plants, maximizing the rate of plant growth through
photosynthesis but at the same time heat from the infrared radiation is trapped in the
space between the layers, and kept away from the plants. This helps keep the air
around the plants cool.
F At the back of the greenhouse sits the third elements. This is the main water
production unit. Here, the air hits a second moist cardboard wall that increases its
humidity as it reackes the condenser, which finally collects from the hot humid air the
noisture for irrigatitig the plants. The condenser is a metal surface kept cool by still
more seawater. It is the equivalent of the window on Paton's Moroccan bus. Drops of
pure distilled water from on the condenser and flow into a tank for irrigating the crops.

G The Abu Dhai greenhouse more or less runs itself. Sensors switch everything on
when the sun rises and alter flows of air and seawater through the day in response to
changes in temperature, humidity, and sunlight. On windless days, fans ensure a
constant flow of air through the greenhouse. 'Once it is turned to the local
environment, you don't need anymore there for it to work,' says Paton. "We can run the
entire operation of one 13-amp plug, and in the future, we could make it entirely
independent of the grid, powered from a few solar panels.'

H Critics point out that construction costs of around $4 a square foot are quite high.
By illustration, however, Paton presents that it can cool as efficiently as a 500-kilowatt
air conditioner while using less than 3 kilowatts of electricity. Thus, the plants need
only an eighth of the volume of water used by those grown conventionally. And so, the
effective cost of the desalinated water in the greenhouse is only a quarter that of
water from a standard desalinator, which is good economics. Besides it really
suggests an environmentally-friendly way of providing air conditioning on a scale large
enough to cool large greenhouses where crops can be grown despite the high outside
temperatures.
Questions 27-31
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 3?
In boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
27 The idea just came to Charlie Paton by accident.
28 The bus was well ventilated.
29 After waking up, Paton found his towel was wet.
30 The fan on the bus did not work well.
31 Paton immediately operated his own business in the Persian Gulf after talking with
Philip Davies.

Questions 32-36
Label the diagram below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passas answer.
Write your answers in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet.
Questions 37-40
Complete the summary below.
Using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

To some extent, the Abu Dhai greenhouse functions automatically. When the day is
sunny, the equipment can respond to the changes in several natural elements. When
there is no wind, 37………………help to retain the flow of air. Even in the future, we have
an ideal plan to power the greenhouse from 38……………. However, there are still some
critics who argue that 39………………….are not good economics.

To justify himself, Paton presents favorable arguments against these critics and
suggests that it is an 40……………...approach to provide air conditioning in a scale large
sense.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on Reading Passage 2 on pages 6 and 7.

Classical music over the centuries

A The production of any great art form, and classical music is no exception,
does not usually occur in a society dominated by the basic material demands
of food and shelter-Art and music have flourished in those periods of history,
and those parts of society, in which the luxury of free time and material
wealth ahs allowed such a culture to take precedence over more material
matters. In the medieval European world, it was thus primarily in the closed
communities of the church and monastery, and royal courts that music,
literature and learning were able to flourish.

B It was until 18th century that this situation changed to any great extent, and
the rise of an economically independent middle class meant that concert
going became a public activity for anyone who cared to buy a ticket. It is
worth remembering that the idea of classical music widely accepted today
did not exist until about 300 years ago. Performing music in concert halls to a
paying audience, as something inherently pleasurable and significant, was
pretty much unheard of until the 18th century, and not widely established
until the 19th. The concert venue, the audience, and the idea of
'masterpieces' of classical music, were all effectively invented during the
course of the 18th century- in London, Paris, Vienna, Berlin and other
European cities where the arts in general were blossoming.

C Today, music that was originally written for a concert venue may appear,
out of its original context, in an advert of film. Conversely, music written
specifically for films is sometimes performed live. But nothing has changed
music over the last century more radically than the invention and
dissemination of recording technologies. However, although Thomas Edison
originally developed the photograph in 1877, and wax cylinders were used as
early as 1880s for recording music, commercial recordings of music were not
generally available to the majority until 1920s. From the mid-1980s onwards,
the vinyl disc gradually gave way to the new technology of the CD, but just a
decade later, the digital MP file was already displacing the CD as the
favoured way to produce records music. Yet now, people have more music
stored on their phones or computers-which they can call up with the touch of
a finger-than world have been contained on all the metres of library shelves of
a proud 'record collector' of the 20th century. '

D Before recording, music was a social event-it involved one or more people
coming together to make music. The music lasted for as long as the
musicians sang or played and then it was over. Therefore, the only music that
was heard tended to be composition by recent or living musicians, probably
working in the locality; it was rare to hear music from a past generation,
distant place or culture. Even when music became professionalized, people
who wanted to listen to music went to a specific venue, at a specific time, to
hear musicians create a one-off event.

E These days, however, technology makes almost all the world's music
instantly and constantly available to anyone with access to simple and cheap
gadgets designed for playing it. Music thus floats free of any specific
occasion or venue. It is no longer restricted to a particular audience or group
of musicians. For the first time, music (any music) can be entirely personal
affair. This is one of the reasons that the 'classical' label becomes harder to
pin down. One of its distinctive aspects-a performance defined by concert
halls and opera houses- is dissolved by digital recording formats. As a
consequence, all music, classical music included, can become any person's
soundtrack for activities such as commuting, exercising or shopping.

F The ubiquity of music as recorded sound means that it's very easy to
overlook perhaps the most definitive aspect of the classical music tradition
the fact that it is a written or notated music. Though classical music may lack
a precise definition today and mean quite different things to different people,
at its heart is the idea of a music that has remained viable over the years
because it was written down in some form. The original of what music
historians thinks of as classical music dates from the ninth century, when a
system of musical notation was first developed. Before this time, singers in
religious services in cathedrals or monasteries had to learn by heart a huge
repertory of chants. The first attempts to notate music were intended to help
them remember these. Over the next thousand years, notation became more
complex, incorporating such aspects as rhythm and pitch, allowing
composers to rework and refine their musical ideas. Put very simply, the
history of classical music, in all its varied forms, is the history of a tradition
that grew out of the possibilities of musical notation.
Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings
below.
Write the correct number, i-vii, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

i Music comes to be enjoyed in a large variety of situations

ii More people gain access to live music
iii A focus on survival limits the practice of classical music
iv A clash of musical styles takes place
v A range of scientific advances brings music to a wider audience
vi Listening to music being limited to live performances
vii How classical music has managed to survive for centures

Questions 20 and 21
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Write the correct letters in boxes 20 and 21 on your answer sheet.
Which TWO of the following statements does the writer make about recording
technologies?

A The vinyl disc was relatively easy to damage

B The sound quality from wax cylinders was inferior to that of the
phonograph
C Electronic storage allows people to keep a vast amount of music
D Recorded music sold well immediately after Edison invented the
photograph.
E The CD was popular for a relatively brief period.

Questions 22 and 23
Choose TWO letters, A-E
Write the correct letters in boxes 22 and 23 on your answer sheet.
Which TWO of the following statements does the writer make about musical
notation?
A The way it is interpreted has changed over time.
B It was originally designed as a memory aid.
C It is often ignored by classical musicians today.
D Classical music could not have survived without it.
E Its importance diminished with the arrival of recording
Questions 24-26
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.
The impact of today's technology on music

These days, the world's music is instantly and constantly available to almost
everyone. Thus, music is no longer tied to a particular location or occasion,
nor is it associated with a group of musicians or a specific 24………….. It can
become uniquely in its history, completely personal to each and every
individual.
Thanks to digital recording, the need for venues such as opera houses or 25
………… where concerts are performed has vanished. Digitization has also
made it possible for people to treat music as a 26 …………..to their daily
activities.
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.
The peopling of Patagonia
Anthropologists continue to investigate human migration to
Patagonia at the southern tip of South America

The human settlement of the southern extremity of the Americas has always
fascinated pre-historians. Viewed from a global perspective, this was the last major
continental land mass to be reached by human beings. The earliest occupation of
Patagonia carries obvious implications for understanding when the North and South
American continents were peopled, because it gives a baseline that all calculations
regarding the rate of dispersion of humans throughout both continents must take into
account.

For many years the human settlement of North and South America has been
conceived of as beginning in the far north and travelling progressively southwards to
Patagonia. However, fundamental disagreements developed concerning the length
of time involved Some scholars accepted a human presence in the Americas as
early as 20,000 years ago, while others proposed that it could date no earlier than
8,000 years ago, and the debate is still with us today.

The idea of a relatively ‘late’ settlement of the Americas (around 8,000 years ago)
implies that a rapid process of migration took place. Herein lies a second debate
which revolves around the question of how migration is to be understood. The ‘late’
model demands a hypothetical migration conceived of as a single, continually
advancing wave of settlement. This has always been difficult to take seriously and
many scholars now support the idea of an ‘early’ model that sees the migration as a
less ordered migration, and this is surely the most realistic scenario as migrants
slowly adapted to the diverse natural habitats they would have met while travelling
through the continent.

Those who argue for an earlier settlement, however, must contend with the lack of
unequivocal evidence for archaeological sites older than around 14,000 years.
Nevertheless, evidence for human occupation of the centre of South America is now
securely dated to around 12,500 years ago at the Monte Verde site, which casts
doubt on the ‘late model’. The lack of archaeological evidence further south for this
time period may be explained by the obstacle to humans on foot posed by the huge
glacial streams that were present at that time.

We can speculate then that the retreat of the Patagonian glaciers around 14,000
years ago allowed the initial human intrusion into a pristine environment, which was
similar to that of early post-glacial Europe. Human settlement of the vast horizontal
expanse of treeless high country must have been tenuous at best, and the evidence
for this occupation remains relatively scant, most of it coming from rock shelters in
Argentina and Chile. There is, however, reliable evidence from these sites to confirm
the presence of humans by around 11,000 years ago in different habitats, and some
hints of an even older occupation. However, some other sites where evidence for
even earlier human occupation was initially posited, have recently come under fresh
scrutiny. This is because anthropologists have come to recognise that bones or other
evidence may be deposited in caves by natural agency, in other words by other
forces such as floods or predators, and not necessarily by human

We shall turn now to a more detailed discussion of the archaeological evidence found
in various parts of Patagonia. At the site located beside Chinchihuapi Creek,
excavations have produced convincing evidence of human occupation, including hut
foundations and wooden artefacts. They were buried in layers of peat, which has the
property of preserving wood remarkably well, and as a result radiocarbon dating* tests
have shown these artefacts to date from around 12,500 years ago. One of the most
famous Patagonian sites is a cave known as Los Toldos. However, the evidence from
this site has recently been called into question, because dispersed flecks of carbon
used in the test process were taken unsystematically from many different places in the
site. As a result, the association of this material with the artefacts is not at all clear.
About 150 kilometres south is the site called El Ceibo, where a similar collection of
artefacts to that found at Los Toldos has been discovered from the lowest levels of the
dig, but as yet no radiocarbon dates are available and this sort of analysis of the
existing evidence is required before the site’s value can be confirmed.

The Arroyo Eeo site is located very close to the high plateau. The artefacts from the
earliest occupations were found at the same depth and have the same origins as those
from Los Toldos, and have been securely dated to around 9,000 years ago. Another
site that is mentioned in the debate is at Las Buitreras, where a number of stone flakes
associated with bone remains of various animals have been discovered. However,
anthropologists now believe that presumed cut marks on the bones are somewhat
dubious, and despite detailed testing there is no way of securely relating any of these
remains with human occupation. Finally some 50 kilometers to the south is the site at
Cueva Fell, which was the first Patagonian site to be systematically studied by modern
archaeological methods. However, it is now recognised that the utility of this site must
be restricted to its direct vicinity, given changes to the nearby area caused by flooding,
and findings cannot be freely extrapolated further afield.

In conclusion, based on the evidence from a number of reliable sites, it seems

probable that human populations reached Patagonia around 11,000 years ago.

* radiocarbon dating: finding out the age of an organic object by examining carbon it contains
Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27 In the first paragraph, what is the writer’s main point about migration to
Patagonia?
A It started earlier than previously thought.
B Historians have overlooked its importance.
C It impacts on research into the wider region.
D Researchers have calculated its effects on the environment.

28 In the second paragraph, what is the writer’s purpose?

A to challenge previous research
B to propose new areas to investigate
C to summarise a scholarly debate
D to suggest reasons for human migration

29 The writer refers to the Tate' model in order to

A compare it with another theory of migration.
B evaluate the success of American migration.
C criticise the speed of research into migration.
D compare migration in different parts of the world.

30 What is the writer’s main point about the ‘early’ model?

A Scholars support the idea of fast migrations.
B It is too random to be a convincing theory.
C South America was more habitable at an earlier time.
D It is more consistent with the physical conditions of the land.

31 What does the writer suggest about the Monte Verde site?
A It is much younger than researchers once estimated.
B It provides supporting evidence for relatively early
settlement.
C Archaeologists believe the site is of questionable value.
D Streams exposed the site, making new research possible.
 Questions 32 35
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 3?
In boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about
this
32 The conditions encountered by the first migrants to Patagonia were unique.
33 In the high country the first migrants hunted wild animals for food.
34 Archaeologist have failed to draw conclusions from the evidence found at
rock shelters in Argentina and Chile.
35 Archaeological evidence can be moved from place to place in a variety of
ways.
Questions 36-40
Complete the summary using the list of words and phrases, A-J, below.
Write the correct letter, A-J, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

The archaeological evidence from Patagonia

Building remains and other evidence have been found in 36at ……..the
Chinchihuapi Creek site, and because of this it has been possible to date them
to around 12,500 years ago. However, the 37 ………..of the samples taken
from Los Toldos means that this site is of doubtful value. El Ceibo is a more
promising dig, where the examination of artefacts would be beneficial in order
to confirm the usefulness of discoveries there. The remains found at the Arroyo
Feo site show 38…………….anddate from around 9,000 years ago.
Unfortunately no 39………canbe made between the samples taken from Las
Buitreras and human presence. The findings of the work carried out at Cueva
Fell cannot provide useful information beyond the 40…………. In ...conclusion,
though the evidence is mixed, it is believed that human population of Patagonia
began about 11,000 years
A fixed date B random collection C similar properties
D good condition E scientific evaluation F huge quantities
G new samples H reliable connection I skilled preservation
J immediate surroundings
2

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 on pages 2 and 3.

The Clipper Races: an era of competition between cargo ships

During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, the British East India Company had the
monopoly on trade with China and India. This meant that because no rival could legally
importtea or other goods from these countries at this time, the company was rarely in a
hurry to transport its merchandise, Instead, its priority was to minimise costs by carrying as
much as possible on each ship. This meant that its ships- known as East Indiamen - were
enormous, strong and very slow.

By 1800, the average East Indiaman could carry 1,200 tons of merchandise. The trading
patternfor China tea usually meant the East Indiamen set sail from Britain in January, sailed
round the Cape of Good Hope at the southernmost tip of Africa, and arrived in China in
September. There they would load up that year's tea harvest, set off again and, depending on
the wind and weather, aim to arrive back by the following September, so even with
favourable sailing conditions, the round trip lasted almost two years, and if anything went
wrong it could take lot longer.

However, by 1834 the company had lost its trading monopoles, and tea had become a freely
traded item. Having no more use for its great ships, the company sold them off, and many
werebought by merchants or their captains, who continued to plough the seas between
Britain and China. But now that tea could be traded freely. A few smart sailors began to
realise that whoever brought each new harvest of tea to Britain first, stood to make the most
money.

This was partly because if you were home first, you could sell your shipment of tea before
your competitors even arrived, and partly because consumers in Britain in the nineteenth
century believed that the fresher and earlier-picked the tea, the better the resulting drink.
Tea traders now needed faster, sleeker ships to bring their precious cargo back. Nevertheless,
in Britain this idea only caught on slowly, and while the 1840s saw a few faster ships
launched, for the time being many merchants remained satisfied with the slow but reliable
East Indiamen.

In fact it was the Americans who pioneered the first clipper ships. These vessels were fast and
slender, with a narrow hull that was deeper at the back than at the front, and masses of sails
ontall masts. They earned their name from the way that they 'clipped off’ journey time.
British merchants resolved to build their own clippers to rival the Americans, and the first
British tea clipper, Stornaway, was built in Aberdeen in 1850. More tea clippers were
designed and built in Britain throughout the 1850s and 1860s; they had a narrower beam
than their American equivalents, making them less powerful during storms, but faster in
calmer weather.
There was a great spirit of competition between the British and American ships plying the
tea trade, but to begin with the Americans had the edge. Then in 1851 a British ship owner,
Richard Green, built the aptly named clipper Challenger with the stated intention of beating
the American ships. Loaded with tea, Challenger left China for London in 1852 at the same
time as the American clipper Challenge, a much larger older ship, already greatly admired
for its speed. Large sums were bet on which would complete the journey first. In the event,
the British ship beat its rival to London by two days, amid much jubilation. From then on,
such international races grew in popularity.

After 1855, American participation in the British tea trade gradually stopped. But even
without the Anglo-American rivalry, the competitive spirit continued. It was really ignited
when new ports were opened up for trade in China. These included Fouchow, which was
much closer to the tea-producing areas than Canton, the port used previously. As a result,
tea could be loaded on board earlier and fresher, and the clippers could set off in late May
or early June - sometimes not even taking time to fill out the official paperwork - racing back
to Britain whatever the difficulties.

They sped down through the South China Sea and into the Indian Ocean, then raced to get
round the southernmost tip of Africa at the Cape of Good Hope. Then it was north across the
vast Atlantic, past the Azores, through the English Channel and into the estuary of the River
Thames. Once there, they would be towed by tugs, up the river and into the docks.

The cargo of the winning ship could earn premium of up to sixpence per pound - and so the
captain and crew were rewarded by the owners of the cargo. But the races were about more
than just money: the crews, about 40 men on each clipper, were expert sailors, proud of
their ships, and they delighted in competing against each other. Without their enthusiasm,
the raceswould never have happened, since home as fast as possible required the crew to
be totally dedicated and to sacrifice much of their rest for the duration of the race.
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, the British East India Company faced a lot of
competition.

2 Before 1800, cargo size was the most important consideration for the East India Company.

3 At best, voyages of the East Indiamen to China and back took nearly two years to complete.

4 Before 1834, voyages to and from China were considered to be highly dangerous.

5 In After 1834, the ships which had served the East India Company stopped being used for
commercial purposes.

6 In the nineteen century, British drinkers preferred tea made from mature leaves to that made
from younger leaves.
Questions 7-13

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

Clipper races

The ships
• Clipper ships were first used for trading by American merchants.
• The ships were remarkable for the number of 7 ................ they had.
• The performance of British tea clippers was particularly affected when there were 8 at
sea.

The races
• It was in a ship called 9 ............... that the British first competed successfully against the
Americans.
• Richard Green’s ship arrived two days ahead of its competitor.
• Competition increased when additional Chinese trading 10 ........................ were
established.
• Merchants were occasionally in such a hurry that they failed to complete
the 11 ................... before leaving China.
• At the end of their journey, the ships needed the help of 12 ……………….

The rewards
• The crews were motivated by both 13 ..................... and their enthusiasm for the
competition.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 on
pages 6 and 7.

Orientation of birds
A For many of us, the way birds are able to orientate is both
astounding and difficult to appreciate fully. For instance,
the annual migration of the golden plover of the Pacific
takes it from Alaska to Hawaii on a flight of well over 3000
kilometres, and if it were to deviate by
only one degree, it would miss the island on which it nests.

B The first systematic studies on orientation in birds were made possible by the ‘homing instinct'
exhibited by so many species. Birds are caught at a time when they show an attachment to
their territory, especially during the nesting season. They are taken to some spot, released, and
the percentage of returns is recorded. The distance can be varied, and the direction, as well as
the method of transporting them, and then the influence of climatic and other factors on their
ability to find their way home can be studied. These experiments have shown a wide variation
in ability to home, and three types of homing behaviour have been identified.

C In the first type, birds methodically explore the area in which they are released until they pick up
some familiar feature, and then they quickly find their way back to the nest. Such birds possess
a highly developed visual memory, as experiments with pigeons have shown. Domestic pigeons
have been trained to peck at a certain point on an aerial photograph, with a system of rewards,
and four years later the birds were still able to respond to this training when placed on the
aerial photograph. Birds’ eyes have a power of resolution two to three times greater than ours,
enabling them to pick up very fine details. If a bird uses only this type of homing behaviour,
however, it can only succeed if the point of release is not too far away. If the birds are
transported 800 kilometres from their nest, it is only by good fortune that they find their way
back as a result of long exploratory flights. Usually, the area known to a bird is its feeding
territory. Released within this area, the birds soon make their return; release them outside it
and far fewer return. However, if a bird is released for a second time in the same place, its
visual memory comes into play, and the bird, no longer requiring tedious exploratory flights,
will return much more quickly.
D The second type of homing behaviour is shown by birds that are capable of choosing their flight
direction and holding to it for the rest of their journey. How do they decide what direction to
take？They appear to choose their normal migration direction even if they are released in a
different place from their usual starting point. If, for example, birds which normally fly to the
north-east to reach latitude 45 degrees north are released at that latitude, they will
immediately start flying north-east anyway. So if they’re released further to the west, they
maintain the correct direction, but fly west of their destination, and so fail to arrive.

E The third type of homing behaviour shows the highest degree of orientation. Released at one point,
the birds immediately take stock of it, compare its position with that of the nest, decide on the
direction and fly off. This happens even if the birds are in a country right off their migration
routes, where they have never been before. In one example, a laysan albatross returned to its
nesting area on Midway Island in the middle of the Pacific, having flown over 5000 kilometres
from the west coast of the USA in just over ten days. This is a perfect example of the third type
of homing, for the albatross clearly couldn't rely on any landmarks over the vast expanse of the
Pacific Ocean.

F The percentage of successful birds varies greatly, being highest in those species with a strong
migratory behaviour. Thus the lesser black-backed gull is more migratory than the herring gull
and more often reaches ‘home'. Great migrants such as the swift have the highest percentage
of returns. In one case, seven out of nine alpine swifts were recaptured at their nests after
being displaced some 1400 kilometres one made the journey in three days.

G What part does heredity play in all this? Two research studies suggest that instinctive, i.e.
genetically inherited, behaviour patterns play a part in navigation. The first was carried out by
Ernst Schüz and it is highly significant. Schüz caught first-year European storks and released
them later, after the departure of the adult storks at a time when they normally make their
south- west autumn migration to Africa. The recaptures showed that, in spite of the fact that
there were no adults to guide them, the birds unanimously headed southwest. This was almost
striking finding, for it showed that the birds had an innate and unlearned attraction for the
African wintering area that they have occupied for thousands of years.

H The case of starlings is a little different. These birds have a great aptitude for homing, but this
behaviour differs in the different age groups. Birds that were shifted to the south-east of their
normal migration route split into two lots. The adults, in full possession of their gift for
orientation, found their wintering area by modifying their direction by 90 degrees, whereas the
juveniles sought their winter quarters to the southeast of their real position.
Questions 14ー18

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

Types of homing behaviour

First type:
Birds rely on their sophisticated 14 ....................... However, they are generally most successful if
they are released within their feeding territory.

Second type:
Birds select their accustomed 15 ..................... , no matter where they are released. As a result,
they may miss their 16 …………………. .

Third type:
Birds orientate correctly, even when they are released in an unfamiliar place and have no 17
……………….. to make use of. One bird with this type of skill is the 18 ………………… .

Questions 19- 22

Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

19 the effects of distance on some birds ability to find their nests

20 a methodology for testing the general ability of birds to find their nests

21 one aspect of physical ability in humans and birds

22 how some birds’ migration was delayed for experimental purposes

Questions 23-26

Look at the following types of birds (Questions 23-26) and the list of points which the author wishes to
illustrate below.

Match each bird with the point which it illustrates, A-G.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

23 domestic pigeon

24 alpine swift

25 European stork

26 starling

List of points which author wishes to illustrate

an ability to orientate without previous training

the speed at which birds fly

the ability to remember things seen previously

the effect of age on homing ability

the strength required to fly a great distance

a high success rate in finding nests

the importance of seasonal cues for migrating birds

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 on
pages 10 and 11.

The role of accidents in business

In 1894 Dr John Kellogg and his brother, Will, were supervising a hospital and health spa in Michigan.
The patients were on a restricted diet. One day, the brothers left cooked wheat untended for more
than 24 hours. When they returned, they saw what they had done. It was no good to eat, but they
decided to run the stale wheat through rollers, just to see how it would turn out. Normally, the
process produced long sheets, but they were surprised to discover that this time the rollers created
flat flakes. They baked them, and then tried the same thing with corn. From this accidental discovery
came the cornflakes that generations have now been eating for breakfast.

Accidents happen; there is nothing predictable and orderly about innovation. Nobel laureate Sir Alan
Hodgkin, who discovered how nerve cells transmit electrical impulses between the skin and the
brain, commented: 'I believe that the record of my published papers conveys an impression of
directedness and planning which does not at all coincide with the actual sequence of events.'

The same rule applies in business. The mistake that gave us cornflakes keeps repeating itself in the
history of disruptive innovation, the kind that transforms markets. Louis Daguerre, for instance,
discovered the technique that gave us photography in the 1830s, when drops of mercury from a
shattered thermometer produced a photographic image. The microwave was discovered when Peroy
Spender, a scientist with Raytheon, was testing a new vacuum tube and discovered that the sweet in
his pocket had melted. The artificial sweetener, saccharin, was the unintentional result of a medical
scientist’s work on a chemical treatment for gastric ulcers. While working for the firm 3M, researcher
Art Fry had no idea he was talking the first steps towards Post-It Notes when he used bits of adhesive
office paper that could be easily lifted off the page to replace the scrap paper bookmarks that kept
falling out of his hymn book.

Breakthrough and disruptive innovation are rarely driven by orderly process. Usually they come out
of a chaotic, haphazard mess, which is why big companies, full of managers schooled in business
programmes designed to eliminate random variation and mistakes, struggle with them. In these sorts
of environments, accidents are called failures and are discouraged.

It is no surprise then that research from the late British economist Paul Geroski and London Business
School's Constantinos Markides found that companies that were skilled at innovation were usually
not that skilled when it came to commercialisation, and vice versa. Their book, Fast Second, divides
businesses into ‘colonists and consolidators'. Small and nimble, colonists are adept at creating
market niches but are terrible institution builders. Consolidators, with
READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 on pages 2 and 3.

People living in a typical urban environment experience a wide range of sounds on a

daily basis. In its Guidelines for Community Noise, the World Health Onganisation
(WHO) declared. ‘Worldwide, noise-induced hearing impairment is the most prevalent
irreversible occupational hazard, and it is estimated that 120 million people worldwide
now have disabling hearing difficulties.’

The growing noise pollution problem has many different sources, Booming population
growth and the loss of rural land to urban sprawl both play a role. Other
factors include the inability of authorities in
many parts of the world to implement noise-reducing legislation; the electronic nature
of our age, which encourages many noisy gadgets; the rising number of vehicles on
streets; and busier airports.

Sound intensity is measured in decibels (dB); the unit A-weighted dB (dBA) is used to
indicate how humans hear a given sound. Zero dBA is considered the point at which a
person begins to hear sound. A soft whisper at three feet equals 30 BA, a busy
freeway at 50 feet is around 80 BA, and a chainsaw can reach 110 dBA.

Mark Stephenson, a senior research audiologist at the National Institute for

Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), says his agency's definition of hazardous
noise is sound that exceeds 85 dBA, meaning the average noise exposure measured
over a typical eight-hour work day.

In the United States, about 30 million workers are exposed to hazardous sound levels
on the job, according to NIOSH. Noise in US industry is an extremely difficult problem
to monitor, acknowledges Craig Moulton, an industrial hygienist for the Occupational
Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). Still, he says, 'OSHA does require that any
employer with staff overexposed to noise safeguard those employees against the
harmful impact of noise.'

‘For many people in the United States, noise has drastically affectee the quality of their
lives, says Arline Bronzaft, chair of the Noise Committee of the New York City Council
of the Environment, and a psychologist who has done pioneering research on the
effects of noise on children's reading ability. 'My daughter lives near La Guardia airport
in New York City, and she can't open a window or enjoy her backyard in the summer
because of the airplane noise.'

The United States is not the only country where noise pollution is affecting the quality
of life. In Japan, noise pollution caused by public loudspeaker announcements and
other forms of city noise has forced many Tokyo citizens to wear earplugs as they go
about their daily lives. In Europe, about 65% of the population is exposed to ambient
sound at levels above 55 dBA, while about 17% is exposed to levels above 65 dBA,
according to the European Environment Agency.

Numerous scientific studies over the years have confirmed that exposure to certain
levels of sound can damage hearing. NIOSH studies from the mid to late 1990s show
that 90% of coal miners have hearing impairment by age 52 - compared to 9% of the
general population. NIOSH research also reveals that by age twenty-five, the average
carpenter's hearing is equivalent to that of a fifty-year-old male who hasn't been
exposed to noise.

In 2001 researchers from the Center for Disease Control and Prevention reported that,
based on audiometric testing of 5,249 children, an estimated 12.5% of American
children have noise-induced hearing threshold shifts - or dulled hearing - in one or both
ears. Most children with dulled hearing have only limited hearing damage, but
continued exposure to excessive noise can lead to difficulties with high-frequency
sound discrimination.

The effects of sound don't stop with the ears. The non-auditory effects of noise were
noted as far back as 1930 in a study published by E L Smith and D L Laird in the
Journal of the Acoustical Society of America. The results showed that exposure to
noise caused stomach problems in healthy human beings.

Noise has also been shown to affect learning ability. In 1975 Bronzaft collaborated on
a study of childen in a school near a train track that showed how exposure to noise
affects reading ability. Half of the students in the study were in classrooms facing the
train track and the other half were in classrooms in the school's quieter section. The
findings were that students on the quieter side performed better on reading tests.

Bronzaft and the school principal. persuaded the school board to have acoustical tiles
installed in the classrooms adjacent to the tracks. The Transit Authority also
undertook work on the track near the school in order to reduce noise levels. A follow-
up study in 1981 found that children's reading scores improved after these
interventions were put in place.

Anti-noise activists say that Europe and several countries in Asia are more advanced
than the United States in terms of combating noise. 'Population pressure has
prompted Europe to move more quickly on the noise issue,' says Ken Hume, a
principal lecturer in human physiology at the Manchester Metropolitan University in
England. European cities with at least 250,000 people are developing noise maps of
those cities to help leaders determine noise pollution strategies. Paris has already
prepared its first noise maps. The map data will be fed into computer models that will
help test the sound impact of new road layouts or buildings before construction
begins.

Bronzaft stresses that governments worldwide need to direct more financial

resources towards studies investigating the effects of noise, and do a better job
coordinating their noise pollution efforts, so they can establish health and
environmental policies based on solid scientific research.

Questions 1 - 4
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER rom the passago for each
answer.
Write your answers in bores 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1 Experts consider noise levels to be harmful if they go above ………………..

2 Children with ‘dulled hearing' may eventualy have trouble disinguishing ……………
sounds.
3 Early research into physical efects other than hearing problems revealed that adults
may suffer from ……………….. if exposed to noise.
4 Some European cities are creating .................in order to help governments develop
noise policies.

Quesitons 5-10
Look at the following statements (Questions 5-10) and the list of people and
organisations below.
Match each statement with the correct person or organisation, A-E.
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once,

5 A significant proportion of American children have suffered some hearing loss as a
result of exposure to noise.
6 Noise in our environment can affect the kind of lifestyle we have.
7 American companies are expected to protect workers from the effects of excessive
noise.
8 Authorities should increase funding for noise pollution research.
9 Permanent hearing loss caused by noise is the most commonly occurring danger in
the global workplace today.
10 Workers in certain occupations in the US have high rates of hearing damage.

List of People and Organisations

A World Health Organisation (WHO)
B National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
C Craig Moulton
D Arline Bronzaft
E Center for Disease Control and Prevention
Questions 11 - 13
Choose the correct letter, A. B. C or D.
Wite the carect feller in bores 11-13 on your answer sheel.

11 As a result of the findings from Bronzall's train track study

A the school moved the classrooms located near the track
B the track was treated to make it less noisy
C the classrooms facing the track were no longer used
D the amount of traffic on the track was reduced.

12 According to the passage, European countries are examining how noise level vil lo
affected by
A population distribution.
B the size of cities.
C street design.
D the purpose of tower blocks.

13 Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading Passage 1?
A Effects of noise on workers' job performance
B The cities most effective at reducing noise
C Educating workers about noise
D Living in a noisy world
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on pages 10 and 11.

A new stage in the study and teaching of history

For hundreds of years, historians have relied on written or printed documents to provide
the bulk ff their source materials, and they have largely communicated with students and
the wider public by writing books and journal articles. Today, however, the printed word
is being superseded by a diversity of forms of communication, above all moving images
on video or film

A The development of this new form of communication is leading to a growing gap

between the practice of professional historians based in academia, and the practice of
those aiming to popularise the study of history among the general public, and to
encourage people to create their own records for the future. On the one hand, there
are mainstream academics who continue to use only the written word as they
examine more and more fields with an ever- increasing number of sophisticated
methodologies. On the other hand, film and video, especially as broadcast on
television, are probably the major influence on the public's consciousness of history,
as they see film of events of fifty or a hundred years ago, events they had previously
only read about.

B In a related development, a great many people now document local and family
events in the form of videos; many schools, too, produce video yearbooks. All these
visual records may well prove to be invaluable sources of information for future
historians. The glaring contradiction is that the two approaches-the academic and
what we might term the popular - have intersected very little: with a few notable
exceptions, professional historians have tended to avoid involvement in television
programmes about history, and have even less impact on what is being captured and
preserved on video. And the potential of moving images has wielded negligible
influence on the academic study of history.

C This gulf can be seen as resulting from the willingness or otherwise of individual
historians to accept the validity of new forms of communication in the study of
history. This is not the first time that the question has arisen. The study of history, as
conceived of today, began with the transition from oral to literate culture, leading to
the earliest written records and the earliest historical studies. The next great shift
came with the advent of printing, which transformed everything. Today, as the printed
word loses its dominance, historians are faced with a variety of forms of
communication, ranging from simple audiotape to the promising complexities of
videodiscs linked with computers. As yet, however, the use of moving images to
record current events for the benefit of future historians does not even have a
commonly agreed name.
D This does not mean that mainstream historians have totally rejected the use of
moving images as sources: the majority seem intrigued by the idea, and valuable
research has been carried out into the history and analysis of films with a broad
circulation, using them as a source of information on the social and intellectual history
of the twentieth century. Journals such as American History Review have played a
significant role in this field.

E Yet the number of historians using moving images in their research or teaching is
very small. The barrier seems to be that the profession is structured around the
medium of the written word, and is somewhat insulated in its academic setting. The
use of moving images presents a substantial challenge to this setting and its
assumptions. As a result, historians have rejected the training, the institutions, the
motivations and the professional structures that would be needed in order to use
moving images effectively. Above all, they have rejected the necessity to learn
complicated new skills.

F So why should historians make this change? Clearly, films or videos of events and
people can be used as solid evidence of the past, linked to the words of the narrator
(whether a television presenter/historian or a university teacher giving a lecture) but
carrying information in their own right. Film has reintroduced the oral form as a mode
of research and communication for documenting historical events. Now, with moving
images, people are reminded that oral communication is not limited to words: it also
includes body language, expression and tone, and is embedded in a context. Little of
this is evident in a written transcript. A further effect of video and film is that the
narrator gives up some control and has less need to give explanations, while the
viewer becomes involved in the process of interpreting and understanding history.

G Film or videotape can also aid historians by simplifying the work of the interviewer.
Instead of trying to carry on an interview while simultaneously making notes about
setting and other unspoken data, this new kind of historian can concentrate on the
interview itself, and study the film later. The many benefits of using moving images as
historical evidence easily outweigh worries about cost, technical skills, or the effect of
a camera on a person telling his or her story. Moving images enhance the quality of
historical research, and suggest new directions for historians to explore.
Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 27-35, on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

27 an overview of the range of methods that have been used over time to document
history
28 the main reason why many historians are unwilling to use films in their work
29 a reference to some differences between oral and written communication
30 how most citizens today gain an understanding of history
31 how current student events are sometimes captured for future audiences
32 mention of the fact that the advantages of film are greater than the disadvantages
33 the claim that there is no official title for film-based historical work
34 reference to the active role the audience plays when watching films
35 a list of requirements that historians see as obstacles to their use of film to record
history

Questions 36 - 40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

36 The needs of students in school have led to improvements in the teaching of

history.
37 Academic and popular historians have different attitudes towards the value of
innovations in communication.
38 It is common for historians to play a major role in creating historical
documentaries for television.
39 Articles in American History Review have explored aspects of modern history
through popular films.
40 Developments in technology are influencing a range of academic subjects.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Early Approaches to organisational design

A review of the classical and neoclassical theories of organisational structures

Determining the 'best' type of organisational structure for a particular situation has
long been an important task for managers in all types of organisations. All structures
have advantages and disadvantages and managers luce the challenge of developing
the most appropriate design for changing circumstances.

The Classical Approach

Early management writers attempted to approach organisational design using a set of

principles that would make an organisational structure perform efficiently in most
situations, independent of external conditions and internal objectives. The sociologist
Max Weber and management writers Frederick Taylor and Henri Fayol were major
contributors to this so-called classical approach. They believed that the most efficient
organisations had a legalised formal and hierarchical structure called a 'bureaucracy'.
Members of the organisation were guided by a sense of duty to the organisation and
by a set of rational rules and regulations. According to Weber, such organisations
were characterised by the specialisation of tasks, appointment by merit, and an
impersonal climate.

Today the word 'bureaucracy' sometimes has negative connotations. Early

management writers, however, commended bureaucracy as an organisational design
for its rationality, rules for decision-making, clear chain of command, and promotion of
people based on ability and experience, rather than favouritism or whim. Weber also
believed that clearly specified authority and responsibility made performance easier to
evaluate and reward.

Criticism of the Classical Approach

Weber, Taylor and Fayol developed their theories when organisations that resembled
this bureaucratic model were modern and efficient. It became evident, however, that
some of the major advantages of the bureaucratic structure could become
disadvantages if the theory were applied dogmatically. For example, the safeguards
against favouritism could be rigidly imposed by adhering excessively to rules-resulting
in both managers and subordinates becoming depersonalised.

The classical approach has been criticised from two major perspectives. First, the
theory may not have a basis in reality. Have organisations like those described by
Weber and the others ever existed? Second, it claims that organisations designed and
managed according to bureaucratic principles will enjoy the predicted benefits. But
critics argue that the world no longer fits the assumptions in Weber's model (if it ever
did), and so a bureaucracy might not yield beneficial results.

Early human relations researchers and behavioural scientists attempted to deal with
the major inadequacy of the classical bureaucratic model: neglect of the human
element. They argued that an industrial organisation has two objectives: economic
effectiveness and employee satisfaction. They also wrote that the bureaucratic
structure could be improved by permitting more subordinate participation in decision-
making. Because these researchers tried to improve, and not reject the classical
model. They are sometimes called neoclassical theorists and include Douglas
McGregor, Chris Argyris and Rensis Likert.

The Neoclassical Approach

McGregor believed that the vertical division of labour that characterised bureaucratic
organisations was derived from negative and false assumptions about workers which
he called Theory X'. Managers assume lower-level employees lack ambition and need
orders to work effectively. The rigid formal hierarchy is designed to maintain
managers' power over subordinates. Decision-making takes place at upper levels of
management while the decisions are carried out by people at lower levels. McGregor
argued that organisations based instead on 'Theory Y' assumptions use their
members' potential. Theory Y assumes that most people find work satisfying, commit
themselves willingly to organisational goals and seek responsibility. Members have
more independence than in bureaucratic organisations and lower-level participation in
decision-making is encouraged.

Argyris was concerned that managers in bureaucratic organisations had near-total

responsibility for controlling their subordinates' work. He argued that managerial
domination makes subordinates passive and dependent, and decreases their sense of
responsibility and self-control. Argyris argued for an alternative organisational design
that acknowledged human needs and feelings, and increased workers' satisfaction.
Like McGregor, he favoured giving subordinates more independence and decision-
making power to create a more informal organisational culture.

Likert shared the perspectives of McGregor and Argyris. In his research, he found that
managers who encouraged their subordinates could motivate them more than
traditional authoritarian managers. Likert based on model of four possible systems on
these findings. In System 1 power and authority are distributed strictly according to
the classical management subordinate relationship: a manager gives orders to lower-
level members. In System 4 organisations, by contrast, there is extensive participation
in decision-making and problem-solving groups. Some individuals in each group also
belong to other work groups to ensure communication between them. System 4
represents Likert's view of an ideal organisation.

Criticisms of the Neoclassical Approach

The neoclassical approach to organisational design compensates for limitations in
the traditional classical model, but it has also been criticised. First, the neoclassicists
share the classical assumption that there is one best way to design an organisation.
They overlook environmental, technological, and other variables that might affect an
organisation's design, and overemphasise psychological and behavioural variables.
Second, Theories X and Y oversimplify human motivation and neglect indivdual
differences. Not everyone is motivated by the non-monetary aspects of work, nor is all
work satisfying. Finally, the coordination of work groups to achieve organisational
goals may be more difficult than the neoclassicists suggest, particularly when the
objectives of lower-level employees are not consistent with those of upper-level
managers.
Questions 14 and 15
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Write the correct letters in boxes 14 and 15 on your answer sheet.
According to the writer which TWO of the following are characteristics of the classical
approach to organize design?

A a marked ranking order for employees

B giving importance to everyone's work
C the advancement of older workers
D a neutral working environment
E increased benefits for workers

Questions 16 and 17
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Write the correct letters in boxes 16 and 17 on your answer sheet.
According to the writer, which TWO of the following are criticisms of the classical
approach to organizational design?

A Too many guidelines are proposed

B Certain practices become negative if they are implemented too strictly
C Managers and workers are unable to co-operate with each other
D The administrative standards are unsuited to some work environments
E Positive outcomes which were expected in the past would be unlikely today

Questions 18 and 19
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Write the correct letters in boxes 18 and 19 on your answer sheet.
According to the writer, which TWO of the following are aims of the neoclassical
approach to organizational design?

A to ensure workers are treated as individual people

B to create a formal atmosphere in the workplace
C to change the methods of production
D to allow workers a greater say in what happens at the workplace
E to standardise the procedures for promotion of workers

Questions 20 and 21
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Write the correct letters in boxes 20 and 21 on your answer sheet.
According to the writer, which TWO of the following are criticisms of the neoclassical
approach to organizational design?
A It suggests that workers are involved in too many decisions
B The effects of some psychological factors are given low importance
C The effects of the workplace surroundings are ignored
D It exaggerates the success of the organisations that use this approach
E It assumes that all people work for enjoyment rather than financial gain.
Questions 22-26
Look at the following beliefs (Questions 22-26) and the list of people below.
Match each belief with the correct person A-D.
Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

List of people
A Max Weber
B Douglas McGregor
C Chris Argyris
D Rensis Likert

22 The classical approach relied upon managers having incorrect views about
workers.
23 In the best organizational model, there is shared decision-making and interaction
between teams at work
24 In an efficient organisation, workers develop expertise in particular areas.
25 An organization must take into account the emotional demands of people.
26 The classical approach allowed workers' skills to be assessed in a straightforward
way.
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Children’s literature studies today

Who studies children's literature and what is it that they study? The answers to this
question are complex and messy, because of the many confounding factors which
exist in this field.

Firstly, unlike literature for adults. Children's literature is not generally written by its
own readers. Adults write for children, and thus adult perceptions of what children are
and of what they could and should be become woven into the literature.

Furthermore, some of those who study children's literature (and those who write
certain kinds of children's books) are less interested in literary values than in the kinds
of lessons it can teach- either in terms of creating better children or in terms of
serving a particular curriculum. The issue of how a teacher can use a children's book
is often contentious, but even outfide the classroom, much material for children is still
didactic.

Thirdly, while almost all literature is currently promoted within a strong commercial
matrix, children's literature is often especially targeted for marketing initiatives. This
fact means that readers are often recruited with a message that is negligibly literary
and significantly oriented to ideas of consumption. Daniel Hade (2002) has raised
useful questions about whether children's experience of reading is altered when their
books are part of a larger marketing framework involving the movie, the game, and the
toy of a popular children's book. How children perceive and respond to their stories in
this new context is an important question.

It is also important to note that texts in an ever-increasing range of new media

compete with print media for the attention of the child reader, and create definitional
issues for scholars. Does the term literature' exclusively imply a verbal text? If not,
where are the limits? Could a literary computer game ever be considered a work of
literature? If not, what kind of attention should be paid to it, since children themselves
undoubtedly perceive their print literature as part of a broader continuum? The internet
provides one forum through which children now communicate with each other. (In
2003, the internet search engine Google listed 7,920,000 sites relating to the Harry
Potter novels; even allowing for duplication and dead ends, that is a number with
revolutionary implications.)

Finally, in the context of the higher education institutions where the formal study of
children's literature of often located, at least three disciplinary frameworks (English,
education, and librarianship) fragment the focus of scholarly study of children's
literature.
How is the value of the imaginative encounter with the work of literature sustained
and honored among such a welter of conflicting interests? One route through this
maze is to ask the child readers for help. As David Lewis (2001) has perceptively
noted, what children think of reading is not usually the same as what adults think,
whether teachers or parents. As Lewis points out children 'sometimes see more and
they often see differently'. If those who study reading can explore children's
terceptions as well as those of adults, their understanding of the nature of reading will
be enhanced.

Lewis makes a further valid point when he adds that exploring children's perceptions
is usually justified for educational reasons: "It is true that a better understanding of
how children read and how they learn to read, is a prerequisite to improved
approaches to teaching. However, it can also be argued, as Lewis rightly does, that
when children's responses to literature are accessed and interpreted, they frequently
lead to an understanding of how picture books appeal to children.

Young people's accounts of what and how they read also enable a more sophisticated
description of many of the complex processes involved in reading. All descriptions of
reading run the risk of solipsism: i.e. this is how I read so this is what reading is for
everyone. Asking other readers how they read, however, reduces that risk.
For example, if I am a strong visualizer as I read, I may consider that visualization is a
key component of successful reading and I may judge books by their capacity to
evoke a vivid visual response. Other readers, however, may help me to realize that not
everyone reads with mental pictures. Some readers respond to the patterns of the
words, 'hearing' them inaudibly like a subliminal radio program. Others respond to the
patterns of feelings in the story, responding with an emotional connection. Talking to
competent readers, of all ages, provides a better understanding of reading
experiences.

Children's insights are even more important when it comes to understanding the
significance of print literature as one aspect of literary culture. Too often adults
assume that reading any book at all is a more worthwhile experience than playing a
digital game of any kind. A humbler approach would include asking why the game
appeals to the player. Many adults will probably never develop the automatic skills to
precess a game as readily as they can read a book. This does not indicate that a book
is better, but that a particular set of skills is absent Non-players must acknowledge
that some fictional universes are thus closed to them, and a logical response would be
to find someone who can guide them to the pleasures and challenges of the gaming
world. Games need to be judged individually just as books do, and any evaluative
framework needs to take this into account.
Questions 27-29
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Write the correct answer on boxes 27-29, on your answer sheet.
27 Which of the following best summarises the writer's argument in the second
paragraph?
A Children are portrayed as adults see them.
B Children are unable to write their own stories.
C Adults fail to stimulate children's imaginations.
D Adult literature is too difficult for children.
28. In the third paragraph, what does the writer say is the main interest of some
people who study childrer literature?
A the quality of the writing
B the imaginative content of stories
C the instructive nature of children's books
D the way children are written about in stories
29. The main point of the writer's argument in the fifth paragraph is to
A demonstrate that academics consider computer games to be a logical extension of
children's literature.
B explore the impact of computers on the boundaries of children's literature.
C illustrate that literature and computer games have from different origins.
D prove that children are using computers more than they are reading literature.

Questions 30-34
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 30-34 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

30 Children tend to make a clear distinction between print literature and electronic
media.
31 The study of children's literature at higher education institutions is restricted to one
subject area.
32 Exploring children's perceptions of reading will assist parents to choose suitable
books for children.
33 Adults may appreciate the appeal of illustrated stories better, if they have more
information on how children read.
34 Children should be asked what features they would like digital games to include.
Questions 35-39
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-H, below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 35-39 on your answer sheet.

35 Young people's accounts of how they read lead to

36 The risk of solipsism is reduced by
37 Strong visualisers judge books on the basis that they are
38 Children's insights are important in
39 When adults read a book more easily than they play a digital game it simply
suggests

List of endings
A accepting that literature exists in a variety of forms today
B verbalising the words in their heads
C discovering the reading techniques used by others
D the style of written stories changing over time
E the lack of some specific abilities
F a deeper knowledge of the intricacies of reading
G children teaching adults to play computer games
H creating a variety of images in their minds.

Question 40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.
What was the writer's main purpose in writing this article?
A to evaluate how the process of reading fits into children's literature studies
B to discuss the impact of the increasing commercial influence on children's literature
studies
C to review the challenges in the field of children's literature studies and suggest how
to proceed
D to provide arguments in favor of including computerized forms of me children's
literature studies
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 below.

The Burgess Shale fossils

Fauna vanished with a whimper, not a bang

Some discoveries are so unusual it takes decades and sometimes even centuries to
understand their full significance. One such discovery is the fossil bed known as the
ago. It was discovered in the Canadian Rockies over a century ago and was
popularised in 1989 in a book, Wonderful Life, by Stephen Jay Gould an American
palaeontologist.

The Burgess Shale fossils were created at a time when the future Canadian land mass
was situated near the Earth's equator. The creatures were preserved when an entire
marine ecosystem was buried in mud that eventually hardened and became exposed
hundreds of millions of years later in an outcrop of the Rocky Mountains. American
palaeontologist Charles Walcott, following reports of fabulous fossils finds by
construction workers on Canadian railways who were digging in the mountains in the
late 19th century, is said to have tripped over a block of shale in 1909 that revealed
the area's remarkable supply of specimens. It has long been believed that the curious
fauna that lived there vanished in a series of extinction because the fossil record ends
abruptly, but that no longer appears to be the case.

The Burgess Shale began to form soon after a period of time known as the Cambrian
explosion, when most major groups of complex animals arose over a surprisingly short
period. Before 560m years ago, most living things were either individual cells or simple
colonies of cells. Then, and for reasons that remain a mystery, life massively
diversified and became ever more complex as the rate of evolution increased. An
unusual feature of the Burgess Shale is that it is one of the earliest fossil beds to
contain impressions of the soft body parts alongside the remains of bones and shells,
which is highly unusual.

Although the fossil bed was discovered on a mountain, these animals originally
existed below an ocean, the bed of which was later pushed up to create the Rockies.
Nobody knows exactly why they were so well preserved. One possibility is that the
creatures were buried quickly and in conditions that were hostile to the bacteria that
cause decomposition of soft body parts.

Those that first worked on the Burgess Shale, unearthing 65,000 specimens over a
14-year period up to 1924, assumed that the fossils came from extinct members of
groups of animals in existence today. This turned out to be misleading because many
of the creatures are so unusual that they are still difficult to classify.
One such example is Opabinia, a creature that grew to about 8cm (3 inches had five
eyes, a body that was a series of lobes, a tail in the shape of a fan and that ate using
a long proboscis. The proboscis had a set of grasping claws on the end, with which it
grabbed food and stuff it into its mouth. Nectocaris, meanwhile, could be mistaken for
a leech, with fins and tentacles. Weirdest of all was Hallucigenia, described by
palaeontologist Simon Conway Morris when he re-examined Walcott's specimens in
1979. With its multiplicity of spines and tentacles, little about Hallucigenia made
sense. Like an abstract painting, its orientation is a mystery at first, making it difficult
to work out which way up it went, which hole food went into, and which hole food
come out of.

Palaeontologists had long thought that many of the Burgess Shale animals were
examples of experiments in evolution. In other words, entirely new forms of life that did
not survive or lead to other groups or species. Hallucigenia, ironically, turned out to be
the exception that proved the rule. It is now thought to be an ancestor of the modern
group of arthropods, which includes everything from flies and butterflies to centipedes
and crabs.

Now another misconception has been quashed. Writing in Nature, Peter Van Roy of
Yale University and his colleagues suggest that the sudden absence of such crazy
soft-bodied fossils does not indicate a mass extinction, but merely an end to the
unusual local circumstances that caused the creatures to be preserved. In an area of
the Atlas Mountains of Morocco, Van Roy's team of researchers have found another
diverse (and sometimes bizarre) assemblage of soft-bodied organisms from a period
after the Burgess Shale was formed. One discovery includes something that may be a
stalked barnacle. This suggests that the evolution of such complex life went on
uninterrupted. For its part, the Burgess Shale continues to produce an astonishing
array of indefinable creatures faster than palaeoriologists can examine them. The
world still has plenty to learn about this wonderful life.
Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN there is no information on this

1 The Burgess Shale became widely known to the public because of Gould's book.
2 Charles Walcott had to get permission from Canadian authorities to gain access to
the fossil site.
3 The Burgess Shale includes impressions of soft and hard body parts.
4 The Burgess Shale creatures were land animals.
5 Researchers now believe that Hallucigenia is unrelated to any modern creature.

Questions 6-9
Complete the notes belov
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for
each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.

Formation:
- Burgess Shale was formed following a time called the 6 …………………..

Discovery and Investigation in the twentieth century:

- discovered in 1909
- Charles Walcott learned of the fossil finds from people building a 7………………..
- the first work on Burgess Shale was undertaken at the start of the century
- a researcher looked at Burgess Shale findings again in 8 ………………………

Recent theories:

- Peter Van Roy

- believes that discoveries in Morocco show that the 9 ……………….. of complxes life
forms continued
Questions 10-13
Complete the table below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

Burgess Shale Creatures

Name Features
Opabinia - five eyes
- tail resembling a 10 ……………
- claws used to hold 11 …………..

Nectocaris - looked like a 12 …………

- fins
- tentacles

Hallucigenia - spines used to 13 ………………..

- tentacles
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

UNDOING OUR EMOTIONS

A Three generations ago, 180 young women wrote essays describing why they wanted
to join a convent ( religious community of nuns). Years later, a team of psychological
researchers came across these autobiographies in the convent's archives. The
researchers were seeking material to confirm earlier studies hinting at a link between
having a good vocabulary in youth and a low risk of Alzheimer's disease in old age.
What they found was even more amazing. The researchers found that, although the
young women were in their early twenties when they wrote their essays, the emotions
expressed in these writings were predictive of how long they would live: those with
upbeat autobiographies lived more than ten years longer than those whose language
was more neutral. Deborah Danner, a psychologist at the University of Kentucky who
spearheaded the study, noted that the results were particularly striking because all
members of the convent lived similar lifestyles, eliminating many variables that
normally make it difficult to interpret longevity studies. It was a phenomenal finding',
she says. 'A researcher gets a finding like that maybe once in a lifetime. However, she
points out that no one has been able to determine why positive emotions might have
such life-extending effects.

B Barbara Fredrickson, Professor of Psychology at the University of Michigan, believes

that part of the answer is the 'undo effect'. According to this theory, positive emotions
help you live longer by shutting down the effects of negative ones. Fredrickson's
theory begins with the observation that negative emotions, like fear. and stress,
enhance our flight-or-fight response to very real threats. However, even when the
emergency is gone, negative emotions produce lingering effects. Brooks Gump, a
stress researcher at the State University of New York, explains that one of these
effects is excessive cardiovascular reactivity. Behaviourally, Gump says, this reactivity
is related to excessive vigilance: the state of being constantly on guard for potential
dangers. Not only is it physically draining to live in a perpetual state of high vigilance,
but high cardiovascular reactivity could be linked to increased chances of a heart
attack.

C Fredrickson believes positive emotions work their magic by producing a rapid

unwinding of pent-up tension, restoring the system to normal. People who quickly
bounce back from stress often speed the process by harnessing such emotions as
amusement, interest, excitement, and happiness, she says. To test her theory,
Fredrickson told a group of student volunteers that they had only a few minutes to
prepare a speech that would be critiqued by experts. After letting the students get
nervous about that, Fredrickson then told them they wouldn't actually have to deliver
their speeches. She monitored heart rates and blood pressure. Not surprisingly, all
students got nervous about their speeches, but those who viewed the experiment with
good-humored excitement saw their heart rates return to normal much more quickly
than those who were angry about being fooled. In a second experiment, Fredrickson
reported that even those who normally were slow to bounce back could be coached to
recover more quickly by being told to view the experiment as a challenge, rather than a
threat.

D Fredrickson believes that positive emotions make people more flexible and creative.
Negative emotions, she says, give a heightened sense of detail that makes us
hypersensitive to minute clues related to the source of a threat. But that also produces
'tunnel vision' in which we ignore anything unrelated to the danger. Fredrickson
speculated that just as positive emotions can undo the cardiovascular effects of
negative ones, they may also reverse the attention-narrowing effects of negative
feelings: broadening our perspectives.

E To verify her theory, Fredrickson showed a group of students some film clips- some
saw frightening clips, some saw humorous ones or peaceful ones. They then did a
matching test in which they were shown a simple drawing and asked which of two
other drawings it most resembled. The drawings were designed so that people would
tend to give one answer if they focused on details, and another answer if they focused
on the big picture. The results confirmed Fredrickson's suspicion that positive
emotions affect our perceptions. Students who had seen the humorous or peaceful
clips were more likely to match objects according to broad impressions.

F This fits with the role that positive emotions might have played in early human
tribes, Fredrickson says. Negative emotions provided focus, which was important for
surviving in life-or-death situations, but the ability to feel positive emotions was of
long-term value because it opened the mind to new ideas. Humour is a good example
of this. She says: 'The emotions are transient, but the resources are durable. If you
building a friendship through being playful, that friendship is a lasting resource.' So
while the good feelings may pass, the friendship remains. On an individual level,
Fredrickson's theory also says that taking time to do things that make you feel happy
isn't simply self-indulgent. Not only are these emotions good for the individual, but
they are also good for society.

G Other researchers are intrigued by Fredrickson's findings. Susan Folkman, of the

University of California, has spent two decades studying how people cope with long-
term stresses such as bereavement, or caring for a chronically ill child. Contrary to
what one might expect, she says, these people frequently experience positive
emotions. 'These emotions aren't there by accident', she adds. 'Mother Nature doesn't
work that way, I think that they give a person time out from the intense stress to
restore their resources and keep going. This is very consistent with Fredrickson's
work.'
Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Which section contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

14 a conclusion that it is possible to train people to deal with anxiety

15 conclusive evidence that lifespan can be influenced by emotions.
16 an explanation of the way negative emotions affect what people concentrate on
17 an experiment that showed how a positive outlook can help people adjust to a
stressful situation faster than others
18 a discovery beyond what researchers were investigating
19 an experiment where the nature of a material seen by participants affected the way
they performed a task

List of Researchers
A Deborah Danner
B Barbara Fredrickson
C Brooks Gump
D Susan Folkman

20 People whose daily lives are stressful often have surprisingly positive emotions.
21 The body's reaction to a crisis may trigger a life-threatening event.
22 It is unusual to have a study group whose circumstances were very alike.
23 The reasons for a link between positive emotions and a longer life have not been
established.

Questions 24-26
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

24 In early tribes, negative emotions gave humans ………………..the emergencies that

they needed to deal with
25 Fredrickson believes that a passing positive emotion can lead to an enduring asset
such as a……………………, which is useful in times to come.
26 Fredrickson also believes that both individuals and ………………benefit from positive
emotions.