14-09-2025

6001CMD30303225005P MD

PHYSICS

1) The approximate depth of an ocean is 3 km. The bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 N/m2 and
density of water is 103 kg/m3. What is the fractional compression in volume of water at the bottom of
the ocean ?

(1) 1 × 10–2
(2) 1.5 × 10–2
(3) 0.5 × 10–2
(4) 2 × 10–2

2) In determination of young's modulus of elasticity of wire, a force is applied and extension is

recorded. Initial length of wire is '1m'. The curve between extension and stress is depicted then

Young's modulus of wire will be :-

(1) 2 × 109 N/m2

(2) 1 × 109 N/m2
(3) 2 × 1010 N/m2
(4) 1 × 1010 N/m2

3) An incompressible liquid flows in horizontal plane in streamline flow as shown in the figure. The

speed v of the liquid in branch 2 of the tube is

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3)

(4)

4) A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 10 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum,

(1) terminal velocity will be more than 10 m/s

(2) terminal velocity will be less than 10 m/s
(3) terminal velocity will be 10 m/s
(4) there will be no terminal velocity

5) A cylinder of height 20 m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in m/s)
through a small hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom is :

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 25.5
(4) 5

6) A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to break a copper
wire of same length and radius 2R will be

(1) F/2
(2) 4F
(3) 2F
(4) F/4

7) The value of Reynould's number for steady flow :-

(1) 100
(2) 10,000
(3) 106
(4) None of these

8) The breaking stress of wire depends upon :-

(1) length of the wire

(2) radius of the wire
(3) material of the wire
(4) shape of the cross section

9) The strain-stress curves of three wires of different materials are shown in the figure. P, Q and R

are the elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that:-
(1) Elasticity of wire P is maximum
(2) Elasticity of wire Q is maximum
(3) Elasticity of wire R is maximum
(4) None of the above is true

10) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulus of steel and brass wires shown in the figure are
a, b and c, respectively. The ratio between the increase in lengths of steel and brass wires would be
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A cube of side 40 cm has its upper face displaced by 0.1 mm by a tangential force of 8 kN. The
shearing modulus of cube is :-

(1) 2 × 109 N-m–2

(2) 4 × 109 N-m–2
(3) 2 × 108 Nm–2
(4) 4 × 108 N-m–2

12)

An elastic string of unstretched length ‘L’ & force constant ‘K’ is stretched by a small length ‘x’ it is
further stretched by small length ‘y’. The work done in second stretching is

(1)

(2)

(3)
y

(4)

13) Viscosity of liquids:

(1) Increases with increase in temperature
(2) Is independent of temperature
(3) Decreases with decrease in temperature
(4) Decreases with increase in temperature

14) A metal plate of area 103cm2 rests on a layer of oil 6mm thick. A tangential force of 10–2N is
applied on it to move it with a constant velocity of 6 cm/sec. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid
is :-

(1) 0.1 poise

(2) 0.5 poise
(3) 0.7 poise
(4) 0.9 poise

15) When load of 5kg is hung on a wire then extension of 3m takes place, then energy stored in the
wire will be

(1) 75 Joule
(2) 60 Joule
(3) 50 Joule
(4) None of these

16) The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length 100 cm is clamped and its other end is
twisted through and angle of 30°. Then angle of shear is

(1) 12°
(2) 0.12°
(3) 1.2°
(4) 0.012°

17) On taking a solid rubber ball from the surface to the bottom of a lake 100 m deep, the reduction
in volume is found to be 0.5%. If the density of water is 103 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 find the bulk
modulus of rubber :

(1) 1 × 108 Pa
(2) 2 × 108 Pa
(3) 4 × 108 Pa
(4) 6 × 108 Pa

18) The dimensional formula for coefficient of viscosity:-

(1) [MLT–1]
(2) [ML–1T–1]
(3) [MLT–2]
(4) [ML2T–1]
19) There is a 1 mm thick layer of water between a plate of area 100 cm2 and another very big plate.
The coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.01 poise. Then, the force required to move the smaller plate
with a velocity of 10 cm/sec with respect to the larger plate is:-

(1) 10 dyne
(2) 100 dyne
(3) 1000 dyne
(4) 10, 000 dyne

20) The shear stress at a point in a liquid is found to be 0.03 N/m2. The velocity gradient at the point
is 0.15 s–1. Then its viscosity is :

(1) 20 Poise
(2) 2 Poise
(3) 0.2 Poise
(4) 0.5 Poise

21) If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 gm/cc) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
(density = 1.5 gm/cc), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 gm/cc) of the
same size in the same liquid. :-

(1) 0.4 m/s

(2) 0.2 m/s
(3) 0.1 m/s
(4) 0.133 m/s

22)

A lead sphere of mass m falls in a viscous liquid with terminal velocity v0. Another lead sphere of
mass M falls through the same viscous liquid with terminal velocity 4v0. The ratio of M/m is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

23) A rain drop of diameter 1 mm falls through air, then its terminal velocity is :-
(Density of air relative to water = neglect
Coefficient of viscosity of air = 1.81 × 10–5 S.I. Unit
Density of water = 103 kg/m3)

(1) 30 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 3 cm/s
(4) 30 cm/s

24) The relative velocity between two parallel layers of water is 8 cm/s and the perpendicular
distance between them is 0.1 cm. Calculate the velocity gradient.

(1) 90/s
(2) 80.5/s
(3) 80/s
(4) None of these

25) A wheel has moment of inertia 5 × 10–3 kg m2 and is making 20 rev/sec. The torque needed to
stop it in 10 sec is ............. × 10–2 N-m :–

(1) 2π
(2) 2.5π
(3) 4π
(4) 4.5π

26) The angular velocity of a particle is given by ω = 1.5t – 3t2 + 2. Find the time when it's angular
acceleration becomes zero:

(1) t = 1 s
(2) t = 0.25 s
(3) t = 2 s
(4) t = 0 s

27) Calculate moment of inertia about axis AA′ (in plane of disc) of two identical disc each of mass M

and radius R.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Find out moment of Inertia of system about given AOR (Axis of rotation).
(1) 20 kg–m2
(2) 9 kg–m2
(3) 29 kg–m2
(4) 13 kg–m2

29) The torque of force F about point O is :

(1) Fℓ

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

30) From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of radius R/3 is removed from the
disc. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the

disc and passing through O is

(1) 4MR2

(2)

(3) 10MR2

(4)

31) Three thin uniform rods each of mass M and length L are placed along the three axis of a
cartesian coordinate system with one end of each rod at the origin. The M. I. of the system about z-
axis is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ML2

32) The angular speed of rotating rigid body is increased from 4 ω to 5 ω. The percentage increase
in its K.E. is

(1) 20 %
(2) 25 %
(3) 125 %
(4) 56 %

33) If the equation for the displacement of a particle moving on a circular path is given by (θ) = 2t3
+ 0.5, where θ is in radians and t in seconds, then the angular velocity of the particle after 2 sec
from its start is :-

(1) 8 rad/sec
(2) 12 rad/sec
(3) 24 rad/sec
(4) 36 rad/sec

34) A mass M is supported by a massless string wound round a uniform cylinder of mass M and

radius R. On releasing the mass it will fall with acceleration:-

(1) g

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Three point masses m are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. Moment of
inertia of the system about an axis COD passing through a mass m at O and lying in the plane of AOB

and perpendicular to OA is:-

(1) 2ma2

(2)
ma2

(3)
ma2

(4)
ma2

36) A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 60° with the horizontal.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about an axis of projection when the particle
is at maximum height h, is :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the angular
frequency of the particle is doubled and kinetic energy is halved, its angular momentum becomes :-

(1) 4L
(2) 2L
(3) L/2
(4) L/4

38) The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of length L and mass M about an axis passing
through a point at a distance of L/3 from one of its ends and perpendicular to the rod is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A square sheet of side ‘a’ is of mass ‘M’. Its moment of inertia about a diagonal is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) According to Hooke's law of elasticity, if stress is increased, the ratio of stress to strain :-

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) become zero
(4) remains constant

41) The ratio of radii of two wires of same material is 2 :1. If the wires are stretched by equal force.
The ratio of stresses produced in them is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

42) The stress versus strain graphs for wire of two materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA

and YB are the Young's modulii of the materials, then :-

(1) YB = 2YA
(2) YA = YB
(3) YB = 3YA
(4) YA = 3YB
43) A rod of mass M and length L is hanging, increase in its length due to its own weight :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Two wires of the same material have lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radii are in the ratio 1 :
4. If they are stretched by applying equal forces. The increase in their lengths will be in the ratio–

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

45) Two wires of equal length and cross-section area suspended as shown in figure. Thier Young's

modulus are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young's modulus will be.

(1) Y1 + Y2

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) A 0.1 M solution of HF is 1% ionized. What is the Ka :-

(1) 10–5
(2) 10–4
(3) 3 × 10–5
(4) 3 × 10–4

2) A beer has a pH of 4.30. What is the [H3O+] ?

(1) 3.0 × 10–4

(2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 2.0 × 10–5
(4) 5.0 × 10–5

3) Which of the following solutions will have pH = 10 at 298 K?

(1) 1 × 10–10 M HCl solution

(2) 1 × 10–4 M NaOH solution
(3) 1 × 10–10 M NaOH solution
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) What is the resultant pH of solution if pH = 3 and pH = 5 same volume solution mix together :-

(1) 3.5
(2) 4
(3) 3.3
(4) 3.8

5) Kb for NH4OH is 1.8 × 10–5, what is the [OH–] in its solution of 0.1 M concentration :-

(1) 1.8 × 10–6 M

(2) 1.34 × 10–3 M
(3) 5 × 10–4 M
(4) 4.2 × 10–3 M

6) For which, ostwald dilution law is applicable :-

(1) NaCl
(2) HCl
(3) CH3COONa
(4) CH3COOH

7) The [H+] in rain water of pH = 4.35 is :-

(1) 4.5 × 10–5 M

(2) 6.5 × 10–5 M
(3) 9.5 × 10–5 M
(4) 12.5 × 10–5 M

8) Buffering action of a mixture of CH3COOH and CH3COONa is maximum when the ratio of salt to
acid is equal to -

(1) 1.0
(2) 100.0
(3) 10.0
(4) 0.1

9) A weak acid of dissociation constant 10–5 is being titrated with aqueous NaOH solution. The pH at
the point of one-third neutralisation of the acid will be :

(1) 5 + log 2–log 3

(2) 5 – log 2
(3) 5 – log 3
(4) 5 – log 6

10) What is the correct representation of solubility product of Ag2CrO4 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The solubility of electrolytes MX1, MX2, MX3 is 10–3 mol/L, Hence there respective Ksp are :

(1) 10–6, 4 × 10–9, 27 × 10–12

(2) 10–9, 4 × 10–9, 32 × 10–12
(3) 10–9, 8 × 10–8, 32 × 10–12
(4) 10–3, 4 × 10–6, 27 × 10–9

12) When equal volume of NaCl & AgNO3 are mixed the precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10) will
occur with :

(1) 10–3 M Ag+ & 10–10 M Cl–

(2) 10–5 M Ag+ & 10–5 M Cl–
(3) 10–6 M Ag+ & 10–5 M Cl–
(4) 10–4 M Ag+ & 10–4 M Cl–

13) Which among the following will not react with NaOH ?
(a) NaH2PO2 (b) Na2HPO3
(c) Na2HPO4 (d) NaHCO3
(1) a, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b
(4) a, b, d

14) The conjugate base of is :-

(1) H3PO4
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) At infinite dilution, the percentage ionisation for both strong and weak electrolytes is

(1) 1%
(2) 20%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

16) The degree of dissociation of 0.02 M CH3COOH solution (Ka: 1.8 × 10–5) is

(1) 3%
(2) 0.03%
(3) 2%
(4) 0.02%

17) The Ksp of AgI is 4 × 10–18 mol2/L2. The solubility of AgI in 2 × 10–4 M KI is approximately (in
mol/L) :-

(1) 8 × 10–8
(2) 2 × 10–16
(3) 2 × 10–14
(4) 0.5 × 10–12

18) The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic is

(1) Ammonium acetate

(2) Ammonium chloride
(3) Ammonium sulphate
(4) Sodium acetate

19)

Which of the following is a buffer solution ?

 500 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 500 mL of
(1)
0.1 M NaOH
500 mL of 0.2 M CH3COOH + 500 mL of
(2)
0.1 M NaOH
500 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 500 mL of
(3)
0.2 M NaOH
500 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 500 mL of
(4)
0.1 M HCl

20) Calculate the pH of a buffer prepared by mixing 300 cc of 0.3 M NH3 and 500 cc of 0.5 M NH4Cl.
Kb for NH3 = 1.8 × 10–5

(1) 5.18
(2) 9.82
(3) 8.82
(4) 6.82

21) The solubility product of Mg(OH2) is 1 × 10–12. At what pH precipitation will occur in 0.01 M
MgCl2 solution?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 12

22) Silver ions are slowly added in a solution with [Br–] = [Cl–] = [CO32–] = [PO43–] = 0.1 M. Which
compound will precipitate first?

–13
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10 )
–10
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10 )
–12
(3) Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 8.1 × 10 )
–22
(4) Ag3PO4 (Ksp = 1 × 10 )

23) How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?

(1) 0.1 L
(2) 0.9 L
(3) 2.0 L
(4) 9.0 L

24) At 90°C, pure water has [H3O+]10–6 mole litre–1. What is the value of KW at 90°C ?

(1) 10–6
(2) 10–12
(3) 10–14
(4) 10–8

25) Identify the correct statement regarding a sponateous process :-

(1) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive
(2) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
(3) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous
(4) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity

26) Which of the following are NOT state functions ?

(I) q + w (II) q (III) w (IV) H–TS

(1) (I),(II) and (III)

(2) (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (IV)
(4) (II), (III) and (IV)

27) Assertion :– Absolute value of enthalpy cannot be determined.

Reason :– Enthalpy is defined as H=E+PV and absolute value of internal energy cannot be
determined therefore value of enthalpy can not be determined.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

28)

ΔSTotal = – 40 kJ mol–1 × K–1

ΔHsys = 2000 kJ mol–1
T = 400 K
Calculate value of ΔSsystem ?

(1) – 35 kJ mol–1 × K
(2) – 5 kJ mol–1 × K
(3) – 40 kJ mol–1 × K
(4) + 5 kJ mol–1 × K

29) An ideal gas expands from 2 L to 10 L adiabatically against a constant external pressure of 10
atm. Then find the change in internal energy:-

(1) –80 L-atm

(2) Zero
(3) 80 L-atm
(4) 40 L-atm

30) Which reaction occurs with the greatest increase in entropy ?

(1) 2H2O(ℓ) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
(2) 2 NO(g) → N2(g) + O2 (g)
(3) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2(g)
(4) Br2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 BrCl(g)

31)

Combustion of methane

(1) is an exothermic reaction

(2) is an endothermic reaction
(3) requires a catalyst
(4) gives H2

32)

The heat of combustion of graphite and diamond are –391.25 kJ and –393.12 kJ respectively what
will be the enthalpy change of conversion of graphite into diamond?

(1) –1.87 kJ
(2) 1.87 kJ
(3) –393.12
(4) zero

33) Which of the following represent heat of formation ?

(1) Cdiamond + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

(2) 2CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g)

(3)
H2 (g) + F2(g) → HF(g)
(4) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)

34) If the bond energies of H—H, Br—Br and H–Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, the
ΔH° for the reaction, H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) is :

(1) +261 kJ
(2) –103 kJ
(3) –261 kJ
(4) +103 kJ

35) ΔH = ΔE for the case :

(1) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g)

(2) C(s) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)
(3) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
(4) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g)
36) If enthalpies of formation for C2H4(g), CO2(g) and H2O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure are
52KJ/mol, –394 KJ/mol and –286 KJ/mol respectively, then enthalpy of combustion of C2H4(g) will be:

(1) –141.2 KJ/mol

(2) –1412 KJ/mol
(3) –14.2 KJ/mol
(4) +1412 KJ/mol

37) Which of the following relationships is not correct:

(1) ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
(2) ΔHsub = ΔHfusion +ΔHvap

(3) Σ –Σ
(4) ΔH°r = ΣB.E. of reactants – ΣB.E. of products

38) Which salt does not get undergo hydrolysis ?

(1) NaCN
(2) Na2CO3
(3) Na2SO4
(4) CH3COONa

39) 10 L saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 has pH = 9. Then find Ksp of Ba(OH)2

(1) 4 × 10–15
(2) 5 ×10–16
(3) 10–10
(4) None of these

40)

Select strong electrolyte among the following

(i) HNO3 (ii) HCN (iii) NH4OH
(iv) KOH (v) AgCN (vi) AgOH
(vii) HCOOH (viii) CsOH

(1) i, iv, v, viii

(2) i, iv, viii
(3) ii, iii, v, vi
(4) ii, iii, vi, vii

41) Which of the following shows common ion effect :-

(1) NH4Cl + NH4OH

(2) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(3) Mg(OH)2 + Ba(OH)2
(4) All of these

42) The pH of 0.5 M ammonium acetate solution if pKa of CH3COOH is 3.8 and pKb of NH4OH is 4.8 :-

(1) 6
(2) 6.5
(3) 5
(4) 5.5

43) Assertion :– If HCl gas is passed through saturated NaCl solution, solid NaCl starts to
precipitate.
Reason :– HCl decreases the solubility product of NaCl.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

44)

What will be the hydrogen ion concentration (moles L–1) of 0.01 M HCN solution if it is 20% ionised

(1) 0.002
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1

45) What is the quantity of NaOH present in 250 cc of the solution, so that it gives a pH = 13 :-

(1) 10–13 g
(2) 10–1 g
(3) 1.0 g
(4) 4.0 g

BOTANY

1) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Jan Ingenhousz (i) First action spectrum of photosynthesis

(b) Joseph priestley (ii) Essentiality of sunlight to plants

(c) T. W. Engelmann (iii) Discovered oxygen

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

2) Which of the following is incorrect about the experiment performed by T.W. Engelmann ?

(1) Cladophora (a green algae) is used

(2) Suspension of aerobic bacteria is used
(3) Bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of orange and green light
(4) Prism was used to split light into its spectral component

3) 2H2A + CO2 → 2A + CH2O + H2O

If this reaction occurs in cyanobacteria then what is A :-

(1) S
(2) H2O
(3) N2
(4) O

4) Which of the following is least effective in photosynthesis

(1) sunlight
(2) red light
(3) blue light
(4) green light

5) Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?

(1) Mn
(2) Mg
(3) Fe
(4) Cu

6) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Chlorophyll-a is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
(B) Chlorophyll-a protects the accessory pigments from photo oxidation.
(C) As electrons move through the photosystems, protons are transported across the thylakoid
membrane.
(D) Accessory pigments enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilised for
photosynthesis.
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

7)

The dark reactions of the photosynthesis :

(1) occur in darkness

(2) are directly depend upon light
(3) are not directly light driven
(4) occur in membrane system of chloroplast

8) Read the following statements and choose the correct option :

Statement (A): Leaves are of various colour due to pigments like chlorophylls, xanthophylls and
carotenoids.
Statement (B): Chloroplast shows clear division of labour.

(1) Both the statments are correct.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct.
(4) Only statement B is correct.

9) What percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) can be captured by plants?

(1) 1 - 2%
(2) 2 - 10%
(3) 10 - 20%
(4) 20 - 30%

10) Process of photosynthesis that occur in the stroma lamellae membranes, lack :-

(1) Photosystem-I
(2) Electron transport system
(3) NADP reductase enzyme
(4) ATP synthase

11) Z-scheme of photosynthesis results in the formation of :-

(1) only ATP and NADPH + H+

+
(2) ATP, NADPH + H and O2
(3) only ATP
(4) only NADPH + H+

12) In photosynthesis during ATP formation accumulation of protons occurs :-

(1) in lumen of thylakoid

(2) in stroma of chloroplast
(3) in stroma lamellae
(4) On outer surface of thylakoid

13) (i) "A" is made up of chlorophyll a molecule

(ii) "B" is made-up of hundreds of pigment molecule bound to protein
(iii) Here "B" is the part of photosystem I
(iv) "B" also contain chlorophyll a molecules
(v) "A" can also made up of chlorophyll b molecule
Select the correct option with respect to above given diagram :

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv, v
(4) All of above

14)

Which is the possible site for cyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) Stroma lamellae

(2) In Stroma
(3) In granal thylakoids
(4) 1 and 3 both

15) The following (P through U) are the main steps of chemosynthetic ATP synthesis in the light
reaction. Arrange them in right sequence.
(P) H+ concentration gradient established.
(Q) H+ diffuses through ATP synthetase.
(R) Carriers use energy from electrons to move H+ across the membrane.
(S) Electrons from PS II pass along electron transport chain.
(T) Light excites electrons in PS II.
(U) Energy of H+ flow is used by ATP synthetase to make ATP.
Options:-

(1) PQTSRU
(2) STPQRU
(3) TSRPQU
(4) TSRUQP

16) Which of the following components are required for chemiosmosis ?

(1) A membrane, a proton pump, an electron gradient and ATPase

(2) F0–F1 particle, ATP, a membrane and proton gradient
(3) A proton pump, a membrane, a proton gradient and ATPase
(4) A proton pump, a membrane, a proton gradient and Light

17) During photophosphorylation process the proton gradient develop across the :-

(1) Inner membrane of chloroplast

(2) Outer membrane of chloroplast
(3) Membrane of thylakoid
(4) Stroma and periplastidial space

18) Which event is not related with Z scheme :-

(1) Spliting of H2O

(2) NADP+ reduction
(3) CO2 reduction
(4) ATP formation

19) How many water molecules are required as a substrate to evolve 2 molecules of O2 during
photosynthesis ?

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 12

20) Movement of electrons in the electron transport system in thylakoid in terms of redox potential
scale is :-

(1) uphill
(2) downhill
(3) either downhill or uphill
(4) neither downhill nor uphill

21) Read the following statements carefully and choose incorrect statement :-

(1) Biosynthetic phase does not directly depend on the presence of light
(2) The products of light reaction are ATP, NADPH and sugar.
(3) The ATP and NADPH are used in the biosynthetic phase.
(4) In C3-cycle, the first CO2 fixation product is a 3-carbon organic acid

22) CF0 is embedded in the thylakoid membrane and forms the trans-membrane channel that carries
out

(1) Facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane

(2) Electron transport by diffusion
(3) ATP synthesis in the channel
(4) Active transport of protons and electrons

23) Photolysis of water is.

(A) Associated with PS - II
(B) Occurs on the lumen side of thylakoid
(C) Needs oxygen evolving complex
(D) Not associated with cyclic electron transport

(1) A, B, C, D are correct

(2) B, C, D only correct
(3) A, B, C only correct
(4) B, C only correct

24) Which statement about photosynthesis is false?

(1) The enzymes required for carbon fixation are located only in the grana of chloroplasts
(2) In green plants, both PS I and PS II are required for the formation of NADPH + H+
(3) The electron carriers involved in photophosphorylation are located on the thylakoid membranes
(4) Photosynthesis is a redox process in which water is oxidized and carbon dioxide is reduced

25) Assertion (A): The reaction centres in PS I and PS II are different.

Reason (R) : In PS I, the chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at 680 nm and in PS II it is at 700 nm.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

26) Which one is not part of biosynthetic phase ?

(1) Use of ATP

(2) Reduction of CO2
(3) Oxidation of H2O
(4) Oxidation of NADPH·H+

27) Which of the following is used during discovery of Calvin cycle ?

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Volvox
(3) Chalmydomonas
(4) Chlorella

28) Classification of dark reaction as C3 and C4 is primarly based on :-

(1) Initialy CO2 acceptor

(2) Final CO2 assimilation
(3) Required number of ATP during glucose formation
(4) First stable product on fixation of CO2

29) If the oxygen of CO2 is radio labellaled and provided to the plant, then which of following will
show radioactivity in the cells exposed to sunlight ?

(1) Hexose sugar

(2) Chlorophyll
(3) O2
(4) Both (2) and (3)

30) The most abundant enzyme in the world is

(1) RuBisCO
(2) NADP reductase
(3) PEPcase
(4) ATP synthase

31) Choose the incorrect option for the beginning of the final stage of the mitosis :-

(1) The chromosomes that have reached their respective poles.

(2) Chromosomes condense and loose their individuality.
(3) Nuclear envelope assembles
(4) Nucleolous reform.

32) Given diagram is related with which phase of cell division ?

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Anaphase II

33) Match the column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

(i) Synapsis (a) Diakinesis

 Transition to
(ii) (b) Pachytene
metaphase I

(iii) Crossing over (c) Zygotene

Dissolution of
(iv) synaptonemal (d) Diplotene
complex
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

34) In which one of the following options two events of cell cycle are not correctly matched with
their particular phase ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) What will be the content of DNA in a somatic cell at G2 phase if its meiotic products have 20 Pg
of DNA?
(1) 40 Pg
(2) 20 Pg
(3) 80 Pg
(4) 160 Pg

36) Identify the above stage with its respective event

(1) Anaphase II → splitting of the centromere

(2) Anaphase I → Homologous separate, chromosomes
(3) Anaphase I → Splitting of the centromere
(4) Metaphase I → Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate

37) Identify the given stage of cell division

(1) Late prophase

(2) Transition to metaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Early prophase

38) Identify the different phases (A, B, C, D) of cell cycle :-

(1) A G1 B G2 C SD M
(2) A G2 B G1 C SD M
(3) A MB G1 C G2 D S
(4) A G1 B SC G2 D M
39) Which of the following is correct sequence of amount of DNA in different stages of meiosis if
amount of DNA in G1 phase is 32 pg ?

(1) Anaphase-I = 64pg, metaphase-I = 64 pg, metaphase-II = 32pg

(2) Prophase-II = 64pg, Diakinesis = 128pg, metaphse-I = 64pg
(3) Pachytene = 64pg, metaphase-I = 32pg, Diplotene = 32pg
(4) S-phase = 64pg, Diakinesis = 32pg, Metaphase-II = 128pg

40) Synthesis of tubulin protein takes place in the phase

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) M-phase

41) Anastral mitosis is characteristic of :-

(1) Higher plants

(2) Higher animals
(3) All living organism
(4) Lower animals

42) During an anaphasic movements of chromosomes, ______ of each chromosome is/are towards the
pole and ____ of the chromosome trails behind :-

(1) Centromere, arms

(2) arms, Centromere
(3) Chromatids, Centromere
(4) DNA, centriole

43) Consider the following statements and choose the correct statements.
(I) The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.
(II) These X-shaped structures are called chiasmata. In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can
last for months or years.
(III) Diplotene is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
(IV) The nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope also breaks down. Diakinesis represents
transition to metaphase.

(1) (I), (II) and (III)

(2) (I), (II) and (IV)
(3) (I), (III) and (IV)
(4) All of these

44) Most dramatic period of cell cycle :-

(1) G1-phase
(2) G2-phase
(3) S-phase
(4) M-phase

45) Cyclin Dependent Kinases (CDKs)

(1) Act as mitotic poisons

(2) Cause disassembly of the microtubules
(3) Control various phases of cell cycle
(4) Arrest cell division due to non-formation of spindle

ZOOLOGY

1) Which of the following disorders occur due to hypersecretion of cortisol ?

(1) Grave's disease

(2) Addison's disease
(3) Cushing's syndrome
(4) Cretinism

2) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

3) The hypothalamic hormone reach the neurohypophysis through :-

(1) Hypophyseal portal system

(2) Hypophyseal tract
(3) Hypophyseal vein
(4) Hypophyseal artery

4) Which of the following is not a non-organised endocrine gland ?

(1) Liver
(2) Heart
(3) Pancrease
(4) Kidney

5) Mammalian prolactin is secreted by :-

(1) Adrenal medulla

(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Neurohypophysis
(4) Adenohypophysis

6) Functions of different organ systems in our body must be coordinated to maintain homeostasis
with the help of

(1) Only sensory system

(2) Only endocrine system
(3) Respiratory system
(4) Jointly by neural system and endocrine system

7) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Melatonin – Thymus

(2) Oxytocin – Pars nervosa
(3) Prolactin – Thyroid gland
(4) Thyrocalcitonin – Parathyroid gland

8) When blood pressure increases, the Atrial wall of the heart secretes a very important peptide
hormone to decrease the blood pressure that is :-

(1) Erythropoietin
(2) Renin
(3) ANF
(4) ADH

9) Which of the following is correct ?

(a) Hypercalcemic hormone is thyrocalcitonin (TCT)
(b) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca+2 levels in the blood
(c) Thymosin play a major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes
(d) Parathyroid glands are present on back side of the thyroid gland

(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

10) Second messenger is not formed during functioning of which hormone :-

(1) FSH
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Cortisol

11) Gland which regulates sleep-wake cycle :-

(1) Adrenal gland

(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Thymus gland

12) Which hormone is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney ?

(1) Secretin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Somatostatin
(4) Rennin and pancreatic polypeptide

13) In which of the following cranial bone, pituitary gland is situated :-

(1) Scaphoid
(2) Sesamoid
(3) Suture
(4) Sphenoid

14) Osteoporosis, an age–related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to :-

(1) Decreased level of estrogen

(2) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints.
(3) Immune disorder affecting neuro–muscular junction leading to fatigue.
(4) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+.

15) Given below is a flow chart of hormonal action, identify the hormones / glands labelled as A,B, C
and D :-

(1) A–Neurohypophysis B–TSH C–Thyroid gland

D-Metabolism
(2) A–Pituitary gland B-GnRH
of body

D-Sleep-wake
(3) B-TSH C-Adenohypophysis
cycle
 C-Thyroid
(4) A-Adenohypophysis B-TSH
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Homeostasis of Ca++ ion in blood is maintain by ?

(1) T.C.T & P.T.H

(2) Thyroxine & P.T.H
(3) G.H & T.C.T
(4) P.T.H & Glucagon

17) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) GIP stimulates gastric secretion.

(2) Gastrin stimulates secretion of hydrochloric acid.
(3) Secretin acts on endocrine pancreas.
(4) CCK acts on stomach.

18) Which of the statement is correct regarding endocrine gland :- (A) Ductless glands whose
secretions pour directly into blood
(B) Have ducts which straightaway pour secretions into target organs
(C) Have Duct glands whose secretions pour indirectly into blood

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) Only C
(4) Only A

19) Which statements is incorrect regarding hormone ?

(1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical

(2) Act as intracellular secondary messenger
(3) Produce in trace amount
(4) Hormones are not species specific

20)
This X is represent -

(1) Parathyroid gland

(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) (1) and (2) both

21)
Name of the hormone which are secreted by x and y respectively?

(1) Adrenaline, noradrenaline

(2) Mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoid
(3) Corticoid, Adrenaline
(4) Catecholamines, corticoids

22) All of the following harmone increase blood glucose except:

(1) Cortisol
(2) Glucagon
(3) Insulin
(4) Adrenaline

23) Where are signal receiving receptors present in case of thyroxine hormones ?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Blood
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Plasma Membrane

24) Assertion (A) : Progesterone supports pregnancy.

Reason (R) : Progesterone hormone helps to prepare the uterus for implantation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Assertion (A) : Failure of secretion of hormone vasopression causes diabetes insipidus.
Reason (R) : The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion (A) : PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone.

Reason (R) : It acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27)

How many of the following are flat bone?

(a) Occipital bone (b) Clavicle (c) Vertebrae (d) Scapula

(e) Humerus (f) Ribs
(g) Ulna (h) Sternum
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 5

28) Number of floating ribs in human are :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

29) The clavicle articulates with ____ of scapula :-

(1) Acromion process

(2) Glenoid cavity
(3) Acetabulum cavity
(4) Ball and socket

30)

Which of following rib pair is also called vertebro-chondral rib ?

(1) 7th Rib pair

(2) 8th Rib pair
(3) 11th Rib pair
(4) 1st-7th Rib pairs

31) Identify the given below diagram and match correct option :-

(1) A-Radius, B-Ulna, C-Humerus, D-Carpals

(2) A-Humerus, B-Radius, C-Ulna, D-Carpals
(3) A-Humerus, B-Ulna, C-Radius, D-Carpals
(4) A-Carpals, B-Ulna, C-Radius, D-Humerus

32) Macrophage and Leucocyte exhibit _____:-

(1) Ciliary movement

(2) Flagellar movement
(3) Amoeboid movement
(4) Gliding movement

33) In a myofibril, the thick filaments are held together in the middle of A-band by a thin fibrous
membrane called :-

(1) Z-line
(2) K-line
(3) M-line
(4) H-line

34) When a skeletal muscle shortens during contraction, which of these statements is false

(1) The I-bands shorten

(2) The A-bands shorten
(3) The H-bands shorten
(4) The sarcomeres shorten

35) The functional unit of muscle contraction is:-

(1) Muscle fibre

(2) Myofibrils
(3) Sarcomere
(4) Actin & Myosin protein

36)

ATPase enzyme, needed for muscle contraction is located in :

(1) Troponin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Actin
(4) Myosin

37) Cross bridge dissociates when :-

(1) ADP & Pi binds with myosin head

(2) Ca++ pumped back into sarcoplasmic cisternae
(3) ADP & Pi dissociated from myosin head and a new ATP attached with myosin head
(4) Active site of actin get exposed

38) Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of Osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

39)

What is the correct sequence of event during contraction of muscle ?

(i) Neurotransmitter released
(ii) Binding of myosin head with actin
(iii) Cross bridge formation
(iv) Calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum

(v) Actin slides over myosin

(1) v, iv, i, iii, ii
(2) i, iv, ii, iii, v
(3) iii, v, i, iv, ii
(4) ii, v, iii, i, iv

40) Motor neurons along with muscle fibers are connected and constitute a

(1) Synapse
(2) Motor end plate
(3) Motor unit
(4) Both (1) and (3)

41) The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the

(1) Neuromuscular - junction

(2) Motor - end plate
(3) Endomuscular junction
(4) More than one option are correct

42) The role of calcium in muscle contraction is :-

(1) to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP.

(2) to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the active site on actin filament is exposed.
(3) to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction.
(4) to spread the action potential through the T tubules.

43) Which of the following joints would allow no movements?

(1) Synovial joint

(2) Ball and Socket joint
(3) Fibrous joint
(4) Cartilaginous joint

44) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?

(1) Sacrum
(2) Sternum
(3) Mandible
(4) Humerus

45) Assertion - Red muscle fibres are also known as aerobic muscle fibre
Reason - These fibres have plenty of O2 storing myoglobin and high mitochondrial content.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 4 1 1 2 2 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 4 4 2 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 2 3 2 4 1 1 2 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 1 3 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 2 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 1 2 4 2 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) ⇒

=1.5 × 10–2

2)

Slope =

m2/N
9 2
On solving Y = 1 × 10 N/m

3)

4)

there will be no terminal velocity

5)

Conceptual

6)

4F

7) for steady flow

Re < 1000

8)

material of the wire

9)

Elasticity of wire R is maximum

10)

11)

2 × 108 Nm–2

12) y

13)

Decreases with increase in temperature

14)

0.1 poise

15)

75 Joule

16)

Conceptual

17) K = = =
K = 2 × 108 Pa

18)
= M1L–1T–1

19)

F = ηA

20)

η=
η=
η = 0.2 × 10 Poise
= 2 Poise

21) Terminal velocity

22)

Vt ∝
and M ∝ r2 ⇒ r µ M1/3
So vt µ (M)2/3

23)

24)

Conceptual

25) Frequency, n = 20 Hz
ωi = 2πn = 40π rad/sec
ωf = 0, t = 10 sec
so, ωf = ωi + at
0 = 40π + α × 10
so, α = –4π rad/sec2
Now, τ = Iα = 5 × 10–3 × 4π = 2π × 10–2 N-m

26)

Conceptual
27)

28)

29)

30)

Conceptual

31)

Conceptual

32)

Conceptual

33)

24 rad/sec

34)

Conceptual

35)

Conceptual

36)

37)

Conceptual

38)

Conceptual
 39)

40)

remains constant

41)

Conceptual

42) = = 3 ⇒ YA = 3YB

43)

Conceptual

44)

Conceptual

45)

Conceptual

CHEMISTRY

46)

47) Explanation - [H3O+]

Concept - pH scale
Solution - we know that
[H3O+] = 10-pH Given pH = 4.3
= 10-4.3

Final Answer = 4

48)
 A. Question Explanation:

We need to determine which solution has a pH = 10 at 298 K (25°C)

The pH scale is defined as:
pH = -log[H+]
Similarly, for bases:
pOH = -log[OH-]
and using the relationship:
pH + pOH = 14

B. Given Data:
1. 1 × 10-10 M HCI
2. 1 × 10−4 M NaOH
3. 1 × 10-10 M NaOH

C. Concept:
1. pH of Strong Acid (HCI):

A. Normally, pH = -\log [H*].

However, at very low concentrations (< 10-7 M), we must consider the self-ionization of water:
[H+]total = [H+]acid + [H+]water = 10-10 + 10-7 ≈ 10-7M
So, pH = 7, not 10.

2. pH of Strong Base (NaOH):

A. For 1 × 10−4 M NaOH:

pOH = -log(10-4) = 4
pH = 14 - 4 = 10

A. For 1 × 10-10 M NaOн:

Similar to HCI, at extremely low concentrations, water's ionization dominates:

[OH-]total = [OH-]base + [OH-]water = 10-10 + 10−7 ≈ 10-7м
So, pOH = 7, meaning pH = 7, not 10.

D. Mathematical Calculation (Optional):

For 1 × 10−4 M NaOH:
pOH = 4, pH = 14 - 4 = 10
E. Question Level: MEDIUM

49)

Explanation: We have two solutions of equal volume. We need to determine the pH of the
resultant solution when they are mixed together in equal volume.

Given Data :

A. pH₁ = 3
 B. pH₂ = 5

C. Volume (V₁) = Volume (V₂) (Equal volumes)

Concept : pH of resultant solution.

Solution : The pH of a solution is related to the concentration of hydrogen ions [H+] by the
formula: pH = −log[H + ], Since pH is logarithmic, we must first convert it to [H⁺]
concentration, sum them up, and then determine the resultant pH.

Calculation :
1. Convert pH values to [H+] concentrations :
[H+]1 = 10–3 = 1.0 × 10–3 M
[H+]2 = 10–5 = 1.0 × 10–5 M
2. Since equal volumes are mixed, the new [H+] concentration is the average.

= 5.05 × 10–4 M
3. Find the resultant pH :
pHfinal = –log (5.05 × 10–4)
Approximating using logarithm properties : pH 3.3

Answer: Option 3, 3.3

50)

Q. Explanation: Ammonium hydroxide (NH40H) is a weak base, so it doesn't completely

dissociate in water. We can use the base dissociation constant (Kb) to calculate the hydroxide
ion concentration in its solution. Since it's a weak base, we'll use an approximation method.

Given Data: Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 x 10-5

Concentration of NH4OH = 0.1 M
Concept: For a weak base, the hydroxide ion concentration can be approximated using the
following formula:
[OH–] = (Kb × C)
Where:
• Kb is the base dissociation constant
• C is the concentration of the base
Calculation:
1. Substitute the given values into the formula: [OH–] = (1.8 × 10–5 × 0.1)
2. Calculate the square root: [OH–] = (1.8 × 10–6) [OH–] ≈ 1.34 × 10–3 M
Answer-2 (1.34 × 10–3 M)

51) Concept: Ostwald's dilution law applies to weak electrolytes.

NaCl (sodium chloride), HCl (hydrochloric acid) and CH3COONa (sodium acetate) are strong
 electrolyte
CH3COONa (acetic acid ) is a weak electrolyte
Answer : Option-4 (CH3COOH)

52)

[H+] = 10– 4.35

= 10–5 + 0.65
= 10–5 × 100.65 = 4.5 × 10–5

53)

Conceptual

54)

pKa = –log10–5 = 5

pH = pKa + log

= 5 + log = 5–log2

55)

Ag2 CrO4 ⇌ 2Ag+ + CrO42–

Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CrO42–]

56)

10–6, 4 × 10–9, 27 × 10–12

57)

10–4 M Ag+ & 10–4 M Cl–

58)

Explanation:

A. (a) NaH₂PO₂ (Sodium hypophosphite): This is the sodium salt of hypophosphorous acid
(H₃PO₂), which is a monoprotic acid. The salt still has two replaceable hydrogen atoms, but
these are directly bonded to the phosphorus atom and are not acidic in aqueous solution.
Thus, NaH₂PO₂ will not react further with NaOH.
B. (b) Na₂HPO₃ (Sodium phosphite): This is the sodium salt of phosphorous acid (H₃PO₃),
which is a diprotic acid. The salt still has one replaceable hydrogen atom and is not acidic in
aqueous solution. Thus, Na₂HPO₃ will not react further with NaOH.
C. (c) Na₂HPO₄ (Disodium phosphate): This is the sodium salt of phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄),
 which is a triprotic acid. The HPO₄²⁻ ion can act as a weak acid and will react with NaOH:
Na₂HPO₄ + NaOH → Na₃PO₄ + H₂O
D. (d) NaHCO₃ (Sodium bicarbonate): This is the sodium salt of carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which
is a diprotic acid. The HCO₃⁻ ion can act as a weak acid and will react with NaOH: NaHCO₃ +
NaOH → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O
E. Therefore, NaH₂PO₂, , Na₂HPO₃ will not react with NaOH.

Answer option 3, (a,b).

59)

60)

Conceptual

61)

Conceptual

62)

Conceptual

63)

Sodium acetate

64)

500 mL of 0.2 M CH3COOH + 500 mL of

0.1 M NaOH

65) Total volume of the buffer solution

= 300 cc + 500 cc = 800 cc
Number of milli moles of NH3 = 300 × 0.3 = 90
Molarity of NH3 (Base) in the buffer = 90/800 M
Number of milli moles of NH4Cl = 500 × 0.5 = 250.0
Molarity of [salt] in the buffer = 250/800 M
Henderson's equation for basic buffer is:

pOH = – log Kb log

= – log 1.8 × 10–5 + log

= 4.74 + log 250/90
= 4.74 + 0.44
= 5.18
 pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 5.18 = 8.82

66)

Conceptual

67)

AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10–13)

68) N1V1 = N1V2

10–1 × 1 = 10–2 × V2
V2 = 10 L
so V2 – V1 = 10–1 = 9 L

69) Explanation:

A. The ionic product of water (Kw), which is the product of hydrogen ion and hydroxide ion
concentrations, increases directly with temperature, meaning a higher temperature leads to a
higher Kw value.

Given Data:

A. Temperature = 90°C
B. [H3O+] in pure water at 90°C = 10–6 mol/L

Concept:In pure water, the concentration of hydronium ions ([H3O+]) is equal to the concentration
of hydroxide ions ([OH–]). The ionic product of water (Kw) is the product of these concentrations: Kw
= [H3O+] [OH–]
Calculation:

A. In pure water, [H3O+] = [OH–].

B. Given [H3O+] = 10–6 mol/L, therefore [OH–] = 10–6 mol/L.
C. Kw = [H3O+] [OH–] = (10–6 mol/L) × (10–6 mol/L) = 10–12 mol2 L–2.

Answer option 2, (10–12).

70)

Explanation :- Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process

Concept :- This question is based on Entropy for spontaneous process

Solution :- A spontaneous process in an isolated system in characterized by an increase in

entropy
Answer :- 1
71) Question Explanation
Identify which quantities are NOT state functions from the given options.
Concept
State functions depend only on the state; q and w are path functions, others are state
functions.
Explanation
(I) q + w = → state function.
(II) q → not a state function.
(III) w → not a state function.
(IV) H – TS = G → state function.
Final Answer (2)

72)

Explanation :- Evaluate the given Assertion and Reason regarding the absolute value of
enthalpy

Concept :- This question is based on Enthalpy

Solution :- Enthalpy (H) is defined as

H = E + PV
Since the absolute values of E cannot be determined, the absolute value of enthalpy (H) also
cannot be determined.
Answer :- 4

73)

ΔGsys = –TΔSTotal
= –400 (–40)
ΔGsys = 16000 kJ
ΔGsys = ΔHsys – TΔSsys

ΔSsys =
= –35 kJ/mol – K

74) Wirr = – PExt ΔV

= –10 (10 – 2)
= –80 L-atm
For adiabatic process
q=0
According FLOT
ΔU = 0 + w
ΔU = w = –80 L-atm

75) ΔS ∝ Δng

76)
Is an exothermic reaction

77)

Conceptual

78) According to definition

79)

ΔH = (BE)R – (BE)P

80)

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

81)

–1412 KJ/mol

82) Σ –Σ

83)

Na2SO4

84)

5 ×10–16

85)

Strong electrolyte ⇒
SA | SB | all types of salt

86)

Conceptual

87) H2SO4 2H+ + SO42

10–3 M 2 × 10–3 M
∴ [H+] = 2 × 10–3
pH = –log(2 × 10–3) = 3–log 2
 = 3–0.3 = 2.7

88)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

89) Asking about : Concentration of hydrogen ions in 0.01 M HCN

Concept : [H+] = C . ∝ (for monobasic acid)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
HCN H+ + CN–
t=0 C - -
teqbm C–C∝ C∝ C∝
Concentration of [H+] = C . ∝
µ = 20% or 0.2
C = 0.01 M
[H+] = 0.01 × 0.2 = 0.002
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

90)

Conceptual

BOTANY

91)

Correct answer: 4. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

Explanation:

A. (a) Jan Ingenhousz → (ii) Essentiality of sunlight to plants

He showed that plants need sunlight to purify air (photosynthesize).
B. (b) Joseph Priestley → (iii) Discovered oxygen
He discovered that plants release a gas (later identified as oxygen) which supports
combustion.
C. (c) T. W. Engelmann → (i) First action spectrum of photosynthesis
He used a prism and green algae with bacteria to show that blue and red light are most
effective in photosynthesis.

So the correct matching is:

a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

92)

Bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of orange and green light

93) NCERT (XI) Pg # 208

94)

green light

95)

Conceptual

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 210, 211,214

97)

are not directly light driven

98)

NCERT Module Pg. No. # 209, 210

99)

Conceptual

100) NCERT (XIth) Pg # 213 (2nd para)

101) NCERT (XI) (Eng.) Pg. # 212 (Fig. 13.5)

NCERT (XI) िहदी पे ज # 212 (िच 13.5)

102)

in lumen of thylakoid

103)

Conceptual

104)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 213

105)

Conceptual
 106)

The correct answer is: A proton pump, a membrane, a proton gradient, and ATPase.
Here's why:

A. Proton pump: This is responsible for actively transporting protons (H+) across the membrane,
creating a proton gradient.
B. Membrane: The membrane is essential for separating the compartments where the proton
gradient is established and where ATP synthesis occurs.
C. Proton gradient: The gradient of protons across the membrane (more protons on one side)
stores potential energy.
D. ATPase: The ATP synthase enzyme (often referred to as the Fo-F1 complex) uses the energy
from the movement of protons down their concentration gradient to synthesize ATP.

107) NCERT Pg. # 214

108) NCERT Pg. # 212

109)

Conceptual

110) NCERT - XI ; Page No. # 212

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 215

112)

Facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane

113)

A, B, C, D are correct

114)

The enzymes required for carbon fixation are located only in the grana of chloroplasts

115)

(A) is true but (R) is false

116)
Oxidation of H2O

117) Chlorella

118)

First stable product on fixation of CO2

119)

Hexose sugar

120)

RuBisCO

121)

Chromosomes condense and loose their individuality.

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 169, Fig. 10.3

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 168

124)

Conceptual

125) NCERT PG. 168-169

126) NCERT XII Pg. # 169

127) Explanation:
In early prophase of cell division (mitosis or meiosis), key events such as chromosome
condensation and the formation of the mitotic spindle begin, while the nuclear envelope starts
to break down. It is the first step in the prophase stage.

Correct answer: 4. Early prophase

128)

129)
 Ncert Pg No: 163, 2021-2022

130)

Conceptual

131)

Higher plants

132)

Centromere, arms

133)

(I), (II) and (IV)

134)

M-phase

135)

Control various phases of cell cycle

ZOOLOGY

136)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The disorder that occurs due to hypersecretion of cortisol is Cushing's syndrome.

The correct answer is 3. Cushing's syndrome.

137)

The correct answer is 3. Oxytocin, Prolactin.

Solution:
• Oxytocin initiates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
• Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands.

138)
Hypophyseal tract

139)

Pancrease

140)

The correct answer is 4. Adenohypophysis.

Solution:
Mammalian prolactin is secreted by the adenohypophysis.

141)

Jointly by neural system and endocrine system

142)

Oxytocin – Pars nervosa

143)

Conceptual

144)

Conceptual

145)

Cortisol

146)

The correct answer is 3. Pineal gland

Solution:
The pineal gland secretes melatonin, a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating
circadian rhythms, including the sleep-wake cycle.

147)

Erythropoietin
148)

Sphenoid

149)

Decreased level of estrogen

150)

The correct answer is 4. A - Adenohypophysis, B - TSH, C - Thyroid gland

Explanation:
The hypothalamus releases TRH, which stimulates the adenohypophysis (A) to release TSH (B).
TSH then acts on the thyroid gland (C) to produce thyroxin. Thyroxin's main function is the
regulation of the metabolism of the body.

151)

T.C.T & P.T.H

152) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 338

153)

NCERT XI Pg # 330

154)

Act as intracellular secondary messenger

155)

Parathyroid gland

156)

Catecholamines, corticoids

157)

NCERT Pg. No. # 246

158)

Nucleus
159) NCERT-339

160) NCERT - 333

161) NCERT - 335

162) Flat bones are generally thin, flattened, and often slightly curved. They provide
protection and surfaces for muscle attachment. In the given question following are the
examples of flat bones: 1. Occipital bone (a) - Flat bone
2. Scapula (d) - Flat bone
3. Ribs (f) - Flat bones
4. Sternum (h) - Flat bone
So, the correct answer is option 3.

163) Module 8 Pg. # 138

164)

Acromion process

165) NCERT XIth Pg # 310

166) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 311

167)

Amoeboid movement

168) NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 305

169)

The A-bands shorten

170)

Sarcomere

171)

The ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in myosin.

172)
After the power stroke, ADP & Pi leave the myosin head, but the cross-bridge remains intact.

Cross-bridge dissociation occurs when a new ATP binds to myosin, allowing it to detach from
actin and reset for the next cycle.

The correct answer is 3.

ADP & Pi dissociate from the myosin head and a new ATP attaches to it.

173)

Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances
of fractures.

This is TRUE. Osteoporosis is a condition where bones become weak and brittle due to loss of
bone tissue, leading to increased fracture risk.

Reason (R): Common cause of Osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

This is FALSE. Osteoporosis is more commonly associated with decreased levels of estrogen,
particularly after menopause in women.

Therefore: Assertion (A) is correct. Reason (R) is not correct.

This corresponds to option 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

174)

Conceptual

175)

Motor unit

176)

More than one option are correct

177)

to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the active site on actin filament is exposed.

178)

Fibrous joint

179)

Humerus
180)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.