02-11-2025

1016CMD303085250023 MD

PHYSICS

1) A parallel plate capacitor is charged and kept connected with the battery. If now a dielectric slab
is inserted between the plates to fill the entire space between the plates then what will be the
change in the charge, potential difference and electric field intensity between the plates
respectively

(1) increases, constant, increases

(2) increases, constant, constant
(3) increases, constant, decreases
(4) constant, decreases, decreases

2) Two copper spheres of same radii, one hollow and the other solid, are charged to the same
potential. Which will hold more charge ?

(1) Solid sphere

(2) Hollow sphere
(3) Both will hold equal charge
(4) Nothing can be predicted

3) Two insulated conductors are charged by transferring electrons from one conductor to another. A
potential difference of 100 V is produced by transferring 6.25 × 1015 electrons from one conductor to
the other. The capacity of the system will be

(1) 20μF
(2) 10μF
(3) 40μF
(4) 60μF

4)

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor are not equal in area, then :

(1) quantity of charge on the plates will be same but nature of charge will be different
(2) quantity of charge on the plates as well as nature of charge will be different
(3) quantity of charge on the plates will be different but nature of charge will be same
(4) quantity of charge on the plates as well as nature of charge will be same

5) The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are pulled apart with a velocity v. If at any instant their
mutual distance of separation is x then magnitude of rate of change of capacitance with respect to
time varies as :
(1)

(2)

(3) x2
(4) x

6) A capacitor is connected with a cell. If distance between plates is halved then force of attraction
between the plates :-

(1) Remains same

(2) Becomes 8 times
(3) Becomes 4 times
(4) Becomes 2 times

7) The charge given to plates are as shown. The capacitance between the consecutive plates is C.

Find the potential difference between plate 1 & 2.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The capacitance of the capacitor of plate areas A1 and A2 (A1 < A2) at distance d, apart in the

figure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) In the circuit shown, the charge stored in the capacitor of capacity 6 μF is

(1) Zero
(2) 40 μC
(3) 50 μC
(4) 80 μC

10) Four capacitors and a battery are connected as shown. The potential drop across the 7μF

capacitor is 6V. Then choose the incorrect option :

(1) potential difference across the 3μF capacitor is 10V

(2) charge on the 3μF capacitor is 42μC
(3) e.m.f. of the battery is 30V
(4) potential difference across the 12μF capacitor is 10V.

11) A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105 V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
capacitor plate is 1μC, then the force on each capacitor plate is :-

(1) 0.1N
(2) 0.05N
(3) 0.02N
(4) 0.01N

12) In the circuit shown here C1 = 6μF, C2 = 3μF and battery B = 20 V. The switch S1 is first closed.
It is then opened and afterwards S2 is closed. What is the charge on C2?

(1) 120 μC
(2) 80 μC
(3) 40 μC
(4) 20 μC
13) A 10 µF capacitor and a 20 µF capacitor are connected in series across a 200 V supply line. The
charged capacitors are then disconnected from the line and reconnected with their positive plates
together and negative plates together and no external voltage is applied. What is the potential
difference across each capacitor ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 400 V
(4) 200 V

14) A charged capacitor is connected to battery then find work done by battery :-

(1) 80 µJ
(2) 40 µJ
(3) 5 µJ
(4) 20 µJ

15) Two identical capacitors each of capacitance 5µF are charged to potentials 2 kV and 1 kV
respectively. Their (–ve) ends are connected together. When the (+ve) ends are also connected
together, the loss of energy of the system is :-

(1) 160 J
(2) Zero
(3) 5 J
(4) 1.25 J

16) A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance C farad is connected with a battery of emf V volts.
Keeping the capacitor connected with the battery, a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is
inserted between the plates. The dimensions of the slab are such that it fills the space between the
capacitor plates. Then :-

(1) charge on the capacitor plates remains the same

(2) charge on the plates increases K times
(3) potential difference between the plates decreases to V/K
(4) all of the above

17) If the reading of ideal ammeter A in circuit shown here is zero, then the ratio of the emf's of
the two batteries must be

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18) Two wires of the same material are given. The first wire is twice as long as the second and has
twice the diameter of the second. The resistance of the first will be :-

(1) Twice of the second

(2) Half of the second
(3) Equal to the second
(4) Four times of the second

19) A galvanometer of 10 ohm resistance gives full scale deflection with 0.01 ampere of current. It is
to be converted into an ammeter for measuring 10 ampere current. The value of shunt resistance
required will be :

(1) 0.01 Ω
(2) 0.1 ohm
(3) 0.5 ohm
(4) 1.0 ohm

20) Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is
applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is :

(1) current
(2) drift velocity
(3) electric field
(4) current density

21) The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 6 A

22)

A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance 0.5Ώ is being charged. If charging current is
7A then terminal voltage of the battery during charging :-

(1) 10.5V
(2) 9.5V
(3) 8.5V
(4) 11.5V

23) The potential difference between A and B in the Figure is :

(1) 24 V
(2) 14 V
(3) 32 V
(4) 48 V

24) A particle moves such that its position vector where ω is a constant and t
is time. Then which of the following statements is true for the velocity and acceleration of
the particle :

(1) is perpendicular to and is directed towards the origin

(2) and both are parallel to
(3) and both are perpendicular to
(4) is perpendicular to and is directed away from the origin

25) Assertion : In the inertial frame centrifugal force can't appear.

Reason : In the uniform circular motion centripetal force will counter balance to the centrifugal
force.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) When a particle moves in a circle with uniform speed :-

(1) its velocity and acceleration both are constant

(2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration changes
(3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity changes
(4) its velocity and acceleration both change

27) For a particle of 5 kg rotated in horizontal circle of radius 5m. Find maximum angular velocity. If
string can bear a maximum tension of 400N.

(1) 2 Rad/sec
(2) 5 Rad/sec
(3) 8 Rad/sec
(4) 4 Rad/sec

28) A spot light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a constant angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. The spot
of light P moves along the wall at a distance 3m. What is the velocity of the spot P when θ = 45°?

(1) 0.6 m/s

(2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 0.4 m/s
(4) 0.3 m/s

29) A particle is moving with a constant angular acceleration of 16 rad./sec2 in a circular path. At
time t = 0 particle was at rest. Find the time at which the magnitudes of centripetal acceleration and
tangential acceleration are equal :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 1 sec

(4)

30) A cube of mass m starts at rest from point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the circular
track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force which the track

exerts on the cube at point 2 is :

(1) 3 mg
(2) mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) cube will not reach the point 2.

31) A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of its
maximum height. How high does the ball rise ? (Take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20m
(2) 15m
(3) 5m
(4) 10m

32) A stone is thrown vertically upward from ground with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled

in time is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

33) Two cars A and B are moving with same speed of 45 kmh-1 along same direction. If a third car C
coming from the opposite direction with a speed of 36 kmh-1 meets two cars in an interval of 5 min,
the distance of separation of two cars A and B should be (in km) :

(1) 6.75
(2) 7.25
(3) 5.55
(4) 8.35

34) A ball is projected from the ground at angle θ with the horizontal. After 1 second it is moving at
angle 45° with the horizontal and after 2 seconds it is moving horizontally. What is the velocity of
projection of the ball :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Two particles are projected simultaneously from the top of the towers as shown. Find the
distance between the towers if they collide in mid air during their flight.
(1) 15 m
(2) 20 m
(3) m
(4) m

36) A ball is thrown with 25m/s relative to trolley of negligible height as shown. Find what is the
distance between trolley and ball when ball strike the ground. Given that trolley is moving with

constant velocity 5m/s horizontally.

(1) 80 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 40 m

37) In the following figure, if lower end of string B is given sudden jerk, then. [Force is sufficient

enough to break the string] :-

(1) B will break and A will not break.

(2) B will not break and A will break.
(3) Both will break.
(4) Both will not break.

38) In the shown diagram acceleration of 5kg block is 2 m/s2. Find acceleration of 6kg block at this

instant :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2)
m/s2

(3)
m/s2

(4)
m/s2

39) A balloon of mass M is descending with a constant acceleration g/4. When a mass m is released
from the balloon it starts rising with the same acceleration g/4. The value of m is (Assuming that its
volume does not change) :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 4M

(4)

40)

A force acts on block shown. The force of friction acting on the block is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) In the figure shown, a ring of mass M and a block of mass m are in equilibrium. The string is
light and pulley P does not offer any friction and coefficient of friction between pole and M is µ. The

frictional force offered by the pole on M is

(1) Mg directed up
(2) µmg directed up
(3) (M –m)g directed down
(4) µmg directed down

42) Two rods of equal mass m and length ℓ lie along the x axis and y axis with their centres at origin.
What is the moment of inertia of both about the line x = y :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Find the radius of gyration of a circular ring of radius r about a line perpendicular to the plane of

this ring and tangent to the ring.

(1) r
(2) r
(3) 2 r
(4) None

44) The figure shows an isosceles triangular plate of mass M and base L. The angle at the apex is

90°. The apex lies at the origin and the base is parallel to X - axis. The
moment of inertia of the plate about the z-axis is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

45) A disc has mass 9m. A hole of radius R/3 is cut from it as shown in the figure. The moment of
inertia of remaining part about an axis passing through the centre 'O' of the disc and perpendicular
to the plane of the disc is :

(1) 8 mR2
(2) 4 mR2

(3)
mR2

(4)
mR2

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct order of nucleophilicities of following species is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which reaction is not feasible?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Fill in blanks using the options given below.

(I) The antiseptic properties of triiodomethane are due to liberation of …………..
(II) DDT is a/an _____
(III) Freon-12 is manufactured from tetrachloromethane by ________________
(IV) The chloroflurocarbon compounds of ____ are collectively known as freons

(1) Methane gas, herbicide, Sandmeyer reaction, methane and propane

(2) Free iodide, herbicide, Swarts reaction, methane and ethane
(3) Free iodine, insecticide, Finkelstein reaction, ethane and propane
(4) Free iodine, insecticide, Swarts reaction, methane and ethane

4) Arrange the following in decreasing order of E2 reaction (dehydrohalogenation):

(X) (Y)

(Z)

(1) X > Y > Z

(2) X > Z > Y
(3) Z > X > Y
(4) Y > X > Z

5) In which of the following reaction only retention product is obtained :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Incorrect order is :-

(1) CH3–F > CH3–Cl > CH3–Br > CH3I (Dipole moment)
CH3–CH2–F < CH3–CH2–Cl < CH3–CH2–Br
(2)
< CH3–CH2–I (B.P.)
(3)

(4)

(M.P.)

7) Identify correct reactivity order for SN2 reaction:a

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) An organic compound A (molecular formula C6H12O) on treatment with H2SO4 produce Alkene,
which on oxidative ozonolysis give a molecule (C6H10O2), which give positive Iodoform test, Find out
structure of "A".

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following pair is not differentiated by iodoform test?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–OH, CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

10) Correct match is :-

(a) (p) E1

(b) (q) E2

(c) (r) SN1

(d) (s) SN2

(1) a–p, b–r, c–q, d–s

(2) a–r, b–p, c–q, d–s
(3) a–s, b–p, c–r, d–q
(4) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r

11) Find the reactivity order towards hydrolysis :-

(P) (Q)

(R) (S)

(1) R > S > Q > P

(2) R > P > Q > S
(3) P > Q > R > S
(4) S > Q > P > R

12) Which is correct order

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) SN2 mechanism based on steric effect. Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column- II
(Compound in (Relative
SN2 rate in
reaction) SN2)

(A) CH3–X (P) 0.0

(B) CH3–CH2–X (Q) 0.02

(C) (CH3)2CH–X (R) 1.00

(D) (CH3)3C–X (S) 30

(1) (A) → P, (B) → Q, (C) → R, (D) → S
(2) (A) → S, (B) → R, (C) → Q, (D) → P
(3) (A) → R, (B) → S, (C) → Q, (D) → P
(4) (A) → P, (B) → Q, (C) → S, (D) → R

14) Correct statement for

(1) It is unimolecular nucleophilic substitution

(2) B have less energy than A and C
(3) Behaviour of A and C towards plane polarised light are different
(4) Reaction rate is depend on conc. of OH–

15) Some of the compounds are given below, how many of these compounds will not give SN1

reaction.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

16) Which one is correct for Rate of given NSR

(1)

(2)
[Rate of SN1]

(3)
[Rate of SN1]

(4)

[Rate of SN2]

17) Which of the following reaction does not represent major product ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) H3PO4 is a tribasic acid and one of its salt is NaH2PO4. What volume of 1M NaOH solution should
be added to 12 g NaH2PO4 to convert it into Na3PO4 ? (molar mass of NaH2PO4 = 120 g/mol)

(1) 100 mL
(2) 200 mL
(3) 80 mL
(4) 300 mL

19) Volume at N.T.P. of 0.22 g of CO2 is same as that of -

(1) 0.01 g of hydrogen

(2) 0.085 g of NH3
(3) 320 mg of gaseous SO2
(4) All of the above

20) In a compound A containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, the % of hydrogen is one sixth that of
carbon which is 1.5 times that of oxygen. What is the simplest formula for the compound:-

(1) C2H4O2
(2) C2H4O
(3) C2H6O
(4) CH4O

21) Two oxides of a metal contain 22.22% and 30% oxygen by mass respectively. If the formula of
the first oxide is MO, then the formula of the second oxide is :-

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) M2O3
(4) M2O

22) 1 amu is equal to :-

(1)
of N15

(2)
of O18
(3)
of C12 isotope
(4) 1 g of H2

23) In the following reaction, if 56 g of N2 completely reacts with H2. What will be volume of NH3 at
STP? N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(1) 44.8L
(2) 89.6 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 11.2 L

24) Calculate the Empirical formula of compound which has C, H & N in the ratio 9 : 1 : 3.5 by
weight

(1) C2H2N
(2) C3H4N
(3) C3H2N
(4) C2H3N2

25) Statement I : Number of gram-atoms present in 1 atom is NA.

Statement II : Number of electrons added to 32 gram of O-atom to convert into O is 4NA.
2–

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

26) When mixture of 6 L of CH4 and Propane were burnt 7 L CO2 was obtained then CH4 and propane
in mixture will be :-

(1) 5.5 L and 0.5 L

(2) 6 L and 1 L
(3) 3 L and 4 L
(4) 5 L and 2 L

27) When 1L of CO2 is heated with graphite, the volume of the gases collected is 1.5 L. Calculate the
number of moles of CO produced at S.T.P.:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
28) If an ideal solution is made by mixing 2 moles of benzene (Po = 266 mm) of Hg and 3 moles of
another liquid (Po = 236 mm of Hg). The total vapour pressure of the solution at the same
temperature would be :

(1) 502 mm of Hg
(2) 248 mm of Hg
(3) 600 mm of Hg
(4) 350.6 mm of Hg

29) The vapour pressure curves of the same non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in the same solvent
are shown. The curves are some what parallel to each other and do not intersect. The concentrations

of solutions are in order of :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I = II = III
(3) I > II > III
(4) I > III > II

30) The liquids X and Y form ideal solution having vapour pressures 200 and 100 mmHg
respectively. Calculate the mole fraction of component X in vapour phase with an equimolar solution
of the two:-

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 1/2
(4) 3/4

31) Which of the following graph does not represents ideal behaviour for a binary liquid solution :-

(1) A graph between PA and XA (mole fraction of liquid A) is linear

(2) A graph between PA and XB (mole fraction of liquid B) is linear
(3) A graph between Ptotal and XA or XB is linear
(4) A graph between Ptotal and XA is non-linear

32) If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of non-volatile, non-electrolytic and non-associating
solute in solvent (Kb = x [Link] mol–1) is y K, then the depression in freezing point of solution of same
concentration would be (KF = z [Link] mol-1):-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) Assertion : Isotonic solutions don't show net phenomenon of osmosis.

Reason : Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure at constant temp.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

34) Assertion : 0.1 M solution of glucose has higher increment in the freezing point than 0.1 M
solution of urea.
Reason : Kf for both has different values.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

35) The solution which show large positive deviation from Raoult’s law form

(1) Maximum boiling azeotrope at a specific composition

(2) Maximum freezing azeotrope at a specific composition
(3) Minimum boiling azeotrope at a specific composition
(4) Minimum freezing azeotrope at a specific composition

36) A solution containing 500 g of a protein per litre is isotonic with a solution containing 3.42 g of
sucrose per litre. The molecular mass of protein is

(1) 5 amu
(2) 146 amu
(3) 34200 amu
(4) 50000 amu

37) The amount of ice that will separate out on cooling a solution containing 50 g ethylene glycol in
200 g water to –9.3° C is : (K'f = 1.86 K molality–1)

(1) 38.71 g
(2) 38.71 mg
(3) 42 g
(4) 42 mg

38) How many moles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 g of water so as to get a solution which
has a difference of 104° C between boiling point and freezing point ?
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mo1–1, Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1)

(1) 1.68
(2) 1.492
(3) 8.40
(4) 0.840

39) When only a little quantity of HgCl2(s) is added to excess KI(aq) to obtain a clear solution, which
of the following is true for this solution? (no volume change on mixing)

(1) Its boiling and freezing points remains same

(2) Its boiling point is lowered
(3) Its vapour pressure is lowered
(4) Its boiling point is raised

40) 0.2 molal solution each of glucose (I), magnesium chloride (II) and aluminium sulphate (III) is
taken.
The correct order freezing point of the solutions will be :

(1) (freezing point)III < (freezing point)II < (freezing point)I

(2) (freezing point)I < (freezing point)II < (freezing point)III
(3) (freezing point)III < (freezing point)I < (freezing point)II
(4) (freezing point)I < (freezing point)II < (freezing point)III

41) 30% w/w glucose solution (aq.) is present. Calculate the molarity of solution, if dsolution = 1.2 g/mL.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 2.5
(4) 1.5

42) Vapour density of gas is 5.6, volume occupied by 3.2 g of this at STP will be :-

(1) 11.2L
(2) 3.2L
(3) 22.4L
(4) 6.4L

43) What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn complete 1L, of
propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions :-

(1) 5 L
(2) 10 L
(3) 7 L
(4) 6 L
44) Law of multiple proportion can be verified by following compounds :

(1) CO2, CH4, H2O

(2) N2O, N2O3, N2O5
(3) NaCl, Na2CO3, NaOH
(4) H2O, HCl, NaCl

45) The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) :

(1) 1.800 × 1022

(2) 6.026 × 1022
(3) 1.806 × 1023
(4) 3.600 × 1023

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is a feature/s of monocot stem?

(1) Ring like vascular bundles

(2) Water containing cavities
(3) Scattered vascular bundles
(4) Both 2 and 3

2) Pith is small or inconspicuous in

(1) Monocot root

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot root
(4) Dicot stem

3) Parenchymatous cells with large intercellular spaces which occupy the central portion of the stem
constitute

(1) Cortex
(2) Pith
(3) Hypodermis
(4) Epidermis

4) The lateral branches of dicot root generally originate from the region of :–

(1) Cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Cork cambium
(4) Pericycle
5) Bulliform cells are present in

(1) Leaves of some grasses (monocot)

(2) Leaves of all dicot plants
(3) Leaves of hydrophytes
(4) Stem of xerophytes

6) Leaf mesophyll is included in :-

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) Phloem

7)

Given below is the diagram of transverse section of isobilateral leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B,
C and D and select the right option about them :-

A B C D

Abaxial Adaxial
(1) Mesophyll Phloem
epidermis epidermis

Adaxial Abaxial
(2) Mesophyll Phloem
epidermis epidermis

Adaxial Abaxial
(3) Mesophyll Xylem
epidermis epidermis

Abaxial Palisade Adaxial

(4) Xylem
epidermis Mesophyll epidermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8)

Observe the provided figures and select the correct statement from following :-
(i) (A) is a transverse section of dicot stem.
(ii) (B) has hypodermis of collenchyma
(iii) (A) has conjoint vascular bundle
(iv) (B) has conjoint collateral open and endarch vascular bundle

(1) (i) & (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) (i) & (iii)

9) Stele in a young dicot root includes :-

(1) Endodermis, pericycle, xylem, phloem, pith and conjuctive tissue

(2) Pericycle and pith only
(3) Pericycle, xylem, phloem, pith
(4) Xylem and phloem only

10)

Match the following diagrams with the statements given below :-

(i) Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundle

(ii) Radial vascular bundle
(iii) Conjoint, collateral and closed vascular bundle
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

11) Read the following four statements (A-D) carefully :-

(A) Epidermis is usually single layered.
(B) Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange.
(C) Stomatal pore, guard cells and subsidiary cells together called stomatal aperture.
(D) Trichomes promote in water loss due to transpiration.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair

(1) Hypogynous flower – Mustard

(2) Axile placentation – Argemone
(3) Asymmetric flower – Canna
(4) Imbricate aestivation – Gulmohur

13) According to given diagram, find out the type of flower and position of ovary :-

(1) Epigynous - ovary superior

(2) Hypogynous - ovary inferior
(3) Hypogynous - ovary superior
(4) Epigynous - ovary inferior

14) Which of the following is/are not common for both mango and coconut ?

(1) Presence of stony endocarp

(2) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(3) Fibrous mesocarp
(4) All of the above

15) When the incision of the lamina reaches up to the midrib breaking it into a number of leaflets,
then the leaf is called :-

(1) Compound leaf

(2) Simple leaf
(3) Alternate leaf
(4) Opposite leaf

16) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Roots help in water and mineral absorption from soil.

(2) Roots provide a proper anchorage.
(3) Roots store food material and synthesize plant growth regulators.
(4) Roots develops from plumule

17) The given diagrams show different type of placentation. Choose correct option with respect to
figure :-

Type of
Diagram Example
placentation

Sunflower,
1 A Basal
Marigold

Mustard,
2 B Parietal
Argemone

Chinarose,
3 C Free central
Primerose

Tomato,
4 D Axile
Lemon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) What is perianth ?

(1) Part of flower in which calyx and corolla are not distinguishable.
(2) When stamens and gynoecium are not distinguishable.
(3) When only calyx is present
(4) When calyx and corolla both are absent in a flower.

19) When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping, then
it is said to be ?

(1) Twisted
(2) Imbricate
(3) Valvate
(4) Vexillary

20) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through
the centre, then it is said to be :-

(1) Zygomorphic
(2) Actinomorphic
(3) Bilateral
(4) Asymmetric

21) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones:-
(a) In wheat, fibrous roots are present.
(b) Tap roots are present in mustard.
(c) Adventitious roots are present in grasses.
(d) Adventitious roots develop from radicle.

(1) Statements (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statements (a) and (b)
(3) Statements (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

22) Which of the following option give the correct categorisation of six plants on the basis of
arrangement of leaves (A, B & C) on the stem or branch ?

(A) (B) (C)

Alternate Opposite Whorl
phyllotaxy phyllotaxy phyllotaxy

Guava China rose & Ocimum &

(1)
& Calotropis Alstonia mustard

Ocimum & Nerium & China rose &

(2)
Alstonia mustard Calotropis

Mustard & Guava & Nerium &

(3)
china rose Calotropis Alstonia

Nerium & Mustard & Ocimum &

(4)
Alstonia Chinarose Calotropis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones :
(a) In some leguminous plants, the leaf base may become swollen, which is known as pulvinus.
(b) Long thin flexible petioles allow leaf blades to flutter in wind, there by cooling the leaf and
bringing fresh air to leaf surface.
(c) A single leaf arises at each node in mustard and china rose.
(d) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in basipetal manner.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and d only
(4) c and d only

24) Observe the following examples. How many plants show hypogynous condition?
Mustard, China rose, Rose, Plum, Peach, Guava, Cucumber, Brinjal

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Seven
(4) Five

25) In the __(a)__ flower the gynoecium occupies the __(b)__ position :-

(1) a - Perigynous, b - Lowest

(2) a - Epigynous, b - Highest
(3) a - Hypogynous, b - Lowest
(4) a - Hypogynous, b - Highest

26) The maize grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as :-

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Aleuron
(3) Coleorhiza
(4) Scutellum

27) Ovary containing the false septum occurs in :-

(1) Primrose
(2) Pea
(3) Dianthus
(4) Argemone

28) Which type of leaves are found in silk cotton :-

(1) Simple
(2) Palmately compound
(3) Pinnately compound
(4) Both (2) & (3)

29) Twisted aestivation is found in :-

(1) Cassia
(2) Pea
(3) China rose
(4) Calotropis

30)
Identify the parts labelled A,B and P,Q in the figure given below and select the right option.

A B P Q

(1) Epicarp Mesocarp Scutellum Endosperm

(2) Mesocarp Endocarp Endosperm Scutellum

Aleurone
(3) Endocarp Mesocarp Radicle
layer

(4) Mesocarp Seed Endosperm Plumule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Root hairs develop from :-

(1) Elongation zone

(2) Maturation Zone
(3) Meristematic zone
(4) Root cap

32) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II

Valvate Lady's
a. 1.
aestivation finger

Imbricate
b. 2. Cassia
aestivation

Twisted
c. 3. Calotropis
aestivation

Papilionaceous China
d. 4.
aestivation rose

5. Pea
(1) a–2, b–1 & 4, c–3, d–5
(2) a–3, b–2, c–1 & 4, d–5
(3) a–5, b–3, c–3, d–1 & 4
(4) a–2, b–3, c–1 & 4, d–5

33)

At the two ends of the embryonal axis are present the ....

(1) Cotyledons and nucellus

(2) Radicle and plumule
(3) Radicle and hypocotyl
(4) Epicotyle and nucellus

34) In mango and coconut the fruit is known as :-

(1) Berry
(2) Nut
(3) Drupe
(4) Caryopsis

35) A typical flower has four different kinds of whorls arranged successively on the swollen end of
the a stalk or pedicel called :-

(1) Ovary
(2) Carpel
(3) Thalamus
(4) Peduncle

36) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a root. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and
select the right option about them :

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Region of
Region of Region of
(1) Root cap meristematic
elongation maturation
activity

Region of
Region of Region of
(2) meristematic Root Cap
elongation maturation
activity
 Region of
Region of Region of
(3) Root cap meristematic
elongation maturation
activity

Region of
Region of Region of
(4) Root cap meristematic
elongation maturation
activity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Statement 1: The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation of the dicot leaves.
Statement 2: The parallel venation in monocot leaves is reflected in the near similar sizes of
vascular bundles (except in main veins).

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 correct

38) Edible portion of mango is:-

(1) Epicarp
(2) Seed
(3) Endocarp
(4) Mesocarp

39) Arrangement of ovules within ovary is known as

(1) Aestivation
(2) Placentation
(3) Cohesion
(4) Adhesion

40) Read the following statements and select the correct statements among them -
(I) Drupe fruit is developed from monocarpellary half superior ovary
(II) In basal placentation generally single ovule is attached to placenta which is develop at the base
of ovary.
(III) Axial placentation has multilocular ovary condition.
(IV) Marginal placentation is generally shown in marigold.

(1) (I) and (IV)

(2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (II) and (III)
(4) Only (II)
41) Assertion : Cohesion in China rose is of monoadelphous type.
Reason : The stamens are united into one bunch by their filaments but anthers remain free.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

42)

Match the following floral parts with their functions :-

Part Function

A. Stamen 1. Male reproductive part

B. Ovary 2. Develops into fruit

C. Ovule 3. Develops into seed

D. Petal 4. Attracts pollinators

(1) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

43)

Match the following with their examples :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Apocarpous 1. Lily

B. Epiphyllous 2. Rose

C. Epipetalous 3. Brinjal

D. Polyadelphous 4. Citrus
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-2
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

44) Assertion : In a compound leaf, the lamina is divided into leaflets.

Reason : Each leaflet of a compound leaf has its own axillary bud.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
45) Which of the following is incorrect for stem?

(1) It is developed from the plumule of embryo of a germinating seed.

(2) It bears nodes and internodes.
(3) It bears only terminal bud not axillary bud.
(4) Its main function is spreading of branches and bear leaves, flowers and fruits.

46) During depolarisation of nerve :-

(1) Na+ VGC – Close, K+ VGC – open

(2) Na+ VGC – Open, Na+-K+ pump – on
(3) K+ VGC – Close, Na+-K+ pump – off
(4) Na+ VGC – Open, K+ leak channel close

47)

Hormones of fight and flight are responsible for :-

(1) Inhibition of sweating

(2) Pupilary contraction
(3) Piloerection
(4) Increase strength of heart relaxation

48) Observe the following flow chart and choose right statement :-

(1) cause release of and inhibits secretion of (normally)

(2) causes release of and concentrates inside the seminiferous tubule
(3) is GnRH, is ICSH and is FSH
(4) is GnRH, is LH and is FSH

49) Find out the incorrect statement :-

Secondary messengers are generated by those hormone which interact with membrane bound
(1)
receptor
(2) Chemically based proteineous hormone FSH has Intracellular receptors.
(3) Each receptor is specific for hormone and hence receptors are specific
(4) Thyroxine regulates gene expression

50)

Pineal gland regulates .............

Thyroid gland regulates .............
Adrenal cortex is the source of .............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :–

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Metabolism, Ca+2 metabolism, release of few amount of sex steroids
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

51) Choose the correct option for pair of hormone which doesn't have antagonist function.

(1) Insulin-Glucagon
(2) Parathormone-Calcitonin
(3) Melatonin-MSH
(4) Thyroxine-Thymosin

52)

Glucocorticoids stimulates :-
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Lipolysis

(C) Proteolysis
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C

53) The growing ovarian follicles mainly secretes which hormone?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Androgens
(4) Testosterone

54) Which statements is incorrect regarding hormone ?

(1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical

(2) Act as intracellular secondary messenger
(3) Produce in trace amount
(4) Hormones are species non specific
55) Which statement is incorrect regarding pineal gland ?

(1) Located on the ventral side of fore brain.

(2) Secretes a hormone called melatonin.
(3) It influences metabolism.
(4) Influence our defense capability.

56) Which one of the following gland is correctly matched with the accompanying description ?

(1) Thyroid – hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism.

(2) Thymus – Secrete Thymosin
Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood to
(3)
bones during calcification.
Pancreas – Delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis
(4)
in liver.

57) Melatonin is secreted by :-

(1) Pineal body

(2) Skin
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Thyroid

58) Which of the following gastro-intestinal tract hormone, act on exocrine pancrease and stimulate
secretion of water and bicarbonate ions :-

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) Gastric inhibitory peptide

59) Which of the following hormone/s generate secondary messengers during their action ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) GH
(4) All of these

60) The hormone glucagon :-

(1) Has the opposite effect as that of insulin

(2) Is produced in the beta cells of pancreas
(3) Converts glucose into glycogen
(4) Is used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus

61) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(A) CCK (I) Kidney
(B) GIP (II) Heart
(C) ANF (III) Gastric gland
(D) ADH (IV) Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

62) After ovulation, the ruptured fallicle is converted to a structure called (A) which secretes mainly
(B). (A) and (B) are respectively.

(1) Corpus albicans, estrogen

(2) Corpus Luteum, Progesterone
(3) Corpus Luteum, Estrogen
(4) Corpus Luteum, GnRh

63) Over-production of which hormone causes cushing's syndrome ?

(1) Cortisol
(2) Aldosteron
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Thyroxin

64) Hypersecretion of which hormone causes Grave's disease ?

(1) Aldosteron
(2) Adrenalin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Calcitonin

65) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action

of a steroid hormone:-

(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor protein, C-CAMP

(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-ovarian growth
(3) B-CAMP, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and
(4)
differentiation

66) Find out the correct match

(1) Prolactin – Milk synthesis & growth of mammary gland

(2) Oxytocin – act on voluntary muscles for milk ejection
(3) ADH – Mainly absorb Na+ ions from DCT of Nephron
(4) Cortisol – Increase glucose level in cell

67) Urinary excretion of Na+ is regulated by-

(1) Anterior Pituitary

(2) Adrenal cortex
(3) Neurohyphophysis
(4) Pars intermedia

68) Which of the following hormone causes vasodilation and thus help in reducing hypertension?

(1) Histamin
(2) Serotonin
(3) ANF
(4) Aldosterone

69) Which of the following hormones acts mainly on hepatocytes and stimulate glycogenolysis?
I. Glucagon
II. Epinephrine
III. Norepinephrine
IV. Glucocorticoids

(1) I, II
(2) II, III
(3) I, II, IV
(4) I, II, III, IV

70) Which of the following mineral is essential for the normal rate of hormone synthesis in thyroid?

(1) Calcium
(2) Iodine
(3) Magnesium
(4) Iron (Fe+2)

71) Primary function of myelin sheath around vertebrate axon is to :-

(1) regulate Na+ – K+ pump

(2) deactivate the release of neurotransmitter
(3) increase in value of action potential
(4) Increase in speed of conduction by preventing leakage of ions

72) How many of the given statements are correct ?

(A) Electrical synapses are rare in our system.
(B) The stimulus induced permeability to Na+ is extremely short lived.
(C) Cerebral cortex has tracts covered with myelin sheath
(D) Axons are highly branched structures
(E) The neural organization is very simple in lower vertebrates.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

73) Receptors of neurotransmitter are present on :-

(1) Pre synaptic membrane

(2) Post synaptic membrane.
(3) Axolemma
(4) Neurilemma

74) Na+ - K+ pump in axolemma transports :-

(1) 3 Na+ out and 2K+ in

(2) 3 Na+ in and 2K+ out
(3) 2 Na+ out and 3K+ in
(4) 2 Na+ in and 3K+ out

75) Which part of cerebrum converts short term memory into long term memory?

(1) Prefrontal cortex

(2) Limbic lobe
(3) Temporal lobe
(4) Hippocampal lobe

76) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Cerebellum—Balance
(2) Pons — Pneumotaxic center
(3) Hypothalamus—Pitutary
(4) Medulla oblongata—Thirst regulation

77) The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is :-

(1) a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling
(2) a major coordinating centre for sensory signal only
(3) a major centre for motor signaling
(4) not a part of a brain

78) The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as :-

(1) Resting potential

(2) Action potential
(3) Excited potential
(4) Inhibitory potential

79) Assertion (A) :- Hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus.

Reason (R) :- Hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones called
hypothalmic hormones.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

80) Statement-I : Imbalance in Na+, K+ & proteins generate the action potential in neuron.
Statement-II : To maintain unequal distribution of Na+ & K+ neurons use electrical energy.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

81) The neural system provides or organised network of A connections for a B Co-ordination
Choose the correct option for A, B to complete the given statement :-

(1) A → Point to Point, B → Slow

(2) A → Chemical, B → Fast
(3) A → Point to point, B → Fast
(4) A → Chemical, B → Slow

82) Match the columns & select the correct option :-

Types of Neuron Found

a. Unipolar (i) Cerebral cortex

b. Multipolar (ii) Retina of eye

c. Bipolar (iii) Embryonic stage

(1) a-(iii) b-(i) c-(ii)
(2) a-(i) b-(ii) c-(iii)
(3) a-(iii) b-(ii) c-(i)
(4) a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i)

83) In humans midbrain is located between thalamus of forebrain and________?

(1) Cerebellum of hind brain

(2) Medulla of hind brain
(3) Pons of mid brain
(4) Pons of hind brain

84) 'Corpora Quadrigemina' is related to :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Mid brain
(3) Hind brain
(4) Fore brain

85) Pons, cerebellum, medulla oblongata together constitute:-

(1) Fore brain

(2) Midbrain
(3) Hind brain
(4) Brain stem

86) Which one is not related with 'a' ?

(1) Regulation of sexual behaviour

(2) Neurosensory cells
(3) Intersensory associations and balance
(4) Regulation of body temperature

87) What will be the ideal condition for re-polarisation?

(1) Opening of K+ V.G.C.

(2) Opening of Na+–K+ ions channels
(3) Opening of Na+ V.G.C.
(4) Closing of K+ V.G.C.
88) Nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron. This place is called :-

(1) Reflex action

(2) Synapse
(3) Nerve impulse
(4) Action potential

89) In which one of the following pair Nissl's granules are present?

(1) Only in cyton

(2) Cyton and Dendrite
(3) Cyton and Glial cell
(4) Glial cell and Axon

90) Which of the following is a major co-ordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling :-

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Thalamus
(4) Hypothalamus
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 4 1 3 4 4 1 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 1 4 3 4 1 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 2 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 1 4 4 1 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

V = const.
(Baltery connected)
C' = KC increase
Q' = C'V increase

E= → constant

2)

Charge on both hollow and solid will be same.

3) Q = CV ⇒ C = =
Given V = 100 volts ; n = 6.25 x 1015

C= = 10μF

4)

5)

C=

6)
7)

8)
A is commen area

9)
Q1=Q2 = CeqV = 4 ×10 = 40μC

10)

11) F = =

12) Initially charge on C1 = 6 × 10–6 × 20 = 120 μC

Finally
=

∴ Charge on = 40 μC

13) Initially potential difference a cross each capacitor

and

Finally common potential

14)

w = Qtrans V
= (Qf – Qi) V
= (5 × 4 – 5 × 3) 4
w = 20 μJ

15)

Loss in energy of system,

= Ui – Uf

16) Battery is connected

so V = constant
C increases K times
q = CV
so q increases K times
17)
No current through r, so,

I=

18)

19)

20) Metallic conductor can be considered as the combination of various conductors connected
in series combination. And in series combination the current always remains constant.

21)

22)

Terminal voltage
V = E + ir
 = 8 + (7)(0.5)
= 11.5 Volt

23)

By KVL
VA – 2 × 6 – 12 – 9 × 2 + 4 – 5 × 2 = VB
VA – VB = 48V

24)
On diff. we get

25)

Theory

26)

Explain : how the velocity and acceleration of a particle behave when it moves in a circle with
a uniform speed.

Concept : uniform circular motion.

Calculation : Velocity: Velocity is a vector quantity with both magnitude (speed) and
direction. While the magnitude (speed) is constant, the direction of the velocity vector (tangent
to the circle) changes continuously as the particle moves along the circular path.

Acceleration: Acceleration is also a vector quantity. In uniform circular motion, the

acceleration (centripetal acceleration) is directed towards the center of the circle. Its
magnitude is constant (a = v2/r), but its direction changes continuously as the particle moves
along the circular path.
Therefore, both velocity and acceleration change in direction
Ans (4) Difficulty level : easy

27) T = mω2r

ω = 4 rad/sec.

28)
29) As v = at = αRt

at = ac ⇒ αR = α2Rt2 ⇒

⇒ t2 = ⇒t=

30) COME : K1 + U1 = K2 + U2

0 + mg (4R) = mv2 + mg (2R) ⇒ mv2 = 4mgR

Forces at position 2 :

N= –mg = 4mg – mg = 3 mg

31)

v2 = u2 + 2as
(i) 02 = u2 + 2 × (–10) × H

(ii) (10)2 = u2 + 2 × (–10) ×

– – –
_________________________________

–100 = 0 + (10H – 20H)

H = 10 m

32) ∵t=

∴H=

∴ H1 = g

∴ Distance travelled = H + H1 =
=

33) , ∴

34) T = ⇒ 2=
Uy = 20 m/s
at t = 1, vy = 10 m/s
vx = 10 m/s

v=

35) sec.

(Srel)x = d = (Urel)x × t =

36)
T = 4 sec.
R = UxT = 25 cos 53° × 4 = 60 m

37)

Law of inertia.

38) For 5 kg Block

18 – Fs = 5 × 2
Fs = 8 N
For 6kg block

Fs = ma
8=6a

39) Mg – F = Mg/4
Now

F – (M – m)g = (M – m) g/4

40)
µ (10 – 4)

fmax = –1.8i
But required =

41)
fmax = µN
fmax = µmg
Required = Mg

42)
 I=

43)

Mk2 = 2MR2

44)

I=

45)

I = 4 mR2

CHEMISTRY

46)

gp > pd > resonance

47) +R effect groups will decrease carbanion stability.

48)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 108

49)

Rate in E2 ∝ stablity of alkene

50)

SN2, SN1 mixed

51)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 168

52)

Theory Based

53)

Ozonolysis

54)

Haloform

55)

(a) – E1, (b) – SN1, (c) – E2, (d) – SN2

56)

Rate in SNAr ∝ Stability of C⊝

57)

Rate in SN1/SN2 (mixer)

58) NCERT XII Pg. # 294

Reactivity (SN2) ∝ 1/steric strain

59)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 177

60)

SN1 ∝ stability of C+

61)

62)
Mixed of E1, E2, SN, SN2

63) as per reaction

NaH2PO4 + 2NaOH → Na3PO4 + 2H2O

64) mol of CO2 =

mol of H2 = mol

mol of NH3 = mol

mol of SO2 = mol

65) Let % of oxygen = x

% C = 1.5 × % of O = 1.5 × x

% of H = × % of C =
element % t. mass (A) %/A Simple ratio

C 1.5 x 12 × 16 = 2

H 1 × 16 = 4

O x 16 =1
Empirical formula = C2H4O

66) I oxide = MO
M : O

mol : : = 1:1
⇒ M = 56
II oxide = ?
M : O

mol : :
=2:3 ∴ M2O3

67)

NCERT, Pg. # 13

1 amu = × (mass of 1 atom of C12)

68)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
 1 ml N2 gives = 2 ml NH3
2ml N2 gives = 2 × 2 ml NH3
= 4 × 22.4
= 89.6 L

69)

Weight mole Simple Ration

C 9
= 0.75

H 1

N 3.5

70)

Explain the Question : Evaluate two statements : I (gram-atom in 1 atom) and II (electrons
added to convert O atoms to O2– ions).
Concept : This question is based on mole concept : 1 mole = NA atoms = 1 gram-atom.
Solution : Statement I Evaluation :

1 atom = gram-atom. The claim that 1 atom = NA gram-atom is incorrect.

Statement-l is Incorrect.
Statement II Evaluation :
Reaction : O + 2e– → O2–.

1. Moles of O-atom :
2. Moles of e– added : 2.
3. Number of electrons : 4 × NA. The statement claims 4NA electrons are added. This is
correct.
Statement-II is correct.
Final answer : 2

71)

Explaining Question:
Find volumes of CH4 and C3H8 in a 6 L mixture producing 7 L CO2 on combustion.
Concept: This question is based on Volume ratios from balanced combustion equations (Gay-
Lussac’s law)
Solution:
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O → 1 L CH4 gives 1 L CO2
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O → 1 L C3H8 gives 3 L CO2
Let CH4 = x L, then C3H8 = 6 − x L
Total CO₂ = x + 3(6 − x) = 7
⇒ x + 18 − 3x = 7
⇒ −2x = −11 → x = 5.5
CH4 = 5.5 L, C3H8 = 0.5 L

72) CO2(g) + C → 2CO(g)

1L – -
1–x 2x
Total ⇒ 1 – x + 2x = 1.5L ⇒ (x = 0.5L)

VCO = 2x = 1L & nCO = mole at STP

73)

Ps = XAPA° + XBPB°

74)

Question Explanation:
To determine order of concentration of solution in given graph.
Concept:

V.P. ∝ ; Tb ∝ Ci

In given graph solution-1 is less concentrated and solution-III is more concentrated because
V.P. of solution-I is less decreases as compared to solution-III. So order to concentrated
solution is I < II < III.

Final Answer : (1) I < II < III

75)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking us to find the mole fraction of component X in
the vapor phase when we have an ideal solution made of two liquids, X and Y, mixed in equal
amounts (equimolar). We know the vapor pressures of the pure components and need to
calculate the composition of the vapor above this mixture.

Underlying Concept: This problem uses Raoult's Law and Dalton's Law of partial pressures
for ideal solutions. Raoult's Law states that the partial vapor pressure of each component in
the mixture is proportional to its mole fraction in the liquid phase and its pure component
vapor pressure. Dalton's Law relates the total vapor pressure to the sum of partial vapor
pressures. Using these laws, we can find the vapor phase composition.

Relevant Formulas: Raoult's Law: where is the partial pressure of component i,

is the mole fraction in liquid, and is the vapor pressure of pure i.
Mole fraction in vapor phase: where .

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Given equimolar liquid solution: and . 2.

Calculate partial pressures: 3. Total

vapor pressure: 4. Mole fraction of X in vapor phase:

Tips and Tricks: Keep track of which mole fraction refers to the liquid phase and which to
the vapor phase. Use Raoult's Law for partial pressures and Dalton's Law for total pressure to
find vapor composition.

Common Mistakes: A typical error is confusing mole fractions in liquid and vapor phases or
forgetting to sum the partial pressures to find the total pressure before calculating vapor
phase mole fractions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like or can arise if one incorrectly assumes
vapor mole fraction equals liquid mole fraction or does not properly calculate partial pressures
and total pressure.

76)

Relevant Formulas: Raoult's law:

Total pressure:

where: - are partial pressures of components A and B respectively, - are mole

fractions of components A and B in liquid, - are vapor pressures of pure components A
and B.

77)

ΔTb = Kb × m
⇒y=x.m ….(1)
ΔTF = KF × m
⇒ ΔTF = z . m ….(2)
From (1) & (2) we get

ΔTF =

78) Explanation :-
Assertion : Isotonic solutions have the same solute concentration, so there's no net water
movement (osmosis) across a semi-permeable membrane.
Reason :- Osmotic pressure is the required pressure to prevent osmosis. Isotonic solutions
have equal osmotic pressure, meaning there's no pressure difference to drive water
movement.
Concept :- Osmosis is the movement of solvent (usually water) across a semi permeable
membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute
concentration. isotonic solutions have equal solute concentrations, hence equal osmotic
pressures, and no net osmosis occurs.
Answer option 1 (Assertion and reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion).

79)

Reason: Kf for both has different values.

Concept: Both glucose and urea are non-electrolytes, so they will have the same freezing point
depression at the same concentration. Kf is the same for both solutions if they are in the same
solvent.

The assertion is false because both solutions will have the same freezing point increment, and
the reason is false because Kf is a solvent-dependent constant and will be the same for both
solutions.

Final Answer: If both assertion and reason are false.

Correct Option: 4.

80)

Question Explanation: The solution which shows large positive deviation from Raoult's law
form
Concept : This question is based on positive deviation from Raoult's law.
Solution : Large positive deviations indicate weaker intermolecular forces in the solution
compared to the pure components, leading to higher vapor pressures.
Minimum boiling azeotropes form when the solution's vapor pressure is maximum at a specific
composition, causing it to boil at a lower temperature than either pure component.
Final Answer : option (3)

81)

π1 = π2

82) 9.3 = 1.86 × × 1000 ⇒ w = 161.3 g

∴ Amount of ice = 200 – 161.3 = 38.7 g
 83) Tb' – Tf' = 104
⇒ (ΔTb + 100) – (0 – ΔTf) = 104
(ΔTb + ΔTf) = 4

(1.86 + 0.52) × × 1000 = 4

⇒ n = 0.840

84) Number of ions decreases due to complex formation.

4KI + HgCl2 → K2[HgI4] + 2KCl

85) Higher the i, lower the F.P.

86)

M=
M = 2 mol/L

87)

MW = 2 × V.D.
= 2 × 5.6
= 11.2

Volume at S.T.P. = mole × 22.4

= 3.2 × 2

= 6.4 L

88)

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)

1 mol C3H8 requires = 5 mol O2
1 L C3H8 requires = 5 L O2 at same T & P.

89)

Only two element forms more than one compound.

90)

0.1 mol A3 = 3 × 0.1 mol atom

= 3 × 0.1 × NA atom
BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 76

92) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 74

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 75

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 74

95)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 77

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 72

97)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 76

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 75

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 74

100) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 73

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 72

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 63

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 63

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 65

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 60

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 58

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 65

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 62

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 64

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 62

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 58

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 61

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 60

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 63

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 63

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 67

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 65

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 61

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 64

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 66, 67

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 58

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 64

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 66

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 65

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 62

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 59

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 76, 77

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 66

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 65

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 65

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 64

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 62, 63

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 62, 63, 64

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 61

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 59

136)

K⁺ VGC – Close → True during depolarization (they open during repolarization).

Na⁺-K⁺ pump – off →The pump is not active in depolarization, so this is also correct.
Final Answer : option (3) K⁺ VGC – Close, Na⁺-K⁺ pump – off

137) Explain Question:

Hormones of fight and flight are responsible for :-

Concept :
This question is based on Adrenal medulla hormones.

Explanation : Fight and flight response involves adrenaline/noradrenaline, which cause

increased heart rate, blood pressure, sweating, pupillary dilation, and piloerection.
Final answer : 3

138) Module–1

139)

NCERT PAGE NO. 248

140) NCERT 333, 335

141)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks to identify which pair of hormones listed does not
have opposite (antagonistic) functions. In other words, the pair chosen should not work
against each other to regulate a physiological process.
Underlying Concept: Hormones often work in pairs that have opposite effects to maintain
balance in the body, known as antagonistic hormones. For example, insulin lowers blood
glucose levels, while glucagon raises them. Understanding which hormones have antagonistic
roles helps in identifying how body processes are regulated.
Tips and Tricks: Remember classic hormone pairs like insulin and glucagon or parathormone
and calcitonin, which control blood calcium and glucose levels oppositely. If the pair does not
involve opposing physiological actions, they are not antagonists.
Common Mistakes: Assuming all hormone pairs listed are antagonistic without reviewing
their actual roles. Some hormones do not oppose each other but have independent functions.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - Insulin-Glucagon: They have antagonistic roles in
blood glucose regulation. - Parathormone-Calcitonin: They have opposite effects on calcium
levels in blood. - Melatonin-MSH: Melatonin regulates sleep-wake cycles, MSH influences skin
pigmentation, so they do not oppose each other directly, but they are unrelated rather than
antagonistic. - Thyroxine-Thymosin: Thyroxine regulates metabolism, while thymosin is
involved in immune system development. They do not act antagonistically.

142) NCERT Pg. # 335, 22.2.7

143) NCERT Pg. # 337, 22.2.10

144)

NCERT Pg. # 330, 22.1

145) NCERT Pg # 333, 22.2.3

146)

NCERT Pg#243

147) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 333 para(22.2.3)

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 247

149) NCERT Page # 337, 338

150)

NCERT Pg#245

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 245

152) NCERT-XI, Pg No. 337

153)

The correct answer is 1. Cortisol

Explanation:
Cushing's syndrome is caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, a hormone
produced by the adrenal glands.

154)

NCERT XI Pg # 335

155)

NCERT XI Pg # 339

156) NCERT XI Pg.# 241

157) NCERT Pg. # 336

158) NCERT Page#339

159)

NCERT Page#336

160) NCERT-XI Pg. # 333

161) NCERT-XI- 317-318

162) NCERT-XI Pg. # 316,318,319,321,322

163) NCERT-XI Pg. # 319

164) NCERT-XI Pg. # 317

165)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 321

166)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 321

167)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 321

168) NCERT Page No. # 317

169)

Question Explanation: Function and location of hypothalamus.

Concept: Hypothalamus

Solution: Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct statements, but the Reason does not
explain the Assertion. The Assertion correctly states that the hypothalamus is located at the
base of the thalamus. The Reason also correctly identifies a key function of the hypothalamus:
secreting neurohormones. However, the location of the hypothalamus is not a result of its
hormone-secreting function; these are two separate, correct facts about the same brain region.

Final Answer: Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

170) NCERT, Pg # 317

In statement-I → Protein imbalance is not related to action potential generation. So it is
incorrect.
in statement-II → Passive channels basically helps in maintenance of Unequal distribution of
ionic concentration. So both statements are incorrect

171)

NCERT, Pg. # 315

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 317

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 321

174) NCERT Pg. # 321

175) The hindbrain is the posterior part of the brain, consisting of the pons, the cerebellum,
and the medulla oblongata. These structures are involved in coordinating essential functions
like movement, balance, and involuntary processes.

176) NCERT Pg. # 320

177) NCERT Pg # 318

178) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 319; para-21.3.2

179)
 The correct answer is: 2. Cyton and Dendrite

Explanation:

Nissl’s granules are made up of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and ribosomes,
which are responsible for protein synthesis in neurons.

A. Present in:

A. Cyton (cell body) → The main metabolic center of the neuron.

B.
B. Dendrites → Involved in receiving signals; they also contain some Nissl’s granules.

180) NCERT Page#321.