Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 1
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. "The quality of mercy" is a speech given by Portia in William Shakespeare's The Merchant of Venice (Act
4, Scene 1). In the speech, Portia, disguised as a lawyer, begs Shylock to show mercy to Antonio. The
speech extols the power of mercy, "an attribute to God Himself."
The quality of mercy is not strain'd.
It droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven
Upon the place beneath. It is twice blest:
It blesseth him that gives and him that takes.
'Tis mightiest in the mightiest; it becomes
Thethronèd monarch better than his crown.
His scepter shows the force of temporal power,
The attribute to awe and majesty
Wherein doth sit the dread and fear of kings;
But mercy is above this sceptered sway.
It is enthronèd in the hearts of kings;
It is an attribute to God Himself;
And earthly power doth then show likest God's
When mercy seasons justice. Therefore, Jew,
Though justice be thy plea, consider this:
That in the course of justice none of us
Should see salvation. We do pray for mercy,
And that same prayer doth teach us all to render
The deeds of mercy. I have spoke thus much
To mitigate the justice of thy plea,
Which, if thou follow, this strict court of Venice
Must needs give sentence 'gainst the merchant there.
Source: Portia, in William Shakespeare, The Merchant of Venice, Act 4, Scene 1.

1. What does Portia compare mercy to in the first few lines of the speech?
(a) A mighty river. (b) Gentle rain from heaven.
(c) A blazing fire. (d) A roaring lion.

2. According to Portia, who benefits from the act of showing mercy?

(a) Only the person receiving mercy.
(b) Only the person giving mercy.
(c) Neither the giver nor the receiver.
(d) Both the person giving and the person receiving mercy.

3. How does Portia describe the effect of mercy on a monarch compared to his crown and scepter?
(a) Mercy is weaker than a monarch's crown and scepter.
(b) A monarch's crown and scepter demonstrate might and power, but mercy is more potent.
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(c) A monarch's crown and scepter are more important than mercy.
(d) Mercy and a monarch's crown are equally important.

4. What message does Portia convey regarding justice and salvation?

(a) Justice should always prevail, regardless of mercy.
(b) Mercy and justice are entirely separate concepts.
(c) Through justice alone, salvation is possible for everyone.
(d) Pure justice might prevent anyone from achieving salvation.

5. How does Portia appeal to Shylock regarding his plea for justice?
(a) She agrees with him entirely and supports his case.
(b) She dismisses his plea and demands mercy.
(c) She attempts to moderate or mitigate his strict adherence to justice by emphasizing the power and
importance of mercy.
(d) She accuses him of being unjust.

II. In Petrograd, a stout elderly woman defiantly walked down the middle of a busy street, arguing that her
newfound liberty allowed her to do so. However, this seemingly innocent act highlights a crucial aspect of
liberty versus social order. The woman's assertion of her personal freedom, while seemingly harmless,
could lead to widespread chaos if everyone adopted such an individualistic approach. This scenario
serves as a metaphor for contemporary society, where there's a growing emphasis on individual
freedoms without recognizing the broader implications for societal harmony.
The piece emphasizes that liberty is not just an individual's personal affair but a social contract. True
freedom requires a balance between personal desires and the collective good. For instance, while one
might feel their rights are violated when stopped by a policeman directing traffic, this intervention actually
ensures a functional and orderly society. Such restrictions prevent places like Piccadilly Circus from
descending into uncontrollable chaos.
However, the notion of liberty isn't entirely curtailed. Individuals are free to make personal choices that
don't infringe upon others' rights. Whether it's choosing a particular lifestyle, practicing unconventional
habits, or enjoying personal preferences, people have the autonomy to make decisions within their
private realms. Yet, stepping outside this personal domain necessitates an understanding and respect
for others' freedoms.
The article underscores that as social beings sharing a world with diverse individuals, one's liberty
inherently interacts with others' freedoms. This interplay requires mutual respect and consideration.
While the occasional grand acts of heroism and sacrifice capture attention, it's the daily interactions and
small gestures of understanding that truly define civilized behavior. These seemingly insignificant
moments, like observing traffic rules or respecting neighbors' sleep, collectively shape the quality of
societal interactions. Ultimately, the narrative emphasizes that true liberty is not about unrestrained
individualism but about harmoniously coexisting and accommodating each other's rights and freedoms.
Source: Summary of ―On the Rule of the Road‖ by A.G. Gardiner

6. What does the stout old lady in Petrograd believe about her liberty?
(a) It should be restricted.
(b) It only applies to the pavement.
(c) It allows her to walk anywhere she likes.
(d) It depends on the traffic rules.
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7. According to the passage, what does the policeman at Piccadilly Circus symbolize when directing traffic?
(a) Tyranny. (b) Interference.
(c) Liberty. (d) Indifference.

8. In terms of personal liberty, what is the author free to do without seeking permission?
(a) Play the trombone on Everest. (b) Walk in dressing-gown down the street.
(c) Disrupt a public event. (d) Drive recklessly on the highway.

9. How does the passage describe the relationship between individual liberty and societal order?
(a) They are mutually exclusive.
(b) Individual liberty always takes precedence.
(c) Balancing individual freedoms with societal needs is crucial.
(d) Societal order is irrelevant.

10. What, according to the passage, defines whether a society is civilized or uncivilized?
(a) Grand acts of heroism.
(b) The enforcement of strict rules.
(c) Daily habits and interactions among people.
(d) The size and infrastructure of cities.

III. Time is arguably the most precious resource available to individuals, regardless of their profession, age,
or background. Effective time management is not merely about scheduling activities but prioritizing tasks
to maximize productivity and achieve goals. In today's fast-paced world, where distractions abound,
mastering the art of time management becomes indispensable.
Firstly, understanding one's priorities is paramount. Not all tasks hold equal importance. By
distinguishing between urgent and essential tasks, individuals can allocate their time efficiently. The
Eisenhower Matrix, for instance, categorizes tasks based on urgency and importance, helping individuals
determine what requires immediate attention and what can be deferred or delegated. Such frameworks
enable individuals to focus on tasks that align with their overarching objectives rather than getting
bogged down by trivialities.
Moreover, setting clear and realistic goals provides direction and purpose. By establishing both short-
term and long-term objectives, individuals can structure their time around achieving these milestones.
This proactive approach not only fosters motivation but also ensures that every action contributes to
personal or professional growth.
Furthermore, embracing technology can significantly enhance time management capabilities. Various
digital tools and applications, such as calendars, task managers, and productivity apps, offer reminders,
track progress, and provide insights into time allocation. While technology can be a double-edged sword,
leading to potential distractions, when utilized judiciously, it becomes a potent ally in optimizing
efficiency.
Additionally, cultivating habits that promote focus and concentration is essential. Techniques like the
Pomodoro Technique, which involves working in bursts with short breaks in between, can enhance
productivity by maintaining high levels of concentration and preventing burnout. Simultaneously,
incorporating regular breaks and ensuring adequate rest rejuvenates the mind, ensuring sustained
performance over extended periods.
In conclusion, effective time management transcends mere scheduling; it embodies a holistic approach
to productivity, encompassing prioritization, goal-setting, technological integration, and mindful habits. By
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mastering time management, individuals not only enhance their efficiency but also pave the way for
achieving their aspirations in both personal and professional spheres.

11. What is the primary purpose of time management?

(a) To schedule activities randomly.
(b) To prioritize tasks for maximum productivity.
(c) To eliminate all tasks that are not urgent.
(d) To set unrealistic goals for oneself.

12. What does the Eisenhower Matrix help individuals determine?

(a) The cost of tasks. (b) The time required for each task.
(c) The urgency and importance of tasks. (d) The chronological order of tasks.
13. How can technology assist in time management?
(a) By creating more distractions.
(b) By providing insights into time allocation.
(c) By replacing human decision-making entirely.
(d) By emphasizing quantity over quality.

14. Which technique involves working in bursts with short breaks in between?
(a) Marathon Method. (b) Sprint Strategy.
(c) Pomodoro Technique. (d) Time Block Strategy.

15. Why is setting clear and realistic goals essential for time management?
(a) It helps in avoiding all tasks. (b) It provides direction and purpose.
(c) It ensures immediate rewards. (d) It eliminates the need for technology.

IV. Mentorship stands as a cornerstone for personal and professional growth, offering guidance, wisdom,
and inspiration. A mentor transcends the roles of teachers or coaches, embodying role models and
confidants who shape lives with their experience and dedication.
The significance of mentors in personal growth is profound. They guide critical life decisions, challenge
comfort zones, and foster self-confidence. By sharing life lessons, mentors equip individuals with insights
to navigate challenges and embrace new possibilities. Additionally, mentors play pivotal roles in
professional spheres, offering advice, networking opportunities, and industry knowledge. Their guidance
aids in career advancement, ensuring mentees achieve their professional aspirations.
Beyond immediate benefits, effective mentoring yields lasting impacts, shaping values, beliefs, and
perspectives. Mentors bolster mental and emotional well-being, serving as trusted confidants during life's
challenges. Numerous successful individuals attribute their accomplishments to mentorship,
underscoring its enduring influence on personal and professional achievements.
For those aspiring to mentor or seek mentorship, compatibility remains paramount. Establishing trust and
understanding forms the bedrock of fruitful mentor-mentee relationships. Effective mentors prioritize
empowerment, encouraging critical thinking, decision-making, and independence in their mentees.
Rather than fostering dependencies, they equip mentees with tools and confidence to thrive
independently.
In essence, mentors illuminate paths toward self-discovery, growth, and success. Whether seeking
mentorship or cherishing existing relationships, recognizing the transformative power of mentorship is
crucial. By fostering knowledge, experience, and compassion, individuals can create positive impacts,
fostering growth, success, and fulfillment for themselves and others. Embracing mentorship not only
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unlocks potential but also perpetuates a cycle of growth and inspiration, enriching lives and communities
alike.

16. What is the primary tone of the passage on mentorship?

(a) Indifferent (b) Optimistic
(c) Pessimistic (d) Ambiguous

17. What is the central idea of the passage regarding mentorship?

(a) Mentorship is a one-sided relationship benefiting only the mentor.
(b) Effective mentorship offers both immediate and lasting impacts on individuals' lives.
(c) Seeking mentorship is a sign of weakness and dependency.
(d) The primary goal of mentorship is to foster competition among individuals.

18. How does the passage describe the role of mentors in guiding individuals?
(a) Mentors merely provide academic knowledge.
(b) Mentors only offer emotional support during tough times.
(c) Mentors challenge comfort zones and offer valuable life lessons.
(d) Mentors focus solely on promoting their own achievements.

19. What does the passage suggest about the relationship between mentors and mentees?
(a) The relationship between mentors and mentees is purely transactional.
(b) The mentor-mentee relationship is solely based on professional achievements.
(c) Trust and understanding form the foundation of a fruitful mentor-mentee relationship.
(d) Mentorship is a fleeting connection with no lasting impact.

20. According to the passage, what role does mentorship play in individuals' career development?
(a) Mentorship limits individuals' career growth opportunities.
(b) Mentorship provides individuals with shortcuts to success without effort.
(c) Mentorship offers invaluable advice and opportunities, aiding in career advancement.
(d) Mentorship encourages individuals to rely solely on their skills without external guidance.

21. What is the most appropriate antonym for "resilience" as depicted in the passage?
(a) Fragility (b) Stability
(c) Firmness (d) Rigidity

V. Cities in India in the medieval period were largely royal capitals. The king and court resided there; the
standing army was stationed there most of the time; great walls and defence perimeters excluded the
dangerous and included the pacified. Managing them was relatively easy. Within the city, in normal
times, the State monitored court intrigue and possible unrest from urban collectivities within the walls.
Entry was regulated and newcomers monitored. Police spies were active and the 'kotwal' and the king
received daily reports. Commerce and trade were taxed.
The colonial period saw the establishment of the great port cities of Madras, Calcutta and Bombay as
centres of trade and administration. These were divided into 'white and black towns'. Within the city
boundaries the colonial fear of native rebellion meant that there were two towns- one armed and one
defended against the other. Yet trade and government brought an influx of both ordinary people and
businessmen as well as literate and educated persons needed by the colonial powers.
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With the growth of industry, other towns too became industrial cities. It is significant to note that these
cities were directly ruled by the British. Capital tended to follow the security of imperial rule. After
independence and the establishment of the present states, their capitals grew too, what with larger
government machinery, businesses and industrialization. Again migration- and not just from the
hinterland- resulted in high densities and large population.
This migration to the cities continues. From a situation where 20% of the population depended on non-
agricultural activities, which yielded 20% of the national income, we have come up to 40% of the
population dependent on non-agricultural activities contributing to 75% of the nation's income. Broadly
speaking, the urban population has a per capita income three times higher the rural one.
The issue is clear. An established urban population has to live with successive waves of migrants
seeking work, livelihood and a better life. The city is under pressure not only from its high income but
also under strain in providing civic services- law and order, traffic control, water, sanitation, transport,
health and education. But as the general income base grows, the tax base does not grow to the same
extent. This is largely due to poor tax regime.
Settled urban populations have demarcated areas within the city; yet as their families grow, space
becomes a constraint. There is a movement away from the city centre towards the suburbs by the rich.
New and poor migrants take shelter on any open land and even on pavements. Their need for jobs,
water, sanitation and shelter becomes acute urban problems. Sociologically too, the new migrants from
the villages are in the process of an identity crisis. Their caste and village domicile, which gave them
some sort of status and identity, no longer help. While this liberates the individual from the constraints of
village caste status and other prohibitions, new identities need to be created.

22. What is the primary tone of the passage?

(a) Optimistic (b) Neutral
(c) Critical (d) Satirical
22. Which statement best captures the central idea of the passage?
(a) The medieval cities in India were primarily managed by the state and had distinct boundaries for
different populations.
(b) The colonial period introduced significant changes to Indian cities, including the establishment of
trade centers and distinct areas for different populations.
(c) Post-independence India witnessed rapid urbanization and growth, leading to challenges related to
migration, infrastructure, and identity.
(d) The passage emphasizes the economic growth of urban populations and how it contributes to the
nation's income.

23. What is implied by the term 'white and black towns' in the colonial period?
(a) Towns divided based on racial segregation.
(b) Towns divided based on socio-economic status.
(c) Towns divided based on administrative and trade purposes.
(d) Towns divided based on cultural and religious beliefs.

24. What does the passage suggest about the tax base in urban areas?
(a) The tax base in urban areas grows proportionally with the income base.
(b) Urban areas have a poor tax regime leading to inadequate revenue despite income growth.
(c) The tax base in urban areas is primarily derived from agricultural activities.
(d) Urban areas experience a decline in the tax base due to migration.
Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 2
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. My father rollerskated on the Cross-Bronx Expressway before it opened to car traffic. Born in 1953, he
would have been seven or eight when New York City‘s massive thoroughfare reached the peak of its
construction, facilitated by the destruction of many tight-knit Bronx neighbourhoods. He didn‘t live in East
Tremont or Spuyten Duyvil, which were literally cut through by the highway, but he did live in between
Fordham Heights and Kingsbridge Heights, about two miles north of the new road. He wasn‘t a politician
or an urban planner – he was a child, concerned with the size of his clip-on roller skates, and whether
they‘d fit over shoes large enough to support his lanky frame. He didn‘t know that he was gliding above
one of the city‘s most CONTESTED planning projects, or what kind of impact it would have on his life. He
was young and with friends, and so they laced up their skates. For ordinary people, this is how history
happens. Dad was brought up in Robert Moses‘ New York – a city undergoing major infrastructural
development to produce a sprawling highway network. In addition to his unelected political influence and
scores of towering turnpikes, Moses was known for spearheading planning projects that splintered local
communities. When my father recalled the Bronx that raised him, he described a place that was diverse
and down-to-earth, sometimes veering toward mean, but one where people looked out for each other.
They recognised one another. You could leave your house keys with your shopowner, whose brother
would send condolences to your family when a loved one passed away. Moses was famous for blatantly
overlooking this kind of social capital, and for celebrating rather than ignoring proposals that required
entire neighbourhoods to be bulldozed. He was notorious for paraphrasing the adage, ‗you can‘t make
an omelette without breaking eggs.‘
That quote has been mistakenly attributed to Stalin, but today it rings rather Trump-like, with a
callousness so dumbfounding it‘s almost comical. My dad spent his youth in perpetual sickness, one of
countless Jewish kids in the Bronx whose skinny legs and bad asthma kept them out of school. Engulfed
by construction and vehicle congestion, my father was nine when his health got so bad that his teachers
finally decided to hold him back a year, separating him from classmates and friends. It was 1962, nearly
a decade into the period described by the Bronx-born philosopher Marshall Berman as an era of dust
and debris, when Moses‘s highway was ‗pounded and blasted and smashed‘ through the centre of their
neighbourhood.
For many families like my own, the Expressway symbolises a broader story of environmental injustice in
the area, now dubbed ‗asthma alley‘ due to its disproportionately high rates. Incidences of childhood
asthma in the Bronx still rank 40 per cent higher than the New York City average, a fact attributed to
elevated concentrations of particulate matter in the air. Last year, New York City‘s mayor Eric Adams
declared that the Cross-Bronx Expressway nurtured these inequalities by fragmenting largely Black and
Latino working-class neighbourhoods while generating significant air pollution that has been statistically
correlated with poor health outcomes for generations of residents. Traffic emits a range of toxins, like
nitrous oxide, PM2.5 and dust from brakes and tyres; the side-effects of prolonged exposure to them
include asthma, emphysema, cardiovascular disease and cancer.
Reference: Aeon, Sick City,
[Link]
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1. ―In addition to his unelected political influence and scores of towering turnpikes, Moses was known for
spearheading planning projects that (________) local communities‖ Which of the following option can
best replace the missing word.
(a) Unify (b) Dissociate
(c) Assimilate (d) Disintegrate

2. Which of the following statements is true, based on the information provided in the passage?
(a) Robert Moses was known for his efforts in preserving tight-knit communities in New York City during
his urban planning initiatives.
(b) The construction of the Cross-Bronx Expressway was widely supported and praised by the local
communities in the Bronx.
(c) Childhood asthma rates in the Bronx are statistically 40% higher than the New York City average,
largely attributed to environmental factors related to the Cross-Bronx Expressway.
(d) The Cross-Bronx Expressway project was completed without any significant impact on the local
environment or the health of the residents in the area.

3. Based on the statement, which of the following can be inferred about the Bronx in the early 1960s?
(a) The Bronx was undergoing significant urban development, leading to environmental and health
issues for its residents.
(b) The construction of highways in the Bronx was universally welcomed by the local community.
(c) The educational system in the Bronx was particularly accommodating to students with health issues.
(d) The Bronx's development in the 1960s was primarily focused on improving public transportation
systems.

4. Which tone best captures the essence of concluding paragraph of the above passage?
(a) Cautiously Optimistic (b) Dispassionately Analytical
(c) Resignedly Critical (d) Incisively Concerned
5. What subtle inference can be drawn from the statement:
―That quote has been mistakenly attributed to Stalin, but today it rings rather Trump-like, with a
callousness so dumbfounding it‘s almost comical.‖
(a) The quote‘s misattribution to Stalin reflects a common tendency to incorrectly associate historical
figures with extreme statements.
(b) The comparison of the quote to Trump‘s rhetoric indicates a shift in the perception of political
discourse from the era of Stalin to the present.
(c) The attribution of the quote to Stalin, despite its current resemblance to Trump‘s style, suggests a
timeless quality in certain political rhetoric.
(d) The paragraph implies a critique of modern political rhetoric, equating its absurdity to historical
misattributions of extreme quotes.

6. What can be inferred from Moses‘s paraphrasing of the adage, ‗you can‘t make an omelette without
breaking eggs,‘ in the context of his approach to urban development?
(a) Moses valued the preservation of social capital in neighborhoods over the execution of his urban
development plans.
(b) Moses believed in the necessity of making significant sacrifices for the greater good in urban
development.
(c) Moses was known for his gentle and considerate approach to the relocation of residents affected by
his projects.
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(d) Moses prioritized economic investment over environmental considerations in his urban development
projects.

II. An attempt to define ‗free will‘ might reasonably start by defining ‗freedom‘. I will use the definition
that freedom is the capacity to explore possibilities. This isn‘t the only good definition of freedom, but it
works well with the rest of what I‘m going to say. By this definition, someone is free to the extent that
they can explore possibilities or options, and even a simple animal, or even a bacterium, is free insofar
as it can explore the possibilities presented by its environment.
But the freedom of bacteria is relatively limited. Creatures capable of thought can explore not only their
immediate physical surroundings but also the world of ideas. This freedom to explore ideas is also not
unlimited: the outer borders of that freedom are the limits of our imaginations.
The power of the will in the term ‗free will‘ might be reasonably defined as the power of enacting choices
or decisions made by a mind. We could say, wills make choices, so free wills make free choices. So, just
by these definitions, free will is choice enacted by a mind from possibilities. Free will means a mind
causing a state of being from options. So even just by defining the words, we understand that free will is
conscious causation. The trick is to understand what this means. What is supposedly being caused by
consciousness, from what options, for instance?
Our definition of freedom as ‗the ability to explore possibilities‘ fits well with the fact that free will involves
choice, since to choose is to decide between possibilities. And certainly, in terms of the freedom of
intelligent agents, before there can be freedom to act, there must be the freedom to think. Choice must
first mean that to some degree we choosers choose our own thoughts. You choose what to think, or
what you want to do, before you enact any such choice. So what I‘ll primarily mean by ‗choice‘ is your
specification of the contents of your mind, at least to some extent, with ‗choice‘ only secondarily referring
to any actions that may result from the mental deliberation. Thought comes before action, otherwise
we‘re not talking about rational choice but rash impulse. Indeed, if we don‘t choose mentally before we
act physically, we‘re not talking about choice at all, we‘re talking about an automatic reflex or response: a
reaction or an impulse. So before any truly chosen bodily movement can be enacted, there must be a
choice to move. This includes moving your mouth to speak. With this in mind, I‘ll define choice primarily
as the conscious specification of your next mental contents, such that your willing is your conscious
specification of the next contents of your mind. Alternatively put, free will means the ability to choose one
set of mental contents rather than others, potentially followed by action resulting from that choice. But
free will is the capacity to specify one‘s next mental content from a range of possibilities, and only
consequently about enacting this choice physically.
Reference: Philosophy Now, What Is Free Will?
[Link]

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the above excerpt?

(a) Free will is an emergent property of organisms that can perceive and respond to their environment,
irrespective of their complexity.
(b) Free will requires a minimal level of cognitive awareness to differentiate between various
environmental possibilities.
(c) Free will is a characteristic shared by all entities capable of spontaneous reaction to environmental
stimuli.
(d) Free will is rooted in the ability to conceptualize and deliberate among different potential actions in
one's environment.

8. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true regarding the concept of 'free will'?
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(a) Free will is exclusively about the physical actions resulting from choices, without considering the
mental deliberation involved.
(b) Free will is limited to the physical exploration of the environment and does not include the exploration
of ideas.
(c) Free will is the conscious specification of one's next mental contents from a range of possibilities,
potentially followed by action resulting from that choice.
(d) Free will is an automatic reflex or response, akin to a reaction or an impulse, and does not involve
conscious choice.
9. What can be inferred from the statement: "So what I‘ll primarily mean by ‗choice‘ is
……………………..talking about an automatic reflex or response: a reaction or an impulse."
(a) Physical actions are more critical to the concept of choice than mental deliberations.
(b) Rational choice is primarily about physical actions, and mental deliberations are of secondary
importance.
(c) Choice is fundamentally about conscious mental deliberations, and physical actions are a secondary
aspect of this process.
(d) Mental deliberations and physical actions are equally important in the process of making a choice.

10. Which of the following can be the most likely to be the profession of the author?
(a) Cognitive Scientist (b) Ethicist
(c) Philosopher of Mind (d) Theoretical Physicist

11. "So what I‘ll primarily mean by ‗choice‘ is your specification of the contents of your mind, at least to some
extent, with ‗choice‘ only secondarily referring to any actions that may result from the mental
(________)." Replace the blank with the most suitable synonym from the following options:
(a) Cogitation (b) Perturbation
(c) Oscillation (d) Concatenation

12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The concept of choice is fundamentally anchored in the deliberate predetermination of one's ensuing
mental cognitions.
(b) The essence of free will is exclusively confined to the realm of physical manifestation of decisions.
(c) Antecedent to any volitional corporeal actuation, there necessitates the existence of a prior mental
adjudication.
(d) The act of articulation, inclusive of the oral locomotion requisite for speech, falls under the umbrella
of conscious mental predetermination.

III. Shortly before 7:19 am on 19 September 1985, time began to shift in Mexico City. It started with a
tremor, emerging from the subduction zone on the Pacific coast, about 300 km southwest of the
metropolis. The magnitude 7.4 quake took less than a minute to travel through the surface of southern
Mexico before arriving beneath the city. Amplified by soft soils, it reached magnitude 8.1, killing,
according to government data, around 10,000 people (the real number is likely much higher – perhaps
as many as 40,000 people), and immediately causing 400 buildings to collapse (3,000 would eventually
be demolished). Telephone lines went down, sewerage flooded the drinking water, roads into and out of
the city became blocked. In the aftermath, up to 700,000 of the estimated 9.1 million residents in the
Federal District of Mexico City were left homeless – the state response to the disaster was
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catastrophically incompetent. And behind it all, as the event recedes into memory, time itself began to
take on ever-stranger forms.
During the following years, while city and federal governments grappled with the political fallout, the
anniversary of the earthquake became a date on which the state expresses its contrition for the past and
demonstrates its preparedness for the future. Every year since 1985, a minute‘s silence is held on 19
September, followed by commemorative events, the unveiling of memorials and monuments, the
inauguration of new preventative technologies and infrastructures, and the promulgation of risk-reduction
legislation – all to ensure that similar disasters are avoided.
These state performances are also met with protests from residents demanding the government be held
to account for rampant corruption in the real estate industry, which had led to the substandard
construction in many of the collapsed buildings. In the early 1990s, evacuation drills were added to the
commemorative events of 19 September. And in the early 2000s, these anniversary evacuations
followed the sounding of the city‘s Seismic Alert System (Sistema de Alerta Sísmica Mexicano, or
SASMEX), which was gradually being implemented across the metropolis. From loudspeakers on street
corners, the alert begins as a pulsing, vibrating rhythm that is more eerie than alarming. Over this sound,
a cold monotone voice repeats the words ‗Alerta sísmica‘. The anniversary becomes a day for declaring
that the events of 19 September 1985 will never happen again. It turns the earthquake into something to
be memorialised: a historical event. All that changed in 2017, when the alarm sounded twice on 19
September. Once for the memorial and commemorative evacuations, and then again, two hours later, for
a devastating magnitude 7.1 earthquake that killed more than 300 people and levelled dozens of
buildings. For the survivors, the coincidence begins to create profound temporal disorientation. How,
survivors ask each other, could this be happening again? How could the two most devastating
earthquakes in Mexico City‘s history strike on the same date?
Some residents told me that when the second alarm sounded, they assumed it was another
commemoration of the 1985 earthquake rather than a warning of a new tremor, and so they remained in
their buildings until the city began to shake. Fernanda, a woman living in southern Mexico City, told me:
I simply could not believe it… I heard the alert and thought to myself: ‗That‘s strange, another drill.‘ I did
not think: ‗That‘s another earthquake.‘ I guess I thought that earthquakes would only come [during the
other] 364 days of the year.
Reference: Aeon, When does after begin?
[Link]

13. "The inauguration of new preventative technologies and infrastructures, and the promulgation of risk-
reduction legislation – all to ensure that similar disasters are avoided," which of the following words could
best replace the underlined word "promulgation" without significantly altering the meaning of the
sentence?
(a) Dissemination (b) Enunciation
(c) Proclamation (d) Codification

14. Which of the following statements is most likely true according to the passage?
(a) The 1985 earthquake in Mexico City was primarily amplified by the city's architectural design, leading
to its high magnitude.
(b) In the years following the 1985 earthquake, Mexico City has abandoned the practice of
commemorating the disaster due to political reasons.
(c) The magnitude 7.4 earthquake originated in the subduction zone on the Pacific coast and was
amplified to 8.1 due to soft soils in Mexico City.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) After the 1985 earthquake, the Mexican government was highly efficient in responding to the
disaster, minimizing the impact on the city's residents.

15. What can be inferred from the statement about the residents' reaction to the earthquake alarm in Mexico
City?
(a) Residents have become desensitized to earthquake alarms due to frequent drills and
commemorations.
(b) The earthquake warning system in Mexico City is generally ineffective and often leads to confusion
among residents.
(c) Most residents in Mexico City have a thorough understanding of earthquake alarms and respond
immediately.
(d) Earthquakes are an uncommon occurrence in Mexico City, happening less frequently than annual
drills.

16. Which of the following best sum up the overall tone of the overall passage?
(a) Resigned & Contemplative (b) Indignant & Accusatory
(c) Nostalgic & Wistful (d) Perturbed & Cynical

17. Which of the following most accurately encapsulates the theme as articulated in the passage?
(a) The juxtaposition of commemorative rituals and real-life disaster scenarios in shaping public
consciousness in Mexico City.
(b) An exploration of the socio-political ramifications of natural disasters on urban planning and
infrastructure development.
(c) A critique of governmental ineptitude in disaster management juxtaposed with the resilience of
Mexico City's populace.
(d) The transformation of natural disasters into cultural and historical symbols, overshadowing their
immediate physical impacts.

18. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the societal and psychological implications of the
Seismic Alert System and the 19 September commemorations in Mexico City?
(a) The commemorations and Seismic Alert System symbolize a transformative shift from reactive
disaster response to proactive disaster mitigation.
(b) These practices have inadvertently fostered a sense of complacency among residents regarding
earthquake preparedness.
(c) The Seismic Alert System and commemorations are primarily viewed as perfunctory measures
lacking substantial impact on real estate accountability.
(d) The annual drills and alert system underscore a pervasive scepticism among residents about the
government's commitment to disaster prevention.

IV. Of all of the fundamental forces known to humanity, gravity is both the most familiar and the one that
holds the Universe together, connecting distant galaxies in a vast and interconnected cosmic web. With
that in mind, a fascinating question to ponder is whether gravity has a speed. It turns out that it does, and
scientists have precisely measured it.
Let‘s start with a thought experiment. Suppose at this very instant, somehow the Sun was made to
disappear — not just go dark, but vanish entirely. We know that light travels at a fixed speed: 300,000
kilometers per second, or 186,000 miles per second. From the known distance between the Earth and
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

the Sun (150 million kilometers, or 93 million miles), we can calculate how long it would take before we
here on Earth would know the Sun had disappeared. It would take about eight minutes and 20 seconds
before the noon sky would go dark.
But what about gravity? If the sun disappeared, it would not only stop emitting light, but also stop
exerting the gravity that holds the planets in orbit. When would we find out?
If gravity is infinitely fast, gravity would also disappear as soon as the Sun poofed into nonexistence.
We‘d still see the Sun for a little over eight minutes, but the Earth would already start wandering off,
heading for interstellar space. On the other hand, if gravity traveled at the speed of light, our planet
would continue to orbit the Sun as usual for eight minutes and 20 seconds, after which it would stop
following its familiar path.
Of course, if gravity traveled at some other speed, the interval between when beachgoing Sun
worshipers noticed the Sun was gone and when astronomers observed that the Earth was going in the
wrong direction would be different. So, what is the speed of gravity?
Different answers have been proposed throughout scientific history. Sir Isaac Newton, who invented the
first sophisticated theory of gravity, believed the speed of gravity was infinite. He would have predicted
that the Earth‘s path through space would change before Earth-bound humans noticed that the Sun was
gone.
On the other hand, Albert Einstein believed that gravity traveled at the speed of light. He would have
predicted that humans would simultaneously notice the disappearance of the Sun and the change of
Earth‘s path through the cosmos. He built this assumption into his theory of general relativity, which is
currently the best accepted theory of gravity, and it very precisely predicts the path of the planets around
the Sun. His theory makes more accurate predictions than Newton‘s. So, can we conclude that Einstein
was right?
No, we can‘t. If we want to measure the speed of gravity, we need to think of a way to directly measure
it. And, of course, since we can‘t just ―disappear‖ the Sun for a few moments to test Einstein‘s idea, we
need to find another way.
Einstein‘s theory of gravity made testable predictions. The most important one is that he realized that the
familiar gravity we experience can be explained as a distortion of the fabric of space: the greater the
distortion, the higher the gravity. And this idea has significant consequences. It suggests that space is
malleable, similar to the surface of a trampoline, which distorts when a child steps on it. Furthermore, if
that same child jumps on the trampoline, the surface changes: it bounces up and down.
Reference: Big Think, How fast is gravity, exactly?
[Link]

19. Based on the passage, which of the following statements accurately reflects the information presented?
(a) The speed of light and the speed of gravity are identical, both traveling at 300,000 kilometers per
second.
(b) If the Sun vanished, Earth would instantaneously lose its gravitational connection to the Sun.
(c) The disappearance of the Sun would be noticed on Earth in less than 4 minutes due to the speed of
light.
(d) It would take about eight minutes and 20 seconds for the effects of the Sun's disappearance to be
observed on Earth.

20. In the line, "It suggests that space is malleable, similar to the surface of a trampoline, which distorts
when a child steps on it," which word could replace "malleable" without significantly changing the
meaning?
(a) Ductile (b) Supple
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Inflexible (d) Yielding

21. Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
(a) The speed of gravity is an enigmatic concept in physics, with various theories proposing different
speeds, but the most accurate measurement aligns with Einstein's theory of general relativity.
(b) The properties of light and gravity are fundamentally similar, as both travel at a constant speed,
which is crucial for understanding cosmic phenomena and the behaviour of celestial bodies.
(c) The understanding of gravity has evolved from Newton's perception of it as an instantaneous force to
a more nuanced view that incorporates its speed as a key aspect of astrophysical calculations.
(d) The concept of gravity as a distortion in the fabric of space, rather than a traditional force,
revolutionizes our understanding of the Universe and opens up new possibilities in cosmological
research.

22. Based on the passage, It can be inferred that

(a) If gravity operates faster than the speed of light, Earth's deviation from its orbit would be observable
before the disappearance of the Sun becomes visible.
(b) The simultaneity of Earth's orbital deviation and the disappearance of the Sun's light would indicate
that gravity and light travel at different speeds.
(c) Should gravity propagate slower than light, Earth would continue its orbit for a significant time after
the Sun's disappearance becomes visible.
(d) The speed of gravity is irrelevant to Earth's orbit; gravitational changes would be instantaneously felt
regardless of the Sun's status.

23. It can be concluded about the Einstein‘s theory of gravity that

(a) The theory implies that the gravitational interaction between two celestial bodies is not a direct force
exchange but a consequence of each body responding to the space curvature created by the other.
(b) Einstein's theory suggests that gravitational force is a manifestation of the kinetic energy generated
by celestial bodies, analogous to the dynamic energy exhibited by a trampoline in motion.
(c) It indicates that gravity between celestial bodies is the result of a synchronized oscillation in space-
time, akin to the rhythmic movements of a trampoline surface.
(d) The theory posits that gravitational interactions are a function of the electromagnetic properties
inherent in the fabric of space, with celestial bodies acting as conduits for these forces.

24. The overall tone of the passage is

(a) Analytically Cautious (b) Conceptually Expansive
(c) Methodologically Rigorous (d) Historically Reverent
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 3
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. In the ever-changing landscape of the 21st century, students face a range of challenges that go beyond
traditional education. These challenges include the need to adapt to rapidly advancing technology, cope
with mental health pressures, embrace diversity, develop both technical and soft skills for a shifting job
market, address environmental issues, and gain financial literacy. To prepare students for success in this
complex world, a holistic approach to education is necessary, one that equips them with the skills and
mindset to excel academically and thrive in a changing global environment. In the ever-changing
landscape of the 21st century, students face a range of challenges that go beyond traditional education.
These challenges include the need to adapt to rapidly advancing technology, cope with mental health
pressures, embrace diversity, develop both technical and soft skills for a shifting job market, address
environmental issues, and gain financial literacy. To prepare students for success in this complex world,
a holistic approach to education is necessary, one that equips them with the skills and mindset to excel
academically and thrive in a changing global environment.
The pervasive influence of technology presents both opportunities and challenges for students. While
digital tools offer enhanced access to information and novel learning experiences, they also bring forth
concerns of digital addiction, information overload, and cyberbullying. Striking a balance between
leveraging technology for educational purposes and avoiding its detrimental effects becomes a critical
skill for students. Contemporary students face unprecedented levels of stress and mental health issues.
The pressure to excel academically, coupled with the demands of extracurricular activities and social
expectations, can take a toll on their emotional well-being. Schools must prioritise mental health support
services and create environments that foster open discussions about stress, anxiety, and mental health
challenges.
In an increasingly diverse world, students encounter the challenges of navigating cultural differences,
embracing inclusivity, and combating stereotypes. Educational institutions must promote cultural
sensitivity, provide platforms for intercultural dialogue, and ensure that curricula reflect the global realities
of today‘s interconnected societies. The shifting landscape of the job market demands a re-evaluation of
the skills students acquire. Automation, artificial intelligence, and the gig economy have redefined the
skill sets required for success. Schools must equip students with not only technical skills but also soft
skills like adaptability, critical thinking, and communication to prepare them for the uncertainties of the job
market.
With environmental challenges looming large, students are confronted with the urgency of understanding
and addressing issues like climate change and sustainability. Education must emphasise ecological
literacy, fostering a sense of responsibility for the planet and encouraging innovative solutions to
environmental crises.
The complexities of the modern financial landscape present challenges for students entering adulthood.
Many lack essential financial literacy skills, leaving them vulnerable to debt and poor financial decisions.
Incorporating financial education into the curriculum can empower students to make informed choices
about saving, investing, and managing their finances. In our complex modern era, the primary aim of
education is to empower students to navigate and succeed in a changing world. This involves preparing
students with the skills and mindset necessary for success. This comprehensive approach includes
fostering a growth mindset, emotional intelligence, and cross-cultural understanding. Additionally,
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

education should promote environmental awareness and sustainability. The goal is to develop well-
rounded individuals who are not only academically successful but also compassionate and effective
contributors to society. This empowerment equips students to confidently face challenges, build
meaningful connections, and make a positive impact on the world.
Reference: Contemporary Student Challenges in the 21st Century
[Link]
21st-century

1. "To prepare students for success in this complex world, a holistic approach to education is necessary,
one that equips them with the skills and mindset to excel academically and thrive in a changing global
environment," which sophisticated synonym for "thrive" would best fit without altering the original
meaning?
(a) Proliferate (b) Prosper
(c) Transcend (d) Augment

2. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

(a) The primary aim of modern education is to prepare students solely for academic success, focusing
on traditional subjects like mathematics and science.
(b) Financial literacy is deemed unnecessary in modern education, as the complexities of the financial
landscape are considered too challenging for students.
(c) Modern education aims to develop well-rounded individuals who are academically successful,
emotionally intelligent, environmentally aware, and capable of cross-cultural understanding.
(d) The passage suggests that students today are generally well-equipped with financial literacy skills
and are making informed financial decisions.

3. Which of the following best describes the overall tone of the above passage?
(a) Analytically Constructive (b) Resignedly Sceptical
(c) Emphatically Dogmatic (d) Visionarily Transformative

4. Based on the statement, "In the ever-changing landscape of the 21st century, students face a range of
challenges that go beyond traditional education………………excel academically and thrive in a changing
global environment," what inference can be drawn about the evolving requirements of 21st-century
education?
(a) Education's primary focus should be on developing specialized skills in advanced technologies, as
they are the predominant force shaping the future.
(b) The imperative for education now extends beyond traditional academic learning to encompass a
broad spectrum of competencies, including emotional, environmental, and technological literacies.
(c) The primary challenge for contemporary education is to combat the rising mental health issues
among students, overshadowing other educational goals.
(d) The current educational system is adequately equipped to handle the demands of the 21st century,
requiring only minor adjustments to its traditional focus.

5. Based on its content, style, and purpose, what is the most appropriate classification for the above
passage?
(a) Expository Discourse (b) Empirical Dissertation
(c) Analytical Critique (d) Advocative Treatise
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

6. Given the statement, "The complexities of the modern financial landscape present challenges for
students entering adulthood," It can be inferred that the
(a) The multifaceted nature of today's financial environment is inherently navigable by students due to
their exposure to a technology-driven society.
(b) Contemporary financial environments, characterized by their intricate and multifarious nature,
necessitate a robust financial education for students poised at the threshold of adulthood.
(c) The challenges posed by the modern financial landscape are exclusively pertinent to students with
specific economic backgrounds.
(d) In the context of the modern financial landscape, traditional financial skills remain sufficient for
students transitioning into adulthood.

II. In the surreal aftermath of my suicide attempt and amid the haze of my own processing, my best friend
visited me in the hospital with a (soft-bound and thus mental-patient-safe) copy of David Foster
Wallace‘s Infinite Jest under his arm. It was the spring of 2021. A couple months earlier, I had slipped in
a tub, suffered a concussion, and triggered my first episode of major depression, and those had been the
most difficult months of my life.
Though a lifelong ‗striver‘ and ‗high achiever‘, nothing I‘ve ever done was harder than waging that war
against myself while catatonic on that Brooklyn sofa. This was an inarticulable and so alienating war, one
during which, at every moment, it was excruciating and terrifying to exist at all. I thought I knew the
extent of my own mind‘s capacity to torture itself, to hurt me, and what this thing we call depression can
really be like. But I had been wrong.
For anyone who hasn‘t experienced it at its worst, I now think it is psychologically impossible to imagine.
It may even prove impossible for those who have experienced to still remember it after the fact, just as
someone who temporarily perceives a fourth dimension wouldn‘t really, fully remember what it was like
once the perception is lost, only facets of the larger, unfathomable thing.
So maybe I can‘t really remember, either: but I can recall thinking again and again these staggered
reflections I‘m writing now. Some of the swirling emotions that distressed and disoriented me on that sofa
also remain faintly accessible, like the crippling inability to make any decisions, no matter how small,
such that even contemplating a choice among some host of mine‘s warmly offered selection of teas
would incapacitate me with self-loathing and breathless, gushing tears. I remember hopelessly trying to
make myself feel even the glimmer of anything good, turning to everything – the music, the friends – that
had brought me so much joy before, only to find that I could no longer feel any of it but rather just, from
somewhere afar, see and long for it while watching as the ever-darkening blackness in me instead
consumed it all.
I remember the debilitating guilt and shame that emerged for everything I had ever done, including for
having the audacity to keep existing for so long. And I remember an overwhelming empathy as I
wondered how many others felt this way in the history of the world, imagining the vastness of all these
solitary confinements within our minds across space and time. At the same time, it was unfathomable to
me that anyone had ever felt like this, or that there could even be enough darkness in the universe to
realise the experience more than this once. From the days following my injury through the several
months after, my ultimate challenge on that sofa was finding a way to endure the passage of time. I
needed something to help me get through each moment and make it to the next one while still intact. I
couldn‘t actually do anything, but staring into space (or even watching TV) kept me vulnerable, as the
cognitive passivity left ample room for the darkness to seep in and swallow me away.
Reference: Aeon,
[Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

7. Based on the above passage, how would you classify the genre of the above passage?
(a) Autobiographical Memoir (b) Psychological Thriller
(c) Science Fiction Narrative (d) Academic Dissertation

8. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's experience during their period of
depression?
(a) The author found solace and escape in small decisions, like choosing a type of tea, which provided a
sense of control and comfort amidst their turmoil.
(b) During this period, the author's ability to experience joy from previously cherished activities like
music and spending time with friends was significantly diminished.
(c) The author's experience of depression involved a heightened sense of clarity and enhanced
decision-making abilities, particularly in everyday choices.
(d) Throughout their depression, the author maintained a consistent ability to feel positive emotions,
though they were occasionally overshadowed by negative thoughts.

9. "Some of the (______) emotions that distressed and disoriented me on that sofa also remain faintly
accessible," which synonym for the above blank would best fit without altering the original meaning?
(a) Nebulous (b) Whirling
(c) Sequential (d) Congruent

10. Which statement most accurately encapsulates the author's nuanced experiences and introspective
revelations?
(a) The author derived a sense of existential validation and self-affirmation from the introspective journey
following their traumatic experience.
(b) The author's introspective journey was marked by a profound empathetic resonance, pondering the
universal prevalence of such deep-seated emotional states across the annals of human history.
(c) The author discovered solace and emotional reprieve in engaging with cognitively demanding
activities, finding them to be a sanctuary from their psychological turmoil.
(d) Throughout the narrative, the author exhibits a persistent undercurrent of resilient optimism, viewing
their experiences as a conduit to future aspirations and endeavours.

11. Based on the content and themes of the passage, which of the following titles would be most suitable?
(a) "The Unseen Battle: Navigating the Depths of Major Depression"
(b) "A Journey of Physical Recovery: Overcoming the Aftermath of an Injury"
(c) "The Silent Triumph: Rising Above Personal Struggles"
(d) "Rediscovering Joy: A Tale of Emotional Reawakening"

12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The author perceived their battle with depression as an insubstantial impediment compared to their
historical pursuits of ambition and success.
(b) Confronting depression emerged as an unparalleled and formidable challenge for the author,
eclipsing the rigors of their erstwhile endeavours as a dedicated striver and achiever.
(c) The author's historical achievements and relentless striving provided a substantial buffer,
ameliorating the impact and severity of their depressive state.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The genesis of the author's depressive episode is attributed solely to the physical trauma
encountered, rendering it an anomaly within the broader spectrum of mental health disorders.

III. The word ‗creativity‘ is derived from the Latin word creare; literally, ‗to cause, to create, to make‘. But this
definition itself suggests problems. Humans can certainly make things by putting other things together;
but do we have the capacity to create something new, as it were, from nothing? Well, like many others, I
will take refuge in the phrase ―it all depends what you mean by…‖ The idea that creation was only in
God‘s realm seems to have been ditched in the seventeenth century. The word creativity seems to have
acquired its present meaning around that time, with its implication that humans too can be creative.
One thing we need to clear up first, is that creativity and discovery are not the same thing. Discovery is
unearthing something new: that which hasn‘t been known before. The discoverer does not know
anything of the thing discovered until the discovery occurs. This helps us with what creativity is not:
although of course creative people do discover things, creativity can be a frame of mind, whereas
discovery cannot.
Some have suggested that one criterion for a creative act is that it should be ‗unique‘, rather than a copy
of a previous act. Clearly however this cannot be the only criterion, or else one could just churn out a
random sequence of letters or characters that made no sense at all and claim that to be creative act. So
we need a second criterion for creativity: what is created must make some sort of sense. For that to
work, the creative event must be embedded in some sort of symbol system intelligible to a wider
audience: for example, language, logic, maths or music.
So creative events require meaning. Ludwig Wittgenstein claims in his Philosophical
Investigations (1953) that, when it comes to language, ‗meaning is use‘. For those who have wrestled
with the various ideas in Wittgenstein‘s Tractatus or his later Philosophical Investigations, it might seem
a little incongruous that Wittgenstein has much to say about creativity. His later work brilliantly advances
his ‗Private Language Argument‘, demolishing the possibility of a strictly personal language developed
inside one‘s own head using creative abilities inspired solely from one‘s own internal world. Rather,
Wittgenstein argues that understanding is a public phenomenon; that language can only develop in
interactions between individuals. Indeed, his famous notion of a ‗language game‘ centres on the fact that
language use is embedded within different types of social interaction, so that subtly different rules govern
different language games. For instance, the language game played by religions has boundaries that
separate it from other language games. (Few language games are circumscribed by belief: religion is
one; supporting a football team may be another.)
It‘s important to note that language games are social by their very nature. If, as Wittgenstein argued,
understanding is a public phenomenon, then clearly one cannot have a language game if there is no
public. If there is no human interaction, then there is no communication. Wittgenstein insisted that
language games were not static, but were developing systems constantly under review by those using
them, especially creative individuals.
Some philosophers have suggested that creativity is forged in a culture of traditions – linguistic, cultural,
etc. A new theory or method or way of looking at things is judged creative by those imbued with the
values, judgements and theories of the tradition in which they work. But traditions are developed within
societies, so it follows that creativity is developed socially. This notion has been named by psychologists
and some philosophers ‗the sociocultural theory‘.
Reference: Philosophy Now,
[Link]
Difficulty Level: D
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

13. "For those who have wrestled with the various ideas in Wittgenstein‘s Tractatus or his later Philosophical
Investigations, it might seem a little (________) that Wittgenstein has much to say about creativity,"
which synonym for "incongruous" most aptly retains the original sentiment of the sentence?
(a) Congenial (b) Disparate
(c) Synchronistic (d) Complementary

14. Which of the following is most likely to be true based on the above passage?
(a) Wittgenstein promulgates the concept of an introspectively constructed linguistic framework, where
individual creativity forms the sole basis of linguistic evolution.
(b) Wittgenstein's philosophical treatise primarily advocates for the transcendence of language beyond
the mundane interactions, veering towards metaphysical contemplation.
(c) Wittgenstein's doctrines elucidate that linguistic comprehension and development are inexorably
intertwined with the dynamics of communal discourse rather than insular cognitive processes.
(d) The crux of Wittgenstein's 'language game' hypothesis posits a monolithic structure governing
linguistic rules, applicable uniformly across diverse societal interactions.

15. Which of the following best sum up the overall tone of the above?
(a) Sceptically Critical (b) Analytically Expository
(c) Sentimentally Nostalgic (d) Assertively Dogmatic
16. It can be inferred that the
(a) Creativity is the reconfiguration of pre-existing elements into novel amalgamations, while discovery is
the serendipitous unveiling of previously unobserved phenomena.
(b) Both creativity and discovery are parallel processes, each pertaining to the origination of novel
entities, with creativity leaning towards abstract conceptualization and discovery towards empirical
revelation.
(c) The essence of creativity lies in the replication of existing ideas in a new context, distinctly separate
from discovery which is aligned with the innovation of entirely new concepts.
(d) None of the above

17. Which of the following can be best inferred from the above passage?
(a) Creativity is an autonomously functioning paradigm, largely impervious to the influences of
sociolinguistic frameworks and existing cultural traditions.
(b) Creativity is intrinsically enmeshed within the vicissitudes of language games, reflecting a symbiotic
evolution with the nuances of societal interaction and collective cultural ethos.
(c) The dynamics of creativity and language games are parallel yet discretely operating entities, each
following an independent trajectory unaffected by the other's evolutionary path.
(d) Sociolinguistic frameworks serve as a restrictive matrix, invariably confining the scope and
manifestation of creativity to pre-defined cultural and linguistic boundaries.

18. Which of the following if true, most likely to be concluded based on the above passage?
(a) The conceptual evolution of 'creativity' signifies its alignment with the discovery process, converging
in the seventeenth century as synonymous expressions of human ingenuity.
(b) 'Creativity,' as distinct from 'discovery,' encompasses a multifaceted cognitive paradigm, extending
beyond the mere revelation of the unknown and encompassing the synthesis of novel ideas or
constructs.
(c) 'Discovery' has historically been perceived as a human endeavour parallel to 'creativity,' with both
terms uniformly representing the emergence of unprecedented phenomena from a void.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The historical trajectory of 'creativity' reveals a reorientation from its initial association with divine
creation to a contemporary understanding synonymous with the empirical discovery process.

IV. As the days grow colder and the chilly fingers of the northern wind inch their way under collars, thoughts
naturally turn towards some of the fundamental joys – seeking warmth, sharing food, enjoying the
company of others, and fostering togetherness. These timeless pleasures evoke the Germanic medieval
era, when communal feasting and the display of hospitality served as cornerstones of social bonding and
celebration, and whose winter traditions – the provision of clothing, warmth and food for the weary
traveller – remain ubiquitous today. The verse above, from the Icelandic poem Hávamál, is just a small
part of a collection of Old Norse poems found in the Codex Regius manuscript. Written in the 13th
century, the Codex Regius is the most important manuscript preserving these poems. It provides insights
into the religious and moral beliefs of the Viking Age and is a crucial source for understanding Norse
mythology, wisdom and cultural values; it makes clear, for example, that part of Germanic hospitality
included the offering of generosity and kindness to any wintertime visitor. You never know who may
arrive at your door.
The same manuscript containing the sage wisdom of Hávamál also holds Grimnismál, a story which
cautions its readers even more candidly. The gods Óðinn, the all-father and god of wisdom, and his wife
Frigg, goddess of marriage and childbirth, were looking out over the worlds when they spied King
Geirroð, whom Frigg remarked was so miserly and inhospitable that he would torture his guests if he
thought there were too many of them. Óðinn did not believe this, and the couple made a wager on it.
Entering a feast at Geirroð‘s hall in disguise as the lowly Grímnir, Óðinn refused to answer the king‘s
impertinent questions about his identity, making things worse by sitting in a seat reserved only for the
most important guest, which the king forbade anyone to sit in. Geirroð, already warned that a magician
was arriving at his court to bespell him, had Grímnir tied up in the great fireplace and tortured for eight
days. But the king‘s son showed Óðinn kindness, bringing him water in the dead of night. For this, Óðinn
prophesied that the boy would be a great king in his own right, and that his father‘s days of glory were
over. Realising what he had done, Geirroð rushed to untie Óðinn; in his haste, his sword fell to the floor
hilt-down, impaling and killing the king.
Unlike Dickens‘ curmudgeonly Ebenezer Scrooge, in the mythology of the Grimnismál there are no
second chances for its coldhearted protagonist. So the message goes, take care to ensure that your
guests‘ bellies are full, their beer plentiful and their seating befitting of their rank, lest you find yourself in
a blood feud by New Year.
As the medieval cautionary tales of the sagas show, the stakes for the Icelandic Yuletide are higher than
one might realise. Central still to these celebrations is the feast. Icelandic food traditions are deeply
rooted in historical practices, reflecting the resilience and resourcefulness of its people who live in the
country‘s often harsh and changeable climate. Hangikjöt, or smoked lamb, originated in the ninth
century, when the land was settled by Norse explorers and meat was preserved by hanging and smoking
over birch wood (hangikjöt means ‗hung meat‘).
Reference: History Today,
[Link]
19. Reflecting on the cultural and historical nuances presented in the passage, which of the following
statements accurately encapsulates a statement from the above passage?
(a) In the Grimnismál mythology, the protagonist, like Ebenezer Scrooge, receives a chance for
redemption and transformation.
(b) Icelandic Yuletide traditions emphasize modesty and simplicity in feast preparations, in line with the
country's austere climatic conditions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Hangikjöt, a traditional Icelandic dish, has its origins in the ninth century and involves a process of
preservation using birch wood smoke.
(d) The sagas indicate that Icelandic Yuletide festivities historically had little emphasis on feasting and
more on ritualistic practices.

20. It can be inferred that the

(a) Hospitality and generosity are virtues that lead to prosperity and favor from the gods, as
demonstrated by the king‘s kind treatment of his guests.
(b) The story underscores the perils of pride and inhospitality, illustrating how these traits lead to tragic
consequences, as exemplified by King Geirroð‘s actions.
(c) The primary emphasis of the tale is on the power of magic and deception, highlighting Óðinn‘s ability
to disguise himself and manipulate situations to his advantage.
(d) The narrative suggests that fate is immutable and that prophecies, regardless of one‘s actions, will
inevitably come to pass, as seen in the king‘s attempt to change his destiny.

21. In the sentence "Entering a feast at Geirroð‘s hall in disguise as the lowly Grímnir, Óðinn refused to
answer the king‘s (________) questions about his identity," which of the synonym for the above blank
most accurately maintains the intended connotation in the passage?
(a) Inconsequential (b) Insolent
(c) Affable (d) Nonchalant

22. Which title most aptly encapsulates the essence of the above passage?
(a) "The Evolution of Norse Gastronomy: From Medieval Feasts to Modern Practices"
(b) "Tales of the North: Hospitality and Caution in Norse Mythology and Culture"
(c) "Viking Age Culinary Arts: An Exploration of Icelandic Gastronomic Heritage"
(d) None of the above

23. Which of the following can be best inferred from the above passage?
(a) The Old Norse texts predominantly valorize divine omniscience and omnipotence, epitomized
through the actions and foresight of deities like Óðinn.
(b) These texts reflect a deep-seated cultural ethos that underscores the immutable nature of fate, as
manifested through the divine interventions and prophecies within their narratives.
(c) The narratives encapsulated in these texts elucidate a complex interplay between divine intervention
and human agency, highlighting the nuanced balance of power and morality in Norse culture.
(d) None of the above

24. What can be inferred about the cultural values and social norms of the time?
(a) Wintertime was primarily seen as a period of solitude and self-reflection, with minimal emphasis on
social interaction and hospitality.
(b) The tradition of welcoming wintertime visitors with generosity was rooted in superstitions about the
identity and power of unexpected guests.
(c) Hospitality during wintertime was a practical necessity, driven by the harsh climatic conditions rather
than a cultural value of generosity and kindness.
(d) The ethos of generosity and kindness to visitors, especially in winter, reflects a deeply ingrained
cultural value of hospitality and communal support.
Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 4
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Frantz Fanon starts his book ‗Black skin, White masks‘ with this quote from Aimé Césaire‘s ‗A discourse
on colonialism‘ to talk about internalised prejudices in colonial subjects. A consideration we might need
to take up and evaluate when thinking about the decolonisation project in higher education.
Diversification of curriculum has become an important strategy within the decolonial project. However,
can diversification of the curriculum, through a smattering of passage by authors from the global south /
marginalised identities, contribute to the decolonial project without addressing pedagogical structures
and conditions of knowledge production?
Decolonising education is a deeper and more systemic project that seeks to challenge and upend
existing modes of knowing, historical institutional monopolies, and hegemonies on knowledge held in
sway through academic centres sustained by the Empire. It questions the foundations of knowledge that
is packaged and imparted in universities as inherently political project steeped in the material, social,
political, and military history of colonialism. Despite the intensifying calls for decolonisation due
the attainment gap between white and BAME (Black, Asian, and Minority Ethnic) students, only a fifth of
the UK universities (24 out of 128) say that they are committed to decolonising their curriculum.
However, race equality specialist, Sofia Akel believes that the ones who said no were being more
honest. This is because decolonisation projects in universities tend to boil down to a few academics and
a couple of departments at most, while most failed to grasp that decolonising goes beyond adding black
and non-western scholars to the reading list. Decolonisation projects require a scrutiny of the conditions
of knowledge production and a transformative approach to the current pedagogy.
Every field has a signature pedagogy or modes of teaching and learning that becomes pervasive within
particular disciplines. They define what counts as knowledge in a field, how it is analysed, criticised,
accepted, or discarded as well as what amounts to expertise and the locations of legitimate knowledge.
Signature pedagogies have three dimensions: a surface structure, a deep structure, and an implicit
structure. The surface structure relates to the operational act of teaching, while the deep structure
involves a set of assumptions about how best to impart education, and the implicit structure relates to the
moral dimensions about beliefs, attitudes, and values. Can the implicit structure of our pedagogies be
divorced from the ways non-western epistemes have been subjectified, as exotic objects of study, but
never the vehicles for understanding?
As a thought experiment, I invite the reader to think about any middle range or meta theories in their
discipline. What is their provenance? Can it be divorced from Euro-American epistemologies? Can they
recall any non-western episteme like the Ubuntu for example that is being used theoretical development
and contribution to a peer reviewed journal? Like the Invention of Africa, contemporary social realities
continue to be invented and structured through the Western epistemological order which constitute both
the conpassage and the referent for knowledge production. Further, disciplinary teaching expects
students to come out of universities knowing a standard set of given knowledge comprising key theorists,
theories, passage s, and approaches. engaging with knowledge, the transformative potential of the
decolonial project would remain stymied within the narrow instrumentality of including more non-western
scholars on reading lists.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Decolonisation projects in higher education have tended to remain mired in tokenistic gestures and
pledges in response to flashpoint events like the murder of George Floyd and the Black Lives Matter
movement.
Reference: LSE,
[Link]
pedagogical-structures/#more-1647

1. "Can the implicit structure of our pedagogies be divorced from the ways non-western epistemes have
been subjectified, as exotic objects of study, but never the vehicles for understanding?" In the
conpassage of the sentence, which of the following synonyms best replaces the word "epistemes"?
(a) Dogmas (b) Paradigms
(c) Artifacts (d) Doctrines

2. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The surface structure of signature pedagogies primarily concerns the moral and ethical dimensions
of teaching and learning.
(b) Deep structure in signature pedagogies refers to the operational methods employed in the act of
teaching.
(c) Implicit structure in signature pedagogies pertains to the beliefs, attitudes, and values underlying
educational methods.
(d) Non-western epistemes are always integrated as central vehicles for understanding in Western
pedagogical structures.

3. Which of the following most accurately describes the overall tone of the passage?
(a) Resigned and Dismissive (b) Sceptical and Probing
(c) Didactic and Prescriptive (d) Cautiously Optimistic and Encouraging

4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Non-Western epistemes are gradually becoming the primary focus in most academic disciplines.
(b) The dominance of Euro-American epistemologies is being rapidly dismantled in favour of a globally
inclusive approach.
(c) Euro-American epistemologies continue to overshadow non-Western perspectives in the academic
curriculum and knowledge production.
(d) Academic disciplines are predominantly based on non-Western epistemes, such as Ubuntu, in their
theoretical development.

5. Which of the following statement can be concluded from the passage?

(a) Decolonization in higher education, as it stands, primarily manifests through the inclusion of
marginalized voices in the curriculum, but this approach inadequately addresses the entrenched
Eurocentric biases in epistemological frameworks.
(b) The initiatives towards decolonizing higher education have been universally acknowledged and
rigorously implemented across various academic disciplines, ensuring an equitable representation of
diverse epistemologies.
(c) Decolonization efforts are predominantly symbolic, with most institutions adopting them as a formality
rather than engaging in a substantive overhaul of existing pedagogical paradigms.
(d) The current trend in decolonization primarily emphasizes restructuring the academic hierarchies and
power dynamics rather than diversifying the curriculum or re-evaluating pedagogical methodologies.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

6. Which of the following best represents the central idea as conveyed by the author in the passage
discussing the decolonization of higher education?
(a) The primary focus of decolonization in higher education should be the inclusion of non-Western
scholars in the curriculum.
(b) Decolonization in higher education is a multi-dimensional process that goes beyond mere curriculum
diversification to include a critical re-evaluation of pedagogical structures and knowledge production.
(c) The efforts to decolonize higher education have been wholly successful, leading to a balanced
representation of diverse epistemologies.
(d) The concept of decolonization in higher education is limited to addressing the attainment gaps
between different ethnic groups.

II. Shortly after Rachel Bespaloff‘s suicide in 1949, her friend Jean Wahl published fragments from her final
unfinished project. ‗The Instant and Freedom‘ condensed themes that occupied the Ukrainian-French
philosopher throughout her life: music, rhythm, corporeality, movement and time. One of Bespaloff‘s key
ideas, ‗the instant‘, is less a fragment of duration than a life-changing event, a moment of embodied
metamorphosis. In the midst of a noisy world, torn between transience and eternity, the human being
listens to the sound of history. Had she completed and published it, ‗The Instant and Freedom‘ might
have become the masterpiece of an important early existentialist thinker. Instead, her name is hardly
mentioned today.
Yet Bespaloff was a brilliant and original thinker, among the first wave of existentialists in France. Albert
Camus, Jean-Paul Sartre and Gabriel Marcel all admired her. A professional dancer and choreographer,
she had finely tuned ears for the musicality of philosophical writing. For Bespaloff, philosophy is a
dynamic, sensual activity of listening to and engaging with the voices of others, including those long
dead. In dialogue with Homer, Kierkegaard, Nietzsche and Heidegger, she found her own voice. At the
heart of Bespaloff‘s world is an original conception of time shaped by embodiment and music: the instant
is a silent pause that suspends history‘s repetitive rhythm. Through our bodies, we experience that break
from history as a brief moment of freedom.
Her more famous contemporary Simone Weil also used her body to express her philosophy: Weil
eventually starved herself to death in solidarity with friends and compatriots in occupied France.
Bespaloff shared Weil‘s interest in attention, listening and waiting as mystical practices of the body. For
both thinkers, philosophy was an existential embodiment of their ideas. However, Bespaloff did not use
her body as a weapon against itself; rather, she was interested in dance as a creative alchemy of
movement. Bespaloff‘s philosophy of the body is closely linked to the experience of time: it is our
embodied day-to-day existence that measures and gives rhythm to time. In an essay on Homer‘s Iliad
written during the Second World War, Bespaloff captured the experience of living through the horrors of
exile and war. The human being, ‗bound to her time by disorder and misfortune, acquires a new
perception of the time of her own existence.‘ Bespaloff‘s own life was one of repeated displacement: she
moved from Ukraine to Switzerland, Paris to southern France, to Mount Holyoke via New York. Born in
1895 in Nova Zagora in Bulgaria to a Ukrainian-Jewish family, she spent her childhood in Kyiv and then
in Geneva where the family moved in 1897. Her mother Debora Perlmutter was a philosopher who
taught at university; her father, Daniel Pasmanik, a surgeon, became a leading theoretician of Zionism in
the Russian Empire. A fervent anti-Bolshevik, Pasmanik fought for the White Army in the Russian Civil
War. In Switzerland, Bespaloff (then Rachel Pasmanik), studied piano and composition at the
conservatory, philosophy at the university, and eurythmics with Émile Jaques-Dalcroze. These three
areas of study are all entwined in her existential philosophy of embodiment.
Reference: Aeon,
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

[Link]

7. In the context of the passage, which of the following synonyms best replaces the word "fervent"?
(a) Zealous (b) Indifferent
(c) Nonchalant (d) Tepid

8. Based on its structure, thematic elements, and narrative style, what is the most appropriate classification
of the passage
(a) Academic critique (b) Historical exegesis
(c) Philosophical treatise (d) Literary biography

9. Based on the passage's exploration of Rachel Bespaloff's and Simone Weil's philosophical approaches,
what can be inferred about their respective perceptions and embodiments of philosophy?
(a) Bespaloff and Weil both embraced physical self-sacrifice as a means to manifest their philosophical
ideals, viewing the body as a vehicle for ideological expression.
(b) While both philosophers valued the role of the body in expressing philosophy, Bespaloff verged
from Weil's approach of self-sacrifice, instead finding expression through the me um of dance and
movement.
(c) Bespaloff's engagement with dance and Weil's act of starvation are both reflective of a broader
rejection of traditional philosophical discourse in favour of purely physical expressions of ideology.
(d) Both Bespaloff and Weil prioritized the intellectual aspects of philosophy over the physical, viewing
bodily actions as secondary to the development of philosophical thought.

10. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is true regarding Rachel Bespaloff's life and
philosophical perspectives?
(a) Bespaloff‘s philosophy was primarily influenced by her studies in piano and composition, with little
emphasis on the embodiment of philosophy.
(b) Bespaloff‘s experience of displacement and war profoundly shaped her understanding of the
embodiment of time in human existence.
(c) Bespaloff‘s philosophical work was disconnected from her personal experiences and did not reflect
her diverse educational background.
(d) Bespaloff‘s philosophical ideas were solely influenced by her father‘s role as a leading theoretician of
Zionism and her mother‘s academic career in philosophy.

11. From the following options, which title most aptly encapsulates the essence and thematic content of the
passage?
(a) "The Melody of Existentialism: The Life and Philosophies of Rachel Bespaloff"
(b) "The Historical Impact of Early Zionism on European Thought"
(c) "The Evolution of Classical Music in Early 20th Century Europe"
(d) "Dance as a Form of Rebellion: An Analysis of 20th Century Choreography"
12. What can be inferred from Bespaloff's conception of 'the instant' as described in the statement: "One of
Bespaloff‘s key ideas, ‗the instant‘, is less a fragment of duration than a life-changing event, a moment of
embodied metamorphosis"?
(a) 'The instant' refers to a brief, insignificant moment in time without any substantial impact on personal
experience or history.
(b) Bespaloff viewed 'the instant' as a critical juncture in time, where significant personal transformation
and realization occur, transcending mere temporal measurement.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) 'The instant' is primarily concerned with the chronological measurement of time, emphasizing the
scientific aspect of temporal experience.
(d) Bespaloff's idea of 'the instant' aligns with traditional existentialist views, focusing exclusively on the
angst and despair associated with fleeting moments.

III. Angels did not always have wings. It was only in the fourth century that the familiar image of the winged
angel emerged. In the Roman church of Santa Pudenziana, St Matthew is depicted in a mosaic with
wings, looking to all intents and purposes like an angel as we now expect them to look. Then, a century
later in the Roman church of Santa Maria Maggiore, distinctive winged angels appear around an
enthroned Christ figure, crystalising the iconography of angels for coming generations.
Received wisdom is that the winged angel was derived from the winged Victories popular in this period.
There is, indeed, a clear similarity between many early depictions of angels and those of Nike or Victory.
However, although angelic imagery being influenced by other winged beings makes sense, it does not
explain why the angel became winged in the first place. The only reason to model angels on pre-existing
winged beings is, surely, if you already believed that angels had wings.
The angels of the Bible were not winged. (The winged Cherubim and Seraphim are figures derived from
the Near Eastern tradition of winged zoomorphic guardian figures and are not angels since they perform
none of the angelic functions.) In fact, in the Old Testament angels are often not clearly distinguished
from humans at all. The New Testament letter to the Hebrews recommends: ‗Do not forget to show
hospitality to strangers, for by so doing some people have shown hospitality to angels without knowing
it.‘ When angels are clearly identified in the New Testament, they are distinguished from ordinary
humans by markers first found in Old Testament books, such as gleaming white robes, or a countenance
like lightning – but no wings.
Biblical angels did not need wings to travel between heaven and earth: they ascended on ladders, or
else in the flames of the sacrificial fire. At Dura-Europos in Syria is a third-century mural which depicts
Jacob‘s dream with wingless angels ascending a ladder. This motif is also found in early Christian
literature, such as in the third-century Martyrdom of Perpetua and Felicitas, in which Perpetua has a
vision of a ladder leading to heaven upon which the righteous ascend.
In the catacombs of Priscilla in Rome an unknown artist from the middle of the third century painted what
we believe is the first Christian depiction of an angel, the archangel Gabriel, without wings and, even as
late as the mid-fourth century, the Roman sarcophagus of Junius Bassus still depicts the angel from the
story of the sacrifice of Isaac without wings.
Yet in the cultures of the Near East and Mediterranean in this period there was no shortage of winged
supernatural beings. Indeed, being winged was so common for divine figures that one almost wonders
how the angel could have failed to have gained wings before the fourth century. In Mesopotamia, the
wind was seen as a winged demon named Pazuzu. The ancient Greek personifications of the winds,
the Anemoi, were also sometimes depicted as winged humans. Likewise, we have examples of winged
Canaanite demons from excavations at Beth Shean and Megiddo.
In ancient Egypt the solar deities Ra or Horus are represented with a winged disc – the disc being the
sun. This became a symbol of divine kingship in the Near East. Assyrian art depicts the king in the centre
of a circular disc, either winged himself or else with the wings protruding from the disc. Later
Achaemenid art depicts Ahura Mazda, the supreme Zoroastrian god, in a winged disc and the
Zoroastrian Fravashi (similar to what we might recognise as a soul) shared the same winged
iconography. Sassanian iconography portrays the bust of the king surrounded by wings. Wings appear,
therefore, as a symbol of divine power, either of gods or their representatives on earth.
Reference: History Today,
[Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

13. Which of the following statements accurately aligns with the historical and artistic information provided?
(a) Winged angels were a predominant feature in both biblical narratives and third-century Christian art,
signifying celestial mobility and divine presence.
(b) The third-century mural at Dura-Europos exclusively depicts angelic beings using ladders for
ascension, aligning with the standard iconographic practice of that era.
(c) Early artistic representations, such as those in the catacombs of Priscilla and the sarcophagus of
Junius Bassus, often portrayed angels without wings, challenging later artistic conventions.
(d) The portrayal of the archangel Gabriel with wings in early Christian art was emblematic of the
broader trend of depicting angels as winged beings from the third century onwards.

14. What does the term "iconography" refer to in the context of ancient Near Eastern and Egyptian art?
(a) The study of ancient languages and scripts used in inscriptions and texts.
(b) The symbolic representation of divine or royal figures in visual art.
(c) The architectural style specific to ancient religious and royal structures.
(d) The process of restoring and preserving ancient artifacts and artworks.
15. What deeper implications can be inferred about the interplay between Christian and pagan artistic
traditions in shaping the visual representation of angels?
(a) The introduction of wings to angelic figures in Christian art symbolizes a deliberate departure from
traditional pagan imagery, representing a unique Christian interpretation of celestial beings.
(b) The adaptation of winged figures from Roman and Greek art into Christian iconography suggests a
syncretic approach, where Christian artists repurposed existing pagan symbols to fit Christian
theological concepts.
(c) The emergence of winged angels in Christian art was predominantly inspired by contemporaneous
theological advancements within Christianity itself, without significant influence from pagan artistic
traditions.
(d) The portrayal of winged angels was a result of the influence of Eastern religious art forms, signifying
a cultural exchange between early Christian and Eastern artistic traditions.

16. What is the most likely profession of the author?

(a) Archaeologist specializing in Near Eastern and Mediterranean civilizations.
(b) Theologian with a focus on the study of Christian iconography and doctrine.
(c) Art historian with expertise in ancient religious and cultural art forms.
(d) Linguist with a specialization in ancient languages and religious texts.

17. What can be inferred about the broader cultural and religious implications of this iconographic evolution?
(a) The adoption of winged imagery in Christian angelic figures was primarily a result of evolving
Christian theological interpretations, independent of external cultural influences.
(b) The incorporation of wings into Christian angel iconography signifies a deliberate attempt to
distinguish Christian angels from their pagan counterparts by adopting a universally recognized
symbol of divinity.
(c) The delayed integration of wings into Christian angel iconography, despite their prevalence in
neighbouring cultures, suggests a cautious approach by early Christian artists in adopting pagan
symbols.
(d) The eventual portrayal of angels with wings in Christian art reflects a syncretic process, where
Christian iconography assimilated and reinterpreted symbols of divinity and power from surrounding
pagan cultures.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

18. Which of the following interpretations best aligns with the inferred theological and symbolic significance
of angels as they are represented in biblical texts?
(a) Angels in the Bible are symbolic representations of divine intervention in human affairs, primarily
characterized by their ethereal and majestic appearances that set them apart from humans.
(b) The depiction of angels in the Bible, lacking distinctive supernatural features such as wings, implies a
theological emphasis on the subtlety of divine presence and intervention in the human realm.
(c) Biblical angels, portrayed without wings and often indistinguishable from humans, primarily serve as
allegorical figures representing moral and ethical virtues that guide human behaviour.
(d) The absence of wings and other overtly supernatural attributes in biblical depictions of angels
suggests an underlying theme of human scepticism towards the existence of celestial beings.

IV. For Newton, time was fixed. In his laws of motion and gravity, which describe how objects change their
position in space, time is an absolute backdrop. Newtonian time passes, but never changes. And it‘s a
view of time that endures in modern physics – even in the wave functions of quantum mechanics time is
a backdrop, not a fundamental feature. For Einstein, however, time was not absolute. It was relative to
each observer. He described our experience of time passing as ‗a stubbornly persistent illusion‘.
Einsteinian time is what is measured by the ticking of clocks; space is measured by the ticks on rulers
that record distances. By studying the relative motions of ticking clocks and ticks on rulers, Einstein was
able to combine the concepts of how we measure both space and time into a unified structure we now
call ‗spacetime‘. In this structure, space is infinite and all points exist at once. But time, as Einstein
described it, also has this property, which means that all times – past, present and future – are equally
real. The result is sometimes called a ‗block universe‘, which contains everything that has and will
happen in space and time. Today, most physicists support the notion of the block universe.
But the block universe was cracked before it even arrived. In the early 1800s, nearly a century before
Einstein developed the concept of spacetime, Nicolas Léonard Sadi Carnot and other physicists were
already questioning the notion that time was either a backdrop or an illusion. These questions would
continue into the 19th century as physicists such as Ludwig Boltzmann also began to turn their minds to
the problems that came with a new kind of technology: the engine.
Though engines could be mechanically reproduced, physicists didn‘t know exactly how they functioned.
Newtonian mechanics were reversible; engines were not. Newton‘s solar system ran equally well moving
forward or backward in time. However, if you drove a car and it ran out of fuel, you could not run the
engine in reverse, take back the heat that was generated, and unburn the fuel. Physicists at the time
suspected that engines must be adhering to certain laws, even if those laws were unknown. What they
found was that engines do not function unless time passes and has a direction.
By exploiting differences in temperature, engines drive the movement of heat from warm parts to cold
parts. As time moves forward, the temperature difference diminishes and less ‗work‘ can be done. This is
the essence of the second law of thermodynamics (also known as the law of entropy) that was proposed
by Carnot and later explained statistically by Boltzmann. The law describes the way that less useful
‗work‘ can be done by an engine over time. You must occasionally refuel your car, and entropy must
always increase.
This makes sense in the context of engines or other complex objects, but it is not helpful when dealing
with a single particle. It is meaningless to talk about the temperature of a single particle because
temperature is a way of quantifying the average kinetic energy of many particles. In the laws of
thermodynamics, the flow and directionality of time are considered an emergent property rather than a
backdrop or an illusion – a property associated with the behaviour of large numbers of objects. While
thermodynamic theory introduced how time should have a directionality to its passage, this property was
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

not fundamental. In physics, ‗fundamental‘ properties are reserved for those properties that cannot be
described in other terms.
Reference: Aeon,
[Link]

19. In the sentence "As time moves forward, the temperature difference diminishes and less ‗work‘ can be
done," which of the following words can accurately replace 'diminishes' while maintaining the original
meaning?
(a) Ameliorates (b) Attenuates
(c) Exacerbates (d) Proliferates

20. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is true?

(a) The second law of thermodynamics, proposed by Carnot, states that the total entropy of a closed
system can decrease over time.
(b) According to thermodynamic theory, the concept of time as an emergent property means it is
considered fundamental in physics.
(c) Temperature is defined as the average kinetic energy of a single particle, making it a key concept in
the laws of thermodynamics.
(d) Entropy must always increase in a closed system, a principle described by the second law of
thermodynamics.

21. Which of the following best describes the overall tone of the above passage?
(a) Sceptical and Dismissive (b) Objective and Informative
(c) Critical and Pessimistic (d) Speculative and Imaginative

22. What can be inferred about the fundamental nature of time in the context of modern physics?
(a) Time is an immutable and singular dimension, consistent across all observers and contexts,
reinforcing Newton's concept of absolute time.
(b) Time, as a backdrop in quantum mechanics, negates the relevance of Einstein's spacetime in
modern physics, emphasizing a return to Newtonian absolutes.
(c) Time is a relative construct that varies with the observer's frame of reference, aligning with Einstein's
theory and leading to the concept of a block universe.
(d) The concept of spacetime as proposed by Einstein is seen as a temporary theory in physics, likely to
be replaced by a more advanced understanding that reintegrates Newtonian absolutes.

23. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The discovery that engine operations were irreversible directly led to the abandonment of Newtonian
mechanics, paving the way for the development of non-temporal physical theories.
(b) The investigation into engine mechanics illuminated the limitations of Newton's laws in describing
thermodynamic processes, indicating a nuanced divergence from purely reversible time concepts.
(c) Early 19th-century physicists universally applied Newtonian reversible time principles to all
mechanical and thermodynamic systems without recognizing any need for conceptual modification.
(d) The study of engines solidified the Newtonian view of time as absolute and reversible, as physicists
interpreted engine irreversibility as an anomaly rather than a systemic challenge to existing theories.

24. Which of the following best represents the central idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The primary focus of modern physics is on the reversibility of mechanical systems, as evidenced by
the operation of engines and the laws of thermodynamics.
(b) The evolution of the concept of time in physics, from Newton's absolute time to Einstein's relative
time and its implications in thermodynamics and quantum mechanics, is a pivotal theme in the
development of modern physics.
(c) The inadequacy of Newtonian mechanics to describe the behaviour of single particles leads to a
fundamental shift in understanding the nature of quantum mechanics.
(d) The primary concern of 19th-century physicists was the development of technologies like engines,
rather than the theoretical implications of their operation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 5
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. I am an accidental birder. While I never used to pay much attention to the birds outside my window, even
being a bit afraid of them when I was a child, I have always loved making lists. Ranking operas and
opera houses, categorising favourite books and beautiful libraries – not to mention decades of creating
‗Top Ten‘ lists of hikes, drives, national parks, hotels, and bottles of wine. My birding hobby grew out of
this predilection. Specifically, out of my penchant for writing down the birds I found in the paintings by the
Old Masters.
Hieronymus Bosch, for starters.
Bringing my opera glasses to the Museo del Prado in Madrid, I delighted in sitting across the room and
counting the birds in Bosch‘s painting, today called Garden of Earthly Delights (1490-1510). The triptych,
which visualises the fate of humanity in three large panels, is exploding with birds. So far, my list of
Bosch birds includes spiralling flocks of starlings amid posing peacocks and pheasants. Closer to the
water are storks, egrets and two kinds of herons. A jackdaw and a jay can be identified near a giant
‗strawberry tree‘, below which are two spoonbills. And lurking in the trees are three kinds of owls, serving
as signs of heresy.
In his book A Dark Premonition: Journeys to Hieronymus Bosch (2016), the Dutch poet and novelist
Cees Nooteboom describes seeing Bosch‘s work when he was a young man of 21 – and then seeing it
again when he was 82. He asks of one picture: How has the painting changed? How has the viewer
changed? Am I even the same man now?
These are the questions I ask myself while standing in front of a certain picture by Raphael in the Uffizi.
The first time I saw the Madonna del Cardellino (c1505-06) was more than 30 years ago. I was 19. My
college boyfriend and I had stopped in Europe on the way back from two magical months in India. It was
my first time in Italy. And Florence was so damn pretty.
Life is, after all, constantly shuffling the deck, with each moment precious and unique. All those
heightened moments we experienced in our favourite paintings are precisely what the great artists were
celebrating. The perfect unfolding of now.
And what was true in the paintings was also true out in the world.
Birding alone and then later in groups, we have savoured those moments when a bird is spotted, and we
all grow instantly quiet. Frantically training our binoculars on the object, it seems we are all frozen in a
great hush. With laser focus, we attune ourselves to the bird, on a hair‘s breadth of losing it, aware of the
tiniest flitter, flutter and peep. It is enchantment. And through this, I have felt a little of how birds must
have exerted power over the Renaissance imagination too. I continue to marvel at these free creatures
of the air, symbolising hope and rebirth, messengers from distant lands, inhabitants of a canvas of
beauty and life in this great garden of earthly delights.

1. What is the primary purpose of the third paragraph in relation to the rest of the passage?
(a) It introduces the idea of birding as a group activity.
(b) It details the different types of birds seen in Bosch's painting.
(c) It highlights the author's first encounter with birding.
(d) It discusses the themes seen in Bosch's work.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. How does the author describe her birding hobby?

(a) It is a systematic process of identifying and categorizing birds.
(b) It is an accident born out of her love for making lists.
(c) It is a passion that she developed from childhood.
(d) It is an attempt to overcome her fear of birds.

3. In the context of the passage, what does the term 'predilection' mean?
(a) A strong dislike or aversion.
(b) A particular way of accomplishing something.
(c) A natural inclination or preference towards something.
(d) A distinctive behavioural characteristic.

4. According to the author, what served as signs of heresy in Bosch's painting?

(a) The spiralling flocks of starlings.
(b) The posing peacocks and pheasants.
(c) The different kinds of owls lurking in the trees.
(d) The various kinds of herons near the water.

5. Based on the context of the passage, which of the following could be an apt title for it?
(a) "The Accident of Birding: A Reflection on Life's Transitions"
(b) "In Pursuit of the Feathered: From Canvas to Real Life"
(c) "Art and Birding: An Unlikely Connection"
(d) "The Story of the Accidental Birder: From Fear to Fascination"

6. What was the author's age when she first saw the Madonna del Cardellino?
(a) She was 21 years old. (b) She was 19 years old.
(c) She was 30 years old. (d) Her age is not mentioned in the passage.

7. What feelings does the author associate with the moment of spotting a bird?
(a) She associates it with fear and apprehension.
(b) She associates it with quiet focus, hushed excitement, and enchantment.
(c) She associates it with the need for quick action and alertness.
(d) She associates it with a sense of competition and victory.

II. Throughout bio, each time Ms. Park turned to the blackboard, I read the missing persons report from my
phone. The report went on only for a few pages, and over the course of the school day, I was able to
read all of it. The mp (missing person) was fifty-three, male, gray haired, blue eyed, with a tattoo reading
Nolite te bastardes carborundorum (―Don‘t let the bastards get you down,‖ apparently) on his left
shoulder blade, three small surgical scars in his abdomen from a gallbladder removal, six feet in height,
approximately 220 pounds, last seen wearing his standard sleeping attire: a horizontally striped navy-
and-white nightshirt and light-blue boxer shorts. He was discovered missing at 5:35 A.M. when the police
raided his house in connection with a corruption investigation.
The report was mostly ―witness statements‖ from witnesses who had not witnessed anything. Nobody
was there that night except Noah and Davis. The camera at the front entrance had captured two
groundskeepers driving away at 5:40 P.M. Malik the Zoologist left that day at 5:52. Lyle left at 6:02, and
Rosa at 6:04. So, what Lyle told us about Pickett not having nighttime staff seemed true. There were
also pictures—almost a hundred of them—of every room in the house.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Nothing appeared disrupted. In Pickett‘s office, I saw stacks of papers that seemed to have been left for
an evening, not for a lifetime. A cell phone could be seen on his bedside table. The carpets were so
clean I could see a single set of footprints leading to Pickett‘s desk, and a single set leading away from
them. The closets were full of suits, dozens of them perfectly aligned from lightest gray to darkest black.
A photograph of the kitchen sink showed three dirty dishes, each with little smudges of pizza grease and
tomato sauce. To judge from the pictures, Pickett didn‘t seem to be missing so much as he seemed to
have been raptured.
The report did not, however, contain any mention of the night-vision photograph, meaning we had
something the cops didn‘t: a timeline.
While eating dinner with Mom in front of the TV that night, I kept thinking about the case. What if they did
give us a reward? It was valuable information the police didn‘t have. Maybe Davis would hate me, if he
ever found out, but why should I care what some kid from Sad Camp thought of me?
After a while, I begged homework and escaped to my room. I thought maybe I‘d missed something from
the police report, so I went through it again and was still reading when Daisy called me. She started
talking before I‘d finished saying ―Hi.‖
―I had a highly hypothetical conversation with the tip line, and they said that the reward is coming from
the company, not the police, so it‘s up to the company to decide what is relevant, and that the reward
would only be given out after they found Pickett. Our info is definitely relevant, but it‘s not like they‘ll find
Pickett just with the night-vision picture, so we might have to split the reward with other people. Or if they
never find him, we might not get it. Still, better than nothing.‖

8. What can be inferred about the missing person's lifestyle based on the details provided in the report?
(a) The missing person was extremely meticulous and organized.
(b) The missing person was a messy individual who lacked cleanliness.
(c) The missing person had a secret life that was hinted at in the details of his home.
(d) The missing person was an introverted individual who kept to himself.

9. If one were to name this narrative, which title would capture the essence of the passage?
(a) "Unseen Clues: The Pickett Mystery."
(b) "The Undiscovered Evidence: Night Vision Leads the Way."
(c) "Lost in the Night: The Disappearance of a Man."
(d) "The Curious Case of the Clean Carpets."

10. What does the tone of the narrator towards Davis suggest?
(a) The narrator is concerned about Davis's opinions of their actions.
(b) The narrator respects Davis and values their friendship.
(c) The narrator is indifferent to Davis's perspective of them.
(d) The narrator fears Davis's potential retaliation.

11. What can be inferred about the significance of the night-vision photograph?
(a) It provides a lead to the missing person's potential whereabouts.
(b) It serves as proof that the missing person was kidnapped.
(c) It gives a timeline that police were not aware of.
(d) It reveals that there were more people involved in the missing person's disappearance.

III. Scheduled for launch at 2:35 p.m. Indian Standard Time on July 14, the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) is preparing for the Chandrayaan-3 mission to the moon. The mission will utilize a
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Launch Vehicle Mark 3 from Sriharikota. Chandrayaan-3 is essentially a replication of its predecessor,
Chandrayaan-2, which consisted of an orbiter and a lander named 'Vikram' carrying a rover called
'Pragyan'. While the orbiter successfully entered the moon's orbit, the surface mission encountered a
setback in September when the lander crashed during its descent due to guidance software issues and
propulsion system anomalies. In Chandrayaan-3, the rocket will place the payload in an elliptical orbit
around the Earth, followed by a handover to a propulsion module that will guide the lander to a circular
orbit around the moon. Subsequently, the lander will detach and initiate a series of maneuvers,
culminating in a gradual landing on the lunar surface, projected to occur on August 23-24. To enhance
the chances of success during this stage, ISRO has made improvements to the lander's legs, thrust
capability, power availability, and landing sequence.
This will mark India's second endeavour to achieve a soft landing of a lander and rover on the moon,
demonstrating comprehensive proficiency in the relevant technologies. Soft-landing on the moon is a
complex undertaking, and although the possibility of failure persists, it is relatively diminished.
Nevertheless, the focus should lie on the implications of achieving resounding success. India's
participation in the Artemis Accords adds further significance to the mission. If successful, India would
become only the second country to soft-land a rover on the moon within this alliance. The importance of
this achievement cannot be overstated, as various public and private missions are currently underway
globally, aiming to establish permanent lunar bases, which has become a significant geopolitical
objective. While the United States leads the Artemis Accords, China and Russia are collaborating on the
development of an 'International Lunar Research Station'. Chandrayaan-3's success would also position
it as the closest surface mission to the lunar south pole to date. This region of the moon is geologically
distinctive and includes areas in perpetual shadow. To study these unique features and more, the
mission carries six scientific payloads. Additionally, a seventh instrument on the propulsion module will
assess signs of life on Earth, aiding scientists in the search for similar signs on planets beyond our solar
system. Overall, Chandrayaan-3 presents India with an opportunity to take the lead in responding to the
moon's growing scientific and political significance worldwide.

12. What does the passage primarily aim to illuminate?

(a) The intricacies of the propulsion system used in the Chandrayaan-3 mission
(b) A critical analysis of the failures of the Chandrayaan-2 mission
(c) The intricate procedural steps and global significance of India's Chandrayaan-3 lunar mission
(d) A comprehensive history of India's space exploration efforts

13. In the context of the passage, the term "soft-landing" most likely means:
(a) The process of landing on the lunar surface without any technical glitches
(b) Landing a spacecraft on the moon with minimal impact, allowing it to remain operational
(c) A smooth take-off from the Earth's atmosphere towards the moon
(d) The gentle docking of the rover onto the lander before the mission

14. Judging by the details provided in the passage, what type of source would most likely contain this
information?
(a) A high school textbook about India's history
(b) A scientific report on moon's geological features
(c) A news article or report detailing the upcoming Chandrayaan-3 mission
(d) A biography of a significant figure in the Indian Space Research Organisation
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

15. According to the passage, what is one of the key improvements made to the Chandrayaan-3 mission in
light of the challenges faced during the Chandrayaan-2 mission?
(a) The introduction of a new rover model with improved navigation capabilities
(b) The inclusion of a new launch vehicle for a more stable ascent
(c) Modifications to the lander's legs, power availability, thrust capacity, and landing sequence
(d) The repositioning of the landing site on the moon to a less challenging terrain

16. In the geopolitical context of lunar exploration, what would be the significant achievement for India with a
successful Chandrayaan-3 mission, as indicated by the passage?
(a) It will pioneer the technological advancements needed for future lunar missions
(b) India would be the only country in the Artemis Accords to have a successful lunar mission
(c) India would become the second country within the Artemis Accords to achieve a soft landing of a
rover on the moon
(d) It will outperform China and Russia in their collaborative effort to establish an 'International Lunar
Research Station‘

IV. What is "law"? By what processes do judges arrive at opinions, those documents that justify their belief
that the "law" dictates a conclusion one way or the other? These are among the oldest questions in
jurisprudence, debate about which has traditionally been dominated by representatives of two schools of
thought: proponents of natural law, who see law as intertwined with a moral order independent of
society's rules and mores, and legal positivists, who see law solely as embodying the commands of a
society's ruling authority.
Since the early 1970s, these familiar questions have received some new and surprising answers in the
legal academy. This novelty is in part a consequence of the increasing influence there of academic
disciplines and intellectual traditions previously unconnected with the study of law. Perhaps the most
influential have been the answers given by the Law and Economics school. According to these legal
economists, law consists and ought to consist of those rules that maximize a society's material wealth
and that abet the efficient operation of markets designed to generate wealth. More controversial have
been the various answers provided by members of the Critical Legal Studies movement, according to
whom law is one among several cultural mechanisms by which holders of power seek to legitimate their
domination. Drawing on related arguments developed in anthropology, sociology, and history, the critical
legal scholars contend that law is an expression of power, but not, as held by the positivists, the power of
the legitimate sovereign government. Rather, it is an expression of the power of elites who may have no
legitimate authority but who are intent on preserving the privileges of their race, class, or gender.
In the mid-1970s, James Boyd White began to articulate yet another interdisciplinary response to the
traditional questions, and in so doing spawned what is now known as the Law and Literature movement.
White has insisted that law, particularly as it is interpreted in judicial opinions, should be understood as
an essentially literary activity. Judicial opinions should be read and evaluated not primarily as political
acts or as attempts to maximize society's wealth through efficient rules, but rather as artistic
performances. And like all such performances, White argues, each judicial opinion attempts in its own
way to promote a particular political or ethical value.
In the recent Justice as Translation, White argues that opinion-writing should be regarded as an act of
"translation," and judges as "translators." As such, judges find themselves mediating between the
authoritative legal text and the pressing legal problem that demands resolution. A judge must essentially
"re-constitute" that text by fashioning a new one, which is faithful to the old text but also responsive to
and informed by the conditions, constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal problem
has arisen.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

17. According to the passage, how does the Law and Economics school view the function of law?
(a) Law serves to maintain the power and authority of a society's elites.
(b) Law primarily functions as an expression of a society's moral order.
(c) Law is an artistic performance promoting political or ethical values.
(d) Law consists of rules designed to maximize societal wealth and support market efficiency.
18. Which group or movement, as described in the passage, contends that law is a means by which power
holders seek to legitimize their dominance?
(a) Legal positivists (b) Natural law proponents
(c) The Law and Economics school (d) The Critical Legal Studies movement

19. As used in the passage, the term "legitimate" most closely means:
(a) Logical (b) Accepted
(c) Traditional (d) Valid

20. According to James Boyd White, a judicial opinion could be considered analogous to which of the
following?
(a) A political act (b) An economic policy
(c) A translation (d) A power assertion

V. In recent years, there has been a growing belief that the way society determines what is considered true
is influenced by discursive practices that often go unnoticed. This has led legal reformers to explore the
intricate relationship between narrative and law. In many legal systems, judgments are based on
competing stories about events. Judges and juries, who have not witnessed these events firsthand, must
evaluate and validate certain narratives as true while rejecting others as false. This approach is rooted in
objectivism, a philosophical perspective that has underpinned Western legal and intellectual systems for
centuries. Objectivism posits that there is a single, neutral account of each event that is not biased by
any particular point of view and holds a privileged position over all other versions. Consequently, the
quest for truth in the law involves uncovering this objective description, the one that accurately
represents what really transpired, as opposed to the subjective perceptions of the individuals involved.
However, the fundamental flaw of objectivism is the absence of a truly neutral and objective observer.
Psychological research has demonstrated that all observers bring their own expectations, values, and
beliefs to a situation, which shape what they perceive and comprehend. Two individuals listening to the
same story will interpret it differently based on their learned experiences and selective perception. Thus,
it is impossible to escape subjective judgments influenced by prior experiences, values, and beliefs, both
in life and in the realm of law.
The assumption of objectivist principles in traditional legal discourse has caused societal harm by
historically privileging the stories told by those fluent in legal language, while dismissing the narratives of
individuals who lack such fluency. Legal scholars like Patricia Williams, Derrick Bell, and Mari Matsuda
have sought to empower the latter group by constructing alternative legal narratives. Objectivist legal
discourse tends to exclude the language of emotion and personal experience, focusing solely on
cognitive aspects. These reformers propose replacing this abstract discourse with powerful personal
stories. They argue that personal narratives, with their absorbing and non-threatening structure and tone,
may for the first time convince legal insiders to listen to those who are not well-versed in legal language.
The persuasive force of personal narrative can create a sense of empathy between legal insiders and
individuals traditionally marginalized in legal discourse, thus challenging the complacency of the legal
establishment and disrupting its status quo. Therefore, the captivating power of narrative can play a
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

crucial and positive role in the process of legal reconstruction by bridging differences in background and
training, and forming a new collective based on emotional empathy.

21. According to the passage, what does "discursive practices" refer to?
(a) Ritualistic legal procedures
(b) Active lobbying efforts by legal reformers
(c) Communication methods in legal discourses
(d) Unacknowledged societal influences on truth determination

22. Based on the passage, which of the following accurately characterizes the potential impact of personal
narratives in the legal system?
(a) Personal narratives can lead to the misuse of legal proceedings due to their emotional appeal
(b) Personal narratives disrupt legal proceedings by undermining cognitive aspects
(c) Personal narratives can instill empathy in legal insiders, challenging established complacency and
bridging differences in understanding
(d) Personal narratives can manipulate legal insiders into sympathizing with those not well-versed in
legal language

23. Which of the following titles best encapsulates the central theme of the passage?
(a) The Power of Personal Narratives: A Challenge to Traditional Legal Discourse
(b) Objectivism: The Dominant Paradigm in Western Legal Systems
(c) Psychological Research's Influence on Legal Interpretations
(d) Legal Reformers and Their Fight Against Legal Jargon

24. In relation to the rest of the passage, what is the primary purpose of the first paragraph?
(a) To debunk the principle of objectivism in legal discourse
(b) To provide a background to the issues raised in the subsequent paragraphs
(c) To highlight the impact of psychological research on legal systems
(d) To critique the exclusionary nature of legal language
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 6
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. In June 2022, when it engineered a split in its longstanding partner, the Shiv Sena, the BJP wouldn‘t
have imagined, even in its wildest dreams, that the man it entrusted with the responsibility of
Maharashtra‘s chief minister ship would plan to build his vote bank and extend his use-by-date. For the
BJP, Eknath Sambhaji Shinde, when he was handed over the reins of the prized state of Maharashtra,
was someone who could be fed its political agenda. But looks are deceptive, especially in politics.
Around two-and-a-half years later, Shinde has not only succeeded in rallying the politically strong
Marathas behind him but also challenged the BJP‘s traditional OBC base. Last week, he announced the
inclusion of Marathas in the OBC category.
In June 2022, when the BJP split Shinde and others from the Shiv Sena, the plan was pretty simple:
Dethrone Uddhav Thackeray who, according to the party, was a traitor who deprived the BJP of
Maharashtra by joining hands with Sharad Pawar-led NCP and Congress, after the 2019 assembly
elections. The BJP eyed Shinde for two reasons: One, he was Uddhav‘s right-hand man and knew the
Sena‘s working inside out. Always an organisation man, Shinde till then had been a low-profile leader
and was not seen as being ambitious.
The second reason was Shinde‘s strong Maratha credentials. Though his ―area of operations‖ has
always been Mumbai‘s suburb of Thane, Shinde hails from Satara in the foot-hills of the popular tourist
destination, Mahabaleshwar, in western Maharashtra that has produced several Maratha leaders. Like
every other strong Maratha leader, Shinde too likes to portray himself as a son of a poor farmer — and
poor he was — never mind the current five-star status of his farmland that produces strawberries and
houses a helipad. For the BJP, Shinde had the right pedigree and profile the saffron party lacked.
The Maharashtra BJP stands on two pillars — OBCs and upper castes (read Brahmins). The politically-
dominant Marathas were historically aligned with Congress and later NCP. The warrior community that
boasts of serving Chhatrapati Shivaji has historically stayed away from the Jana Sangh, and later the
BJP. To offset the Congress‘s Maratha-Muslim-minority coalition, the BJP concentrated on OBCs, who
are around 33 per cent of the state‘s population, roughly the same as Marathas. While this resulted in
the BJP making major inroads among OBCs, it also exposed its lack of a Maratha face.
In comes Eknath Shinde, a Maratha from the Shiv Sena who was no stranger to the saffron camp and
was not averse to wearing saffron robes. A near-perfect candidate to lead the Shiv Sena-BJP combine.
A fast learner and astute politician, Shinde was not to be the chief minister BJP wanted. Initially
perceived as a mere pawn in the BJP‘s hands, Shinde soon realised the importance of having his own
vote base.
Source: [Link]
marathas-did-bjp-underestimate-eknath-shinde-9133602/

1. What unexpected development occurred in Maharashtra politics after Eknath Sambhaji Shinde assumed
the chief ministership?
(a) The Shiv Sena gained political dominance.
(b) The BJP's traditional OBC base was challenged.
(c) The Marathas aligned with the Congress.
(d) Eknath Shinde joined hands with Sharad Pawar-led NCP and Congress.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. Why did the BJP eye Eknath Shinde for the chief ministership of Maharashtra?
(a) He had a stronghold in the city of Mumbai.
(b) He was Uddhav Thackeray's right-hand man.
(c) He was a high-profile leader.
(d) He belonged to the upper castes.

3. What historical alignment does the passage mention regarding Marathas and political parties?
(a) Marathas were historically aligned with the BJP.
(b) Marathas were historically aligned with the Congress and later the NCP.
(c) Marathas were historically aligned with the Shiv Sena.
(d) Marathas were historically aligned with the Janata Dal.

4. What is the significance of Eknath Shinde's announcement regarding Marathas?

(a) Marathas are excluded from the OBC category.
(b) Marathas are included in the OBC category.
(c) Marathas are forming a new political party.
(d) Marathas are joining hands with the Congress.

5. What does the passage suggest about Eknath Shinde's political transformation?
(a) He remains a low-profile leader without ambitions.
(b) He is a pawn in the hands of the BJP.
(c) He successfully built his own vote base.
(d) He aligns with Sharad Pawar-led NCP and Congress.

II. It was still too hot to play outdoors. They had had their tea, they had been washed and had their hair
brushed, and after the long day of confinement in the house that was not cool but at least a protection
from the sun, the children strained to get out. Their faces were red and bloated with the effort, but their
mother would not open the door, everything was still curtained and shuttered in a way that stifled the
children, made them feel that their lungs were stuffed with cotton wool and their noses with dust and if
they didn‘t burst out into the light and see the sun and feel the air, they would choke.
―Please, ma, please,‖ they begged. ―We‘ll play in the veranda and porch—we won‘t go a step out of the
porch.‖
―You will, I know you will, and then——‖
―No—we won‘t, we won‘t,‖ they wailed so horrendously that she actually let down the bolt of the front
door so that they burst out like seeds from a crackling, overripe pod into the veranda, with such wild,
maniacal yells that she retreated to her bath and the shower of talcum powder and the fresh sari that
were to help her face the summer evening.
They faced the afternoon. It was too hot. Too bright. The white walls of the veranda glared stridently in
the sun. The bougainvillea hung about it, purple and magenta, in livid balloons. The garden outside was
like a tray made of beaten brass, flattened out on the red gravel and the stony soil in all shades of
metal—aluminum, tin, copper, and brass. No life stirred at this arid time of day—the birds still drooped,
like dead fruit, in the papery tents of the trees; some squirrels lay limp on the wet earth under the garden
tap. The outdoor dog lay stretched as if dead on the veranda mat, his paws and ears and tail all reaching
out like dying travelers in search of water. He rolled his eyes at the children—two white marbles rolling in
the purple sockets, begging for sympathy—and attempted to lift his tail in a wag but could not. It only
twitched and lay still.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Then, perhaps roused by the shrieks of the children, a band of parrots suddenly fell out of the eucalyptus
tree, tumbled frantically in the still, sizzling air, then sorted themselves out into battle formation and
streaked away across the white sky.
The children, too, felt released. They too began tumbling, shoving, pushing against each other, frantic to
start. Start what? Start their business. The business of the children‘s day which is—play.
Source: [Link]

6. Why did the children feel the urgency to go outdoors?

(a) They wanted to escape confinement in the house.
(b) They needed to fetch something from the veranda.
(c) They were excited about a game inside the house.
(d) They wanted to avoid the bright sunlight.

7. How does the mother initially respond to the children's request to go outdoors?
(a) She opens the door immediately.
(b) She scolds them for making noise.
(c) She opens the door but with reservations.
(d) She ignores their request.

8. What does the description of the afternoon suggest?

(a) It was a pleasant and cool afternoon. (b) It was hot, bright, and uncomfortable.
(c) It was cloudy and overcast. (d) It was a windy and stormy afternoon.

9. What does the passage convey about the outdoor dog?

(a) The dog is actively playing with the children.
(b) The dog is lying comfortably on the veranda mat.
(c) The dog is in a state of distress or illness.
(d) The dog is chasing squirrels in the garden.

10. What is the "business of the children‘s day" mentioned in the passage?
(a) Homework and studies. (b) Outdoor play.
(c) Chores and responsibilities. (d) Indoor games.

III. Hyderabad and Brisbane are split by an aerial distance of 9,443 kilometres and yet on Sunday, the two
cities were seemingly fused together through some cricketing magic. The old sporting trope of the
underdog toppling the fancied rival was again in play as England at Hyderabad and the West Indies at
Brisbane, respectively humbled their potent hosts India and Australia. Test cricket, often lost in the
stardust and breathless hype that permeates its younger and faster siblings, ODIs and T20Is, found its
mojo and again reiterated its durability and the potential to alter scripts and presumptions. At
Hyderabad‘s Rajiv Gandhi International Stadium, England conceded a 190-run first innings lead to India
and on a surface tipped to aid spin, it was deemed that Ben Stokes and his Bazball troops were down for
the count. However, in the second innings tussle, Ollie Pope‘s splendid 196 and left-arm spinner Tom
Hartley‘s seven for 62 left India stranded by 28 runs while chasing a target of 231. Pope‘s sweeps, both
conventional and reverse, employed against the Indian spinners were effective, and debutant Hartley,
whose first ball in Test cricket was hammered for a six by Yashasvi Jaiswal, made a stirring comeback in
the second dig to hoodwink Rohit Sharma‘s men. England now leads the five match series at 1-0.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The absence of Virat Kohli, due to personal reasons, did leave a vacuum in the middle order even as the
other batters, including K.L. Rahul, tried hard to bridge that gap. England spinners choking Indian batters
in their backyard is not new as Phil Edmonds and Pat Pocock showed in 1984, and Graeme Swann and
Monty Panesar in 2012. As the series shifts to Visakhapatnam, India will have to find a method to
reiterate its dominance. Meanwhile at Brisbane‘s Gabba, it was the turn of another debutant to prosper.
Despite an injured toe, Shamar Joseph‘s fiery pace and his second innings tally of seven for 68 blew
away the Australians, who pursued a target of 216. The eight-run triumph helped the West Indies draw
level the two-Test series at 1-1. The stalemate hinted at the need for a minimum of three Tests to judge
teams and find the real victor. The men from the Caribbean have floundered in the past, but the latest
result hints at a turnaround. The West Indies had its sunshine phases in limited overs cricket, winning the
ICC Champions Trophy in 2004 and the ICC T20 World Cups in 2012 and 2016. Sunday‘s Test victory
offers a fresh path laden with hope for the West Indies.
Source: [Link]
brisbane-and-some-cricketing-magic/[Link]

11. What happened in the cricket matches involving England and the West Indies?
(a) England and the West Indies won their respective matches.
(b) Both England and the West Indies lost their matches.
(c) England won while the West Indies lost.
(d) The West Indies won, and England lost.

12. What was the significant achievement of Ollie Pope in the cricket match?
(a) He took seven wickets in the second innings.
(b) He scored a century in the second innings.
(c) He led England to a 1-0 lead in the series.
(d) He made a comeback in the second innings.

13. Why does the passage mention the absence of Virat Kohli?
(a) To highlight England's advantage.
(b) To emphasize the impact of personal reasons on the team.
(c) To suggest that England deliberately targeted Kohli.
(d) To showcase India's strong middle order.

14. What is suggested by the passage regarding Test cricket?

(a) Test cricket is overshadowed by ODIs and T20Is.
(b) Test cricket lacks excitement and hype.
(c) Test cricket is losing its popularity.
(d) Test cricket has the potential to alter scripts and presumptions.

15. What does the passage suggest about the West Indies' recent Test victory?
(a) It was expected given their past successes.
(b) It hints at a turnaround for the West Indies in Test cricket.
(c) It does not significantly impact the West Indies' cricket history.
(d) The West Indies have always been strong in Test cricket.
IV. I was born in the year 1632, in the city of York, of a good family, though not of that country, my father
being a foreigner of Bremen, who settled first at Hull. He got a good estate by merchandise, and leaving
off his trade, lived afterwards at York, from whence he had married my mother, whose relations were
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

named Robinson, a very good family in that country, and from whom I was called Robinson Kreutznaer;
but, by the usual corruption of words in England, we are now called—nay we call ourselves and write our
name—Crusoe; and so my companions always called me.
I had two elder brothers, one of whom was lieutenant-colonel to an English regiment of foot in Flanders,
formerly commanded by the famous Colonel Lockhart, and was killed at the battle near Dunkirk against
the Spaniards. What became of my second brother I never knew, any more than my father or mother
knew what became of me.
Being the third son of the family and not bred to any trade, my head began to be filled very early with
rambling thoughts. My father, who was very ancient, had given me a competent share of learning, as far
as house-education and a country free school generally go, and designed me for the law; but I would be
satisfied with nothing but going to sea; and my inclination to this led me so strongly against the will, nay,
the commands of my father, and against all the entreaties and persuasions of my mother and other
friends, that there seemed to be something fatal in that propensity of nature, tending directly to the life of
misery which was to befall me.
My father, a wise and grave man, gave me serious and excellent counsel against what he foresaw was
my design. He called me one morning into his chamber, where he was confined by the gout, and
expostulated very warmly with me upon this subject. He asked me what reasons, more than a mere
wandering inclination, I had for leaving father‘s house and my native country, where I might be well
introduced, and had a prospect of raising my fortune by application and industry, with a life of ease and
pleasure. He told me it was men of desperate fortunes on one hand, or of aspiring, superior fortunes on
the other, who went abroad upon adventures, to rise by enterprise, and make themselves famous in
undertakings of a nature out of the common road; that these things were all either too far above me or
too far below me; that mine was the middle state, or what might be called the upper station of low life,
which he had found, by long experience, was the best state in the world, the most suited to human
happiness, not exposed to the miseries and hardships, the labour and sufferings of the mechanic part of
mankind, and not embarrassed with the pride, luxury, ambition, and envy of the upper part of mankind.
Source: [Link]

16. What was the protagonist's original family name, and how did it become Crusoe?
(a) His original family name was Robinson Kreutznaer, and it evolved to Crusoe.
(b) His original family name was Crusoe, and it changed due to a corruption in England.
(c) His original family name was Robinson Kreutznaer, and it remained unchanged.
(d) His original family name is not mentioned in the passage.
17. What was the father's advice to the protagonist regarding his inclination to go to sea?
(a) The father supported the protagonist's decision.
(b) The father was indifferent to the protagonist's choice.
(c) The father strongly opposed the protagonist's desire to go to sea.
(d) The father did not provide any advice.

18. What was the father's view of the protagonist's life choices?
(a) The father believed the protagonist's choices were admirable.
(b) The father thought the protagonist's choices were too ambitious.
(c) The father believed the protagonist's choices were suited to human happiness.
(d) The father did not express any opinion on the protagonist's choices.

19. Why did the father warn against going abroad for adventures?
(a) He believed the protagonist was not adventurous enough.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) He thought the protagonist would face miseries and hardships abroad.
(c) He considered foreign countries to be unsuitable for the protagonist.
(d) He believed that adventures were only for the desperate or those with superior fortunes.

20. Why did the protagonist's head get filled with "rambling thoughts" early on?
(a) His father's influence.
(b) His inclination to go to sea.
(c) Lack of education.
(d) A desire for wealth.

V. Fighter is Bollywood‘s Republic-Day release on a Republic Day that did not feel like one. On the drive to
Central Delhi where I saw the Siddharth Anand-directed film on January 26, the tricolour was less visible
than the rows and rows of saffron flags. The latter were everywhere, announcing their presence
aggressively. Walking around Connaught Place, I looked for the Indian flag and barely found it. For those
of us brought up on a healthy dose of scepticism towards overt displays of national symbols, this is
perhaps the first time in our adult lives that spotting the Indian flag felt like an assurance.
Eventually, I found a flag — in the film. An extended sequence with a looming tricolour, meant to invite
applause and awe. In itself, the moment appeared surprisingly old-fashioned and out-of-touch with the
immediate world outside the theatre. Soon, though, conventional jingoism followed. Fictionalising the
events around the 2019 Balakot strike by the Indian Air Force, Fighter is set among a bunch of IAF pilots
that include the stylish Shamsher Pathania ―Patty‖ (Hrithik Roshan) and Minal Rathore ―Minnie‖ (Deepika
Padukone) among others. In contrast, the Pakistani characters look like stereotypes that came to life.
Their dialogues, motivation and styling are as unimaginative as they are stale.
Not surprisingly perhaps, the tricolour scene is a set-up for a brutal massacre of CRPF jawans that
follows, inspired by the 2019 Pulwama attack. That is its use in the film. As the film revealed the scale of
the number of deaths, the people sitting behind me in the theatre were very vocal in their expressions of
shock. The narrative was building a case for the aggression that is required to put Pakistan ―in its place‖
— show them who the baap (father) is, goes one dialogue — and it seemed to be working. The logic is
that the memory of the massacre would ensure that no remorse is felt. That we will ―enjoy‖ the brutal
bombing of the enemy that is to follow even more. Truly, we get the films we deserve.
The hyper-masculine action film, with its obsession with fathers and enemies and often traitors, even
when professing better politics like Jawan or Anand‘s previous Pathaan, is an inherently limited genre. It
is also a limiting genre colonising our ideas of what an entertaining film looks and feels like. Fighter,
which is also a war film, appears more calculative. There is an old-style ―good‖ Indian Muslim character
whose sacrifice seems to be necessary to establish his loyalty. Would he otherwise always be under
suspicion? (the running couplet about the flag being the most beautiful kafan/shroud is strategically
placed). There is a sub-plot of gender disparity to remind us that casting Deepika Padukone as a fighter
plane pilot is a statement of progressive politics.
Source: [Link]
9130326/

21. What is the central theme of the movie "Fighter" as described in the passage?
(a) The film celebrates the heroism of Indian Air Force pilots.
(b) The film criticizes the aggressive nationalism portrayed through overt displays of the Indian flag.
(c) The film highlights the sacrifices made by Indian CRPF jawans.
(d) The film focuses on the gender disparity in the Indian Armed Forces.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

22. Why does the author find the moment of the tricolour scene in the film surprising?
(a) The tricolour scene lacked creativity and felt out-of-touch with the contemporary world.
(b) The tricolour scene was aggressive in announcing the presence of the Indian flag.
(c) The tricolour scene was excessively prolonged.
(d) The tricolour scene was well-received by the audience in the theatre.

23. What is the author's opinion regarding the portrayal of Pakistani characters in the film?
(a) The Pakistani characters are depicted realistically.
(b) The Pakistani characters are portrayed with imagination and creativity.
(c) The Pakistani characters are depicted as stereotypes.
(d) The Pakistani characters are portrayed positively.

24. What is the effect of the brutal massacre scene in the film, as described in the passage?
(a) The audience expresses shock and horror at the scale of deaths.
(b) The scene builds a case for aggression against Pakistan.
(c) The audience becomes indifferent to the brutality depicted.
(d) The scene is strategically placed to evoke remorse.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 7
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has fulfilled his commitment to reinstate Shri Ram to his rightful place at
the sanctum sanctorum of the temple in Ayodhya. Ram Lalla‘s pran pratistha on January 22 was a
historic moment. As Lord Ram ascended his throne, Prime Minister Modi broke his 11-day vrat anushtan
(fast) by receiving charanamrit from Swami Govind Giri Devji, the treasurer of the Shri Ram
Janmabhoomi Tirtha Kshetra. Swam Giri Govind Devji has acknowledged that he advised PM Modi to
keep a fast for three days. But PM Modi observed the longer fast.
In the run-up to the consecration, the streets of Ayodhya wore a festive look. The residents of the city
were celebrating Diwali — after all, Shri Ram was back at his janmabhoomi. Devotees from around the
world had waited for 500 years for this day, the day when their god returns to his grand raj mahal from a
tent. The consecration thus marked the end of a journey for both the god and his devotees.
The attention to detail at the site, especially the artistic depiction of Lord Ram as a five-year-old standing
on a lotus, resonated deeply with observers. Many hailed the statue as a symbol of cultural and religious
pride and appreciated the artistic representation of the revered deity. Reverence for Shri Ram was writ
all over Ayodhya.
Righteousness, duty, and devotion are the hallmarks of the Sanatani worldview. In the calendar of every
Sanatani, the day when PM Modi fulfilled his promise by establishing the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya is sure
to have a prominent place. The Supreme Court‘s 2019 verdict validated the Hindu claim, leading to the
temple‘s construction. PM Modi‘s leadership ensured meticulous planning and execution. The prime
minister has constantly emphasized inclusivity and talked of uniting India‘s diverse population. The
consecration reflects a significant blend of cultural, religious, and spiritual aspects of the country. Under
PM Modi‘s leadership, Sanatan, the eternal way, also echoes the truths that connect us to our spiritual
roots.
In Hindu philosophy, Ram Rajya means an ideal and just rule. PM Modi brought this idea to reality. He
has established Ram Rajya by taking everyone into consideration — just like Prabhu Shri Ram. Not just
in India; Ram Rajya has acquired worldwide resonance thanks to PM Modi. The youth of the country and
those residing outside it idolize PM Modi for his righteous actions.
On the occasion of the pran pratistha, PM Modi said, ―Ram Bharat ki aastha hai, Ram Bharat ka aadhar
hai, Ram Bharat ka vichar hai, Ram Bharat ka vidhan hai, Ram Bharat ki chetna hai, Ram Bharat ka
chintan hai, Ram pratistha hai aur pratap hai Bharat ke‖ (Ram is the faith of Bharat, Ram is the basis of
Bharat, Ram is the thought of Bharat, Ram is the law of Bharat, Ram is the consciousness of Bharat,
Ram is the contemplation of Bharat, Ram is the practice and glory of Bharat.) Prime Minister Modi has
followed the path of Shri Ram to guide citizens. He connects with all sections of society and works for the
welfare of the remotest part of the country.
Source: [Link]

1. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The celebration of Diwali in Ayodhya after the consecration of the Ram Mandir.
(b) The significance of PM Modi's role in reinstating Lord Ram at the temple in Ayodhya.
(c) The construction of the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya as per the Supreme Court's 2019 verdict.
(d) The artistic depiction of Lord Ram and the festive atmosphere in Ayodhya.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. What does the passage highlight about the artistic representation of Lord Ram?
(a) Lord Ram is depicted as a grand ruler with a majestic appearance.
(b) Lord Ram is depicted as a five-year-old standing on a lotus.
(c) Lord Ram is depicted with an aggressive posture.
(d) Lord Ram is depicted as a symbol of cultural diversity.

3. According to the passage, what is the significance of the day when PM Modi established the Ram
Mandir?
(a) It marked the end of a 500-year journey for devotees.
(b) It celebrated the festival of Diwali in Ayodhya.
(c) It commemorated the Supreme Court's 2019 verdict.
(d) It reflected PM Modi's emphasis on inclusivity.

4. How does the passage describe PM Modi's approach to establishing the Ram Mandir?
(a) PM Modi followed traditional rituals without emphasizing cultural aspects.
(b) PM Modi ensured meticulous planning and execution with an emphasis on inclusivity.
(c) PM Modi's actions were limited to the realm of religious and spiritual aspects.
(d) PM Modi's leadership was passive, without actively guiding citizens.

5. What is the author's view on PM Modi's establishment of Ram Rajya?

(a) The author commends PM Modi for establishing an ideal and just rule.
(b) The author criticizes PM Modi for not considering everyone in establishing Ram Rajya.
(c) The author contradicts PM Modi's establishment of Ram Rajya.
(d) The author does not express a clear opinion on PM Modi's establishment of Ram Rajya.

6. What role did Swami Govind Giri Devji play in the consecration ceremony according to the passage?
(a) Swami Govind Giri Devji advised PM Modi to break his fast.
(b) Swami Govind Giri Devji played a central role in the construction of the temple.
(c) Swami Govind Giri Devji broke his fast by receiving charanamrit from PM Modi.
(d) Swami Govind Giri Devji led the procession during the consecration.

II. When he was nearly thirteen, my brother Jem got his arm badly broken at the elbow. When it healed,
and Jem‘s fears of never being able to play football were assuaged, he was seldom self-conscious about
his injury. His left arm was somewhat shorter than his right; when he stood or walked, the back of his
hand was at right angles to his body, his thumb parallel to his thigh. He couldn‘t have cared less, so long
as he could pass and punt. When enough years had gone by to enable us to look back on them, we
sometimes discussed the events leading to his accident. I maintain that the Ewells started it all, but Jem,
who was four years my senior, said it started long before that. He said it began the summer Dill came to
us, when Dill first gave us the idea of making Boo Radley come out. I said if he wanted to take a broad
view of the thing, it really began with Andrew Jackson. If General Jackson hadn‘t run the Creeks up the
creek, Simon Finch would never have paddled up the Alabama, and where would we be if he hadn‘t? We
were far too old to settle an argument with a fist-fight, so we consulted Atticus. Our father said we were
both right. Being Southerners, it was a source of shame to some members of the family that we had no
recorded ancestors on either side of the Battle of Hastings. All we had was Simon Finch, a fur-trapping
apothecary from Cornwall whose piety was exceeded only by his stinginess. In England, Simon was
irritated by the persecution of those who called themselves Methodists at the hands of their more liberal
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

brethren, and as Simon called himself a Methodist, he worked his way across the Atlantic to
Philadelphia, thence to Jamaica, thence to Mobile, and up the Saint Stephens. Mindful of John Wesley‘s
strictures on the use of many words in buying and selling, Simon made a pile practicing medicine, but in
this pursuit he was unhappy lest he be tempted into doing what he knew was not for the glory of God, as
the putting on of gold and costly apparel. So, Simon, having forgotten his teacher‘s dictum on the
possession of human chattels, bought three slaves and with their aid established a homestead on the
banks of the Alabama River some forty miles above Saint Stephens. He returned to Saint Stephens only
once, to find a wife, and with her established a line that ran high to daughters. Simon lived to an
impressive age and died rich. It was customary for the men in the family to remain on Simon‘s
homestead, Finch‘s Landing, and make their living from cotton. The place was self-sufficient: modest in
comparison with the empires around it, the Landing nevertheless produced everything required to
sustain life except ice, wheat flour, and articles of clothing, supplied by riverboats from Mobile.
Source: [Link]

7. What was the impact of Jem's injury on his attitude?

(a) Jem became extremely self-conscious about his injury.
(b) Jem didn't care about his injury as long as he could play football.
(c) Jem avoided physical activities after his injury.
(d) Jem was ashamed of his shorter left arm.

8. According to the passage, who did the narrator claim started the events leading to Jem's accident?
(a) Dill (b) Atticus
(c) The Ewells (d) Andrew Jackson

9. According to the narrator, when did the idea of making Boo Radley come out begin?
(a) When Jem's arm got broken. (b) When Dill first came to them.
(c) The summer after Dill came. (d) When the narrator was thirteen.

10. What was Simon Finch's occupation when he arrived in America?

(a) Fur trapper and apothecary (b) Cotton farmer
(c) Lawyer (d) Sailor

11. According to the passage, what was significant about Finch's Landing?
(a) It was a large cotton empire.
(b) It was Simon Finch's birthplace.
(c) It produced everything required for sustenance except a few items.
(d) It was a major trading hub.

12. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Colloquial (b) Objective
(c) Laudatory (d) Extolling

III. Given the circumstances behind the invitation to the French President Emmanuel Macron, his visit to
India last week was always going to be more about symbolism and ceremony than about substance. Mr.
Macron, the sixth French President to grace the Republic Day celebrations, stepped into the breach
when U.S. President Joseph Biden declined the invitation. In addition, India and France had in 2023
already sealed a number of agreements as they marked 25 years of their strategic partnership — a year
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

that saw Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Mr. Macron meet a number of times. Not only had the two
countries already announced a fairly ambitious ―Horizon 2047‖ relationship road map but they had also
stated plans for joint production of military hardware, cutting-edge technology transfers and new
purchase deals for French aircraft, engines and submarines. Diplomats had their work cut out for them
with the two sides having to prepare for the Republic Day visit with little time to spare, and with so many
agreements already announced. Many even speculated whether India had ―missed an opportunity‖ to
extend invitations to other partners including from the South Asian neighbourhood or Global South,
rather than getting a much-invited France.
As a result, it is understandable that many of the agreements announced after the Modi-Macron meeting
in Jaipur, and their time together watching the Republic Day Parade, were essentially built on the road
map. These included the ―Defence industrial‖ road map, meant to expand on plans for the two countries
to co-design, co-develop and co-produce defence hardware in the air, on land and sea, as well as a
space-defence partnership. In addition, the two sides signed MoU documents on agriculture, digital
health and science and technology cooperation. An assembly-line manufacture of civilian helicopters
(Airbus-Tata) was a first, but a private B2B deal. The two sides also issued a joint statement on regional
and international developments. India has been unable to find such common ground with other partners
including the U.S. and Russia on these issues but was able to take shared positions with France on the
condemnation of terror attacks in Israel, the need for humanitarian assistance in Gaza and Ukraine, and
concerns over the Red Sea attacks. While they did not demonstrate progress in other areas of
cooperation, including big ticket defence hardware deals being negotiated, nuclear cooperation for the
long-delayed power project in Jaitapur and for small modular reactors, it is clear that each is a work in
progress, demonstrating the continuity in a partnership built on a mutual respect for strategic autonomy,
which Mr. Macron said at the presidential banquet was also driven by their shared commitment to
―tradition and innovation‖.
Source: [Link]
france-ties/[Link]

13. What was the main focus of French President Emmanuel Macron's visit to India, as per the passage?
(a) The signing of new and groundbreaking agreements.
(b) Strengthening diplomatic ties with the U.S.
(c) Symbolism and ceremony rather than substantive outcomes.
(d) Exploring new partnerships in the South Asian neighbourhood.
14. Why did the invitation to the French President become significant, according to the passage?
(a) India wanted to showcase its strong ties with France to its South Asian neighbours.
(b) U.S. President Joseph Biden declined the invitation.
(c) France expressed a keen interest in attending Republic Day celebrations.
(d) India aimed to diversify its diplomatic partnerships.

15. What was the focus of the "Defence industrial" road map mentioned in the passage?
(a) Joint production of civilian helicopters.
(b) Coordinating space exploration initiatives.
(c) Co-design, co-development, and co-production of defence hardware.
(d) Promoting bilateral cultural exchanges.

16. According to the passage, what common ground did India and France find in their joint statement on
regional and international developments?
(a) A unified position on nuclear cooperation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Shared concerns over terror attacks in Israel.

(c) Agreement on big ticket defence hardware deals.
(d) Cooperation on the Jaitapur power project.

17. What does the passage suggest about the focus on symbolism and ceremony during Macron's visit?
(a) The focus on symbolism was criticized by India's partners.
(b) It resulted in groundbreaking agreements.
(c) Macron's visit was criticized for lacking substance.
(d) It led to significant progress in nuclear cooperation.

18. What was the significance of Emmanuel Macron's visit to India in the context of Republic Day
celebrations?
(a) Macron was the first French President to attend Republic Day celebrations.
(b) Macron replaced Joseph Biden as the chief guest at Republic Day.
(c) Macron's visit symbolized 25 years of India-France strategic partnership.
(d) Macron declined the invitation to Republic Day celebrations.

IV. I have long consider‘d the gross abuse of astrology in this kingdom, and upon debating the matter with
myself, I could not possibly lay the fault upon the art, but upon those gross impostors, who set up to be
the artists. I know several learned men have contended that the whole is a cheat; that it is absurd and
ridiculous to imagine, the stars can have any influence at all upon human actions, thoughts, or
inclinations: And whoever has not bent his studies that way, may be excused for thinking so, when he
sees in how wretched a manner that noble art is treated by a few mean illiterate traders between us and
the stars; who import a yearly stock of nonsense, lyes, folly, and impertinence, which they offer to the
world as genuine from the planets, tho‘ they descend from no greater a height than their own brains.
I intend in a short time to publish a large and rational defence of this art, and therefore shall say no more
in its justification at present, than that it hath been in all ages defended by many learned men, and
among the rest by Socrates himself, whom I look upon as undoubtedly the wisest of uninspir‘d mortals:
To which if we add, that those who have condemned this art, though otherwise learned, having been
such as either did not apply their studies this way, or at least did not succeed in their applications; their
testimony will not be of much weight to its disadvantage, since they are liable to the common objection of
condemning what they did not understand.
Nor am I at all offended, or think it an injury to the art, when I see the common dealers in it, the students
in astrology, the philomaths, and the rest of that tribe, treated by wise men with the utmost scorn and
contempt; but rather wonder, when I observe gentlemen in the country, rich enough to serve the nation
in parliament, poring in Partridge‘s almanack, to find out the events of the year at home and abroad; not
daring to propose a hunting-match, till Gadbury or he have fixed the weather.
Source: [Link]

19. According to the passage, why does the author blame the abuse of astrology?
(a) The lack of interest among the learned.
(b) The absurdity of imagining stars influence human actions.
(c) The illiterate traders who falsely present themselves as artists.
(d) The cheat and ridiculous nature of astrology.

20. Why does the author mention Socrates in the passage?

(a) To emphasize Socrates' opposition to astrology.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) To highlight Socrates' role as a wise defender of astrology.

(c) To criticize Socrates for misunderstanding astrology.
(d) To question the relevance of Socrates in the context of astrology.

21. What is the author's opinion about the common dealers in astrology?
(a) Offended by their contemptible treatment.
(b) Surprised by their success in the field.
(c) Wonders at their interest in astrology.
(d) Not offended but rather wonders when observing their actions.

22. What does the author intend to do in the future regarding astrology?
(a) Denounce and condemn astrology.
(b) Publish a large and rational defense of astrology.
(c) Advocate for stricter regulations in astrology.
(d) Discredit Socrates' defense of astrology.

23. What does the author consider the primary problem with astrology in the kingdom?
(a) Lack of interest among the learned.
(b) Absurdity of stars influencing human actions.
(c) Illiterate traders falsely representing themselves as artists.
(d) Annual import of nonsense from the planets.

24. In the passage, what does the author think about the common perception of astrology held by wise men?
(a) The common perception is entirely justified.
(b) Wise men respect and value astrology.
(c) The common perception is often scornful and contemptuous.
(d) Wise men are indifferent to the practice of astrology.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 8
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Unsurprisingly, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) orders and opinions on South Africa‘s case
against Israel have met with diverse reactions. Ad hoc Judge Aharon Barak‘s partial dissent has been
viciously and vehemently trolled and has been criticised by many for not fully adopting the total
dissenting opinion of Judge Julia Sebutinde. South Africa (SA) is upset by the fact that its requests were
not fully taken cognisance of. The verdict is being seen by many as making Israel accountable for the
first time, while others lament it as a disastrous portent for the just exercise of self-defence. Judge Barak
found it ―hard‖ to find a violation of the Genocide Convention (GC) by Israel. A Holocaust survivor, he is
deeply aware of Israel‘s commitment to the rule of law as a ―Jewish and democratic state‖.
The ICJ, however, decided only on the interplay of difficult realms of international law and found
―plausible‖ some accusations of ―violation of the GC.‖ The full judgment on the indictment must await trial
and evidence on issues such as jurisdiction, intervenors (already Germany, Bangladesh, Jordan, and
Nicaragua are seeking intervention), genocidal intent and other related matters. It found ―at this early
stage… the existence of a real and imminent risk of irreparable prejudice to the rights protected‖ under
the GC and that ―Israeli conduct in the Gaza Strip to minimise harm to civilians and to respond to
incitement did not sufficiently remove the risk of irreparable harm.‖
Of course, at the merits stage — to determine whether genocide is occurring — the Court has imposed
the highest, almost insurmountable, standard of proof. In Bosnia v. Serbia (2007), the ICJ insisted that:
―… for a pattern of conduct to be accepted as evidence of genocide of its existence it would have to be
such that existence of such intent‖ is proved by ―fully conclusive evidence‖ — that is, ―the only inference
that could reasonably be drawn from the acts in question‖. But the provisional measures ―need not be
identical‖ to those requested by parties. Notably, the Court denied the first provisional measure, namely
that ―the State of Israel shall immediately suspend its military operations in and against Gaza‖. The ICJ
further maintained a stoic silence on SA‘s request to identify its own obligations to prevent genocide.
The foremost provisional measure binding on the parties is by a majority of 15 ICJ judges (with Judges
Sebutinde and Barak dissenting) and is not about a ceasefire but about Israel acting in accordance with
its obligations under the Article 2 of GC to the take all measures to prevent the commission of all acts: ―In
particular, (a) killing members of the group, (b) causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the
group, (c) deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical
destruction in whole or in part, and (d) imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group‖.
Source: [Link]
judges-at-icj-do-not-get-9135580/

1. According to the passage, what is the primary reaction to the ICJ orders and opinions on South Africa‘s
case against Israel?
(a) The opinions are hailed as a triumph for Israel.
(b) Diverse reactions ranging from criticism to acclaim.
(c) The opinions are considered disastrous for South Africa.
(d) Ad hoc Judge Aharon Barak‘s dissent is unanimously supported.

2. Why is Judge Aharon Barak criticized in the passage?

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) For failing to adopt the total dissenting opinion of Judge Julia Sebutinde.
(b) For supporting Israel in violation of the Genocide Convention.
(c) For not taking cognizance of South Africa's requests.
(d) For being too vocal and assertive during the proceedings.

3. What is the provisional measure, as per the passage, that binds parties according to the ICJ judgment?
(a) Immediate suspension of Israel‘s military operations in and against Gaza.
(b) Identification of South Africa's obligations to prevent genocide.
(c) Israel acting in accordance with its obligations under the Article 2 of Genocide Convention.
(d) A ceasefire in the conflict between Israel and South Africa.

4. What does the passage say about Judge Barak's difficulty in finding a violation of the Genocide
Convention?
(a) He strongly found a violation of the Genocide Convention.
(b) He found it hard to find a violation of the Genocide Convention.
(c) He disregarded the Genocide Convention in his opinion.
(d) He fully adopted Judge Julia Sebutinde's dissenting opinion.

5. What is the primary concern expressed by many regarding the ICJ's verdict, as per the passage?
(a) The Court's lack of understanding of international law.
(b) The disaster for the just exercise of self-defence.
(c) The bias of Judge Julia Sebutinde.
(d) The failure to adopt Judge Barak's partial dissent.

6. What does the passage say about the standard of proof required at the merits stage to determine
whether genocide is occurring?
(a) The standard of proof is not mentioned.
(b) The standard of proof is almost insurmountable.
(c) The standard of proof is quite flexible.
(d) The standard of proof is easily attainable.

II. The dreams of my boyhood? No, they have not been realised. For all who are old, there is something
infinitely pathetic about the subject which you have chosen, for in no greyhead‘s case can it suggest any
but one thing–disappointment. Disappointment is its own reason for its pain: the quality or dignity of the
hope that failed is a matter aside. The dreamer‘s valuation of the thing lost–not another man‘s–is the
only standard to measure it by, and his grief for it makes it large and great and fine, and is worthy of our
reverence in all cases. We should carefully remember that. There are sixteen hundred million people in
the world. Of these there is but a trifling number–in fact, only thirty- eight millions–who can understand
why a person should have an ambition to belong to the French army; and why, belonging to it, he should
be proud of that; and why, having got down that far, he should want to go on down, down, down till he
struck the bottom and got on the General Staff; and why, being stripped of this livery, or set free and
reinvested with his self-respect by any other quick and thorough process, let it be what it might, he
should wish to return to his strange serfage. But no matter: the estimate put upon these things by the
fifteen hundred and sixty millions is no proper measure of their value: the proper measure, the just
measure, is that which is put upon them by Dreyfus, and is cipherable merely upon the littleness or the
vastness of the disappointment which their loss cost him. There you have it: the measure of the
magnitude of a dream-failure is the measure of the disappointment the failure cost the dreamer; the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

value, in others‘ eyes, of the thing lost, has nothing to do with the matter. With this straightening out and
classification of the dreamer‘s position to help us, perhaps we can put ourselves in his place and respect
his dream–Dreyfus‘s, and the dreams our friends have cherished and reveal to us. Some that I call to
mind, some that have been revealed to me, are curious enough; but we may not smile at them, for they
were precious to the dreamers, and their failure has left scars which give them dignity and pathos. With
this theme in my mind, dear heads that were brown when they and mine were young together rise old
and white before me now, beseeching me to speak for them, and most lovingly will I do it. Howells, Hay,
Aldrich, Matthews, Stockton, Cable, Remus–how their young hopes and ambitions come flooding back to
my memory now, out of the vague far past, the beautiful past, the lamented past!
Source: [Link]

7. According to the passage, what is the author's view on dreams and disappointments?
(a) Dreams are always realized, leading to fulfillment.
(b) The disappointment resulting from unfulfilled dreams is universal and significant.
(c) Dreams lose their value in others' eyes if they don't materialize.
(d) Only dreams related to military ambitions are discussed in the passage.

8. What is the significance of the dreams discussed in the passage?

(a) Their value is universally recognized.
(b) Their value is dependent on the number of people who understand them.
(c) The dreams are considered ridiculous by most.
(d) The dreams are considered valuable based on the dreamer's disappointment.

9. According to the passage, who are some of the individuals whose dreams are discussed?
(a) Dickens, Shakespeare, and Milton.
(b) Howells, Hay, Aldrich, Matthews, Stockton, and Cable.
(c) Dreyfus, Julius Caesar, and Napoleon.
(d) Remus, King Arthur, and Robin Hood.

10. What does the passage suggest about the dreams discussed?
(a) Dreams are valuable only if they are grand and universally recognized.
(b) Dreams lose their value if others do not understand or appreciate them.
(c) The dreams discussed in the passage are universal and shared by all.
(d) The disappointment from unfulfilled dreams gives them dignity and pathos.

11. According to the passage, what does the disappointment from unfulfilled dreams do?
(a) It diminishes the dreamer's self-respect.
(b) It makes the dreams grand and universally recognized.
(c) It gives the dreams dignity and pathos.
(d) It makes dreams seem ridiculous in others' eyes.

12. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Critical and condemning. (b) Nostalgic and reverent.
(c) Sarcastic and mocking. (d) Indifferent and disinterested.

III. Ahead of the Interim Budget for 2024-25 on Thursday, the Finance Ministry‘s 10-year review of the
economy with some forward outlook, serves as a proxy to the annual Economic Survey. The review
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

signals GDP will grow close to 7% in 2024-25, with scope to go ‗well above‘ 7% by 2030. From about
$3.7 trillion this year, India‘s economy will expand to $5 trillion in three years, making it the world‘s third
largest, and could hit the $7 trillion dollar mark by 2030, it reckons. Splicing India‘s growth story into two
phases — 1950-2014, and a ‗decade of transformative growth‘ since 2014 — the review stresses that
the state of the economy was ‗far from encouraging‘ when Prime Minister Narendra Modi ‗assumed
power‘. Growth was hobbled by structural constraints such as tardy decision-making, ill-targeted
subsidies and a large informal sector, while inflation was unpalatably high. Post-2014 reforms have
restored the economy‘s ability to grow healthily with ―longer and stronger‖ economic and financial cycles,
and made India the fastest growing G-20 nation, it argues. The review asserts that India‘s 7% growth
when the world is growing 2%, is ‗qualitatively superior‘ to 8%-9% achieved when the global economy
grows 4%, perhaps, hinting at a few years of the UPA era. This is debatable as India‘s economy is
generally delinked from the world with domestic activity driving growth more than exports.
Now that the twin-balance sheet problem inherited from the UPA days has turned into an ‗advantage‘, as
the review stresses, it must translate into a wider private investment revival. That would hinge on a
broad-based consumption rebound rather than the K-shaped recovery the government vehemently
dismisses. Four years of 7%-plus growth, post-pandemic, would be commendable indeed. However,
India needs to grow faster to create jobs at the scale its youth need and ensure that a rising growth tide
lifts most boats, if not all. The review expects an ‗all-inclusive welfare approach‘ to help enlarge the
consumption base by expanding the middle class. But those dependent on handouts, such as the 800
million that need free food by the Centre‘s reckoning, must progressively shrink for growth to be
meaningful and equitable. The report rightly mentions reforms in learning outcomes, health, easier
compliances for smaller firms, as priorities, with some critical changes at the ‗sub-national government‘
level to accelerate growth. It is also essential that flaws in reforms such as GST are fixed and some of
the blunt policy tools deployed, for instance, import licences and price controls on deregulated products,
that send convoluted signals about India‘s ‗open market with predictable policies‘ pitch, are
reconsidered.
Source: [Link]
year-review-of-the-economy/[Link]

13. According to the passage, what is the Finance Ministry's forward outlook for India's GDP growth?
(a) GDP will decrease in 2024-25. (b) GDP will grow close to 7% in 2024-25.
(c) GDP will exceed 7% in 2024-25. (d) GDP will reach $7 trillion by 2024.

14. What does the Finance Ministry's review emphasize about India's economic growth post-2014?
(a) The growth is inferior to that of the UPA era.
(b) India's economy is strongly linked to global growth.
(c) Reforms post-2014 have contributed to healthy and robust economic cycles.
(d) India's economy depends more on exports than domestic activity.

15. What does the Finance Ministry's review say about India's growth compared to the world?
(a) India's growth is qualitatively inferior when the world is growing 4%.
(b) India's growth is unaffected by global economic trends.
(c) India's growth is qualitatively superior when the world is growing 2%.
(d) India's growth is stagnant compared to global growth.

16. What does the Finance Ministry's review expect in terms of private investment revival?
(a) It expects a broad-based consumption rebound.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It expects a K-shaped recovery.

(c) It expects a continuation of the twin-balance sheet problem.
(d) It expects wider private investment revival from the twin-balance sheet advantage.

17. According to the passage, what is necessary for growth to be meaningful and equitable?
(a) A widening of the twin-balance sheet problem.
(b) A continuation of ill-targeted subsidies.
(c) A reduction in the number of people dependent on handouts.
(d) A stagnant middle class.

18. What does the passage recommend for accelerating growth?

(a) Reforms in learning outcomes and health.
(b) The continuation of blunt policy tools like import licenses.
(c) The dismissal of changes at the sub-national government level.
(d) A decrease in private investment.

IV. The Parisian travels but little, he knows no language but his own, reads no literature but his own, and
consequently he is pretty narrow and pretty self-sufficient. However, let us not be too sweeping; there
are Frenchmen who know languages not their own: these are the waiters. Among the rest, they know
English; that is, they know it on the European plan –which is to say, they can speak it, but can‘t
understand it. They easily make themselves understood, but it is next to impossible to word an English
sentence in such away as to enable them to comprehend it. They think they comprehend it; they pretend
they do; but they don‘t. Here is a conversation which I had with one of these beings; I wrote it down at
the time, in order to have it exactly correct.
I. These are fine oranges. Where are they grown?
He. More? Yes, I will bring them.
I. No, do not bring any more; I only want to know where they are from where they are raised.
He. Yes? (with imperturbable mien and rising inflection.)
I. Yes. Can you tell me what country they are from?
He. Yes? (blandly, with rising inflection.)
I. (disheartened). They are very nice.
He. Good night. (Bows, and retires, quite satisfied with himself.)
That young man could have become a good English scholar by taking the right sort of pains, but he was
French, and wouldn‘t do that. How different is the case with our people; they utilize every means that
offers. There are some alleged French Protestants in Paris, and they built a nice little church on one of
the great avenues that lead away from the Arch of Triumph, and proposed to listen to the correct thing,
preached in the correct way, there, in their precious French tongue, and be happy. But their little game
does not succeed. Our people are always there ahead of them Sundays, and take up all the room. When
the minister gets up to preach, he finds his house full of devout foreigners, each ready and waiting, with
his little book in his hand–a morocco-bound Testament, apparently. But only apparently; it is Mr.
Bellows‘s admirable and exhaustive little French-English dictionary, which in look and binding and size is
just like a Testament and those people are there to study French. The building has been nicknamed
―The Church of the Gratis French Lesson.‖
These students probably acquire more language than general information, for I am told that a French
sermon is like a French speech–it never names a historical event, but only the date of it; if you are not up
in dates, you get left. A French speech is something like this.
Source: [Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

19. What is the main point of the passage?

(a) French waiters are excellent at understanding and speaking English.
(b) Parisians are generally well-traveled and multilingual.
(c) French Protestants in Paris struggle to find room in their church.
(d) The language barrier between Parisians and English speakers, especially with waiters.

20. What does the author think about French waiters and their language skills?
(a) French waiters are generally fluent in multiple languages.
(b) French waiters can speak English but struggle to understand it.
(c) French waiters are not interested in learning other languages.
(d) French waiters are as multilingual as Parisians.

21. What happens at the "Church of the Gratis French Lesson"?

(a) French Protestants gather for religious services.
(b) Our people attend church services.
(c) Students use it as a place to study French.
(d) The church is known for its historical sermons.

22. Why does the author say the young French man could have become a good English scholar?
(a) Because he was naturally gifted in languages.
(b) Because he took the right sort of pains to learn English.
(c) Because he was eager to study English literature.
(d) Because he was a waiter.

23. What does the passage suggest about French sermons?

(a) French sermons are more focused on historical events than English sermons.
(b) French sermons name historical events but not their dates.
(c) French sermons are similar to French speeches in terms of historical references.
(d) French sermons are preferred by foreigners studying French.

24. What does the author imply about the French approach to language learning?
(a) French people are generally disinterested in learning languages.
(b) French people make a significant effort to learn and understand English.
(c) French people rely on dictionaries to understand foreign languages.
(d) French people are proficient in languages but pretend not to understand.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 9
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act have spread to many university campuses, leading to
confrontation with police in some instances. One of the bigger police-protester clashes was seen on
Sunday at Delhi‘s Jamia Millia Islamia. At least four buses were set on fire, and a dozen cars and scores
of bikes were damaged. Reports emerged of stone-pelting by protesting students by police, while the
latter forcibly entered the varsity and lobbed tear gas shells on the campus. Social media videos also
emerged of policemen assaulting students, suggesting the highhandedness of the crackdown. Allow a
peaceful stir: violence can‘t be condoned, but police can‘t trample upon students‘ right to protest. News
of police action in Jamia sparked solidarity protests at more than 30 campuses. Students from Aligarh
Muslim University demonstrated, leading to their own clashes with police. Similar scenes were witnessed
at Patna University, while students of Jadavpur University in Kolkata took out a protest march at
midnight. In Hyderabad, hundreds of students of the Maulana Azad National Urdu University took to the
streets. Also expressing their solidarity against police action were students of Banaras Hindu University,
Pondicherry University, and Nadwa College in Lucknow. Students from the Tata Institute of Social
Sciences of Mumbai, DU, JNU, IIT Madras, IISc, and IIM Bangalore expressed solidarity as well.
Evidently, the CAA has worked up students at several universities, and they feel the need to express
themselves on the issue through protests, a right guaranteed by the Constitution. However, as the SC
observed yesterday, this does not mean protesters can take law and order into their own hands. Arson
and damaging public property cannot be condoned under any circumstances. That said, where there are
allegations that ‗outsiders‘ have infiltrated student protests and caused the violence, these need to be
independently assessed and then prosecuted. The larger body of peacefully demonstrating students
must not be assaulted just because they are critical of government policy. Jamia vice chancellor Najma
Akhtar has said that police entered this campus without permission. Such a violation of an educational
institution is shocking. Some BJP politicians have suggested the protesting students are prey to rumours.
Even where this is the case, authorities should engage the students, not subject them to brutal police
action. Besides, from Amit Shah to Sitaram Yechury, India has a hoary tradition of raising political
stalwarts through student politics. There is nothing illegitimate about it. That word is better applied to
Lathi charging unarmed students.

1. What led to one of the significant clashes between protesters and police at Jamia Millia Islamia in Delhi,
as mentioned in the passage?
(a) Clash over university administrative issues
(b) Disagreement on academic policies
(c) Protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act
(d) Police intervention in a student election

2. How did students express their solidarity in response to police actions at Jamia, according to the
passage?
(a) By organizing cultural events (b) Through peaceful dialogues with authorities
(c) Protests at more than 30 campuses (d) By boycotting classes and examinations
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. What does the passage highlight as a constitutional right exercised by students at various universities?
(a) Right to organize cultural events
(b) Right to take part in student elections
(c) Right to express themselves through protests
(d) Right to publish dissenting opinions in official university publications

4. According to the passage, what stance does the Supreme Court take regarding protesters and law and
order?
(a) Protesters are exempt from all legal consequences
(b) Students can take law and order into their own hands
(c) Constitution guarantees protesters the right to violence
(d) Protests should not involve breaking the law or damaging public property

5. How does the passage suggest handling allegations of violence caused by 'outsiders' during student
protests?
(a) Ignore the allegations and focus on peaceful demonstrations
(b) Engage the protesting students and prosecute them collectively
(c) Independently assess allegations and prosecute those responsible
(d) Blame the university administration for any violence during protests

6. What is the central theme of the passage regarding the protests against the Citizenship (Amendment)
Act and the ensuing clashes between students and police, focusing particularly on the incident at Jamia
Millia Islamia in Delhi?
(a) The need for students to express their opinions through protests against the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act.
(b) The violation of students' constitutional rights during protests and the police crackdown.
(c) The role of social media in amplifying student protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act.
(d) The government's response to allegations of 'outsiders' infiltrating student protests and causing
violence.

7. In the passage, what does the term "handedness" in the phrase "highhandedness of the crackdown"
refer to?
(a) Skilful handling of the situation (b) Authoritarian and overbearing behaviours
(c) Neutral and unbiased approach (d) Cooperation and collaboration with students

II. Citizens fall short of privacy requirements. India‘s Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 starts
encouragingly, seeking to protect ―the privacy of individuals relating to their personal data." But by the
end, it is clear that it was not designed to deliver on the promise. For, even as it rightly requires handlers
of data to abide by globally accepted rules about getting an individual‘s consent, it disappointingly gives
wide powers to the government to dilute any of these provisions for its unfulfilled promise: The Personal
Data Protection Bill The bill, which was tabled in Parliament by the Electronics and IT Minister on
December 11, has now been referred to a joint committee, to be headed by the BJP‘s Meenakshi Lekhi.
The committee is expected to table its report during the budget session. Technically, therefore, this is not
beyond redemption yet. But recent events have cast doubts about whether the government is serious
about delivering on the privacy promise. Recently, messaging platform WhatsApp said that some Indian
journalists and rights activists were among those spied using technology by an Israeli company, which,
by its own admission, only works for government agencies across the world. Google included 500 in
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

India regarding "government-backed" phishing attempts against them. The Indian government has still
not come out clearly and convincingly regarding these incidents. Importantly, one of the first to raise a
red flag about the bill‘s problematic clauses was Justice B.N. Srikrishna, whose committee‘s report forms
the basis of the bill. He has used words such as ―Orwellian‖ and ―Big Brother‖ in reaction to the removal
of safeguards for government agencies. In its report last July, the committee noted that the dangers to
privacy originate from state and non-state actors. It, therefore, called for exemptions and also
recommended that the government bring in a law for the oversight of intelligence-gathering activities, the
means by which non-consensual processing of data takes place. A related concern about the bill is
regarding the constitution of the Data Protection Authority of India, which is to monitor and enforce the
provisions of the Act. It will be headed by a chairperson and have not more than six full-time members,
all of whom are to be selected by a panel filled with government nominees. This completely disregards
the fact that government agencies are also regulated under the Act; they are major collectors and
processors of data themselves. The landmark K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India case, which
culminated in the recognition that privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and therefore a basic right, that
idea of privacy is certainly not reflected in the bill in its current form.

8. What is the primary concern raised in the passage regarding India's Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019?
(a) The bill lacks provisions for data handlers to obtain individual consent.
(b) Government agencies have unrestricted powers to dilute privacy provisions.
(c) The bill does not address the dangers originating from non-state actors.
(d) Recent events have positively affirmed the government's commitment to privacy.

9. According to the passage, what was the initial reaction of Justice B.N. Srikrishna to the Personal Data
Protection Bill, and what terms did he use to describe certain aspects of the bill?
(a) He expressed satisfaction, using terms like "progressive" and "groundbreaking."
(b) He raised concerns, using terms like "Orwellian" and "Big Brother."
(c) He recommended amendments, using terms like "transparent" and "inclusive."
(d) He dismissed the bill, using terms like "obsolete" and "ineffective."

10. What critical issue does the passage highlight concerning the constitution of the Data Protection
Authority of India, as specified in the Personal Data Protection Bill?
(a) The authority's lack of power to enforce the provisions of the Act.
(b) The absence of a chairperson to lead the Data Protection Authority.
(c) Concerns about the impartiality of the panel responsible for selecting authority members.
(d) The oversight of government agencies, major data collectors and processors, by the authority.

11. What is the tone of the author in the passage discussing the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, and its
shortcomings?
(a) Objective and Neutral (b) Supportive and Optimistic
(c) Critical and Sceptical (d) Enthusiastic and Positive

12. What term is used in the passage to describe the excessive concentration of powers in the hands of the
government, particularly in relation to surveillance, leading to a sense of an all-powerful and invasive
authority?
(a) Ambiguous (b) Orwellian
(c) Altruistic (d) Benevolent
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

13. What crucial recommendation does the committee led by Justice B.N. Srikrishna make regarding the
dangers to privacy in the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, and how does it view the role of
government agencies?
(a) Recommends complete exclusion of government agencies from data processing; advocates for strict
privacy regulations.
(b) Urges the government to increase its surveillance powers for national security; dismisses concerns
about privacy risks.
(c) Suggests creating exemptions and proposes oversight for intelligence-gathering activities; expresses
worry about the removal of safeguards for government agencies.
(d) Advocates for a completely transparent approach by government agencies in data handling; opposes
any exemptions to privacy regulations.

III. The decisive victory of the Conservative Party in the UK Under the leadership of Boris Johnson, the
largest Tory margin since Margaret Thatcher ended the uncertainty over Brexit and demonstrates, for the
benefit of the rest of the world, that extreme Left-leaning policies similar to those of the Labour Party, do
not resonate with voters. Johnson has declared that Brexit will be a reality by the end of January. While it
is now a settled matter that the UK will leave the EU, the Brexit deal is unlikely to be completed by then.
Brexit wins in the UK; left radicalism loses leaving issues to be dealt with later. The Conservative Victory
in traditional labour strongholds is a function of several things -the fact that voters were not willing to trust
Labour leader Jeremy Corbyn and a rejection of his policies such as nationalisation, Johnson‘s appeal to
the British working class, and perhaps a level of exhaustion with the uncertainty over Brexit. The huge
margin of victory puts Johnson firmly in control, giving him the authority to shape the future of post-EU
Britain. However, his preferred deal has left Irishmen fuming over possible customs barrier between the
Republic and Northern Ireland is a part of Britain. Brexit will harden. The separatist resolve in Scotland,
where the First Minister Nicola Sturgeon has already characterised the electoral verdict as a renewed
mandate for a second Independence referendum. How resilient are the British? economy proves to
depend on the terms of its reengagement with the EU. If Paris and Frankfurt seek to take away a chunk
of financial business from London and bend EU policy in this direction, the impact would be tangible.
India will need to work out a trade deal with the UK, while dealing with the anti-immigrant undertone of
Brexit on English streets and in British visa policies.

14. What factors contributed to the decisive victory of the Conservative Party in the UK, as mentioned in the
passage?
(a) Boris Johnson's charismatic leadership and voter trust in Labour leader Jeremy Corbyn.
(b) A rejection of extreme Left-leaning policies and a level of exhaustion with Brexit uncertainties.
(c) The overwhelming support for nationalization policies proposed by Jeremy Corbyn.
(d) Indifference among voters toward Brexit-related issues and uncertainties.
15. Evaluate the potential consequences of Boris Johnson's Brexit deal on the UK, taking into consideration
the concerns raised regarding a customs barrier between the Republic and Northern Ireland.
(a) The Brexit deal is expected to resolve all issues related to customs barriers and separatist
movements.
(b) The Brexit deal might harden the separatist resolve in Scotland, leading to renewed calls for
independence.
(c) The impact of Brexit on Scotland and Ireland is likely to be minimal, with no significant
consequences.
(d) The passage does not provide any information on the consequences of Boris Johnson's Brexit deal.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

16. In the context of the passage, discuss the challenges and opportunities that India may face in negotiating
a trade deal with the UK post-Brexit.
(a) The anti-immigrant undertone of Brexit is unlikely to impact India's trade relations with the UK.
(b) Negotiating a trade deal with the UK post-Brexit poses challenges, considering the uncertainties in
English streets and visa policies.
(c) India is expected to benefit significantly from Brexit, with no major challenges in trade negotiations.
(d) The passage suggests that India is not mentioned in the context of post-Brexit trade deals.

17. What is the author's tone in the passage discussing the UK's Conservative Party victory and the
implications of Boris Johnson's Brexit deal?
(a) Neutral and informative (b) Critical and skeptical
(c) Optimistic and hopeful (d) Indifferent and disengaged

18. What does the term "resilient" mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Fragile (b) Capable of withstanding challenges
(c) Unstable (d) Inflexible

IV. Scientists now believe that Australia has roamed across the face of the earth for billions of years,
sometimes in the northern hemisphere and sometimes in the southern. After ultimately cutting the
umbilicus with Antarctica, it steadily moved northwards in solitude for 40 million years, at roughly half the
rate at which a single hair grows.
Now that the sheep has weakened, Australians are increasingly relying on the marsupial's back.
Australia's fauna and flora are being exploited as a unique resource to a considerable level, although this
is more difficult to assess. Australia's native species are regarded as a unique and irreplaceable treasure
in scientific areas ranging from reproductive physiology and evolutionary biology to medicine. They are
offering insights on how the world and humans function.
Australia's rainforests—those insignificant appendages—are now universally accepted as the most
ancient of humanity's land-based ecosystems, giving rise to the majority of others. Every year, they
produce botanical discoveries of global significance. Botanists in Australia have just finished a catalogue
of 18,000 species of Australian plants. Their latest taxonomic study has resulted in a 50% rise in the
number of species in the groupings studied. Nonetheless, they predict that there are over 7,000
unknown plant species in Australia. Many are undoubtedly found in Australian rainforests and belong to
old and strange families, such as the southern pine (Podocarpus species), which was recently
discovered growing in a steep slope in Arnhem Land, hundreds of kilometres away from its nearest
relatives.
Research on newly found Australian dinosaur faunas is questioning previously held beliefs about
dinosaurs. These discoveries are so significant that an Australian dinosaur recently graced the cover of a
major international magazine. It was discovered in one of only two deposits on the planet that were
formed near the South Pole during the dinosaur era. In a refrigerated planet, the chicken-sized species
endured three months of darkness each year.
Scientists are gradually realising that, unlike on other continents, evolution in Australia is not primarily
driven by nature red in tooth and claw. Co adaptation, a gentler force, is necessary here. This is because
extreme conditions push people to collaborate in order to minimise nutrient loss and maintain nutrients
cycling through the ecosystem as quickly as possible.

19. The passage is primarily concerned with

(a) detailing the historical movement of Australia across hemispheres and its separation from Antarctica
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) discussing the exploitation of Australia's flora and fauna as a unique scientific resource
(c) highlighting the significance of Australia's rainforests in the global ecosystem
(d) examining recent discoveries in Australian dinosaur faunas and their impact on existing beliefs

20. According to the passage, the recent discoveries of Australian dinosaur faunas are significant because
they
(a) challenge existing beliefs about the preferred habitat of dinosaurs
(b) resulted in the publication of an Australian dinosaur on the cover of a major international magazine
(c) occurred in one of the only two deposits on the planet formed near the South Pole during the
dinosaur era
(d) provide evidence that Australian dinosaurs were the largest in the world

21. The author mentions the discovery of the southern pine (Podocarpus species) growing in Arnhem Land
most probably in order to
(a) emphasize the rich biodiversity of Australian rainforests
(b) highlight the unexpected locations where certain plant species are found in Australia
(c) challenge the prevailing notion about the geographical distribution of southern pine species
(d) provide evidence of the unique and ancient nature of Australian rainforests

22. According to the last sentence of the passage, which of the following is most clearly an example of the
gentler force of coadaptation driving evolution in Australia?
(a) Collaboration among Australian scientists to study and catalog the diverse plant species in the
country
(b) The reliance of Australians on the marsupial's back for transportation
(c) The discovery of an Australian dinosaur in a unique and extreme environment
(d) The exploitation of Australia's fauna and flora as a unique resource for scientific research

23. Which of the following is cited in the passage as evidence supporting the author's claim about the
significance of Australia's rainforests?
(a) The recent cataloging of 18,000 species of Australian plants
(b) The discovery of the southern pine (Podocarpus species) in Arnhem Land
(c) The belief that Australia roamed across the earth for billions of years
(d) The movement of Australia northwards after cutting the umbilicus with Antarctica

24. Which of the following words best describes the movement of Australia mentioned in the passage?
(a) Wandered (b) Meandered
(c) Migrated (d) Ambled
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 10
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Non-Fiction
How convenient it would be if a GPS system could help us find the mind. But GPS is connected to the
physical realm, whereas the mind exists in the non-physical realm – or does it? Some say that the mind
is an extension of the brain, so it could be both within and without us.
Father Gregory of Nyssa, a Trinitarian theologian, pondering on the mind-body relationship, said the
mind is fully integrated into our animal nature but not enclosed within the body‘s parameters. Joshua
Moritz, in the Templeton Foundation‘s ‗Possibilities‘, says because Gregory of Nyssa ―originated the
concept that mind is extended beyond the brain and into the surrounding environment of information,
some have proposed Gregory as the patron saint of extended mind.‖
Socrates, writes Moritz, believed that the mind or psyche was beyond and yet within one‘s body. But the
mind belongs to ―the ideal world of forms that do not change and never die…while the essential mind is
unchanging; its time spent in the body leaves some residual corporeality that clings to it.‖
For Apostle Paul who came 400 years after Socrates, the mind is both diffused outside the body and
contained within, but it is the future glorified and resurrected body that is unchanging and immortal.
Seeing the mind as a quality that is extended throughout cultures and belief systems, Paul encouraged
his Roman and Corinthian readers to cultivate ―the mind of Christ‖, and to ―renew their minds‖ according
to the mind of God and not in conformity to the mind and patterns of the surrounding Roman culture.
Cognitive philosopher Andy Clark asks, if someone consistently relies on a notebook or smartphone for
an address or number, that same notebook or phone is part of that person‘s cognitive process of
remembering, and consequently, part of that person‘s mind.
According to Clark and others, external technological and community based supports for cognition act as
scaffolding. Just as a construction crew uses scaffolding to support a building they are working on, we
use technology and the people around us to support or extend mental processes such as memory and
thought, writes Moritz.
Would we be in danger of ―losing‖ our mind if we rely too much on external resources like family, friends,
devices and other aids? Can you remember telephone numbers without your cell phone? Can you do
complicated calculations without a calculator? Or find your way without your GPS navigator? These tools
are all part of your extended mind. Does this mean the mind that is yours is within you, and the tools you
use to extend this mind are outside of you? Can one conclude that the mind is both within and without,
as one wills?
Source: [Link]

1. What concept did Father Gregory of Nyssa contribute to the understanding of the mind according to the
passage?
(a) The mind is primarily within the brain's physical confines.
(b) The mind exists apart from physical/biological constraints.
(c) The mind extends into the environment beyond the brain.
(d) The mind and body are distinct, non-interacting entities.

2. Which of the following statements does the author most likely agree with?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Tech aids and social interactions don't impact cognitive processes.
(b) The mind solely results from brain activity, ignoring external influences.
(c) External tools and interactions are key to individual cognitive processes.
(d) The mind remains static, unaffected by experiences or external aids.

3. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage?

(a) Apostle Paul saw the mind as extending within and beyond the body.
(b) Socrates linked the mind to an unchanging realm of forms.
(c) Andy Clark denies technology's impact on cognitive processes.
(d) Excessive reliance on aids may threaten cognitive independence.

4. In the passage, what does ―scaffolding‖ imply in relation to cognitive processes?

(a) A temporary structure that limits cognitive development.
(b) An inherent part of the brain's physical structure.
(c) A barrier to genuine understanding and learning.
(d) Supportive tools and interactions that enhance cognitive functions.

5. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Sceptical (b) Optimistic
(c) Neutral (d) Critical

6. According to the passage, what is a possible consequence of relying heavily on external cognitive aids?
(a) Enhanced memory and cognitive capabilities without any drawbacks.
(b) A potential risk of diminishing our innate cognitive abilities.
(c) Immediate improvement in social interactions and community bonding.
(d) Complete independence from technology and external aids in the future.
II. Tourism
As dawn broke over Luang Prabang, saffron-robed monks trod the streets receiving alms -- but a
cacophonous influx of camera-clutching tourists shattered the peace of the ancient Laotian town. The
UNESCO World Heritage site welcomed visitors, with state media reporting the province hopes to attract
more by the end of 2024. Tourists inject much-needed money into Laos' shaky economy but present
locals with a dilemma, as foreign tour groups dominate and change cultural activities in the sleepy
provincial city.
The starkest example can be seen every morning along Kounxoau Road, where monks pad barefoot to
collect donations of food. What was once a simple act of communion and support between Buddhist
locals and the monks has long been a draw for tourists. Now the monks have to make their way through
hundreds of visitors on plastic stools offering alms as tour guides thrust mobile phones into their faces.
For decades, Luang Prabang has seen large numbers of tourists come from all over the world to witness
the morning alms-giving, but locals say the ceremony now resembles a photo shoot. "They are taking
more photos rather than buying anything," complained one vendor. It is a tricky balancing act, as
vendors -- who sell alms baskets containing lumps of sticky rice -- both need and resent the visitors.
"If there are not enough tourists then we make a loss," she said, but admitted the dilemma. "The more
tourists have come, the more our way of life is changing. Now this is more chaotic," the vendor said.
Speaking to foreign journalists is not without risk in communist Laos, and the vendor, like others who
spoke to AFP for this story, did so on condition of anonymity.
Luang Prabang, the country's old royal capital, is changing as foreign investment arrives alongside the
tourism spike, oiled by the opening of Laos' new Chinese-funded high-speed railway. Outside the town,
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

the arrival of a train from the Chinese border sees a flurry of activity at the town's hulking new railway
station as tour guides sweep up their charges.
The station opened last year and no public buses link it to the town, but white minivans idle six rows
deep on the battered paved road, while the station displays -- all in Chinese -- make the target market
clear. Tourist Zhang Ying, part of a newly arrived tour group from Chongqing, told AFP she had always
wanted to visit.
China financed the high-speed railway, which links the Chinese city of Kunming to the Laotian capital
Vientiane -- just one of multiple projects that have put Laos deep in debt to Beijing. While their leaders
promised that the train would benefit the country, locals told AFP they see little of the promised income
generated by the railway.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

7. What can be inferred about the local residents' view towards the tourists in Luang Prabang?
(a) Locals universally express unwelcome attitudes towards all tourists visiting.
(b) Locals appreciate the economic benefits from tourism but express concerns over cultural
preservation.
(c) Locals show a preference for tourists from specific countries based on perceived cultural similarities.
(d) Locals maintain an indifferent stance towards tourists as long as their local traditions remain
unaffected.

8. Which of the following does the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) Tourist influx's solely positive impact on Luang Prabang is disputed.
(b) High-speed railway's unmitigated local benefits are questioned.
(c) Alms-giving ceremony's unchanged tradition by tourism challenged.
(d) Unconditional necessity of foreign investment for progress doubted.

9. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) Luang Prabang's shift from tourism and investment, blending growth with tradition.
(b) Negative impacts of the Chinese-funded railway on Luang Prabang's economy.
(c) Globalization's role in diminishing traditional values and practices in Luang Prabang.
(d) Chinese investment's significant influence on Laos' tourism and economic policies.

10. Which of the following idioms best represents the "Tourists inject much-needed money into Laos' shaky
economy but present locals with a dilemma" statement from the passage?
(a) Biting the hand that feeds you (b) Between a rock and a hard place
(c) A drop in the bucket (d) All that glitters is not gold

11. What is the reaction of the local vendors to the tourists according to the passage?
(a) Local vendors are entirely dependent on tourists for their livelihood.
(b) Local vendors are frustrated by tourists favouring photography over purchases.
(c) Local vendors believe the presence of tourists does not affect their sales.
(d) Local vendors are planning to boycott tourists to preserve their culture.

12. In the phrase "Tourists inject much-needed money into Laos' shaky economy," what part of speech is
"inject"?
(a) Noun (b) Verb
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Adjective (d) Adverb

III. International
Brazilian police‘s startling allegations that former President Jair Bolsonaro, his allies and some military
officers had attempted to stage a coup, after the 2022 presidential election, expose both the structural
fault lines and political challenges the young South American democracy faces. The police adds that
they were involved in spreading propaganda on voter fraud, pushing for new elections, recruiting troops
to organise a coup, bringing judges under surveillance and encouraging the mob to stage protests
defying the results. Well before the elections, Mr. Bolsonaro had raised doubts about the election
systems. He had refused to concede defeat to his leftist rival Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva, while his far-right
supporters continued their protests, which culminated in the January 2023 riots at Brazil‘s Congress,
Supreme Court and Presidential office. A court has ordered Mr. Bolsonaro to surrender his passport, and
three of his allies and the head of his party have been arrested. The far-right leader, under whose watch
Brazil‘s economy tanked, social tensions rose, the health-care system crumbled under the weight of
COVID-19, and institutions came under attack, says the allegations are politically motivated. But he does
not have an easy way out of the mess.
Those who were in power being targeted by the system is nothing new in Brazil. Former leftist President
Dilma Rousseff was impeached in 2016 on charges of violating budget rules. Lula, the incumbent
President, spent 580 days in jail between his terms, on a corruption conviction, which was later annulled
by the Supreme Court. While Ms. Rousseff and Lula were accused of corruption and fell prey to the
powerful lobbies in Brazil‘s Congress and judiciary, the charges against Mr. Bolsonaro, a defender of the
brutal dictatorship of 1964-1985, are far more serious. Democracy remains fragile and for the military,
memories of the dictatorship are still fresh. Any attempt by politicians or officers to defy the election
process and undermine democracy should be dealt with utmost seriousness. But it should be done as
per the law, avoiding political vendetta. Lula returned to power on promises that he would strengthen
democracy and enable prosperity and growth. His hands are full. He should also make sure that there
are impartial investigations and the truth about the riots and the alleged coup plot is uncovered. Earlier,
the ‗car wash‘ scandal had exposed deep-rooted corruption in the political system, which led to the
weakening of Lula‘s Workers‘ Party and the rise of the far-right. He should not allow the coup scandal to
further fracture the country‘s polity and erode the legitimacy of its democratic system.
Source: [Link]
politics/[Link]

13. What actions were alleged against former President Jair Bolsonaro and his allies according to the
Brazilian police?
(a) Accusations of embezzlement and misappropriation of public funds throughout Bolsonaro's term.
(b) Charges of environmental neglect and contributing to the deforestation of the Amazon.
(c) Allegations of plotting a coup, disseminating voter fraud claims, and inciting election result protests.
(d) Allegations related to mishandling the COVID-19 crisis, leading to unnecessary fatalities.

14. How does the author suggest that past political events in Brazil might influence the handling of the
allegations against Bolsonaro?
(a) Previous impeachments and convictions should guide Bolsonaro's swift punishment.
(b) Political corruption history may hinder Bolsonaro's fair and impartial investigation.
(c) The 'car wash' scandal's history could lead to public distrust in Bolsonaro's case outcomes.
(d) Military's political past may prompt a military resolution to Bolsonaro's allegations.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

15. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage?

(a) Rousseff's impeachment for budget violations, Lula's jail on corruption before rehabilitation.
(b) Bolsonaro describes allegations as political, involving coup attempts and democracy threats.
(c) Bolsonaro's term is falsely praised for economic and healthcare improvements during the pandemic.
(d) Lula promised to enhance democracy and tackle Brazil's economic and social issues on return.

16. How does the author approach the topic of political turmoil in Brazil?
(a) Optimistic (b) Narrative
(c) Analytical (d) Critical

17. According to the passage, what should President Lula focus on during his term to address the issues
raised by the allegations against Bolsonaro?
(a) Strengthen military defenses to safeguard democratic institutions.
(b) Focus on economic recovery, leaving political disputes to judiciary oversight.
(c) Implement thorough, impartial investigations for justice and transparency.
(d) Foster reconciliation with opposition to heal national divisions effectively.

18. What does the passage imply by stating "Brazil‘s economy tanked, social tensions rose, the health-care
system crumbled under the weight of COVID-19"?
(a) Bolsonaro's term saw economic, social, and healthcare declines amid COVID-19.
(b) Brazil saw growth, harmony, and healthcare success during the pandemic.
(c) Bolsonaro's policies were blamed for causing the global pandemic's impact.
(d) Brazil's unique pandemic struggle was attributed to Bolsonaro's leadership.
IV. Sci-tech
Many warming records were broken in 2023 along with climate disasters such as wildfires, cyclones,
droughts, and floods. In this time, the focus of the public narrative – often with the participation of
scientists – has often been on whether we crossed the ‗magical‘ warming threshold of 1.5 degrees C.
The best estimates, derived from data recorded by instruments, say the planet is just under this
threshold.
Before we discuss the answer, let‘s remember that 1.5 degrees C is not a scientific threshold. It became
enshrined in the Paris Agreement after intense negotiations by member-countries of the U.N. Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). But it‘s not a round number by accident: it comes from a
figure – 2 degrees C – European politicians found easier to aim at in the 1990s.
Now a new study has added fuel to the fire of the threshold-crossing controversy. Based on estimates of
warming from palaeo-thermometry, scientists from Australia and the U.S. have said that the earth‘s
surface has already warmed by more than 1.5 degrees C on average over pre-industrial levels. A major
caveat of the study is that the scientists have collected warming data from only one location and have
extrapolated it to be indicative of the global mean temperature trend.
This said, these so-called ‗palaeo proxies‘ constitute an amazing technique that uses chemical evidence
stored in various organic matter, such as corals, stalactites, and stalagmites, to approximate the
temperature at some point in the past. But just as insightful as this chemical evidence can be, we should
remember that it is still only indirect evidence of temperature changes with respect to a baseline
temperature. The evidence can‘t measure the actual overall temperatures.
Researchers carefully calibrate the various chemical compounds assimilated by some species into their
biogenic materials – such as calcium carbonate or chalk – in modernity to establish the relationships
between those chemicals and the prevailing local temperature.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

When such a biogenic material from the past is found, scientists can piece together when the biogenic
material was deposited (using the quantity of certain isotopes that decay at a steady rate over time).
They then study the assimilated chemicals to deduce the temperature deviations during that time period.
The results are very local temperature anomaly estimates from the past, so they can‘t be the basis for
any scientifically robust claims about tiny deviations of past temperatures from instrumental records.
Source: [Link]
pattern-more-
important/[Link]?cx_testId=40&cx_testVariant=cx_1&cx_artPos=2&cx_experienceId=EX
WYN0X4FG0Z#cxrecs_s

19. What would be a suitable title for the passage?

(a) Negotiating Global Warming Limits: The Paris Agreement's Role
(b) Reviewing 2023: A Year of Climate Extremes
(c) Debating the 1.5°C Warming Threshold: A New Perspective
(d) Unveiling Palaeo-Thermometry: Decoding Earth's Past Temperatures
20. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is factual?
(a) The 1.5 degrees C threshold is defined by scientific consensus as a global warming limit.
(b) The referenced study utilized worldwide data to assert earth's warming exceeds 1.5 degrees C.
(c) Initially, the Paris Agreement targeted a global warming limit of 2 degrees C.
(d) Palaeo proxies offer direct measurements of historical global temperatures.

21. What constitutes the evidence used in palaeo-thermometry, as described in the passage?
(a) Direct temperature measurements from ancient thermometers.
(b) Chemical evidence stored in organic matter like corals and stalagmites.
(c) Modern temperature records extrapolated to estimate past climates.
(d) Fossil records of extinct species sensitive to climate changes.

22. Which opinion would the author most likely agree with?
(a) The 1.5 degrees C threshold serves as a precise scientific benchmark for global warming.
(b) Instrumental records are the only reliable method to measure historical global temperatures.
(c) Palaeo-thermometry provides valuable but indirect evidence of past temperature changes.
(d) Climate disasters in 2023 have conclusively proven we've crossed the 1.5 degrees C threshold.

23. What does the phrase "added fuel to the fire" imply in the context of the passage?
(a) Literally contributed to the increase in global wildfires.
(b) Introduced a new method of temperature measurement.
(c) Intensified the debate over the 1.5 degrees C warming threshold.
(d) Proved that the earth has definitively warmed by more than 1.5 degrees C.

24. What conclusion can be drawn from the passage about the use of palaeo-thermometry in global warming
studies?
(a) It is the most accurate method for determining past global temperatures.
(b) Its findings are too localized to make broad scientific claims about global temperatures.
(c) It has replaced instrumental records as the primary source of temperature data.
(d) Researchers have unanimously accepted its results as definitive evidence of global warming.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 11
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Between the last edition of the World Economic Forum and this one, the world has faced multiple
challenges — geopolitical emergencies, climate change, dips in growth trajectories of nations and the
threat of misuse of technology. Amidst all this, India has attracted attention with its standout growth
trajectory. Davos 2024 was an opportunity for India to share the highlights of its successes. The CII India
Business Hub buzzed with activity as business visitors took note of upcoming opportunities.
As an integrated global economy, India is impacted by geopolitical incidents. This places an extra
responsibility on the country to be a partner that lives up to and secures the ―trust‖, both from a
commercial viability as well as a geopolitical strategy perspective. Let me highlight a few important
conversations held at the CII venues.
First, with the government‘s steady and proactive reform announcements, India has been positioned as
a country that has effectively used technology to develop and deliver governance solutions at a mass
scale. With the conversation around Artificial Intelligence (AI) taking centre stage, discussions on how AI
can benefit all and ensure that the risks of AI are at the bare minimum level have taken place at Davos.
The digital leadership that India has established leads us to use AI in a smarter and better manner to
make businesses focused on delivering the right value and solutions. It also gives an opportunity to India
and Indian companies to take the lead in identifying where AI will be used, just like they have taken a
lead in adaptation of digital technologies at scale and viable cost.
Second, India has been taking a prominent position in the discussions at Davos on key global issues,
especially on aspects of socioeconomic importance. Participants at the women‘s special lounge
reiterated some key facts on Indian women‘s participation in growth. Ninety million are currently self-
employed with credit from financial institutions under the ambit of self-help groups. They manage
businesses at the grassroots worth annually $37 billion. Of the credit they take from financial institutions,
their non-performing assets (NPAs) are below 2.5 per cent. They have made a solid case for investment
by financial institutions in women-owned businesses.
Third, the conversations on energy are as critical as the ones on technology, especially with the thrust
WEF 2024 has put on climate change. Three developmental challenges related to energy transition were
stressed even as import dependence on oil is growing in tandem with the economic growth —
availability, affordability, and sustainability. While for the next many years, India will remain fossil-fuel
dependent, new sources such as green hydrogen can offer solutions. Any transition for India must be
conducted through non-disruptive processes that will require relevant policy strategies on pricing.
Source: [Link]
mark-9135588/

1. What was the primary focus of India's representation at Davos 2024?

(a) India's struggle with multiple challenges.
(b) India's commercial viability.
(c) India's growth trajectory and successes.
(d) India's geopolitical strategy.

2. According to the passage, what role does India play in the global AI conversation?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) India is a passive observer of AI developments.

(b) India uses AI for mass-scale governance solutions.
(c) India has little interest in discussions about AI.
(d) India is a follower in the adaptation of digital technologies.

3. What key facts about Indian women's participation in growth were reiterated at Davos?
(a) Indian women have minimal self-employment opportunities.
(b) Women's NPAs in India are a major concern for financial institutions.
(c) Women-managed businesses contribute significantly to the economy.
(d) Women entrepreneurs face challenges in getting credit from financial institutions.

4. What is the significance of discussions on energy at Davos?

(a) Energy discussions were secondary to technology discussions.
(b) Energy discussions focused solely on oil dependence.
(c) Energy discussions were crucial, especially in the context of climate change.
(d) Energy discussions emphasized complete independence from fossil fuels.

5. What does the passage suggest about India's energy transition?

(a) India is fully independent of fossil fuels.
(b) Green hydrogen is not considered a solution for India's energy transition.
(c) Any transition must be non-disruptive and requires relevant policy strategies.
(d) India's import dependence on oil will continue to decrease.

6. What is the overarching theme of India's role in the integrated global economy, according to the
passage?
(a) India's commitment to climate change initiatives.
(b) India's focus on geopolitical incidents.
(c) India's responsibility to secure trust in both commercial and geopolitical aspects.
(d) India's passive role in global economic affairs.
II. The facts in the following case came to me by letter from a young lady who lives in the beautiful city of
San Jose; she is perfectly unknown to me, and simply signs herself ―Aurelia Maria,‖ which may possibly
be a fictitious name. But no matter, the poor girl is almost heartbroken by the misfortunes she has
undergone, and so confused by the conflicting counsels of misguided friends and insidious enemies that
she does not know what course to pursue in order to extricate herself from the web of difficulties in which
she seems almost hopelessly involved. In this dilemma she turns to me for help, and supplicates for my
guidance and instruction with a moving eloquence that would touch the heart of a statue. Hear her sad
story:
She says that when she was sixteen years old she met and loved, with all the devotion of a passionate
nature, a young man from New Jersey, named Williamson Breckinridge Caruthers, who was some six
years her senior. They were engaged, with the free consent of their friends and relatives, and for a time it
seemed as if their career was destined to, be characterized by an immunity from sorrow beyond the
usual lot of humanity. But at last the tide of fortune turned; young Caruthers became infect with smallpox
of the most virulent type, and when he recovered from his illness his face was pitted like a waffle-mold,
and his comeliness gone forever. Aurelia thought to break off the engagement at first, but pity for her
unfortunate lover caused her to postpone the marriage-day for a season, and give him another trial.
The very day before the wedding was to have taken place, Breckinridge, while absorbed in watching the
flight of a balloon, walked into a well and fractured one of his legs, and it had to be taken off above the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

knee. Again Aurelia was moved to break the engagement, but again love triumphed, and she set the day
forward and gave him another chance to reform.
And again misfortune overtook the unhappy youth. He lost one arm by the premature discharge of a
Fourth of July cannon, and within three months he got the other pulled out by a carding-machine.
Aurelia‘s heart was almost crushed by these latter calamities. She could not but be deeply grieved to see
her lover passing from her by piecemeal, feeling, as she did, that he could not last forever under this
disastrous process of reduction, yet knowing of no way to stop its dreadful career, and in her tearful
despair she almost regretted, like brokers who hold on and lose, that she had not taken him at first,
before he had suffered such an alarming depreciation. Still, her brave soul bore her up, and she resolved
to bear with her friend‘s unnatural disposition yet a little longer.
Source: [Link]

7. Why does Aurelia Maria seek help in the letter?

(a) She is seeking advice on a personal matter.
(b) She is expressing gratitude for past help.
(c) She is requesting financial assistance.
(d) She is offering guidance to the author.

8. What misfortunes befall Williamson Breckinridge Caruthers?

(a) He loses his job.
(b) He contracts a severe illness.
(c) He suffers disfigurement and amputations.
(d) He faces financial difficulties.

9. Why does Aurelia Maria postpone the marriage at different points?

(a) Due to legal complications.
(b) Because of Breckinridge's changing appearance.
(c) Out of pity and love for Breckinridge.
(d) Because of family opposition.

10. How does the author describe Aurelia's emotional state?

(a) Joyful and carefree. (b) Regretful and resentful.
(c) Tearful and despairing. (d) Indifferent and apathetic.

11. What does Aurelia Maria almost regret in the passage?

(a) Taking Breckinridge as her lover.
(b) Postponing the marriage.
(c) Offering another chance to Breckinridge.
(d) Breaking off the engagement.

12. What is the author's tone in describing Aurelia Maria's situation?

(a) Sympathetic and understanding. (b) Critical and judgmental.
(c) Indifferent and detached. (d) Mocking and sarcastic.

III. The Supreme Court‘s suggestion for a mechanism to eliminate the perception of vendetta behind the use
of investigative agencies against political opponents is sound in principle, but may not address all
aspects of the problem. A case under formal investigation may be scrutinised for its legal tenability or
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

political motive, but such a mechanism can do nothing about offences and allegations that are covered
up for political reasons. During a recent hearing on a bribery case against an Enforcement Directorate
(ED) officer in Tamil Nadu, the ED sought the transfer of the probe to the CBI. It also charged that the
State police was not sharing details of FIRs it had registered on complaints against Ministers, officials
and others in instances of corruption and illegal mining. The ED, presumably, wants to probe the money-
laundering aspects of these offences, whereas the State government believes these details will be used
to target its ministers and officials as the State is run by a party opposed to the ruling BJP at the Centre.
The Bench‘s idea that an independent, pan-India mechanism to vet such cases appears reasonable.
However, much of the criticism of the use of central agencies against political adversaries of the BJP
stems from the view that similar allegations against its party members and allies across the country are
seldom investigated.
Corruption allegations abound in several States against key political figures seen as friendly to the
Centre, but the Opposition parties believe the CBI, ED and Income-Tax Department are hardly active
there. The Bench is right in observing that offenders should not be spared only because they claimed to
be victims of vendetta. Its remarks disapproving of retaliatory arrests are also salutary. However, despite
the Solicitor-General‘s argument that the courts could intervene in the case of vindictive action, it has to
be noted that the ED‘s power to summon and arrest anyone, and the difficulty in obtaining bail in money-
laundering cases, renders the Union government quite invincible if it chose persecution in the name of
prosecution. An unsavoury instance of how far politics over the use of central agencies can sully
institutions is the recent episode of a Calcutta High Court judge ordering a CBI probe into charges
against the ruling party in West Bengal, and a Division Bench staying the order. The single judge chose
to ignore the Bench‘s order, accusing its presiding judge of political motive. In a welcome move, the
Supreme Court formed a Bench of its senior-most judges and transferred the whole case file to itself for
disposal. The perception of vendetta can only be removed if all agencies chose independence over
subservience.
Source: [Link]
suggestion/[Link]

13. What is the Supreme Court's suggestion regarding the use of investigative agencies?
(a) The Supreme Court recommends disbanding investigative agencies.
(b) The Supreme Court suggests transferring investigative powers to the State police.
(c) The Supreme Court proposes a mechanism to eliminate the perception of vendetta.
(d) The Supreme Court advocates for increased use of investigative agencies against political
opponents.

14. Why does the Enforcement Directorate (ED) seek the transfer of a bribery case to the CBI?
(a) To speed up the investigation. (b) To avoid scrutiny.
(c) To probe money-laundering aspects. (d) To protect State police officials.

15. What is a concern raised by the Opposition parties?

(a) Lack of corruption allegations against key political figures.
(b) Overactivity of investigative agencies in certain States.
(c) Inactivity of central agencies in some States.
(d) The interference of the Supreme Court in investigative matters.

16. What does the Supreme Court disapprove of regarding retaliatory arrests?
(a) The delay in executing arrests.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The lack of arrests in corruption cases.

(c) The arbitrary and vindictive nature of arrests.
(d) The excessive use of force during arrests.

17. What does the passage cite as an example of how politics can sully institutions?
(a) The Supreme Court's interference in a CBI probe.
(b) The opposition's criticism of central agencies.
(c) A judge ordering a CBI probe into charges against the ruling party.
(d) The Supreme Court's disapproval of the use of central agencies.

18. What is the Supreme Court's view on the use of central agencies?
(a) The Supreme Court advocates for increased use of central agencies.
(b) The Supreme Court disapproves of the use of central agencies.
(c) The Supreme Court encourages the impartial use of central agencies.
(d) The Supreme Court calls for complete disbanding of central agencies.

IV. I do not claim that I can tell a story as it ought to be told. I only claim to know how a story ought to be
told, for I have been almost daily in the company of the most expert story-tellers for many years.
There are several kinds of stories, but only one difficult kind—the humorous. I will talk mainly about that
one. The humorous story is American, the comic story is English, the witty story is French. The
humorous story depends for its effect upon the manner of the telling; the comic story and the witty story
upon the matter.
The humorous story may be spun out to great length, and may wander around as much as it pleases,
and arrive nowhere in particular; but the comic and witty stories must be brief and end with a point. The
humorous story bubbles gently along, the others burst.
The humorous story is strictly a work of art—high and delicate art—and only an artist can tell it; but no art
is necessary in telling the comic and the witty story; anybody can do it. The art of telling a humorous
story—understand, I mean by word of mouth, not print—was created in America, and has remained at
home.
The humorous story is told gravely; the teller does his best to conceal the fact that he even dimly
suspects that there is anything funny about it; but the teller of the comic story tells you beforehand that it
is one of the funniest things he has ever heard, then tells it with eager delight, and is the first person to
laugh when he gets through. And sometimes, if he has had good success, he is so glad and happy that
he will repeat the ―nub‖ of it and glance around from face to face, collecting applause, and then repeat it
again. It is a pathetic thing to see.
Very often, of course, the rambling and disjointed humorous story finishes with a nub, point, snapper, or
whatever you like to call it. Then the listener must be alert, for in many cases the teller will divert
attention from that nub by dropping it in a carefully casual and indifferent way, with the pretence that he
does not know it is a nub.
Artemus Ward used that trick a good deal; then when the belated audience presently caught the joke he
would look up with innocent surprise, as if wondering what they had found to laugh at. Dan Setchell used
it before him, Nye and Riley and others use it to-day.
Source: [Link]

19. What is the main focus of the passage?

(a) The different types of stories and their origins.
(b) The distinction between humorous, comic, and witty stories.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The art of storytelling and its evolution.

(d) The tricks used by storytellers to engage the audience.

20. According to the passage, what makes the humorous story unique?
(a) It is exclusively American. (b) It depends on the matter of the story.
(c) It can be spun out to great length. (d) It always ends with a point.

21. What distinguishes the comic and witty stories from the humorous story?
(a) They are exclusively English and French, respectively.
(b) They must be brief and end with a point.
(c) They depend on the manner of telling.
(d) They can be spun out to great length.

22. According to the passage, what is the role of the teller in a humorous story?
(a) The teller eagerly delights in the story.
(b) The teller repeats the nub to collect applause.
(c) The teller conceals any suspicion of humor.
(d) The teller diverts attention from the nub.

23. What is the common trick used by storytellers to deliver the nub in a humorous story?
(a) Dropping the nub casually and indifferently.
(b) Repeating the nub with eager delight.
(c) Concealing the nub until the end.
(d) Looking up with innocent surprise after the nub.

24. What is the reason for the teller repeating the "nub"?
(a) To divert attention from the humorous element.
(b) To emphasize the importance of the nub.
(c) To collect applause from the audience.
(d) To allow the audience to grasp the humor.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 12
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. The concept of the "Sound of Silence" might initially appear as an oxymoron. Yet, when one finds
themselves alone, in a place somewhat removed from the daily commotion, an invitation to listen to the
solitude presents itself. This solitude, contrary to what one might expect, resonates with its own distinct
voice, melody, and narrative. The only prerequisites are time and patience to truly listen. It's about tuning
into the frequency of emptiness, allowing oneself to be enveloped by it.
In surrendering to this inner symphony, one can experience a gentle, yet assured, influx of positivity and
happiness, leading them down a path filled with cheerful contemplations. Some might argue that this is
akin to a form of wilful self-hypnosis. To a large extent, they are not wrong. However, the question arises:
Is there any harm in seeking happiness? Arguably, the pursuit of happiness should be a fundamental
goal in life.
Others interpret this experience as hearing the voice of one's soul in communion with the Absolute, to
which it inherently belongs. This perspective is equally valid. It suggests that by allowing the spirit the
freedom to explore the vastness of the unknown, one can begin to grasp the myriad possibilities that lie
ahead. The universe, in its entirety, is imbued with a benevolent presence, merely waiting to be
acknowledged and discovered.
This journey towards self-discovery and awareness is why seekers and sages throughout history have
periodically practiced maun vrat, or the vow of silence. By refraining from speech, they aim to listen more
intently to their inner selves and, in doing so, to the sound of silence. It is a profound belief that true
learning and understanding come from listening.
The sound of silence, therefore, is not an absence of noise but a presence of a deeper, almost ethereal
form of communication. It speaks to the core of our being, offering insights and truths that the cacophony
of everyday life often drowns out. In this silence, one can find a sense of peace, clarity, and a deeper
connection to the world around them.
This silence is not merely a lack of sound but a canvas for the inner symphony of thoughts, emotions,
and revelations that shape our consciousness. It is in these moments of quietude that one can truly
connect with the essence of existence, finding solace and understanding in the unspoken. The sound of
silence is, thus, a paradoxical guide to inner peace and self-realization, a journey that begins with the
simple act of listening.
In embracing the sound of silence, we open ourselves to a world of introspection and enlightenment. It is
a reminder that in the stillness lies the potential for growth, transformation, and the discovery of the
boundless joy that resides within us. The sound of silence is not just heard; it is felt, experienced, and
lived, offering a sanctuary for the soul in the midst of life's tumult.
Source: [Link]
silence/articleshow/[Link]

1. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The role of constant noise in attaining inner peace.
(b) Happiness found in external achievements and recognition.
(c) Silence's role in enhancing self-awareness and happiness.
(d) Loud activities as a means to discover one's life purpose.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. According to the passage, what is a significant benefit of embracing silence?

(a) Silence deepens connections with existence, offering peace and clarity.
(b) Silence offers an escape, providing temporary respite from life's challenges.
(c) Silence serves as a backdrop for meaningful conversations with others.
(d) Silence amplifies external sounds, making the world seem more vibrant.

3. How does the passage describe the experience of listening to the sound of silence?
(a) As a challenging endeavour that only a few can truly appreciate and understand.
(b) As an opportunity to engage in self-hypnosis for temporary relief from stress.
(c) As a journey towards self-discovery and awareness, akin to a form of meditation.
(d) As a passive activity that requires minimal effort and provides limited benefits.

4. In the context of the passage, which word is a synonym for "communion" as used in the phrase "in
communion with the Absolute"?
(a) Disagreement with the ultimate reality.
(b) Conversation with the highest truth.
(c) Separation from the fundamental essence.
(d) Union with the supreme being.

5. What synthesis can be drawn about the role of silence in personal growth, as discussed in the passage?
(a) Silence is an unnecessary aspect of life that offers little to no benefit for personal development.
(b) Silence acts merely as a background element that does not actively contribute to one's inner journey.
(c) Silence is a crucial element that facilitates introspection, leading to self-discovery and enlightenment.
(d) Silence should be avoided as it leads to isolation and disconnection from the world.

6. Based on the passage, what conclusion can be drawn about the pursuit of happiness through silence?
(a) It is an unrealistic goal that distracts individuals from achieving tangible success.
(b) It is a meaningful journey that enhances one's sense of peace and understanding.
(c) It is a temporary state that does not lead to lasting fulfillment or joy.
(d) It is a passive approach that fails to address the complexities of human emotions.

II. Environment
The Supreme Court of India recently issued an interim order that underscores the importance of
adhering to the established definition of forests and respecting the landmark TN Godavarman
Thirumulpad verdict from 1996. This directive came in response to petitions challenging the
government's introduction of the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 2023. This new
legislation, which supersedes the Forest (Conservation) Rules of 2022, raised concerns among
environmentalists and conservationists that it could potentially weaken the safeguards provided by the
Forest Conservation Act of 1980 and the pivotal Godavarman judgment.
A significant point of contention with the 2023 rules is their relaxation of protections on previously
unprotected forest areas. Critics argue that this could result in the reclassification of approximately
197,000 square kilometers of land, previously recognized as forest under the 1996 Supreme Court order
but not officially designated as such, thereby opening it up to possible exploitation. The rules introduced
provisions for allowing non-forest activities, including the establishment of zoos, safaris, and projects
deemed of national importance near international borders, as well as defense or public utility projects in
regions affected by Maoist activities, within these areas.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The Supreme Court's insistence on compliance with the 1996 order by the states and Union Territories,
setting a deadline for the submission of review reports, highlights the ongoing tension between
development interests and environmental conservation. The backdrop to this legal and environmental
discourse is the alarming rate at which India's forest cover has been diminishing. The ambiguity in
governmental policies towards forest conservation, coupled with the escalating climate crisis, signals an
impending ecological disaster. The reduction in forest areas not only exacerbates environmental
degradation but also increases the frequency and intensity of human-animal conflicts.
This situation calls for a balanced approach that does not pit development against environmental
preservation. Instead, the emphasis should be on the meticulous protection and restoration of forest
lands. The Supreme Court's directive serves as a reminder of the critical need to maintain the integrity of
India's forests, not only for the sake of biodiversity and ecological balance but also for the well-being and
sustainability of future generations. The decision to prioritize forest conservation over "non-forest"
purposes is a testament to the judiciary's role in safeguarding the environment against shortsighted
developmental policies.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

7. How does the author approach the discussion of the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam,
2023, and its implications for forest conservation?
(a) Optimistic (b) Indifferent
(c) Analytical (d) Alarmist

8. What is the Supreme Court of India's stance on the definition of forests and its protection, as described
in the passage?
(a) The Court focuses on economic benefits over the established forest definitions.
(b) The Court mandates adherence to the 1996 Godavarman judgment's forest definition.
(c) The Court favors reclassifying forests for key national development projects.
(d) The Court leaves forest definition decisions to states and Union Territories.

9. What underlying concern does the author suggest is exacerbated by the reduction in forest areas?
(a) The potential for increased recreational spaces due to the establishment of zoos and safaris.
(b) The likelihood of enhanced economic development from non-forest activities.
(c) The exacerbation of environmental degradation and the increase in human-animal conflicts.
(d) The improvement of defense and public utility infrastructure in Maoist-affected regions.

10. What does the phrase "alarming rate" imply in the context of India's forest cover reduction?
(a) A rate that is slightly concerning but generally manageable within current conservation efforts.
(b) A pace of decline that is slow and unlikely to have significant immediate effects on the environment.
(c) A speed of reduction that is causing widespread panic and immediate action from all sectors of
society.
(d) A pace of decline that is very concerning and necessitates urgent action to mitigate negative
impacts.

11. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage regarding the Supreme Court's directive?
(a) The Supreme Court has fully endorsed the new legislation as a positive step towards forest
conservation.
(b) The Supreme Court has remained neutral, offering no opinion on the impact of the new legislation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The Supreme Court has demanded strict compliance with a previous judgment to protect forest
areas.
(d) The Supreme Court has requested states to prioritize economic development over forest
conservation.

12. What figure of speech is used in the phrase "the backdrop to this legal and environmental discourse"?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile
(c) Personification (d) Metonymy

III. Architecture
The Indian built environment constantly negotiates ancient traditions, diverse population, and globalised
ambitions. When it comes to heritage preservation, these forces often converge to create a distinctive
approach to conservation efforts in the country. Beyond the conventional models seen in many parts of
the world, India's conservation projects intertwine historical practices, community engagement, and a
reverence for the living essence of buildings.
Despite India's particularly continuous civilization, the formal practice of conservation is said to have
emerged with the establishment of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) by the British in 1902. While
still in its early stages as a matter of broader public and professional concern, a wealth of knowledge is
evolving. Through a synthesis of indigenous experience and international collaboration, guidelines for
the preservation of Indian architectural and urban heritage are in development. The process seeks to
achieve a clearer definition of the Indian context in the realm of conservation planning.
Historical conservation projects were not concerned by the complexities of modern Indian lifestyles and
typically focused on addressing local challenges. Unlike the widely prevalent architect-mason-contractor
model, traditional conservation efforts involved a varied ensemble of professionals such as craftspeople,
astrologers, priests and local heads, ecologists, and more. Similar to contemporary construction projects
that demand a collaborative and multidisciplinary effort, traditional restoration engaged the entire
community as active stakeholders.
Indian structures, especially religious buildings, are perceived as living beings with their own life force.
The conservation of temples, residences, and other heritage sites involves rituals that go beyond the
tangible elements. Seeking approval from deities and trees before initiating work and conducting rituals
akin to anesthesia to draw energies to specific areas are integral aspects of the conservation process.
India grapples with a delicate balance of preserving tradition while navigating rapid modernization. The
built environment, where the old and the new coexist, reflects these complexities. Challenges in
conservation lie not only in physical preservation but also in maintaining functional relevance amid
shifting societal patterns.
While historic religious structures usually retain societal significance, other architecture, such as palaces
and residential buildings, struggle with remaining culturally relevant. Shifting social patterns, such as the
transition from joint families to nuclear families, impact the relevance of these structures in modern times.
Yet, they are indispensable to the built landscape, serving as crucial threads connecting citizens to their
cultural identity.
Source: [Link]
cultures

13. When was the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) established, marking the formal beginning of
conservation practices in India?
(a) In 1857, during the early British colonial period.
(b) In 1902, by the British to oversee archaeological and conservation efforts.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) In 1947, coinciding with India's independence from British rule.

(d) In 1980, as part of India's modernization efforts in heritage conservation.

14. Which of the following statements does the author most likely agree with?
(a) The conservation of Indian heritage sites is a dynamic process that incorporates rituals and
community engagement.
(b) Conservation in India strictly adheres to the architect-mason-contractor model, ignoring traditional
practices.
(c) Modern conservation efforts in India completely disregard the involvement of local communities and
traditional practices.
(d) Indian conservation projects are less complex and easier to manage than those in other parts of the
world.

15. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage?

(a) The British establishment of the ASI in 1902 marked the beginning of formal conservation practices
in India.
(b) Rituals and seeking approvals from deities and trees are common practices in Indian conservation
efforts.
(c) Traditional Indian conservation projects focused solely on the physical restoration, overlooking the
cultural essence.
(d) Maintaining the relevance of heritage sites amidst societal changes is a significant challenge in India.
16. In the passage, the term "negotiates" most closely means:
(a) Engages in formal discussions to reach a business agreement.
(b) Manages or navigates through complex situations or obstacles.
(c) Legally binds agreements between two parties.
(d) Competes for dominance in a challenging environment.

17. Tone of the passage:

(a) Optimistic (b) Sceptical
(c) Neutral (d) Critical

18. Which statement is supported by the passage regarding conservation efforts in India?
(a) The ASI's 1902 establishment is portrayed as the singular force behind India's conservation
practices.
(b) Traditional conservation methods in India are depicted as prioritising expert advice over community
input.
(c) Contemporary conservation projects in India are described as excluding rituals and cultural
traditions.
(d) Conservation in India includes a diverse mix of professionals and community, beyond architects and
contractors.

IV. Psychology
In a world where people say appearances don‘t matter, looks have a significant impact on every
individual‘s life. We humans always have a thing about first impressions. First impressions hold a very
remarkable power. Though we keep on saying appearances are deceptive, appearances do influence
and impact our lives in various ways. This article delves into the various aspects regarding the
psychology of appearance.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

To begin with, appearance can be referred to as an individual‘s outward physical characteristics like
facial features, hair colour and style, body composition, what an individual wears, and other accessories.
It could simply be stated as how an individual wants and wishes to present themselves to the external
world. The psychology of appearance can simply be stated as what, how, and why aspects of an
individual‘s looks and appearance impact the way they think, feel, and behave either positively or
negatively.
The world as ours is a complex and competitive environment. This ecology tends to influence our
thinking (cognition), feelings (emotion), acting (behaviour), and the way we respond and reach out to
others. The way you are and what you wear can create a greater influence on how you and others
perceive you.
Appearances do affect the demand for employment, interpersonal relationships, social relationships, etc.
It can influence your achievements and success. Research has also stated that appearance or looks can
even affect human happiness. So, that‘s how important and impactful appearance or our looks are. It has
a significant impact on forming first impressions. It has a greater influence on having social interactions
and attraction towards one another.
Social media is a booming platform that‘s been used widely by almost all of the age groups. Social media
has a multifaceted face that offers so many things either positively or negatively. As much as positive
things social media holds, it widely has a pessimistic influence. It makes an individual look more
presentable with the addition of filters that create an alternative reality. It has the potential to affect self-
esteem. It holds the pressure of being presentable and perfect almost all the time. This creates pressure.
It at times has a constant comparison and urges to bring envy and jealousy among individuals. This
would create a distorted perception of an individual‘s own body. This would tend to create a distorted
image perception. This leads to increased doubt about the individual‘s self-comparison and self-esteem.
Source: [Link]

19. Which of the following best describes the author's stance on the impact of appearances in our lives?
(a) Appearances are superficial and hold no real value in society.
(b) The significance of appearances is overstated, and their impact is minimal.
(c) Appearances play a crucial role in shaping our interactions and perceptions.
(d) The focus on appearances is a recent phenomenon driven by social media.

20. Which of the following idioms best represents the ―Social media has a multifaceted face that offers so
many things either positively or negatively‖?
(a) A double-edged sword (b) Beating around the bush
(c) A piece of cake (d) Out of the blue

21. According to the passage, how does appearance affect an individual's life?
(a) It primarily influences their success in personal relationships.
(b) It has a significant impact on employment and social interactions.
(c) It affects their happiness but has little effect on professional success.
(d) It is a minor factor in forming first impressions and has negligible effects otherwise.

22. What can be inferred about the role of appearance in human happiness according to the passage?
(a) Appearance is indirectly related to happiness through its impact on social media perceptions.
(b) The influence of appearance on happiness is negligible and often overstated.
(c) Appearance significantly affects human happiness by influencing various life aspects.
(d) Happiness is solely determined by personal achievements, with appearance playing no role.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

23. How does the passage describe the effect of social media on individuals' perceptions of appearance?
(a) Social media enhances self-esteem by offering platforms for positive self-expression.
(b) It creates a distorted perception of reality, leading to increased self-doubt and jealousy.
(c) Social media has no significant impact on individuals' perceptions of their appearance.
(d) It provides a realistic and healthy platform for individuals to compare themselves with others.

24. What is the most appropriate title for the passage?

(a) The Superficiality of Social Media
(b) The Complex Influence of Appearance on Life
(c) Dressing for Success: The Power of First Impressions
(d) The Psychology of Fashion and Personal Style
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 13
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Energy
The solar manufacturing sector in India stands at a pivotal moment, presenting significant potential for
growth and employment opportunities. Historically, India has been a laggard in the manufacturing
landscape of the solar industry, relying heavily on imports and expertise from foreign markets.
Consequently, this dependency has led to a scarcity of skilled manpower and a deficiency in indigenous
technological capabilities.
The solar manufacturing sector offers a unique set of challenges and opportunities. The spillover effect
of manufacturing is particularly noteworthy, creating employment not only within the industry but also
generating a ripple effect across related sectors. As the global demand for solar products rises, the
necessity for skilled workers in manufacturing, project planning, and execution becomes increasingly
pronounced.
India's reliance on imports has impeded the development of a robust solar manufacturing ecosystem.
However, there is a positive shift underway as both Central and State governments emphasise
manufacturing. Initiatives like "Make in India" and incentives for the solar industry are expected to foster
a conducive environment for skill development within the nation.
A primary challenge has been the limited pool of skilled workers and a lack of project planning and
execution experience in the solar manufacturing domain. To address this, cross-industry resources must
be mobilised to fill existing gaps. With the improving demand situation and concerted efforts by the
Indian government to boost manufacturing, the solar sector is poised to observe significant expansion.
Also, once industrial manufacturing picks up scale, it will take the R&D sector along, adding high-level
technological inventions and innovations from Indian institutions.
As India aligns itself with global competitors in both scale and technology, the solar manufacturing sector
is positioned to be a major contributor to employment, economic growth, and sustainability. With the
implementation of the right HR strategies and government support, India has the potential to emerge as
a key player in the solar manufacturing landscape in the coming years.
In conclusion, India's solar manufacturing sector is undergoing a transformative phase, marked by a shift
from dependency on imports to fostering indigenous capabilities. Despite historical challenges in skill
shortages and limited technological expertise, concerted efforts from both government and industry
stakeholders are driving significant progress. Initiatives like "Make in India" and incentivization schemes
are propelling the growth of a robust manufacturing ecosystem. However, challenges persist, particularly
in addressing the shortage of skilled workers and enhancing project planning and execution capabilities.
Collaboration across industries and continued government support will be crucial in overcoming these
hurdles.
Source: [Link]

1. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
(a) The primary obstacle to India's solar manufacturing growth is the lack of government interest in
renewable energy sectors.
(b) The solar manufacturing sector in India does not have the potential to significantly impact the
country's employment rates.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) India's solar manufacturing sector's development is significantly hindered by its reliance on foreign
imports and expertise.
(d) Skilled manpower is readily available in India, making it a leading country in solar manufacturing.

2. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) Insufficient government support has hindered solar sector growth.
(b) India's solar sector is nearing a significant breakthrough.
(c) Skill shortages alone slow the solar sector's growth.
(d) Foreign imports are key to the solar sector's development.

3. In the context of the passage, what does the term "spillover effect" most likely mean?
(a) Economic benefits impacting related industries and employment.
(b) Release of harmful chemicals during solar panel production.
(c) Market overflow reducing solar product prices and profits.
(d) Spread of solar technology to developing countries without pay.

4. How does the passage suggest India can overcome its challenges in the solar manufacturing sector?
(a) By continuing to rely on foreign imports and expertise without focusing on domestic capabilities.
(b) Through the mobilization of cross-industry resources to address skill and technology gaps.
(c) Solely by increasing government funding without industry participation or strategic planning.
(d) By limiting the expansion of the solar sector to avoid the complexities of global competition.

5. Which of the following is a factual statement based on the passage?

(a) India has always been a leader in solar manufacturing, setting global standards.
(b) The Indian government has shown no interest in the solar manufacturing sector.
(c) "Make in India" and other incentives are fostering a conducive environment for solar manufacturing.
(d) The global demand for solar products is declining, affecting India's growth prospects.

6. What would be a suitable title for the passage?

(a) Declining Trends in Solar Manufacturing
(b) From Dependency to Self-Reliance in Solar
(c) India's Solar Sector's Global Leadership
(d) Solar Energy's Diminishing Significance

II. Food Security

Locusts are migratory insects that can form massive swarms and devour crops, causing famine and
hunger in many regions of the world. They are considered the most destructive migratory pest by the
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. In recent years, locust outbreaks have
become more frequent and severe, especially in Africa and the Middle East. The worst outbreak in years
occurred when billions of desert locusts invaded East Africa and damaged farmland, affecting millions of
people‘s livelihoods and food security.
But what causes these outbreaks and how are they related to climate change? A new study published in
Science Advances has shed some light on this question. The study analysed data on locust outbreaks.
The research uncovered a compelling correlation between the intensity of locust infestations and various
meteorological and environmental factors. These include air temperature, precipitation patterns, soil
moisture levels, and wind dynamics.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The researchers found that extreme weather events, such as heavy rainfall and strong winds, can create
favorable conditions for locust breeding and migration. For example, heavy rainfall can increase soil
moisture and vegetation growth, which provide food and shelter for locusts. Strong winds can help
locusts travel long distances and cross borders, spreading the infestation to new areas.
The study also found that human-caused climate change is likely to intensify these weather patterns and
increase the risk of locust outbreaks in the future. According to the study, climate change will make
extreme weather events more frequent and severe, creating more opportunities for locusts to multiply
and disperse. The study estimated that the probability of locust outbreaks will increase significantly by
the end of the century under a high-emission scenario.
The implications of these findings are alarming, as locust outbreaks pose a serious threat to food
security and livelihoods in many parts of the world. According to the FAO, locust outbreaks can affect the
food security of a significant portion of the world‘s population. Locusts can also cause environmental
damage, such as soil erosion, water pollution, and loss of biodiversity.
The study called for better regional and continental cooperation among countries and control
organizations to prevent and control locust outbreaks, as well as to build early warning systems and
improve forecasting models. The study also suggested that adaptation measures, such as crop
diversification, irrigation management, and pest-resistant varieties, could help reduce the vulnerability of
farmers to locust attacks.
Locust outbreaks are a complex and dynamic phenomenon that requires a holistic and integrated
approach to address. As climate change continues to alter the weather and land conditions that influence
locust dynamics, the need for more research and action becomes more urgent and vital.
Source: [Link]
outbreaks-and-threaten-food-security/articleshow/[Link]

7. What evidence does the study published in Science Advances use to link locust outbreaks to climate
change?
(a) Analysis of historical locust outbreaks and their impact on ancient civilizations.
(b) Examination of locust genetics to understand their adaptation to changing climates.
(c) Correlation between locust infestations and meteorological/environmental factors.
(d) Predictive modelling based on future global economic trends and locust feeding patterns.

8. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?

(a) Locust outbreaks are unaffected by human activities.
(b) Locust outbreaks will decrease by century's end.
(c) Rainfall and winds barely affect locust patterns.
(d) Climate change increases the risk of locust outbreaks.

9. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the future of locust outbreaks?
(a) With global efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, locust outbreaks will become a problem of
the past.
(b) The increase in locust outbreaks will likely necessitate a shift in global agricultural practices to more
resilient crops.
(c) Locust outbreaks will become less of a concern as modern technology enables precise control over
their populations.
(d) The frequency of locust outbreaks will remain constant, unaffected by changes in climate or human
intervention.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

10. What does the term "holistic" imply as used in the context of addressing locust outbreaks in the
passage?
(a) Focusing exclusively on the use of pesticides to eliminate locusts.
(b) Considering only the climatic factors that lead to locust breeding.
(c) Implementing solutions that are solely technology-driven without considering natural ecosystems.
(d) Taking into account all aspects, including environmental, agricultural, and socio-economic factors.

11. According to the passage, what is a direct consequence of heavy rainfall on locust outbreaks?
(a) It leads to a decrease in locust populations due to flooding of their habitats.
(b) It increases soil moisture and vegetation growth, aiding locust survival and breeding.
(c) It has no significant impact on locust behaviour or population dynamics.
(d) It causes locusts to migrate to drier areas, reducing the risk of outbreaks.

12. Which of the following idioms best represents the ―given statement from the passage‖?
"The study called for better regional and continental cooperation among countries and control
organizations to prevent and control locust outbreaks."
(a) "Biting off more than you can chew." (b) "Jumping on the bandwagon."
(c) "Many hands make light work." (d) "Beating around the bush."

III. Motivation
Religion is not superstition; it is not belief. It is not at all a dogma in which you can believe; it is
something to be experienced. Just as science works through experimentation, religion works through
experimentation. The experiment of religion is, of course, far deeper than that of science, far more
individual, personal. Science and its inquiry are collective, objective; others can watch. But when you are
moving into meditation, except for you nobody else will be there to witness it.
Of course, others will be able to see that something is happening to you, but what exactly it is they will
never be able to decipher. Something mysterious will start surrounding you, and those who are very
perceptive will be able to have some glimpse that you are no longer the same old person. Something
new has entered your life. You have changed - but to what exactly, there is no way to judge from the
outside or to measure from the outside. Only you know it.
It is like love: if you love, you know. Prayer is even deeper, far deeper than love. Meditation is the
deepest; there is no more depth than meditation. But one thing which modern man has completely
forgotten has to be remembered, that religion is also a science.
All the so-called modern thinkers go on saying that religion is superstitious, it is dogmatic, that it is
nothing but blind belief. All these assertions are basically wrong. They are true about people who have
been conditioned as Christians and Hindus, who have never explored on their own what exactly it is,
who have simply believed as a formality. They go to church every Sunday, just as a social formality.
These are just good meeting places. They give you a certain kind of social status. People think that you
are religious, that you are a good person.
To be religious one needs a really daring spirit, such a deep desire and thirst for truth that even if life has
to be sacrificed, one is ready for it. Those few people are religious - and they are not superstitious at all.
Religion is a very precise science of creating clarity, perceptiveness, and transparency within your being,
so that you can see things as they are, and the moment you see things as they are you know what
godliness is. Just as you know when the sun rises that light is. No other proof is needed. Proofs are
needed only for believers; for those who have experienced, experience is self-evident.
Source: [Link]
clarity/articleshow/[Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

13. What does the author imply by stating that religion is also a science?
(a) Both religion and science are based on unyielding beliefs to decipher life's mysteries.
(b) Science and religion parallel in requiring observation and personal trials, such as meditation.
(c) Religion, diverging from science, bases its claims on the untestable aspects of the supernatural.
(d) Completely distinct, science and religion pursue their inquiries with no shared methodologies.

14. According to the passage, how does the experience of meditation differ from scientific inquiry?
(a) Meditation, observable and measurable by others, parallels the collective nature of science.
(b) Meditation's outward effects provide clear, visible proof of change, unlike science's outcomes.
(c) Meditation is a personal journey, unseen and unmeasured by others, diverging from science.
(d) Both meditation and science yield instant, visible proofs of their effects to the practitioner.

15. Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage?

(a) Modern thinkers err in viewing religion as mere superstition and dogma.
(b) Religiousness mandates strict ritual and social event participation.
(c) True religion involves deep personal exploration, not just belief.
(d) Religion offers clarity and insight, much like sunrise brings light.

16. How does the author approach the discussion of the nature of religion compared to science?
(a) Philosophical (b) Skeptical
(c) Analytical (d) Cynical
17. With which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree?
(a) Religion requires no external validation, as its truths are known experientially to the practitioner.
(b) The practice of religion, much like scientific inquiry, can be externally observed and quantified.
(c) True religiousness is a matter of personal journey and discovery, not just adherence to rituals.
(d) Religion and science both serve as means to explore and understand the world around us.

18. What does the author imply by "religion is also a science"?

(a) Religion adheres to unchangeable dogmas, paralleling science's fixed laws.
(b) Like science, religion demands empirical evidence for its comprehension.
(c) Religion and science share inquiry methods, though their paths diverge.
(d) Religion and science stand in opposition: one faith-based, the other proof-reliant.

IV. World News

A new global agreement on tackling fisheries subsidies that lead to overcapacity and overfishing could
be sealed when the World Trade Organization holds its ministerial conference next week. Negotiations in
recent months at the WTO headquarters in Geneva have enabled a draft text to be brought forward,
ahead of the biennial meeting being held in Abu Dhabi.
India — which is often described as an obstructionist element in trade talks — is calling all the shots.
Recent research shows that the top five subsidies are China, the European Union, the United States,
South Korea, and Japan. Combined, those five represent a significant percentage of total global
subsidies. About two-thirds of China‘s subsidies are capacity-enhancing subsidies — building bigger
vessels and tools to scrape large swathes of the ocean floor quickly.
The text is a huge step in the right direction. Hats off to WTO members for getting this far. But recent
efforts by India and others to water it down threaten to undermine the effectiveness of the agreement. If
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

developing countries like India are exempt for a significant period, then it would undermine the
effectiveness of the entire agreement.
India is often a naysayer on trade agreements. It's not clear if they really don't want to do this deal or if
they are trying to gain leverage in other areas. That is a common negotiating tactic. And India has done
that in the past. But it's unfortunate, because they can be quite obstructionist.
India says they are a victim of overfishing by subsidised large foreign vessels — e.g., China — fishing in
and around their waters. That would suggest India actually has a lot to gain from this agreement. Recent
research by two prominent Indian economists demonstrates with substantial data and evidence that
India's fishers suffer from subsidised overfishing from large foreign vessels. It shows that India's small-
scale fishers and local coastal communities are especially hurt from that overfishing activity, which has
led to declining catches for the locals.
Meanwhile, many Caribbean countries have said they don't want a long transition period. If India really
wants to be a leader of the global south, this is a great opportunity for them to stand up for coastal
nations that are developing countries that are victims of large foreign fleets.
Signing the agreement is one thing, but the real success or failure of it will depend on implementation. All
of our research shows that transparency will be essential to achieve effective implementation of this
agreement. Fishers need readily available information on which fish stocks have been overfished and
which have not. Coastal nations need to be transparent on their determinations of overfishing activities.
Source: [Link]
deal/[Link]

19. What is the primary reason India opposes the draft agreement on fisheries subsidies, according to the
passage?
(a) India aims to leverage its negotiating position to secure favourable outcomes in unrelated trade
agreements.
(b) India perceives the agreement as favouring larger, developed nations over smaller, developing ones.
(c) India argues the agreement fails to adequately tackle overfishing by large foreign fleets in its waters.
(d) India seeks an extended transition period to better prepare its local fishing communities for the
agreement's impacts.

20. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the effectiveness of the new fisheries subsidy
agreement?
(a) The agreement's effectiveness is largely dependent on the transparent sharing of data on overfished
stocks.
(b) The strict adherence of major economies to the agreement is seen as a critical factor for its success.
(c) Immediate effectiveness of the agreement is anticipated upon signing, without further need for
implementation.
(d) Exemptions for developing countries are believed to enhance the agreement's effectiveness through
gradual compliance.

21. In the passage, the word "overfishing" is used primarily as a:

(a) Noun (b) Verb
(c) Adjective (d) Adverb

22. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) India's economic policies' global trade impact.
(b) Negotiating a new WTO fisheries subsidy agreement.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) India's leverage strategies in global trade talks.

(d) Major economies' influence on environmental policies.

23. What does the term "obstructionist" imply as used in the passage regarding India's stance on trade
talks?
(a) India supports and advances international trade agreements.
(b) India adopts a cooperative stance in negotiations.
(c) India opposes and delays trade talks progress.
(d) India remains neutral in trade policy formulation.

24. Based on the passage, what conclusion can be drawn regarding the effectiveness of the fisheries
subsidy agreement?
(a) The agreement will be universally acclaimed for its comprehensive approach to solving overfishing.
(b) Its success is contingent upon the inclusion of stringent transparency measures and widespread
adherence.
(c) It will immediately resolve all issues related to overfishing and fisheries subsidies upon adoption.
(d) Developing countries' exemptions will inherently enhance the agreement's overall effectiveness.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 14
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Law
The Supreme Court of India has come out heavily against another archaic idea with patriarchal
overtones by observing that rules which penalise women employees for getting married are
unconstitutional. ―Terminating employment because the woman has got married is a coarse case of
gender discrimination and inequality. Acceptance of such [a] patriarchal rule undermines human dignity,
right to non-discrimination and fair treatment.‖ The observations were part of an order which upheld the
rights of Selina John, a former lieutenant and Permanent Commissioner Officer in the Military Nursing
Service, who was discharged from service in 1988 for getting married. A Bench headed by Justice Sanjiv
Khanna directed the Union Government to pay Ms. John Rs. 60 lakh in compensation within eight
weeks. The government had appealed in the top court against a decision of the Lucknow Bench of the
Armed Forces Tribunal which had ruled in her favour in 2016. Pointing out that her dismissal was ―wrong
and illegal‖, the Court noted that the rule against marriage was applicable only to women nursing
officers. Women have been fighting a long and uphill battle for gender parity in the Army — they were
granted permanent commission after judgments in 2020 and 2021. Words to the effect that the Indian
Army is encouraging more women to join the forces have to be backed by deeds.
It is not that the civilian space is much better off, and women are often asked uncomfortable personal
questions at job interviews. They are quizzed about future plans on marriage and motherhood. If labour
participation of women in the workforce has to increase — in the latest Periodic Labour Force data
(October-December 2023), India‘s is at an abysmal 19.9% for women of all ages — then barriers in
education, employment, and opportunities, not to talk of bullying mindsets, have to be broken down. It is
a fact that many girls, especially among the poor, have to drop out of school for various reasons, from
economic to lack of proper toilets. The UN‘s Gender Snapshot 2023 had provided a grim picture of
where the world is on gender parity, pointing out that if course correction measures are not taken, the
next generation of women will still spend a disproportionate amount of time on housework and duties
compared to men, and stay off leadership roles. The schemes routinely announced by the government
for girls and women will mean little on the ground if they have to abide by restrictive social and cultural
norms. The Court‘s words that rules making marriage of women employees and their domestic
involvement a ground for disentitlement are unconstitutional should be heard by all organisations so that
the workplace becomes an enabler, and not a hurdle.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
discrimination-on-the-union-of-india-and-others-vs-ex-lt-selina-john-case/[Link]

1. What can be inferred about the Supreme Court of India's stance on gender equality from its decision in
the case of Selina John?
(a) The Court views gender equality as a matter of legal interpretation rather than a societal issue.
(b) The Court is taking a proactive role in challenging and dismantling systemic gender biases in
employment.
(c) The Court believes that compensation can fully rectify the injustices faced by women due to gender
discrimination.
(d) The Court's decisions are influenced by international norms and standards rather than domestic law.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. How does the Supreme Court's observation on employment termination due to marriage reflect broader
societal issues?
(a) It suggests that employment laws are the primary arena where gender biases manifest.
(b) It underscores the prevalence of patriarchal norms in both public and private sectors.
(c) It implies that legal actions alone are sufficient to combat gender inequality.
(d) It indicates that gender discrimination is a recent phenomenon in the workforce.

3. What title best encapsulates the essence and implications of the Supreme Court's actions as discussed
in the passage?
(a) Legal Remedies for Gender Discrimination: A New Dawn
(b) The Economic Impact of Gender Equality in the Workplace
(c) Bridging the Gap: From Legal Judgments to Societal Change
(d) Gender Discrimination: A Legal Analysis

4. What is the central idea conveyed by the passage regarding the Supreme Court's decision on the
termination of women's employment due to marriage?
(a) The Supreme Court's decision is an isolated incident that addresses individual grievances without
broader societal implications.
(b) The decision reflects a significant step towards dismantling entrenched patriarchal norms and
promoting gender equality in the workplace.
(c) This legal ruling primarily serves to highlight the financial compensation aspects of gender
discrimination cases.
(d) The ruling is an endorsement of traditional roles and norms that have historically governed the
workplace.

5. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

(a) An examination of India's legal system's responsiveness to gender discrimination, highlighting a
specific Supreme Court ruling as a case study.
(b) A critique of the Indian workforce's gender disparities, with a focus on the legal system's failures to
address these issues adequately.
(c) An overview of gender discrimination in the workplace, emphasizing the Supreme Court's proactive
role in addressing these challenges.
(d) A detailed account of Selina John's legal battle for compensation, underscoring the financial aspects
of gender discrimination cases.

6. Which term best reflects the Supreme Court's stance on rules penalizing women for marriage, as
discussed in the passage?
(a) Endorsement (b) Ambivalence
(c) Condemnation (d) Indifference

II. Science
Scientists have no reported evidence of the true conditions in Hell, perhaps because no one has ever
returned to tell the tale. Hell has been imagined as a supremely uncomfortable place, hot and hostile to
bodily forms of human life.
Thanks to a huge astronomical survey of the entire sky, we have now found what may be the most
hellish place in the universe.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

In a new paper in Nature Astronomy, we describe a black hole surrounded by the largest and brightest
disc of captive matter ever discovered. The object, called J0529-4351, is therefore also the brightest
object found so far in the universe.
Astronomers have already found around one million fast-growing supermassive black holes across the
universe, the kind that sit at the centres of galaxies and are as massive as millions or billions of Suns.
To grow rapidly, they pull stars and gas clouds out of stable orbits and drag them into a ring of orbiting
material called an accretion disc. Once there, very little material escapes; the disc is a mere holding
pattern for material that will soon be devoured by the black hole.
The disc is heated by friction as the material in it rubs together. Pack in enough material and the glow of
the heat gets so bright that it outshines thousands of galaxies and makes the black hole‘s feeding frenzy
visible to us on Earth, more than 12 billion light years away.
The accretion disc of J0529-4351 emits light that is 500 trillion times more intense than that of our Sun.
Such a staggering amount of energy can only be released if the black hole eats about a Sun worth of
material every day.
It must also have a large mass already. Our data indicate J0529-4351 is 15 to 20 billion times the mass
of our Sun.
There is no need to be afraid of such black holes. The light from this monster has taken more than 12
billion years to reach us, which means it would have stopped growing long ago.
In the nearby universe, we see that supermassive black holes these days are mostly sleeping giants.
The age of the black hole feeding frenzy is over because the gas floating around in galaxies has mostly
been turned into stars. And after billions of years the stars have sorted themselves into orderly patterns:
they are mostly on long, neat orbits around the black holes that sleep in the cores of their galaxies.
Even if a star dove suddenly down towards the black hole, it would most likely carry out a slingshot
manoeuvre and escape again in a different direction."
Source: [Link]
a-day-222612

7. What insight does the discovery of J0529-4351 provide about the early universe?
(a) Indicates a universe characterized by calmness and minimal celestial occurrences.
(b) Suggests an era dominated by intense astronomical events and black holes' material consumption.
(c) Implies civilizations' influence on galactic formations beyond our current comprehension.
(d) Points to a time when black holes were smaller and exhibited less activity than observed today.

8. Which statement best captures the passage's central theme regarding the discovery of J0529-4351?
(a) Revises existing beliefs on the scalability and growth patterns of black holes across the cosmos.
(b) Emphasizes a contemporary era where black holes and stellar bodies coexist without conflict.
(c) Highlights the technological challenges faced in observing remote celestial bodies and phenomena.
(d) Illustrates the universe's evolution from a period of high activity to a more orderly cosmic
environment.

9. What can be inferred about the direction of future black hole research from the passage?
(a) Waning interest due to their perceived inactivity and diminished role in cosmic dynamics.
(b) An ongoing search for even larger and more luminous black holes to redefine cosmic understanding.
(c) A pivot towards the study of stellar and galactic formation, moving away from black hole dynamics.
(d) Persistent exploration of the universe's early conditions through the lens of supermassive black
holes.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

10. How does the discovery of J0529-4351 alter our understanding of supermassive black holes?
(a) Confirms black holes' primarily dormant nature and rare material consumption.
(b) Highlights an era of intense activity and material consumption by black holes.
(c) Suggests consistent behavior of black holes without significant evolutionary changes.
(d) Reveals an unexpected period of growth and intense material accumulation.

11. Which figure of speech is employed in describing J0529-4351 as "the most hellish place in the
universe"?
(a) Simile, comparing the black hole to Hell using "like" or "as."
(b) Metaphor, comparing J0529-4351 to Hell directly without "like" or "as."
(c) Personification, attributing human qualities to J0529-4351.
(d) Hyperbole, exaggerating J0529-4351's characteristics.

12. What does the term "accretion disc" imply about the nature of J0529-4351?
(a) A stable structure around the black hole, showing little activity.
(b) A dynamic structure characterized by intense friction and brightness.
(c) A barrier preventing material from being consumed by the black hole.
(d) A theoretical concept not yet observed in black holes.

III. Economy
Globalisation has turned the world economy into a giant, interconnected web. This has made job
markets fiercely competitive and talent and opportunities in the labour market more diverse and digitally
accessible.
Jobs can be widely publicised and explored online and are no longer tied to your city of birth. Add to this
the rapid technological progress. We now live in a world where the skills you learned yesterday might not
be enough for today‘s job market.
The job market is transforming, with new careers emerging as automation and artificial intelligence (AI)
advances. Risks and price policies can be efficiently assessed using AI, making insurance underwriters
redundant while advanced software in banking and finance mean data analysis can be automated.
Online booking has reduced demand for travel agents and desktop publishers are being replaced by
user-friendly software, which allows people to create their own materials. These changes highlight the
need for professionals to update their skills and adapt to a technologically evolving job market.
As a result, career paths have become fluid and multi-directional. It‘s no longer just about climbing the
corporate ladder and getting a regular paycheck; it‘s about exploring different paths, switching jobs and
industries and sometimes even venturing into freelancing and the gig economy.
The COVID-19 pandemic has thrown this trend into overdrive. It has highlighted the need for workers
and employers to be flexible to adjust to remote work, evolving job demands and uncertain prospects.
Many people have reevaluated their career choices. They want greater work/life balance and adaptability
in a changing world.
Increasingly, many workers are developing a personal brand, which involves building a narrative based
on their individual skills. This is enriched through online education and skill development courses which
makes them stand out in the workplace and more likely to access better opportunities.
But if employers don‘t provide opportunities to use these skills, employees might decide to look
elsewhere.
Loyalty is defined as an employee‘s commitment to their organisation and its goals. It means a
willingness to put in extra effort and to uphold the company‘s values and objectives. Loyal workers often
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

identify strongly with their workplace, are reliable and view the organisation positively, even during tough
times."
Source: [Link]
many-jobs-across-multiple-industries-222753

13. What impact has technological progress had on the traditional job market according to the passage?
(a) It has stabilized job markets by ensuring that traditional skills remain relevant.
(b) It has enhanced the role of travel agents and desktop publishers by introducing advanced software.
(c) It has necessitated the continuous update of professional skills to adapt to technological
advancements.
(d) It has diminished the importance of personal branding in the pursuit of career advancement.

14. Based on the passage, how has the COVID-19 pandemic influenced workers' attitudes towards their
careers?
(a) Fostered a diminished interest in freelancing, favouring stable employment.
(b) Highlighted the need for work/life balance and career flexibility.
(c) Reinforced traditional career paths over exploring diverse industries.
(d) Reduced the emphasis on flexibility and remote work in job preferences.

15. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

(a) Globalization reduces traditional job value, making paths more rigid.
(b) The pandemic reverses digital work trends, urging a traditional job return.
(c) Evolving markets demand skill adaptability, driven by tech and the pandemic.
(d) Employer focus on loyalty leads to a less dynamic job market environment.

16. What does the term "fluid and multi-directional" imply about modern career paths?
(a) Career paths are becoming increasingly rigid and predictable.
(b) There is a growing trend towards specialization in one's early career.
(c) Careers are now more flexible, with opportunities to change roles and industries.
(d) Professional development is no longer necessary in today's job market.

17. How has globalization impacted the job market, according to the passage?
(a) It has limited job opportunities to local markets only.
(b) Made job markets more competitive and opportunities more accessible.
(c) Decreased the diversity and availability of talent in the job market.
(d) Encouraged a return to traditional, non-digital forms of employment.

18. Which figure of speech is evident in describing the job market's transformation due to AI and
automation?
(a) Metaphor, by likening job market changes to a physical transformation.
(b) Hyperbole, exaggerating the impact of AI and automation on jobs.
(c) Personification, attributing human characteristics to the job market.
(d) Alliteration, repeating consonant sounds in closely connected words.

IV. Population
Overpopulation, as traditionally defined, implies an unsustainable increase in the number of people
relative to available resources. However, this viewpoint tends to neglect the fact that the challenge is not
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

merely about numbers but about the distribution and utilization of resources, which exacerbates the
consequences of population growth. In India, as in many parts of the world, the unequal distribution of
wealth and resources intensifies social and economic disparities. Many have argued that the focus
should shift from limiting population growth to the root cause – unequal access to resources.
The term 'overpopulation,' has permeated numerous discussions regarding the Global South‘s delayed
development, including India. Soon after Independence, it became the reason for mass hysteria due to
the release of a book called ―The Population Bomb‖ in 1968, which attempted to predict the future, by a
biologist Paul Ehrlich. Ehrlich's alarmist narrative laden with concerns about overpopulation not only
seized the attention of Global North due to the prevailing anxieties around scarcity in a post WWII era, it
also became a compelling pretext for their intervention – through welfare plans – into scapegoating the
Third World countries – who were trying to revive both their depleted populations and economies after
years of colonialism and war. Thus, the rising population alongside heavy industries in the Global South
became a convenient target for deflecting blame, distracting attention from the prolonged
industrialization pursuits of the very nations leveling these accusations– of overpopulation and pollution.
To that effect, the reduction of overpopulation as a problem in its own right, rather than recognizing it as
a symptom of underlying structural intricacies, entered the mainstream discourse within development
economics and policymaking, especially with respect to the Third World.
By definition, overpopulation is the ―Situation in which the number of individuals of a given species
exceeds the number that its environment can sustain.‖ However, this traditional framework which most
policy makers as well as leaders have relied upon to alleviate the ‗population bomb‘ over several
decades, has fallen short of success due to its failure to recognize the problem of uneven and unfettered
accumulation by a small minority of the elite, due to which resources are grossly imbalanced in their
allocation and accessibility to the majority of a population.
Critics of the overpopulation rhetoric have argued that it‘s rooted in a Malthusian framework. A 1798 text,
An Essay on the Principle of Population, by English political economist Thomas Robert Malthus,
suggested that the rising population‘s impact on the Earth and resource consumption must be curbed by
either positive checks (war, famine, disease) or preventative checks (abstinence, delaying marriage).
Source: [Link]

19. How has the narrative of overpopulation shifted according to the passage?
(a) From a focus on population control to addressing resource distribution.
(b) Maintained a steady emphasis on global birth rate reduction strategies.
(c) Shifted towards technological solutions for managing population growth.
(d) Emphasized the role of international aid in solving the overpopulation crisis.

20. What central idea is conveyed regarding the discourse on overpopulation?

(a) Overpopulation is primarily a consequence of unchecked population growth.
(b) Population control measures have been effective in mitigating overpopulation impacts.
(c) The overpopulation narrative serves to obscure unequal resource access and disparities.
(d) Concerns about overpopulation are exaggerated and not a significant global issue.

21. What implication does the critique of the overpopulation narrative have for development policies?
(a) Policies should prioritize technological innovation above all else.
(b) Development strategies must emphasize global birth control methods.
(c) Policies need to focus on equitable resource distribution and access.
(d) Overpopulation should be deprioritized in favor of economic growth.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

22. In the context of the passage, how is the term "overpopulation" primarily utilized?
(a) As an adjective describing the intense state of global populations.
(b) As a noun representing a concept of population exceeding sustainable limits.
(c) As a verb implying the action of populations exceeding the Earth's resources.
(d) As an adverb modifying the manner in which populations grow.

23. What conclusion can be drawn about the perspective on overpopulation presented in the passage?
(a) It advocates for immediate reduction in birth rates as the sole solution.
(b) It highlights overpopulation as a symptom of deeper socio-economic issues.
(c) It dismisses concerns about overpopulation as unfounded and exaggerated.
(d) It suggests that overpopulation can be resolved through technological advancements alone.

24. How does the passage suggest addressing the issue of overpopulation effectively?
(a) By focusing solely on the moral implications of population growth.
(b) Through international sanctions on countries with high population growth.
(c) By shifting the focus to equitable resource distribution and access.
(d) Encouraging global north countries to intervene more in global south policies.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 15
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. International Issue
Amid global calls for a ceasefire in Gaza, one dominant justification is the toll that the genocide is taking
on women and children — the stereotypical victims in any kind of crisis. Israel, too, is routinely invoking
rhetoric -- and unverified claims -- about women and children to reinforce the impression of Hamas being
'barbaric.'
The phrase 'women and children' – often invoked in discussions surrounding conflicts, wars, and
humanitarian crises – might be well-intentioned; its objective is to emphasize the vulnerability of certain
groups. However, it inadvertently has counterproductive consequences – reducing women to 'victims,'
and men to 'protectors' and 'perpetrators.'
In doing so, the gendered rhetoric neglects the complexity of individual experiences during conflict,
sieges, and violence, making it far from an intersectional feminist approach.
There is an implied vulnerability and helplessness often associated with 'women and children.' And while
women and children are disproportionately affected by conflict in unique ways, framing the issue thus
implies that women and children together comprise one vulnerable group, rather than two distinct
groups. This undermines the role of women in peacekeeping and protection during ongoing conflict and
violence. Scholars argue that it also erases women's agency as human subjects with inherent
fundamental rights, rather than objects of protectionism. 'The idealization does not protect women from
violence, but on the contrary makes them more vulnerable,' according to political scientist Maud
Eduards. Not only does it undermine women‘s roles in shaping peace, conflict resolution, and safety – it
also serves as a rhetorical tool for aggressors to justify conflict and aggression in the first place. The
framing also erases the specific and distinct types of violence and harm that women and children
undergo separately.
'Women are associated with children because they are, in fact, regarded as children… Their evacuation
from the theatres of devastation and war goes hand in hand with the evisceration of their political
agency,' writes academic Patricia Vieira in Al Jazeera. It could further have consequences by way of
distinguishing women and children deserving of safety, versus those who aren't: as political theorist Erica
Burman notes: '[T]his position of ‗deserving victim‘ relies on a notion of innocence that not only strips
away agency but also pathologizes those who do not appear so innocent.'
Moreover, scholars have also noted that the concept of 'protectors' and 'protected' lends greater
credence to the prevailing belief that the protectors – typically, men – are more rational and strategic,
while the protected – often, women – are in need of guidance and protection. It becomes an instrument,
then, to justify state secrecy: by limiting access to national security discussions only to those deemed
‗manly‘ and rational.
Source: [Link]
counterproductive

1. How does the portrayal of women and children as primary victims in conflicts impact the perception of
women's roles in society, according to the passage?
(a) It elevates women's status in society by highlighting their importance and the need for their
protection.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It diminishes women's perceived capabilities in contributing to peacekeeping and conflict resolution.
(c) It ensures that women receive the necessary support and recognition for their resilience and strength
in conflict situations.
(d) It encourages societies to invest more in women's education and political empowerment to prevent
conflicts.

2. What underlying assumption about gender roles is criticized in the passage for its impact on national
security discussions?
(a) The belief that men are inherently more capable of understanding and engaging in national security
matters due to their rational and strategic nature.
(b) The idea that women, due to their emotional and compassionate qualities, are better suited for roles
in peace negotiations and humanitarian efforts.
(c) The assumption that both men and women possess equal strengths in rational thinking and strategic
planning, thus should have equal representation in national security discussions.
(d) The concept that children's perspectives should be included in national security discussions to
ensure a more compassionate and holistic approach.

3. According to the passage, how does the stereotypical victimization of women and children in conflicts
serve as a rhetorical tool for aggressors?
(a) It provides a moral justification for aggressors to continue their actions by portraying themselves as
protectors of these vulnerable groups.
(b) It allows aggressors to claim a higher moral ground by focusing attention on the plight of these
groups, diverting attention from their aggressive actions.
(c) It serves as a mechanism for aggressors to justify conflict and aggression by exploiting the perceived
vulnerability of these groups to garner support.
(d) It enables aggressors to manipulate international opinion by exaggerating the conditions of women
and children, thus gaining sympathy and reducing scrutiny.
4. What is the primary consequence of employing the phrase "women and children" in the context of
conflicts, as critiqued in the passage?
(a) It accurately represents the disproportionate impact of conflict on these groups, leading to targeted
humanitarian aid.
(b) It simplifies the complex experiences of these groups, thereby undermining women's roles in
peacekeeping and conflict resolution.
(c) It emphasizes the resilience and agency of women and children in conflict zones, leading to
increased international support.
(d) It encourages a balanced and intersectional feminist approach to understanding the dynamics of
conflict and violence.

5. How does the passage critique the dichotomy of 'protectors' and 'protected' in the context of gender roles
during conflicts?
(a) It lauds the distinction for clarifying the roles individuals can play in national security and conflict
resolution.
(b) It criticizes the distinction for perpetuating stereotypes that restrict women's participation in national
security discussions.
(c) It suggests that the distinction accurately reflects the natural strengths of men and women in dealing
with conflict and crisis situations.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) It proposes that this distinction is necessary for the effective organization of society during times of
crisis.

6. What does the passage imply about the effectiveness of framing women and children as a singular
vulnerable group in conflict situations?
(a) It argues that such framing is beneficial as it draws attention to the most vulnerable populations,
ensuring they receive the necessary protection and aid.
(b) It suggests that this framing is a strategic approach by aggressors to justify their actions by exploiting
perceived vulnerabilities.
(c) It indicates that the framing helps in mobilizing international support and resources for humanitarian
interventions.
(d) It contends that combining women and children into one group oversimplifies their experiences and
undermines women's agency and contributions.

II. Literature
When Julius Caesar seemed increasingly likely to embrace authoritarian rule, two men emerged as the
Roman Republic‘s fiercest defenders: Cato the Younger, who led resistance to Caesar in the Senate,
and his nephew, Marcus Junius Brutus, who led the conspiracy to assassinate Caesar. But there was
another key player in the tumultuous events surrounding Caesar‘s end: A woman who would come to
embody strength under pressure and unwavering loyalty. Her name was Porcia. Daughter of Cato and
wife of Brutus, Porcia Catonis (ca 73-43 b.c.) was ―the only woman who was privy to the plot,‖ as the
Roman historian Cassius Dio described her.
Porcia‘s courage, logical mind, and willingness to sacrifice were celebrated by Roman historians and,
centuries later, immortalized in William Shakespeare‘s 1599 tragedy, Julius Caesar. Many factors
shaped this extraordinary person, but two stand out: the volatile political climate and the teachings of her
father.
Much of what is known about Porcia comes largely from Greek historian Plutarch (in his books about
Brutus and Cato) and from Cassius Dio‘s Roman History, along with mentions in other works. In all
ancient references, she is ―remembered as the member of Younger Cato‘s family who is most committed
to her father‘s cause,‖ according to Judith P. Hallett, professor emerita of classics at the University of
Maryland and author of Fathers and Daughters in Roman Society: Women and the Elite Family. Porcia‘s
father, Cato the Younger (so named to distinguish him from his great-grandfather Cato the Elder), was
an old-guard aristocrat and republican. A devotee of Stoic philosophy, Cato put virtue and civic
responsibility above all else, an uncompromising idealism that deeply influenced his daughter. Early in
the second century a.d., Plutarch wrote that Porcia was ―addicted to philosophy‖ and praised her ―sober-
living and greatness of spirit,‖ in keeping with the Stoic rejection of luxury and commitment to justice.
Based on his depiction, Porcia is often regarded as the first female Stoic.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from Porcia, Loyal Heroine of the Republic, National
Geographic Magazine.

7. Based on the passage, how did Porcia Catonis' upbringing influence her character and actions?
(a) Porcia's exposure to diverse philosophical teachings outside of Stoicism led her to adopt a more
eclectic approach to life and politics.
(b) The political ambitions of her family overshadowed her personal beliefs, forcing her into a role that
conflicted with her philosophical ideals.
(c) Her father's staunch Stoicism and commitment to republican values deeply ingrained in her a sense
of virtue and civic responsibility.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The turbulent political climate of the time instilled in her a sense of pragmatism that often clashed
with her family's more idealistic views.

8. What aspect of Porcia Catonis' personality is highlighted through her historical portrayal?
(a) Her inclination towards luxury and comfort, in stark contrast to the Stoic values of her father.
(b) A pragmatic approach to politics, favoring compromise over the strict adherence to ideology.
(c) An exceptional courage and logical mind, underpinned by a willingness to sacrifice for her beliefs.
(d) A tendency to distance herself from the political intrigues of her time, focusing instead on personal
enlightenment.

9. How does the passage convey the significance of Porcia Catonis in the historical context surrounding
Julius Caesar's assassination?
(a) As a peripheral figure with minimal influence over the events leading to Caesar's demise.
(b) As the principal architect behind the plot to assassinate Caesar, overshadowing her male
counterparts.
(c) As a symbol of female empowerment in a predominantly male-dominated political landscape.
(d) As a key figure embodying loyalty and strength, being the only woman privy to the assassination plot.

10. Based on the passage, how did Porcia Catonis' upbringing influence her character and actions?
(a) Porcia's exposure to diverse philosophical teachings outside of Stoicism led her to adopt a more
eclectic approach to life and politics.
(b) The political ambitions of her family overshadowed her personal beliefs, forcing her into a role that
conflicted with her philosophical ideals.
(c) Her father's staunch Stoicism and commitment to republican values deeply ingrained in her a sense
of virtue and civic responsibility.
(d) The turbulent political climate of the time instilled in her a sense of pragmatism that often clashed
with her family's more idealistic views.

11. What aspect of Porcia Catonis' personality is highlighted through her historical portrayal?
(a) Her inclination towards luxury and comfort, in stark contrast to the Stoic values of her father.
(b) A pragmatic approach to politics, favoring compromise over the strict adherence to ideology.
(c) An exceptional courage and logical mind, underpinned by a willingness to sacrifice for her beliefs.
(d) A tendency to distance herself from the political intrigues of her time, focusing instead on personal
enlightenment.
12. Based on the passage, what legacy does Porcia Catonis leave behind in the historical narrative
surrounding Julius Caesar's assassination?
(a) A legacy overshadowed by the more prominent male figures involved, with little recognition of her
contributions.
(b) A symbol of female resilience and philosophical commitment in a predominantly male-dominated
historical event.
(c) An example of the detrimental impact of political ambitions on personal and familial relationships.
(d) A cautionary tale of the risks associated with engaging in political conspiracies, regardless of the
moral justification.

III. History
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Throughout western Europe the sums of money spent on fashion reached such a height that the
authorities updated sumptuary laws to regulate what clothing could be worn by whom. Such laws had
been in existence before the 14th century. The earliest, from the 13th-century reign of James
I of Aragon (modern Spain), prohibited clothing that had been adorned with slashes and fringes.
Florentine sumptuary statutes of 1322-25 prohibited ―clothes with cut, worked, or superimposed images
or likenesses of trees or flowers, animals or birds, or any other figures.‖
As clothes became more elaborate, such laws needed refining. Some laws were designed to protect
home industries through restrictions on buying foreign products, or to simply rein in spending. Others
looked to curtail the social disruption caused by radically new fashions; preambles to sumptuary laws
often refer to the loss of traditional virtues. English laws focused on the maximum cost of permissible
cloth, rather than the number of garments. They also targeted shoes with pointed toes. As such footwear
became longer, Parliament passed a law in the mid-14th century forbidding all but the highest nobles to
wear shoes or boots with a point longer than two inches.
In Wilson‘s view, the main objective was to preserve class distinctions: ―At bottom, sumptuary laws are
an expression of social anxiety over the blurring of classes and statuses.‖ In practice, European
sumptuary laws were rarely enforced, with the exception of Italy, which focused on women‘s clothing and
ornaments. Elsewhere, there is little evidence that people were dissuaded from sporting the new
fashions. The laws were an attempt to affirm the values of those in power and to reinforce group or
national identities, but over time, Wilson explained, the popularity and availability of new fashions evaded
all controls: ―As fashion spread down the social scale, sumptuary laws dwindled, disappearing altogether
in the 18th century when fashion had become universal.‖
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from Medieval Times Gave Birth to Modern Fashion, National
Geographic

13. What can be inferred about the societal impact of fashion according to the passage?
(a) Fashion served primarily as a means for individuals to express personal creativity without societal
repercussions.
(b) The evolution of fashion was generally welcomed by authorities as a sign of cultural progress.
(c) Fashion trends posed a challenge to traditional class distinctions, prompting regulatory responses.
(d) Sumptuary laws effectively curtailed the spread of new fashions across different social classes.

14. Based on the passage, what was a notable exception in the enforcement of sumptuary laws across
Europe?
(a) England, where laws were strictly enforced to maintain the maximum cost of clothing.
(b) Italy, focused on women‘s clothing and ornaments and saw stricter enforcement.
(c) Spain, due to its early adoption of sumptuary laws during the reign of James I of Aragon.
(d) France, where the focus was on limiting the importation of foreign fashion items.

15. In the phrase ―such laws needed refining,‖ what part of speech is "refining"?
(a) Verb (b) Noun
(c) Adjective (d) Adverb

16. What is the passage primarily conveying about the role and impact of sumptuary laws in Western
Europe?
(a) They were economic measures to boost local industries by curtailing imports.
(b) Uniform enforcement across Europe showed a collective cultural resistance to excessive fashion.
(c) Intended to maintain social hierarchies, they responded to fashion's challenge to class distinctions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Aimed at reducing public spending on fashion, thus promoting wealth equality.

17. Which summary best encapsulates the evolution and ultimate ineffectiveness of sumptuary laws as
depicted in the passage?
(a) Evolving to meet economic needs, they failed due to public apathy.
(b) Transitioning from fashion control to national identity reinforcement, yet becoming obsolete.
(c) Initially strong but ultimately unsuccessful in stemming foreign fashion influence.
(d) Created to manage social disruptions by fashion, they waned as fashion democratized.

18. What do sumptuary laws illustrate about societal changes during their enforcement period, according to
the passage?
(a) Societal rigidity with unchanged class distinctions and social order.
(b) A society grappling with fashion's social implications, using laws to navigate these changes.
(c) Effective containment of foreign cultural influences through legal means.
(d) An economic self-isolation attempt by controlling spending on foreign goods.

IV. Science
DUST falling from space may have brought crucial elements for life to early Earth. Our planet is relatively
poor in several elements necessary for the chemistry of life, but the material constantly drifting down
from space has more and this could have collected in glacial areas when Earth was young.
"This has been kind of lingering as an idea in the shadows, but people had dismissed it for several
reasons, the big one being that there wasn't enough of it in any one location," says Craig Walton at the
University of Cambridge. Cosmic dust tends to be rich in elements such as phosphorus and sulphur that
are relatively unavailable on Earth, and it falls constantly around the world.
In the past, researchers searching for the origin of such elements on Earth largely focused on larger
objects like meteorites that could deliver more of them at once, but that sort of delivery mechanism could
struggle to maintain prebiotic chemistry for long enough for life to arise, says Walton. "Meteorites deliver
those elements randomly," he says. "You need a continuous source, and that's what cosmic dust is."
Up to 40,000 tonnes of this dust falls to Earth every year, some associated with meteor showers. Billions
of years ago, that number would have been 10 to 10,000 times higher, but that still wouldn't have been
enough to make any individual location particularly rich in the elements important to life. Walton and his
colleagues performed simulations of how the dust could have been moved around by wind and water to
collect in high enough concentrations to help spark life.
They found that the most promising environments were glaciers, both because they could trap lots of
dust and because they have very little contamination from terrestrial dirt. When cosmic dust falls on a
glacier, it absorbs sunlight and heats up, melting a small hole in the ice. The hole then traps more dust.
Finally, the chamber of dust drains into ponds at the edge of the glacier.
We see this process today, but if Earth was cold enough to have glaciers billions of years ago, the higher
volume of dust would have made it more efficient. "If you want to produce a sediment that's really rich
and has lots of these reactions that could lead to life, this is the best way forward," says Walton.
"It's unclear whether glaciers were common on early Earth," says Ben Pearce at Johns Hopkins
University in Maryland. "However, I think any possibility is worth studying, especially if it provides a
mechanism for creating a rich primordial soup."
"We've always had trouble figuring out what the bulk chemistry of the early Earth would have been like,"
says Matthew Pasek at the University of South Florida. "But [cosmic dust] could be an important source
of very valuable material."
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from Is cosmic dust key to life's origins? New Scientist,
February Weekly Edition.

19. What inference can be drawn about the significance of cosmic dust in the context of life's origins on
Earth according to the passage?
(a) Cosmic dust is a minor contributor compared to meteorites, which have historically been considered
the primary source of life's building blocks on Earth.
(b) The constant influx of cosmic dust, rich in essential elements, presents a plausible continuous source
for prebiotic chemistry, challenging the sporadic contribution of meteorites.
(c) The role of cosmic dust is predominantly in the formation of Earth's atmosphere rather than directly
contributing to the chemical foundation necessary for life.
(d) Cosmic dust primarily acts as a thermal insulator, significantly affecting the planet's climate rather
than contributing chemical elements essential for life.

20. Based on the passage, why do glaciers represent an ideal environment for the accumulation and
concentration of cosmic dust essential for life's formation?
(a) Glaciers provide a stable, uncontaminated environment where cosmic dust can accumulate without
significant loss, unlike other terrestrial locations that suffer from high erosion rates and biological
contamination.
(b) The reflective surface of glaciers accelerates the melting process caused by cosmic dust, thereby
increasing the rate of dust accumulation beyond what is observed in non-glacial environments.
(c) Glaciers have a unique chemical composition that interacts with cosmic dust, enhancing the
availability of elements like phosphorus and sulphur necessary for life.
(d) The cold temperature of glaciers is essential for preserving the molecular integrity of cosmic dust,
preventing the degradation of vital elements before they can contribute to prebiotic chemistry.

21. What does the passage imply about the historical scientific perspective on the origin of life's essential
elements on Earth?
(a) Scientists have consistently favoured the theory that cosmic dust is the primary source of life's
essential elements, with meteorites playing a negligible role.
(b) The focus has been predominantly on larger celestial bodies like meteorites for delivering life's
building blocks, underestimating the potential continuous contribution of cosmic dust.
(c) Research has equally balanced the significance of both cosmic dust and meteorites, considering
them complementary sources for the essential elements required for life.
(d) Historical perspectives have dismissed the role of both cosmic dust and meteorites, focusing instead
on terrestrial sources for the essential elements of life.
22. Based on Craig Walton's perspective, what conclusion can be drawn about the role of cosmic dust in the
development of prebiotic chemistry on Earth?
(a) Despite its abundance, cosmic dust plays a negligible role in the development of prebiotic chemistry
due to its random distribution across the Earth.
(b) Cosmic dust, owing to its steady accumulation and rich elemental composition, serves as a crucial,
continuous source for the development of prebiotic chemistry, unlike the sporadic contributions from
meteorites.
(c) The significance of cosmic dust in developing prebiotic chemistry is overshadowed by the
contributions of larger celestial bodies due to the former's inability to maintain sufficient
concentrations of essential elements.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Cosmic dust primarily contributes to the atmospheric conditions of Earth rather than directly
influencing the chemistry necessary for the origin of life.

23. Which of the following best summarizes the potential mechanism by which cosmic dust could have
contributed to the origin of life on Earth as described in the passage?
(a) Cosmic dust's random distribution across Earth's surface rendered it an ineffective contributor to the
concentration of life's essential elements.
(b) The interaction between cosmic dust and larger meteorites facilitated a rich sedimentary layer across
Earth, enabling the chemical reactions necessary for life.
(c) Glaciers played a pivotal role in concentrating cosmic dust, thereby creating conditions conducive to
the chemical reactions that could lead to life.
(d) The melting of polar ice caps due to cosmic dust accumulation significantly altered Earth's climate,
indirectly facilitating the development of life.

24. Which term best describes the process by which cosmic dust contributes to the potential development of
life on Earth, as implied in the passage?
(a) Serendipity - The occurrence of events by chance in a happy or beneficial way.
(b) Catalyst - A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself undergoing any
permanent chemical change.
(c) Accumulation - The gradual gathering of something.
(d) Synthesis - The combination of components or elements to form a connected whole.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 16
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Philosophy
The Hungarian folktale Pretty Maid Ibronka terrified and tantalised me as a child. In the story, the young
Ibronka must tie herself to the devil with string in order to discover important truths. These days, as a
PhD student in philosophy, I sometimes worry I‘ve done the same. I still believe in philosophy‘s capacity
to seek truth, but I‘m conscious that I‘ve tethered myself to an academic heritage plagued by formidable
demons.
The demons of academic philosophy come in familiar guises: exclusivity, hegemony and investment in
the myth of individual genius. As the ethicist Jill Hernandez notes, philosophy has been slower to change
than many of its sister disciplines in the humanities: ‗It may be a surprise to many … given that theology
and, certainly, religious studies tend to be inclusive, but philosophy is mostly resistant toward including
diverse voices.‘ Simultaneously, philosophy has grown increasingly specialised due to the pressures of
professionalisation. Academics zero in on narrower and narrower topics in order to establish unique
niches and, in the process, what was once a discipline that sought answers to humanity‘s most
fundamental questions becomes a jargon-riddled puzzle for a narrow group of insiders.
In recent years, ‗canon-expansion‘ has been a hot-button topic, as philosophers increasingly find the
exclusivity of the field antithetical to its universal aspirations. As Jay Garfield remarks, it is as irrational ‗to
ignore everything not written in the Eurosphere‘ as it would be to ‗only read philosophy published on
Tuesdays.‘ And yet, academic philosophy largely has done just that. It is only in the past few decades
that the mainstream has begun to engage seriously with the work of women and non-Western thinkers.
Often, this endeavour involves looking beyond the confines of what, historically, has been called
‗philosophy‘.
Expanding the canon generally isn‘t so simple as resurfacing a ‗standard‘ philosophical treatise in the
style of white male contemporaries that happens to have been written by someone outside this
demographic. Sometimes this does happen, as in the case of Margaret Cavendish (1623-73) whose
work has attracted increased recognition in recent years. But Cavendish was the Duchess of Newcastle,
a royalist whose political theory criticises social mobility as a threat to social order. She had access to
instruction that was highly unusual for women outside her background, which lends her work a ‗standard‘
style and structure. To find voices beyond this elite, we often have to look beyond this style and
structure.
Texts formerly classified as squarely theological have been among the first to attract significant renewed
interest. Female Catholic writers such as Teresa of Ávila or Sor Juana Inés de la Cruz, whose work had
been largely ignored outside theological circles, are now being re-examined through a philosophical lens.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, Folklore is philosophy, [Link]
like-philosophy-startle-us-into-rethinking-our-values

1. How does the passage characterize the effort to include more diverse voices in the field of philosophy?
(a) As a misguided attempt to politicize a discipline that thrives on objective inquiry and timeless truths.
(b) As a necessary evolution to enrich the discipline by challenging its historical biases and embracing a
wider range of perspectives.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) As an optional trend that could potentially distract from the rigorous study of traditional philosophical
texts and theories.
(d) As a purely symbolic gesture that lacks substantive impact on the core curriculum and philosophical
discourse.

2. What conclusion can be drawn about the author's view on the traditional academic philosophy's
approach to inclusivity?
(a) The author praises the discipline's strides towards inclusivity, arguing it mirrors successes seen in
other humanities disciplines, reflecting a progressive and adaptable philosophy community.
(b) The author suggests that philosophy's meritocratic nature naturally fosters inclusivity, crediting the
discipline's focus on individual genius with breaking down barriers to diversity.
(c) The author dismisses concerns over exclusivity as exaggerated, maintaining that philosophy has
always subtly embraced diverse perspectives within its traditional frameworks.
(d) The author critiques the discipline for its lingering exclusivity, contrasting it unfavorably with other
humanities disciplines that have been more welcoming of diverse voices.

3. Which of the following best summarizes the passage's discussion on the efforts to expand the
philosophical canon?
(a) It celebrates the canon's successful diversification, noting widespread acceptance and adaptation of
contemporary societal values within the philosophical community.
(b) It advocates for the complete replacement of traditional texts with modern works to align philosophy
more closely with current societal challenges.
(c) It calls for a revival of traditional philosophical tenets, criticizing recent diversification efforts as
undermining the discipline's foundational integrity.
(d) It underscores the complexities and resistance faced in canon expansion, highlighting slow progress
despite the critical need for integrating non-traditional voices.

4. How does the passage implicitly suggest the impact of professionalization on the field of philosophy?
(a) It claims professionalization has unequivocally improved philosophical inquiry's quality, making the
discipline more respected and academically rigorous.
(b) It suggests professionalization has democratized philosophy, broadening access and encouraging
engagement with contemporary societal issues.
(c) It minimizes professionalization's impact, suggesting that core philosophical methods and interests
have remained unchanged despite these trends.
(d) It argues professionalization has led to a narrowing of focus, privileging specialized niches over
broad, inclusive philosophical discourse.

5. What does the passage suggest about the challenges of diversifying the philosophical canon?
(a) The main obstacle to diversifying the philosophical canon is the lack of contemporary philosophers
interested in non-traditional subjects.
(b) Resistance to diversifying the philosophical canon stems primarily from the discipline's historical
focus on individual genius and exclusivity.
(c) The difficulty in diversifying the canon is due to the overwhelming volume of philosophical works that
need to be re-evaluated.
(d) The process of diversifying the canon is hindered by the strict structural requirements for what
constitutes a philosophical text.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

6. How does the passage illustrate the evolving nature of academic philosophy's engagement with diverse
voices?
(a) By highlighting the recent trend of professional philosophers to focus exclusively on works published
within the Eurosphere.
(b) Through the acknowledgment that philosophy has remained unchanged despite the pressures of
professionalization and specialization.
(c) By noting the shift towards including works of women and non-Western thinkers in mainstream
philosophical discourse in recent decades.
(d) By emphasizing the resurgence of interest in purely theological texts as central to the philosophical
canon without the need for broader contextual understanding.

II. Literature
There were children, and then there were the children of Indians, because the merciless savage
inhabitants of these American lands did not make children but nits, and nits make lice, or so it was said
by the man who meant to make a massacre feel like killing bugs at Sand Creek, when seven hundred
drunken men came at dawn with cannons, and then again four years later almost to the day the same
way at the Washita River, where afterward, seven hundred Indian horses were rounded up and shot in
the head.
These kinds of events were called battles, then later—sometimes—massacres, in America‘s longest war.
More years at war with Indians than as a nation. Three hundred and thirteen.
After all the killing and removing, scattering and rounding up of Indian people to put them on
reservations, and after the buffalo population was reduced from about thirty million to a few hundred in
the wild, the thinking being ―Every buffalo dead is an Indian gone,‖ there came another campaign-style
slogan directed at the Indian problem: ―Kill the Indian, Save the Man.‖ When the Indian wars began to go
cold, the theft of land and tribal sovereignty bureaucratic, they came for Indian children, forcing them into
boarding schools, where if they did not die of what they called consumption even while they regularly
were starved; if they were not buried in duty, training for agricultural or industrial labour, or indentured
servitude; were they not buried in children‘s cemeteries, or in unmarked graves, not lost somewhere
between the school and home having run away, unburied, unfound, lost to time, or lost between exile
and refuge, between school, tribal homelands, reservation, and city; if they made it through routine
beatings and rape, if they survived, made lives and families and homes, it was because of this and only
this: Such Indian children were made to carry more than they were made to carry.
But before the boarding schools, in 1875, seventy-one Indian men and one Indian woman were taken as
prisoners of war in Oklahoma and put on a train to St. Augustine, Florida, where they were jailed in a
star-shaped prison-castle—a star fort. It was the oldest masonry fort in the country, and the first
European settlement in the continental United States, built on the backs of Indian people under Spanish
order in the late 1600s out of coquina—a kind of ancient shell formed into rock over time.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, WANDERING STARS, [Link]
stars/

7. Evaluate the portrayal of American Indian conflicts in the passage.

(a) The passage presents the conflicts as a series of unfortunate but necessary military engagements
aimed at establishing order and governance in newly acquired territories.
(b) It depicts the conflicts as one-sided battles where the American Indians were overwhelmingly
victorious due to their superior knowledge of the land and guerrilla tactics.
(c) The narrative frames these events as systemic massacres disguised as battles, highlighting the
inhumane treatment of American Indians under the guise of warfare.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) It suggests that the conflicts were evenly matched, with both sides suffering significant losses,
leading to a mutual respect and understanding between them.
8. What central idea does the passage convey about the treatment of American Indians?
(a) The passage describes a gradual but steady improvement in the relationship between American
settlers and American Indians, leading to better understanding and respect.
(b) It illustrates the systematic dehumanization and eradication of American Indian culture and people
through war, assimilation policies, and educational practices.
(c) The narrative suggests that conflicts between American settlers and American Indians were minor
and infrequent, having little impact on the broader historical narrative.
(d) It portrays the American Indian experience as one of resilience and eventual triumph over the
adversities posed by settler colonialism and warfare.

9. What conclusion can be drawn about the objectives behind the American policy towards American
Indians as depicted in the passage?
(a) The policies were primarily aimed at cohabiting and sharing resources equitably with American
Indian communities, fostering a mutually beneficial relationship.
(b) They were designed to forcibly assimilate American Indians into settler culture, erasing their
identities and sovereignties through violence and oppressive practices.
(c) The main goal was to encourage American Indians to adopt agriculture and sedentary lifestyles
voluntarily, without any coercion or violence.
(d) The strategies focused on legal negotiations and treaties that respected American Indian sovereignty
and land rights, aiming for peaceful coexistence.

10. Analyze the metaphorical significance of the phrase "nits make lice" within the context of the passage.
(a) The phrase highlights the natural cycle of life and the inevitability of growth and regeneration among
American Indian communities.
(b) It is used to trivialize the massacre of American Indians, equating their lives to pests that are easily
and justifiably exterminated.
(c) This metaphor serves to emphasize the resilience and survival of the American Indian population
despite attempts to eradicate them.
(d) It suggests a misunderstanding and miscommunication between American settlers and American
Indians, leading to unnecessary conflicts.

11. What does the "star-shaped prison-castle" symbolize in the narrative?

(a) The star fort represents a beacon of hope and sanctuary for those seeking refuge from the turmoil of
war and displacement.
(b) It symbolizes the enduring strength and fortitude of American Indian cultures in the face of colonial
aggression and imprisonment.
(c) The fort is emblematic of the imprisonment and loss of freedom experienced by American Indians,
constructed by those who oppressed them.
(d) It signifies the successful assimilation of American Indians into settler society, marking a transition
from conflict to peaceful coexistence.
12. What conclusion can be drawn about the impact of the "Kill the Indian, Save the Man" campaign on
American Indian children?
(a) The campaign was a misguided but well-intentioned effort to integrate American Indian children into
settler society, aiming for their betterment and prosperity.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It represents a systematic attempt to eradicate American Indian culture and identity through forced
assimilation and education, disregarding their human rights.
(c) This slogan was a rallying cry for American Indian resistance and empowerment, symbolizing their
fight against colonial oppression and cultural erasure.
(d) The phrase indicates a successful cultural exchange between American Indian communities and
settlers, leading to mutual respect and understanding.

III. Economy
In an uncharacteristic late Saturday release, the Statistics Ministry unveiled the broad findings of the
Household Consumption Expenditure Survey done between August 2022 and July 2023. This is
significant as it is the first major survey-based data released since 2011-12 that captures ground realities
at the household level — especially with the once-a-decade Census, due since 2021, nowhere in sight.
Conducted every five years by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), the results of the last such
consumption survey in 2017-18, along with a similar employment survey, were junked with the
government citing ―quality issues‖ with the data — viewed as a euphemism for the unhappy tidings it may
have showed. If the 2017-18 Survey was abandoned because it captured the deleterious after-effects of
the demonetisation of high-value currency notes in late 2016 on India‘s largely informal economy, and
the subsequent onset of the Goods and Services Tax, the 2022-23 survey also needs to be interpreted
with a dash of salt. For, it may likely magnify the exuberance seen in consumption after two years of
pandemic-induced curbs and income losses — what economists call the release of pent-up demand.
To be clear, the Survey suggests some interesting transitions in consumption patterns and the complete
findings must be published swiftly to enable deeper analysis. Households‘ average monthly per capita
consumer expenditure (MPCE) rose 33.5% since 2011-12 in cities to reach Rs. 3,510, and 40.4% in rural
India to ₹2,008. The government has sought to paint this as a signal of rising incomes, narrowing
inequality, and a sharp slippage in poverty levels. But this only implies a 3.5% compounded annual
growth in rural spends over 11 years, with a 3% growth for urban households — well below the inflation
and GDP growth rates in this period. Puzzlingly, even after adding the imputed values of free goods
received through a myriad of welfare schemes such as the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, the average
MPCE only rose to Rs. 2,054 for rural households and ₹3,544 for urban peers. That the proportion of
monthly spends on food has slipped below 50% in rural homes (to 46.4%), and under 40% in urban
homes, with cereals seeing the sharpest drop, is remarkable, and may ease inflation trends if used to
rejig Consumer Price Index weightages. However, it is pertinent to recall that food inflation began spiking
last June just ahead of the Survey‘s completion, and has remained elevated since. So, proportional
spends have likely changed. A clearer picture, devoid of pent-up demand and inflation flip-flop effects, is
expected from the fresh Survey that concludes this July. So, any recalibration of poverty, inflation or
GDP calculations must wait till those results are compiled, and released as well.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, [Link]
consumption-on-the-household-consumption-expenditure-survey/[Link]

13. What inference can be made about the government's reaction to the Household Consumption
Expenditure Survey findings?
(a) The government has expressed concerns about the accuracy of the data, indicating plans to conduct
a more thorough review before accepting the findings.
(b) It has enthusiastically embraced the Survey's findings, interpreting them as evidence of economic
recovery and improvement in living standards.
(c) There is a notable reluctance to fully disclose the Survey's findings, possibly due to the unfavourable
economic trends it might reveal.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The government has remained neutral, neither endorsing nor rejecting the Survey's findings,
awaiting further analysis from independent economists.

14. What does the passage imply about the impact of the pandemic on household consumption?
(a) The pandemic had a negligible impact on household consumption, with spending patterns remaining
largely unchanged.
(b) Household consumption significantly declined due to the pandemic, reflecting widespread economic
hardship and loss of income.
(c) The release of pent-up demand following pandemic-induced curbs is likely to have inflated the recent
Survey's consumption figures.
(d) The pandemic led to a shift towards more sustainable consumption practices among households.

15. How does the passage characterize the changes in household spending on food?
(a) Spending on food has remained consistent, indicating stable dietary habits among urban and rural
households alike.
(b) There has been an increase in spending on food, suggesting improved access to a wider variety of
nutritional options.
(c) The proportion of monthly spends on food has decreased, possibly reflecting shifts in household
priorities or economic pressures.
(d) Households have significantly reduced their food expenditure due to government interventions and
welfare schemes.

16. What central idea is conveyed about the recent Household Consumption Expenditure Survey findings?
(a) The Survey findings unequivocally demonstrate significant economic well-being improvements for
urban and rural households, indicating a sharp decline in poverty levels across India.
(b) Despite the government's optimistic portrayal, the Survey reveals modest growth in household
consumption that falls short of inflation and GDP growth rates, suggesting nuanced economic
realities.
(c) The Survey's findings are largely unreliable due to the government's history of discarding previous
survey results for quality issues, making any derived conclusions questionable.
(d) The increased household expenditure reported by the Survey primarily results from government
welfare schemes, directly leading to a decrease in food expenditure as a proportion of total spending.

17. How does the passage critique the government's interpretation of the Survey results?
(a) It accuses the government of deliberately falsifying data to present a favorable economic outlook.
(b) The critique centers on the government's premature celebration of economic recovery without fully
acknowledging the nuanced and modest nature of growth in household consumption.
(c) It suggests that the government's interpretation is overly pessimistic, failing to recognize the
significant achievements in poverty reduction and economic stability.
(d) The passage implies that the government has not provided any interpretation of the Survey's results,
leaving the data open to public speculation.

18. What implications does the passage suggest about future economic analyses based on the Survey?
(a) Immediate recalibration of poverty, inflation, and GDP calculations should be undertaken to reflect
the Survey's findings accurately.
(b) The Survey's findings should be dismissed as irrelevant to broader economic indicators and policy-
making due to their limited scope.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Future economic analyses must await the results of a subsequent Survey for a clearer picture, free
from the effects of pent-up demand and recent inflation trends.
(d) Economic policies and calculations should now prioritize welfare schemes as the primary driver of
consumption growth and poverty alleviation.

IV. Art and Culture

I am an accidental birder. While I never used to pay much attention to the birds outside my window, even
being a bit afraid of them when I was a child, I have always loved making lists. Ranking operas and
opera houses, categorising favourite books and beautiful libraries – not to mention decades of creating
‗Top Ten‘ lists of hikes, drives, national parks, hotels, and bottles of wine. My birding hobby grew out of
this predilection. Specifically, out of my penchant for writing down the birds I found in the paintings by the
Old Masters.
Hieronymus Bosch, for starters.
Bringing my opera glasses to the Museo del Prado in Madrid, I delighted in sitting across the room and
counting the birds in Bosch‘s painting, today called Garden of Earthly Delights (1490-1510). The triptych,
which visualises the fate of humanity in three large panels, is exploding with birds. So far, my list of
Bosch birds includes spiralling flocks of starlings amid posing peacocks and pheasants. Closer to the
water are storks, egrets and two kinds of herons. A jackdaw and a jay can be identified near a giant
‗strawberry tree‘, below which are two spoonbills. And lurking in the trees are three kinds of owls, serving
as signs of heresy.
In his book A Dark Premonition: Journeys to Hieronymus Bosch (2016), the Dutch poet and novelist
Cees Nooteboom describes seeing Bosch‘s work when he was a young man of 21 – and then seeing it
again when he was 82. He asks of one picture: How has the painting changed? How has the viewer
changed? Am I even the same man now?
These are the questions I ask myself while standing in front of a certain picture by Raphael in the Uffizi.
The first time I saw the Madonna del Cardellino (c1505-06) was more than 30 years ago. I was 19. My
college boyfriend and I had stopped in Europe on the way back from two magical months in India. It was
my first time in Italy. And Florence was so damn pretty.
I vividly recall what a warm day it was, and how overwhelmed I felt by the grand museum. Walking past
picture after picture, I turned back to look for my boyfriend, who was trailing behind. And there he was,
utterly gobsmacked in front of a painting. So I walked back to look at it too. It was a Madonna by
Raphael. A beautiful blonde Madonna, in a rich red dress with her cloak of ultramarine draped over her
shoulders, and seated with two babes at her feet. One was holding a goldfinch.
Being young Americans, we couldn‘t understand any of it. Why were there two baby boys?
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, Earthly delights, [Link]
birds-in-great-paintings-taught-me-to-see-the-world

19. What central idea is conveyed about the recent Household Consumption Expenditure Survey findings?
(a) The Survey findings demonstrate significant economic well-being improvements for urban and rural
households, indicating a decline in poverty levels across India.
(b) The Survey reveals modest growth in household consumption that does not align with inflation and
GDP growth rates, suggesting complex economic realities.
(c) The Survey's findings are considered unreliable due to the government's history of discarding
previous results for quality issues.
(d) The increased household expenditure reported by the Survey results primarily from government
welfare schemes.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

20. How does the passage critique the government's interpretation of the Survey results?
(a) It suggests the government might be falsifying data to present a favorable economic outlook.
(b) The critique is based on the government's optimistic interpretation not fully recognizing the modest
nature of growth in household consumption.
(c) It implies the government's interpretation is overly pessimistic, ignoring significant achievements in
poverty reduction.
(d) The passage hints that the government has not offered a clear interpretation, leaving the data open
to speculation.

21. What implications does the passage suggest about future economic analyses based on the Survey?
(a) Immediate recalibration of key economic metrics should be done to accurately reflect the Survey's
findings.
(b) The Survey's findings should be dismissed as irrelevant to broader economic indicators and
policymaking.
(c) Future economic analyses should wait for the results of the next Survey for a clearer picture
unaffected by recent economic events.
(d) Economic policies should now prioritize welfare schemes as the main drivers of consumption growth
and poverty alleviation.

22. What primarily motivated the narrator's transition into birding?

(a) A lifelong fear of birds that eventually turned into fascination.
(b) A love for making lists and categorizing experiences.
(c) An academic interest in ornithology developed during PhD studies.
(d) Social interactions with fellow bird enthusiasts.

23. How does the narrator's recounting of their experiences at the Museo del Prado and the Uffizi serve the
passage's overall narrative?
(a) It contrasts the emotional impact of different art forms on the narrator.
(b) The narrator's birding hobby led to a decreased interest in art over time.
(c) Art inspired the narrator to adopt birding as a hobby through detailed observations.
(d) The narrator primarily used birding to enhance their academic research in philosophy.

24. What underlying theme is conveyed through the narrator's reflection on their birding hobby and its
origins?
(a) The transformative power of childhood experiences on adult hobbies.
(b) The impact of academic pursuits on personal leisure activities.
(c) The unforeseen ways personal interests can lead to new hobbies.
(d) The necessity of overcoming fears to discover true passions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 17
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Science and Technology
The AI arms race is pushing big tech to deploy massive resources to keep their power-hungry large
language models up and running – and potentially speed up their response times. Microsoft, for
instance, is reportedly planning a $100 billion splurge into a supercomputer – set to go online in 2028 –
to back its AI ambitions.
But on the flip side, small language models are gathering steam too. And they‘re quickly proving that
prompts don‘t always need several gigawatts worth of processing power – some of these models can run
on devices as personal as phones while performing just as well for specific tasks. Here‘s everything you
need to know about [Link] language models are all about challenging the notion that bigger is
always better in natural language processing. Unlike the hundreds of billions of parameters (variables
that a model learns during training) models like GPT-4 or Gemini Advanced boast, SLMs range from
‗only‘ a few million to a few billion [Link], they are proving to be highly effective in specialised
tasks and resource-constrained environments. With advancements in training techniques, architecture,
and optimisation strategies, SLMs are closing the performance gap with LLMs, making them an
increasingly attractive option for a wide range of [Link] versatility of SLMs is one of their most
compelling features. These models are finding applications in diverse domains, from sentiment analysis
and text summarisation to question-answering and code generation. Their compact size and efficient
computation make them well-suited for deployment on edge devices, mobile applications, and resource-
constrained [Link] instance, Google‘s Gemini Nano is a compact powerhouse featured on
the latest Google Pixel phones that helps with replies when texting and summarises recordings – all on
the device itself without even an internet connection. Microsoft‘s Orca-2–7b and Orca-2–13b are other
examples of [Link] course, since small language models are relatively newer and are still being
researched on, you may not see many real world applications just yet. But the promise is still there.
Organisations can be particularly benefited by these – by enabling on-premises deployment, these
smaller models can ensure that sensitive information remains securely within an organisation‘s
infrastructure, reducing the risk of data breaches and addressing compliance [Link] LLMs are
trained on vast amounts of general data, SLMs excel in specialisation. Through a process called fine-
tuning, these models can be tailored to specific domains or tasks, achieving high accuracy and
performance in narrow contexts. This targeted training approach allows SLMs to be highly efficient,
requiring significantly less computational power and energy consumption compared to their larger
[Link] difference lies in the inference speed and latency of SLMs. Their compact size
enables faster processing times, making them more responsive and suitable for real-time applications,
such as virtual assistants and [Link], the development and deployment of SLMs are often
more cost-effective than LLMs, which require substantial computational resources and financial
investment. This accessibility factor makes SLMs an attractive option for smaller organisations and
research groups with limited budgets.
Source: Understanding Small Language Models: How they stack up against LLMs - The Indian Express

1. A synonym for "splurge" (used in the passage) in the context of the sentence would be:
(a) Reduction (b) Investment
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Delay (d) Analysis

2. The most suitable title for the passage would be:

(a) The Dominance of Large Language Models in AI
(b) The Rise of Small Language Models: A Viable Alternative
(c) The Environmental Cost of Artificial Intelligence Research
(d) The Competition Between Tech Giants in Supercomputer Development

3. The overall tone of the passage can be described as:

(a) Critical of big tech companies and their AI practices.
(b) Informative and objective in presenting the development of SLMs.
(c) Enthusiastic about the potential of supercomputers in AI.
(d) Dismissive of the effectiveness of small language models.

4. The passage suggests that the author is concerned about the environmental impact of:
(a) The development of all language models, regardless of size.
(b) The high energy consumption required by large language models.
(c) The lack of security measures in place for small language models.
(d) The potential job losses in the tech industry due to AI advancements.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that future advancements in SLMs might lead to:
(a) A decrease in the need for large language models altogether.
(b) Increased collaboration between big tech companies in AI research.
(c) The development of even smaller and more specialized language models.
(d) A shift towards cloud-based deployment for all language models.

II. Art and culture

On a scalding summer day, the pink sandstone cupolas shine brighter. While cruising down the
Pantheon flyover, they catch one by surprise begging a second, curious glance. Further down, the
structure teases one by revealing its ornate jharokha (stone window) and intricate arches reminiscent of
Mughal architecture — a sight surely uncharacteristic of the chaos that is [Link] National Art
Gallery, an architectural marvel that Chennai should be proud of, despite being 115 years old, remains a
mystery. Nestled inside the calm, verdant oasis of the Government Museum campus, the Gallery is now
open to the public after being shut for a renovation project that spanned more than a decade, as per
official records. The long-drawn renovation is perhaps the reason why the historical building is alien to
young public [Link] ode to Akbar‘s dream doorway, the Bulund Darwaza in Fatehpur Sikri, the
structure built in the Jaipuri-Mughal style by Namberumal Chetty in 1909 was designed by Henry Irwin, a
regular contributor to the British-era Madras skyline. It was earlier called the Victoria Memorial Hall, and
was one of two buildings meant to honour Queen Victoria. It hosted the Victoria Technical Institute until
1951, when it was christened one of India‘s National Art galleries. Most paintings that belonged to the
archival section of the museum then were relocated. ―It is Chennai‘s only Indo-Saracenic structure
inspired by Mughal architecture,‖ says N Sundararajan, Assistant Director-in charge, Technical,
Department of Museums. Today, busloads of (mostly) Architecture students, and an almost steady
stream of local visitors and tourists through the day, is a happy sight. There has been an increase of 200
to 300 in footfall per day since the reopening. Past the mammoth facade, unique for its pale pink palette,
and replete with bulbous domes, pointed arches, jaali work, minarets, and stained glass, an
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

amalgamation of Mughal, Persian and Hindu elements that came to prominence in the 19th Century, is a
deep hallway, sans pillars. Housed here are over 120 works of art moved from the adjacent
Contemporary Art Gallery. ―When cracks were identified on the roof, the building was no longer in a
condition to house the paintings. The cement layering was disintegrating,‖ says J Kalathy, Curator,
National Art Gallery. After years of back and forth, the renovations were sanctioned for ₹12 crores. ―Most
of the paintings were cleaned by chemical conservation before displaying them again. The frames that
have been found broken have also been repaired. Apart from that, we have erected panels for the 12
British portraits that were not in a good condition, now saved through chemical conservation.‖ The
upkeep of the facade is hinged on sourcing pink sandstone from Andhra Pradesh, adds Sundararajan.
The newly plastered walls of the white hallway broadly categorise the art, some of which are undated,
into the schools of Tanjore, Mysore, and Rajput paintings. While some are recreations, specific canvases
like that of the portrait of Rani Durgawati, or Jehangir atop an elephant are priceless originals. While the
display lacks a narrative, and is sometimes ambiguous in its descriptors and attributions, this cross-
section speaks volumes of the museum‘s vast collection. It is important to also note that a more sensible
lighting design and the use of non-reflective glass in vitrines, would have helped the viewing experience
a great deal more.
Source: Chennai‘s 115-year-old National Art Gallery reopens, houses original Ravi Varma paintings -
The Hindu

6. The sentence "On a scalding summer day, the pink sandstone cupolas shine brighter" uses a rhetorical
device to achieve what effect?
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) Hyperbole (d) Personification

7. The meaning of "verdant oasis" in the context of the passage is closest to:
(a) Barren desert (b) Lush green haven
(c) Dusty marketplace (d) Crumbling historical site

8. It can be inferred from the passage that the long renovation of the National Art Gallery is a reason for:
(a) The increased footfall of architecture students since the reopening.
(b) The historical building being unfamiliar to the younger public.
(c) The decision to relocate most paintings from the archival section.
(d) The building being designed by Henry Irwin in the Jaipuri-Mughal style.

9. Which of the following statements from the passage supports the author's argument that the National Art
Gallery is an architectural marvel?
(a) The building was earlier called the Victoria Memorial Hall.
(b) The facade is replete with bulbous domes, pointed arches, and jaali work.
(c) The long-drawn renovation project was sanctioned for ₹12 crores.
(d) The upkeep of the facade relies on sourcing pink sandstone from Andhra Pradesh.

10. The sentence "Past the mammoth facade... is a deep hallway, sans pillars" describes the hallway as:
(a) Having a very high ceiling.
(b) Lacking any windows or openings.
(c) Decorated with numerous pillars.
(d) Featuring a long hallway without any supporting columns.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

III. Philosophy
If Marcus Aurelius were around today, would he have a podcast? The answer, of course, is no. His
meditations were for his own guidance and never knowingly meant to be published. Yet this doesn‘t
mean he wouldn‘t find himself shoved forward as a hero of a new resistance. Sound bites from any
speech he gives would be immediately rendered into TikToks with teenagers putting his quotations as
their phone background. Twenty-somethings working in industries he couldn‘t conceive of (‗digital
marketing‘? Quid est?) would stutter his words like mantras as they shiver in Clapham back garden ice
baths. For stoicism has returned, and in its strangest form yet. The philosophy truly got its modern mojo
back in the books of American marketer and author Ryan Holiday. Three million book sales and a top
podcast later, you‘re now just as likely to find Meditations or Letters from a Stoic on the bookshelf of a
pop diva as your perma-bachelor Latin teacher. It helps that the most popular works have just enough
mysticism to seem exotic and intellectual, but have enough pithy quotes that you can highlight and write
on fridge-door post-it notes. Indeed, the core philosophy of stoicism is very simple: you cannot truly fight
the vicissitudes of fate, but you can learn to face them more nobly. It‘s a tenet that has universal appeal.
Inevitably though, its latest incarnation has been monopolised by Americans, with its most prominent
advocates usually based in California or Austin, Texas. It‘s a lot easier to be stoic when you have
sunshine and surfing for 284 days of the year, less so when it‘s a damp English February and you‘re still
waiting for the plumber to come fix your boiler (then again, it‘s nothing new: ancient Greece wasn‘t
exactly known for its inclement weather).The new adherents wear their stoicism like those who‘ve just
embarked on a new diet. Just as keto/vegan/paleo/seed-oil-free diets are alternately presented as the
one true path to health enlightenment, stoicism takes on the role of moral panacea. And where stoicism
in its original form taught emotional resilience, this has been re-marketed as ‗ignoring things makes you
cool‘. Your cat‘s died? Turn to stoicism. The Bitcoin price is going down? Turn to stoicism. Your
girlfriend‘s leaving you because you won‘t open up emotionally? Turn to stoicism. This indiscriminate
application of a nuanced and complex philosophy has ended up with its followers‘ outlook being
practically indistinguishable from the millennial cohort who tried to seem edgy by proclaiming themselves
nihilists. The truth is though, as easy as it is to be a detractor, the lives of many of those who adopt
Stoicism Lite™ do improve. There is of course a certain self selection bias – that those who choose to
investigate stoicism are already the type attempting to improve and ‗optimise‘ (the buzzword of the
moment) their day-to-day lives – but it helps that much of the philosophy is anecdotal and often just
common sense (though sometimes you have to fish it out of a series of clauses). Just as we might cite
an author who said something clever we found on BrainyQuote, Marcus Aurelius might do the same – as
when he cites Asclepius who was ‗commonly said to prescribe horse-riding, cold baths, or walking
barefoot‘. I‘ve heard my father discourse on the benefits of each of these three habits, and I know for a
fact that he has never read any of the Stoics. Stoicism is, after all, one of the philosophies that
emphasizes the passing on of acquired wisdom to an unworldly youth, and where the wisdom‘s value
lies in its effect rather than just its source.
Source: [Link]

11. An antonym for "permanent" (used in the passage) in the context of the sentence "your perma-bachelor
Latin teacher" would be:
(a) Temporary (b) Knowledgeable
(c) Unmarried (d) Stoic

12. The passage suggests that the author has a critical view of the modern adaptation of Stoicism for the
following reason:
(a) It focuses on self-improvement through healthy habits.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It emphasizes emotional resilience in dealing with challenges.

(c) It has become a fad followed by people who misunderstand its core principles.
(d) It is more popular among young people than older generations.

13. Which of the following statements from the passage supports the idea that Stoicism has become trendy?
(a) The philosophy is mentioned in the writings of Marcus Aurelius.
(b) Ryan Holiday's books and podcasts have contributed to its popularity.
(c) The core philosophy of Stoicism is very simple and universally appealing.
(d) Stoicism emphasizes the importance of emotional resilience.

14. The author's main argument regarding Stoicism in the modern world is that:
(a) It is a complex philosophy misunderstood by its current followers.
(b) Its core principles are still relevant and can be helpful for self-improvement.
(c) It originated in ancient Greece and is not applicable to modern problems.
(d) It has become more popular among pop stars than academics.

15. The overall tone of the passage can be described as:

(a) Solemn and respectful towards the philosophy of Stoicism.
(b) Enthusiastic and supportive of the revival of Stoic principles.
(c) Playful and critical of the superficial adoption of Stoicism.
(d) Objective and informative in presenting the history of Stoicism.

IV. Environment
In 2015, the United Nations adopted the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) as a ―call to action‖ in
―global partnership.‖ By 2023 it appears that our progress has been far from satisfactory in achieving
these goals.
Setbacks due to natural disasters, rising costs, armed conflicts, and the COVID-19 pandemic have even
reversed progress already made on some of the [Link] UN 2023 report concludes that aspects of
sustainability (environmental, economic, and social) should be considered as a whole to bring about
meaningful recovery. Science is identified as the vehicle for that change. But it must be ―multidisciplinary,
equitably and inclusively produced, openly shared, widely trusted and embraced, and ‗socially robust‘ –
relevant to society. ‖The report also shows that progress in other areas of development can negatively
impact land — and the life that depends upon it. Furthermore, terrestrial ecosystems are at further risk
due to climate change, landslides, earthquakes and environmental pollutants. To improve the quality of
life for both current and future generations we have to protect, restore and promote sustainable land. To
manage our environment, we need to understand the relationships between atmosphere, soil, and
pollutants at local and regional scales — and also across time. The grounds surface — excluding many
manufactured surfaces like concrete — is like a membrane that allows the migration and retention of air,
water, contaminants and heat. Every type of human development activity including commodity extraction,
building roads and urban facilities, agricultural practices and even the containment of mining and
municipal waste is affected by the porous nature of [Link] know that the removal of groundwater
results in soil settlement. On the flip side rainfall causes landslides as the excess water pressure breaks
down the soil‘s structure. Moreover, seasonal weather causes both wet and dry cycles and freeze and
thaw cycles which generate repeated soil [Link] is essential that we as scientists and policymakers
consider the geology, climate and environment to help predict soil behaviour at a given site.
Source: [Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

16. The meaning of "porous" (used in the passage) in the context of the sentence is closest to:
(a) Solid and impermeable
(b) Having tiny holes that allow liquids or gases to pass through
(c) Smooth and even
(d) Covered in vegetation

17. The central theme of the passage is:

(a) The negative impact of climate change on land.
(b) The importance of scientific understanding for sustainable development.
(c) The need for global cooperation to achieve the UN's Sustainable Development Goals.
(d) The challenges of managing and protecting soil for future generations.

18. It can be inferred from the passage that the UN report on Sustainable Development Goals is critical of:
(a) The focus on individual goals without considering their broader impact.
(b) The lack of funding allocated for scientific research on sustainability.
(c) The scientific community's failure to produce relevant solutions.
(d) The public's distrust in scientific findings on environmental issues.

19. The sentence "The grounds surface — excluding many manufactured surfaces like concrete — is like a
membrane that allows the migration and retention of air, water, contaminants and heat" describes soil
as:
(a) A barrier that blocks the movement of air, water, and heat.
(b) A protective layer that filters pollutants from the environment.
(c) A vital layer that allows for the exchange of essential elements.
(d) A source of contamination for air and water resources.

20. The author's tone in the passage can be described as:

(a) Angry and frustrated by the lack of progress on sustainability.
(b) Objective and informative in presenting the importance of soil management.
(c) Hopeful and optimistic about the potential of scientific solutions.
(d) Sarcastic and critical of the UN's approach to development goals.

V. Literature
Filth had laid siege to the Ayemenem House like a medieval army advancing on an enemy castle. It
clotted every crevice and clung to the windowpanes. Midges whizzed in teapots. Dead insects lay in
empty vases.
The floor was sticky. White walls had turned an uneven gray. Brass hinges and door handles were dull
and greasy to the touch. Infrequently used plug points were clogged with grime. Lightbulbs had a film of
oil on them. The only things that shone were the giant cockroaches that scurried around like varnished
gofers on a film set. Baby Kochamma had stopped noticing these things long ago. Kochu Maria, who
noticed everything, had stopped [Link] chaise longue on which Baby Kochamma reclined had
crushed peanut shells stuffed into the crevices of its rotting upholstery . In an unconscious gesture of
television-enforced democracy, mistress and servant both scrabbled unseeingly in the same bowl of
nuts. Kochu Maria tossed nuts into her mouth. Baby Kochamma placed them decorously in hers.
On The Best of Donahue the studio audience watched a clip from a film in which a black busker was
singing ―Somewhere Over the Rainbow ‖ in a subway station. He sang sincerely, as though he really
believed the words of the song. Baby Kochamma sang with him, her thin, quavering voice thickened with
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

peanut paste. She smiled as the lyrics came back to her. Kochu Maria looked at her as though she had
gone mad, and grabbed more than her fair share of nuts. The busker threw his head back when he hit
the high notes (the where of ―somewhere‖), and the ridged, pink roof of his mouth filled the television
screen. He was as ragged as a rock star, but his missing teeth and the unhealthy pallor of his skin spoke
eloquently of a life of privation and despair. He had to stop singing each time a train arrived or left, which
was often. Then the lights went up in the studio and Donahue presented the man himself, who, on a pre-
arranged cue, started the song from exactly the point that he had had to stop (for a train), cleverly
achieving a touching victory of Song over Subway. The next time the husker was interrupted mid-song
was only when Phil Donahue put his arm around him and said ―Thank you. Thank you very much.‖
Being interrupted by Phil Donahue was of course entirely different from being interrupted by a subway
rumble. It was a pleasure. An honor. The studio audience clapped and looked compassionate.
The busker glowed with Prime-Time Happiness, and for a few moments, deprivation took a backseat. It
had been his dream to sing on the Donahue show, he said, not realizing that he had just been robbed of
that too.
Source: The God of Small Things by Arundhati Roy

21. The sentence "Filth had laid siege to the Ayemenem House like a medieval army advancing on an
enemy castle" uses a simile to achieve what effect?
(a) To emphasize the beauty and grandeur of the Ayemenem House.
(b) To highlight the overwhelming and relentless nature of the dirt.
(c) To create a sense of mystery surrounding the source of the filth.
(d) To compare the Ayemenem House to a historical landmark.

22. An antonym for "scrabbled" in the context of the sentence "mistress and servant both scrabbled
unseeingly in the same bowl of nuts" would be:
(a) Searched diligently (b) Shared generously
(c) Reached casually (d) Consumed enthusiastically

23. It can be inferred from the passage that Baby Kochamma:

(a) Takes pride in the cleanliness of her home.
(b) Is oblivious to the extent of the filth in the house.
(c) Actively resists Kochu Maria's attempts to clean.
(d) Secretly enjoys the company of the cockroaches.

24. The sentence "Being interrupted by Phil Donahue was of course entirely different from being interrupted
by a subway rumble" implies that:
(a) Both interruptions were equally frustrating for the busker.
(b) The busker viewed being stopped by Donahue as a positive experience.
(c) The audience's applause made the subway interruptions bearable.
(d) The busker's dream was to be featured on a show despite interruptions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 18
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Polity
Back in 1977, as a doctoral student aged twenty-one, I found myself prowling the corridors of the Ministry
of External Affairs at South Block in New Delhi for the first time, researching the thesis that was to
become my first book, Reasons of State. I was callow, curious and opinionated a useful combination of
attributes in one who hopes to break new ground in scholarship and my analysis was, with hindsight,
overly critical of the received wisdom about Indian foreign policy making. Thirty-two years later, I found
myself, after an election victory, seated in South Block as a minister of state, with an insider‘s view of the
issues I had written so boldly about. It was instructive to realize how much had changed, and how little.
In Reasons of State, a study of how foreign policy was made during Indira Gandhi‘s first stint as prime
minister (1966 –77), I was struck by the fact that while formal institutionalization existed in the Indian
political system, official processes and decision-making channels were significantly modified in their
operation to accentuate Mrs Gandhi‘s personal, and her advisers‘ informal, dominance over institutions.
It did not help that in her stints in office, the logic of the parliamentary system was inverted in a way that
has not been seen since: the concept of a prime minister as primus inter pares in a Cabinet, accountable
to a political party and responsive to the demands of a parliamentary system, was not realized in actual
practice, which instead concentrated powers in the executive along presidential lines. This is simply no
longer true in Indian politics, but it prefigured a continuing tradition of wide leeway for the prime minister‘s
office (PMO) in foreign policy making, which persists to this day. Studying the domestic underpinnings of
Indian foreign policy making, I found that public opinion hardly factored in it in those days: there was
inadequate articulation of mass views on foreign policy, both urban and rural, underscored by the
restricted nature of political communication, and such elite articulation as did take place was largely
ineffective. The result was that public pressure
on foreign policy—whether through the opinions of the general public, their votes in elections, the
activities of interest groups, the arguments of the press, or the positions of intellectuals through or
outside the media—failed to influence the creation of foreign policy, even though public opinion always
had a major impact when it came to domestic policy formulation. Equally, the organized political
Opposition in Parliament, even when it was in power in some of the states, had very little demonstrable
impact on foreign policy making, despite paying voluble, if in several ways limited, attention to it. Policy-
makers made policy with very little regard to the constraints of elite or mass public opinion. This is
noticeably less true today, though again policy-makers have more freedom to disregard, or go beyond,
public opinion on foreign policy issues than they do in the domestic arena.
Source: Pax Indica by Shashi Tharoor

1. What is the author's assessment of the Indian political system during Indira Gandhi's first stint as prime
minister?
(a) It prioritized parliamentary accountability.
(b) It emphasized formal institutionalization.
(c) It centralized power in the executive branch.
(d) It encouraged public participation in foreign policy making.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. Based on the passage, what role did public opinion play in Indian foreign policy making during the period
discussed?
(a) It had a significant influence.
(b) It was largely ineffective.
(c) It was carefully considered by policymakers.
(d) It was only relevant in domestic policy formulation.

3. Which rhetorical device does the author use when describing the prime minister's office (PMO) in foreign
policy making?
(a) Metaphor (b) Hyperbole
(c) Alliteration (d) Personification

4. What can be inferred about the author's perspective on the evolution of public opinion's role in foreign
policy making?
(a) It has remained constant over time. (b) It has diminished in significance.
(c) It has become more influential. (d) It was never a consideration.

5. What can be inferred from the author's equating of PMO and President's office?
(a) Both President and Prime Minister take decisions about foreign policy together
(b) Prime Minister works parallel to the President
(c) Prime Minster has assumed the sole authority on foreign policy
(d) All of the above
II. Literature
The 26 January horror of Kutch in Gujarat is well known. Without any warning, Mother Earth opened her
mouth and engulfed the people and their belongings. Overnight, rich people were reduced to the streets.
But the spirit of the Kutchi people is admirable. They faced this disaster bravely and are still fighting to
restore normalcy. The media has to be congratulated for its role in the relief efforts. Within hours of the
tragedy, all newspapers and television channels had zoomed in to cover the disaster and broadcast it all
over the world. Along with India, the rest of the world participated in helping these unfortunate people.
After all the rush of the TV crews and media people, hordes of NGOs and government officials landed up
in Kutch. People started picking up their life from where they had left it. Life started to return to normal at
a slow pace.I went to visit these areas after some time, when the dust of propaganda had settled down,
in order to see actual life. After all, the emotions had drained off and reality had become the
[Link] small villages deep inside Kutch, away from the main road connecting Ahmedabad and
Bhuj, had been badly affected by the earthquake. I was visiting these remote places in the deep interior
when one of the tyres of my jeep went flat. Getting it fixed would take some time. My driver went to get
this done. I was alone and bored. I saw a few tents nearby. They were temporary sheds covered with
blue plastic sheets. They were temporary houses, schools and health centres for the people residing in
that area. Later, I heard that there were tent hotels as well.
Life was busy and people were getting on with their chores. As it was monsoon season, men and women
were busy in the fields. It was very strange. For many years there had not been much rain in Kutch, but
that year it had rained abundantly. Farmers were having a bumper crop. I suppose nature has its own
method of justice. On the one hand she takes away something and on the other she gives something in
return. Small children were playing in the dust happily. I peeped into one of the nearby tents. A young
girl, about fourteen years old, was cleaning grains and preparing to cook a meal. When she saw me, she
rose with a smile and said, ‗Please come in and sit down.‘ As I wanted to see how they lived, I entered
the shed. She gave me a charpoy to sit on. Inside the tent it was clean and neat. There was a thin
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

partition made of an old sari. I understood from her conversation that her family was not from Kutch. The
girl offered me a glass of water. Though it was the monsoon season, the sun was hot, but I was a little
hesitant to drink the water. Many thoughts flashed across my mind. If the water was not sterile, then I
was at risk of contracting diseases like dysentery and jaundice. If I refused to accept the water, however,
I knew I would hurt the girl‘s feelings. So I took the glass but did not drink the water. The girl had a
younger sister who might have been around twelve years old. There was a little boy sleeping in a home-
made cradle. Outside, there was a temporary open kitchen where sabzi was being cooked. The elder
one was making dough from wheat flour.
Source: Here, there and everywhere by Sudha Murthy

6. According to the passage, what was the response of the media to the disaster in Kutch?
(a) The media ignored the disaster completely.
(b) The media covered the disaster extensively and played a crucial role in relief efforts.
(c) The media sensationalized the disaster for ratings.
(d) The media criticized the government's handling of the disaster.

7. What does the author imply by stating, "Life started to return to normal at a slow pace"?
(a) Life returned to normal quickly after the disaster.
(b) The recovery process was swift and efficient.
(c) Despite the challenges, people gradually resumed their daily routines.
(d) The disaster had no lasting impact on the affected communities.

8. What can be inferred about the author's impression of the Kutchi people?
(a) They were unprepared and panicked during the disaster.
(b) They displayed resilience and courage in facing the disaster.
(c) They blamed the government for their misfortune.
(d) They relied solely on external aid for recovery efforts.

9. Why did the author hesitate to drink the water offered by the young girl?
(a) Due to the risk of contracting diseases like dysentery and jaundice.
(b) Because she was not thirsty at the time.
(c) Because she did not trust the girl's intentions.
(d) Because she wanted to hurt the girl's feelings.

10. What does the word "charpoy" refer to in the passage?

(a) A type of grain used for cooking.
(b) A makeshift bed made of woven rope or string.
(c) A traditional Indian garment worn by women.
(d) A cooking utensil used for making dough.

III. Economics
More than 80% of women in England and Wales will become mothers at some point during their working
lives, according to OECD figures. Most of these women will have two children around two or three years
apart, spending at least 20 years of their adult lives with a child under 18 and creating significant
childcare needs for some of this time. The current price of childcare is high, averaging £149 per week in
Great Britain for 25 hours of care for a child under two years old. This represents about 60% of the
minimum wage earnings of someone working part-time (around 25 hours per week), and 25% of the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

median full-time earnings for a woman in Great Britain. Availability is also a problem. Only 57% of local
authorities report having enough childcare places for children under the age of two. Career breaks during
motherhood are a major driver of the increase in the gender pay gap over the child-bearing years.
Mothers‘ earnings ten and even 20 years after the birth of a first child are about 20% lower than a similar
childless woman. Fathers‘ earnings over the same life stages do not show any evidence of these ―child
penalties‖. Having children creates a double hurdle when a mother is deciding whether and how much to
work. First, childcare fees substantially reduce take-home pay. But also, time is valued differently. When
not at work, it changes from leisure time to time spent with your child (and a little leisure too, of course).
Both hurdles reduce the attractiveness of work. But while the latter reflects a combination of individual
preferences and social norms, the former – childcare costs – can be overcome with the right policies. If
these policies do not alleviate childcare costs and give parents (affordable) ways to work, mothers will
lose out in the long term – but so will the wider economy. On an individual level, wage growth is affected
by the decision to work part time or not at all because only full-time employment typically leads to wage
progression. The relative penalties of choosing a part-time job or no work are particularly marked for
graduates. Lower wages will also have a negative impact on both women‘s independence and on their
productivity, feeding into the economy. Low wages and hours worked by mothers, combined with
parents‘ separation are an important source of child poverty. In less educated families, women‘s
employment is the most effective measure against the incidence of child poverty. Research shows that
childcare subsidies are the most effective policy for raising mothers‘ labour supply, particularly among
low-skill households. Unsurprisingly, subsidies conditional on work are a more effective incentive to get
people to seek or remain in employment than unconditional child credits, which can reduce the
attractiveness of work. Research also shows that childcare subsidies can be partly self-financing over
the long term. If mothers work more now and then enjoy more wage growth over time, they are more
likely to continue to work and earn more in the future. This means they will pay more income tax, which
could offset some of the initial government spending on childcare subsidies.
Source: [Link]
and-fathers-career-paths-for-this-generation-and-the-next-207705

11. According to the passage, what is identified as a major contributor to the gender pay gap over the child-
bearing years?
(a) Lack of career opportunities for women.
(b) Fathers' unwillingness to take parental leave.
(c) Career breaks during motherhood.
(d) Discriminatory hiring practices.

12. What does the passage suggest as the primary obstacle to mothers' participation in the workforce?
(a) Lack of educational qualifications. (b) Social norms and preferences.
(c) Limited job opportunities. (d) Unaffordable childcare costs.

13. Based on the passage, why are childcare subsidies considered effective in raising mothers' labor
supply?
(a) They directly increase mothers' wages.
(b) They reduce the need for parents' separation.
(c) They provide financial incentives for employment.
(d) They prioritize low-skill households.

14. What does the passage imply about the impact of mothers' employment on child poverty?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Mothers' employment has no effect on child poverty.

(b) Mothers' employment is the primary cause of child poverty.
(c) Mothers' employment helps reduce the incidence of child poverty.
(d) Mothers' employment exacerbates child poverty.

15. What does the term "self-financing" mean in the context of childcare subsidies, as mentioned in the
passage?
(a) The subsidies are funded entirely by the government.
(b) The subsidies are funded by the increased income tax revenue from working mothers.
(c) The subsidies are funded by reducing other government expenditures.
(d) The subsidies are funded by private donations.

IV. Philosophy
Charles Baudoin was a professor at the Rousseau Institute in France. He was a brilliant psychotherapist
and a research director of the New Nancy School of Healing. He discovered that the best way to impress
the subconscious mind is to enter into a drowsy, sleepy state, or a state akin to sleep, in which all effort
was reduced to a minimum. Then the idea can be conveyed to the subconscious in a quiet, passive,
receptive way, by reflection. As Baudoin explained: A very simple way of securing this (impregnation of
the subconscious mind) is to condense the idea which is to be the object of suggestion, to sum it up in a
brief phrase which can be readily graven on the memory, and to repeat it over and over again as a
lullaby. A few years ago, a young widow in Los Angeles found herself caught up in a prolonged and bitter
family dispute. Her late husband had left his entire estate to her, but his sons and daughters from a
previous marriage had filed suit to break the will. Her offers of a settlement were spurned. When she
asked me for my help, I explained the Baudoin technique to her. I urged her to condense the idea of her
need into a phrase of a few words that could be easily impressed on her memory. The phrase she found
was "It is finished in divine order." To her, these words meant that infinite intelligence, operating through
the laws of her subconscious mind, would bring about a harmonious conclusion through the principle of
harmony. Every night for ten nights she sat in an armchair, systematically relaxed her body, and entered
into the sleepy state. Once in a sleepy state, she affirmed slowly, quietly, and feelingly the statement, "It
is finished in divine order," over and over again. She found herself achieving a sense of inner peace and
an all-pervading tranquility; then she went off into her deep, normal sleep. On the morning of the
eleventh day, she woke up with a sense of well-being and a conviction that it was indeed finished. Her
attorney called her that same day. The opposing attorney and his clients were willing to settle. A
harmonious agreement was reached, and the lawsuit was dropped.
Source: Power of Your Subconscious Mind by Dr. Joseph Murphy

16. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The importance of legal battles in inheritance disputes.
(b) The effectiveness of the Baudoin technique in resolving conflicts.
(c) The role of attorneys in settling family disputes.
(d) The challenges faced by widows in managing inherited estates.

17. Which rhetorical device is used in the phrase "It is finished in divine order"?
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) Alliteration (d) Hyperbole
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

18. What inference can be made about the widow's emotional state during the ten nights of practicing the
Baudoin technique?
(a) She experienced frustration and anxiety.
(b) She felt overwhelmed and stressed.
(c) She achieved a sense of inner peace and tranquility.
(d) She remained indifferent and unaffected.

19. What is the antonym of the word "tranquility" as used in the passage?
(a) Chaos (b) Serenity
(c) Harmony (d) Peacefulness

20. Based on the author's tone, how does he likely view the effectiveness of the Baudoin technique?
(a) Skeptical (b) Neutral
(c) Critical (d) Supportive

V. History
In 1771, an almost penniless man arrived in Bengal from England, lured to these shores by the promise
of fortune. His name was John Prinsep and lady luck indeed shone bright on him. He went into indigo
cultivation and by the time he was ready to sail back home in 1787, his personal fortune stood at
£40,000! Back in England, Prinsep established himself as an East India merchant and in time, also
became a member of parliament. In 1799, when John Prinsep was way past 50, his seventh son and
10th offspring was born. The boy was christened James. From a very young age, James showed a
remarkable ability in making detailed drawings and mechanical inventions. This led to him to study
architecture under the tutelage of the eccentric but gifted Augustus Pugin. Sadly, an eye infection led to
partial loss of eyesight, and James had to quit architecture studies. Thanks to his business, John Prinsep
had considerable influence in the Company‘s affairs in India and he secured a position for James in
1818, in Calcutta. On September 15, 1819, James Prinsep, accompanied by one of his brothers, arrived
in Calcutta and took up his assigned position in the assay department of the Calcutta mint. After a year,
Prinsep was transferred to Benares to take up duties at the Company mint there. It was in Benares that
James Prinsep‘s life underwent a major transformation. Aside from his official duties, Benares reignited
the love of architecture in young James‘s mind. By a fortuitous outcome, his eyesight improved
considerably and he devoted himself to studying temple architecture and made several illustrations on it.
During his 10 years in Benares, Prinsep designed the building for the new mint and also a Company
church. One of Prinsep‘s memorable contributions to the city was designing an arched tunnel to drain out
water from stagnant lakes and thereby improve the sanitation of the densely populated religious town.
He also designed a stone bridge over the Karamansa River and produced a map of Benares and its
surroundings – accurate at the scale of 8 inches to the mile. Another facet of Prinsep‘s multi-talented
personage came to the fore in form of a series of watercolours of Benares‘ monuments and festivals.
Prinsep‘s watercolours were sent to London in 1829 and published between 1830 and 1834 as Benares
Illustrated, in a Series of Drawings. He also restored Aurangzeb‘s famous minarets, which had been
reduced to near ruins. In 1830, after the Benares mint closed down, Prinsep moved back to Calcutta as
deputy assay master and two years later, became the chief assay master. In 1833, he called for reforms
to Indian weights and measures and advocated a uniform coinage based on the new silver rupee of the
East India Company. He also devised a balance so sensitive as to measure three-thousandth of a
[Link] 1832, Prinsep became the Secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, and also the founding
editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society. He regularly contributed articles on chemistry, mineralogy,
numismatics, and on the study of Indian antiquities. He also was very interested in weather phenomena,
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

and collected weather data from across the country for research. He designed a modified barometer that
automatically compensated for temperature. He also conducted experiments on practical methods to
prevent rusting of iron surfaces. Many of his experiment results were published in the journal.
Source: [Link]
legacy-of-james-prinsep-in-india/cid/2001374

21. What is the author's tone towards James Prinsep's achievements?

(a) Admiring and reverential (b) Critical and disapproving
(c) Indifferent and neutral (d) Skeptical and doubtful

22. Which statement is least likely to be inferred from the passage regarding James Prinsep's tenure in
Benares?
(a) Prinsep made significant contributions to improving the sanitation of Benares.
(b) Prinsep's eyesight improved considerably during his time in Benares.
(c) Prinsep focused solely on his official duties at the mint during his tenure in Benares.
(d) Prinsep was actively involved in studying temple architecture and producing illustrations.

23. What can one conclude about James Prinsep's interests and talents based on the passage?
(a) He was primarily interested in business and commerce.
(b) He had a keen interest in architecture, drawing, and mechanical inventions.
(c) He was only focused on his official duties and showed no interest in other activities.
(d) He had no significant contributions to the development of Benares.

24. Which sentence implies James Prinsep's dedication to his work and his multifaceted talents?
(a) "James Prinsep's life underwent a major transformation during his tenure in Benares."
(b) "He devoted himself to studying temple architecture and made several illustrations on it."
(c) "Prinsep moved back to Calcutta as deputy assay master and two years later, became the chief
assay master."
(d) "He regularly contributed articles on chemistry, mineralogy, numismatics, and on the study of Indian
antiquities."
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 19
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Fali Sam Nariman passed away on February 21. Senior Advocate, doyen of the Indian bar and legal
luminary, his life is an example and an inspiration for all those who cherish the values of the Republic.
Born in Rangoon in 1929, in what was then still British India, Nariman moved to India with his parents in
February 1942 in the wake of the Japanese invasion of Burma. As he described in his autobiography
Before Memory Fades (2010), the Nariman family was forced to leave behind most of their personal
belongings. They made the 21-day trek across the Indo-Burmese border, carrying, for the most part,
boxes of office records. He came from a generation who knew the cost of war personally.
After he received a second class in his Bachelor of Arts examinations, his father was keen on him sitting
for the Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination, but young Fali knew his father could ill-afford the fees. He
chose, instead, to study the law.
Though Nariman described law as the ―last refuge‖ of a ―second-class arts student‖, that second-class
degree was the Indian bar‘s good fortune. He began his legal career in November 1950. He joined the
chambers of Sir Jamshedji Behramji Kanga, which produced such luminaries as Harilal Kania, the first
Chief Justice of India, and H M Seervai, whose Constitutional Law of India (1967) is one of the definitive
accounts of the Indian Constitution.
Nariman‘s career was marked by his integrity. He was Additional Solicitor General of India from May
1972 to June 1975, resigning from that post when the Emergency was declared on June 26, 1975. He
never accepted any constitutional office thereafter. In a career spanning more than 70 years, the cases
he argued shaped the courts as an institution of constitutional governance.
One example is the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association (SCAORA) case of 1993 (the
Second Judges case) where the Supreme Court endorsed the collegium system. Before the Court,
Nariman had argued that ―consultation‖ with the President meant more than merely seeking advice. The
Court upheld the collegium system, finding that the Chief Justice would also have to take into account
the opinions of his senior most colleagues.
In later years, Nariman criticised the collegium system, arguing that many fine lawyers had been
overlooked for consideration for judgeship. But he appeared again in the 2016 SCAORA case, arguing
that the National Judicial Appointments Commission would impinge on the independence of the judiciary.
The Constitution‘s mandate to uphold the independence of the judiciary, he argued, was necessary to
inspire the faith of citizens in impartial justice and to uphold constitutional values.
I was one of the lawyers who briefed him, in 2012, in Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation, where
the Supreme Court upheld the sodomy law, under Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. His
arguments were a masterclass in the fundamental principles of criminal law. He laid bare the structure of
the Penal Code to argue that there were no grounds to make sexual acts between consenting adults a
criminal offence. He urged the Bench that the law had to move with the times.
Source: [Link]
9174407/

1. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The life and achievements of Senior Advocate Fali Sam Nariman.
(b) The history of the Indian bar and legal luminaries.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The impact of British colonialism on legal education in India.

(d) The challenges faced by second-class arts students in pursuing law.

2. Which event prompted Fali Sam Nariman's family to move from Rangoon to India?
(a) The outbreak of World War II.
(b) The Japanese invasion of Burma.
(c) The Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination.
(d) Economic hardship faced by his family.

3. What was Nariman's role during the Emergency declared in India in 1975?
(a) He continued to serve as Additional Solicitor General of India.
(b) He resigned from his post as Additional Solicitor General of India.
(c) He was appointed as Chief Justice of India.
(d) He was elected as a member of the Parliament.

4. Which legal case did Nariman argue in 2016 related to the judiciary's independence?
(a) Second Judges case.
(b) National Judicial Appointments Commission case.
(c) Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation case.
(d) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association (SCAORA) case.

5. What aspect of the Indian Penal Code did Nariman challenge in the Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz
Foundation case?
(a) Section 377. (b) Section 302.
(c) Section 420. (d) Section 498A.

6. Which word best describes Nariman's legal arguments in the Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation
case?
(a) Convoluted. (b) Persuasive.
(c) Incoherent. (d) Perfunctory.

II. It was Lady Windermere‘s last reception before Easter, and Bentinck House was even more crowded
than usual. Six Cabinet Ministers had come on from the Speaker‘s Levee in their stars and ribands, all
the pretty women wore their smartest dresses, and at the end of the picture-gallery stood the Princess
Sophia of Carlsruhe, a heavy Tartar-looking lady, with tiny black eyes and wonderful emeralds, talking
bad French at the top of her voice, and laughing immoderately at everything that was said to her. It was
certainly a wonderful medley of people. Gorgeous peeresses chatted affably to violent Radicals, popular
preachers brushed coat-tails with eminent sceptics, a perfect bevy of bishops kept following a stout
prima-donna from room to room, on the staircase stood several Royal Academicians, disguised as
artists, and it was said that at one time the supper-room was absolutely crammed with geniuses. In fact,
it was one of Lady Windermere‘s best nights, and the Princess stayed till nearly half-past eleven.
As soon as she had gone, Lady Windermere returned to the picture-gallery, where a celebrated political
economist was solemnly explaining the scientific theory of music to an indignant virtuoso from Hungary,
and began to talk to the Duchess of Paisley. She looked wonderfully beautiful with her grand ivory throat,
her large blue forget-me-not eyes, and her heavy coils of golden hair. Or pur they were – not that pale
straw colour that nowadays usurps the gracious name of gold, but such gold as is woven into sunbeams
or hidden in strange amber; and gave to her face something of the frame of a saint, with not a little of the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

fascination of a sinner. She was a curious psychological study. Early in life she had discovered the
important truth that nothing looks so like innocence as an indiscretion; and by a series of reckless
escapades, half of them quite harmless, she had acquired all the privileges of a personality. She had
more than once changed her husband; indeed, Debrett credits her with three marriages; but as she had
never changed her lover, the world had long ago ceased to talk scandal about her. She was now forty
years of age, childless, and with that inordinate passion for pleasure which is the secret of remaining
young.
Suddenly she looked eagerly round the room, and said, in her clear contralto voice, ‗Where is my
cheiromantist?‘.
‗Your what, Gladys?‘ exclaimed the Duchess, giving an involuntary start.
‗My cheiromantist, Duchess; I can‘t live without him at present.
‗Dear Gladys! you are always so original,‘ murmured the Duchess, trying to remember what a
cheiromantist really was, and hoping it was not the same as a chiropodist.
‗He comes to see my hand twice a week regularly,‘ continued Lady Windermere, ‗and is most interesting
about it.‘
‗Good heavens!‘ said the Duchess to herself ‗he is a sort of chiropodist after all. How very dreadful. I
hope he is a foreigner at any rate. It wouldn‘t be quite so bad then.‘
‗I must certainly introduce him to you.‘
‗Introduce him!‘ cried the Duchess; ‗you don‘t mean to say he is here?‘ and she began looking about for
a small tortoise-shell fan and a very tattered lace shawl, so as to be ready to go at a moment‘s notice.
Source: [Link]

7. What event was Lady Windermere hosting at Bentinck House?

(a) A charity auction. (b) A Cabinet meeting.
(c) A reception. (d) A fashion show.

8. What was the Princess Sophia of Carlsruhe doing at the reception?

(a) Singing opera. (b) Discussing politics.
(c) Speaking bad French and laughing. (d) Dancing with Cabinet Ministers.

9. How does the passage describe Lady Windermere's appearance?

(a) With a thin frame and green eyes.
(b) With a pale complexion and red hair.
(c) With a grand ivory throat, blue eyes, and golden hair.
(d) With a petite stature and brown eyes.

10. What did Lady Windermere want to find at the reception?

(a) Her jeweller. (b) Her astrologer.
(c) Her tarot card reader. (d) Her cheiromantist.

11. Which word best describes the Duchess's reaction to Lady Windermere's mention of the cheiromantist?
(a) Excited. (b) Confused.
(c) Amused. (d) Relieved.

12. What was Lady Windermere's attitude toward her past indiscretions?
(a) She regretted them deeply.
(b) She revealed in them as part of her personality.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) She denied ever having committed any.

(d) She was embarrassed by them.

III. It was an indirect election in which a mere 35 councillors could vote. Yet, the election of Chandigarh‘s
Mayor has emerged as a microcosm of the sort of serious electoral malpractice that can undermine
democracy. The Supreme Court of India, while declaring the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) candidate Kuldeep
Kumar as the duly elected Mayor, has exposed a malaise that is not often recognised in the great Indian
election scene: the role of officials in helping parties steal elections through fraudulent means during
counting. The act of the Returning Officer, Anil Masih, in marking or defacing ballot papers, was not only
captured on camera but was also proven to be a ruse to declare invalid votes that were validly cast in Mr.
Kumar‘s favour. Mr. Masih, a man with Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) affiliation, appears to have
committed the illegality to help Manoj Sonkar, the BJP candidate, win the mayoral election, but it
ultimately backfired on him, as the apex court has initiated the process to prosecute him for giving false
information to the Court. Ever since he controversially declared Mr. Sonkar elected after ruling eight
votes invalid, Mr. Masih had sought to brazen it out by claiming that the votes were invalid as they were
defaced. His claim was shown to be false, as the Court found nothing on the ballots indicating
defacement.
When Mr. Sonkar resigned from his post on the eve of the hearing, the Court was alive to the possibility
that the BJP was looking for a reason to have a fresh election, as by that time, it had won over three
AAP councillors to its side, a development that may impede the new Mayor‘s functioning. The Court
warned against the democratic process being set at naught by ―subterfuge‖. It was, therefore, logical that
it did not order a fresh election, but decided to go ahead with the original votes, taking into account the
valid votes illegally declared invalid. There is little doubt that the development is a setback to the BJP,
which seems to have resorted to the fraud with the aim of subverting the cooperation between the
Congress and the AAP, which are part of the Opposition INDIA bloc and had forged an alliance for the
municipal election. BJP president J.P. Nadda had sought to use the election result to underscore the
failure of both arithmetic and chemistry in the Opposition alliance, but will now have to deal with the
party‘s loss of face. It was indeed a fit case for the Court to invoke its extraordinary powers to decide on
fact who actually won the election. The prosecution of Mr. Masih should also establish at whose behest
he had resorted to such flagrant fraud.

13. What was the Supreme Court's decision regarding the election of Chandigarh's Mayor?
(a) It ordered a fresh election.
(b) It declared Kuldeep Kumar as the duly elected Mayor.
(c) It sided with the BJP candidate, Manoj Sonkar.
(d) It remained neutral and did not interfere in the election process.

14. What was the role of the Returning Officer, Anil Masih, in the election malpractice?
(a) He supported the AAP candidate, Kuldeep Kumar.
(b) He declared invalid votes that were cast in favor of Kuldeep Kumar.
(c) He remained impartial throughout the election process.
(d) He facilitated a fair and transparent election.
15. What was the consequence for the Returning Officer, Anil Masih, following the Supreme Court's ruling?
(a) He was awarded for his efforts in maintaining electoral integrity.
(b) He was declared innocent of any wrongdoing.
(c) He was prosecuted for giving false information to the Court.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) He was promoted to a higher position in the election commission.

16. What was the Supreme Court's warning regarding the democratic process?
(a) It warned against interference from political parties in election procedures.
(b) It warned against the misuse of extraordinary powers by the judiciary.
(c) It warned against setting the democratic process at naught by "subterfuge."
(d) It warned against excessive government intervention in electoral affairs.

17. What was the motive behind the fraudulent actions in the mayoral election?
(a) To ensure a fair and transparent election process.
(b) To facilitate cooperation between the Congress and the AAP.
(c) To prevent the BJP candidate from winning.
(d) To subvert the cooperation between the Congress and the AAP.

18. What did the Supreme Court decide to do with the original votes in the mayoral election?
(a) Invalidate all votes and order a fresh election.
(b) Uphold the validity of the original votes, including those illegally declared invalid.
(c) Side with the BJP candidate's request for a recount.
(d) Nullify the election results and appoint an interim Mayor.

IV. When the wind blew from the land he caught nothing, or but little at best, for it was a bitter and black-
winged wind, and rough waves rose up to meet it. But when the wind blew to the shore, the fish came in
from the deep, and swam into the meshes of his nets, and he took them to the market-place and sold
them.
Every evening he went out upon the sea, and one evening the net was so heavy that hardly could he
draw it into the boat. And he laughed, and said to himself ‗Surely I have caught all the fish that swim, or
snared some dull monster that will be a marvel to men, or some thing of horror that the great Queen will
desire,‘ and putting forth all his strength, he tugged at the coarse ropes till, like lines of blue enamel
round a vase of bronze, the long veins rose up on his arms. He tugged at the thin ropes, and nearer and
nearer came the circle of flat corks, and the net rose at last to the top of the water.
But no fish at all was in it, nor any monster or thing of horror, but only a little Mermaid lying fast asleep.
Her hair was as a wet fleece of gold, and each separate hair as a thread of line gold in a cup of glass.
Her body was as white ivory, and her tail was of silver and pearl. Silver and pearl was her tail, and the
green weeds of the sea coiled round it; and like sea-shells were her ears, and her lips were like sea-
coral. The cold waves dashed over her cold breasts, and the salt glistened upon her eyelids.
So beautiful was she that when the young Fisherman saw her he was filled with wonder, and he put out
his hand and drew the net close to him, and leaning over the side he clasped her in his arms. And when
he touched her, she gave a cry like a startled sea-gull and woke, and looked at him in terror with her
mauve-amethyst eyes, and struggled that she might escape. But he held her tightly to him, and would
not suffer her to depart.
And when she saw that she could in no way escape from him, she began to weep, and said, ‗I pray thee
let me go, for I am the only daughter of a King, and my father is aged and alone.‘
But the young Fisherman answered, ‗I will not let thee go save thou makest me a promise that whenever
I call thee, thou wilt come and sing to me, for the fish delight to listen to the song of the Sea-folk, and so
shall my nets be full.‘
Source: [Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

19. What was the young Fisherman's reaction when he found the Mermaid in his net?
(a) He was frightened and threw the Mermaid back into the sea.
(b) He was filled with wonder and clasped the Mermaid in his arms.
(c) He ignored the Mermaid and continued fishing.
(d) He felt indifferent and left the Mermaid in the net.

20. What was the Mermaid's initial response when the young Fisherman clasped her in his arms?
(a) She cried out in joy and hugged him back.
(b) She remained still and silent, not knowing how to react.
(c) She gave a cry like a startled sea-gull and tried to escape.
(d) She smiled warmly and thanked him for rescuing her.

21. What did the young Fisherman request of the Mermaid when he clasped her in his arms?
(a) He asked her to marry him and live with him on land.
(b) He asked her to promise to come and sing to him whenever he called her.
(c) He asked her to help him catch more fish for his livelihood.
(d) He asked her to guide him to hidden treasures in the sea.

22. What is the Mermaid's reason for wanting to escape from the young Fisherman's grasp?
(a) She is afraid of the Fisherman and wants to return to the sea.
(b) She is angry at being caught in the Fisherman's net.
(c) She is concerned about her aging father who is alone.
(d) She wants to find her fellow Mermaids and return to her underwater kingdom.

23. What does the young Fisherman compare the veins on his arms to when he tries to pull the heavy net?
(a) Lines of blue enamel around a vase of bronze.
(b) Threads of gold woven into sunbeams.
(c) Thin ropes that are difficult to untangle.
(d) Waves crashing against the shore.

24. What does the passage primarily focus on?

(a) The daily routine of a young Fisherman.
(b) The beauty and mystery of the sea.
(c) The encounter between a young Fisherman and a Mermaid.
(d) The economic hardships faced by fishermen.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 20
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. The passing of Fali S Nariman represents the end of an era. Being 20 years of age when India attained
Independence, Nariman belonged to a generation of lawyers who were almost the first post-
Independence legal practitioners. On their shoulders fell the task of decolonising a system which worked
without a written constitution to one which had a constitution — a transition of immense importance for
the citizens of the country. On their shoulders also fell the task of making the first challenges to laws
which could be declared unconstitutional.
There were advantages to starting in Bombay. It was the commercial centre of India. Bombay was a city
which housed Parsi businesses and industry. There is the famous House of Tatas — known as Bombay
House — in which sat another famous Parsi lawyer N A Palkhivala. The legal profession in Bombay, now
Mumbai, was proud of being an advisor to the East India Company. At that time, the legal profession was
bifurcated between solicitors who did not appear in court and counsels who only appeared in court and
did no transactional legal work. Fali Nariman chose the latter and was one of the most sought-after
lawyers in his younger days. In a profession dominated by Parsis and Gujaratis, business and industry
looked to Nariman for legal advice and guidance. It is in these circumstances that he perfected his
command over commercial laws, long before he shifted to Delhi in 1971. He was by then already a role
model for generations of lawyers who came after him. The Parsi community has always contributed a
judge to the Supreme Court of India, but Nariman chose not to be a judge of any Court. Years later, his
son Rohinton Nariman became a judge of the Supreme Court.
Starting work in Bombay as a lawyer, I had several occasions to observe him at work in court. He was,
even then, a natural leader of the Bar. Loud and aggressive — which I saw as a mark on his confidence
in court — and coming straight to the point, he had a charisma which came from a direct approach to the
law. When I started working as a litigator, I often found myself on the opposite side of him. We both
belonged to a working-class city which shaped and moulded our work in different ways. He was
representing industry, whereas I represented the workers of the enterprises he stood for. Conflict was
inevitable, but what it did offer was the opportunity to learn the tools of the trade from a master. His style
of practice was minimalist, focused on the outcome his clients wanted. It was a far cry from the days of
grandstanding which emerged later in both oral arguments and judgments under the full glare of the
media.
Nariman went to the Government Law College in Mumbai to learn the law. It‘s a different matter that
many who went there say they learnt the law outside the school. With the advent of the national law
schools, the nature of legal education has changed dramatically. The march of technology has made
legal research available at our fingertips. Yet, ask any young lawyer and you are likely to find that she
will know of Nariman‘s contribution to the practice of law and has been shaped in her thinking by the
cases he argued.
Source: [Link]
nariman-9174050/

1. What was the primary role of Fali S. Nariman in the legal profession?
(a) He primarily focused on transactional legal work.
(b) He was a judge in the Supreme Court of India.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) He was a pioneering litigator known for challenging unconstitutional laws.

(d) He specialized in legal research and academia.

2. What was the significance of Bombay in Fali S. Nariman's legal career?

(a) It was the city where he served as a judge.
(b) It provided him with opportunities to engage in legal research.
(c) It was a commercial center where he perfected his command over commercial laws.
(d) It was where he primarily focused on transactional legal work.

3. How did the passage describe Fali S. Nariman's approach to litigation?

(a) He preferred grandstanding in court to attract media attention.
(b) He focused on legal research and academic pursuits.
(c) He had a minimalist style, focused on achieving favorable outcomes for his clients.
(d) He engaged in aggressive and confrontational tactics in court.

4. What impact did Fali S. Nariman have on younger lawyers?

(a) He discouraged them from pursuing careers in law.
(b) He advocated for traditional approaches to legal practice.
(c) He served as a role model and influenced their thinking through his cases and approach to the law.
(d) He focused on academic pursuits and legal research.

5. Which city did Fali S. Nariman initially start his legal career in?
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata (d) Chennai

6. What was the task that fell upon the generation of lawyers to which Fali S. Nariman belonged?
(a) To establish commercial centers in India.
(b) To decolonize the legal system and challenge unconstitutional laws.
(c) To promote academic pursuits in legal education.
(d) To advocate for traditional approaches to legal practice.
II. High above the city, on a tall column, stood the statue of the Happy Prince. He was gilded all over with
thin leaves of fine gold, for eyes he had two bright sapphires, and a large red ruby glowed on his sword-
hilt.
He was very much admired indeed. ―He is as beautiful as a weathercock,‖ remarked one of the Town
Councillors who wished to gain a reputation for having artistic tastes; ―only not quite so useful,‖ he
added, fearing lest people should think him unpractical, which he really was not.
―Why can‘t you be like the Happy Prince?‖ asked a sensible mother of her little boy who was crying for
the moon. ―The Happy Prince never dreams of crying for anything.‖
―I am glad there is someone in the world who is quite happy,‖ muttered a disappointed man as he gazed
at the wonderful statue.
―He looks just like an angel,‖ said the Charity Children as they came out of the cathedral in their bright
scarlet cloaks and their clean white pinafores.
―How do you know?‖ said the Mathematical Master, ―you have never seen one.‖
―Ah! but we have, in our dreams,‖ answered the children; and the Mathematical Master frowned and
looked very severe, for he did not approve of children dreaming.
One night there flew over the city a little Swallow. His friends had gone away to Egypt six weeks before,
but he had stayed behind, for he was in love with the most beautiful Reed. He had met her early in the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

spring as he was flying down the river after a big yellow moth, and had been so attracted by her slender
waist that he had stopped to talk to her.
―Shall I love you?‖ said the Swallow, who liked to come to the point at once, and the Reed made him a
low bow. So he flew round and round her, touching the water with his wings, and making silver ripples.
This was his courtship, and it lasted all through the summer.
―It is a ridiculous attachment,‖ twittered the other Swallows; ―she has no money, and far too many
relations‖; and indeed the river was quite full of Reeds. Then, when the autumn came they all flew away.
After they had gone he felt lonely, and began to tire of his lady- love. ―She has no conversation,‖ he said,
―and I am afraid that she is a coquette, for she is always flirting with the wind.‖ And certainly, whenever
the wind blew, the Reed made the most graceful curtseys. ―I admit that she is domestic,‖ he continued,
―but I love travelling, and my wife, consequently, should love travelling also.‖
―Will you come away with me?‖ he said finally to her; but the Reed shook her head, she was so attached
to her home.
―You have been trifling with me,‖ he cried. ―I am off to the Pyramids. Good-bye!‖ and he flew away.
All day long he flew, and at night-time he arrived at the city. ―Where shall I put up?‖ he said; ―I hope the
town has made preparations.‖
Then he saw the statue on the tall column.
―I will put up there,‖ he cried; ―it is a fine position, with plenty of fresh air.‖ So he alighted just between the
feet of the Happy Prince.
Source: [Link]
7. Why did the Town Councillor compare the Happy Prince to a weathercock?
(a) Because the Happy Prince could predict the weather accurately.
(b) Because the Happy Prince was made of gold and stood on a tall column like a weathercock.
(c) Because the Happy Prince was considered as beautiful as a weathercock.
(d) Because the Happy Prince served a practical purpose like a weathercock.

8. What was the Swallow's courtship ritual with the Reed?

(a) Singing love songs to her.
(b) Flying round and round her, touching the water with his wings, and making silver ripples.
(c) Bringing her gifts of insects and flowers.
(d) Building a nest for her in the reeds.

9. Why did the Swallow decide to leave his lady-love, the Reed?
(a) He felt lonely and began to tire of her.
(b) He wanted to explore new places and felt his wife should share his love for traveling.
(c) He realized she was too attached to her home and refused to leave.
(d) He was disappointed by her lack of conversation and suspected her of being a coquette.

10. What did the other Swallows think about the Swallow's attachment to the Reed?
(a) They thought it was ridiculous and impractical.
(b) They thought it was romantic and beautiful.
(c) They thought it was noble and courageous.
(d) They thought it was foolish and dangerous.

11. What did the Happy Prince's eyes and sword-hilt consist of?
(a) His eyes were rubies, and his sword-hilt was gilded with gold.
(b) His eyes were sapphires, and his sword-hilt was made of fine gold.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) His eyes were emeralds, and his sword-hilt was encrusted with diamonds.
(d) His eyes were diamonds, and his sword-hilt was adorned with rubies.

12. Why was the Happy Prince admired by the people of the city?
(a) Because he possessed great wealth and power.
(b) Because he was always cheerful and optimistic.
(c) Because he was made of gold and adorned with jewels, and stood on a tall column.
(d) Because he performed acts of kindness and generosity towards the citizens.

III. Space used to be the final frontier but its increasing exploration has changed that, replacing a romantic
notion with narratives with financial, socio-economic, and geopolitical implications. Space technologies
and space flight are expensive, risky endeavours that only national agencies were suited to engage in for
decades. This is no longer true as private sector players are increasingly expected to complement,
augment, and/or lead the way by identifying market opportunities and innovating rapidly. India started on
this path in 2020 with state-led reforms that opened its space sector to private companies, then releasing
the ‗Geospatial Guidelines‘ and later the ‗Indian Space Policy‘, creating the Indian National Space
Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe), and passing the Telecommunications Act 2023 that,
among other departures from the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, provided for satellite broadband services.
On February 21, the government opened the door to 100% foreign direct investments (FDI) in the
―manufacturing of components and systems/sub-systems for satellites, ground segment and user
segment‖ — up to 74% in satellite-manufacturing, operations, and data products; and up to 49% in
launch vehicles, space ports, and their corresponding systems. As such, by stepping out of the way and
allowing substantial FDI via the automatic route, the government has taken the logical next step in
spurring the contributions of private space flight operators, technology-developers, and application
designers to the national space economy, in line with ambitions outlined in the Space Policy.
The decision gives India the ability to take advantage of its less vitiated foreign ties to catch up with
China‘s more advanced position as a space power. While the Chinese programme benefits from not-
inconsiderable private sector participation, its ability to attract foreign investments is hamstrung by its
belligerent foreign policies and the Xi Jinping administration‘s plan to modernise the military by, among
other things, adapting civilian technologies for military use, though other countries, including the U.S.,
have similar policies. According to IN-SPACe chairman Pawan K. Goenka, a ―significant‖ slice of the
$37.1 billion that the space sector raised worldwide in 2021-23 went to space start-ups. Against this
extended backdrop, new investments can add to India‘s space economy by improving start-ups‘ access
to talent and capital; effecting a better balance between upstream and downstream opportunities, versus
the current skew in favour of the former; boosting local manufacturing; and improving investor
confidence. Finally, to sustain these winds of change, the government must keep the regulatory
environment clear, reduce red tape, increase public support, and ease Indian companies‘ ability to
access foreign markets.
Source: [Link]
sector/[Link]

13. What did the Indian government do in 2020 to open up its space sector to private companies?
(a) Released the Indian Space Policy.
(b) Established the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe).
(c) Passed the Telecommunications Act 2023.
(d) Implemented state-led reforms to open the space sector to private companies.
14. What does the passage suggest about the role of private sector players in the space sector?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Private sector players have historically dominated the space sector.
(b) Private sector players are expected to solely rely on national agencies for space exploration.
(c) Private sector players are increasingly expected to complement, augment, and/or lead the way in
space exploration.
(d) Private sector players are not suited to engage in space exploration due to financial constraints.

15. What is one of the benefits of the Indian government's decision to open up the space sector to foreign
investments?
(a) It allows India to catch up with China's military modernization plans.
(b) It reduces the need for domestic investment in the space sector.
(c) It improves access to talent and capital for space start-ups.
(d) It strengthens India's position as a space superpower.

16. According to the passage, why is China's ability to attract foreign investments in its space sector
hampered?
(a) Due to its lack of private sector participation.
(b) Due to its outdated space technologies.
(c) Due to its belligerent foreign policies and military modernization plans.
(d) Due to its limited access to talent and capital for space start-ups.

17. What measures does the passage suggest the Indian government should take to sustain the changes in
the space sector?
(a) Increase regulations and bureaucracy.
(b) Decrease public support for space exploration.
(c) Keep the regulatory environment clear, reduce red tape, increase public support, and ease Indian
companies‘ ability to access foreign markets.
(d) Impose restrictions on foreign investments in the space sector.

18. How does the passage characterize the role of private sector players in India's space sector?
(a) Private sector players are expected to solely rely on national agencies for space exploration.
(b) Private sector players are not suited to engage in space exploration due to financial constraints.
(c) Private sector players are increasingly expected to complement, augment, and/or lead the way in
space exploration.
(d) Private sector players have historically dominated the space sector.

IV. Every evening the young Fisherman went out upon the sea, and threw his nets into the water.
When the wind blew from the land he caught nothing, or but little at best, for it was a bitter and black-
winged wind, and rough waves rose up to meet it. But when the wind blew to the shore, the fish came in
from the deep, and swam into the meshes of his nets, and he took them to the market-place and sold
them.
Every evening he went out upon the sea, and one evening the net was so heavy that hardly could he
draw it into the boat. And he laughed, and said to himself ‗Surely I have caught all the fish that swim, or
snared some dull monster that will be a marvel to men, or some thing of horror that the great Queen will
desire,‘ and putting forth all his strength, he tugged at the coarse ropes till, like lines of blue enamel
round a vase of bronze, the long veins rose up on his arms. He tugged at the thin ropes, and nearer and
nearer came the circle of flat corks, and the net rose at last to the top of the water.
But no fish at all was in it, nor any monster or thing of horror, but only a little Mermaid lying fast asleep.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Her hair was as a wet fleece of gold, and each separate hair as a thread of line gold in a cup of glass.
Her body was as white ivory, and her tail was of silver and pearl. Silver and pearl was her tail, and the
green weeds of the sea coiled round it; and like sea-shells were her ears, and her lips were like sea-
coral. The cold waves dashed over her cold breasts, and the salt glistened upon her eyelids.
So beautiful was she that when the young Fisherman saw her he was filled with wonder, and he put out
his hand and drew the net close to him, and leaning over the side he clasped her in his arms. And when
he touched her, she gave a cry like a startled sea-gull and woke, and looked at him in terror with her
mauve-amethyst eyes, and struggled that she might escape. But he held her tightly to him, and would
not suffer her to depart.
And when she saw that she could in no way escape from him, she began to weep, and said, ‗I pray thee
let me go, for I am the only daughter of a King, and my father is aged and alone.‘
But the young Fisherman answered, ‗I will not let thee go save thou makest me a promise that whenever
I call thee, thou wilt come and sing to me, for the fish delight to listen to the song of the Sea-folk, and so
shall my nets be full.‘
‗Wilt thou in very truth let me go, if I promise thee this?‘ cried the Mermaid.
‗In very truth I will let thee go,‘ said the young Fisherman. So she made him the promise he desired, and
sware it by the oath of the Sea-folk. And he loosened his arms from about her, and she sank down into
the water, trembling with a strange fear.
Every evening the young Fisherman went out upon the sea, and called to the Mermaid, and she rose out
of the water and sang to him. Round and round her swam the dolphins, and the wild gulls wheeled
above her head.
Source: [Link]

19. What did the Mermaid promise the young Fisherman in order to be released?
(a) She promised to bring him treasure from the depths of the sea.
(b) She promised to marry him and live with him on land.
(c) She promised to sing to him whenever he called her.
(d) She promised to help him catch more fish.

20. How did the young Fisherman feel about the Mermaid's presence in subsequent evenings?
(a) He was annoyed and wished she would go away.
(b) He was indifferent and ignored her.
(c) He was delighted and eagerly awaited her appearance.
(d) He was fearful and avoided her.

21. What accompanied the Mermaid when she rose out of the water to sing to the young Fisherman?
(a) Sharks and other dangerous sea creatures
(b) Dolphins and wild gulls
(c) Thunderstorms and heavy rain
(d) Darkness and eerie silence

22. ‗Her hair was as a wet fleece of gold‘. Identify the literary device used in this sentence.
(a) symbolism (b) metaphor
(c) simile (d) hyperbole

23. What was the young Fisherman's reaction upon finding the Mermaid in his net?
(a) He was frightened and immediately released her.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) He was filled with wonder and clasped her tightly in his arms.
(c) He ignored her and continued with his fishing.
(d) He was indifferent and didn't pay much attention to her.

24. Why did the young Fisherman refuse to let the Mermaid go initially?
(a) He wanted to keep her as a pet.
(b) He needed her to sing to him whenever he called her.
(c) He wanted to impress the other fishermen with his discovery.
(d) He was afraid she would harm him if he released her.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 21
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. My mother died last week. Without being able to say goodbye to a grandson she helped me bring up. He
was a small boy when I was off covering conflicts and political turmoil in distant places, and it was in her
house that I would leave my son. It would have been impossible to manage without her. In recent
months, when she was very sick, I did my best to try and get my son an ordinary tourist visa to visit her
and failed. One high official was honest enough to admit that he had to agree to never say another word
against the government and there might be a chance. The rest never got back to me. My mother spent
the last five years of her life wondering when she would see him again. Towards the end, I could not
mention his name without her bursting into tears.
India was my son‘s home until an act of extraordinary spite caused him to be exiled. When he wrote the
article in Time magazine that caused this to happen, politicians at the highest levels of the BJP and its
army of trolls on social media went out of their way to say that he was persona non grata not because of
that article, but because he was anti-India. One very vocal BJP spokesman went to the extent of
tweeting that he was a ‗trained ISI agent‘. The Home Ministry has the capability to discover that this is
rubbish, but chooses not to.
The withdrawal of the OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) of a French journalist recently comes as the latest
proof that visas to India have been weaponised. She is married to an Indian and has lived here for
twenty years but no longer can because the government saw her journalism as having ‗malice‘ towards
India. Who decides these things? Is there a press censorship wing in the Home Ministry?
The more important question is why a Prime Minister with the highest approval ratings of any world
leader should be so thin-skinned? Narendra Modi likes to see himself as not just the leader of India but
as a world leader of great influence and unusual power. A Vishwaguru. He appears not to have noticed
that only those leaders who have democratic credentials can achieve this position. Men like Vladimir
Putin, who recently killed Alexei Navalny in a penal colony above the Arctic Circle, will always only be
seen as brutal dictators.
Modi also likes to boast in the high forums of the world that India is the ‗mother of democracy‘. It sounds
like no more than an empty boast every time dissidents are punished for their dissidence. It is not just
dissidents from the ‗Khan Market gang‘ that are now being silenced, but farmers and those who support
their protest. It was revealed last week that X, once Twitter, was ordered to take down handles that
showed sympathy for the protests.
Source: [Link]

1. What is the primary reason the author's son was unable to visit his grandmother before she passed
away?
(a) The son refused to visit due to political tensions in India.
(b) The government denied the son a tourist visa to visit his grandmother.
(c) The son was too busy to visit his grandmother.
(d) The grandmother refused to see the son.

2. What does the author suggest about the withdrawal of the OCI of the French journalist?
(a) The withdrawal was justified due to her anti-India sentiment.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The withdrawal reflects the government's misuse of visa policies.

(c) The withdrawal was based on the journalist's criminal activities.
(d) The withdrawal was unrelated to her journalism.

3. What does the author suggest about Narendra Modi's attitude towards criticism?
(a) He is indifferent to criticism.
(b) He encourages freedom of speech and expression.
(c) He is thin-skinned and intolerant of criticism.
(d) He welcomes constructive criticism.

4. Which term best describes the author's view of the Indian government's treatment of dissidents?
(a) Justified (b) Tolerant
(c) Authoritarian (d) Benevolent

5. According to the passage, what impact does the author suggest the government's actions have on
India's image as a democracy?
(a) The actions enhance India's reputation as a democratic nation.
(b) The actions undermine India's reputation as a democratic nation.
(c) The actions have no impact on India's reputation as a democratic nation.
(d) The passage does not discuss India's reputation as a democratic nation.

6. What is the author's primary concern regarding the government's treatment of dissidents and journalists?
(a) The government's actions threaten freedom of speech and expression.
(b) The government's actions promote transparency and accountability.
(c) The government's actions strengthen democratic institutions.
(d) The government's actions encourage public debate and discourse.
II. Raicharan was twelve years old when he came as a servant to his master‘s house. He belonged to the
same caste as his master, and was given his master‘s little son to nurse. As time went on the boy left
Raicharan‘s arms to go to school. From school he went on to college, and after college he entered the
judicial service. Always, until he married, Raicharan was his sole attendant.
But, when a mistress came into the house, Raicharan found two masters instead of one. All his former
influence passed to the new mistress. This was compensated for by a fresh arrival. Anukul had a son
born to him, and Raicharan by his unsparing attentions soon got a complete hold over the child. He used
to toss him up in his arms, call to him in absurd baby language, put his face close to the baby‘s and draw
it away again with a grin.
Presently the child was able to crawl and cross the doorway. When Raicharan went to catch him, he
would scream with mischievous laughter and make for safety. Raicharan was amazed at the profound
skill and exact judgment the baby showed when pursued. He would say to his mistress with a look of
awe and mystery: ―Your son will be a judge someday.‖
New wonders came in their turn. When the baby began to toddle, that was to Raicharan an epoch in
human history. When he called his father Ba-ba and his mother Ma-ma and Raicharan Chan-na, then
Raicharan‘s ecstasy knew no bounds. He went out to tell the news to all the world.
After a while Raicharan was asked to show his ingenuity in other ways. He had, for instance, to play the
part of a horse, holding the reins between his teeth and prancing with his feet. He had also to wrestle
with his little charge, and if he could not, by a wrestler‘s trick, fall on his back defeated at the end, a great
outcry was certain.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

About this time Anukul was transferred to a district on the banks of the Padma. On his way through
Calcutta he bought his son a little go-cart. He bought him also a yellow satin waistcoat, a gold-laced cap,
and some gold bracelets and anklets. Raicharan was wont to take these out, and put them on his little
charge with ceremonial pride, whenever they went for a walk.
Then came the rainy season, and day after day the rain poured down in torrents. The hungry river, like
an enormous serpent, swallowed down terraces, villages, cornfields, and covered with its flood the tall
grasses and wild casuarinas on the sand-banks. From time to time there was a deep thud, as the river-
banks crumbled. The unceasing roar of the rain current could be beard from far away. Masses of foam,
carried swiftly past, proved to the eye the swiftness of the stream.
Source:[Link]

7. What role did Raicharan initially play in his master's household?

(a) He was the master's legal advisor.
(b) He was the master's cook.
(c) He was the nurse for the master's son.
(d) He was the master's gardener.
8. What does the passage suggest about Raicharan's relationship with his master's son?
(a) Raicharan neglected the child's care.
(b) Raicharan had a strong bond with the child.
(c) Raicharan was indifferent towards the child.
(d) Raicharan was afraid of the child.

9. What event marked an epoch in human history for Raicharan?

(a) The birth of his master's son. (b) The transfer of his master to a new district.
(c) The rainy season. (d) The child's ability to toddle.

10. What did Raicharan do during walks with the master's son?
(a) He carried the child.
(b) He played wrestling games with the child.
(c) He narrated stories to the child.
(d) He dressed the child in ceremonial attire.

11. How did Raicharan react to the rainy season?

(a) He enjoyed the rain.
(b) He feared the flood.
(c) He went on walks with the master's son.
(d) He sang songs to the child.

12. What did Raicharan consider to be a profound skill of the master's son?
(a) His ability to read. (b) His ability to count.
(c) His ability to sing. (d) His ability to judge.

III. Few things on social media go as viral as short clips of statements by public figures, often taken out of
context. In platforms designed to capitalise on our shrinking attention spans, users rarely have the time
or patience for context. Even if some may wish to trace a circulating video clip to its original, longer video
source, it would have likely gone viral by then, prompting journalists to play catch up, although we may
not report on it.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

While it is hard to pin motivations based on short clips, the instant reactions they trigger can be
interesting and telling. Among other things, they show us how an intended message and its interpretation
can be very different while consumed on social media. A case in point is a remark made by External
Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar at the Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Mumbai, last month. ―My first
advice to you would be, the next time you want to take a holiday, go to Sri Lanka,‖ he said, in the now
popular clip. Many social media users in both countries understood this as a fillip for Sri Lanka‘s tourism
industry. Several Sri Lankans, including politicians, cheered the Indian Foreign Minister‘s ―pitch for Sri
Lankan tourism‖ and eagerly re-shared the clip.
Except, Mr. Jaishankar appeared to convey something else, as the longer clip shared on his own X
timeline showed. Following his remarks on India‘s role on the global stage, Mr. Jaishankar took
questions from the audience. A participant asked him if the ―observed shift‖ in the geopolitical alignment
of India‘s long-standing regional partners such as Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and recently the Maldives,
towards China, is indicative of ―a perceived failure‖ of India‘s ‗Neighbourhood First‘ policy. It was in
response to this specific question that Mr. Jaishankar advised the young man to go to Sri Lanka on his
next holiday. ―Mix with the normal person in Sri Lanka and ask them ‗what do you think about India?‘ You
will feel yourself grow with that answer,‖ he said, in the longer clip. He elaborated on how when the rest
of the world ―turned its back‖ on Sri Lanka during the island nation‘s economic crisis in 2022, India was
the only country to come forward, committing $4.5 billion, considerably more than what the ongoing
International Monetary Fund package entails.
Few things on social media go as viral as short clips of statements by public figures, often taken out of
context. In platforms designed to capitalise on our shrinking attention spans, users rarely have the time
or patience for context. Even if some may wish to trace a circulating video clip to its original, longer video
source, it would have likely gone viral by then, prompting journalists to play catch up, although we may
not report on it.
Source:[Link]
interpretation/[Link]

13. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) Social media platforms are ineffective for spreading information.
(b) Short clips of public figures' statements on social media often lack context and can be misleading.
(c) Journalists should prioritise reporting on viral video clips.
(d) Public figures should avoid making statements on social media.

14. What is the consequence of short video clips lacking context on social media?
(a) They facilitate informed discussions among users.
(b) They often go viral and prompt journalists to report on them.
(c) They can lead to misunderstandings and misinterpretations among users.
(d) They encourage users to seek out longer video sources.

15. What advice did External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar give to the audience member at the Indian
Institute of Management (IIM), Mumbai?
(a) To take a holiday in Sri Lanka.
(b) To analyse India's geopolitical alignment with its neighbouring countries.
(c) To ignore social media clips.
(d) To avoid discussing India's foreign policies.

16. What is the consequence of short video clips going viral before journalists can report on them?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Journalists prioritise reporting on viral video clips.

(b) Users on social media platforms engage in informed discussions.
(c) Misinterpretations may spread among users.
(d) Social media platforms become ineffective for spreading information.

17. According to the passage, why do short video clips of public figures' statements often lack context on
social media?
(a) Users prefer short video clips without context.
(b) Public figures intentionally omit context from their statements.
(c) Social media platforms limit the length of video clips.
(d) Users have limited time and patience for context.

18. What is the primary concern expressed in the passage regarding the spread of short video clips on social
media?
(a) Lack of engagement from journalists in reporting on viral clips.
(b) Misinterpretations and misunderstandings among users due to the absence of context.
(c) Social media platforms' failure to regulate the length of video clips.
(d) Public figures' reluctance to address issues discussed in the clips.

IV. When we were children there was no need to know who the king in the fairy story was. It didn‘t matter
whether he was called Shiladitya or Shalibaan, whether he lived at Kashi or Kannauj. The thing that
made a seven-year-old boy‘s heart go thump, thump with delight was this one sovereign truth; this reality
of all realities: ―Once there was a king.‖
But the readers of this modern age are far more exact and exacting. When they hear such an opening to
a story, they are at once critical and suspicious. They apply the searchlight of science to its legendary
haze and ask: ―Which king?‖
The story-tellers have become more precise in their turn. They are no longer content with the old
indefinite, ―There was a king,‖ but assume instead a look of profound learning, and begin: ―Once there
was a king named Ajatasatru,‖
The modern reader‘s curiosity, however, is not so easily satisfied. He blinks at the author through his
scientific spectacles, and asks again: ―Which Ajatasatru?‖
―Every schoolboy knows,‖ the author proceeds, ―that there were three Ajatasatrus. The first was born in
the twentieth century B.C., and died at the tender age of two years and eight months, I deeply regret that
it is impossible to find, from any trustworthy source, a detailed account of his reign. The second
Ajatasatru is better known to historians. If you refer to the new Encyclopedia of History….‖
By this time the modern reader‘s suspicions are dissolved. He feels he may safely trust his author. He
says to himself: ―Now we shall have a story that is both improving and instructive.‖
Ah! how we all love to be deluded! We have a secret dread of being thought ignorant. And we end by
being ignorant after all, only we have done it in a long and roundabout way.
There is an English proverb; ―Ask me no questions, and I will tell you no lies.‖ The boy of seven who is
listening to a fairy story understands that perfectly well; he withholds his questions, while the story is
being told. So the pure and beautiful falsehood of it all remains naked and innocent as a babe;
transparent as truth itself; limpid as afresh bubbling spring. But the ponderous and learned lie of our
moderns has to keep its true character draped and veiled. And if there is discovered anywhere the least
little peep-hole of deception, the reader turns away with a prudish disgust, and the author is discredited.
When we were young, we understood all sweet things; and we could detect the sweets of a fairy story by
an unerring science of our own. We never cared for such useless things as knowledge. We only cared
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

for truth. And our unsophisticated little hearts knew well where the Crystal Palace of Truth lay and how to
reach it. But to-day we are expected to write pages of facts, while the truth is simply this:
―There was a king.‖
Source:[Link]

19. What does the author imply by contrasting the innocence of childhood with the scepticism of modern
readers in the passage?
(a) Modern readers are more adept at discerning truth from falsehood in storytelling.
(b) Childhood innocence allows for a deeper appreciation of the essence of stories.
(c) The proliferation of information has made modern readers more critical and analytical.
(d) The traditional art of storytelling is being lost in the face of modern scepticism.

20. What does the author imply by contrasting the innocence of childhood with the scepticism of modern
readers in the passage?
(a) Modern readers are more adept at discerning truth from falsehood in storytelling.
(b) Childhood innocence allows for a deeper appreciation of the essence of stories.
(c) The proliferation of information has made modern readers more critical and analytical.
(d) The traditional art of storytelling is being lost in the face of modern scepticism.

21. What is the author's attitude towards the modern reader's approach to storytelling in the passage?
(a) Appreciative (b) Disapproving
(c) Neutral (d) Indifferent

22. What does the author mean by "the Crystal Palace of Truth" in the passage?
(a) A metaphor for the innocence of childhood perception.
(b) A reference to a famous historical landmark.
(c) A symbol of modern scepticism.
(d) An allegory for the enduring nature of truth.

23. What effect does the author suggest scepticism has on storytelling?
(a) It enhances the credibility of stories.
(b) It leads to deeper understanding and appreciation of stories.
(c) It diminishes the enjoyment and authenticity of stories.
(d) It encourages authors to produce more factual narratives.

24. According to the passage, how do modern readers typically approach short video clips of public figures'
statements on social media?
(a) With scepticism and suspicion (b) With indifference and apathy
(c) With enthusiasm and trust (d) With curiosity and eagerness
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 22
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. I cross the finish line of a race, exhausted and excited. Before having the opportunity to rest or to
celebrate, I am escorted to a small room with folding chairs organised around the perimeter, for drug
testing. I sit sandwiched between my assigned testing agent and my coach, opposite my competitors. My
competitors and I make eye contact and exchange weary congratulations, as we await our turns for drug
testing.
These tests will measure for the presence of performance-enhancing substances, such as anabolic
agents, erythropoietin, beta-2 agonists, growth factors and stimulants, some of which, like caffeine, are
permitted in competition in limited amounts. They will also test for masking agents – substances such as
diuretics that, while not themselves performance-enhancing, can disguise the presence of substances
that are. Additionally, these test results will serve as a data point to track deviations from previous and
future test results, as part of our Athlete Biological Passports (ABP). An ABP is a longitudinal means of
assessing whether an athlete has participated in elicit forms of performance enhancement, achieved by
monitoring biological markers that shift in response to certain drugs long-term.
This is an interesting moment. I sit among my competitors, awaiting the opportunity to demonstrate that I
competed the right way, to the extent that a drug test can measure such things. Should we all pass our
drug tests, the standings of the race are legitimated. If not, the final standings will shift. I know this is
naive, but it has always seemed to me that this moment alone should suffice as a deterrent of wayward
actions – to make eye contact with one‘s competitors, in a tiny room. It is like a child forced to share a
car ride with a sibling they wronged, or a thief making small talk with the victim of their theft. Surely, the
doping athlete feels guilty in the company of her competitors.
Of course, these moments do not suffice to deter cheating. Globally, there are 567 track and field
athletes currently ineligible to compete in the sport due to doping infractions, and these are just the ones
who were caught. There is an epidemic of cheating behaviours in athletics. Those who get away with it
often outperform athletes who compete above reproach. Cheating makes them faster.
This might press us to wonder about the relationship between moral character and athletic performance,
in broader terms. What if vices make us competitive? What if good character has a performance cost?
This should not come as a surprise to anyone paying attention, but there is evidence of vice and poor
behaviour in sports. Some of this is obvious, like violence, taking performance-enhancing drugs, and
endlessly boasting about one‘s feats. Some of it is perhaps less obvious, like intemperance or continuing
to play when one ought to stop, a vice which we will examine as ‗intransigence‘, an excess with respect
to remaining on task.
Some of these vices result from the fact that it‘s human beings playing sports – flawed, confused,
complex human beings. Others, like vainglory and pride, are concessions to a cultural narrative that
prizes sport and celebrates athletes as exceedingly valuable people. And some vices are selected for,
and reinforced by, the structure of competitions. They make us stronger competitors.
Source: Aeon, [Link]

1. Which of the following statements is TRUE based on the provided passage?

(a) The passage implies that all athletes are inherently flawed and prone to vice.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The passage suggests that some vices, like intransigence, are actively chosen and reinforced by the
competitive structure of sports.
(c) The passage explicitly states that the use of masking agents is always considered a performance-
enhancing practice.
(d) The passage argues that the pursuit of athletic excellence inevitably leads to the development of
vices.

2. Which of the following words can replace the underlined word "elicit" in the sentence, while maintaining
the intended meaning of the passage?
An ABP is a longitudinal means of assessing whether an athlete has participated in elicit forms of
performance enhancement, achieved by monitoring biological markers that shift in response to certain
drugs long-term.
(a) Evoke (b) Solicit
(c) Procure (d) Induce

3. Which of the following best describes the overall tone of the passage?
(a) Candid and Frustrated (b) Hopeful and Optimistic
(c) Analytical and Objective (d) Cynical and Resigned

4. The author states, "This should not come as a surprise to anyone paying attention, but there is evidence
of vice and poor behaviour in sports..." Based on this statement and the passage as a whole, what is the
author's primary implication about the relationship between societal values and sports culture?
(a) Societal values are inherently flawed, and sports, being a reflection of society, inevitably exhibit
these flaws.
(b) The pressures of competition within sports, regardless of societal values, encourage and incentivize
vice and poor behaviour.
(c) The celebration of athletes as heroes and the emphasis on winning in sports culture inadvertently
promote and condone unethical behaviour.
(d) Sports, while reflecting societal values, also have the potential to influence and shape those values,
leading to a cycle of perpetuating both good and bad behaviour.

5. Based on the passage, which of the following statements best reflects the author's conclusion about the
relationship between ethical behaviour and athletic performance?
(a) The pervasive presence of doping in sports reveals a deep-seated flaw in the human condition,
suggesting that ethical behaviour is inherently incompatible with achieving peak athletic
performance.
(b) While the current focus on drug testing and ABPs may seem to deter cheating, the underlying
pressures within sports culture, coupled with the potential for significant gains from doping, ultimately
incentivize unethical behaviour.
(c) Despite the widespread existence of doping, the inherent moral compass of athletes remains intact,
suggesting that athletes are capable of ethical behaviour, but the reward system within sports culture
often discourages it.
(d) The ethical complexities of sports are rooted in the tension between the desire for individual
achievement and the inherent limitations of the human body, suggesting that athletes are forced to
make difficult choices between ethical conduct and maximizing performance.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

6. The passage describes the post-race drug testing process and its implications. Which of the following is
a direct consequence of the Athlete Biological Passport (ABP) system described in the passage?
(a) The ABP system reduces the need for immediate post-race testing, as it allows for the analysis of
long-term trends in athletes' biological markers.
(b) The ABP system incentivizes athletes to seek out new, undetectable performance-enhancing
substances, as it focuses on identifying long-term patterns of doping rather than immediate
detection.
(c) The ABP system provides a more comprehensive understanding of athletes' biological profiles,
helping to identify potential health risks associated with excessive training or doping practices.
(d) The ABP system effectively eliminates the possibility of athletes masking the use of performance-
enhancing substances, as it tracks the long-term effects of these substances on the athlete's
biological markers.
7. What type of writing best describes the passage above?
(a) A scientific article examining the impact of doping on athlete performance.
(b) A personal essay exploring the moral dilemmas and complexities of competitive athletics.
(c) A journalistic report detailing the prevalence of doping in track and field.
(d) A philosophical treatise analyzing the relationship between virtue and athletic success.

8. Which word best describes the author's feeling about the current state of doping in athletics?
(a) Hopeful (b) Accepting
(c) Disillusioned (d) Indifferent

II. It‘s 1590, and two armies stand in the fields just outside Ivry in France. Both armies are a rag-tag
shamble of children, old men, cripples, and foreign mercenaries. After 30 years of civil war, that‘s all
that‘s left. In this latest, macabre chapter of the French Wars of Religion, priests walk up and down the
lines. They tell everyone standing that ―God blesses you,‖ ―This is all for God,‖ and, most importantly of
all, ―Please God, give us victory this day.‖ Protestants and Catholics are praying to the same God to give
them both victory. God will have to disappoint a lot of people.
―Petitionary prayer‖ is the idea that worshippers can ask for certain boons or benefits from their deity.
Conflicting petitions and contradictory requests are one problem. But it‘s also a shallow one. For most
believers, religion is not about intercessory perks. For monotheists, especially, God is not a vending
machine, and He‘s thought to have far more wisdom in his omniscience than to give out sweets like an
overindulgent grandma at Christmas.
Anusha‘s question, though, is about a deeper issue in the philosophy of religion. It makes camp at the
nexus between philosophy, history, and human psychology, centering on the purpose of religion in
people‘s lives. So, to answer whether prayer is fundamentally egotistical, we‘ll look at the psychoanalyst
Sigmund Freud and the German theologian Friedrich Heiler at this week‘s seminary.
According to Freud, the earliest motivation humans had to create religion was fear. It is not simply a fear
of death but rather a fear of the great, powerful forces of nature. Strange animals prowling in the dark,
torrential monsoon rains, or the life-sapping cold of winter are dangerous in their own right. For our
earliest ancestors, nature was not a stroll in the woods. It wasn‘t a good day out and good for your
mental health; it was a terrible, fearful place of shadows and forces that could obliterate us.
So, what we did was create gods. We threw light into the darkness and rationalized the irrational. We
gave nature a personality with whom we could beg, worship, and negotiate. Lightning storms were still
terrifying, but suddenly there was a reason behind them — a motivation. A bad crop was still lethal, but
at least we could do something about it by praying to some kind of fertility deity.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

For Freud, petitionary prayer lies in the most basic principles of religion: We can imagine ourselves
taking control over nature via God. Freud was a psychologist, but there is some anthropological and
theological heft to his point. Almost all ancient religions featured some kind of petitionary prayer and
votive offerings (like sacrifices). The Ewe people of Ghana are known to pray to a river spirit for clothes
and cowry shells and to another spirit for the punishment of those who have wronged them. The chief of
the Adivasi in India will pray during a drought, asking the gods to send rain and save them from
starvation. The Israelites initially worshipped Yahweh because he proved his expertise in war, but when
they settled in Canaan, they turned to the cult of Baal, who was believed to have made the crops grow
from time immemorial.
Source: [Link]

9. Which two words best describe the author's tone when discussing Freud's perspective on the origins of
religion?
(a) Reverent, Critical (b) Analytical, Dismissive
(c) Humorous, Sympathetic (d) Scholarly, Respectful

10. Which word is the most accurate synonym for "intercessory" as used in the passage?
(a) Propitiatory (b) Mediatory
(c) Conciliatory (d) Exemplary

11. Which of the following most accurately represents the central idea of the passage as conveyed by the
author?
(a) The author contends that the inherent egotism of petitionary prayer reveals the underlying anxieties
about mortality that drive human religious behaviour, as exemplified by the historical practices of
various cultures.
(b) The passage critiques the simplistic view of religion as a means of obtaining personal benefits,
highlighting the more profound psychological and philosophical dimensions of religious practice,
using historical examples to demonstrate the evolution of religious beliefs.
(c) The author argues that the evolution of religious beliefs, from primitive fear-driven rituals to more
complex systems of faith, reflects a growing understanding of human psychology and the inherent
limitations of petitionary prayer.
(d) The passage emphasizes the enduring presence of petitionary prayer across cultures and historical
periods, suggesting that it serves as a fundamental expression of human vulnerability and the desire
for control over uncontrollable forces.

12. The passage discusses all of the following arguments EXCEPT:

(a) The origin of religion can be traced back to a primal fear of the unknown, particularly the forces of
nature, which early humans sought to control through the creation of gods and rituals.
(b) The motivation for prayer is rooted in the inherent human desire to control uncontrollable forces,
particularly the fear of death, which religion provides a framework for understanding and managing.
(c) Freud's understanding of religion is a nuanced approach to the subject, incorporating elements of
fear, control, and the desire for order in the face of chaotic natural forces.
(d) The passage proposes that the fear of death is a fundamental human anxiety that plays a significant
role in the development of religious beliefs, prompting humans to seek solace and meaning in a
transcendent realm.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

13. The last paragraph of the passage states, "We can imagine ourselves taking control over nature via God.
Freud was a psychologist, but there is some anthropological and theological heft to his point." Which of
the following statements most accurately reflects the implication of this statement within the context of
the passage?
(a) Freud's theory, while grounded in psychology, resonates with anthropological and theological
perspectives, suggesting that religion serves as a powerful tool for humans to exert control over the
uncontrollable forces of nature.
(b) The passage highlights the paradoxical nature of Freud's theory, simultaneously acknowledging the
psychological roots of religious belief while also recognizing its anthropological and theological
significance.
(c) By suggesting that Freud's theory possesses "anthropological and theological heft," the passage
emphasizes the limitations of a purely psychological explanation for religious behaviour, implying the
need for a more comprehensive understanding.
(d) Freud's theory, while acknowledging the psychological origins of religion, ultimately fails to fully
account for the complex interplay between human psychology and the influence of cultural and
spiritual factors in shaping religious beliefs.

14. Which of the following words could replace "omniscience" without significantly altering the meaning of
the sentence?
(a) Prescience (b) Sagacity
(c) Perspicacity (d) Ubiquity

15. Which of the following best describes the author‘s mood while writing the above excerpt?
(a) Analytical and Mocking (b) Informative and Reflective
(c) Critical and Pessimistic (d) Humorous and Philosophical

16. Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the information provided in the passage?
(a) The development of religion was a response to the perceived chaos and unpredictability of the
natural world.
(b) Early humans were motivated by a desire for control over the uncontrollable forces of nature.
(c) Freud believed that the concept of God was created as a means to project human anxieties onto an
external entity.
(d) The passage suggests that the motivation for prayer has evolved over time from purely superstitious
beliefs to a more nuanced understanding of the divine.

III. In the late 1980s, aged 12, Taryn was taken to her doctor‘s office with cramping, bloating, and
constipation after eating, and was told that she had ‗a nervous stomach‘. As a white girl growing up in
New Jersey, she met a stereotype, and when initial bloodwork and imaging was negative for evidence of
a ‗real‘, or organic disease in her gut, one of Taryn‘s doctors began writing in her charts that she had
irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a misdiagnosis that would follow Taryn for life.
At the time, IBS was considered by many to be a medically unexplained and therefore controversial
illness, keeping company with conditions such as fibromyalgia and chronic fatigue syndrome. As a result,
it carried the stigma of being a psychosomatic illness, caused primarily by stress and anxiety, and Taryn
was sent home with prescriptions for diet and exercise. Later, when she was in middle school, Taryn was
found to weigh only 80 lbs (36 kg). She was skin and bones, she told me in an interview. She couldn‘t
eat without throwing up or becoming ill. Blood tests revealed that she was severely malnourished, and as
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

a consequence she was hospitalised, not to look for an organic disease, but for a presumed eating
disorder like anorexia nervosa.
Eating disorders, much like IBS, are to this day stigmatised as forms of mental illness found in young
middle-class white women, and therefore not seen as legitimate, as ‗true‘ biological disease. Decades in
the future, Taryn would learn from a rheumatologist that her symptoms were most likely caused by mixed
connective tissue disease (MCTD), a rare autoimmune condition, not a mental illness. But, as a child, her
voice had mattered very little in the paternalistic world of academic medicine. ‗Being hospitalised
traumatised me,‘ she said. ‗It made me distrust the medical system forever.‘ Instead of being
appropriately tested and treated for a gastrointestinal condition, Taryn was discharged with
antidepressants and instructions to undergo psychotherapy.
Unsurprisingly, Taryn‘s health continued to decline. Well into her 20s, she dealt with long episodes of
extreme exhaustion and weakness, all the while trying to navigate the formative years of her youth and
the long line of doctors who repeatedly said that there was nothing wrong with her. Because she couldn‘t
eat food, it became difficult for her to be part of social gatherings with friends and family. Her malnutrition
continued to worsen to the point that her parents resorted to force-feeding, which only alienated her
further, and also failed to improve her symptoms. Somehow, through all of this, Taryn managed to
complete both college and nursing school, buoyed by an early childhood experience of caring for an
ailing relative.
Source: [Link]

17. Which of the following statements is true based on the passage?

(a) Taryn was initially diagnosed with IBS, but it was later discovered that she had an eating disorder like
anorexia nervosa.
(b) Taryn‘s doctors failed to recognize the severity of her malnutrition and therefore delayed her
hospitalization.
(c) Taryn's initial misdiagnosis was due to the limited understanding of autoimmune diseases in the
1980s.
(d) Taryn's negative experiences with the medical system led her to pursue a career in nursing.

18. Which of the following can be inferred from the information given in the passage?
(a) Taryn's experience of being dismissed by doctors led her to develop a deep skepticism towards
authority figures, influencing her future career choices.
(b) Despite the lack of a definitive diagnosis and the physical limitations imposed by her illness, Taryn's
resilience and determination allowed her to complete her academic pursuits.
(c) The emotional toll of her illness, compounded by the lack of medical support, likely contributed to
Taryn's decision to pursue a career in nursing, where she could directly help others facing similar
challenges.
(d) The passage suggests that Taryn's experiences with the medical system instilled in her a deep
sense of empathy for patients, leading her to prioritize their emotional well-being alongside their
physical health.

19. Which of the following words could replace "chronic" in the sentence "At the time, IBS was considered by
many to be a medically unexplained and therefore controversial illness, keeping company with conditions
such as fibromyalgia and chronic fatigue syndrome..." without changing the meaning of the sentence?
(a) Persistent (b) Endemic
(c) Recurrent (d) Inveterate
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

20. What tone does the passage primarily convey regarding Taryn‘s medical journey?
(a) Skeptical and Dismissive (b) Optimistic and Hopeful
(c) Critical and Sympathetic (d) Indifferent and Neutral

IV. Take the time to smell the roses, poets tell us. When the past is full of regrets and the future evokes
anxiety, it might seem plausible that the present alone offers happiness. Yet in this article I‘d like to
argue that contrary to much thinking on this topic, the present is not all there is to happiness – at least if
by ‗present‘ we mean the immediately present moment isolated from the past and future.
Happiness is as ambiguous and difficult-to-define as it is sought after. Still, we can probably say without
undue controversy that happiness must at least include – while by no means being reducible to – a felt
response on the part of a sentient being to perceived good things in that being‘s life. So happiness is
always about life and is never defined merely in terms of momentary fragments of joy taken in isolation,
but in terms of the many good aspects of life which are themselves each complex and comprised of
many parts. Let us call them ‗wholes‘. By life‘s ‗wholes‘, I mean events and developing processes rather
than static entities. Such wholes are events and ever-developing processes rather than static entities
that include as constituents, in addition to the lived present, the lived past as well as the to-be-lived
future. For that matter they also incorporate the events of countless other lives that taken together
comprise a kind of ‗community of events‘. Life in this sense of inextricably bound, temporally-stretched
(past, present, future-encompassing) events, is no more a mere succession of moments than a
symphony is a mere succession of notes. These past, present, and future-comprised life event wholes
are the concrete stuff of experience. Contrary to much contemporary thought, it is isolated present
moments that are abstract (tract – pull; abs – apart) – abstracted from the concrete (crete – grown; con –
together) wholes that constitute actual experience for the purposes of philosophical inquiry, much as
isolated organs can be abstracted from a whole organism for the purposes of biological inquiry.
Abstraction is always a matter of pulling apart what are in experiential fact found grown together – of
reflectively or mentally separating what are in actual fact inseparable. While this may aid inquiry if only by
guiding its focus, one should not lose sight of the violence it inflicts upon the concrete fact.
Source:[Link]

21. Which of the following arguments is NOT discussed by the author in the passage
(a) The present moment, when isolated from past and future, is an abstract concept rather than a
concrete experience.
(b) Happiness is a multifaceted experience that cannot be reduced to momentary joys.
(c) The concept of ‗wholes‘ in life is synonymous with static entities.
(d) Abstraction in philosophical inquiry involves separating inseparable elements of experience.

22. What can be inferred about the author‘s perspective on the nature of happiness from the passage?
(a) Happiness is a transient emotion that fluctuates with changing circumstances.
(b) Happiness is an enduring state that is independent of one‘s life events and experiences.
(c) Happiness is a complex and holistic response to the perceived good in one‘s life, encompassing
past, present, and future.
(d) Happiness is solely determined by the accumulation of momentary pleasures.

23. In the context of the passage, which synonym can replace the underlined word ―inextricably‖?
(a) Irretrievably (b) Indissolubly
(c) Intricately (d) Indistinguishably
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

24. Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
(a) The pursuit of happiness is futile as it is an abstract concept that cannot be concretely defined or
experienced.
(b) Happiness is a complex construct that is intrinsically linked to the temporal continuity of life‘s events,
rather than isolated moments.
(c) The present moment is the most significant contributor to happiness, overshadowing the roles of the
past and future.
(d) Philosophical inquiry into happiness is detrimental to understanding the true nature of human
emotions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 23
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Health
Running is a great form of exercise that has numerous benefits for our health. For instance, people who
consistently run at least an hour a week throughout their lives tend to live three years longer and have
fewer chronic illnesses, compared with people who don‘t do any exercise.
But some people are taking their love of running up a notch – running every day for as many days in a
row as possible. This trend is being referred to online as a ―run streak‖. The rules of the run streak trend
are simple: runners must complete a minimum of one mile (1.6km) every day, either on road, trail or the
treadmill. These are certainly incredible feats – but what are the effects on the body of running every
day? Is it actually safe?
Whether you‘re an amateur or professional runner, in order to get fitter you need to follow a training
regime that places just the right amount of stress on the body so it can adapt. This is usually done
through low-intensity runs and interval training, followed by periods of rest.
When this cycle is consistently repeated over months, runners will notice many changes in their fitness.
These include a 5%-10% improvement in maximal oxygen consumption (the maximum amount of
oxygen the body can use and transport to its working muscles), reduced heart rate during low-intensity
runs, and improved ability to use fat for energy. All of these improvements help runners get faster or run
further with less fatigue.
But a key element to becoming a better runner is taking rest periods. This allows the joints and ligaments
to recover from the stress that running places on them. Rest also permits the body to replenish
carbohydrate stores in the muscles, ensuring the body has energy for subsequent training days. Rest
days can also help improve a runner‘s recovery time between workouts. But the nature of the run streak
trend means there are no days off. This could have many potential pitfalls that runners should know
about.
Continual training without adequate rest can cause many harms to the body. In extreme cases – such as
ultra-endurance running – mild scarring of the heart can occur. It can also weaken the immune system
by reducing the function of immune cells. This can increase risk of respiratory infections and cause
drastic changes in hormones, such as an up-to-40% reduction in adrenaline and testosterone. This may
lead to poor recovery between runs and symptoms of overtraining – including changes in mood or
muscle damage.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
the-body-of-running-every-day
1. What inference can be drawn about the physical effects of daily running on hormonal balance according
to the passage?
(a) Daily running consistently enhances hormonal balance, leading to improved overall endurance and
recovery.
(b) Hormonal fluctuations due to daily running are beneficial in the short term but might lead to adverse
effects if sustained.
(c) Daily running could potentially decrease adrenaline and testosterone levels by up to 40%, leading to
poorer recovery times.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Hormonal changes due to daily running do not significantly impact the runner's performance or
recovery processes.

2. Based on the passage, which of the following best summarizes the impact of "run streaks" on immune
function?
(a) Run streaks enhance the body's immune function by regularly challenging the immune system
through consistent exercise.
(b) Run streaks may compromise immune function by reducing the effectiveness of immune cells,
increasing susceptibility to infections.
(c) The immune system is unaffected by run streaks as it adapts to the physical demands imposed by
daily running.
(d) Run streaks primarily affect muscle recovery and carbohydrate replenishment, with minimal effects
on the immune system.

3. What does the passage suggest about the relationship between rest days and a runner's performance
over time?
(a) Rest days are crucial for maintaining a runner's performance by allowing for recovery and
replenishment of energy stores, ultimately enhancing long-term performance.
(b) While rest days are beneficial, their impact on performance is negligible compared to the benefits
gained from continuous daily running.
(c) Rest days may actually hinder a runner's performance by disrupting the consistent training rhythm
needed for optimal results.
(d) The passage suggests that rest days are optional and that continuous training without them may lead
to better immediate results.

4. According to the passage, how does interval training contribute to a runner‘s fitness compared to other
forms of training?
(a) Interval training is primarily beneficial for professional athletes and does not offer significant benefits
for amateur runners.
(b) Interval training, combined with low-intensity runs, significantly improves maximal oxygen
consumption and fat utilization, contributing to enhanced endurance and speed.
(c) The benefits of interval training are only short-lived and do not contribute significantly to long-term
improvements in a runner's fitness.
(d) Interval training is less effective than consistent high-intensity training in improving a runner's
cardiovascular and muscular health.

5. What is the tone of the author towards the concept of run streaks as discussed in the passage?
(a) Enthusiastic (b) Indifferent
(c) Neutral (d) Critical

6. How does the passage synthesize the effects of daily running and rest periods on cardiovascular health?
(a) It indicates that daily running boosts heart health but can lead to scarring without rest.
(b) The passage suggests daily running alone significantly enhances cardiovascular health.
(c) The synthesis shows cardiovascular improvement mainly through endurance, with little downside.
(d) It emphasizes that the risks from no rest, like heart damage, far outweigh the benefits of running.

II. Environment
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The world has enough fossil fuel projects planned to meet global energy demand forecasts to 2050 and
governments should stop issuing new oil, gas and coal licences, according to a large study aimed at
political leaders.
If governments deliver the changes promised in order to keep the world from breaching its climate
targets no new fossil fuel projects will be needed. The data offered what they said was ―a rigorous
scientific basis‖ for global governments to ban new fossil fuel projects and begin a managed decline of
the fossil fuel industry, while encouraging investment in clean energy alternatives.
By establishing a ―clear and immediate demand‖ political leaders would be able to set a new norm
around the future of fossil fuels, against which the industry could be held ―immediately accountable‖. The
paper analysed global energy demand forecasts for oil and gas, as well as coal- and gas-fired electricity,
using a broad range of scenarios compiled for the UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change that
limited global heating to within 1.5C above pre-industrial levels. It found that in addition to not needing
new fossil fuel extraction, no new coal- and gas-fired power generation was needed in a net zero future.
The paper is expected to reignite criticism of the UK‘s Conservative government, which has promised to
offer hundreds of oil and gas exploration licenses to boost the North Sea industry, a policy that has
emerged as a key dividing line with the opposition Labour party before the 4 July general election.
Labour has vowed to put an end to new North Sea licences if it comes to power, and also plans to
increase taxes on the profits made by existing oil and gas fields to help fund investments in green energy
projects through a new government-owned company, Great British Energy. Importantly, our research
establishes that there is a rigorous scientific basis for the proposed norm by showing that there is no
need for new fossil fuel projects.
The clarity that this norm brings should help focus policy on targeting the required ambitious scaling of
renewable and clean energy investment, whilst managing the decline of fossil fuel infrastructure in an
equitable and just way.‖ The report expanded on work by the International Energy Agency (IEA) which
has warned in recent years that no new fossil fuel projects were compatible with the global goal to build
a net zero energy system.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
gas-or-coal-licences-study-finds

7. What does the phrase "managed decline" in the context of the fossil fuel industry imply?
(a) A systematic reduction in fossil fuel projects while controlling economic impacts.
(b) A sudden halt to all fossil fuel projects to immediately reduce environmental impacts.
(c) A gradual decrease in government subsidies for fossil fuel industries.
(d) A complete shutdown of existing fossil fuel projects without transition measures.

8. Which of the following best describes the author's writing style in the passage?
(a) Persuasive (b) Descriptive
(c) Analytical (d) Narrative

9. What can be inferred about the relationship between political decisions and climate targets from the
passage?
(a) Political decisions are often aligned with climate targets, as evidenced by widespread support for
banning new fossil fuel projects.
(b) The passage suggests that political leaders are unanimously in favour of stringent measures to meet
climate targets.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Political decisions are largely influenced by economic considerations, often at the expense of
meeting climate targets.
(d) There is a critical disconnect between political promises and the practical implementation needed to
meet climate targets.

10. Based on the analysis presented, which statement best captures the potential impact of the proposed
policy changes on the fossil fuel industry?
(a) The industry will face a rapid shutdown due to the immediate cessation of new licenses and a focus
on clean energy investments.
(b) There will be a gradual but definite shift away from fossil fuels, supported by scientific
recommendations to cease new projects.
(c) The fossil fuel industry will likely ignore the scientific findings and continue to expand, despite
political pressures.
(d) No significant impact is expected as the industry has already adapted to similar policy changes in the
past.

11. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage regarding global energy policies?
(a) The passage suggests that current global energy policies are well-aligned with the goals of the Paris
Agreement.
(b) According to the passage, there is an urgent need to halt all existing fossil fuel projects immediately
to meet climate goals.
(c) The passage indicates that existing energy policies are insufficient for meeting climate targets
without additional reforms.
(d) It is implied that most global governments have already ceased the issuance of new fossil fuel
licenses.

12. Which figure of speech is employed in describing the expected impact of scientific findings on political
leaders‘ decisions regarding fossil fuel policies?
(a) Metaphor (b) Personification
(c) Hyperbole (d) Alliteration

III. Motivation
Apart from achieving our ambitions in life, we should strive to keep the aim of 'not to hurt or cause pain to
any living being' too. T is one of the highest principles of human life. I believe that I would give others
what I would like to receive. I would not like to be hurt by others so I should not hurt anyone. This is the
aim of my life- human life.
Whilst the fulfillment of ambition gives us personal satisfaction, an aim of 'not to hurt or cause pain to any
living being' makes us rise higher in our spiritual development.
When carrying out our day-to-day interactions, many times we may not even realize that we are hurting
the feelings of others. So, first of all, let's try and understand the different ways by which we could be
causing hurt to others intentionally or unintentionally, through our thoughts, speech and actions in our
day- to-day lives.
When we harbour negative thoughts or opinions towards someone e.g.: oh, they are so useless, they do
not understand, they are annoying., the vibrations reach the other person for sure which hurts the other
person, and in turn, that person too begins to harbour negative thoughts and opinions for us. Due to
envy or dislike for someone, we may wish bad things on others. This could hurt the other person, but in
turn, it will hurt us in a much bigger manner.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

What can be the solution to this? Maybe we can oppose the negative thoughts of that person and
counterbalance each of them with five good ones. Bad thoughts are unhealthy and good thoughts are
healthy for us and for others too. Also, we can take a vow to utilize our intellect to solve problems and
never to form negative opinions of others.
How do we tend to hurt someone with speech? For instance, when we are annoyed with someone, our
underlying hurtful emotions arising out of our irritation for that person, may get expressed through our
words and could hurt the person. Words that try to establish authority over the other person are often
laden with heavy expectations, they smell of 'I know better' attitude, and are demanding, bossy, stern, or
even harsh. Such words could be received adversely by the person concerned.
Words uttered with a sting in the heart come across hurtful and it could cause damage to the other
person. Bitter words hurt the feelings of the other person and create a barrier in our relationship. Our
words mirror our thoughts. So, if we have perceived bad opinions about someone, it surely gets reflected
sooner or later.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
ecstasy/what-should-be-the-aim-in-life-other-than-our-ambition/articleshow/[Link]

13. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage regarding the unintentional harm caused
by individuals?
(a) Unintentional harm can occur through negative vibrations caused by harboring bad thoughts about
someone.
(b) Unintentional harm is always a result of deliberate negative actions and is easily recognized by both
the perpetrator and the victim.
(c) Unintentional harm might be inflicted through words that carry underlying emotions of irritation and
authority.
(d) Day-to-day interactions can sometimes lead to unintentional harm without the individuals realizing it
immediately.

14. Based on the passage, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
(a) Maintaining an attitude of superiority and authority in communication is an effective method to
establish clear expectations.
(b) Negative thoughts, even if unexpressed, can transmit harmful vibrations to others and should be
managed or countered with positive thoughts.
(c) It is often justified to return negative sentiments when someone harbors negative opinions towards
us.
(d) Vocally expressing frustration is healthier than keeping irritations bottled up, even if it may cause
discomfort to others.
15. What is the contextual meaning of the word 'vibrations' as used in the passage?
(a) Physical oscillations caused by mechanical devices.
(b) Emotional or spiritual energies transmitted between people.
(c) The literal sound waves produced during verbal communication.
(d) Geological movements within the earth‘s crust.

16. According to the passage, which of the following statements does the author most likely to agree with
regarding the formulation of opinions about others?
(a) Negative opinions about others are often justified based on their actions and behaviours.
(b) Forming negative opinions about others can create a perpetual cycle of negativity and should be
avoided.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) It is healthy to express negative opinions openly to clear misunderstandings.

(d) Opinions, whether positive or negative, are subjective and thus not harmful.

17. Which of the following is evidence that speech can cause unintentional harm according to the passage?
(a) Speech is a direct reflection of our thoughts and can therefore be managed to avoid
misunderstanding.
(b) Harsh words, even when meant to correct someone, can often lead to resentment and a breakdown
in communication.
(c) Positive speech can enhance relationships and foster better understanding among individuals.
(d) Words spoken in anger or annoyance can often carry underlying emotions that might hurt the
recipient.

18. Which of the following would be a synonym for 'harbor' as used in the passage?
(a) Maintain (b) Discard
(c) Neglect (d) Dissolve

IV. Social Issue

Seaweed collection began only a few decades ago in the Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Bay and is almost
exclusively undertaken by women. It demands quick but careful work. A deft and experienced worker like
Nambeeswari (in picture) can make nearly Rs.250 a day, nearly twice as much as a slower worker. A
collector‘s equipment includes the diver‘s mask and cloth bands that are tied to the fingers of both hands
to prevent injury. A plastic bag is tied to the back to store the seaweed. In 2006, at a meeting of the Gulf
of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve Trust, the association of seaweed collectors banned the use of
metal scrappers to collect seaweed.
INCONGRUITY can evoke laughter and sometimes derision; it can also signal admiration or alarm. In all
human history, clothes have perhaps best signalled prevailing social norms and codes. Clothes on the
human body can also become a great provocateur through their ability to create the sensation of
incongruity and oddness.
When the human body comes in contact with water, clothing mediates how normative elements of this
experience are created, recreated or destroyed. For years, watching fully clothed people fall or jump into
water has been associated with slapstick comedy, bordering on tragedy. YouTube offers a spectrum of
instances to choose from. On the darker end are films like Fall 2, in which the Dutch conceptual artist
Bas Van Ader rides his cycle into an Amsterdam canal fully dressed, indicating loss of control and
mysterious intentionality. Then there are ―drunk-people videos‖—showing them falling into water fully
clothed, often fully drunk.
Alongside images of iconoclastic or carefree liberties that people take with clothing and water, this photo-
essay dwells on one set of women in southern Tamil Nadu. In Ramanathapuram district, women from the
coastal villages of Chinnapalam, Bharathinagar and Kilakarai leave each morning to enter the sea, fully
clothed in their sarees and underskirts, the ―petticoat‖. Some of them take boats to head out to shallow
waters where they jump in, and others walk into the waters from the seashore. This image of saree-clad
women in water makes for much curiosity about the conditions that lead to such incongruous behaviour.
After all, the saree is an attire associated with words like ―homely‖, ―traditional‖, ―womanly‖ and is
apparently designed to fix the movements of women on land. Worn underwater, it appears to be a
transgression. Worn with a man‘s shirt, the contrasts within the image become stark.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
issues/[Link]?cx_testId=32&cx_testVariant=cx_1&cx_artPos=3#cxrecs_s
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

19. Which of the following best describes the author's stance on the use of sarees by women while collecting
seaweed?
(a) The author criticizes the practice as impractical and suggests modern alternatives.
(b) The author views the practice as a symbolic defiance of traditional norms.
(c) The author finds the practice curious and worth exploring for deeper cultural insights.
(d) The author endorses the practice as an effective method for protection against elements.
20. Which of the following idioms best represents the situation of women collecting seaweed as described in
the passage?
(a) Against the tide (b) Cutting corners
(c) A drop in the ocean (d) The tip of the iceberg

21. Which of the following is a factual statement based on the passage regarding seaweed collection?
(a) Seaweed collection is a highly mechanized industry in the Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Bay.
(b) Women collectors wear divers' masks and use metal scrappers as standard equipment.
(c) A skilled worker like Nambeeswari can earn significantly more than her less skilled counterparts.
(d) Men are predominantly involved in seaweed collection in southern Tamil Nadu.

22. What conclusion can be drawn from the passage about the role of clothing in water-related activities, as
depicted through the example of saree-clad women?
(a) Clothing used in water-related activities merely serves a functional purpose without any cultural or
symbolic implications.
(b) The choice of clothing, such as sarees in water, highlights a practical adaptation to local
environmental conditions.
(c) Wearing sarees while collecting seaweed is a mandated tradition that women in southern Tamil
Nadu are compelled to follow.
(d) The use of traditional attire like sarees in water is indicative of a cultural defiance or an exploration of
identity.

23. Which of the following statements accurately describes the equipment used by seaweed collectors as
mentioned in the passage?
(a) Seaweed collectors traditionally utilize metal scrappers as part of their equipment for harvesting.
(b) The collectors are equipped with cloth bands on their fingers and a plastic bag tied to their back for
storing collected seaweed.
(c) All equipment, including plastic bags, has been banned by the Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere
Reserve Trust.
(d) The equipment for seaweed collection is primarily focused on enhancing the speed of collection
without regard for safety.

24. What is the most appropriate title for the passage based on its content and themes?
(a) Economic Strategies of Seaweed Collectors in Tamil Nadu
(b) Technical Aspects of Seaweed Collection in Southern India
(c) The Cultural Significance of Clothing in Water-Related Activities
(d) Role of Women in the Rural Economy of Tamil Nadu
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 24
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Philosophy
It seems clear that with all the technological change, with the availability of online courses created by the
world's top experts, the old approaches and methods need to metamorphose Keeping up with the rapidly
changing needs of industry, and the opportunities available due to new technologies and pedagogic
methods, requires agility, innovation and speed. The present ossified and rigid structures, combined with
overregulation, are an antithesis of these needs. Education is a good in itself, and every individual must
be given the opportunity to access the best possible learning so as to attain his/her full, inherent
capability. Also, learning must no longer end when one leaves the portals of an educational institution.
Emerging technologies and the changing world demand continuous upgradation of knowledge. Lifelong
learning is, therefore, essential. Online courses now provide the means for doing this easily and cheaply,
at a time, place and pace that suits each individual. While this is invaluable to working people to
continuously update and upgrade their knowledge, it is also a boon to all others-including the growing
number of elders, retired from jobs-who want to learn something new purely out of interest. Now, online
education is no longer merely supplementary or a means of knowledge upgradation for working
professionals. "Telescoping into months what was expected to possibly evolve over years, online
education for formal learning is here. The COVID pandemic and the lockdown, as also the continuing
need to maintain physical distancing, has made online a necessity in fact, for over six months, it has
been the only form of formal education. Schools and colleges around the country, shut by the lockdown
and regulations, have had to quickly transform teaching to this mode, and even tests or examinations
have been held online. This has meant serious challenges, not just for the teachers who have had to
learn how best to use this new pedagogic method, but also for students. The latter have been faced with
serious and varied challenges: availability of devices (computer or smartphone), Internet connectivity, a
quiet place in the home to work from and much-reduced ability to interact with teachers and peers.
These challenges are obviously greater for the disadvantaged and those in rural areas, leading to the
danger of further increasing inequity in the educational system. A survey indicates that only 15 per cent
in rural areas have Internet access; even in urban areas, it is only 42 per cent. As far as computers are
concerned, access in urban areas is just 23 per cent. Access to computers in rural areas (at 4 per cent)
is almost non-existent. So, while online education opens up limitless possibilities, access and the
inequity are serious problems, with no immediate or easy solutions. Education, skills and knowledge are,
of course, directly connected with the economic prospects of an individual and of the country. The
correlation between the two has grown stronger as the world moves towards a knowledge economy.
Little wonder, then, that countries seek to prioritize education and skills.
Source: Decisive Decade by Kiran Karnik

1. Based on the author's argument, what is the primary impediment to the adoption of online education as a
mainstream mode of learning?
(a) The lack of technological infrastructure and access to devices, particularly in rural areas, leading to
educational inequity.
(b) The resistance from traditional educational institutions to embrace online learning due to the ossified
and rigid structures.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The inadequate training of teachers to effectively utilize online pedagogical methods and adapt to the
new educational paradigm.
(d) The inherent limitations of online learning in facilitating meaningful interactions and collaborations
among students and teachers.

2. Which of the following best captures the author's contention regarding the necessity of lifelong learning
in the contemporary world?
(a) Lifelong learning is a luxury afforded only to the privileged class, as it demands substantial financial
resources and leisure time.
(b) Lifelong learning is an obsolete concept, as formal education acquired in one's youth is sufficient to
navigate the rapidly changing world.
(c) Lifelong learning is imperative to keep pace with the ever-evolving technological landscape and the
dynamic needs of the industry.
(d) Lifelong learning is a utopian ideal that is difficult to achieve due to the constraints imposed by work
and family responsibilities.

3. Based on the inference from the passage, which of the following statements is true regarding the impact
of online education during the COVID-19 pandemic?
(a) Online education has been a seamless transition, enabling uninterrupted learning for students across
all socioeconomic strata.
(b) Online education has exacerbated the existing educational disparities, posing significant challenges
for underprivileged and rural students.
(c) Online education has been an overwhelming success, rendering traditional classroom-based
learning obsolete and paving the way for a digital revolution in education.
(d) Online education has been widely embraced by teachers and students alike, owing to its superior
pedagogical methods and flexibility.

4. In the passage, the phrase "ossified and rigid structures" is closest in meaning to:
(a) Antiquated and inflexible systems
(b) Highly regulated and bureaucratic frameworks
(c) Outdated and archaic methodologies
(d) Entrenched and unyielding institutions

5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the relationship between education,
skills, and economic prospects?
(a) The correlation between education, skills, and economic prospects is weakening as the world
transitions towards a knowledge-based economy.
(b) The passage suggests that education and skills have a minimal impact on an individual's economic
prospects in the modern world.
(c) The passage implies that the link between education, skills, and economic prospects is context-
specific and varies across different regions.
(d) The passage acknowledges the strong correlation between education, skills, and economic
prospects, which has intensified in the knowledge-driven global economy.

II. Literature
Sanjay wondered whether the vending machine had it in for him, too. It had sucked up the last of his
change but was stubbornly refusing to release the Mars bar he'd hoped would fill the hole caused by
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

working through lunch, again. He balled his hand into a fist and bashed it against the glass. The vending
machine laughed at him, as he bruised his knuckles without making the Mars bar so much as quiver, let
alone fall into the dispensing tray.
Sanjay's stomach rumbled, churning with a mixture of hunger and frustration, not just at the stupid
machine, but at his complete inability to get anything right. No Mars bar, and no Emmie. Stupid, irritating
machine. Stupid, irritating Toby with his stupid IT company, stupid beard, stupid skiing holidays and
stupid unimaginative engagement ring. Sanjay would have chosen Emmie an emerald, to go with her
eyes. He took a short run up to the gloating hunk of metal and kicked it hard. "Take that, you arrogant,
annoying bastard!' he shouted at it. The machine vibrated slightly, and its internal light dimmed, making it
appear surprisingly empathetic, before quickly returning to full power.
Sanjay could sense someone behind him before he saw them. It was an exhausted-looking young
mother, holding the hand of Harry, one of his patients from the paediatric oncology ward. 'Are you okay,
Sanjay?" asked Harry's mum, who he knew had far more reason not to be okay than Sanjay did. He
added abject shame to all his other negative emotions. 'Yes, I'm fine,' he said, bending down so that his
head was level with Harry's. 'Sorry about the bad word, Harry,' he said. 'You know how sometimes when
life feels really unfair, it helps to let it all out?' Harry nodded. 'But it's still not good to swear, is it?' He
stood up and mouthed sorry to Harry's mum. 'Don't worry. I've said a lot worse, believe me,' she said.
Sanjay didn't see Harry again until right at the end of his shift, as he was wheeling the blood pressure
monitor through Harry's ward, Harry was in bed, his skin as pale as the sheets, and his bald head
making him look as vulnerable as a newborn. Actually, given that the chemo had knocked out his
immune system, he was probably more vulnerable than a newborn.
Harry picked up his pillow, held it in front of him and, with a surprising amount of force, plunged his fist
into it several times. 'Take that, you arrogant, annoying bastard,' he said. Thank God his mother had
gone home already.
Source: The People on Platform 5

6. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about Sanjay's mental state when he encounters the
uncooperative vending machine?
(a) He is overwhelmed by a sense of serenity and contentment, undisturbed by the vending machine's
malfunctioning.
(b) He is consumed by a multitude of frustrations, exacerbated by the vending machine's refusal to
dispense the Mars bar.
(c) He is amused by the vending machine's stubbornness, viewing it as a harmless source of
entertainment.
(d) He is indifferent to the vending machine's behaviour, his thoughts preoccupied with professional
concerns.

7. Which of the following statements best captures the author's opinion regarding Sanjay's reaction to the
vending machine?
(a) The author condemns Sanjay's outburst as an inexcusable display of immaturity and lack of self-
control.
(b) The author portrays Sanjay's reaction with empathy, acknowledging the compounded frustrations
that fuelled his behaviour.
(c) The author adopts a neutral stance, neither condoning nor condemning Sanjay's actions towards the
vending machine.
(d) The author implies that Sanjay's reaction is a manifestation of deeper psychological issues that
require professional intervention.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

8. Which of the following statements is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) Sanjay's frustration stems from his inability to acquire a Mars bar and his failed romantic relationship.
(b) Sanjay harbours resentment towards Toby due to his perceived success and unimaginative
engagement ring choice.
(c) Sanjay's outburst towards the vending machine is witnessed by Harry, a patient from the paediatric
oncology ward.
(d) Sanjay's remorse for his outburst is amplified by Harry's resilience in the face of his illness.

9. In the statement, "Sanjay could sense someone behind him before he saw them," the author employs
which rhetorical device?
(a) Hyperbole (b) Personification
(c) Metaphor (d) Synecdoche

10. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for Harry's actions at the end of the passage?
(a) Harry is mimicking Sanjay's outburst as a coping mechanism to vent his frustrations with his illness.
(b) Harry is playfully reenacting Sanjay's outburst, finding amusement in the doctor's unconventional
behaviour.
(c) Harry is reprimanding Sanjay for his earlier outburst, expressing his disapproval through symbolic
gestures.
(d) Harry is experiencing hallucinations as a side effect of his chemotherapy treatment, leading to
delusions about the vending machine incident.

III. Science and Technology

In 1964, he theorised the existence of the Higgs Boson, a fundamental force-carrying particle associated
with the Higgs field. The Higgs field is a quantum field that gives mass to particles and exists throughout
the universe. In the Higgs field, the Higgs boson acts as a wave and helps give mass to other
fundamental particles through its interaction in terms of its vibration (oscillation).His theory was proved
50 years later when researchers at the Large Hadron Collider, the most powerful particle accelerator in
the world, discovered the particle in 2012. Mr Higgs was awarded the Nobel prize a year later. Particles
make up everything in the universe but they did not have any mass when the universe began. They all
sped around at the speed of light, according to the European Council for Nuclear Research (CERN).
Everything we see -- planets, stars and life -- emerged after particles gained their mass from a
fundamental field associated with the particle known as the Higgs boson. The particle has a mass of 125
billion electron volts making it 130 times bigger than a proton, according to CERN. Interestingly, the
subatomic particles known as bosons are named after Indian Physicist Satyendra Nath Bose. Why is it
called the God Particle?
The Higgs boson is popularly known as the "the God Particle". The name originated from Nobel Prize-
winning physicist Leon Lederman's book on the particle which he titled the "Goddamn Particle" -- owing
to frustration over how difficult it was to detect. However, his publishers changed the name to the "The
God Particle", which often draws ire from religious communities. The name stuck as it captures the
importance of the force-giving particle without which no particles would have mass and the world as we
know it would not exist. Born in UK's Newcastle upon Tyne in 1929, Mr Higgs studied at King's College in
London and taught at the University of Edinburgh since the 1950s.
Described as a modest man who published only a few scientific papers, he disliked his sudden fame
calling it "a bit of a nuisance", even cringing when the term "Higgs boson" was used. Even as a life-long
atheist, he disliked the name "God particle".
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: [Link]
5410111#:~:text=The%20Higgs%20boson%20is%20popularly,difficult%20it%20was%20to%20detect.

11. The passage depicts Peter Higgs as a "modest man" who disliked fame and even cringed at the term
"Higgs boson." This portrayal suggests the author views Higgs' contribution to the field as:
(a) Overshadowed by the complexity of his theory.
(b) Diminished by his aversion to public recognition.
(c) Fundamentally unappreciated by the scientific community.
(d) A stepping stone towards a more comprehensive theory.

12. The passage contrasts the "God Particle" nickname with Higgs' atheism. We can infer the author
believes this nickname:
(a) Trivializes the profound scientific significance of the discovery.
(b) Provides a relatable metaphor for the general public.
(c) Reflects a growing convergence between science and religion.
(d) Is an inevitable consequence of scientific terminology's limitations.

13. The passage implies the difficulty of detecting the Higgs Boson contributed to its importance. Which of
the following MOST strengthens this argument?
(a) Theorists predicted the existence of the Higgs Boson based on established principles.
(b) The Large Hadron Collider was specifically designed to detect the Higgs Boson.
(c) The discovery of the Higgs Boson has led to immediate practical applications.
(d) Alternative theories explaining mass remain viable despite the discovery.

14. Which of the following best captures the NUANCE of the relationship between the Higgs Boson and our
understanding of the universe?
(a) The Higgs Boson is the missing piece in the puzzle of mass formation.
(b) The discovery of the Higgs Boson confirms the validity of existing cosmological models.
(c) The Higgs Boson represents the ultimate explanation for particle mass.
(d) The Higgs field provides a new framework for studying particle interactions.

15. The passage mentions the Higgs Boson's mass as 125 billion electron volts. Imagine a hypothetical
scenario where future research reveals multiple Higgs Bosons with a spectrum of masses. How would
this MOST LIKELY impact the current theory of the Higgs field?
(a) It would necessitate abandoning the concept of the Higgs field altogether.
(b) It would require a fundamental revision of the Standard Model of particle physics.
(c) It would confirm the existence of a multiverse with varying physical constants.
(d) It would have no significant implications for our understanding of mass.

IV. International Relations

President Nicolás Maduro of Venezuela isn‘t even pretending to play fair anymore. In October, he
promised to take steps toward holding free elections, including allowing the opposition to pick a
candidate in a primary process of its own choosing, with the lifting of some American sanctions as an
incentive. But the ink was hardly dry before his government upheld a ban on running for office that had
been placed on María Corina Machado, the overwhelming victor of that primary. Then it arrested her
allies and campaign staff members, accusing them of an anti-government plot. Some have sought
asylum at the Argentine Embassy. The Maduro regime has even refused to register the candidate that
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Ms. Machado deputized to run in her stead. The Biden administration now has little choice but to follow
through on its threats to reimpose the sanctions on Venezuela‘s oil and gas industry, even though they
have become deeply unpopular with the Venezuelan people. They are expected to resume after
Thursday. It‘s a stark reminder that the sweeping power of U.S. sanctions can do great harm but rarely
delivers the political results that American officials seek. The Biden administration essentially offered Mr.
Maduro a deal: sanctions relief in exchange for freer and fairer elections. It was worth a try. A similar
bargain helped Poland break free of its autocratic system in the 1980s. Had Mr. Maduro taken it
seriously, Venezuela would have had a path out of its protracted political and economic crisis. But Mr.
Maduro won‘t risk losing to Ms. Machado. If he did, it would increase the chances that he would have to
face justice in an international court for brutally suppressing mass protests and other alleged crimes
against humanity. He may have also noticed that the sanctions haven‘t turned out so well for the United
States, either. Crushing sanctions on the country‘s oil industry — designed by the Trump administration
to shut down Venezuela‘s economy and push Mr. Maduro out of power — are partly to blame for the
migrant crisis at the U.S. border, a major political problem for Mr. Biden during an election year. They
intensified the economic collapse that Venezuela was already experiencing. They curtailed investment in
its most important industry, curbed access to the hard currency needed to import food and medicine, and
made it virtually impossible for Venezuela to refinance its debts. As a result, the Venezuelan economy
experienced the single largest peacetime collapse of any country in at least 45 years. Millions of
Venezuelans have fled to Peru, Colombia, and other Latin American countries, while hundreds of
thousands have ended up on the doorsteps of the United States. For years now, Venezuela‘s most
noteworthy export has been people, not oil. About a third of Venezuelan households get remittances
from abroad.
Source: [Link]
16. What can be inferred about the author's stance towards the Biden administration's decision to reimpose
sanctions on Venezuela's oil and gas industry?
(a) The author believes it is a necessary but regrettable step.
(b) The author vehemently opposes the decision and considers it a grave mistake.
(c) The author supports the decision wholeheartedly as a just consequence.
(d) The author is ambivalent about the decision and its potential consequences.

17. Which of the following best describes the author's characterization of Nicolás Maduro's actions regarding
the Venezuelan elections?
(a) Duplicitous and deceptive, with a blatant disregard for democratic principles.
(b) Well-intentioned but misguided, resulting in unintended consequences.
(c) Pragmatic and calculated, aimed at preserving his hold on power.
(d) Reluctant and hesitant, driven by external pressures and internal conflicts.

18. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the consequences of the U.S.
sanctions on Venezuela's oil industry?
(a) They have been largely ineffective in achieving their intended political goals.
(b) They have had a minimal impact on the Venezuelan economy and populace.
(c) They have successfully destabilized the Maduro regime and facilitated regime change.
(d) They have resulted in a significant improvement in the human rights situation in Venezuela.

19. Find the antonym of the word "protracted" as used in the passage.
(a) Extended (b) Prolonged
(c) Abbreviated (d) Drawn-out
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

20. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage regarding the U.S. sanctions on
Venezuela?
(a) Optimistic and hopeful (b) Cynical and scathing
(c) Impartial and objective (d) Empathetic and sympathetic

V. History
The concept of English Language had acknowledged very much by the people living in country like India,
the English language certainly has proved itself to be one of the most used language in various official
bodies within the nation rather it be any sort of documentation purpose or any other important official
things to be taken into consideration, as observing its growing demand in the nation, the introduction of
the language was dated back in 17th Century when the East India Company firstly came in India and
started using it for official use in government bodies, slowly and gradually it started spreading among the
masses, it was all possible due to the growing British power in India and increase in influence of English
language on the Indian people, However, the English language never had been accepted by the people
within a night, it‘s a step by step process through which the language had eventually evolved and
adapted by the people with a course of time, English language was firstly introduce at the time when the
printing press was started in India with the establishment of the first newspaper Hickey‘s Bengal Gazette.
Meanwhile, another breakthrough is observed when the person named Sake Dean Mahomet published
his travel narrative in 1793 A.D, However, his work falls between the category of Nonfiction and
travelogue. Though, the things were taking its form to make English language known to people, but still
majority of the people were not aware of the English language at that time, only the newly formed
working middle class were aware of it and can able to speak it, apart from this the Indianization of
Language was also essential at that time in order to make people anglicized and develop the western
tendency within them, even the printing in its initial stages were more focused towards works of Bible or
government decrees, So, in order to deepen the roots of the English language in India Lord William
Bentick in 1835 formed the rule where the motto of ―Favor English language alone ― was used by him in
which the English language was made mandatory to the people if they want to take knowledge of
subjects like English literature and Science. As a result, many changes in Education field was taken
place as it was one of the historic decision which was made by Lord Bentick through which many
Educational Institutes and Universities were bound to use English language in the curriculum apart from
the usage of the languages like Arabic and Sanskrit, with this initiative taking place in the Educational
bodies the creation of new Young generation was taken place who was considered to be the first
Generation who can speak and write English.
Source: [Link]
english-53226/

21. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the initial introduction of the English
language in India?
(a) It was a spontaneous process driven by the masses' desire to learn the language.
(b) It was a gradual process facilitated by the increasing influence of British power and the establishment
of printing presses.
(c) It was a forced imposition by the British rulers, met with widespread resistance from the Indian
populace.
(d) It was a strategic move by the Indian rulers to establish closer ties with the British Empire.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

22. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage regarding Lord William Bentinck's
decision to "Favor English language alone" in 1835?
(a) It was a controversial move that sparked widespread protests and civil unrest among the Indian
population.
(b) It was a pragmatic decision aimed at facilitating the spread of Western education and values in India.
(c) It was a temporary measure to promote English language learning, which was later reversed due to
public outcry.
(d) It was a conciliatory gesture towards the British Crown, made at the expense of preserving Indian
cultural heritage.

23. The statement "Indianization of Language was also essential at that time in order to make people
anglicized and develop the western tendency within them" implies which of the following?
(a) The British rulers actively encouraged the adoption of English language and Western culture among
Indians.
(b) The Indian population was eager to embrace Western ideals and assimilate into British society.
(c) The process of learning English was accompanied by a concerted effort to preserve Indian cultural
identity.
(d) The spread of English language was met with resistance from those who feared the erosion of Indian
traditions.

24. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage, EXCEPT:
(a) The first newspaper in India, Hickey's Bengal Gazette, played a role in introducing the English
language.
(b) Sake Dean Mahomet's travel narrative, published in 1793, was one of the earliest works in English
by an Indian author.
(c) The printing press in India initially focused primarily on publishing works related to the Bible and
government decrees.
(d) The introduction of English language in India was met with widespread acceptance and enthusiasm
from the masses.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 25
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. A long time ago, when I worked in an office, we used to take lunch quite seriously. This meant getting up
from our desks, walking on our legs, and eating with another human being for the purposes of chat.
Sometimes this even happened outside, or at a restaurant. It seems absurd now. Who has the time to
hang out in the middle of the day or drop $20 on a sandwich when you could be sitting at your desk,
staring at the internet, grazing leftovers from a plastic container from home? (Or, if you‘re already at
home, let‘s be honest, taking a nap.) If this killjoy reflex is a side-effect of age – for most people, time
becomes less their own as they get older – it is also, it seems, a sign of the times. Two recent pieces of
research in the US indicate that, over the past four or five years, Americans have been spending less
money at lunchtime – 3.3% less, according to a payments app, Square – and also moving around less in
the middle of the day.
A study found that in the central business districts of most North American cities there has been a
marked ―decrease in activity levels during working hours‖ since the pandemic. This is partly due to the
rise in remote working. But it may also be that the very concept of a lunch hour is on the wane.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]

1. The decline in the tradition of having lunch away from the desk is primarily due to:
(a) The increased pressure to remain productive at work.
(b) The convenience of eating leftovers at the desk.
(c) The habit of taking naps during lunch breaks.
(d) The rising costs associated with eating out.

2. The passage implies that people do not engage in lunch outings because:
(a) They have developed a habit of bringing food from home.
(b) They prefer the comfort of their workspace.
(c) They are too engrossed in their online activities.
(d) They lack social connections at work.

3. The author‘s viewpoint on the shift towards less active lunchtimes is:
(a) Laudatory (b) Idealistic
(c) Apathetic (d) Reflective
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?
(a) Lunch breaks used to be a time for social interaction.
(b) The concept of a lunch hour is diminishing in modern times.
(c) Remote working has had no impact on lunchtime habits.
(d) Spending on lunch has decreased over the years.

5. Statement 1: Americans have reduced their lunchtime spending.

Statement 2: The tradition of the lunch hour is waning in modern work culture.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. Some of the world‘s most profitable – and most polluting corporations – have invested in carbon offset
projects that have fundamental failings and are ―probably junk‖, suggesting industry claims about
greenhouse gas reductions were likely overblown, according to new analysis.
Some of the major corporations have purchased millions of carbon credits from climate friendly projects
that are ―likely junk‖ or worthless when it comes to offsetting their greenhouse gas emissions, according
to a classification system developed by Corporate Accountability, a non-profit, transnational corporate
watchdog. Some of these companies no longer use CO2 offsets amid mounting evidence that carbon
trading does not lead to the claimed emissions cuts – and in some cases may even cause environmental
and social harms. However, the multibillion-dollar voluntary carbon trading industry is still championed by
many corporations including oil and gas majors, airlines, automakers, tourism, fast-food and beverage
brands, fashion houses, banks and tech firms as the bedrock of climate action – a way of claiming to
reduce their greenhouse gas footprint while continuing to rely on fossil fuels and unsustainable supply
chains.
Yet, for 33 of the top 50 corporate buyers, more than a third of their entire offsets portfolio is ―likely junk‖
– suggesting at least some claims about carbon neutrality and emission reductions have been
exaggerated according to the analysis. The fundamental failings leading to a ―likely junk‖ ranking include
whether emissions cuts would have happened anyway, as is often the case with large hydroelectric
dams, or if the emissions were just shifted elsewhere, a common issue in forestry offset projects.
These findings add to the mounting evidence that peels back the greenwashed facade of the voluntary
carbon market and lays bare the ways it dangerously distracts from the real, lasting action the world‘s
largest corporations and polluters need to be taking, The fossil fuel industry is by far the largest investor
in the world‘s most popular 50 CO2 offsetting schemes. At least 43% of the 81m CO2 credits purchased
by the oil and gas majors are for projects that have at least one fundamental flaw and are ―probably
junk‖.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]

6. Although corporations promoted their carbon offset projects as climate-friendly, the overall impact of
these projects was ____? Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) counterproductive. (b) insignificant.
(c) beneficial. (d) neutral.

7. The reliance on carbon offset projects posed a significant issue for corporations because:
(a) it led to regulatory penalties.
(b) it diverted attention from reducing actual emissions.
(c) it increased operational costs significantly.
(d) it resulted in public backlash.

8. Identify the sequence of events that ultimately led to carbon offsets being deemed ineffective.
(1) Offsets were purchased without proper scrutiny.
(2) Emissions cuts claimed were not happening in reality.
(3) Corporations continued harmful practices.
(4) Fundamental flaws were identified in offset projects.
Choose the appropriate option:
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) (1), (3), (4), (2) (b) (4), (2), (1), (3)
(c) (3), (1), (4), (2) (d) (1), (4), (2), (3)

9. The term 'fundamental flaw' in the context of the passage means:

(a) a major issue that undermines project credibility.
(b) a minor defect that can be easily corrected.
(c) a surprising benefit that improves the outcomes.
(d) a common challenge faced by all projects.

10. 'Greenwashed facade' implies:

(a) genuine efforts to protect the environment.
(b) innovative environmental solutions.
(c) superficial and misleading environmental claims.
(d) unintentional environmental harm.

11. 'Voluntary carbon market' is considered ineffective because:

(a) it is mandated by governments without proper checks.
(b) it is based on self-regulation without stringent oversight.
(c) it provides accurate and verifiable emissions reductions.
(d) it is subsidized by taxpayers.

12. Corporations invested in carbon offsets primarily to:

(a) comply with legal requirements and avoid fines.
(b) genuinely reduce their carbon emissions footprint.
(c) create a perception of environmental responsibility.
(d) develop and implement sustainable practices.

III. Viruses are a mysterious and poorly understood force in microbial ecosystems. Researchers know they
can infect, kill and manipulate human and bacterial cells in nearly every environment, from the oceans to
your gut. But scientists don‘t yet have a full picture of how viruses affect their surrounding environments
in large part because of their extraordinary diversity and ability to rapidly evolve. Communities of
microbes are difficult to study in a laboratory setting. Many microbes are challenging to cultivate, and
their natural environment has many more features influencing their success or failure than scientists can
replicate in a lab.
Researchers annotate viruses by matching viral sequences in a sample to previously annotated
sequences available in public databases of viral genetic sequences. However, scientists are identifying
viral sequences in DNA collected from the environment at a rate that far outpaces our ability to annotate
those genes. This means researchers are publishing findings about viruses in microbial ecosystems
using unacceptably small fractions of available data.
To improve researchers‘ ability to study viruses around the globe, my team and I have developed a novel
approach to annotate viral sequences using artificial intelligence. Through protein language models akin
to large language models like ChatGPT but specific to proteins, we were able to classify previously
unseen viral sequences. This opens the door for researchers to not only learn more about viruses, but
also to address biological questions that are difficult to answer with current techniques.
Making all AI tools available – data that is findable, accessible, interoperable and reusable – can help
researchers at large realize the potential of these new ways of annotating protein sequences leading to
discoveries that benefit human health.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Large language models use relationships between words in large datasets of text to provide potential
answers to questions they are not explicitly ―taught‖ the answer to. Similarly, protein language models
are AI algorithms that are trained to recognize relationships between billions of protein sequences from
environments around the world. Through this training, they may be able to infer something about the
essence of viral proteins and their functions.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
help-us-know-what-viruses-are-up-to-in-the-oceans-and-in-our-guts

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) scientific research journal (b) educational policy report
(c) popular literary magazine (d) environmental study summary

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) To argue for the implementation of AI in all areas of scientific research.
(b) To present a new method for annotating viral sequences to the scientific community.
(c) To highlight the problems with current viral annotation techniques.
(d) To discuss the potential applications of AI in various fields.

15. The passage mentions ―extraordinary diversity and ability to rapidly evolve‖ to emphasise _________.
(a) The constant need for new vaccines.
(b) The role of viruses in human disease.
(c) The similarities between viruses and other microorganisms.
(d) The challenges in classifying and studying viruses.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.
(a) ‗Viruses are a mysterious and poorly understood force in microbial ecosystems.‘
(b) ‗Researchers are publishing findings about viruses in microbial ecosystems using unacceptably small
fractions of available data.‘
(c) ‗Communities of microbes are difficult to study in a laboratory setting.‘
(d) ‗Researchers annotate viruses by matching viral sequences in a sample to previously annotated
sequences available in public databases.‘
17. According to the passage, why is the process of annotating viral sequences challenging?
(a) The rapid evolution and diversity of viruses.
(b) The lack of interest in viral research.
(c) The high cost of sequencing technologies.
(d) The unreliability of public databases.

18. What does the passage suggest about the potential of AI in viral research?
(a) AI will replace traditional methods completely.
(b) AI is ineffective in annotating viral sequences.
(c) AI offers new opportunities but needs more development.
(d) AI is too complex to be useful in practical applications.

19. The author‘s discussion of the challenges of annotating viral sequences is primarily intended to ______.
(a) Highlight the need for more funding in virology.
(b) Demonstrate the complexity of viral ecosystems.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Introduce the benefits of a new AI method.

(d) Argue against the use of current annotation techniques.

20. Which word from paragraphs 4-5, in the passage could be substituted with ‗financially burden‘, without
changing the meaning?
(a) annotate (b) outpaces
(c) fraction (d) reusable

21. In the passage, the phrase ‗infer something about the essence of viral proteins and their functions‘, is
best defined as –
(a) Deduce fundamental insights into viral proteins.
(b) Identify minor details about viral proteins.
(c) Simplify the complexities of viral proteins.
(d) Eliminate uncertainties about viral proteins.

22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that AI can significantly improve the
annotation of viral sequences?
(a) Traditional annotation methods are becoming more efficient.
(b) AI technology is too expensive to implement widely.
(c) Viral sequences are rarely collected from the environment.
(d) AI models are often inaccurate in predicting protein functions.

IV. As northern India reels under a brutal heat wave, it is workers who are facing the brunt of it. Delhi has
reportedly breached the 50-degree Celsius mark, halfway to the boiling point of water. Following the
death of a 40-year-old labourer due to extreme heat, the office of the Lieutenant Governor has
intervened by issuing instructions for water provision, sprinkling water on roads and change in timings for
construction workers considering the ―unprecedented heat wave‖. For many who do hard physical labour
in this heat, this is an emergency, not only on the immediate health front but also for their work and
incomes. Our cities exacerbate the situation, due to high density and built environment, resulting in the
―heat island effect‖. In India, four out of five urban workers are informal, with minimal job security,
irregular incomes, no social protection, unsafe worksites and vulnerability to economic fluctuations. This
precarity, along with pre-existing socio-economic vulnerabilities, makes the majority of workers more
susceptible to heat waves.
Heat Action Plans (HAPs) list preparatory, adaptive, and responsive measures for government
departments to tackle the heat and its impacts. They are mandated to be drafted — not in an ad hoc
manner — at the city, district, and state levels for effective implementation and as per the guidelines of
the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
It is undeniable that HAPs have aided in reducing the casualties due to heatwaves, and this relatively
new policy instrument has been increasingly recognised for its importance, but it misses the varied
nature of impacts on different vulnerable groups, like workers in the informal economy in cities. As of
now, a vast majority of the cities in India do not have HAPs. Most of the existing HAPs barely mention
the workers. If they do, they refer only to ―outdoor workers‖, with no mention of related interventions
specific to their nature of work. With their ―disaster-emergency‖ perspective, the HAPs leave little room
for medium to long-term actions. They are usually biased towards rural realities, without any links to
urban planning and design of cities.
There must be policy measures to mitigate the impact of heat waves on workers. First, it is essential to
reimagine heat waves as not conventional disaster events, but as prolonged disasters, thereby moving
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

from ad hoc, instruction-based response to linking HAPs with other long-term measures of urban
planning and climate action plans (CAPs).
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]
plan-must-focus-on-9362596/

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Sympathetic (b) Analytical
(c) Indifferent (d) Optimistic
24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?
(a) Cause: Dense urban environments; Effect: Increased vulnerability to heat
(b) Cause: Lack of government intervention; Effect: Rising temperatures
(c) Cause: Economic instability; Effect: Increased informal work
(d) Cause: Construction work schedules; Effect: Reduced heat-related illness

25. What is the purpose of the word "unprecedented" in the passage?

(a) To highlight the unexpected nature of the heat wave
(b) To suggest that similar events have happened before
(c) To downplay the severity of the situation
(d) To imply that such conditions are normal

26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that current HAPs are insufficient for
urban workers?
(a) Urban workers receive comprehensive health benefits from employers.
(b) Majority of urban workers prefer informal jobs despite heat risks.
(c) HAPs include detailed measures specifically for urban workers in revised versions.
(d) Studies show no increase in heat-related illnesses among urban workers.

27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
(a) "Heat waves should be treated as short-term events."
(b) "Long-term planning is crucial to mitigate heat waves."
(c) "Current policies adequately protect all vulnerable groups."
(d) "Heat waves are primarily a rural issue."

28. The author implies that addressing heat waves would be _____ to improve urban living conditions.
(a) detrimental (b) marginal
(c) irrelevant (d) essential

29. Given the author‘s position on Heat Action Plans, what stand would the author probably take on
integrating climate action plans (CAPs) with HAPs?
(a) The author would argue against integrating CAPs with HAPs.
(b) The author would insist on focusing only on immediate heat wave responses.
(c) The author would advocate for the integration of CAPs with HAPs.
(d) The author would emphasize the irrelevance of CAPs to HAPs.

30. Which of the following substitutions for ‗precarity‘ in the given sentence would NOT change the meaning
of the quoted sentence?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

"Precarity, along with pre-existing socio-economic vulnerabilities, makes the majority of workers more
susceptible to heat waves."
(a) Stability (b) Insecurity
(c) Certainty (d) Safety

31. In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the past perfect tense?
(a) "Delhi has reportedly breached the 50-degree Celsius mark."
(b) "Heat waves are becoming a severe issue in urban areas."
(c) "Workers face extreme conditions during heat waves."
(d) "The Lieutenant Governor had issued instructions after the death of a labourer."

32. What is the writer‘s aim in referring to informal workers' vulnerability?

(a) To emphasize the need for better job security and social protection.
(b) To suggest that informal work is generally safe.
(c) To argue that only formal workers are affected by heat waves.
(d) To highlight the luxury of formal employment.

V. Happiness, in its purest form, is not a fleeting emotion dependent on external circumstances but an
enduring state of being that stems from inner harmony. True happiness is not found in the fulfilment of
desires but in liberation from them. This doesn't mean one should not have aspirations. Our passions,
goals, aspirations and the fulfilment of those are what make us human. Nevertheless, attaching our
happiness to the fulfilment of our desires is detrimental to our progress and personal transformation. The
'yielding heart' is powerful for attracting grace and joy. By cultivating an open and receptive heart, we
create a fertile ground for happiness to flourish. The happiest individuals are those who can maintain
their happiness under all circumstances. This resilience comes from a deep-rooted understanding that
happiness is not contingent upon external factors but is an intrinsic quality that can be cultivated from
within.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
tree/secret-path-to-serenity/articleshow/[Link]

33. The concept of happiness in the passage is most closely related to

1. material wealth. 2. spiritual growth.
3. social recognition. 4. physical health.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (4) (d) (2) and (4)

34. A significant challenge in achieving true happiness is

(a) the complexity of human desires.
(b) the absence of personal goals.
(c) the prevalence of negative emotions.
(d) the lack of social support.

35. The phrase ―yielding heart‖ in the passage most likely suggests
(a) a heart that is submissive. (b) a heart that is compassionate.
(c) a heart that is adaptable. (d) a heart that is fragile.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

36. Statement 1: True happiness can be found in external circumstances.

Statement 2: True happiness stems from inner harmony.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. ―Inner harmony‖ in the passage refers to

(a) a well-structured routine. (b) a balanced emotional state.
(c) a strong social network. (d) a set of clear aspirations.

38. In which of the following sentences is the word ‗resilience‘ used in the same sense as given in the
passage?
(a) The community showed great resilience in the face of the disaster.
(b) The resilience of the material made it ideal for construction.
(c) Her resilience to criticism was admirable.
(d) The resilience of the economy is expected to improve in the next quarter.

39. The passage suggests that achieving happiness requires

(a) detachment from external validation.
(b) strict adherence to personal routines.
(c) reliance on social connections.
(d) accumulation of wealth and resources.
VI. As we begin this summer‘s court break, the debate about how much time judges actually put in on the
Bench has been rekindled by a casual remark from a member of the Prime Minister‘s Economic Advisory
Council, who said that judges work only for a few hours a day, take long vacations and need to
modernise.
The question of whether judges sit for 200 days or 365 is a red herring. It spins court timings and
vacations to mean ―this is why there are arrears‖. It creates the impression that if judges stayed longer
on their benches, instead of swanning off on holiday, arrears would magically disappear and all would be
well. To respond by saying that judges are overburdened and need to blow off steam in fine holiday
spots while litigants languish plays into a manufactured imagery of lack of accountability or discipline
amongst a pampered privileged elite.
True, a few more weeks of active sittings or even uninterrupted court time is not a bad idea and will go
some way towards placating those chafing under delays. But too many other things that have lain
unattended at the door of both the judiciary and the executive, are more responsible for the problem of
arrears than judges‘ vacations.
For one, there is the vexed question of too few judges. No state has its full complement of judges: Not in
the high courts and not in our many lower courts. High court vacancies average 30 per cent but can
touch nearly 50 per cent. Subordinate court vacancies average 22 per cent. But Bihar and Meghalaya
clock in vacancies above 30 per cent — ongoing for over three years. According to the India Justice
Report, as of June 2020, on average, a case remained pending in the subordinate courts for three years
and in high courts, at 2022 figures, for five years.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
vacation-case-pendency-real-problem-9359577/
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

40. Based on the commentary regarding the judicial system's workload, what could be a potential
consequence if the government fails to address the shortage of judges?
(a) Increased public trust in the judicial system
(b) No change in case resolution times
(c) Prolonged pendency of cases and further backlog
(d) Improved efficiency in judicial processes

41. How might public perception be influenced by the assertion that judges work only a few hours a day and
take long vacations?
(a) Enhanced respect for the judiciary's workload
(b) Indifference towards the judiciary‘s working hours
(c) Perception of the judiciary as a diligent and hardworking body
(d) View of the judiciary as a privileged and unaccountable elite
42. What broader implications can be drawn from the statistics regarding judicial vacancies for the overall
efficiency of the legal system?
(a) An indication of the need for fewer judges to streamline processes
(b) A potential improvement in judicial efficiency with more vacancies
(c) A likely decline in the ability to handle increasing caseloads efficiently
(d) A call for reducing the number of courts to match the number of judges

43. According to the passage, what might be the relationship between increasing the number of judges and
reducing case backlog?
(a) No significant correlation between these two factors
(b) Increasing judges will exacerbate the existing backlog
(c) Increasing judges will have no impact on the backlog
(d) Increasing judges could potentially reduce the backlog

44. What is the significance of filling judicial vacancies promptly for the public perception of the judiciary?
(a) It would increase the perceived inefficiency of the judiciary
(b) It would have no impact on public perception at all
(c) It would enhance the credibility and accountability of the judiciary
(d) It would lead to a belief that the judiciary is overstaffed

VII. A common lament among those opposed to immigration is that ―in many parts of England, you don‘t hear
English spoken any more‖. But it has never been the case that English was the only language spoken on
this island.
Old English, the earliest ancestor of the modern English language, was a relative newcomer to Britain.
Its speakers, the Anglo-Saxons, came from different regions across what is now northern Germany to an
island where many Celtic languages were spoken alongside Latin – a legacy of southern Britain‘s time
as a Roman colony. The Old English language was initially joined by other Germanic languages
including Old Norse and Frisian. The Norman Conquest brought speakers of the Romance language
Norman French to Britain. They had such an impact on the English language that it shifted to a new
stage of development known as Middle English.
No written texts in Britain survive from before the arrival of the Romans. But we know from other
historical and archaeological sources that the island was inhabited since the Palaeolithic period, and that
people had settled here permanently since the end of the last Ice Age, around 9,000 years ago.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

By the Iron Age (circa BCE 800), Britain‘s inhabitants were speaking a language known as Proto-Celtic
or Common Celtic. By 43AD, when southern Britain became a Roman colony under emperor Claudius,
the island was populated by speakers of several Celtic languages. These fell into two sub-groups: the
Brythonic languages British (ancestor of modern Welsh and Cornish) and the now-extinct Pictish, and
the Goidelic Gaelic (ancestor of modern Irish Gaelic and Scottish Gaelic).
The Romans brought the Latin language and alphabet with them, as well as (eventually) Christianity. All
of these had a significant influence on Britain‘s history. With the Latin alphabet came written literary
culture, which persisted alongside the spoken Latin language after Britain ceased to be a Roman colony.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
disappearing-in-england-are-misplaced-history-shows-the-island-has-always-been-multilingual-230474

45. What does the term ‗protohistoric‘ imply in the second paragraph?
(a) The period before the historical records began.
(b) The phase of history documented extensively by records.
(c) The stage in history characterized by advanced writing systems.
(d) The era marked by the decline of ancient civilizations.

46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following sentence from the second
paragraph?
―The island was inhabited since the Palaeolithic period, and people had settled here permanently since
the end of the last Ice Age.‖
(a) The island's initial inhabitants arrived during the Palaeolithic era.
(b) Permanent settlements on the island started after the last Ice Age.
(c) The island has had continuous habitation since the Palaeolithic period.
(d) The Palaeolithic era marked the start of advanced civilizations here.

47. Why has the writer used the word ―legacy‖ in the phrase ―a legacy of southern Britain‘s time as a Roman
colony‖?
(a) To emphasize the inheritance of Roman culture in Britain.
(b) To highlight the Roman Empire's control over Britain.
(c) To suggest that the Roman influence was insignificant.
(d) To imply that Britain has forgotten its Roman history.

48. Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the writer‘s use of words like ―significant influence‖
and ―persisted alongside.‖
(a) To emphasize the decline of Celtic languages after the Roman invasion.
(b) To illustrate the coexistence and impact of Latin alongside Celtic languages.
(c) To suggest the Roman culture completely eradicated Celtic traditions.
(d) To depict the isolation of Roman culture from the native Celtic languages.
49. How can the relationship between the Celtic and Latin languages be described as ‗integrative‘?
(a) Because Celtic languages fully replaced Latin over time.
(b) Because Latin completely dominated and eradicated Celtic languages.
(c) As Celtic languages remained completely isolated from Latin influence.
(d) As both languages influenced each other and coexisted.

50. What is an example of a historical period mentioned in the passage?

(a) Interaction between the Proto-Celtic and Latin cultures.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The Roman period marked by Christianity and written culture.

(c) The prehistoric era known for advanced technological achievements.
(d) The Industrial Revolution's effect on linguistic development.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 26
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Aslight shift in Cleopatra‘s beauty, and the Roman Empire unravels. You miss your train, and an
unexpected encounter changes the course of your life. A butterfly alights from a tree in Michoacán,
triggering a hurricane halfway across the globe. These scenarios exemplify the essence of ‗chaos‘, a
term scientists coined during the middle of the 20th century, to describe how small events in complex
systems can have vast, unpredictable consequences.
Beyond these anecdotes, I want to tell you the story of chaos and answer the question: ‗Can the simple
flutter of a butterfly‘s wings truly trigger a distant hurricane?‘ To uncover the layers of this question, we
must first journey into the classical world of Newtonian physics. What we uncover is fascinating – the
Universe, from the grand scale of empires to the intimate moments of daily life, operates within a
framework where chaos and order are not opposites but intricately connected forces.
In his bestselling book Chaos: Making a New Science (1987), James Gleick observes that 20th-century
science will be remembered for three things: relativity, quantum mechanics (QM), and chaos. These
theories are distinctive because they shift our understanding of classical physics toward a more complex,
mysterious and unpredictable world.
Classical physics, which reached its pinnacle in the work of Isaac Newton, painted a universe ruled by
determinism and order. It was a world akin to a perfectly designed machine, where each action, like the
fall of a domino, inevitably triggered a predictable effect. This absolute predictability – a world where
understanding the present means knowing the future – became the essence of Newtonian mechanics.
Classical physics not only presented an orderly universe among Newton‘s followers, but it also instilled a
profound sense of mastery over the natural world. Newton‘s discoveries fostered the belief that the
Universe, previously shrouded in mystery, was now laid bare, sparking an unprecedented optimism in
the power of science. Armed with Newton‘s laws and revolutionary mathematics, leading thinkers felt
they had finally unlocked the secrets of reality.
And yet, the 20th century witnessed a dramatic shift with the emergence of relativity, which redefines our
understanding of space and time; QM, which revolutionised our understanding of the subatomic world;
and chaos theory. The orderly and predictable world of Newtonian physics, the dream of a mechanical
universe ready to unveil her innermost workings, was, happily or not, something of an illusion. In
the 20th century, science revealed a far more intricate, less predictable and, indeed, chaotic universe.
Source: [Link]
1. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
(a) 20th-century science will be remembered solely for the theory of relativity.
(b) Quantum mechanics simplifies our understanding of classical physics.
(c) Chaos theory, along with relativity and quantum mechanics, has contributed to a shift in
understanding from classical physics to a more complex view.
(d) Newtonian mechanics suggests that understanding the future is impossible by knowing the present.

2. Which of the following would be the closest title to the above passage?
(a) The Unpredictable Beauty of Chaos (b) Newtonian Physics: The Ultimate Mastery
(c) The Butterfly Effect: Myth or Reality? (d) The Evolution of Scientific Understanding
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the statement: ―Newton‘s discoveries fostered the belief that
the Universe, previously shrouded in mystery, was now laid bare, sparking an unprecedented optimism
in the power of science‖?
(a) Newton‘s laws were immediately accepted and celebrated by all.
(b) The mysteries of the Universe have been completely solved by Newtonian physics.
(c) Newtonian physics led to a newfound confidence in scientific understanding.
(d) The optimism in science was short-lived and quickly replaced by chaos theory.

4. In the sentence ―In the 20th century, science revealed a far more (______), less predictable and, indeed,
chaotic universe,‖ which of the following words could best replace the underlined blank while maintaining
the meaning of the sentence?
(a) Simplistic (b) Complex
(c) Superficial (d) Elementary

5. What is the overall tone of the passage provided?

(a) Sceptical and Dismissive (b) Admiring and Nostalgic
(c) Critical and Derogatory (d) Reflective and Revelatory

6. Which of the following arguments is NOT discussed by the author in the passage provided?
(a) Newtonian physics provided a deterministic view of the universe.
(b) 20th-century science maintained the predictability of Newtonian physics.
(c) Relativity and quantum mechanics introduced new concepts that challenged classical physics.
(d) Chaos theory suggests that small changes can have large, unpredictable effects.

7. What concept does the passage attribute to the essence of ‗chaos‘?

(a) The deterministic nature of historical events
(b) The interconnectedness of order and chaos
(c) The predictability of complex systems
(d) The insignificance of minor occurrences

II. The controversy over this year‘s qualifying examination to medical colleges, the National Eligibility-Cum-
Entrance Test (NEET), draws attention to longstanding systemic deficits. The National Testing Agency
(NTA) has reversed the grace marks of more than 1,500 candidates and given them the option of a re-
test. These students were initially given the wrong question paper. They were then given compensatory
marks to make up for the time lost in switching over to the correct paper. It required the Supreme Court‘s
nudge, in response to a slew of petitions, for the NTA to admit this ―technical glitch‖. Education Minister
Dharmendra Pradhan has said that the error happened in only six of the more than 4,500 examination
centres. Even then, such a mess is consequential, especially in a high-stakes examination in which
every mark is seen as decisive. The NTA was created in 2017 to conduct national-level examinations to
higher institutions of learning. It does a fairly creditable job of holding the joint entrance examination of
the IITs. But this year, the agency‘s conduct of the NEET has left much to be desired. As the Supreme
Court observed on Tuesday, the examination‘s ―sanctity has been compromised‖.
The petitions to the Supreme Court have drawn attention to the extraordinarily high number of students
who secured perfect marks. Sixty-seven students maxed this year‘s exam, and a number of others have
received a mark or two less — compare this to two toppers last year, one top ranker in 2022 and three
toppers in 2021. The unusual numbers triggered allegations of arbitrary marking. The NTA‘s response
has been unconvincing. The agency first ascribed the maximum scores to ―a comparatively easy paper‖.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

It has since then shifted the needle to grace marks. However, as this newspaper‘s report points out, only
six of the 67 toppers benefited from compensatory marks.
The number of students appearing for the NEET examination has more than doubled in a decade. This
year, more than 24 lakh students competed for less than 1,10,000 seats. The high social value placed on
medical — and engineering — education across India and the mismatch between demand and supply
has fuelled hyper-competition. In such a situation, the NEET has become more of an elimination test
than an examination that tests the aptitude of prospective doctors. The examination is also extremely
brutal — only 0.25 make it to the top colleges. In recent years, the government has initiated
conversations to reform the educational landscape. It should conduct similar exercises to address the
shortfalls in medical education. For starters, it could take a cue from the UGC‘s recent provision that
allows bi-annual admissions in colleges and universities. Holding the NEET examination twice a year
could ease some of the pressure on the medical education system. In the long run, ways must be found
to increase opportunities and make them accessible, thereby making the examination system less
fraught.
Source: [Link]

8. Which of the following statements contains incorrect information about the NEET controversy as
described in the passage?
(a) The NTA reversed grace marks for over 1,500 candidates due to a technical glitch.
(b) The Supreme Court‘s intervention was required for the NTA to acknowledge the error.
(c) All 67 top scorers of this year‘s NEET benefited from compensatory marks.
(d) The NTA was established in 2017 to conduct national-level entrance examinations.

9. Which of the following statements best summarizes the author‘s point of view as expressed in the
passage
(a) The NEET examination is an effective measure of a student‘s aptitude for medical education.
(b) The sanctity of the NEET examination has been preserved despite systemic challenges.
(c) The NTA has consistently performed well in conducting national-level examinations.
(d) Systemic reforms are needed to address the challenges faced by medical education in India.

10. In recent years, the government has initiated conversations to reform the educational landscape. It
should conduct similar exercises to address the shortfalls in medical education. It can be inferred from
the given statement that:
(a) The government has been proactive in addressing the challenges in medical education through
reforms.
(b) Conversations initiated by the government have already solved the shortfalls in medical education.
(c) The government‘s efforts in educational reform have been limited to non-medical fields.
(d) Medical education does not require any reforms as it is already functioning optimally

11. In the sentence ―As the Supreme Court observed on Tuesday, the examination‘s sanctity has been
compromised,‖ which of the following words could best replace the underlined word while maintaining the
meaning of the sentence?
(a) Probity (b) Purity
(c) Integrity (d) Decency

12. Which of the following titles best encapsulates the essence of the passage provided
(a) The Supreme Court‘s Role in Educational Reform
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The NEET Controversy: A Reflection of Systemic Issues in Medical Education

(c) The Increasing Popularity of Medical Careers in India
(d) Bi-Annual Admissions: A Solution to Educational Shortfalls

13. Which of the following best describes the writing style of the above passage?
(a) Expository (b) Narrative
(c) Persuasive (d) Descriptive

III. I have attended a number of funerals recently and it has got me thinking. Imagine after you‘ve died, your
loved ones are sitting around, reminiscing about your life. What might they be saying about you? How
will you be remembered? Did you have a good life? Well, how would they know? And what constitutes a
good life, anyway?
The first thing to consider about what makes a life ‗good‘, is whether the value of a life is determined by
the liver of that life or by others. Suppose that your last thought before you died was that you had had an
excellent life, but when your loved ones sit around and discuss you, they all decide that your life was
awful. Is that possible? Could they be right about your life, and you be wrong? Or what if everyone else
thinks your life was amazing, but you die miserable, feeling that your life was a total waste? Who would
be right? And which of these two options would you prefer, anyway?
Ethics involve asking these deep questions about values. Other ethical questions include: Are you living
the way you think you should? Are you working toward goals you actually care about? How important are
these things to you? Right now, the choices you make about the way you spend your time are shaping
the type of life you‘ll live.
For the ancient Greek father of Western ethics, Socrates, ―the unexamined life is not worth living.‖ For
him, our life‘s work (his idea of a good life) is to question one‘s thinking rationally, and so to ‗know thyself‘
through a relentless spirit of philosophical enquiry and dialogue with others.
Writing in the twentieth century, the French existentialist Albert Camus recounted the ancient Greek myth
of Sisyphus, who was condemned by Zeus to roll a boulder up a mountain everyday forever. Each time
he reached the top, the boulder would roll back down, then Sisyphus would have to start all over again.
This was the entirety of his existence. He couldn‘t do anything else. It was up and down the hill, in a
never-ending cycle. Strangely, Camus wrote, ―We must imagine Sisyphus happy.‖ Why?
As an absurdist, Camus thought that each of us is like Sisyphus, in that nothing that any of us does is
inherently important, because life just doesn‘t have any inherent meaning. We‘re all just rolling boulders
up our particular hills. We can, however, choose to give meaning to what we do. After all, for the
existentialists, we decide what to value, so when we throw ourselves into a task, it becomes filled with
meaning – a meaning we give it.
I find this account of Sisyphus depressing because, on the one hand, it‘s saying that nothing you do
matters, but on the other hand, it‘s saying that anything that you do matters, provided you choose to
imbue it with value: become a doctor and save lives; be a stay-at-home parent and look after children;
create beautiful art works; find a career that gives you the space in your life to pursue a hobby you like;
volunteer your time to promote a cause you care about; or just learn card tricks. In a sense it doesn‘t
matter what you do, what matters is that it‘s meaningful for you. Basically, existentialists tell us that our
lives and our meanings are in our own hands. So, if you‘re unhappy, you should change your life. Do you
agree with them?
Source:[Link]

14. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
(a) The value of one‘s life is determined by personal fulfillment and societal contribution.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Ethical living requires constant self-examination and alignment with personal goals.
(c) Life‘s inherent lack of meaning allows individuals to ascribe their own value to their actions.
(d) Philosophical inquiry is essential for understanding the true nature of happiness and meaning.

15. In the context of the passage, which of the following words could replace the underlined word ―relentless‖
to alter the meaning of the sentence?
(a) Unyielding (b) Intermittent
(c) Steadfast (d) Persistent

16. Which of the following best describes the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) The author finds existentialism uplifting as it empowers individuals to find personal meaning in any
action they choose.
(b) The author disagrees with existentialism, finding it depressing that life‘s meaning is subjective and
not predetermined.
(c) The author is indifferent to existentialist views and questions the importance of finding meaning in
life.
(d) The author believes that existentialism is flawed because it does not provide a clear path to
happiness.

17. Considering the passage provided, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The value of one‘s life can be judged differently by oneself and by others, leading to conflicting
assessments.
(b) The passage suggests that the subjective experience of one‘s life may not align with external
perceptions.
(c) It is implied that there is an objective truth to the value of one‘s life that can be definitively known by
others.
(d) The passage poses a dilemma regarding whose assessment of the value of one‘s life is more
accurate or preferable.
18. What type of piece is the above passage?
(a) An informative article on ancient Greek philosophy.
(b) A reflective essay on the nature of a good life and existentialism.
(c) A scientific report on the psychological aspects of happiness.
(d) A narrative story about personal experiences with funerals.

19. Which of the following best evaluates the effectiveness of the arguments presented regarding the ethical
questions about values?
(a) The arguments are effective as they encourage introspection and align with Socratic and
existentialist philosophies that value self-knowledge and personal meaning.
(b) The arguments are ineffective because they fail to consider empirical evidence from psychological
studies on life satisfaction.
(c) The arguments are only partially effective as they address personal values but overlook societal and
cultural influences on one‘s perception of a good life.
(d) The arguments are ineffective as they rely on rhetorical questions without providing concrete
answers or solutions.

IV. The grant of sanction to prosecute writer-activist Arundhati Roy and academician Sheikh Showkat
Hussain for alleged ―unlawful activity‖ in a case dating back to 2010 is unwarranted. Delhi Lieutenant
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Governor V.K. Saxena, who had accorded sanction in October 2023 to prosecute the Booker Prize-
winning writer and the former Kashmir University professor, respectively, for allegedly divisive speeches
and imputations against national unity, has now given his nod for invoking Section 13 of the Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) for the same set of speeches. The earlier sanction order was in his
capacity as the appropriate authority on behalf of the Delhi government under Section 196 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure. The recent one is, presumably, on behalf of the Central government, the appropriate
authority to sanction prosecution for offences under Chapter III of the UAPA, under which Section 13
falls. The resurrection of this old case is an unfortunate instance of ill-motivated prosecution. The only
possible explanation for the revival of this case, registered on a magistrate court‘s order in 2010, is that
the present regime has found it expedient only now to do so, as part of its continuing crackdown on
dissenters and outspoken critics. The eight-month gap between the two sanction orders is inexplicable,
as the same material would have been placed before the sanctioning authority.
The regime at the Centre then did not deem it appropriate to prosecute the speakers at the conference
held in Delhi in October 2010. Even though the Bharatiya Janata Party, then in the opposition, pressed
for it, the Delhi police did not consider the speeches seditious. Its reluctance was possibly because the
Centre did not want to jeopardise efforts to find a solution to the Kashmir problem through designated
interlocutors. When a complaint was filed before a Magistrate, the court asked for a police report, but the
Delhi police did not think the speeches warranted prosecution for sedition. However, on November 27,
2010, the Metropolitan Magistrate rejected the police stand and directed registration of a First
Information Report. The FIR included Section 13 of UAPA, which seeks to punish ―unlawful activities‖.
Speeches made at the conference may have contained imputations about the status of Kashmir, but it is
doubtful if a mere speech, in the absence of a call to arms or instigation of violence, would amount to
―unlawful activity‖ under UAPA. In any case, much has changed in the ground situation, especially in the
aftermath of the abrogation of Jammu and Kashmir‘s special status in 2019 and its division into two
Union Territories. The new coalition regime should move away from the earlier era‘s obsession with
stamping out dissenting views and put an end to its propensity to criminalise speeches.
Source:
[Link]
speeches/[Link]

20. Which of the following can be the closest title to the above passage?
(a) The Unjust Prosecution of Dissent: A Case Study
(b) The Political Dynamics of Free Speech in India
(c) The Misuse of UAPA in Suppressing Free Expression
(d) The Evolution of Sedition Laws in Contemporary India

21. From the options given below, choose the one which gives incorrect information based on the passage:
(a) The FIR under Section 13 of UAPA was filed due to speeches that may have contained imputations
about the status of Kashmir.
(b) The abrogation of Jammu and Kashmir‘s special status in 2019 has not changed the legal
perspective on what constitutes ―unlawful activity‖ under UAPA.
(c) The new coalition regime is encouraged to continue the previous regime‘s approach to criminalise
speeches that dissent from its views.
(d) The passage suggests that mere speeches should not be criminalised under UAPA in the absence of
a call to arms or instigation of violence.

22. In the context of the passage, which synonym could replace the underlined word ―inexplicable‖?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Unfathomable (b) Justifiable

(c) Transparent (d) Conspicuous

23. Which of the following, if true, could logically be added as the next paragraph to the passage?
(a) Despite the legal proceedings, public opinion has largely been in favour of the speeches made by
Arundhati Roy and Sheikh Showkat Hussain, viewing them as exercises in academic freedom and
free speech.
(b) Subsequent to the sanctions, there has been an increase in public gatherings and speeches
advocating for national unity and condemning any divisive rhetoric.
(c) The Central government has announced a new policy aimed at fostering dialogue and understanding
among various political factions within Jammu and Kashmir.
(d) Arundhati Roy and Sheikh Showkat Hussain have decided to challenge the sanctions in the
Supreme Court, citing a violation of their constitutional rights to free speech.

24. What is the overall tone of the passage?

(a) Approving (b) Indifferent
(c) Critical (d) Enthusiastic
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 27
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. The Patna High Court judgment striking down enhanced reservation for various communities in
employment and education marks yet another instance of the strict application of the 50% ceiling on total
reservations by the judiciary. The verdict has invalidated the Nitish Kumar regime‘s decision of last
year to amend its quota law to raise Backward Classes (BC) reservation from 12% to 18%, that of
Extremely Backward Communities (EBC) from 18% to 25%, and those of Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes from 16% to 20% and 1% to 2%, respectively. This took the total reservation level to
65%. Applying judicial precedents that have now crystallised into a legal bar on reservations exceeding
50%, the court has inflicted a huge blow to the Bihar government‘s plan to utilise its Caste Survey
findings to expand its affirmative action programme. The government may have erred in its policy
approach — armed with caste-wise population numbers — when its preamble to the amending law said
it aimed to achieve ―proportionate equality‖.
The court agreed with the petitioners challenging the increased quotas on a key point: that adequate
representation does not mean ‗proportionate representation‘, as clarified in the famous nine-judge verdict
in Indra Sawhney (1992). If any attempt to raise the quota level earmarked for any section to be in
proportion to the State‘s population results in the total reservation percentage exceeding the permissible
limit, it is liable to be unconstitutional.
However, it is unfortunate that the court was so zealous about the reservation ceiling, that it rejected the
State‘s argument on the existence of special circumstances. Indra Sawhney did allow the quota ceiling to
be exceeded in ―extraordinary situations‖. It suggested that the population living in remote or far-flung
areas may require to be treated in a different way. The court seems to have taken that geographical
remoteness is the only special situation to justify an enhanced quota and denied the benefit to Bihar. It is
difficult to believe that a State which is backward in most parameters of human and social development
should be denied the use of its executive and legislative power to expand its social justice programme.
The court surely saw merit in the argument that there was no in-depth study before enhanced
reservation was implemented. This raises the question whether the survey was indeed quite exhaustive
when it gave a caste-wise break-up of the population and their economic conditions. While there may be
a case for pruning the BC or EBC list based on the progress made over the last few decades, it might not
be just to stymie every attempt to enhance the numerical representation of historically deprived sections
on the ground that it exceeds the quota ceiling.
Source: [Link]
and-enhanced-reservation/[Link]

1. Which of the following is central idea of the passage?

(a) The Patna High Court‘s strict application of the 50% reservation ceiling has invalidated enhanced
quotas in Bihar, impacting the state‘s affirmative action program.
(b) The court‘s rejection of Bihar‘s argument on special circumstances highlights the need for a balanced
approach to reservation policies.
(c) The court‘s insistence on geographical remoteness as the sole special situation for enhanced quotas
may hinder social justice efforts in Bihar.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The court‘s decision raises questions about the exhaustive nature of the caste-wise population
survey and its impact on reservation policies.

2. Which of the following statements is true based on the passage above?

(a) The Patna High Court upheld the Nitish Kumar regime's decision to amend its quota law to raise
reservation levels.
(b) The Nitish Kumar regime‘s decision aimed to achieve ―proportionate equality‖ according to the
preamble of the amending law.
(c) The Patna High Court judgment allowed the Bihar government to utilize its Caste Survey findings to
expand its affirmative action programme.
(d) The court ruled that reservations can exceed 50% if justified by Caste Survey findings.

3. What is the overall tone of the passage above?

(a) Approving and supportive (b) Critical and concerned
(c) Neutral and informative (d) Optimistic and hopeful

4. Replace the underlined word in the following sentence with the most appropriate synonym:
"While there may be a case for pruning the BC or EBC list based on the progress made over the last few
decades, it might not be just to stymie every attempt to enhance the numerical representation of
historically deprived sections on the ground that it exceeds the quota ceiling."
(a) Facilitate (b) Hinder
(c) Promote (d) Expedite

5. Which of the following can be inferred from the information given in the passage, particularly from the
statement "However, it is unfortunate that the court was so zealous about the reservation ceiling, that it
rejected the State‘s argument on the existence of special circumstances"?
(a) The court failed to consider any circumstances beyond geographical remoteness as special for
justifying enhanced quotas.
(b) The court accepted the State‘s argument regarding special circumstances but still struck down the
enhanced reservations.
(c) The court's decision was based on an exhaustive study of the state's social and economic
conditions.
(d) The court viewed the enhanced reservations as a necessary measure for achieving social justice.

6. Which of the following can be considered as the next paragraph to complete the passage?
(a) Nonetheless, the Patna High Court's decision underscores the importance of maintaining a balance
between constitutional mandates and the necessity for social justice, suggesting that the government
should explore other legal avenues to address the socio-economic disparities without breaching the
established quota limits.
(b) Therefore, it is crucial for the State to engage in a comprehensive re-evaluation of its reservation
policy, ensuring that any amendments are backed by meticulous research and data, thus aligning
with both judicial precedents and the overarching goal of equitable representation.
(c) Given the court's emphasis on adhering to the reservation ceiling, it becomes imperative for the
State to prioritize economic development and education initiatives that transcend caste-based
quotas, thereby fostering an inclusive society through means other than affirmative action.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) However, this ruling should prompt a national debate on the viability of the 50% ceiling in today's
context, considering the evolving demographics and socio-economic challenges that necessitate a
more flexible approach to reservations, reflective of contemporary needs and realities.

7. The author discusses all of the following arguments EXCEPT:

(a) The importance of conducting an in-depth study before implementing enhanced reservations.
(b) The potential need to revise the BC and EBC lists based on recent progress.
(c) The court's narrow interpretation of "extraordinary situations" justifying enhanced quotas.
(d) The necessity of exceeding the 50% reservation ceiling to achieve proportionate equality.

II. I have attended a number of funerals recently and it has got me thinking. Imagine after you‘ve died, your
loved ones are sitting around, reminiscing about your life. What might they be saying about you? How
will you be remembered? Did you have a good life? Well, how would they know? And what constitutes a
good life, anyway?
The first thing to consider about what makes a life ‗good‘, is whether the value of a life is determined by
the liver of that life or by others. Suppose that your last thought before you died was that you had had an
excellent life, but when your loved ones sit around and discuss you, they all decide that your life was
awful. Is that possible? Could they be right about your life, and you be wrong? Or what if everyone else
thinks your life was amazing, but you die miserable, feeling that your life was a total waste? Who would
be right? And which of these two options would you prefer, anyway?
Ethics involve asking these deep questions about values. Other ethical questions include: Are you living
the way you think you should? Are you working toward goals you actually care about? How important are
these things to you? Right now, the choices you make about the way you spend your time are shaping
the type of life you‘ll live.
For the ancient Greek father of Western ethics, Socrates, ―the unexamined life is not worth living.‖ For
him, our life‘s work (his idea of a good life) is to question one‘s thinking rationally, and so to ‗know thyself‘
through a relentless spirit of philosophical enquiry and dialogue with others.
Writing in the twentieth century, the French existentialist Albert Camus recounted the ancient Greek myth
of Sisyphus, who was condemned by Zeus to roll a boulder up a mountain everyday forever. Each time
he reached the top, the boulder would roll back down, then Sisyphus would have to start all over again.
This was the entirety of his existence. He couldn‘t do anything else. It was up and down the hill, in a
never-ending cycle. Strangely, Camus wrote, ―We must imagine Sisyphus happy.‖ Why?
As an absurdist, Camus thought that each of us is like Sisyphus, in that nothing that any of us does is
inherently important, because life just doesn‘t have any inherent meaning. We‘re all just rolling boulders
up our particular hills. We can, however, choose to give meaning to what we do. After all, for the
existentialists, we decide what to value, so when we throw ourselves into a task, it becomes filled with
meaning – a meaning we give it.
Source:
[Link]

8. Which statement best represents the primary argument made by the author in the passage?
(a) The value of a life is inherently subjective and determined by the individual who lives it.
(b) Ethical living requires constant self-examination and alignment with one's personal values and goals.
(c) Life's inherent lack of meaning can be countered by individuals assigning their own meanings to their
actions.
(d) The perception of a good life is dependent on both personal satisfaction and the judgments of others.
9. Based on the passage, which of the following professions is the author likely to be from?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Psychologist (b) Philosopher

(c) Sociologist (d) Anthropologist

10. Ethics involve asking these deep questions about values. Other ethical questions include: Are you living
the way you think you should? Are you working toward goals you actually care about? How important are
these things to you? How would you describe the author's tone throughout the given statement?
(a) Reflective and introspective (b) Analytical and sceptical
(c) Optimistic and motivational (d) Detached and indifferent

11. Which of the following can be conclusively implied from the statement about Albert Camus and the myth
of Sisyphus?
(a) Camus believed that life's inherent lack of meaning is an obstacle to happiness.
(b) Sisyphus's eternal struggle is a metaphor for the human condition according to Camus.
(c) The myth of Sisyphus represents the futility of human efforts in a deterministic universe.
(d) Camus's existentialism denies the possibility of finding happiness in repetitive tasks.

12. Which of the following best describes the term "absurdist"?

(a) A belief in the inherent meaninglessness of life, but the possibility of creating personal meaning.
(b) A philosophical perspective that emphasizes the importance of logical reasoning and empirical
evidence.
(c) The view that life has a predetermined purpose, and individuals must discover and fulfill this purpose.
(d) A philosophical approach that asserts the existence of inherent meaning in life, independent of
individual interpretation.

13. What roles or connection does the last paragraph play in the above passage?
(a) It provides a historical context for the concept of an examined life.
(b) It introduces the concept of absurdism and its relation to individual meaning-making.
(c) It contrasts the views of Socrates and Camus on the nature of a good life.
(d) It illustrates the idea of finding happiness in the face of life's inherent meaninglessness.

14. The author discusses all of the given arguments EXCEPT:

(a) The importance of questioning one's thinking and knowing oneself, as advocated by Socrates.
(b) The role of rational inquiry and dialogue in understanding one's life, as per Socrates' philosophy.
(c) The concept of finding happiness and meaning in a seemingly meaningless existence, as proposed
by Albert Camus.
(d) The significance of ethical questions in shaping one's life and values.

III. The chilling honour killings of two women in Haryana recently were yet another grim reminder of how this
pernicious practice continues to go unchecked in a society driven by caste hierarchy. In Sirsa, Saravjeet
Kaur‘s family initially tried to bluff that she had died of a heart attack. Later, her father and brother
confessed to the police that they had strangled her over a relationship they disapproved of. In Kaithal,
another woman, Komal Rani, was murdered by her 17-year-old brother as the family was opposed to her
inter-caste marriage. It is a paradox that Haryana, a State renowned for its women sportspersons,
particularly wrestlers, continues to be the hub for honour killings and faces ignominy over gender
injustice and inequality. Ironically, it was in this State that Prime Minister Narendra Modi had launched
the ‗Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao‘ programme in January 2015. This initiative was primarily aimed at
improving the child-sex ratio and spurring women‘s empowerment. A deeply entrenched patriarchal
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

mindset is adversely impacting the lives of Haryana‘s girls, especially in rural areas. Ultimately, all
honour killings enforce a hierarchy of status and are often used to signal caste supremacy to other
communities. Despite the continued prevalence of honour killings in many parts of the country, there is
no national legislation that specifically addresses the matter. In 2012, the Law Commission of India had
recommended a Bill for tackling the issue of honour killings but the matter was never taken up.
In the absence of a specific national law, the crimes related to honour now fall under the general penal
provisions outlined in the IPC. Such a patchwork application of laws fails to address the primary,
underlying motive for these killings — honour. Specific legislation addressing honour killings would tackle
several issues that existing criminal laws cannot, including providing protection to a couple who wishes
to marry outside their religion, caste or community. It is a matter of national shame that such a barbaric
practice is still prevalent. There is no honour in honour killing. It is brutality in the guise of caste identity.
No institution, family or individual has any right to interfere in a marriage between two consenting adults.
The freedom to choose one‘s partner is integral to the individual autonomy guaranteed under the
Constitution. Unfortunately, in India, the crimes committed in the name of defending the honour of a
caste or family have their roots in the abominable caste system. A culture that nurtures deeply
entrenched social prejudices, feudal structures and patriarchal attitudes is responsible for extreme
manifestations such as honour killings. Haryana‘s ‗khap panchayats‘ impose a regressive social order
and often go scot-free because of the political patronage they enjoy. When Haryana‘s girls have been
winning laurels for the country in the international arena, the State cannot afford to let itself be
dishonoured by people with a regressive attitude.
Source: [Link]

15. Which of the following would the author most likely agree with?
(a) Honor killings are an unavoidable aspect of Indian culture.
(b) Specific legislation against honor killings is necessary.
(c) Patriarchal values are beneficial for social stability.
(d) Political patronage of khap panchayats should continue.

16. Which of the following statements is true based on the passage?

(a) The Indian Penal Code (IPC) has specific provisions addressing honor killings.
(b) Honor killings are rare occurrences in Haryana.
(c) Political patronage helps khap panchayats maintain their regressive social order.
(d) Honor killings are primarily motivated by economic factors.

17. Which of the following statements supports the argument that a deeply entrenched patriarchal mindset is
adversely impacting the lives of Haryana‘s girls, especially in rural areas, and that honor killings enforce
a hierarchy of status and are often used to signal caste supremacy to other communities?
(a) Honor killings in Haryana are a rare occurrence and do not significantly impact the local
communities.
(b) The practice of honor killings in Haryana is supported by the belief in preserving caste purity and
social status.
(c) Education and sports initiatives in Haryana have completely eradicated patriarchal attitudes and
honor killings.
(d) Honor killings in Haryana are primarily motivated by economic disputes between families.

18. Which of the following can be an appropriate ending note for the above passage?
(a) The government must invest more in sports to uplift the morale of women in Haryana.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Strengthening law enforcement and introducing specific legislation is crucial to eradicate honor
killings.
(c) Encouraging inter-caste marriages can solve the problem of honor killings.
(d) Improving educational facilities for women in rural areas will reduce the incidence of honor killings.

19. How would you describe the author's tone throughout the passage?
(a) Ironic disapproval (b) Optimistic encouragement
(c) Objective analysis (d) Sympathetic narration

20. Which of the given writing styles is the above passage coherent with?
(a) Critical exposition (b) Neutral narration
(c) Humorous commentary (d) Descriptive storytelling

IV. The quandary in which the Nitish Kumar government finds itself after the Bihar High Court struck down
the decision to raise the reservation cap from 50% to 65% is not easily resolved. Unless the entire
political class reaches a consensus on this sensitive issue which of late has acquired a further stridency
it may not be possible to insulate the higher courts from an avoidable controversy. Despite the Bihar
Government asserting that the increase in government jobs and educational institutions was effected
after the State-wide caste survey the high court voided the increase due to the old apex court-prescribed
50% ceiling on such reservations. The argument that the increase in reservations was called for given
that the Bihar caste survey revealed that the OBCs, SCs, STs and EBC (Extremely Backward Castes)
together numbered 85% of the state‘s population. The court faulted the government for relying on the
number of these caste groups in the population rather than on their number in government services and
educational institutions. Following the High Court decision the Opposition leader in Bihar Tejeshswi
Yadav has blamed the Nitish government for not representing the government‘ s case well. Nitish Kumar
was one of the first leaders to demand a caste survey at the national level, and had dutifully followed up
on the state survey to expand the reservation percentage well above the 50% ceiling, The onus is now
on him to take corrective steps to ensure that the increase is validated by the apex court. In an earlier
case, the Supreme Court had pointedly maintained that the 50% ceiling applied only to reservations for
the SCs, STs and OBCs whereas the reservations for the economically weaker sections were outside
the ambit of the 50-percent ceiling. How the expanded Bihar reservations will pass muster under the
above-mentioned SC ruling remains to be seen. One way out for the Bihar government could be to
include the law increasing reservations in the Ninth Schedule. Since only Parliament can put laws in the
Ninth Schedule, the JD (U)-BJP Bihar Government may not find it difficult to persuade the Centre to do
so. But this will open a Pandora‘s box, inviting other state governments to follow suit. To avoid the
potentially chaotic situation it will be immensely helpful if the political parties reached a consensus on
tackling the issue of expanding the reservation pie. Were the central government to appeal against the
old 50-percent ceiling, armed with an all-party consensus for increasing it reasonably higher in the light
of a caste survey, the apex court might consider revision in the light of fresh developments. After all, not
only Nitish Kumar but even the Congress party had most stridently demanded a nation-wide caste
survey.
Source:
[Link]

21. Which of the hypothetical situations best describes the term "Pandora's Box"?
(a) Opening up a new avenue for economic growth.
(b) Unleashing a series of unforeseen and uncontrollable problems or consequences.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Discovering a solution to a long-standing political deadlock.

(d) Initiating a process of gradual and controlled change.

22. In the following passage, which word could be used as a synonym for "quandary"?
"The quandary in which the Nitish Kumar government finds itself after the Bihar High Court struck down
the decision to raise the reservation cap from 50% to 65% is not easily resolved."
(a) Predicament (b) Dilemma
(c) Conundrum (d) Vicissitude

23. Which of the following best represents the main idea of the passage?
(a) The Bihar government's decision to increase the reservation cap has led to a complex legal and
political situation that requires careful handling and consensus-building.
(b) The Bihar High Court's decision to strike down the increase in reservation cap has created a
challenging situation for the Nitish Kumar government, necessitating a reevaluation of its approach.
(c) The issue of reservation in Bihar has become contentious, with the state government facing criticism
for its handling of the matter and the need for broader consensus among political parties.
(d) The reservation policy in Bihar is at a crossroads, with the government's efforts to increase
reservations facing legal and political hurdles that require a comprehensive and inclusive approach.

24. Which of the following word best describes the above passage?
(a) Quandary (b) Stridency
(c) Insulate (d) Critical
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 28
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Workplace
Having meaningful connections in the workplace is essential for personal and organisational success.
Most of us form these bonds naturally, as we spend a significant amount of our lifetimes at work.
After leaving college, many people in their 20s move to new cities for career opportunities, where they
face the task of creating a brand new social circle from scratch. The workplace becomes an ideal place
for people to connect.
Activities like grabbing drinks after work, playing team sports or just sharing meals serve as opportunities
to form connections with co-workers. These interactions not only help combat feelings of isolation, but
also add a sense of camaraderie and support to the daily work routine.
However, as individuals reach milestones like getting married or starting a family, their priorities in life
naturally shift. The fun after work hangouts and casual meetups start taking a backseat to family
commitments and home responsibilities.
Consequently, you might find that keeping up with work friendships becomes more challenging over
time. Balancing professional growth and one‘s personal life often leads to a decrease in the frequency
and depth of these relationships while still preserving any already-established connections. There is a
difference between typical co-worker relationships and true friendships. Generally speaking, people we
work with are not necessarily friends. In our personal lives, it often takes years of building trust to bring
someone into our circle of friends.
Yet many of us do develop friendships with colleagues we have worked alongside — often for years. For
instance, I‘ve made friends at work whom I respect and trust immensely — one of my best friends is
someone I met on the job. Our friendship continued to thrive long after I left that workplace. That said, do
I share my deepest, darkest secrets with work friends? Nope. So then, is a work friend worth it? In short,
yes — even relationships with weaker ties can be beneficial. But it depends on the depth and nature of
the relationship.
Friendships can result in substantial benefits. When employees are happy, engaged and productive, and
the organisation is meeting their individual needs, they are more likely to meet their full potential.
Connection and community are essential to the workplace. They help us create a sense of belonging,
strengthen our psychological contracts with our employers and help drive us to be motivated and
efficient. Strong relationships can facilitate communication and advice-sharing among co-workers.
However, it‘s important to note workplace friendships can have a downside. Friendships at work can be
problematic due to rumours of relationships, nepotism and favouritism, to name a few. The concept of
―work‖ and ―play‖ can often conflict when career goals intersect or worse when there is a conflict. That
said, many of these issues can be mitigated with clear boundaries and communication.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
staying-professional-9361492/

1. Based on the passage, which idiom best represents the transition of priorities from workplace friendships
to family responsibilities as one ages, especially considering the line "However, as individuals reach
milestones like getting married or starting a family, their priorities in life naturally shift"?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Keeping your nose to the grindstone (b) From the frying pan into the fire
(c) Putting the cart before the horse (d) Shifting gears

2. The author would most likely disagree with which of the following statements regarding workplace
relationships?
(a) Work friends often become as close as family.
(b) Interpersonal connections at work are superficial and rarely beneficial.
(c) Maintaining work friendships requires less effort than personal friendships.
(d) Workplace friendships can lead to issues like favouritism and nepotism.

3. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) Developing friendships at work is crucial for personal and organizational success, but these
relationships change as personal circumstances evolve.
(b) Workplaces should actively discourage friendships to avoid issues like favouritism and nepotism.
(c) The primary value of workplace relationships is their contribution to organizational productivity.
(d) Personal life events have little to no impact on workplace relationships.

4. Based on inference, what could be a likely outcome of neglecting workplace friendships due to increased
family responsibilities?
(a) Improved focus on career progression without distractions.
(b) Potential isolation and reduced job satisfaction.
(c) Enhanced personal life satisfaction without any impact on work life.
(d) Increased likelihood of promotions due to perceived dedication to work.

5. Which part of speech is the word "naturally" in the passage "as individuals reach milestones like getting
married or starting a family, their priorities in life naturally shift"?
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Noun (d) Verb

6. Which of the following factual statements can be derived from the passage about the potential
complications of workplace friendships?
(a) Workplace friendships unequivocally enhance individual performance and have no potential
drawbacks.
(b) Conflicts arising from workplace friendships can often be resolved through promotions and salary
increases.
(c) Rumours, nepotism, and favouritism are cited as potential issues that can arise from workplace
friendships.
(d) The majority of workplace friendships eventually evolve into personal enmities.

II. Energy
Generals are, on occasion, accused of preparing for the last war. The mandarins responsible for energy
in the next government should not make this mistake. India is in the midst of a significant energy
transition. The decision makers would be wise to create a new strategic framework for energy policy and
its implementation.
Our energy policy is dual pronged. One prong is focused on fossil fuels. The priority here is to manage
and mitigate the increasing import dependency on petroleum. The specifics of this prong are
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

diversification of the sources of imports, strategic reserves, domestic exploration, demand conservation
and efficiency and environmental protection.
The second prong is focused on accelerating the transition to clean renewable fuels. Here the specifics
flow from the longer term commitment to achieve net zero carbon emissions by 2070 to the
shorter/medium term objectives of reducing carbon intensity of GDP and creating 500 GW of electricity
generation capacity from non fossil fuels by 2030.
These two prongs are developed and implemented by functional, vertically structured ministries. The
Ministry of Petroleum is responsible for the first prong. And as coal accounts for the largest share in our
energy consumption basket, the Ministry of Coal is also crucially significant. The second prong has a
more cluttered parentage. The Ministries of Renewables and Power predominate, but the Ministries of
Heavy Industry, Mines and Minerals, IT and Information and Environment are also involved. This is
because many of components required to build a green energy ecosystem fall in their jurisdiction.
Each of these government ministries is headed by a cabinet minister. They all have a phalanx of
bureaucrats who operate within well defined, narrow and impermeable siloes. There is no formal
executive forum for an integrated discussion on energy policy.
I have often commented on the sub optimality of such a compartmentalised decision making structure.
But I do so because I believe the targets for decarbonisation and sustainability that India has publicly
announced will be difficult to achieve unless decision makers view the energy value chain through one
integrated lens. This is because of the international forces that bear on the green transition.
The world is once again confronted by great power competition. The US and its allies are pitted against
China and Russia in a new version of the Cold War. Taiwan is the ―Berlin‖ of this contest and
technological superiority the surrogate for nuclear arms race. This Cold War has ramifications for the
green agenda along three axes — supply chain resilience, domestic investment and national security.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
proofing-cities-emergency-oriented-approaches-must-give-way-to-long-term-planning-9369100/

7. Which of the following best highlights the passage?

(a) The need for India's energy policy to focus exclusively on fossil fuels to reduce import dependency.
(b) The importance of an integrated approach to energy policy to achieve decarbonisation and
sustainability goals.
(c) The challenges faced by India's Ministry of Petroleum in managing the country's energy transition.
(d) The impact of global political tensions on India's green energy initiatives.

8. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?

(a) India aims to achieve net zero carbon emissions by 2070.
(b) The Ministry of Petroleum is the only ministry involved in India's energy policy.
(c) Decarbonisation targets require an integrated view of the energy value chain.
(d) Global political tensions influence India's green energy strategies.

9. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Critical (b) Optimistic
(c) Indifferent (d) Sarcastic

10. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage about the role of international forces
in India's green transition?
(a) International forces have no significant impact on India's energy policy.
(b) The Cold War has no influence on India's decarbonisation efforts.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Global political competition affects the green energy supply chain and national security.
(d) India's energy policy is entirely domestically driven without external influences.

11. What is the antonym of the word "integrated" as used in the passage?
(a) Unified (b) Consolidated
(c) Fragmented (d) Combined

12. According to the passage, what is a major challenge in implementing an integrated energy policy in
India?
(a) Lack of skilled personnel in the energy sector.
(b) Over-reliance on renewable energy sources.
(c) Excessive foreign investment in the energy sector.
(d) The compartmentalized structure of decision-making within the government.

III. Human Kind

Similar to how we keep our mail inboxes and computer discs free of clutter, we need to keep our internal
world — mind, heart and soul — free of chaos for the sake of health, happiness and peace. Our
computers have folders for unwanted files named ―junk‖ and ―trash‖.
Email apps restricts unwanted mail from coming into our inbox and directs them to the ―junk‖ folder. The
trash folder has the mails we delete. In any case, we want them to stay away. Clearly, inbox is an
important space in the Internet system, and thus, it is natural that we constantly try to keep it clean.
As junk and trash, there is a lot of garbage in and around the human system as well. They need to be
identified and discarded as soon as possible. If not done in time, they cause dissonance and chaos in
our physical, mental and emotional space. Identifying junk is not always easy though. Take physical
clutter, for instance. It gets accumulated slowly and silently.
Helped by the modern consumer culture, it keeps piling up. Though large part of it may be useless, we
don‘t discard them. Lack of mindfulness, indecision, procrastination, laziness or sentimental attachments
could be some excuses or reasons. As visual noise, they diminish our focus and productivity, and snatch
our serenity. Preventing us from finding what we need, they distract us from what we want to do.
Yet, clutter is not all about physical possessions. It could be our emotional ties to a person or desire, to a
time gone by or a worry of tomorrow.
As emotional baggage, it occupies our mental space as grudges, regrets, hurt and pain and constantly
drains us.
Unless we are mindful, we may gather emotional noise through social media as well. Seduced by the
possibility of unlimited friends in a virtual world, the obsession often assumes insane proportions. In the
process, we also risk diluting our network of friends. Instead of nurturing the ties which enhance
emotional well-being, we dissipate our vital resources of time, energy, and emotions in superficial
connects, and invite anxiety and toxicity.
In this information age, bombardment of information could be yet another source of junk. Sure, we need
information. But the consumption of information needs to help the process of ―character building‖ and
―man-making‖, as Swami Vivekananda envisioned. ―Education is not the amount of information that is put
into brain and runs riot there, undigested, all your life.‖
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
mental-clutter/[Link]

13. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?
(a) Managing Digital Clutter for Mental Clarity
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The Importance of Physical and Emotional Decluttering

(c) Information Overload: The Modern Crisis
(d) The Role of Mindfulness in the Digital Age

14. Which of the following statements is factual based on the passage?

(a) Emotional clutter only affects our mental space and not our physical environment.
(b) The passage suggests that decluttering should only be done periodically.
(c) Junk emails are more harmful to our mental health than physical clutter.
(d) Physical clutter can accumulate due to modern consumer culture and sentimental attachments.

15. Which piece of evidence from the passage supports the need for emotional decluttering?
(a) "If not done in time, they cause dissonance and chaos in our physical, mental and emotional space."
(b) "Our computers have folders for unwanted files named 'junk' and 'trash'."
(c) "Identifying junk is not always easy though."
(d) "Sedated by the possibility of unlimited friends in a virtual world, the obsession often assumes insane
proportions."

16. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about social media?
(a) Social media always enhances our emotional well-being by expanding our network of friends.
(b) Social media can create emotional noise and dilute meaningful relationships.
(c) The author believes that social media has no impact on our emotional state.
(d) The author thinks social media should be completely avoided to maintain emotional health.

17. What does the phrase "emotional noise" most likely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Positive emotions that uplift and energize us.
(b) Meaningful interactions that enhance our emotional well-being.
(c) Unnecessary emotional distractions that drain our mental resources.
(d) Emotional clarity and peace achieved through mindfulness.

18. What conclusion can be drawn from the passage about the importance of decluttering?
(a) Decluttering is only necessary for maintaining a clean physical environment.
(b) Decluttering is essential for overall well-being, affecting physical, mental, and emotional health.
(c) Decluttering is a minor aspect of personal organization and does not significantly impact health.
(d) Decluttering should be done only when the clutter becomes overwhelming.
IV. Fiction
What you have come for is death. You might try to convince yourself otherwise but you know in your
heart that to do so would be to set one falsehood upon another. In the end there is no denying what is
true and what is only some thin wisp of hope that clings to you like hoarfrost on a strand of wire. At least
you have learned that much, although you are loath to admit it just as you loath to come down the
mountain, down from the animals, to confirm what you already know you will find. All the while you can
feel their shining eyes upon you, their noses pulling at your scent, their bodies pressed tight against the
interlaced fencing of their enclosures. The world in its bubble and you holding fast to its slick interior as if
to the blood-pumped safety of a womb. You and the animals. And yet after everything you have done,
everything you have tried to do, everything you promised yourself, today you know you will have to put
on the old clothes of the killer once again.
It was not his own voice, or rather he did not think of it as his own. After all the years and all the
conversations he had shared with Majer, he had come to think of that voice, the voice of his own
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

conscience, as coming not from him but from the bear, a sharp reckoning that now, as he descended the
dirt path between the enclosures, seemed to drift down upon him like fresh snow. He could feel the
animals watching but he did not return their collected gaze, focusing instead on the weight of the black
case slung over his shoulder and then on the heavy thump of his boots as he continued toward the
parking lot that hung below him beyond the fence wire. There, a jagged line of conifer shadows
bifurcated a flat patch of colorless gravel at the edge of which was parked his pickup.
He managed to avoid the rest of the animals but he knew he could not avoid Majer. When he reached
that enclosure the great bear cocked his head at an angle as if waiting for him to approach the front
fence but Bill only kept walking, his steps taking him past the cage and toward the gravel parking lot
below, toward the truck and the drive south to Ponderay.
Source: Extracted from: Excerpted from The Animals: A Novel by Christian Kiefer. Copyright © 2015 by
Christian Kiefer. With permission of the publisher, Liveright Publishing Corporation. All rights reserved.

19. Which of the following best evaluates the protagonist's emotional state throughout the passage?
(a) Resigned and determined, acknowledging the inevitable despite personal reluctance.
(b) Hopeful and optimistic, believing in the possibility of a positive outcome.
(c) Indifferent and detached, showing no strong feelings about the situation.
(d) Fearful and anxious, constantly worried about what lies ahead.

20. How can the protagonist's relationship with the bear Majer be described in one word?
(a) Symbiotic (b) Indifferent
(c) Hostile (d) Distant

21. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) The protagonist's struggle with the reality of having to face their fears.
(b) The importance of maintaining a distance from the animals in the enclosures.
(c) The protagonist's inner conflict about returning to a violent role.
(d) The detailed description of the environment surrounding the protagonist.

22. Which of the following is a factual statement based on the passage?

(a) The protagonist has never communicated with the bear Majer.
(b) The protagonist is planning to drive north to Ponderay.
(c) The protagonist has a black case slung over his shoulder.
(d) The protagonist is heading towards a group of enclosures to feed the animals.

23. What conclusion can be drawn from the passage about the protagonist's view of their actions?
(a) The protagonist is confident and unapologetic about their actions.
(b) The protagonist is indifferent to the moral implications of their actions.
(c) The protagonist believes that their actions are justified and necessary.
(d) The protagonist feels a deep sense of regret and guilt about their past actions.

24. In the context of the passage, what does the word "loath" most likely mean?
(a) Eager (b) Unwilling
(c) Unaware (d) Excited
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 29
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Economics
Ninety percent of India‘s population of 1.4 billion is estimated to subsist on less than $3,500 a year. Yet
in the poorest rural districts, life has been made more bearable by welfare programs that have expanded
under Mr. Modi. Many of the benefits are solid and visible: sacks of free grain, toilets, gas cylinders and
housing materials. Purely commercial developments have transformed village life: LED lights, cheap
smartphones and nearly free mobile data have changed the nature of idle time. While America was
experiencing a ―vibecession,‖ feeling glum despite upbeat economic news, India has been doing the
opposite. Here many of the signals are mixed — but the vibes are fantastic. International surveys show
India‘s consumers have become the most upbeat anywhere. Foreigners are also feeling good about the
Modi economy. Banks like Morgan Stanley and JP Morgan Chase are rushing to upgrade India‘s
weighting in their global stock and bond indexes. Chris Wood, one of the best-regarded market
strategists in Asia, warned that if Mr. Modi were not re-elected this year, Indian markets could crash by
25 percent or more. A strange thing about the spirit of optimism about the Modi economy is that India‘s
rates of growth over the past 10 years have been very similar to those of the decade that preceded it,
under a government that Mr. Modi often blames for wrecking the country. As real as it is, the Indian
economic success story is also an attribute of what could be the singular characteristic of Mr. Modi‘s
years in the top job: his ability to control all levers of power, with showmanship as the first priority. Mr.
Modi‘s face is everywhere, perhaps more present in New Delhi than that of any democratically elected
leader in any other capital. In the run-up to the Group of 20 summit last September, his slogans took
credit for virtually every positive development that could be found in this inexorably emerging economy.
In the bullish climate surrounding the Indian economy, even the pessimists are optimistic. While official
statistics anticipate growth of 7.3 percent in the current fiscal year, most finance professionals in Mumbai
peg the figure at 6 to 6.5 percent. The lowest estimate touches 4.5 percent, which would still beat the
United States and possibly China.
Source: [Link]

1. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) India's economic progress under Modi's leadership
(b) The impact of welfare programs on rural India
(c) The contrast between economic data and public perception in India
(d) The role of commercial developments in transforming village life
2. According to the passage, why do some market strategists believe Indian markets could crash if Modi is
not re-elected?
(a) Modi's ability to control all levers of power and his showmanship
(b) The potential reversal of commercial developments in rural areas
(c) The possibility of welfare programs being discontinued
(d) The anticipation of a significant economic slowdown

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) India's economic growth rates have been stagnant over the past two decades
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Rural India has not benefited from the economic progress under Modi
(c) The Indian government's official statistics are widely accepted as accurate
(d) Public perception of the economy is more positive than the economic data suggests

4. What would be a suitable title for this passage?

(a) India's Rural Transformation
(b) The Modi Economy: Perception vs Reality
(c) Welfare Programs in India's Villages
(d) Commercial Developments in Rural India

5. In the passage, the phrase "vibes are fantastic" is closest in meaning to:
(a) Economic indicators are impressive
(b) Public sentiment is highly optimistic
(c) Commercial developments are thriving
(d) Modi's policies are successful

II. Literature
It takes two swings to cut off her head. Everyone does their best to pretend that the first one didn‘t
happen. In the awkward silence afterward, the swordsman says something about mercy or justice, a
strangely fervent soliloquy in French that might have made Anne herself emotional, but it's a touch long-
winded, and no one‘s paying him any attention. And she‘s dead, so it‘s especially beside the point. The
ministers dither in the courtyard, chancing last looks, murmuring, Exquisite mouth, just exquisite. She is
so beautiful, they agree, even beheaded. Henry will return to the body later, when everyone is gone and
what‘s left of her has been moved to the chapel. He will stand on the threshold, halfway between one
momentous decision and the next. He will kneel on the dais beside her severed head and lay one
ornately rubied hand along her frigid cheekbone. Maybe he will stay five minutes. Maybe he will stay 35.
Maybe he will cry softly, but it doesn‘t matter, because there isn‘t a nosy patron around to commission an
oil painting for the textbooks, and it doesn‘t matter because she‘s dead, she‘s still very, very dead. He
will leave as furtively as he came, wiping his hand on his smock. Anne‘s headless body and bodiless
head will be left to their own devices, her blood blackening, thickening on the ground, the gristle of her
neck tougher with every minute. The clock ticks. Night falls.
It is her head that speaks first. It says, ―Is he gone?‖
Her body spasms, maybe a shrug, or maybe just a reflex.
Her head opens its eyes and looks this way, that way. It says, ―It‘s over? It really worked?‖
We don‘t need to stick around while her body crawls its way to her head and fits itself back together.
Every excruciating inch of the stone floor is a personal coup, and every inch lasts the whole span of
human history. It is slow. It is clumsy. The head falls off a couple of times. The body is floppy with
atrophy. There is a lot of blood. She probably, definitely cries. It does not befit a queen. He is reading the
Saturday paper, still in his shirtsleeves, when she breezes in the next morning. The horizon of the paper
lowers to the bridge of his nose. He is a man who wears his tension in the way of a beautifully tuned
piano, and in this moment he vibrates at a bewildered middle octave.
―Anne,‖ he says, at an absolute loss.
―Henry,‖ she says, the picture of politeness.
She sits at the table. Not a hair out of place, not a leaky vein in sight. She butters her toast in four deft
strokes. A servant steps out from the shadows to fill her teacup to the brim. It‘s all very serene, domestic.
If it takes her a few tries to put her toast back on the plate, or if he dabs his napkin with a little extra
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

violence, well, who can say. She slurps her tea, which they both know he hates. He hoists his newspaper
back up. Like this, they go on. Of course she knows what comes next. Let‘s not fib.
She is seized from her bed some weeks later, in a state of drowsy dishabille, the wardens bristling with
royal braid. This night will have the consistency of a dream. The palace swims in sound and darkness.
The youngest one, the boy or man who grips her arm with one rubbery fist and studiously avoids her
gaze, reminds her of the sons she has lost in the womb. She wants to tell him, Don‘t worry, the thing
you‘re afraid of, the girl, the job, the rising cost of real estate in London, it will all work out someday—
you‘ll see, it all comes to pass, but he is leading her to her death, so it seems a bit impolite.
Source: [Link]

6. Which of the following statements, if true, would strengthen the author's opinion about Anne's resilience?
(a) Anne's ability to reunite her body and head was a supernatural phenomenon.
(b) Anne's determination to survive was fuelled by her love for Henry.
(c) Anne's beheading was a traumatic experience that she overcame through sheer willpower.
(d) Anne's survival was due to her secret practice of dark magic.

7. Which of the following can be inferred about Henry's reaction to Anne's return?
(a) He was overjoyed and relieved to see her alive.
(b) He was bewildered and uncertain about how to respond.
(c) He was angry and resentful towards Anne for defying her execution.
(d) He was indifferent and unaffected by her presence.

8. Which rhetorical device is used in the following statement: "Every excruciating inch of the stone floor is a
personal coup, and every inch lasts the whole span of human history."
(a) Metaphor (b) Hyperbole
(c) Personification (d) Simile

9. What is the meaning of the phrase "in a state of drowsy dishabille" as used in the passage?
(a) In a state of deep sleep (b) In a state of undress or negligee
(c) In a state of extreme exhaustion (d) In a state of disheveled appearance

10. What is the central idea or theme explored in the passage?

(a) The horrors of the French Revolution and the execution of nobles
(b) The resilience of the human spirit and the will to survive against all odds
(c) The power dynamics and tumultuous relationship between Anne and Henry
(d) The critique of the excessive violence and brutality in historical events

III. Environment
The recent death of a Kadar tribesman in Tamil Nadu‘s Anamalai Tiger Reserve in an elephant attack
has left the indigenous community and conservationists in shock as Kadars are known to co-exist with
wild elephants for ages. This is the latest glimpse of the escalating human–elephant negative
interactions in Tamil Nadu, largely stemming from reasons including habitat degradation, developmental
works in forest buffers and obstructions in critical elephant movement paths or corridors, which link two
or more habitats. Taking serious note of the imminent danger, the Tamil Nadu government formed a
panel to identify elephant corridors. The panel, headed by Additional Principal Chief Conservator of
Forests V. Naganathan, reassessed the existing corridors in the State, including the ones identified in
studies conducted by the Project Elephant Division of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Change and the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) in the past. The panel released a list of 42 elephant
corridors a month ago and invited comments from the public on the draft report till May 5. The
environmentalists hailed the report, as it doubled the number of corridors in the State against the 20
corridors identified in the Project Elephant Division‘s report in 2023 and 19 corridors identified by the
WTI. The elephant population in Tamil Nadu stood at 2,961 in 26 forest divisions according to the
synchronised census done in southern States in 2023. The conflict scenario is intense in Coimbatore,
Gudalur, Hosur and Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR), leading to the deaths of elephants and
humans. As per the Tamil Nadu Elephant Death Audit Framework, a total of 1,593 elephants died of
various reasons in the State from 2010, of which 168 were classified as ‗unnatural deaths‘. Electrocution
was the main cause of these unnatural deaths followed by bait bombs, poisoning, road accidents, train
collisions and hunting. Most unnatural deaths occur outside forests when elephants traverse through the
forest peripheries as they prefer flat lands for movement between habitats. They often get electrocuted
while trying to enter plantations protected by farmers using AC-powered illegal fences. Many elephants
got electrocuted after getting in contact with sagging power lines when they traversed through villages on
forest peripheries. Bait bombs or crude explosives meant to hunt wild animals like deer and wild boar
also claimed the lives of some of the pachyderms.
Source: The Hindu

11. What appears to be the author's primary concern regarding the human-elephant conflict in Tamil Nadu?
(a) The increasing elephant population in the state's forest divisions
(b) The degradation of elephant habitats and obstruction of their movement corridors
(c) The lack of effective conservation measures by the state government
(d) The prevalence of poaching and hunting activities targeting elephants

12. What is the likely meaning of the phrase "forest buffers" as used in the passage?
(a) Areas within forests designated for conservation purposes
(b) Areas surrounding forests that serve as a protective barrier
(c) Designated zones within forests for human settlements
(d) Regions within forests that are rich in biodiversity

13. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "pachyderms" as used in the passage?
(a) Large, thick-skinned mammals (b) Endangered species
(c) Forest-dwelling animals (d) Herbivorous mammals

14. Which of the following best describes the overall piece of writing?
(a) A persuasive essay (b) A news report
(c) A research paper (d) A fictional narrative

15. What is the author's overall tone when discussing the issue of human-elephant conflict in Tamil Nadu?
(a) Objective and factual (b) Critical and accusatory
(c) Sympathetic and concerned (d) Dismissive and indifferent

IV. Supreme Court

From fixing definite timelines for appeal against decisions to including critical details such as the
appearance of parties in orders — the Supreme Court has attempted to plug significant gaps in the
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act (JJA), 2015.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The JJA outlines procedures for handling legal violations by minors, managed by the Juvenile Justice
Board (JJB), which also fulfils various socio-legal roles. A bench of justices C.T. Ravikumar and Rajesh
Bindal on 7 May ruled that an appeal against the JJB order should be filed within 30 days and also made
it mandatory for the board to mention details, such as reasons for adjourning the hearing in a case in its
orders. The SC was dealing with an appeal in a criminal case involving charges of rape and wrongful
confinement under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act
(POCSO) when it gave the judgment, which is set to have far-reaching implications in cases involving
minors. The case in question revolved around an appeal against the Children‘s Court‘s decision to treat
the appellant as an adult rather than a ―child in conflict with law‖ — a term used when a minor is accused
of an offence. This decision, affirmed by the Karnataka High Court, was upheld by the Supreme Court. A
Session Court deals with ordinary criminal offences, while a Children‘s Court is a specialized court that
deals with heinous offences involving minors. According to the JJA, a minor who encounters the criminal
justice system due to an alleged offence is identified as a ―child in conflict with law‖. In such cases, the
standard criminal procedures are set aside, and instead, the case is presented before the JJB. The JJB
is endowed with the authority to adjudicate matters concerning minors, ensure they have access to legal
representation, and oversee the conditions of juvenile residential establishments. Should the board
conclude that the minor should face trial as an adult, it will issue an order to that effect, which is
subsequently forwarded to the Children‘s Court for a final decision. In a detailed order spanning over 70
pages, a copy of which is with The Print, the judges noted significant lacunas in the JJA, particularly the
absence of a defined timeline for appealing JJB decisions or for condoning delays in assessing whether
an offence is heinous. In its order, the court pointed out that there was no set deadline for challenging
the JJB‘s decisions or for forgiving any late decisions about whether an offence was heinous, which
should be determined by the Children‘s Court.
Source: [Link]
mandates-detailed-orders/2080595/

16. What assumption can be made based on the passage regarding the recent Supreme Court ruling on the
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act?
(a) The ruling aims to expedite the legal process for cases involving minors accused of heinous
offences.
(b) The ruling primarily focuses on extending the appeal period for decisions made by the Juvenile
Justice Board.
(c) The ruling emphasizes the need for stricter punishment for minors involved in criminal activities.
(d) The ruling suggests that the current procedures for handling juvenile offenders are adequate and
require no amendments.

17. What is the central idea of the passage?

(a) The role of the Juvenile Justice Board in adjudicating cases involving minors accused of criminal
offences.
(b) The Supreme Court's recent ruling to address gaps in the Juvenile Justice Act and expedite legal
procedures.
(c) The distinction between the Children's Court and the Session Court in handling criminal cases
involving minors.
(d) The implications of treating minors as adults in criminal proceedings under the Indian Penal Code.

18. What is the author's argument regarding the lacunas in the Juvenile Justice Act?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The Juvenile Justice Act lacks clarity in defining the roles of the Juvenile Justice Board and the
Children's Court.
(b) The absence of a defined timeline for appealing decisions by the Juvenile Justice Board hampers the
legal process.
(c) The Supreme Court's ruling on the Juvenile Justice Act fails to address the fundamental issues in
handling cases involving minors.
(d) The Children's Court should have exclusive jurisdiction over cases involving minors accused of
criminal offences.

19. According to the passage, what role does the Juvenile Justice Board play in the legal system?
(a) Adjudicating cases involving minors accused of criminal offences.
(b) Overseeing the conditions of juvenile residential establishments.
(c) Upholding decisions made by the Children's Court.
(d) Representing minors in legal proceedings.

20. What is the antonym of the word "amendments" as used in the passage?
(a) Alterations (b) Revisions
(c) Modifications (d) Retentions
V. History
The British like to point out, in moments of self-justifying exculpation, that they deserve credit for the
political unity of India—that the very idea of ‗India‘ as one entity (now three, but one during the British
Raj) instead of multiple warring principalities and statelets, is the unchallengeable contribution of British
imperial rule. It is difficult to refute that proposition except with a provable hypothesis: that throughout the
history of the subcontinent, there has existed an impulsion for unity. This was manifest in the several
kingdoms throughout Indian history that sought to extend their reach across all of the subcontinent: the
Maurya (322 BCE–185 BCE), Gupta (at its peak, 320–550 CE), and Mughal (1526–1857 CE) empires,
and to a lesser extent, the Vijayanagara kingdom in the Deccan (at its peak 1136–1565 CE) and the
Maratha confederacy (1674-1818 CE). Every period of disorder throughout Indian history has been
followed by a centralizing impulse, and had the British not been the first to take advantage of India‘s
disorder with superior weaponry, it is entirely possible that an Indian ruler would have accomplished what
the British did, and consolidated his rule over most of the subcontinent. The same impulse is also
manifest in Indians‘ vision of their own nation, as in the ancient epics the Mahabharata and the
Ramayana, which reflect an ‗idea of India‘ that twentieth century nationalists would have recognized. The
epics have acted as strong, yet sophisticated, threads of Indian culture that have woven together tribes,
languages, and peoples across the subcontinent, uniting them in their celebration of the same larger-
than-life heroes and heroines, whose stories were told in dozens of translations and variations, but
always in the same spirit and meaning. The landscape the Pandavas saw in the Mahabharata
(composed approximately in the period 400 BCE to 400 CE) was a pan-Indian landscape, for instance,
as their travels throughout it demonstrated, and through their tale, Indians speaking hundreds of
languages and thousands of dialects in all the places named in the epic, enjoyed a civilizational unity.
Lord Rama‘s journey through India and his epic battle against the demon-king of Lanka reflect the same
national idea.
Source: An Era of Darkness by Shashi Tharoor

21. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Criticizing the British for their claims of unifying India
(b) Arguing against the idea of India's historical unity
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Highlighting the impulsion for unity throughout Indian history

(d) Praising the ancient Indian epics for their unifying narratives

22. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The British were the sole driving force behind India's political unity
(b) An Indian ruler could have potentially unified the subcontinent if not for the British
(c) The Mahabharata and Ramayana narratives were purely fictional
(d) The Maratha confederacy was the most successful in unifying India

23. What is the author's argument regarding the British claim of unifying India?
(a) The author completely refutes the British claim
(b) The author acknowledges the British claim but provides a counterargument
(c) The author supports the British claim without any counter-argument
(d) The author remains neutral and does not take a stance on the claim

24. What is the overall tone of the passage regarding the British imperial rule?
(a) Highly critical and condemning (b) Appreciative and laudatory
(c) Defensive and justifying (d) Analytical and objective
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 30
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Culture
Forget the blaring music and frantic energy of most festivals. In Odisha, come mid-June, a different kind
of magic unfolds. Raja Parba, also known as Mithuna Sankranti, whispers a unique story – a celebration
of the women who hold families and communities together, and of Mother Earth‘s nurturing embrace.
A three-day escape from the daily grind. Raja Parba goes beyond mere revelry. It‘s a gentle nudge
towards social change. By prioritising women‘s well-being and acknowledging their vital role, the festival
subtly challenges traditional gender norms. It whispers a message of respect for nature and sustainable
practices, reminding us that a healthy planet and empowered women are the cornerstones of a thriving
society.
It‘s ―Pahili Raja,‖ the first day, and houses are abuzz with a different kind of activity. Women, the
undisputed queens of this time, transform their homes into colourful havens. Delicious smells waft from
kitchens as traditional treats are whipped up. Laughter replaces the usual clatter of chores, as women
unwind and pamper themselves.
But Raja Parba isn‘t just about self-care. The second day, ―Raja Sankranti,‖ marks the arrival of the
monsoon, a time to honour mother Earth. Farmers, with hearts full of gratitude, offer thanks for the life-
giving rains that promise bountiful harvests. It‘s a beautiful reminder of our dependence on nature and
the delicate balance we share with the environment.
Then comes the showstopper – ―Doli Khela,‖ which translates to ―swing play.‖ Women are adorned in
their most dazzling outfits and take flight on colourfully decorated swings. The air thrums with the joyous
melody of folk songs as they playfully shower each other with kumkum (vermilion). The festival isn‘t just
a display of colours; it‘s a celebration of sisterhood, a testament to the strength, resilience, and
unwavering spirit of women.
While women take center stage, Raja Parba is a celebration for everyone. Men join in the festivities,
strengthening the bonds of equality and shared joy. Families reunite, weaving a tapestry of love and
laughter that reinforces the importance of community.
Experience Raja Parba, and you‘ll experience the soul of Odisha. It‘s an intricate cross between rich
heritage, a deep respect for nature, and a unique way of celebrating the unwavering power of the
feminine spirit. It‘s a reminder that sometimes, the most powerful celebrations are the ones that whisper
gratitude, embrace community, and crown the queens who hold it all together.
Source: [Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
culture/indian-festival-raja-parba-orissa-celebrates-womanhood-9401642/]
1. Which of the following statements best captures the essence of the Raja Parba festival as described in
the passage?
(a) Raja Parba is primarily a festival celebrating the arrival of the monsoon and agricultural prosperity.
(b) The festival serves as a platform for women to temporarily escape their daily responsibilities and
chores.
(c) Raja Parba is an expression of gratitude towards nature and a celebration of women's roles in
society.
(d) It is a time when men take the lead in festivities, highlighting their roles in nurturing family and
community.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(a) Raja Parba challenges traditional gender norms and promotes sustainable practices.
(b) The festival incorporates elements of self-care and relaxation for women.
(c) Community and familial bonds are strengthened during the festival through shared activities.
(d) Men are described as having a passive role during the festival celebrations.

3. What tone does the passage primarily use to describe the Raja Parba festival?
(a) Celebratory (b) Nostalgic
(c) Cynical (d) Informative

4. Which of the following best highlights the passage's view on the role of women during Raja Parba?
(a) Women primarily engage in culinary and household duties during the festival.
(b) Women experience a brief and symbolic freedom from routine tasks during Raja Parba.
(c) The festival serves as a venue for women to reinforce their conventional societal roles.
(d) Women are pivotal figures who enrich and elevate the community's spirit throughout the festival.

5. Identify the antonym of the word "nurture" as used in the context of the passage.
(a) Neglect (b) Encourage
(c) Support (d) Sustain

6. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the festival's impact on environmental awareness?
(a) The festival has no discernible impact on environmental consciousness among participants.
(b) Raja Parba actively discourages traditional agricultural practices in favor of modern methods.
(c) The festival encourages a deeper appreciation for nature and sustainable practices.
(d) Environmental themes are mentioned but not actively celebrated or integrated into the festival.

II. Wildlife
Land use patterns and roads in the central Indian landscape were disrupting genetic connectivity of two
large herbivores — Gaur and Sambar, according to a first-of-its-kind study of large herbivores at a
landscape scale in India. The findings of the study done by the National Centre for Biological Sciences
(NCBS) indicated high genetic differentiation, suggesting that the animals were present in small
populations with little to no gene flow.
Central India, like other areas of conservation concern, faced threats from growing linear infrastructure
such as highways, railway lines and changes in land use patterns, expanding road network, mining
activities and other development projects. Such infrastructure hinder animal movement, creating
fragmented populations confined within small habitat patches disconnected from each other.
To investigate genetic connectivity, a team of researchers from NCBS collected 1,144 gaur and 756
sambar faecal samples from tiger reserves and wildlife sanctuaries in Madhya Pradesh and
Maharashtra. Following a genetic species identity, 921 samples were identified as gaur, while 504
samples were determined to be of sambar. The team investigated whether the species comprised a
single contiguous population across the landscape or were fragmented into distinct groups, using next-
generation sequencing (NGS) and combination of population and landscape genetic tools. The study
was the first to examine the genetic connectivity of large herbivores at a landscape scale in India. It
analysed the genetic diversity of gaur and sambar, which was crucial for any species to adapt to sudden
environmental changes, diseases, climate shifts and other stressors. The findings revealed that gaur
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

was most impacted by land-use and land-cover changes, roads with high traffic and dense linear
infrastructure intrusion. These fragmented gaur populations also showed low levels of genetic diversity.
Sambar, besides land use-land cover and high-traffic roads, was also impacted by human presence.
Though sambar populations did not show much differentiation, low levels of genetic diversity were
concerning. Researchers speculated that this could be attributed to the large population size of sambar.
However, with more data, genetic differentiation may become evident. Gaur and sambar rank among the
top prey species for large carnivores like tigers.
Gaur is the largest wild cattle species and one of the few mega-herbivore species that inhabit the Indian
subcontinent. Although the species was once found throughout the forested areas of India, its current
distribution is restricted to fragmented habitat pockets, primarily in the Western Ghats, the central Indian
highlands and northeast India.
Source: [Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
biodiversity/central-indias-land-use-patterns-roads-fragmenting-gaur-sambar-populations-threatening-
genetic-diversity]

7. What would be a suitable title for the passage?

(a) The Impact of Human Activity on Wildlife Conservation in India
(b) A Comparative Study of Gaur and Sambar Populations in Central India
(c) Disruption of Genetic Connectivity in Indian Herbivores
(d) The Role of Linear Infrastructure in Wildlife Genetics

8. Which evidence suggests that sambar populations may show greater genetic differentiation with further
data?
(a) The large sample collection across various reserves might hint at a diverse genetic structure within
sambar populations.
(b) The precise methodology of next-generation sequencing ensures accurate detection of genetic
differentiation.
(c) The extensive population size of sambar could be masking deeper genetic divisions that might be
revealed with additional data.
(d) The significant human impact on sambar habitats could lead to distinct genetic traits in various
population segments.

9. Based on the passage, which conclusion can be drawn about the impact of roads on wildlife?
(a) Roads contribute to habitat fragmentation and disrupt genetic connectivity among large herbivores.
(b) Roads primarily affect smaller wildlife species rather than large herbivores like gaur and sambar.
(c) Roads are beneficial for the gene flow among wildlife populations by connecting different habitats.
(d) Roads have no significant impact on wildlife if adequate crossing measures are implemented.

10. What does the author most likely agree with regarding conservation strategies?
(a) Conservation efforts should prioritize human developmental needs over wildlife conservation.
(b) Effective conservation strategies should include measures to maintain genetic diversity among
wildlife.
(c) Conservation is only crucial for species that have a direct economic benefit to humans.
(d) Conservation strategies are less important than addressing climate change impacts on wildlife.
11. What can be inferred about the author's perspective on wildlife corridors?
(a) Wildlife corridors are unnecessary if wildlife populations are robust and extensive.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Wildlife corridors could potentially mitigate the adverse effects of habitat fragmentation due to human
infrastructure.
(c) The establishment of wildlife corridors has universally succeeded without significant opposition.
(d) Wildlife corridors offer primary benefits to aquatic species rather than terrestrial herbivores.

12. What does the phrase "genetic connectivity" most likely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) The interplay between different gene pools across isolated habitats, allowing for some genetic
interchange.
(b) The sharing of genetic codes among diverse populations through reproductive interactions that
sustain biodiversity.
(c) The influence of gene transfer between neighbouring populations, contributing marginally to genetic
diversity.
(d) The movement of genetic sequences among populations due to natural migration and mating
patterns.

III. Lifestyle
The one ingredient cutting across regions that people, especially vegetarians, are certain to be able to
find and order and eat to their heart‘s content in India is paneer. From Kashmir to Kanyakumari, it‘s
provided succour to millions who are in search of familiar ingredients and comfort food. It‘s even made its
way to foreign shores as the Indian export representing Indian cuisine as wholly as balti chicken and
tandoori chicken and curry have.
From Kashmiri Lal Chaman to Paneer Dosa, paneer has kept many diners happy. It‘s also been the
perfect culinary solution to serve to those whose food preferences you are not aware of. I remember
being surprised when a dear friend and ex-colleague from Zurich, on her visit to India, prefered paneer to
all other regional preparations.
Paneer was introduced by Persian and Afghan rulers in the 16th century, primarily in North India, using
goat or sheep rennet, an enzyme found in the intestines of ruminant animals or mammals which chew
cud. The term ‗Paneer‘ comes from the Turkish and Persian word peynir, meaning cheese.
The modern paneer made in homes and sold by companies doesn‘t use rennet. Instead, it follows the
method introduced by the Portuguese in the 17th century, which involves ‗breaking‘ (curdling) milk with
an acid like lemon juice.
Breaking or curdling milk was once considered taboo in India, which is why the Vedas mention curd,
ghee, and butter but not paneer. The Portuguese introduced this technique, evident in Bengali cuisine
with chhena, a crumblier version of North Indian paneer. The chhana in Bengal and Orissa is used
sparingly in savoury dishes, unlike the rest of India. Instead, it is used to make a slew of desserts from
sandesh to gulab jamun. Before the 18th century, Bengali sweets were made from evaporated milk or
kheer, due to the belief that curdling milk with acid was a sin.
The emergence of paneer in India is linked to early Portuguese settlers in Bengal, who introduced
chhana in the 17th century by curdling milk with vinegar or lime juice. The Portuguese, renowned for
their confectionery, inspired Bengali confectioners to use cheese in their desserts. Many Portuguese
men married Bengali Muslim women, skilled cooks and confectioners who adopted Portuguese culinary
practices, leading to the widespread use of paneer in Indian kitchens, especially for sweets in Bengal.
Source: [Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
wine/from-taboo-to-tradition-how-paneer-indian-cuisine-sandesh-recipe-9432426/]

13. Based on the passage, evaluate the impact of Portuguese influence on Indian cuisine.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Portuguese involvement had a minor role, only affecting the cooking techniques in a small part of
India.
(b) The introduction of the curdling technique by the Portuguese marked a significant shift in Indian
confectionery practices.
(c) Portuguese influence was overshadowed by earlier Persian and Afghan contributions, making little
change to existing culinary norms.
(d) The confectionery techniques introduced by the Portuguese were later abandoned in favor of
traditional Indian methods.

14. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) The cultural and culinary impact of foreign influences on Indian traditional foods, particularly paneer.
(b) The historical changes in Indian dietary laws and practices with the introduction of paneer.
(c) The evolution of paneer from a regional North Indian ingredient to a staple in Indian cuisine across
the country and beyond.
(d) A detailed chronological history of dairy products in Indian cuisine, focusing primarily on paneer.

15. Identify the part of speech of the word 'introduced' as used in the passage.
(a) Noun (b) Verb
(c) Adjective (d) Adverb

16. What does the word 'succour' imply in its context in the passage?
(a) Nutritional value (b) Culinary diversity
(c) Familiarity (d) Economic benefit

17. Which of the following best reflects a factual detail provided in the passage about the introduction of
paneer in India?
(a) Paneer was originally introduced by the Mughals and widely adopted for its ease of preparation.
(b) Paneer's introduction involved the adaptation of existing culinary techniques by Persian and Afghan
rulers.
(c) The initial resistance to paneer was due to its complex preparation methods, requiring sophisticated
culinary skills.
(d) The term 'paneer' has roots in Middle Eastern language, reflecting its foreign origins and method of
preparation.

18. What conclusion can be drawn about the historical acceptance of paneer in Indian culinary practices?
(a) Paneer was universally accepted in Indian cuisine from its introduction due to its versatility and
adaptability to various dishes.
(b) The initial use of paneer in Indian cooking was limited to North India due to its introduction by
Persian and Afghan rulers.
(c) Historical resistance to the idea of curdling milk suggests that paneer was initially met with some
cultural resistance.
(d) The advent of paneer in India was rapidly embraced in both savory and dessert preparations across
all regions.

IV. Novel Excerpt

It was a warmish spring day with the sun shining bright, but it was getting chilly and dark by the time we
started for home. We were walking because we had left Steve‘s car at the station. At the corner of our
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

block there‘s a wide, open field where we play football and hang out, and it‘s often a site for rumbles and
fist fights. We were passing it, kicking rocks down the street and finishing our last bottle of Pepsi, when
Steve noticed something lying on the ground. He picked it up. It was Johnny‘s blue-jeans jacket—the
only jacket he had.
―Looks like Johnny forgot his jacket,‖ Steve said, slinging it over his shoulder to take it by Johnny‘s
house. Suddenly he stopped and examined it more carefully. There was a stain the color of rust across
the collar. He looked at the ground. There were some more stains on the grass. He looked up and
across the field with a stricken expression on his face. I think we all heard the low moan and saw the
dark motionless hump on the other side of the lot at the same time. Soda reached him first. Johnny was
lying face down on the ground. Soda turned him over gently, and I nearly got sick. Someone had beaten
him badly.
We were used to seeing Johnny banged up—his father clobbered him around a lot, and although it made
us madder than heck, we couldn‘t do anything about it. But those beatings had been nothing like this.
Johnny‘s face was cut up and bruised and swollen, and there was a wide gash from his temple to his
cheekbone. He would carry that scar all his life. His white T-shirt was splattered with blood. I just stood
there, trembling with sudden cold. I thought he might be dead; surely nobody could be beaten like that
and live. Steve closed his eyes for a second and muffled a groan as he dropped on his knees beside
Soda.
Somehow the gang sensed what had happened. Two-Bit was suddenly there beside me, and for once
his comical grin was gone and his dancing gray eyes were stormy. Darry had seen us from our porch
and ran toward us, suddenly skidding to a halt. Dally was there, too, swearing under his breath, and
turning away with a sick expression on his face. I wondered about it vaguely. Dally had seen people
killed on the streets of New York‘s West Side. Why did he look sick now?
―Johnny?‖ Soda lifted him up and held him against his shoulder. He gave the limp body a slight shake.
―Hey, Johnnycake.‖ Johnny didn‘t open his eyes, but there came a soft question. ―Soda?‖
―Yeah, it‘s me,‖ Sodapop said. ―Don‘t talk. You‘re gonna be okay.‖
Source: [Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]

19. What can be inferred about the usual state of Johnny‘s life from the passage?
(a) Johnny's family provided a stable and caring environment, ensuring his safety and well-being.
(b) Johnny's educational pursuits kept him away from the influences of his troubled neighbourhood.
(c) Johnny was a rebellious youth who frequently engaged in dangerous activities for excitement.
(d) Johnny often faced neglect and harsh treatment at home, contributing to his vulnerable situation.

20. Which statement would the author most likely disagree with based on the passage?
(a) The gang members are indifferent to Johnny‘s injuries and emotional pain.
(b) The community sometimes fails to protect its most vulnerable members.
(c) Experiencing violence can leave lasting physical and psychological scars.
(d) Friends and acquaintances should intervene to prevent violent incidents.

21. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) The dangers of neglecting youth in troubled neighbourhoods and the consequences thereof.
(b) The impact of parental abuse on a child‘s mental and physical health.
(c) The critical role of community and friendships in responding to crises.
(d) The escalation of violence in suburban areas and its effect on local communities.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

22. What does the phrase "muffled a groan" suggest about Steve's reaction to the situation?
Parameter: Meaning of a phrase
(a) He was trying to suppress his strong emotional response to remain calm.
(b) He expressed his feelings loudly to show his distress.
(c) He was indifferent and unresponsive to the situation.
(d) He felt overwhelmed but chose not to express his emotions.

23. What does the narrative imply about the potential long-term impact of Johnny's injuries?
(a) The portrayal of Johnny‘s condition suggests a substantial risk of enduring physical disfigurement.
(b) The narrative suggests that Johnny‘s injuries, while noticeable, are unlikely to have lasting physical
effects.
(c) The depiction of the injuries points to them being primarily superficial, unlikely to affect him
permanently.
(d) The description implies that observers may have exaggerated the severity of Johnny‘s physical
trauma.

24. In one word, how does the adjective "stricken" enhance the reader's understanding of Steve's emotional
state?
(a) Unaffected (b) Indifferent
(c) Troubled (d) Detached
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 31
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) released a high-severity alert concerning
multiple vulnerabilities found in Apple Vision Pro. Apple Vision Pro operates on the newly developed
VisionOS. Reports suggest that it is susceptible to severe security breaches. News comes in that the
vulnerabilities found in Apple Vision Pro can allow malicious actors to seize control of your system,
access confidential user information and cause significant disruptions.
Experts suggest that the device can allow attackers to execute arbitrary code with kernel-level privileges.
This capability would enable attackers the highest level of access to the system. The expected threat can
pass in through many built-in security mechanisms, enabling it to install malicious software or alter
system settings without detection. The root causes of these vulnerabilities can be various technical
issues within the VisionOS components. ―These include ‗use-after-free‘ bugs in the kernel, errors in the
CoreMedia and libiconv components, out-of-bounds write and access issues, integer overflows, and type
confusion errors in the WebKit component. These technical flaws can be exploited by attackers through
maliciously crafted web content, leading to memory corruption and system compromise, ,‖as reported by
[Link] looks like Apple might have released a software update for the Vision Pro. CERT-In seems to
have advised all users to promptly download and install this update to protect their devices from potential
exploits. In addition to this keeping the software up to date is crucial in ‗safeguarding against these
vulnerabilities and ensuring the security and integrity of the system,‘ CERT-In explained.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
vision-pro-prone-to-hacking-indian-government-warns-what-to-do-nownbsp-3525241/

1. The major underlying issue in the Apple Vision Pro vulnerabilities is:
(a) Deficiencies in user authentication protocols.
(b) Inadequate encryption standards in data transmission.
(c) Weaknesses in the operating system's core components.
(d) Inefficiencies in the hardware design.

2. Why might attackers have a significant advantage in exploiting Apple Vision Pro?
(a) The device‘s security mechanisms are poorly designed.
(b) The attackers can gain administrative privileges easily.
(c) The inherent complexity of the system's architecture.
(d) The rapid development cycle of the software.
3. Statement 1: Attackers can install malicious software on the device.
Statement 2: The vulnerabilities stem from technical issues in various VisionOS components.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

(a) Security updates are crucial to protect against potential exploits.
(b) Attackers can use these vulnerabilities to access confidential information.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Apple has not yet responded to the vulnerabilities.

(d) Use-after-free bugs can lead to memory corruption.

5. The writer's perspective on the necessary actions to mitigate the security risks is:
(a) dismissive (b) proactive
(c) skeptical (d) complacent

II. In the emerald countryside of Wales sits a manor named Nantclwyd Hall. Built 400 years ago, the
luxurious two-story brick sanctuary is painted peach and capped with a gently sloping slate-gray roof.
Surrounding it are acres of neatly geometric gardens, adorned with ornate temples and whimsical
structures that stand like stone jewels amid long fields of trimmed grass.
Inspired by a ball game played indoors by aristocrats for centuries, Wingfield‘s innovation was to move
the game outside and replace the leather ball with a bouncing rubber one. The game was a hit. Within
months, Wingfield had patented sphairistike. He began a business, published two books to promote the
game and sold playing sets. Presented in a handsome, long wooden box, a typical set included written
instructions, a long net, court markers, a rubber ball, pegs and tape to mark the court, and four lopsided
rackets—to better to hit the low-bouncing ball. In the first year, Wingfield sold a thousand sets that
quickly spread across the British Empire and beyond. Just three years later, in 1877, the first tournament
of champions for lawn tennis, as the sport became known, was held at Wimbledon.
Although the major‘s game of tennis is rarely recognized as a product of hominin evolution, the ability to
strike a bouncing ball with a racket is evidence of an ancient symbiosis between human and tool.
Consider what happens when you pick up a tennis racket the first time. At that moment, the racket is just
a thing. An external object in the world. Next, a ball is tossed in your direction to strike. With more
practice, each swing becomes more natural, each ball hit more precisely as your hand feels ever more at
home wrapped around the grip. A Philosophy of Sport, one possible origin for the word ―racket‖ is
rachette, Middle French for the palm of the hand. This etymology suggests how the racket becomes a
part of the hand itself.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
did-humans-evolve-to-use-everyday-tools-180983709/

6. Despite Major Wingfield's meticulous planning and innovation, the initial reception of his game was____?
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) indifferent. (b) antagonistic.
(c) mediocre. (d) enthusiastic.

7. One significant challenge faced by early adopters of Wingfield‘s game was:

(a) insufficient understanding of the game rules.
(b) inadequate availability of playing equipment.
(c) the complexity of setting up the court.
(d) resistance to change from traditional indoor games.

8. Arrange the following steps in the development and popularization of Wingfield's game:
(1) Publishing books to promote the game.
(2) Moving the game outside and introducing a rubber ball.
(3) Selling a thousand sets in the first year.
(4) Patenting the game as sphairistike.
Choose the appropriate option:
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) (2), (4), (1), (3) (b) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(c) (4), (2), (3), (1) (d) (2), (1), (4), (3)

9. The term ―symbiosis‖ in the context of human evolution and tools refers to:
(a) the inherent harmony between different organisms in nature.
(b) the mutual beneficial relationship between humans and their tools.
(c) the evolutionary adaptation of humans to their environment.
(d) the dependency of humans on technology for survival.

10. The idea that the racket becomes an extension of the hand illustrates:
(a) the gradual integration of tools into daily human life.
(b) the immediate ease with which humans use new tools.
(c) the evolutionary development of human dexterity.
(d) the natural human instinct to manipulate objects.
11. The development of Wingfield's lawn tennis set into a widely accepted sport signifies:
(a) the promotion of aristocratic pastimes.
(b) the transition of indoor activities to outdoor sports.
(c) the invention of modern sports equipment.
(d) the role of effective marketing in sports popularization.

12. The process by which a tool like a racket becomes an extension of the body demonstrates:
(a) the cognitive adaptation of humans to their environment.
(b) the physical training required for athletic proficiency.
(c) the mental focus needed to master a skill.
(d) the integration of external objects into one‘s bodily schema.

III. More than 100 leaders, including the US vice-president, Kamala Harris, and the presidents or heads of
the EU, South American, Middle East and Asian countries, will gather in Switzerland for one of the most
ambitious attempts yet to forge a peace plan for Ukraine. The summit comes as G7 leaders gathering in
Italy clinch a new deal for a €50bn loan for Ukraine, securitised through use of the windfall profits from
the interest on Russian central bank assets frozen by the EU and other western nations after the 2022
invasion of Ukraine.
The two-day peace conference, which will take place at the luxury Bürgenstock resort outside Lucerne,
will discuss Kyiv‘s proposed 10-point plan to end the war along with three other themes: the nuclear
threat, food security and humanitarian needs in Ukraine.
It follows the Russian president, Vladimir Putin, demanding that Kyiv cede more land, withdraw troops
deeper inside its own country and drop its Nato bid in order for him to end his war in Ukraine – proposals
that were rejected by Ukraine, the US and Nato.
A joint communique is expected to centre on the importance of the UN principles on maintaining and
respecting ―sovereignty and territorial integrity‖.
While this is not seen as advancing peace in itself, it is designed to ―reduce the space for any unhelpful
initiatives.
This will be seen as a success for Volodymyr Zelenskiy who is aiming to build international support for
his peace plan that includes a full withdrawal of Russian troops from Ukraine and return to its 1991 post-
Soviet borders. Organisers of the peace summit played down China‘s decision not to attend, a move that
prompted Zelenskiy to accuse Beijing of helping Moscow undermine the meeting, which China‘s foreign
ministry denied.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Kyiv had been pushing hard for a Chinese delegation to attend the summit to give the conference further
legitimacy and drive a wedge between Moscow and Beijing. There were also hopes that Saudi Arabia
may attend after what Zelenskiy described as ―productive and energetic‖ talks with the Saudi crown
prince Mohammed bin Salman. Moscow has dismissed the meeting as futile.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
attempt-to-forge-ukraine-peace-plan

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) international diplomacy journal feature
(b) local news report on regional events
(c) technology review article
(d) corporate financial report

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) To persuade readers that the summit will definitely resolve the Ukraine conflict.
(b) To describe the complexities and efforts involved in seeking peace in Ukraine.
(c) To criticize the lack of attendance by major global players like China.
(d) To explain the financial aspects of the G7 deal for Ukraine.

15. The passage mentions ―food security‖ to emphasize _________.

(a) The international community‘s primary concern for Ukraine‘s economy.
(b) The agricultural prospects of Ukraine in a post-war scenario.
(c) The focus on rebuilding Ukraine‘s infrastructure.
(d) The importance of addressing humanitarian issues in the conflict.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.
(a) "The summit comes as G7 leaders gathering in Italy clinch a new deal for a €50bn loan for Ukraine."
(b) "The two-day peace conference, which will take place at the luxury Bürgenstock resort outside
Lucerne, will discuss Kyiv‘s proposed 10-point plan to end the war."
(c) "Organisers of the peace summit played down China‘s decision not to attend, a move that prompted
Zelenskiy to accuse Beijing of helping Moscow undermine the meeting."
(d) None of the above

17. According to the passage, why is the cost of implementing the G7 deal a challenge?
(a) The economic instability caused by ongoing conflicts.
(b) The complexity of securitizing windfall profits.
(c) The hesitation of member countries to commit financially.
(d) The legal issues surrounding frozen assets.

18. What does the passage suggest about the balance between Ukrainian sovereignty and the demands of
external parties?
(a) Ukraine is required to make major concessions to reach peace agreements.
(b) External parties have a minor impact on Ukraine‘s decision-making.
(c) Preserving sovereignty is less crucial than achieving immediate peace.
(d) Upholding Ukrainian sovereignty is crucial despite external pressures.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

19. The author‘s discussion of the absence of certain countries, like China, is primarily intended to ______
(a) Highlight the geopolitical complexities surrounding the summit.
(b) Emphasize the lack of interest from major global players.
(c) Suggest that the summit is unlikely to succeed without China.
(d) Criticize the international community‘s approach to peace negotiations.

20. Give a word from the passage which means ‗sabotage‘?

(a) Push (b) Drive
(c) Legitimize (d) Undermine

21. In the passage, the phrase ‗productive and energetic‘, is best defined as –
(a) Creates a stronger resistance.
(b) Reduces the complexity of discussions.
(c) Promotes a more fruitful dialogue.
(d) Develops a superficial understanding.

22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that addressing the challenges is
crucial for harnessing the full potential of peace efforts in Ukraine?
(a) Leaders are convening more summits without addressing prior challenges.
(b) Traditional methods are becoming less effective in conflict resolution.
(c) Diplomatic efforts are becoming more inclusive and participatory.
(d) Summits are proving effective due to persistent geopolitical tensions.

IV. The volcanoes along Mars‘ equator are massive, imposing features, with some peaks towering more
than twice the height of Mount Everest. Olympus Mons, the tallest, is as wide as France. Now, a new
discovery adds to the mountains‘ intrigue: the presence of early morning frost. According to a study, a
winter frost periodically covers extensive patches of Mars‘ Tharsis region, home to a dozen volcanoes—
providing the latest evidence of water on Mars and the first sighting of water at the planet‘s equator. For
a few hours each morning, before sunlight directly strikes the equator, some craters at the volcanoes‘
summits are coated in a layer of water frost. This icy film is thinner than a human hair, but it covers so
much area that the amount of water accumulating daily at the peaks, researchers estimate, could fill 60
Olympic-sized swimming pools. What we‘re seeing could be a trace of a past Martian climate. It could be
related to atmospheric climate processes that were operating earlier in Martian history, maybe millions of
years ago.
Astronomers spotted the frost when analysing roughly 30,000 high-resolution colour images of Mars
captured by the European Space Agency‘s (ESA) Trace Gas Orbiter. The international team confirmed
the pictures were indeed of frozen water—not of carbon dioxide, which can appear similar—by
calculating that the volcanoes‘ temperature was too hot for carbon dioxide to freeze. Researchers
already knew the planet‘s northern and southern polar ice caps hosted water ice, and the new finding
adds another site to the map of Mars‘ water. This is quite exciting, because it tells you how dynamic
Mars‘ water system is, but also how water can be found in different amounts basically everywhere on
Mars. Scientists previously thought Mars‘ equator was too hot—and its atmosphere there too thin—to
support frozen ice. But the finding of frost is evidence of a more nuanced water cycle, one made possible
by a microclimate atop volcanoes. There, mountain winds carry moist air into craters called calderas that
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

are, during certain seasons, cool enough for condensation to occur. This process is ―decidedly Earth-
like‖.
The discovery was made with a combination of intention and luck. Most other Mars orbiters are
synchronised with the sun, which means they don‘t observe the planet‘s equator until the afternoon,
when the frost has already melted away. Mars also has only a narrow, seasonal window when frost can
form. The researchers were looking for frost in other equatorial regions for a different project and were
surprised when they found it on volcanoes‘ peaks. As space agencies look toward sending humans to
Mars, discoveries of water are crucial, experts say.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
news/astronomers-discover-water-frost-on-mars-tallest-volcanoes-180984518/]000

23. What is the primary purpose of this passage?

(a) To discuss the recent discovery of morning frost on Mars' volcanoes and its implications.
(b) To argue for the necessity of further exploration of Mars' Tharsis region.
(c) To compare the climates of Earth and Mars and their similarities.
(d) To present the technological advancements of the ESA‘s Trace Gas Orbiter in planetary research.

24. What is the tone conveyed by the speaker when they state: "This is quite exciting, because it tells you
how dynamic Mars‘ water system is..."?
(a) Enthusiastic (b) Skeptical
(c) Indifferent (d) Concerned

25. In the line, "providing the latest evidence of water on Mars and the first sighting of water at the planet‘s
equator," the word ‗evidence‘ refers to being:
(a) Conclusive (b) Indicative
(c) Hypothetical (d) Anomalous

26. How was the research team impacted by their discovery of frost on Mars‘ volcanoes?
(a) They gained insights into Mars' historical climate processes.
(b) They shifted their focus to studying Mars' polar ice caps.
(c) They discovered new technological flaws in the ESA‘s Trace Gas Orbiter.
(d) They reconsidered the feasibility of human colonization of Mars.

27. What does the researcher mean when they say, "Mars‘ equator was too hot—and its atmosphere there
too thin—to support frozen ice"?
(a) Mars has extreme weather conditions compared to Earth.
(b) Mars' atmospheric conditions vary significantly across different regions.
(c) Mars' equatorial regions were previously thought incapable of retaining ice.
(d) Mars has never had water ice in its equatorial regions before.

28. Which skill does the researcher display with the statement, "the amount of water accumulating daily at
the peaks, researchers estimate, could fill 60 Olympic-sized swimming pools"?
(a) Quantification (b) Simplification
(c) Exaggeration (d) Speculation

29. Which of these options best describes the expression "adding another site to the map of Mars‘ water"?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Discovering a new potential habitat for life.

(b) Confirming the presence of life-sustaining resources.
(c) Highlighting areas with potential for human settlement.
(d) Expanding the known locations of water on Mars.

30. Which of the following is the least likely inference to be drawn from the given passage?
(a) The presence of frost on Mars' volcanoes indicates a dynamic water system.
(b) Early morning frost may suggest past climatic conditions on Mars.
(c) The discovery necessitates immediate human exploration of Mars.
(d) The ESA‘s Trace Gas Orbiter plays a crucial role in Martian research.

31. What does the phrase 'dynamic water system' refer to, in the text?
(a) The constant movement and changes in Mars' water presence.
(b) The sporadic appearance of water in different forms.
(c) The influence of volcanic activity on water distribution.
(d) The potential for life-sustaining water cycles.

32. What is the researchers' opinion on the significance of frost discovery as per the text?
(a) It highlights the potential for human survival on Mars.
(b) It suggests the possibility of a thicker Martian atmosphere in the past.
(c) It opens up new avenues for understanding Mars‘ geological history.
(d) It indicates the need for advanced technological instruments for Mars exploration.

V. You wait decades for such an occasion and this happens. Scotland had cause to wonder whether the
fevered level of anticipation that surrounded their involvement in Euro 2024 was remotely worth the
bother. Fans from Munich to Mossblown watched through cracks in their fingers. From outside the
ground, the Aberdeen chairman was bemoaning ―the worst organisation I have ever seen‖. This required
a rethink after what took place in the first half. The situation is now so stark that there must be serious
questions over whether Steve Clarke can rally a demoralised squad to the point where they can do what
is surely necessary and defeat Switzerland. Scotland had not played in a tournament outside the UK
since 1998. They had not featured in a European Championship abroad since 1992. What transpired in
Munich served as a painful reminder of what happens when you are well short of your best against a
world-class team. The Swiss and Hungarians will be rubbing their hands. The highlight of the evening for
anyone of Scottish persuasion came 20 minutes before kick-off. Men, women and children – of all
shapes, sizes and ages – leapt about in celebration. Scotland were back.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
capitulation-to-germany

33. The sense of despondency among Scottish fans can be attributed to:
1. The quality of the opposing team.
2. The anticipation and buildup leading to the event.
3. Organizational issues at the event.
4. The performance of the Scottish team.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (4) (b) (1) and (2)
(c) (2) and (3) (d) (3) and (4)
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

34. A significant challenge for the Scottish team during Euro 2024 was:
(a) Lack of sufficient support from fans.
(b) The overwhelming strength of their opponents.
(c) Inadequate preparation time.
(d) The absence of key players due to injuries.

35. In the context of the passage, "outside the ground" refers to:
(a) The location of the fans during the match.
(b) The position of the opposing team's supporters.
(c) The external environment affecting the event.
(d) The perspective of a non-participating observer.

36. Statement 1: The anticipation for Scotland's involvement in Euro 2024 was extremely high.
Statement 2: Scotland had a flawless organizational setup for the event.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. The use of the term "rally a demoralised squad" implies that Steve Clarke must:
(a) Introduce new players to replace the current squad.
(b) Motivate a team that has lost confidence.
(c) Seek external help for better training techniques.
(d) Focus on improving the physical fitness of the team.

38. In which of the following sentences is the word 'stark' employed in a manner that mirrors its use in the
passage?
(a) The stark landscape was devoid of any life or colour.
(b) The room had a stark contrast of light and shadow.
(c) The starkness of his warning left no room for doubt.
(d) She faced the stark truth of her situation with bravery.

39. In the sentence ―organizational shortcomings during the event in Munich‖ which part of speech is
―organizational‖?
(a) Noun (b) Verb
(c) Adjective (d) Adverb

VI. The Bavarian city of Ingolstadt was no stranger to secrets. It wasn‘t in May 1776, anyway, when it
became the birthplace of the Illuminati. Shrouded in shadows, this secret society convened for close to
10 years, circulating its ideas without censure or condemnation. It wasn‘t until 1785 that its activities
were banned, as an active conspiracy against the state of Bavaria.
The Illuminati and other secret societies inspire our imaginations, both for better and for worse. There‘s
something about them that‘s irresistibly intriguing. But why? What are they, actually, and what do they
do? What makes them so fascinating, both for insiders and for outsiders looking in? In the simplest
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

sense of the term, a secret society is any organization that maintains a measure of secrecy, whether it
conceals its aims, its activities, its membership, or any other aspect of its operations. In fact, though the
specific definition of the term is still disputed, descriptions of secret societies tend to stress the sharing of
secret knowledge and the administration of secret rites, rituals, and initiations, meant to set members
and non-members apart. Those who know the secret are the insiders, ‗us.‘ Those who do not know the
secret are the outsiders, ‗them‘.
Though the majority of modern secret societies fulfill a social function — fostering friendships, creating
communities, circulating ideas, and carrying out charitable services — there are many other types of
secret societies, too. Some secret societies safeguard religious secrets and trade skills. Others promote
particular political aims, reactionary as well as revolutionary. Others still fulfill several simultaneous
functions, all at once, and all from the shadows. The driving forces of secret societies are so diverse that
some scholars include the Mafia among them, as a criminally oriented organization, thanks to its oaths of
silence and specific requirements for inclusion.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
illuminati-and-other-secret-societies-are-so-intriguing

40. Based on the historical context provided, what could be a potential consequence for societal stability if
secret societies are allowed to operate unchecked?
(a) Increased public trust in government
(b) No impact on societal stability
(c) Heightened suspicion and paranoia among the populace
(d) Enhanced cooperation among different social groups

41. In what ways might secret societies contribute to the evolution of political movements, based on the
passage?
(a) By creating public awareness campaigns
(b) Through open debates and public forums
(c) By fostering clandestine revolutionary activities
(d) By maintaining transparency and accountability

42. What broader implications can be drawn from the activities of secret societies for the overall structure of
societies?
(a) They help establish robust and transparent governance structures
(b) They contribute to the fragmentation and segmentation of societal groups
(c) They ensure equitable distribution of resources and opportunities
(d) They play a significant role in public policy formulation

43. According to the passage, what is the relationship between secret societies and social functions?
(a) They engage in community services
(b) They are mainly dedicated to political upheaval
(c) They primarily focus on criminal activities
(d) They have no major impact on social structures

44. What is the significance of secret rites and initiations in secret societies, as discussed in the passage?
(a) They serve to include everyone in society
(b) They differentiate between members and non-members
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) They are performed publicly to gain followers

(d) They have no real impact on the cohesion of the group

VII. Each day, thousands of animals face one of the most deadly predators in America — a road. More than
4 million miles of public roads across the U.S. provide vital links for commerce, services, and travel, but
they‘re treacherous barriers for wildlife seeking food, water, and mates. Exposed and unsure about the
noisy, unfamiliar terrain presented by an open road, an animal that hesitates or misjudges the speed of
an approaching vehicle risks fatal consequences. Unfortunately, those encounters are all too common
on busy roadways. According to the Federal Highway Administration, there are more than 1 million
wildlife-vehicle collisions (WVCs) every year in the U.S. In addition to the hundreds of thousands of
animals killed and maimed, WVCs also result in hundreds of human fatalities and tens of thousands of
injuries. Collisions are expensive, too, costing more than $8 billion annually in vehicle repairs, medical
costs, and carcass removal.
Roads can also disrupt migratory routes, divide up ecosystems, and inhibit intermingling, confining entire
species to ever-shrinking habitats. A report by the U.S. Department of Transportation found that these
crashes are among the biggest threats to the survival of 21 threatened or endangered animal species,
from reptiles like the desert tortoise to mammals like the San Joaquin kit fox. It‘s not just a direct killing
that is a threat to the persistence of these species. It‘s also habitat fragmentation and having smaller and
isolated populations that may ultimately go extinct.
The word roadkill has been in the American vocabulary since the late 1940s, but it‘s only been in the last
several decades that studies have emerged examining the effect of roads on animals and the
environment. One solution that‘s gaining traction is the wildlife crossing. Built over or under roadways,
crossing structures allow animals to use custom-designed bridges and tunnels to get to the other side
safely.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
earth/organizations-work-to-reduce-animal-deaths-with-relegated-passageways

45. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following sentence from the passage?
―Roads can also disrupt migratory routes, divide up ecosystems, and inhibit intermingling, confining
entire species to ever-shrinking habitats.‖
(a) Roads prevent animals from following their traditional migratory paths.
(b) Ecosystems are fragmented by roads, leading to isolated animal populations.
(c) Roads contribute to the expansion of habitats for various species.
(d) The presence of roads can lead to smaller, isolated animal populations.

46. What does the term ‗exposed and unsure‘ imply in the first paragraph?
(a) Animals are fully aware of the dangers of the roads.
(b) Animals are hesitant and unfamiliar with the risks of crossing roads.
(c) Animals have adapted to crossing roads with confidence.
(d) Animals intentionally avoid crossing roads due to known dangers.

47. Why has the writer used the term ―treacherous barriers‖ in the passage?
(a) To highlight the danger and difficulty animals face when crossing roads.
(b) To suggest that roads are a safe passageway for animals.
(c) To indicate that roads are beneficial for animal movement.
(d) To imply that roads are minor obstacles for wildlife.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

48. Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the phrase "fatal consequences."
(a) To emphasize the minor injuries animals, sustain on roads.
(b) To illustrate the life-threatening risks animals, face due to road crossings.
(c) To describe the inconvenience caused to drivers by animals on roads.
(d) To suggest that animals are unharmed by vehicles.

49. How can the relationship between wildlife and roads be characterized as ‗adversarial‘?
(a) Because roads offer abundant resources for wildlife, improving their survival.
(b) Because roads enhance the connectivity of wildlife habitats, promoting biodiversity.
(c) As wildlife benefit from roads by using them as migration pathways.
(d) As roads impose lethal challenges and disrupt the natural habitats of wildlife.

50. What is an example of a solution mentioned in the passage to address wildlife-vehicle collisions?
(a) Installing more road signs to alert drivers of wildlife presence.
(b) Reducing the speed limits on roads near wildlife habitats.
(c) Building wildlife crossings over or under roadways.
(d) Increasing vehicle lighting to prevent collisions at night.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 32
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Some years ago, I sat in a BBC boardroom facing a panel of senior editors interviewing me for a
promotion. After treading water in a junior role for years, I wanted the job more than anything. One of the
editors asked me a question about teamwork but, as I reached for my anecdote and started to speak,
something strange began to happen inside my head. A song started to play on repeat. The wheels on
the bus go round and round, round and round, round and round. I‘d sung the song to my children as
toddlers. But now its cheery tones were an exacting demand. I chanted it in my head – round and round,
round and round – feeling compelled to grind my teeth together in time. I also needed to blink.
I wasn‘t fully aware of doing this extra hidden work as I recounted my story of the late guest and the
impatient presenter: just vaguely conscious that telling it felt really hard, like trying to have an in-depth
conversation in a nightclub. Meanwhile, the tyrannical one-man band in my head kept on going. I was
determined the panel should see none of it. But then I found myself blinking madly and caught the head
of department eyeing me. I was rumbled.
Over the years, my obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has manifested in a panoply of painful and
punitive habits. Scraping my tongue over my teeth, performing complex eye movements, peeling the skin
off my lips until they bleed. It‘s worse when the stakes are high: when I am trying to do something
prestigious, or with someone I want to please. It‘s also bad when I‘m trying merely to exist in the
moment. Also, when I‘m trying to let go and have fun. My OCD is insidious and shape shifting, evading
conscious awareness or control. It seems to have a will of its own. Except that, of course, it is a part of
me.
OCD is only one of the ways in which I work against myself. I am a procrastinator. When writing, I
constantly break my focus by scrolling, and I experience an urge to check email when I want to spend
quality time with my children. I am also an addict. Not a pathological addict, but a normalised everyday
addict. I‘m hooked on screens (though I don‘t own a smartphone) and use alcohol to switch off in the
evenings (though I drink less than the recommended weekly allowance). I‘m addicted to producing and
achieving, too; to ticking things off to-do lists, to busyness, to filling every second – even as I crave time
and space to reflect.
Source: [Link]

1. Based on the passage, which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree with?
(a) "The author‘s struggle with addiction is severe and pathological, requiring immediate medical
intervention."
(b) "The author believes that their addictions are normalized and integrated into their daily life, despite
being less than the recommended limits."
(c) "The author is entirely focused on achieving professional success and has no desire for personal
reflection or time with family."
(d) "The author finds that their procrastination and addiction are only minor inconveniences that do not
significantly impact their productivity."

2. In the sentence "My OCD is insidious and shape-shifting, evading conscious awareness or control,"
which of the following words can best replace the underlined word "evading"?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Eluding (b) Abating

(c) Discerning (d) Accruing

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the information given in the passage?
"OCD is only one of the ways in which I work against myself. I am a procrastinator. When writing, I
constantly break my focus by scrolling, and I experience an urge to check email when I want to spend
quality time with my children."
(a) The author struggles to maintain focus and prioritize tasks.
(b) The author finds it easy to balance personal and professional life.
(c) The author believes that technology is the sole cause of their procrastination.
(d) The author views procrastination as a positive trait.

4. Which of the following can be the next paragraph based on the above passage?
(a) To manage my OCD and other self-sabotaging behaviours, I have sought various forms of therapy,
including cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and mindfulness meditation. These approaches have
provided some relief, but the struggle remains a constant part of my life.
(b) It is in this context that I find solace in my work. Despite the challenges posed by my OCD and other
compulsive behaviours, my professional life offers a structured environment where I can channel my
energy and focus.
(c) My family has been incredibly supportive throughout my struggles. They understand the complexities
of my condition and provide a safe space where I can express my frustrations and fears without
judgment.
(d) Despite my efforts to cope with these issues, I often find myself slipping into old habits. The battle
against OCD and procrastination is ongoing, and I am constantly searching for new strategies to
mitigate their impact on my daily life.

5. Which of the following tones best describes the statement: "I‘m hooked on screens (though I don‘t own a
smartphone) and use alcohol to switch off in the evenings (though I drink less than the recommended
weekly allowance). I‘m addicted to producing and achieving, too; to ticking things off to-do lists, to
busyness, to filling every second – even as I crave time and space to reflect."
(a) Conflicted introspection (b) Detached analysis
(c) Joyful productivity (d) Bitter resentment

6. In the passage, the author describes feeling as though a "tyrannical one-man band" is playing in their
head while they are trying to maintain composure during an interview. Which of the following situations is
most analogous to the author‘s experience?
(a) A student trying to concentrate on a difficult exam while a loud construction crew works outside the
window.
(b) An athlete attempting to perform a complex routine while a coach gives conflicting instructions from
the sidelines.
(c) A musician playing a solo piece while an internal metronome ticks irregularly, causing them to
struggle with timing.
(d) A speaker giving an important presentation while their mind races with thoughts of an upcoming
personal event.

II. The resumption of fishing off India‘s eastern coast including the Palk Bay, after the annual 61-day ban on
fishing, has led to the death of a sailor from the Sri Lanka Navy. The Sri Lankan Navy had carried out an
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

operation on June 25 morning to ―chase away a cluster of Indian poaching trawlers‖ in Sri Lankan waters
off Kankesanthurai, near Jaffna. A trawler-vessel was impounded and 10 fishermen apprehended, of
whom eight were from Tamil Nadu and the rest from Andhra Pradesh. There have also been several
cases of Indian (Tamil Nadu) fishermen dying too. The Tamil Nadu Chief Minister, M.K. Stalin, sought
the intervention of the External Affairs Minister, S. Jaishankar, in releasing the vessel and the men. In his
reply sent to the Chief Minister on Thursday, Mr. Jaishankar said the Indian High Commission had been
seeking the early release of 34 fishermen in judicial remand and six others who were serving sentences.
This is an opportunity for the two countries to revive the negotiation process, exclusively to deal with the
fisheries dispute, which became aggravated in the wake of the 1974 and 1976 bilateral agreements to
demarcate their maritime boundary lines. Mr. Stalin has done well to remind Mr. Jaishankar to convene a
meeting of the Joint Working Group, last held (virtually) over two years ago. The acts of Indian fishermen
crossing the international maritime boundary line are clearly illegal; factors relating to protection of
livelihood opportunities cannot be delinked from the importance of the preservation of the marine
ecosystem. A gradual replacement of bottom trawlers being used by the Tamil Nadu fishermen is a must,
but the fisherfolk require time to prepare for diversification — deep sea fishing, marine cage farming,
seaweed cultivation and processing, and sea ranching. The experiences of the deep sea fishing project,
being executed by the Union and Tamil Nadu governments, are clear enough to conclude that it is a
failure. After nearly seven years of implementation, only 61 deep sea fishing vessels have been handed
over to beneficiaries, with 19 more under construction. It would be thoughtful if the Union government
clubs the project with an all-India programme, where the unit cost of a deep sea fishing vessel is Rs. 40
lakh higher, at least to get a better response even at this stage. The unit cost of a deep sea fishing
vessel under the Central-State project is Rs. 80 lakh. New Delhi and Colombo can devise additional
schemes to help the Northern Province‘s fishermen even more. But what is more important is that the
two countries, representatives of the fishing community and officials from Tamil Nadu and the Northern
Province should meet soon to find a way out of the dispute.
Source: [Link]
lanka/[Link]

7. Which of the following best describes the writing style of the passage?
(a) Analytical and prescriptive (b) Narrative and descriptive
(c) Expository and factual (d) Persuasive and emotive

8. Which of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?
(a) The maritime boundary agreements of 1974 and 1976 have successfully prevented disputes
between India and Sri Lanka.
(b) The current situation presents a unique chance to address the long-standing fisheries dispute
through revived negotiations.
(c) The only solution to the fisheries dispute is the replacement of bottom trawlers used by Tamil Nadu
fishermen.
(d) The deep sea fishing project has been a resounding success in mitigating the fisheries dispute.

9. Which of the following statements best sums up the passage?

(a) The fisheries dispute between India and Sri Lanka has escalated due to the resumption of fishing
after a ban, leading to casualties and the impounding of vessels, necessitating revived diplomatic
negotiations and comprehensive solutions for sustainable fishing practices.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The annual fishing ban off India‘s eastern coast has caused severe economic losses for Tamil Nadu
fishermen, leading to their illegal fishing activities in Sri Lankan waters and subsequent diplomatic
tensions.
(c) The Indian government has failed in implementing the deep sea fishing project effectively, leading to
continued illegal fishing by Tamil Nadu fishermen and strained relations with Sri Lanka.
(d) The Sri Lankan Navy‘s operations against Indian fishermen have led to casualties, and the Indian
government is seeking the release of detained fishermen while planning to replace bottom trawlers
with more sustainable fishing methods.
10. Which of the following statements based on the above passage must be definitely true?
(a) The Tamil Nadu Chief Minister, M.K. Stalin, has requested a meeting of the Joint Working Group to
address the fisheries dispute, highlighting the illegal acts of Indian fishermen and the need for
sustainable fishing practices.
(b) The Sri Lankan Navy has seized Indian fishing vessels and detained fishermen, prompting diplomatic
efforts by India to secure their release and improve the economic conditions of Tamil Nadu
fishermen.
(c) The bilateral agreements of 1974 and 1976 between India and Sri Lanka have directly led to the
escalation of the fisheries dispute, which requires immediate attention and resolution through
renewed negotiations.
(d) The deep sea fishing project has not met its targets, with only a small number of vessels handed
over to beneficiaries, indicating the need for a more effective implementation strategy.

III. Most of our progress in disease treatment and prevention to date has been the product of the linear
process of hit-or-miss efforts to find useful interventions. Because we have lacked tools for
systematically exploring all possible treatments, discoveries under this paradigm have owed a lot to
chance. Likely the most notable chance breakthrough in medicine was the accidental discovery of
penicillin — which opened up the antibiotic revolution and has since saved perhaps as many as 200
million lives. But even when discoveries aren‘t literally accidental it still takes, good fortune for
researchers to achieve breakthroughs with traditional methods. Without the ability to exhaustively
simulate possible drug molecules, researchers have to rely on high-throughput screening and other
painstaking laboratory methods, which are much slower and more inefficient.
To be fair, this approach has brought great benefits. A thousand years ago, European life expectancy at
birth was just in the twenties, since so many people died in infancy or youth from diseases like cholera
and dysentery, which are now easily preventable. By the middle of the nineteenth century, life
expectancy in the United Kingdom and the United States had increased to the forties. As of 2023, it has
risen to over eighty in much of the developed world. So, we have nearly tripled life expectancy in the
past thousand years and doubled it in the past two centuries. This was largely achieved by developing
ways to avoid or kill external pathogens — bacteria and viruses that bring disease from outside our
bodies.
Today, though, most of this low-hanging fruit has been picked. The remaining sources of disease and
disability spring mostly from deep within our own bodies. As cells malfunction and tissues break
down, we get conditions like cancer, atherosclerosis, diabetes, and Alzheimer‘s. To an extent we can
reduce these risks through lifestyle, diet, and supplementation — what I call the first bridge to radical life
extension. But those can only delay the inevitable. This is why life expectancy gains in developed
countries have slowed since roughly the middle of the twentieth century. For example, from 1880 to
1900, life expectancy at birth in the United States increased from about thirty-nine to forty-nine, but from
1980 to 2000 — after the focus of medicine had shifted from infectious disease to chronic and
degenerative disease — it only increased from seventy-four to seventy-six.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Fortunately, during the 2020s we are entering the second bridge: combining artificial intelligence and
biotechnology to defeat these degenerative diseases. We have already progressed beyond using
computers just to organize information about interventions and clinical trials. We are now utilizing AI to
find new drugs, and by the end of this decade, we will be able to start the process of augmenting and
ultimately replacing slow, underpowered human trials with digital simulations. In effect we are in the
process of turning medicine into an information technology, harnessing the exponential progress that
characterizes these technologies to master the software of biology.
One of the earliest and most important examples of this is found in the field of genetics. Since the
completion of the Human Genome Project in 2003, the cost of genome sequencing has followed a
sustained exponential trend, falling on average by around half each year. Despite a brief plateau in
sequencing costs from 2016 to 2018 and slowed progress amid the disruptions of the COVID-19
pandemic, costs continue to fall — and this will likely accelerate again as sophisticated AI plays a greater
role in sequencing. Costs have plunged from about $50,000,000 per genome in 2003 to as low as $399
in early 2023, with one company promising to have $100 tests available by the time you read this.
Source: [Link]

11. Which of the following best summarizes the author's perspective on achieving breakthroughs in
research?
(a) Breakthroughs in research are often the result of meticulous planning and rigorous methodology,
rather than mere luck.
(b) Achieving breakthroughs in research requires both careful planning and a stroke of luck, despite
efforts to minimize reliance on chance.
(c) Breakthroughs in research are primarily the outcome of accidental discoveries, despite efforts to
avoid depending on chance.
(d) The author believes that breakthroughs in research are solely dependent on good fortune, akin to
serendipitous occurrences.

12. The author discusses all of the following aspects regarding genome sequencing trends post the Human
Genome Project, EXCEPT:
(a) The significant reduction in costs per genome since 2003 due to technological advancements and AI
integration.
(b) The impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on the sequencing costs and technological advancements in
the field.
(c) The prediction of genome sequencing costs dropping to as low as $100 per test in the near future.
(d) The ethical considerations and societal implications arising from widespread accessibility to
affordable genome sequencing.
13. Which of the following words is the best antonym of "augmenting" as used in the passage?
(a) Diminishing (b) Fortifying
(c) Magnifying (d) Amplifying

14. What is the overall tone of the passage?

(a) Optimistic and forward-looking (b) Cynical and pessimistic
(c) Neutral and factual (d) Reflective and nostalgic

15. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
(a) The historical evolution of medical discoveries from accidental to systematic, highlighting the
transformative impact of AI and biotechnology in modern medicine.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The limitations of traditional medical research methods and the historical milestones in increasing life
expectancy through disease prevention and treatment.
(c) The exponential progress of genome sequencing costs since the Human Genome Project and its
potential future implications in medical diagnostics and treatments.
(d) The shift in focus from infectious diseases to chronic and degenerative diseases in medical research,
and the promise of AI in revolutionizing drug discovery and clinical trials.

16. Which of the following statements based on the above passage must be definitely true?
(a) Medical advancements have significantly increased life expectancy in developed countries since the
1980s despite the shift from infectious diseases to chronic and degenerative diseases.
(b) Lifestyle changes, diet adjustments, and supplementation can fully prevent chronic and degenerative
diseases like cancer, atherosclerosis, diabetes, and Alzheimer‘s.
(c) The focus of medical research shifted from infectious diseases to chronic and degenerative diseases
around the middle of the twentieth century, leading to slower gains in life expectancy.
(d) The term "low-hanging fruit" in the context of the passage refers to medical discoveries that have had
a substantial impact on increasing life expectancy, particularly in the developed world.

17. Which of the following professions is the author likely from?

(a) Medical Research Scientist specializing in biotechnology and AI integration in disease treatment.
(b) Historian of Medicine focusing on the evolution of medical practices and breakthroughs.
(c) Economist studying the impact of technological advancements on healthcare costs and life
expectancy.
(d) Geneticist involved in genome sequencing advancements and their applications in medical
diagnostics.

IV. You are standing on a boat that is drifting down a placid river. You watch the trees on the shore glide
along. For a moment, it looks like the trees themselves are moving – not your boat. But this, of course, is
mere appearance: the trees are still, and it is your boat that moves. This parallax effect was described by
medieval philosophers, but it may be more familiar in another form: when you‘re sitting on a train slowly
rolling out of the station, it can seem like it is the stationary train next to yours that is departing instead.
A handful of 14th-century scholastic thinkers wondered how this parallax effect came about. What
explains our perceptual error? Let‘s call this the problem of erring. In finding a solution, the medieval
philosophers had to take into account another observation: nonhuman animals err too. According to
scholastic orthodoxy, human and nonhuman animals were alike in being animals. Even so, within this
category, humans occupied a special place: they are the only type of animal that is endowed with an
intellect, a rational soul. They are, in medieval parlance, rational animals.
What happens in the case of erring? Do nonhuman animals err? Together, these two questions posed a
considerable philosophical challenge to William of Ockham (c1287-1347), Adam Wodeham (c1295-
1358) and Gregory of Rimini (c1300-1358). The first question, as we will see, was answered that erring
is an act of the intellect. To the second, the answer was a tentative yes, as empirical observations
suggest. Together, these answers put the medieval philosophers in an awkward position: nonhuman
animals carry out acts of the intellect, yet without having one. Call this the problem of nonhuman erring.
While centuries old, this debate reveals a question that is relevant for today‘s debates on nonhuman
minds. How much are we willing to give up in order to hold on to our basic assumptions? Nonhuman
minds continue to be a source of discord. After all, we simply cannot infer with absolute certainty from
the outside what is going on in the inside of someone else, let alone a nonhuman being.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The above three scholastics bend over backwards to fit the empirical findings of erring animals with the
idea that only humans have an intellect. As such, the medieval debate on erring animals exposes the
underlying structure of many disputes on nonhuman minds. The nonhuman mind perplexes them and
mocks their basic ideas of how the world works – much like it challenges us nowadays.
William of Ockham was born around 1287 in a village in Surrey a day‘s ride from London. In his early
teens, he joined the Franciscan order and subsequently went to the London Greyfriars convent (as the
Franciscan friars were also known). There he was taught grammar, philosophy and theology. Over the
years, as he started to teach these topics himself, criticisms of Ockham mounted and he was even
accused of heresy at the highest ecclesiastical level: the papal court in Avignon (in present-day France).
In 1324, Ockham went to Avignon to defend himself. Then things got worse.
Ockham studied the writings of the pope, John XXII, and came to a remarkable conclusion: the pope
himself was a heretic. This did not go down well in Avignon, and Ockham fled on the night of 26 May
1328, eventually arriving in Munich where he spent the rest of his life until his death in 1347. Despite his
clash with the pope, Ockham proved to be one of the chief figures of medieval philosophy. He played a
pivotal role in kickstarting a movement known as nominalism, whose followers favoured an austere
ontology: not for nothing is the well-known parsimony principle called ‗Ockham‘s Razor‘.
Source: [Link]

18. Which of the following best describes a "placid river"?

(a) A river characterized by its turbulent and unpredictable currents, often challenging to navigate.
(b) A river that flows calmly and peacefully, with gentle and smooth currents.
(c) A river known for its rapid and powerful flow, often used for adventurous water sports.
(d) A river with varying depths and channels, making it ideal for commercial shipping.

19. Which of the following statements based on the above passage must be definitely true?
(a) William of Ockham and his contemporaries concluded that nonhuman animals possess intellects
similar to humans.
(b) The problem of nonhuman erring highlights the challenge medieval philosophers faced in reconciling
animal behaviour with the concept of intellect.
(c) Modern debates on nonhuman minds largely disregard empirical observations in favour of
philosophical assumptions.
(d) The passage argues that inferring the inner mental states of nonhuman beings is impossible without
absolute certainty.

20. Which of the following is the prominent theme in the above passage?
(a) Philosophical debate on the intellect of nonhuman animals.
(b) The parallax effect and its philosophical implications.
(c) Medieval scholasticism and its influence on modern philosophy.
(d) William of Ockham's life and his contributions to philosophy.

21. What led the author to wonder about the parallax effect?
(a) Observing discrepancies in medieval scholastic writings regarding perception and intellect.
(b) Exploring the philosophical implications of perceptual errors like the parallax effect.
(c) Considering the empirical observations of 14th-century scholastic thinkers on animal behaviour.
(d) Questioning the nature of human and nonhuman animal intellect in medieval philosophy.

22. Which of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) William of Ockham's teachings were largely uncontroversial during his lifetime, reflecting widespread
acceptance among his peers.
(b) Ockham's conflicts with the ecclesiastical authorities in Avignon stemmed primarily from his
outspoken advocacy for theological conservatism.
(c) The criticisms of Ockham by his contemporaries were unjustified, driven more by personal rivalries
than by genuine theological disagreements.
(d) Ockham's theological and philosophical views challenged established doctrines, leading to
accusations of heresy and a consequential trial at the papal court.

23. From the options given below, choose one which gives incorrect information about the medieval debate
on erring animals:
(a) The debate among medieval scholastics focused solely on whether nonhuman animals exhibit
behaviours suggesting intellectual activity comparable to humans.
(b) Scholastics such as William of Ockham concluded unanimously that nonhuman animals possess
intellects similar to humans based on empirical observations.
(c) The discussion among scholastics about erring animals reflected broader philosophical challenges
regarding the nature of nonhuman minds.
(d) Medieval philosophers struggled to reconcile empirical evidence of nonhuman animal behaviour with
the theological assertion that only humans possess intellects.

24. Which statement best represents the primary argument made by the author in the passage?
(a) Medieval philosophers faced a profound challenge in reconciling empirical observations of animal
behaviour with the theological assertion that only humans possess intellects, highlighting the
complexity of understanding nonhuman minds.
(b) The parallax effect described by medieval philosophers and its modern analogies illustrate the
philosophical puzzle of perceptual errors and the limitations of human understanding, especially
concerning nonhuman minds.
(c) William of Ockham's philosophical contributions, including his development of nominalism and
'Ockham's Razor,' demonstrate his pivotal role in challenging established theological doctrines
regarding human and nonhuman intellects.
(d) The debate among medieval scholastics on erring animals underscores ongoing disputes about the
nature of nonhuman minds and the difficulty in reconciling empirical evidence with theological beliefs
about intellect.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 33
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. What is life worth? Questioning the value of our existence has the utmost significance, but no response
seems likely to fully satisfy our need for an answer.
First a few preliminaries. Our question could be raised out of despair by people who are struggling just to
survive, in war-torn, enslaved, or environmentally collapsing countries. Or, it could come from a position
of privilege, being asked by those who have the luxury and leisure to ponder it. In addition, our question
may not have arisen at all in early human history, or have ever been asked by those whose socio-cultural
experience is quite different from our own.
Some reflections concerning life on Earth also make our question problematic. For most (perhaps all?)
life-forms, the overriding purpose of existence is to reproduce the species, to be evolutionary self-
replicating machines, serving as links within sustainable ecosystems. Yet one might well ask, ‗But what‘s
the value of all that?‘
There isn‘t any clear, uncontestable answer. Perhaps life, with all its dramas and developments, just
came to be, and so just is, with no higher-order significance. Moreover, when we examine the state of
the globe, it may appear that the planet would be healthier minus certain species, our own among them,
perhaps even at the top of the list. It might be better for the ecosphere, that is, for Homo sapiens – an
apparently failing species bent on plundering the planet and its own self-destruction, consumed by
animosity and fear directed at its own kind – not to exist at all. While humans have transformed the
Earth, there are few reasons to believe that we‘ve made it better overall, or that other organisms have
benefitted from our presence other than parasites and (some would claim) domesticated animals and
other creatures that wouldn‘t exist but for human choices and need-satisfactions. Indeed, the conditions
for the continuance on Earth of most life-forms (including our own) have become increasingly precarious
precisely because of humanity. This is all unfortunately true, and it cannot be neutralised by citing the
noble creative achievements of exemplary people or the love, friendship, and kindness with which many
have treated their fellow humans and other creatures, laudatory though these all are. We might well
consider, then, whether we humans even have the right to ask about the value of existence without
clearing up our mess first. Still, the question ‗What is the value of existence?‘ keeps coming back at us
with an urgency that cannot be denied or diverted.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]

1. What role do humans predominantly play in their interaction with Earth's ecosystems, according to the
passage?
(a) Humans serve mainly as stewards, attempting but often failing to nurture and protect the
environment and its diverse life forms.
(b) Humans are occasionally seen as beneficial to Earth‘s ecosystems, though their overall impact
remains debatable and often negative.
(c) Humans are considered detrimental to the ecosystems, contributing significantly to the precarious
conditions of many life forms.
(d) Humans have a complex impact on Earth‘s ecosystems, which can appear negligible but is often
significantly harmful.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. Which statement best reflects the author‘s view on the purpose of life for most life-forms on Earth?
(a) Life forms primarily enhance their environments, evidencing their intrinsic value.
(b) Life forms exist mainly to fulfill roles within ecosystems, with a focus on reproduction.
(c) Life's philosophical significance supersedes any biological roles, such as reproduction.
(d) Life forms seek higher existential meanings beyond mere reproductive needs.

3. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?

(a) Exemplary human achievements and personal virtues negate the overall negative impact humans
have on the planet.
(b) Humans might be seen as a failing species due to their self-destructive and environmentally harmful
behaviours.
(c) The urgency of questioning the value of existence cannot be overlooked despite the environmental
issues caused by humans.
(d) Humans‘ presence has been beneficial for certain species, including parasites and domesticated
animals.

4. What does the word "precarious" most likely imply in the context of the passage when describing the
state of most life forms on Earth?
(a) Dangerous and unclear due to natural evolutionary processes.
(b) Secure and safe, protected from external threats.
(c) Unstable and risky, primarily due to human activities.
(d) Naturally occurring cyclic changes that threaten the stability of ecosystems.

5. Which word is the best synonym for "laudatory" as used in the passage?
(a) Critical (b) Praiseworthy
(c) Suspicious (d) Indifferent

6. Based on the passage, which of the following is evident about the value of human existence?
(a) It is unequivocally positive, supported by human contributions to improving the global environment.
(b) It is a settled issue, with consensus agreeing on the beneficial impact of humans on global
ecosystems.
(c) It is universally acknowledged that humans are essential for the survival of most other life forms on
Earth.
(d) It is debatable, with significant arguments supporting the notion that humans have not improved the
planet.

II. Social Issues

In the past two years alone, Kashmir has seen an unprecedented surge in tourism, attracting more than
57 lakh visitors. While the record-breaking influx has boosted the economy, it is also posing a grave
threat to the fragile environment that is already grappling with the effects of climate change.
The substantial increase in tourist numbers in Kashmir has undeniably spurred economic transformation
in the region, yet it has concurrently presented significant environmental challenges. Based on studies,
tourists earlier did not adversely impact water bodies, glaciers, and forests. However, with tourism now
unregulated and with a significant increase in plastic usage, pollution has become widespread. The
absence of proper waste management exacerbates the issue, resulting in the burning of plastic in
beautiful meadows and mountains.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The unregulated influx of tourists was taking a toll on major tourist destinations in Kashmir such as
Pahalgam, Gulmarg, Yusmarg, Sonamarg, and Doodhpathri. For instance, he said, Pahalgam, also
known as the ―Valley of Shepherds‖, has a carrying capacity of about 5,000 tourists, but it often sees the
number soar to 20,000 as a result of official apathy and mismanagement.
Earlier this month, the CEO of the Tourism Development Authority of Gulmarg, a world-famous winter
tourist destination, issued an advisory to schools in the surrounding areas to avoid visits to Gulmarg on
weekends because of the unregulated influx of tourists. More tourists mean increased pressure on
existing resources and infrastructure. The unregulated influx will exacerbate water scarcity, power crises,
soil erosion, and pollution in the region.
What is more shocking is that much of the garbage is not treated as required by regulations owing to
inadequate facilities, leading to dumping of unprocessed trash at designated sites. Despite repeated
cleanliness drives by the government, tourism stakeholders, and volunteers, heaps of plastic waste
continue to be visible at globally famous tourist destinations in the Valley.
Kashmir is no longer the Kashmir we knew as litter is pervasive. We lack the infrastructure to manage
the influx of tourists, resulting in frequent traffic jams. What used to be a 15-minute commute to the
workplace now takes an hour. If tourism remains unregulated and sustainable practices are not
prioritised, littering might become rampant and people sleeping on footpaths might become a common
sight, especially once train services between Srinagar and the rest of the country begin. The influx of
tourists has exacerbated pollution in Kashmir‘s lakes and rivers, posing a serious threat to the delicate
alpine ecosystem, local biodiversity, and natural habitats.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
tourism-alpine-ecosystem-tourism-waste-environmental-crisis/[Link]

7. What is the primary environmental challenge that has intensified due to the surge in tourism in Kashmir?
(a) Tourism has led to severe traffic issues, contributing indirectly to regional pollution.
(b) Economic gains from tourism are being offset by financial mismanagement due to the sudden tourist
influx.
(c) The growing number of tourists has strained local housing and public services.
(d) The unchecked tourist activities have accelerated the degradation of natural resources and
increased pollution.

8. What inference can be drawn about the effectiveness of cleanliness drives in Kashmir?
(a) These drives have been somewhat successful but not enough to address the scale of pollution
effectively.
(b) Cleanliness initiatives have largely failed to control the visible waste problem in Kashmir.
(c) Government efforts have largely cleaned up tourist spots, reducing visible waste.
(d) Collaborative efforts have led to better waste management practices over time.

9. In the context of the passage, what does the phrase "tourism now unregulated" imply?
(a) Tourism development is occurring without sufficient governmental oversight.
(b) There are no restrictions whatsoever on tourist numbers or activities.
(c) Tourists have complete freedom to access all natural and man-made attractions.
(d) The tourism sector is growing with minimal bureaucratic interference.

10. Which description best captures the author's writing style in the passage?
(a) Fact-based (b) Forceful
(c) Elaborative (d) Storytelling
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

11. Which statement accurately reflects the situation in Kashmir as described in the passage?
(a) Economic benefits from tourism are substantial enough to mitigate any environmental drawbacks.
(b) The high tourist volume has led to significant transportation and economic challenges.
(c) Unchecked tourist influx is severely harming Kashmir's environment and natural resources.
(d) Government and stakeholder efforts have effectively mitigated waste management issues.
12. Give a synonym of ‗apathy‘ highlighted in bold in the passage.
(a) Diversified (b) Stoic
(c) Emotional (d) Abnormal

III. Workplace
Relationships are vital to our well-being and a life well-lived. Multiple longitudinal studies have shown the
central role human connection plays in our health, happiness, and resilience. That‘s not just true of our
partners, friends, and families either. Relationships are also a key driver of fulfilment at work.
One way we can build and reinforce relationships is through recognition. Just imagine how uplifting it
feels to have a partner appreciate your sense of humour or a supervisor offer praise for a job well done,
and, of course, thankfulness can be as pleasant to give as to receive. In fact, simply witnessing people
express gratitude makes those people more appealing to be around.
This is a universal trait. One of the things that I‘ve learned building a global company is that people all
around the world are craving recognition. They want to be recognized for what they do. They want to
know they count; they want to know they‘re appreciated. But as is often the case, this psychological high
is double-edged, and our innate drive for recognition makes it as powerful a manipulator as a motivator.
That reality can lead us to unhealthy personal choices, and on a large enough scale, injurious workplace
cultures.
Recognition is praise for results and performance. In the workplace, it often means an economic
appraisal of one‘s worth to the company that can be measured and charted on a graph. The outcome:
the attaboys and attagirls received for staying late to reach a deadline or working soul-crushing hours to
nail that performance review. Conversely, appreciation acknowledges a person‘s inherent value. It
doesn‘t consider someone‘s worth to the company coffers but admires what that person brings to the
culture and community.
In simple terms, recognition is about what people do; appreciation is about who they are. Performance-
based recognition leads to many problems, but we‘ll focus on two here: Conditionality and scarcity. It‘s
scarce because there are only so many bonuses and opportunities to go around. It‘s conditional because
such recognition stems from past circumstances, and future recognition can only be achieved by bringing
more to the company. The result is a productivity arms race with coworkers and past accomplishments,
an ever-escalating bid to increase one‘s value and earn that sweet hit of dopamine-laced approval.
Of course, recognition can encompass a sense of appreciation, too. Note how Novak tied them together
in his quote above. But when supervisors don‘t recognize the distinction and allocate both effectively,
workplace cultures can fall prey to bottom-line thinking and focus their efforts on praising results alone.
This formula leads relationships at work to the dark side because it sees recognition as a tool of
exploitation. People become a means to an end — that end being sales, performance, and so on —
rather than an end themselves.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
workplace-recognition/

13. Which of the following best describes the author's stance regarding recognition in the workplace?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The author views recognition as a crucial yet often mishandled aspect that can enhance or damage
workplace culture depending on its implementation.
(b) Recognition is seen as universally positive, significantly boosting productivity and employee
satisfaction across all contexts.
(c) The author believes that recognition should be solely based on economic performance to drive a
company‘s profitability and efficiency.
(d) Workplace recognition is considered irrelevant and outdated, with modern management practices no
longer valuing such approaches.

14. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

(a) Recognition in the workplace is a straightforward, always positive influence on employee relations.
(b) Appreciation is considered less important than recognition in maintaining a positive workplace
culture.
(c) Economic evaluations are the least influential type of recognition in most global companies.
(d) Recognition can be a powerful motivator, but also a manipulator, leading to potential misuse and
negative consequences.

15. Which of the following idioms best represents the concept of "productivity arms race" as described in the
passage?
(a) "Cutting corners" (b) "Rat race"
(c) "Running in circles" (d) "Keeping up with the Joneses"

16. Which title best encapsulates the main themes of the passage?
(a) The Hidden Risks of Emphasizing Workplace Recognition Exclusively
(b) Strategies for Enhancing Workplace Culture through Balanced Recognition
(c) Exploring the Economic and Cultural Impacts of Workplace Recognition
(d) Appreciation Versus Recognition: Understanding Their Distinct Roles

17. What can be concluded about the potential risks of performance-based recognition according to the
passage?
(a) It fosters a competitive environment that may seem to boost morale and productivity but often does
not sustain long-term engagement.
(b) Performance-based recognition can lead to a productivity arms race, encouraging unhealthy
competition and focusing on short-term gains.
(c) There are minimal risks associated with performance-based recognition as its benefits are seen as
universally advantageous.
(d) The potential risks are often overstated and do not significantly undermine the overall benefits of
recognition practices.

18. According to the passage, what is a fundamental difference between recognition and appreciation in the
workplace?
(a) Recognition typically aligns with quantifiable achievements and fiscal rewards, while appreciation
values personal traits and overall contributions to workplace ethos.
(b) Appreciation is primarily tied to financial incentives, in contrast to recognition, which aims at fostering
individual development and morale.
(c) Recognition and appreciation serve similar roles, offering minimal variation in their effect on
corporate culture and employee motivation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Appreciation tends to require more organizational resources and effort due to its broader scope
compared to the more frequent practice of recognition.

IV. Artificial Intelligence

Amazon received critical headlines this year when reports questioned the ―Just Walk Out‖ technology
installed at many of its physical grocery stores. The AI-powered system enables customers at many of its
Amazon Fresh and Amazon Go shops to simply pick their items, and then leave. The AI uses lots of
sensors to work out what you have chosen. You then get automatically billed. However, back in April it
was widely reported that rather than solely using AI, Just Walk Out needed around 1,000 workers in
India to manually check almost three quarters of the transactions.
Amazon was quick to claim that the reports were ―erroneous‖, and that staff in India were not reviewing
video footage from all the shops. Instead it said that the Indian workers were simply reviewing the
system. Amazon added that ―this is no different than any other AI system that places a high value on
accuracy, where human reviewers are common‖. Whatever the exact details of the Amazon case, it is a
high-profile example of a new and growing question – whether companies are making over-inflated
claims about their use of AI. It is a phenomenon that has been dubbed ―AI washing‖ in reference to the
environmental "green washing".
But first, a reminder of what exactly AI means. While there is no exact definition, AI allows computers to
learn and solve problems. AI is able to do this after first being trained on huge amounts of information.
The specific type of AI that has made all the headlines over the past few years is so-called "generative
AI". This is AI that specialises in creating new content, be it having text conversations, or producing
music or images.
When it comes to AI washing, there are several types. Some companies claim to use AI when they're
actually using less-sophisticated computing, while others overstate the efficacy of their AI over existing
techniques, or suggest that their AI solutions are fully operational when they are not. Meanwhile, other
firms are simply bolting an AI chatbot onto their existing non-AI operating software. While only 10% of
tech start-ups mentioned using AI in their pitches in 2022, this rose to more than a quarter in 2023,
according to OpenOcean, a UK and Finland-based investment fund for new tech firms. It expects that
figure to be more than a third this year. Competition for funding and the desire to appear on the cutting
edge have pushed some such companies to overstate their AI capabilities. Some founders seem to
believe that if they don‘t mention AI in their pitch, this may put them at a disadvantage, regardless of the
role it plays in their solution.
Source:” Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

19. What does the term "AI washing" imply in the context of the passage?
(a) Companies enhancing their products exclusively with AI technology to increase efficiency.
(b) Firms misrepresenting their use of AI technology to appear more innovative than they are.
(c) Start-ups fully integrating AI into their systems for better customer interaction.
(d) Businesses updating their technology with AI to meet modern environmental standards.

20. What is the main idea conveyed in the passage regarding the use of AI in business?
(a) AI technology has been seamlessly integrated into all sectors of business, enhancing operational
efficiency.
(b) The development of AI technology has peaked, and companies are now focusing on other areas of
innovation.
(c) AI is now a mandatory component of any tech start-up's pitch to guarantee investment from large
funds.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) There is a growing trend of companies inaccurately portraying their use of AI to attract investment
and appear innovative.

21. According to the passage, what role do human reviewers play in Amazon's "Just Walk Out" technology?
(a) They are crucial for correcting errors in almost all transactions processed by the AI.
(b) Their involvement is limited to occasional checks to ensure the AI functions as intended.
(c) They manually review a significant percentage of transactions due to AI inaccuracies.
(d) Amazon employs them to solely handle transactions during system downtimes.

22. Evaluate the impact of AI on the credibility of tech companies, based on the passage's content.
(a) The misrepresentation of AI capabilities, known as "AI washing," has potentially damaged the
credibility of some tech companies.
(b) AI has significantly boosted the credibility of tech companies by demonstrating advanced
technological capabilities.
(c) AI has had no discernible impact on the credibility of tech companies, as its applications are still not
widespread.
(d) AI usage has universally increased the financial stability of tech companies, enhancing their market
credibility.

23. What conclusion can be drawn about the trend of mentioning AI in tech start-up pitches?
(a) As AI technology matures, its mention in start-up pitches has diminished in frequency.
(b) Start-ups frequently highlight AI in pitches to seem innovative and secure more investment.
(c) Claims of AI integration in start-up pitches are typically backed by significant application.
(d) Concerns over regulatory backlash make start-ups wary of overstating AI capabilities.

24. In one word, how does the passage describe the phenomenon where companies overstate their use of
AI?
(a) Innovation (b) Exaggeration
(c) Revolution (d) Enhancement
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Mock - 34
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Ugh. Here you are, just trying to eat your BLT in peace, and someone at your table starts going on about
being a vegan. Your eyes roll as your blood pressure rises. You wish they would just shut up.
It‘s not that you don‘t care about animal suffering. In other contexts, you actually care quite a bit – you
would definitely do something if you thought a neighbour was mistreating their dog. You‘re a good
person – an animal lover even! But it‘s hard to care that much about the ethics of meat-eating when
these vegan types are just so preachy and annoying.
This is, we suspect, a very common experience. When we‘re told that something we see as ordinary –
like eating meat – is actually wrong, our first reaction is to get irritated and dismissive. If it‘s not about
bacon, it‘s about plastic straws. Or a phrase we‘ve been using for years but is now considered offensive.
Or having to share your pronouns.
This is nothing new. In the 1990s, nascent attempts to combat casual forms of sexism, racism and
homophobia – such as calls to end so-called ‗ethnic parties‘ on university campuses, or efforts to use the
term ‗survivor‘ instead of ‗victim‘ when referring to people who have been sexually assaulted – were also
seen as preachy and annoying, and were often derided as ‗political correctness‘ run amok. Women
complaining about sexual harassment in the workplace used to be met with a similar reaction. For
instance, a 1975 article in The New York Times reported that such women were told by their employers
that they were being prudish and couldn‘t take a joke. A 1980 article about new federal guidelines on
workplace sexual harassment quotes ‗an indignant personnel vice president‘ complaining that these
regulations would cause men to ‗be afraid to speak to a woman in the office without first speaking to a
lawyer.‘
What is happening here? Why, rather than taking the moral concerns behind social reforms seriously, do
we so often respond with this kind of petulant, knee-jerk defensiveness? It‘s not that we don‘t care about
right and wrong. But cases like these can feel like a far cry from the sort of moral issues that we‘re
inclined to take seriously – you know, like murder and human rights.
Today, these reactions land a bit differently. Most would agree that, even if those activities were once
common, they were never OK. That we no longer consider them acceptable is actually a form of moral
progress. It‘s good that we take sexual harassment in the workplace more seriously than we used to! It‘s
a step forward that we no longer find casual homophobia funny, and that we try to be more considerate
when we talk about sexual violence. ‗Ethnic parties‘, it turns out, were always stupid and offensive. This
all might seem obvious now, but many people at the time probably weren‘t expecting things to turn out
this way. They listened to their guts, and their guts said ‗Ugh.‘
Source: [Link]

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate synonym for the word "preachy" as used in the passage?
(a) Didactic (b) Sermonizing
(c) Pedantic (d) Moralistic

2. Which of the following statements based on the above passage must be definitely true?
(a) Efforts to address sexism, racism, and homophobia in the 1990s were universally accepted and
praised.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Women complaining about sexual harassment in the workplace in the 1970s were often dismissed
and not taken seriously.
(c) The term 'victim' was preferred over 'survivor' when referring to people who have been sexually
assaulted, due to its positive connotations.
(d) New federal guidelines on workplace sexual harassment in the 1980s were unanimously supported
by all personnel vice presidents.

3. Based on the information provided, which statement can be inferred as the conclusion of the passage?
(a) The initial resistance to social reforms often transforms into acceptance and recognition of their
moral importance over time.
(b) The ethical arguments made by vegans and other social reformers are inherently flawed and
preachy.
(c) People only care about moral issues when they are directly affected by them.
(d) Preachy behaviour is a more significant obstacle to social reforms than the moral issues themselves.

4. Based on the information provided, which of the following professions is the author most likely from?
(a) Sociologist (b) Journalist
(c) Historian (d) Psychologist

5. What is the overall tone of the passage?

(a) Sarcastically frustrated (b) Genuinely concerned
(c) Indifferently amused (d) Deeply sympathetic

II. First a few preliminaries. Our question could be raised out of despair by people who are struggling just to
survive, in war-torn, enslaved, or environmentally collapsing countries. Or, it could come from a position
of privilege, being asked by those who have the luxury and leisure to ponder it. In addition, our question
may not have arisen at all in early human history, or have ever been asked by those whose sociocultural
experience is quite different from our own.
Some reflections concerning life on Earth also make our question problematic. For most (perhaps all?)
life-forms, the overriding purpose of existence is to reproduce the species, to be evolutionary self-
replicating machines, serving as links within sustainable ecosystems. Yet one might well ask, ‗But what‘s
the value of all that?‘
There isn‘t any clear, uncontestable answer. Perhaps life, with all its dramas and developments, just
came to be, and so just is, with no higher-order significance. Moreover, when we examine the state of
the globe, it may appear that the planet would be healthier minus certain species, our own among them,
perhaps even at the top of the list. It might be better for the ecosphere, that is, for Homo sapiens – an
apparently failing species bent on plundering the planet and its own self-destruction, consumed by
animosity and fear directed at its own kind – not to exist at all. While humans have transformed the
Earth, there are few reasons to believe that we‘ve made it better overall, or that other organisms have
benefitted from our presence other than parasites and (some would claim) domesticated animals and
other creatures that wouldn‘t exist but for human choices and need-satisfactions. Indeed, the conditions
for the continuance on Earth of most life-forms (including our own) have become increasingly precarious
precisely because of humanity. This is all unfortunately true, and it cannot be neutralized by citing the
noble creative achievements of exemplary people or the love, friendship, and kindness with which many
have treated their fellow humans and other creatures, laudatory though these all are. We might well
consider, then, whether we humans even have the right to ask about the value of existence without
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

clearing up our mess first. Still, the question ‗What is the value of existence?‘ keeps coming back at us
with an urgency that cannot be denied or diverted.
Many would answer that the value of existence is inestimable, and would perhaps regard questioning
that as peculiar, or as too silly to take seriously. They might say, life is good pretty much by definition,
because ‗good‘ implies life-enhancing or conducive to human flourishing. Others probably never think
about the question because (as noted earlier) they‘re simply too busy managing to survive, or getting on
with their lives as best they can, or actively enjoying life. But the question undeniably strikes others as
intellectually intriguing and important. For some, it may even give immediate voice to an anguished
consideration of life or death, for existence may be evaluated anywhere between the extremes of being a
total burden and a highly desirable good. Whichever group one belongs to, querying the value of
existence has weighty implications that ripple outwards to embrace a wide range of concerns, from the
meaning of life, to suicide, abortion, euthanasia, capital punishment, even animal rights.
Sigmund Freud oddly claims, in a letter to author and fellow psychoanalyst Marie Bonaparte (13 August
1937), that to query the meaning or value of life is a sure sign of pathological disturbance – in spite of the
fact that the state of the world then, as now (let alone the state of our own lives) might be thought to
actually force the question upon us. In any event, more modern, enlightened, less claustrophobic
thinking yields a different assessment – for example: ―Experiencing an existential crisis does not
automatically mean that a person has a mental health issue. In fact, it can be a very positive thing.
Questioning one‘s life and purpose is healthy. It can help provide direction and lead to better fulfilment in
oneself‖
Source: [Link]

6. Based on the author‘s arguments, which of the following must necessarily be true?
(a) The existence of Homo sapiens is detrimental to the planet's health.
(b) The planet's ecosphere can only thrive without Homo sapiens.
(c) Homo sapiens is a failing species consumed by animosity and fear.
(d) Life has no higher-order significance.

7. If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following must be correct?
(a) Human activities have made the survival of many life-forms, including humans, increasingly
uncertain.
(b) The existence of parasites and domesticated animals is solely due to human influence.
(c) Humanity's creative achievements and relationships cannot outweigh the environmental damage
caused.
(d) No life-forms have benefitted from human presence other than parasites and domesticated animals.

8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is characteristic of the belief that life is
inherently valuable?
(a) The belief that the value of life is inestimable and questioning it is seen as peculiar or silly.
(b) The belief that the value of life is based on a rational analysis of human flourishing.
(c) The belief that the value of life is an objective truth independent of human perception.
(d) The belief that the value of life requires critical skepticism and ongoing questioning.

9. Which of the following is the most appropriate synonym for the word "precarious" as used in the
passage?
(a) Unstable (b) Indeterminate
(c) Impermanent (d) Perilous
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

10. Which of the following statements based on the above passage must be definitely true? EXCEPT:
(a) Questioning the value of life is considered a sign of mental health issues according to Freud.
(b) Experiencing an existential crisis is universally regarded as indicative of a mental health disorder.
(c) Modern thinking suggests that questioning life‘s meaning can be a positive and healthy experience.
(d) Freud believed that the state of the world might compel individuals to question the value of life.

11. Which of the following, if true, can be added as the next paragraph?
(a) The benefits of experiencing an existential crisis are well-documented in psychological research and
provide evidence of its positive effects on mental health.
(b) Freud‘s view on existential crises has been largely discredited by contemporary psychoanalysts who
now view such crises as indicators of serious psychological disorders.
(c) Historical figures such as Nietzsche and Kierkegaard have extensively discussed existential crises,
often linking them to philosophical and psychological insights rather than mental health issues.
(d) Existential crises have been shown to lead to increased anxiety and depression in individuals,
suggesting that Freud's concerns may be justified.

12. Which of the following best signifies the writing style of the passage?
(a) Analytical and contemplative (b) Persuasive and argumentative
(c) Descriptive and narrative (d) Technical and precise

III. Happiness is as ambiguous and difficult-to-define as it is sought after. Still, we can probably say without
undue controversy that happiness must at least include – while by no means being reducible to – a felt
response on the part of a sentient being to perceived good things in that being‘s life. So happiness is
always about life and is never defined merely in terms of momentary fragments of joy taken in isolation,
but in terms of the many good aspects of life which are themselves each complex and comprised of
many parts. Let us call them ‗wholes‘. By life‘s ‗wholes‘, I mean events and developing processes rather
than static entities. Such wholes are events and ever-developing processes rather than static entities
that include as constituents, in addition to the lived present, the lived past as well as the to-be-lived
future. For that matter they also incorporate the events of countless other lives that taken together
comprise a kind of ‗community of events‘. Life in this sense of inextricably bound, temporally-stretched
(past, present, future-encompassing) events, is no more a mere succession of moments than a
symphony is a mere succession of notes. These past, present, and future-comprised life event wholes
are the concrete stuff of experience. Contrary to much contemporary thought, it is isolated present
moments that are abstract (tract – pull; abs – apart) – abstracted from the concrete (crete – grown; con –
together) wholes that constitute actual experience for the purposes of philosophical inquiry, much as
isolated organs can be abstracted from a whole organism for the purposes of biological inquiry.
Abstraction is always a matter of pulling apart what are in experiential fact found grown together – of
reflectively or mentally separating what are in actual fact inseparable. While this may aid inquiry if only by
guiding its focus, one should not lose sight of the violence it inflicts upon the concrete fact.
A rigorously articulated expression of the predominant contemporary position on this topic can be found
in a recent article published by the Institute of Art and Ideas from philosophy teacher Steven Campbell-
Harris called ‗The Present is All there is to Happiness‘ (my italics, to emphasize its direct opposition to
my position). First I‘d like to note the considerable extent to which I agree with Campbell-Harris. As he
points out, the hard distinction psychologists often draw between happiness as a judgment made about
one‘s sense of satisfaction (or lack thereof) with one‘s life taken as a whole, and happiness as an
immediate emotional response to the present moment, is a dubious one. As he frames it, ―life
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

satisfaction, properly considered, is not separate from emotional well-being but a part of it.‖ Moreover,
he‘s right to point out that the assumed separation between lived experience and recorded memory,
which might be taken to undergird the distinction between immediate emotional well-being and overall
life satisfaction, is similarly tenuous. Memory enters into much if not all of what we call ‗present
experience‘, such that they can‘t be separated. This inseparable marriage is beautifully illustrated by
Marcel Proust, author of In Search of Lost Time who waxes poetic about it in his oft-cited ‗madeleine
episode‘. While enjoying one of those petite sponge cakes over tea he suddenly re-inhabits his childhood
self, who many years before had enjoyed those morsels given to him by his aunt on Sunday mornings
before mass.
Source:[Link]

13. Which of the following statements best aligns with the author's conceptualization of happiness as
described in the passage?
(a) Happiness is fleeting (b) Happiness is static
(c) Happiness is a complex whole (d) Happiness is momentary

14. Based on the passage, which of the following statements accurately reflects the author's distinction
between isolated moments and the "wholes" of experience in philosophical inquiry?
(a) Isolated moments are comprehensive and concrete
(b) Isolated moments are abstract and isolated from the concrete wholes
(c) Wholes are abstract and temporary
(d) Wholes are isolated and momentary

15. Based on the passage, with which of the following does the author primarily agree regarding the
distinction between types of happiness?
(a) The concept of happiness as a holistic judgment about one‘s overall life satisfaction is fundamentally
sound and should be distinguished from transient emotional responses to immediate experiences.
(b) The immediate emotional response to the present moment is the most valid measure of happiness,
overshadowing any judgment made about overall life satisfaction.
(c) The hard distinction drawn by psychologists between happiness as a judgment of overall life
satisfaction and happiness as an immediate emotional response is questionable and may not
accurately reflect the nature of happiness.
(d) Both the traditional view of happiness as a life satisfaction judgment and the modern view of
happiness as an immediate emotional response are equally valid and should be considered together
without any critical evaluation of their distinction.

16. According to the passage, how does Marcel Proust's 'madeleine episode' serve as a critique of the
separation between immediate emotional well-being and overall life satisfaction?
(a) The 'madeleine episode' exemplifies how recorded memories can be completely isolated from
present experiences, illustrating that life satisfaction and emotional well-being are distinct entities.
(b) The 'madeleine episode' illustrates the profound integration of memory into present experience,
demonstrating that life satisfaction and emotional well-being are intertwined rather than separate.
(c) The 'madeleine episode' highlights that immediate emotional responses are entirely independent of
past memories, thus reinforcing the distinction between momentary and overall happiness.
(d) The 'madeleine episode' suggests that the distinction between immediate emotional well-being and
overall life satisfaction is valid and supported by examples from literature.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

17. Based on the tone of the passage, which of the following best describes the author's attitude toward the
concept of happiness as presented in the work of Steven Campbell-Harris and Marcel Proust?
(a) Critical Dismissal: The author completely dismisses the contemporary view on happiness and finds it
lacking in validity.
(b) Tentative Acceptance: The author acknowledges some validity in the contemporary view on
happiness but maintains a cautious stance toward it.
(c) Supportive Alignment: The author fully supports the contemporary view on happiness and aligns
closely with its perspective.
(d) Analytical Disagreement: The author examines and questions the contemporary view on happiness,
offering a nuanced critique of its assumptions.

18. Based on the passage, which of the following is the most appropriate synonym for the word "inextricably"
as used in the phrase "Life in this sense of inextricably bound"?
(a) Indivisibly (b) Incongruously
(c) Temporally (d) Ephemerally

IV. A budget is a Union government‘s annual statement of receipts and expenditure. Typically, nothing more
and nothing less. Historically, we have been obsessed with budgets because of the expected annual
changes in taxes, primarily, though not exclusively, indirect taxes. (For those who smoke, cigarettes
invariably vanished before budgets, to resurface with a new price tag). We can complain about the
goods and services tax, which is still a work in progress. Too many rates. Too much differentiation.
Litigation and classification disputes. Not every good or service is part of GST (petroleum and related
products, liquor, tobacco, real estate). An average tax rate lower than whatever was presumed to be the
revenue neutral rate. Notwithstanding these warts and blemishes, there is no denying that GST has
been a phenomenal success compared to the earlier system (for example, paragraph 115 of the budget
speech) and the GST Council is also a remarkable instance of success in Union-state decision-making.
That being the case, indirect taxes get knocked out from the purview of the budget. Those changes will
happen, but outside the budget and through the GST Council. On this count, the budget loses a bit of its
mystique and mystery, as it should. Not all of indirect taxes, at least, not yet. There are import duties.
Most economists (not all) will argue that to be competitive, India needs to reduce basic customs duties.
In an ideal tariff structure, raw materials should have lower duties than intermediates and intermediates
should have lower duties than finished goods. The trouble lies in figuring out what is a raw material, what
is an intermediate, and what is a finished good. To compound the problem, there are most favoured
nation rates applied to all WTO members and special tariffs for countries with which there are regional
trade agreements. Consequently, effective rates of protection get distorted and there is an inverted duty
structure. Of course, the problem exists. Should one attempt to do anything about it in a hurry just
because a budget is at hand? The finance minister has said (para 117 of the budget speech) that a
comprehensive review will be undertaken in the next six months. If we have waited this long, I don‘t think
six months is a big deal. (There are some minor changes in customs duties in the budget.)
However, there are direct taxes too, personal income and corporate. Waiting for the budget speech,
most people have these changes in mind. But there is a big picture story there. We wish to transit to a
simplified system where there are no exemptions and where tax rates do not change from year to year.
Exemptions enrich chartered accountants and lawyers and increase compliance costs. That‘s the reason
why a large number of those who submit income tax returns declare zero taxable income. (Taxing
agricultural income is a state subject.) This is tax avoidance (availing of legitimate exemptions), not tax
evasion. We already have two channels, one with fewer (not zero) exemptions and one with existing
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

exemptions. For both personal income taxes and corporate taxation, I can pick and choose from one of
these channels.
Source: [Link]
lays-down-the-building-blocks-for-the-next-few-budgets/cid/2035831

19. Based on the passage, which of the following conclusions can be most reasonably drawn?
(a) The GST Council has been largely ineffective in harmonizing indirect taxes.
(b) The budget is expected to become less significant due to the GST and its associated reforms.
(c) The transition to a simplified tax system will immediately eliminate all compliance costs.
(d) There will be no future changes in customs duties or indirect taxes beyond what is outlined in the
budget.

20. Based on the passage, which of the following best reflects the author‘s viewpoint on the urgency of
addressing the inverted duty structure and related issues?
(a) Immediate Reforms (b) Hasty Reassessment
(c) Strategic Review (d) Inadvertent Delay

21. Based on the passage, which of the following statements most accurately reflects the challenges
associated with India's tariff structure?
(a) Confusing Classification (b) Tariff Complexity
(c) Disjointed Duties (d) Inconsistent Rates

22. Which of the following words is the most appropriate synonym for "vanished" as used in the passage?
(a) Eclipsed (b) Disappeared
(c) Faded (d) Obliterated

23. Which of the following statements must be definitely true based on the passage?
(a) The budget focuses solely on changes in indirect taxes each year.
(b) The Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been implemented successfully but still faces challenges
with classification and litigation.
(c) The Union government‘s budget includes all goods and services under GST.
(d) The GST Council has no role in decision-making regarding tax rates.

24. Which of the following titles best encapsulates the essence of the passage?
(a) "Evolving Dynamics of Taxation: From Budget Mystique to GST Challenges"
(b) "Comprehensive Analysis of Union Budget Reforms and Direct Taxation"
(c) "The Intersection of GST Implementation and Customs Duties: A Critical Review"
(d) "Navigating Budgetary Changes: The Role of Indirect Taxes and Simplification Efforts"
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 35
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Geologists have raised concerns about potential Chinese censorship and bias in a chatbot being
developed with the backing of the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), one of the world‘s
largest scientific organisations and a UNESCO partner. The GeoGPT chatbot is aimed at geoscientists
and researchers, particularly in the global south, to help them develop their understanding of earth
sciences by drawing on swaths of data and research on billions of years of the planet‘s history. It is an
initiative from Deep-time Digital Earth (DDE), a largely Chinese-funded programme founded in 2019 to
enhance international scientific cooperation and help countries to realise the UN‘s sustainable
development goals.
Part of the underlying AI for GeoGPT is Qwen, a large language model built by the Chinese tech
company Alibaba. One of those who had tested a pre-release version of the chatbot claimed that
GeoGPT had ―serious issues around a lack of transparency, state censorship, and potential copyright
infringement‖. The chatbot also used Meta‘s Llama, another large language model, and that during
testing they had not noticed any state censorship, which they said was ―unlikely‖ given that the system
was ―based entirely in geoscience information‖.
Problems with GeoGPT have been largely solved, but the team will be working to improve the system
even more. It must be stressed that at present GeoGPT has not been released and is not in the public
domain. It was ―blatantly untrue‖ that a system based on geoscience data could be free of sensitive
information.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
geogpt

1. The primary concern raised by geologists about GeoGPT is

(a) potential biases due to its Chinese backing.
(b) the possibility of incomplete geological data.
(c) issues related to its user interface and accessibility.
(d) the high cost of its implementation and use.

2. The reason for the pre-release issues with GeoGPT is likely due to
(a) lack of adequate training data.
(b) insufficient testing and quality assurance processes.
(c) interference from international regulatory bodies.
(d) underlying biases in the AI models used.
3. The writer‘s attitude towards the potential censorship in GeoGPT is
(a) sceptical (b) supportive
(c) indifferent (d) alarmed

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

(a) GeoGPT aims to aid geoscientists in the global south.
(b) The chatbot exclusively uses data from Chinese sources.
(c) GeoGPT is still under development and not yet publicly released.
(d) The underlying AI for GeoGPT includes Meta‘s Llama and Alibaba‘s Qwen.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

5. Statement 1: GeoGPT has faced criticism for transparency and censorship issues.
Statement 2: The issues with GeoGPT have been largely resolved, with ongoing improvements being
made.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. Roughly 2,800 years ago, high in the Himalayas, a man died of malaria. But the site where his remains
were found, located 9,100 feet above sea level, is in a rocky, dry environment that‘s too cold to support
the mosquitoes that spread the disease. It‘s the last place on Earth I would expect to find a malaria
infection. This finding was revealed as part of a new study that illuminates the history of malaria. The
parasite-caused disease is so common—it currently infects 250 million people and kills 600,000 people
each year—that it became deeply intertwined with the development of the human genome.
However, diseases like malaria typically leave no physical trace in ancient remains, making them
challenging to detect. Malaria is ―invisible archaeologically‖. But with new techniques for analyzing
genetic samples, the researchers managed to find very small fragments of the parasitic DNA that had
become embedded into bones and teeth of malaria‘s victims. The team uncovered 36 individuals who
had been infected with malaria across 26 archaeological sites on five continents. Previously, the oldest
physical evidence of the disease came from a blood sample collected in Spain‘s Ebro Delta in 1944. The
new research pushes this date back dramatically, to 5,600 years ago in Germany—the age of the oldest
skeleton in which malaria was detected.
Until now, the only source of information about malaria‘s history prior to the 20th century came from
written records. There are descriptions in Greek and Roman texts that point to the presence of malaria.
But we were able to go back even further than that to show that malaria has been present in Europe for
a very, very long time. The remains of the Nepali man were found near an ancient trade route crossing
the Himalayas. The archaeological site also contains copper objects produced in the lowlands of India,
where mosquitoes and malaria are common. Researchers concluded that the man was infected while
traveling, then he returned home and died later.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
dna-illuminates-the-history-of-malaria-one-of-the-worlds-deadliest-diseases-180984547/

6. Although the researchers successfully identified ancient malaria DNA in bones and teeth, the overall
significance of their discovery was considered to be ___? Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) transformative. (b) trivial.
(c) tentative. (d) traditional.

7. The difficulty in detecting malaria in ancient remains primarily arose because

(a) the disease left no written records.
(b) the ancient parasites could not be preserved.
(c) the symptoms were non-existent.
(d) the physical traces were microscopic and scarce.

8. Identify the sequence of events that led to the revelation of ancient malaria infections.
(1) discovery of malaria DNA in ancient remains
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(2) development of advanced genetic analysis techniques

(3) recognition of the need to study ancient diseases
(4) collection of samples from various archaeological sites
Choose the appropriate option:
(a) (2), (3), (4), (1) (b) (2), (4), (3), (1)
(c) (3), (2), (4), (1) (d) (3), (4), (2), (1)

9. 'Unprecedented discovery' in the context of this passage refers to

(a) the ability to travel across high altitudes in ancient times.
(b) the trade routes connecting various regions in ancient history.
(c) the detection of ancient diseases using modern techniques.
(d) the production of copper objects in lowland India.

10. 'Trade routes' are significant in the passage because

(a) they facilitated the spread of goods and diseases.
(b) they were established long before the discovery of malaria.
(c) they were limited to lowland areas prone to malaria.
(d) they were exclusively used for the exchange of metals.

11. The researchers' success in finding ancient malaria DNA highlights:

(a) their privileged access to state-of-the-art technology.
(b) the failure of earlier archaeological methods.
(c) the necessity of innovation in historical disease detection.
(d) the importance of textual records in verifying ancient diseases.

12. The significance of finding malaria in the remains of the Nepali man indicates:
(a) the resilience of ancient human populations to extreme environments.
(b) the historical extent of human mobility and disease spread.
(c) the early adaptation of humans to cold, high-altitude climates.
(d) the influence of trade on the development of early civilizations.

III. With the INDIA bloc making significant gains against the BJP in Uttar Pradesh in Lok Sabha polls, the
by-elections in 10 assembly seats that have fallen vacant are likely to witness a keen contest, with the
ruling party under pressure to regain its hold. The date for the by-elections has not been announced yet
by the Election Commission. However, the Samajwadi Party (SP) and Congress have announced that
they will contest together under the INDIA bloc. The ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)-led National
Democratic Alliance (NDA) has also begun its preparations, according to their leaders.
The seats fell vacant after nine assembly members including Samajwadi Party chief Akhilesh Yadav
were elected to Lok Sabha, while SP MLA from Sisamau MLA Irfan Solanki of Kanpur was disqualified
after he was sentenced to jail in a criminal case. UP Assembly Special Secretary Brajbhushan Dubey
told PTI that information about the vacancy on 10 seats has been sent to the Election Commission. "As
per the procedure, by-elections can be held on these seats within six months," he said.
Five of these seats were won by the Samajwadi Party in 2022 while one seat was bagged by the
Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD), which was then in alliance with the SP. Three seats were won by the BJP and
one seat went into the account of BJP's ally Nishad Party.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

While the by-election results will be numerically inconsequential for the BJP in the state assembly, where
it has a comfortable majority, they will impact the morale of both sides as any further losses to the BJP
will help the opposition SP and Congress to further cement their gains.
While the SP and the Congress have expressed confidence that they will continue their winning streak,
the BJP is also preparing to do "something special" in the by-elections to increase its "credibility",
according to leaders.
BJP's state media in-charge Manish Dixit told that the "NDA will contest the assembly by-elections with
full strength. There is no pressure anywhere, rather the NDA will fight the assembly by-elections with full
strength. BJP workers are always ready for public service and elections."
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
and-nation/keen-contest-on-cards-in-bypolls-to-10-assembly-seats-in-up/articleshow/[Link]

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) Local political analysis (b) International economic report
(c) Scientific journal (d) Educational policy paper

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________

(a) To advocate for a new political party in Uttar Pradesh.
(b) To inform about the political scenario and upcoming by-elections in Uttar Pradesh.
(c) To persuade voters to support the BJP in the upcoming by-elections.
(d) To critique the performance of the INDIA bloc in recent elections.

15. The passage mentions ―preparations‖ to emphasise _________

(a) The lack of organization within the BJP.
(b) The uncertainty surrounding the by-election dates.
(c) The unimportance of the by-elections for the BJP.
(d) The proactive approach of the BJP in facing the by-elections.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.
(a) "The date for the by-elections has not been announced yet by the Election Commission."
(b) "UP Assembly Special Secretary Brajbhushan Dubey told PTI that information about the vacancy on
10 seats has been sent to the Election Commission."
(c) "The ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)-led National Democratic Alliance (NDA) has also begun its
preparations, according to their leaders."
(d) "As per the procedure, by-elections can be held on these seats within six months."
17. According to the passage, why is the impact of the by-election results on the BJP considered more than
numerical?
(a) It will change the overall number of seats significantly.
(b) It will influence the morale and perception of both parties.
(c) It will determine the leadership of the BJP.
(d) It will finalize the electoral strategy for the next general elections.

18. What does the passage suggest about the response of the BJP to the upcoming by-elections?
(a) The BJP is preparing to make significant efforts to win the by-elections.
(b) The BJP is indifferent to the outcome of the by-elections.
(c) The BJP is planning to boycott the by-elections.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The BJP is confident of an easy victory in the by-elections.

19. The author‘s discussion of the preparations of the BJP is primarily intended to ______
(a) Highlight the BJP‘s confidence in winning the by-elections.
(b) Illustrate the competitive nature of the upcoming by-elections.
(c) Criticize the BJP‘s electoral strategies.
(d) Suggest that the BJP is at a disadvantage in the by-elections.

20. Which word from paragraphs 4-5, in the passage could be substituted with ‗numerically insignificant‘,
without changing the meaning?
(a) ‗inconsequential‘ (b) ‗impactful‘
(c) ‗significant‘ (d) ‗competitive‘

21. In the passage, the phrase ‗continue their winning streak‘, is best defined as –
(a) Maintain their series of victories. (b) Initiate a new sequence of wins.
(c) Terminate their run of losses. (d) Balance their victories and defeats.

22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that the BJP is under pressure to
regain its hold?
(a) The BJP has increased its majority in other states recently.
(b) The opposition parties are facing internal conflicts.
(c) Voter turnout for by-elections is traditionally low.
(d) The BJP has strong local leaders in the vacant seats.

IV. The Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon has been stalled since May 31, a day after the
onset of the monsoon simultaneously over Kerala and Northeast India. That is a stalling period of 19
days as of June 19, one of the longest in recent time, according to data from the India Meteorological
Department (IMD).
The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon has been stalled since June 10, which is a stalling period of
nine days. The onset of the monsoon was two days earlier than normal for Kerala and six days earlier
than normal for the Northeastern region. The stalled monsoon has led to an all India deficit in monsoon
rainfall of 20 per cent between June 1 and June 18, heralding a sluggish start to the season responsible
for 70 per cent of the country‘s total rainfall.
It is also one of the reasons for the late heatwaves in most of north India and many parts of west, central
and eastern India since the beginning of June. In many places like Delhi, temperatures are also not
reducing at night. This is leading to warm night conditions and no respite for people even at night. Some
states like Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and Assam have also witnessed flash floods and landslides due to
sudden heavy rainfall events in the last few days. Southern India has been the only region with ample
rainfall during the first three weeks of June.
‗Break periods‘ are a normal characteristic for the monsoon. But some of the recent breaks have been
much longer than normal. The season is usually said to be on a break when the monsoon trough moves
towards the foothills of the Himalayas. During this period, it starts raining heavily in the Himalayan and
the northeastern states while the rest of the country remains dry, especially what the IMD defines as the
‗core monsoon zone‘. The core monsoon zone stretches from Gujarat in the west to West Bengal and
Odisha in the east.
The monsoon trough is an elongated low pressure region that causes the rainfall during the monsoon
season over the country. This normally happens once or twice during the season once the monsoon
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

trough has settled into its normal position. Currently, the monsoon trough has not even reached its
normal position. Therefore, this stalling is different from the regular break period of the monsoon.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
change/stalled-southwest-monsoon-break-periods-are-normal-every-season-but-this-time-there-is-a-
difference-96762

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Analytical (b) Pessimistic
(c) Optimistic (d) Apathetic

24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?

(a) Cause: Unusual duration of monsoon break periods, Effect: Flash floods and landslides in certain
regions
(b) Cause: Early onset of the monsoon in Kerala, Effect: Normal monsoon progression
(c) Cause: Deficit in monsoon rainfall, Effect: Consistent temperatures in southern India
(d) Cause: Movement of monsoon trough, Effect: Excess rainfall in the northeastern states

25. What is the purpose of the word ―stalled‖ in the passage?

(a) To indicate a temporary cessation in monsoon progress
(b) To emphasize the long-term nature of the rainfall deficit
(c) To convey a sense of finality regarding the monsoon
(d) To suggest a minor delay in monsoon activity

26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that prolonged monsoon stalls are
unusual?
(a) Historical data shows similar stalling periods in previous decades.
(b) The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon frequently experiences short stalls.
(c) Recent climate models predict prolonged stalling due to climate change.
(d) The current stall is predicted to end in the next week.

27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
(a) "The monsoon's early onset guarantees normal seasonal rainfall distribution."
(b) "The monsoon's progression is highly unpredictable and varies year to year."
(c) "Northern India will consistently receive more rainfall than southern India."
(d) "Flash floods are a sign of overall monsoon strength."

28. The author implies that unusual breaks in the monsoon are _____ to agricultural planning. Choose the
most appropriate answer.
(a) beneficial (b) detrimental
(c) irrelevant (d) secondary

29. Given the author's position on monsoon breaks, what stand would the author probably take on the issue
of monsoon prediction improvements?
(a) The author would argue for increased investment in predictive technologies.
(b) The author would likely dismiss the need for accurate predictions.
(c) The author would insist that predictions are already sufficiently accurate.
(d) The author would emphasize the importance of traditional forecasting methods.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

30. In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the past perfect tense?
(a) "The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon frequently stalls for brief periods."
(b) "The monsoon has consistently shown unpredictable patterns."
(c) "The weather patterns had shifted before the onset of the monsoon season."
(d) "The rainfall deficit continues to affect agricultural activities."

31. Which of the following substitutions for ‗stalled‘ in the given sentence would NOT change the meaning of
the quoted sentence?
"The Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon has been stalled since May 31."
(a) Delayed (b) Halted
(c) Interrupted (d) Accelerated

32. What is the writer‘s aim in discussing the stalling of the monsoon?
(a) To highlight the unusual weather patterns and their impact on various regions.
(b) To argue that monsoon breaks are beneficial for certain areas.
(c) To suggest that the monsoon is becoming more predictable over time.
(d) To promote the idea that southern India will always receive ample rainfall.

V. Holding a newspaper by its 'ears', its pages spanning like the wings of a mythical paper bird, is a
gesture-habit that, above all, is empowering. In an age of mob scrolling, the sheer physicality of handling
foldable paper has currency. The ritual begins with the crisp rustle of the paper as it unfolds, a sound as
crackling as the morning itself. The broadsheet layout, a canvas of images and words, headlines trickling
into copies, invites a leisurely exploration the regular gobbler of info can't afford.
Each page turned is a journey through stories - of real people, local happenings, global events, sporting
triumphs, not to mention the daily dose of comic strips, crosswords and the tongue-in-cheek in a curated
space. It's technology at its most subtle: a shared experience, dope for conversation, a link to everyone
else without the bother of actually meeting everyone else... all through the medium of ink on paper that
no power surge, or buffering, or 'no connection' can snap. If you thought going through a newspaper was
only about downloading information - ha! - think again.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
everyday-life/going-through-a-newspaper/articleshow/[Link]

33. The ritual of reading a newspaper can be seen as

(1) a way to disconnect from digital distractions.
(2) an act of empowerment and tradition.
(3) a method to stay updated.
(4) an outdated practice.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (4)
(c) (2) and (3) (d) (3) and (4)

34. A unique benefit of reading a physical newspaper, as implied in the passage, is

(a) the comprehensive and diverse range of news.
(b) the ritualistic and tactile experience it provides.
(c) the quick and instant access to updates.
(d) the environmentally friendly nature of paper.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

35. The use of the word "technology" in the context of the passage conveys that it is something
(a) that enhances human interaction and shared experiences.
(b) that is advanced and digital.
(c) that is obsolete and inefficient.
(d) that represents the future of communication.

36. Statement 1: The act of reading a newspaper fosters a sense of connection.

Statement 2: Engaging with a newspaper can be a leisurely exploration.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. "A journey through stories" in the context of the passage refers to
(a) the variety of content in a newspaper.
(b) the physical act of turning pages.
(c) the global reach of news.
(d) the convenience of reading.

38. In which of the following sentences is the word 'canvas' used in the same sense as given in the
passage?
(a) The artist used a large canvas to create her masterpiece.
(b) The city was a canvas of diverse cultures and traditions.
(c) The football field, a canvas of green, was ready for the big match.
(d) The novel's plot was a canvas for the author's vivid imagination.

39. According to the passage, the medium of a physical newspaper provides

(a) a quicker method to gather news updates.
(b) a curated selection of news and entertainment.
(c) an eco-friendly alternative to digital media.
(d) a personalized reading experience.

VI. For most people, labour law can be boring. But when someone suggests working an extra day, people
start to pay attention. In Greece, new regulations are coming into effect on July 1 that make this possible.
After that day certain industrial and manufacturing facilities, as well as businesses providing 24/7
services, can move to a six-day workweek instead of the traditional five, says Emmanouil Savoidakis,
head of the labour law practice at Politis & Partners, a law firm based in Athens that specializes in
business law. Tourism and food service industries are excluded from this new arrangement.
Greece has many challenges like low wages, high unemployment and a declining population, but it is not
alone. Yet working more stands in stark contrast to most of its European neighbours.
Companies in several countries like Germany, Belgium, France, the UK, Spain and Iceland have been
experimenting with different workweek models. Either squeezing the 40-hour week into four days of more
intense 10-hour days. Or simply getting 100% of the work done in just 80% of the time, while still
receiving a full salary. Earlier this year in Germany, the national railway company Deutsche Bahn and
the train drivers‘ union agreed to gradually reduce the standard workweek from 38 to 35 hours. Demands
for a shorter workweek are being made in other sectors as well.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Greece though is taking another path. And this isn‘t the first time the country has been confronted with a
six-day workweek. During their debt crisis, which started in 2009 and nearly got the country kicked out of
the eurozone, some lenders demanded that the Greeks work more. The country accepted bailouts worth
billions of euros that came with strict austerity measures. Yet, a sixth day of work was not introduced.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
global/greece-six-day-workweek-model-9410305/

40. Based on the potential changes in Greek labour regulations, what could be a possible impact on
employee well-being if the new six-day workweek is implemented?
(a) Increased job satisfaction and morale
(b) No significant change in employee well-being
(c) Enhanced work-life balance
(d) Reduced job satisfaction and increased burnout

41. In what ways might the implementation of a six-day workweek in Greece contrast with the labour trends
observed in other European countries?
(a) By aligning with the four-day workweek trends in Europe
(b) By introducing a more flexible and shorter workweek
(c) By increasing the work hours, contrary to the reduction trends
(d) By adopting similar workweek reductions as seen in Germany and Belgium

42. What broader implication can be inferred from the historical context of Greece's labour regulations during
the debt crisis and the new six-day workweek policy?
(a) A potential resurgence of economic stability through increased labour output
(b) A continued struggle with economic reforms and workforce dissatisfaction
(c) An alignment with progressive labour practices seen in neighboring countries
(d) A likely shift towards more equitable labour conditions

43. According to the passage, how does Greece's approach to labour regulations compare to the responses
of other European countries during economic crises?
(a) Greece's approach is more lenient and supportive of workers' rights
(b) Greece aligns closely with other countries by reducing work hours
(c) Greece adopts a stricter approach by increasing workdays
(d) Greece mirrors the flexible working models of its European neighbours

44. What might be the significance of maintaining the traditional five-day workweek in certain sectors, such
as tourism and food service, under the new Greek regulations?
(a) It ensures these sectors remain competitive and attractive to workers
(b) It highlights a disregard for sector-specific needs and conditions
(c) It shows a uniform application of labor regulations across all sectors
(d) It underscores the government's priority on industrial and manufacturing sectors

VII. Toronto-area landscape architects, historians and residents hoping to preserve the Canadian heritage
site Ontario Place were dealt a serious blow last week, when an Ontario court rejected a closely watched
legal challenge to the provincial government‘s plans to build a mega-spa on one of the Modernist
complex‘s artificial islands. Critics of the redevelopment plan say it will not only destroy the landscape
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

architect Michael Hough‘s original design but also wildlife habitats and local vegetation (including
chopping down more than 800 trees), all while privatising a well-loved public space.
On 11 June, Ontario‘s Superior Court of Justice dismissed a request by the non-profit organisation
Ontario Place for All for an environmental assessment of Ontario Place‘s West Island, the future site of
the spa. The suit had been filed in response to an attempt to scuttle a required assessment of the
heritage site prior to redevelopment by the government of Ontario premier Rob Ford, leader of the
centre-right Progressive Conservative Party of Ontario. Last December, one week after the request for
judicial review was filed, the province passed the Rebuilding Ontario Place Act, which nixed Ontario
Place‘s protections as a heritage site and exempted it from environmental assessment.
"The applicant's request for an order requiring the respondents to conduct an environmental assessment
of the West Island redevelopment cannot succeed," a three-judge panel concluded, citing the authority of
the new law. The court‘s recent decision ―sets a very terrible precedent for the future of our Ontario
public institutions. If they‘ve done this here, what is going to stop them from doing this elsewhere?‖
The political power struggle over the future of Ontario Place dates back to 2018, when Ford—at the time
newly elected as Ontario‘s premier—started officially collecting proposals to redevelop Ontario Place
without public input or regard for its heritage status. Ontario Place was subsequently added to the World
Monuments Fund‘s 2020 watch list of places ―in need of urgent action‖.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
place-toronto-lawsuit-dismissed-spa-science-centre

45. What does the term 'mega-spa' imply in the passage?

(a) A modest recreational facility for the public.
(b) A small-scale project focusing on environmental preservation.
(c) A traditional spa offering limited services.
(d) A large and luxurious commercial development.

46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following sentence from the passage?
―The suit had been filed in response to an attempt to scuttle a required assessment of the heritage site
prior to redevelopment by the government of Ontario premier Rob Ford, leader of the centre-right
Progressive Conservative Party of Ontario.‖
(a) The government attempted to bypass a necessary evaluation of the heritage site.
(b) The suit was a reaction to the government's effort to avoid an obligatory review.
(c) The government proactively sought to conduct a thorough assessment of the heritage site.
(d) The legal challenge was a response to the government‘s plan to neglect a required evaluation.

47. Why has the writer used the term ―well-loved public space‖ in the passage?
(a) To highlight the commercial value of Ontario Place.
(b) To emphasize its significance to the local community.
(c) To suggest it is a place of historical battles.
(d) To indicate it is rarely visited and underappreciated.

48. Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the court‘s recent decision on the future of public
institutions in Ontario.
(a) It sets a beneficial precedent ensuring strict environmental assessments for public sites.
(b) It establishes a concerning precedent that could lead to more public spaces being privatized without
thorough review.
(c) It has no significant impact on future decisions regarding public institutions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) It ensures that heritage sites will receive more protection and thorough assessments in the future.

49. How does the passage portray the actions of the Ontario provincial government regarding Ontario
Place's redevelopment?
(a) As a balanced approach respecting both development and heritage preservation.
(b) As a strategy primarily driven by public interest and environmental conservation.
(c) As an effort disregarding legal and environmental protocols for redevelopment.
(d) As an initiative focusing on enhancing the site's historical and cultural significance.

50. What is an example of the government's disregard for public input mentioned in the passage?
(a) Seeking community feedback before the redevelopment.
(b) Ignoring the heritage status of Ontario Place.
(c) Including public opinion in the decision-making process.
(d) Protecting environmental and heritage sites from redevelopment.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 36
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Psychology
A recent study suggests that consciousness evolved not for individual survival, but for social purposes,
helping humans communicate ideas and emotions. Researchers argue that intuition heavily influences
our understanding of consciousness, complicating scientific explanations. The study emphasises that
while subjective awareness lacks causal influence, it remains crucial in social contexts. This perspective
challenges traditional views, suggesting that consciousness benefits the species as a whole through
social interactions.
Why did the experience of consciousness evolve from our underlying brain physiology? Despite being a
vibrant area of neuroscience, current research on consciousness is characterised by disagreement and
controversy – with several rival theories in contention.
A recent scoping review of over 1,000 articles identified over 20 different theoretical accounts.
Philosophers argue that no single scientific theory can truly explain consciousness. We define
consciousness as embodied subjective awareness, including self-awareness. We argue that one reason
for this predicament is the powerful role played by intuition. Much of the debate on the fundamental
nature of consciousness takes the form of intuition jousting, in which the different parties each report
their own strong intuitions and joust them against each other.
Key intuitive beliefs – for example that our mental processes are distinct from our physical bodies (mind-
body dualism) and that our mental processes give rise to and control our decisions and actions (mental
causation) – are supported by a lifetime of subjective experiences.
These beliefs are found in all human cultures. They are important as they serve as foundational beliefs
for most liberal democracies and criminal justice systems. They are resistant to counter evidence. That‘s
because they are powerfully endorsed by social and cultural concepts such as free will, human rights,
democracy, justice and moral responsibility. All these concepts assume that consciousness plays a
central controlling influence.
Intuition, however, is an automatic, cognitive process that evolved to provide fast trusted explanations
and predictions. In fact, it does so without the need for us to know how or why we know it. The outcomes
of intuition therefore shape how we perceive and explain our everyday world without the need for
extensive reflection or formal analytic explanations. While helpful and indeed crucial for many everyday
activities, intuitive beliefs can be wrong. They can also interfere with scientific literacy.
Intuitive accounts of consciousness ultimately put us in the driver‘s seat as ―captain of our own ship‖. We
think we know what consciousness is and what it does from simply experiencing it. Mental thoughts,
intentions and desires are seen as determining and controlling our actions.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
neuroscience-26434/

1. Which of the following best describes the author's stance on the role of intuition in understanding
consciousness?
(a) Intuition is a fundamental cognitive process, but it often misguides us in understanding
consciousness.
(b) Intuition is a reliable tool that consistently enhances our scientific comprehension of consciousness.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Intuition and scientific methods are equally valuable in exploring the nature of consciousness.
(d) Intuitive beliefs are more precise than scientific theories in explaining the nature of consciousness.

2. Which of the following idioms best represents the statement, "intuitive accounts of consciousness
ultimately put us in the driver‘s seat as 'captain of our own ship'"?
(a) Being a fish out of water (b) Wearing one's heart on one's sleeve
(c) Steering one's own course (d) Kicking against the pricks

3. Based on the passage, which of the following conclusions is correct?

(a) Intuitive beliefs about consciousness have been universally disproved by scientific research.
(b) Consciousness has evolved purely for individual survival without any social purposes.
(c) Philosophers universally agree that a single scientific theory can explain consciousness.
(d) Intuitive beliefs are deeply ingrained and influence our perception of free will and justice.

4. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) All human cultures reject the separation of mind and body as outdated.
(b) Intuition provides slow, considered responses that are always aligned with scientific findings.
(c) Our personal perception of being plays an essential role in our social interactions.
(d) Scientific research has conclusively resolved the debates surrounding the nature of consciousness.

5. What would be a suitable title for the passage?

(a) The Fallacies of Intuitive Understanding
(b) The Evolutionary Purpose of Consciousness in Social Contexts
(c) Debating the Physical Manifestations of Conscious Thought
(d) A Comprehensive Overview of Neuroscientific Research Methods

6. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) Consciousness is a purely scientific phenomenon that can be entirely explained through empirical
data.
(b) The debates around consciousness are primarily due to the lack of advanced technological tools in
neuroscience.
(c) Intuitive beliefs about consciousness, though culturally significant, often obstruct scientific
understanding.
(d) Consciousness has no role in influencing societal norms or cultural concepts.

II. Sci-Tech
Whoever said the eyes are the windows to the soul probably didn‘t imagine them being a key to
diagnosing severe mental health conditions. But some research shows that what a person focuses on
and how their pupils respond, among other eye movements, can reveal the presence of depression,
PTSD (Post-traumatic stress disorder), as well as developmental disabilities like autism.
Now, Senseye, a Texas-based mental health platform, is aiming to bring that research out of the
laboratory and into therapists‘ offices and patients‘ homes. The company is testing a phone app that
measures how people‘s eyes respond to various visual tasks as a way to detect PTSD.
People who are traumatised are much more likely to avoid looking at something upsetting than people
who aren‘t. The effort is part of a new wave of tech-based solutions aimed at improving the accuracy and
speed of mental health diagnoses. These digital tools are at various stages of readiness, with some still
in the validation testing stage and others already in use by health systems, schools, criminal justice
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

systems and clinical offices. The current diagnostic process is not as effective as it needs be, and mental
health practitioners say the generally relied-upon surveys are too subjective and aren‘t adaptable to
various identities, leaving many patients struggling for long periods.
Unfortunately, a lot of it ends up being kind of an educated guess situation. If there was a test that could
say their blood work shows they have PTSD, for example, that would speed things along, but that is not
a current way to diagnose. Some of the nascent technological solutions have enormous potential.
Current diagnostic tests ―do not at all address the complexity of human beings‖. We‘ll now be able to
have some sense of this is really what is going on for this particular person.
As it stands, patients may have to wait weeks or years to receive an accurate mental health diagnosis. A
2009 study found that, on average, 3.5 years pass between a person's first major episode and a
confirmed bipolar I disorder diagnosis. Another, from 2012, showed that PTSD is often misdiagnosed as
depression. These individuals are, symptomatically, kind of stagnant or even getting worse, and they‘re
not hitting an effective point of care until they‘re in the active crisis. The misdiagnoses are a burden not
only on the individual who is suffering and paying for medications that aren‘t working or actively causing
their conditions to worsen, but also on an already inefficient, overworked and understaffed mental health
system.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
technology-help-us-more-accurately-diagnose-mental-illnesses-180984513/

7. What is the primary function of the Senseye app as described in the passage?
(a) To facilitate the dissemination of mental health research findings among practitioners.
(b) To function as a therapeutic intervention targeting conditions like PTSD directly.
(c) To utilize eye response measurements to aid in diagnosing PTSD more precisely.
(d) To replace conventional mental health treatments with advanced technological solutions.

8. What is driving the need for new technological methods in mental health diagnostics according to the
passage?
(a) A push from healthcare insurers due to the cost-effectiveness of technology.
(b) An effort to reduce in-person consultations in favour of remote techniques.
(c) The shortcomings of surveys in capturing the complexity of individual cases.
(d) A significant demand from patients for modern diagnostic methods.

9. According to the author, what is the main consequence of incorrect mental health diagnoses?
(a) The emotional toll on patients leading to increased healthcare utilization.
(b) Escalation of costs within the healthcare system due to inappropriate treatments.
(c) Prolongation of ineffective treatments, worsening conditions, and delayed care.
(d) Confusion and complexity in managing healthcare resources effectively.

10. What inference can be drawn regarding traditional surveys in current mental health diagnostics?
(a) Surveys are deemed problematic as they are unable to provide a holistic view of mental health,
which varies greatly among individuals.
(b) They are often criticized for not sufficiently capturing the breadth of mental health conditions due to
their generic structure.
(c) These surveys are largely considered inadequate due to their subjective nature and failure to adapt
to diverse patient backgrounds.
(d) The reliance on these traditional methods is problematic because they do not allow for personalized
and adaptable diagnostic processes.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

11. How does the passage characterize the sentiment toward incorporating technology in mental health
diagnostics?
(a) It is portrayed with a hopeful undertone, emphasizing the prospective enhancements in diagnostic
precision and speed.
(b) The narrative is cautiously optimistic, underlining the potential for technological tools to refine and
expedite diagnoses.
(c) The attitude is supportive, suggesting a significant improvement in diagnostic practices through
technological integration.
(d) The tone is positive, indicating a belief in the transformative potential of technology in diagnosing
mental conditions.

12. What future direction of mental health diagnostics does the passage imply?
(a) Gradually adopting a hybrid approach combining modern technologies and established practices.
(b) Integrating advanced technologies with existing methods for a comprehensive approach.
(c) Converging tech-driven solutions and conventional strategies to improve diagnostics.
(d) Evolving towards a blended model incorporating technological advancements and traditional
methods.

III. Culture
India has a glorious past. At one point in time it contributed more than 25% to the world‘s GDP and
controlled about 28% of global trade and commerce. Being an economic power for several centuries,
India played a leadership role in all fields- whether it is art, culture, music, dance, food, festivals,
architecture or handicrafts. Indian civilization‘s contribution to the world heritage has been immense.
Unfortunately, history took an unpleasant turn and India saw foreign occupation for almost a millennia; in
these thousand years we were robbed of our glory and wealth.
There is a close inter-relationship between the culture and the economy. Our economy was an important
factor for our glorious civilization and cultural heritage. The reverse also held true - our cultural content
contributed to our strong economy. If India has to assume global leadership position again, it has to be
an economic power first. We can use our cultural wealth to catalyze India‘s economy.
India's potential in the field of culture is immense. However, there is a lack of understanding on how to
put this accumulated cultural wealth over millennia to achieve economic growth. For realizing the true
potential of India‘s imbedded cultural content, and identifying variables and their interrelationship for
evidence based decision making and resource allocations, we have to work on multiple dimensions of
cultural economy; what are its performance and potential Indicators, how monetization can lead to
unlocking valuations of cultural activities, what are its financial requisites to be fulfilled by innovative
financial instruments for sustainability. According to a study only about 20% of cultural organizations
worldwide consider themselves financially sustainable.
Government is an important driver of any initiative. Therefore Cultural Economic Governance assumes
great importance at the stage of policy formulation and its implementation. Cultural sector directly
employs about 45 lakh people as artisans, performers, tourism guides etc. In addition, handicrafts and
traditional art industries provide employment to about 60 lakh people. Through introduction of new
curriculum and vocational studies in the education system, the government has to work on skilling and
capacity building of these stakeholders. According to a report by the Ministry of Rural Development, only
10% of rural artisans have access to formal training programs. It is estimated that capacity building
initiatives in cultural sectors can lead to a 20-30% increase in productivity and revenue for cultural
enterprises. A survey conducted by UNESCO found that 70% of traditional artisans feel their skills are
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

not aligned with current market demand. Establishing social and economic linkages for performing arts
can propel growth in all art forms, contributing to huge employment and revenue generation.
Source: Extracted with edits and revision from: [Link]
commentary/how-india-can-leverage-its-cultural-riches-to-stimulate-its-
economy/articleshow/[Link]

13. What is the author's primary assertion regarding India's historical economic stature?
(a) Despite contributing significantly within its borders, India's influence on global GDP was relatively
minimal, suggesting a more localized economic prominence.
(b) Accounts of India's historic economic contributions, particularly regarding its share of global GDP,
may be overstated and warrant a scholarly reassessment.
(c) India was a dominant economic force, substantially impacting global GDP and the dynamics of
international trade.
(d) India's ancient economy, though primarily agrarian, had a notable impact on its GDP but limited
interaction with global trade mechanisms.

14. According to the passage, what is the relationship between culture and economy in the context of India's
history?
(a) Culture and economy are seen as independent variables with little to no influence on each other.
(b) Economic prosperity in India's past was partly a consequence of its rich cultural heritage, which also
benefited from the economy.
(c) Cultural achievements in India were result of economic prosperity and had minimal influence on the
economy.
(d) The economy was historically resilient to cultural influences and primarily driven by external trade.

15. What challenge does the passage identify in leveraging India‘s cultural wealth for economic growth?
(a) There is an overemphasis on cultural heritage at the expense of technological and scientific
advancement.
(b) The potential economic benefits of India‘s cultural wealth are fully recognized and utilized efficiently.
(c) There is a lack of understanding on how to effectively utilize accumulated cultural wealth to drive
economic growth.
(d) Cultural wealth has been consistently undervalued and is considered irrelevant to India‘s economic
development.

16. What does the passage imply about the role of government in promoting the cultural economy?
(a) Government involvement is minimal and mostly limited to regulatory functions rather than active
promotion.
(b) The government is seen as a crucial driver in initiatives that link cultural wealth to economic
development.
(c) Private sector efforts are more influential, and the government‘s role is redundant in the cultural
economic governance.
(d) Cultural economic governance does not significantly benefit from government intervention, which is
often bureaucratic.

17. Based on the passage, what is a significant obstacle faced by rural artisans in India?
(a) Most rural artisans are over-skilled for the current market demands and face unemployment.
(b) Rural artisans lack formal training programs, hindering their ability to meet current market demands.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Government policies have successfully addressed all major training and development needs of rural
artisans.
(d) There is an oversupply of rural artisans, which has significantly driven down the value of traditional
crafts.

18. What potential impact of enhancing skills and capacity among cultural sector workers does the passage
suggest?
(a) Improving training for cultural sector workers is not projected to meaningfully alter their production
efficiency or economic output.
(b) Traditional practices in the cultural sector are likely to limit the effectiveness of modern skill
development and capacity enhancement efforts.
(c) The primary focus for advancing productivity in the cultural sector should be on investing in
technology rather than on skill enhancement.
(d) There are considerable expected benefits in productivity and financial returns for cultural businesses
from boosting workforce skills and capabilities.
IV. Novel
I suppose that's exactly the problem-I wasn't raised to know any better. My father was (Carl Jung, rest
his soul) a social scientist of some renown. As the founder and, to my knowledge, sole practitioner of the
field of Liberation Psychology, he liked to walk around the house, aka "the Skinner box," in a laboratory
coat. Where I, his gangly, absentminded black lab rat was homeschooled in strict accordance with
Piaget's theory of cognitive development. I wasn't fed; I was presented with lukewarm appetitive stimuli. I
wasn't punished, but broken of my unconditioned reflexes. I wasn't loved, but brought up in an
atmosphere of calculated intimacy and intense levels of commitment.
We lived in Dickens, a ghetto community on the southern outskirts of Los Angeles, and as odd as it
might sound, I grew up on a farm in the inner city. Founded in 1868, Dickens, like most California towns
except for Irvine, which was established as a breeding ground for stupid, fat, ugly, white Republicans
and the chihuahuas and East Asian refugees who love them, started out as an agrarian community. The
city's original charter stipulated that "Dickens shall remain free of Chinamen, Spanish of all shades,
dialects, and hats, Frenchmen, redheads, city slickers, and unskilled Jews." However, the founders, in
their somewhat limited wisdom, also provided that the five hundred acres bordering the canal be forever
zoned for something referred to as "residential agriculture," and thus my neighborhood, a ten-square-
block section of Dickens unofficially known as the Farms was born. You know when you've entered the
Farms, because the city sidewalks, along with your rims, car stereo, nerve, and progressive voting
record, will have vanished into air thick with the smell of cow manure and, if the wind is blowing the right
direction-good weed. Grown men slowly pedal dirt bikes and fixies through streets clogged with gaggles
and coveys of every type of farm bird from chickens to peacocks. They ride by with no hands, counting
small stacks of bills, looking up just long enough to raise an inquisitive eyebrow and mouth: "Wassup?
Q'vo?" Wagon wheels nailed to front-yard trees and fences lend the ranch-style houses a touch of
pioneer authenticity that belies the fact that every window, entryway, and doggie door has more bars on
it and padlocks than a prison commissary. Front porch senior citizens and eight-year-olds who've already
seen it all sit on rickety lawn chairs whittling with switchblades, waiting for something to happen, as it
always did.
Source: Extracted from: Excerpted from The Sellout by Paul Beatty. Copyright © 2015 by Paul Beatty.
Excerpted by permission of Picador. All rights reserved.

19. What does the term "residential agriculture" imply about the nature of Dickens?
(a) It suggests an experimental community blending urban and rural elements for a modern lifestyle.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It implies a strictly agricultural area that was later transformed into a residential zone.
(c) It reflects a failed urban policy intended to merge farming with residential areas but later abandoned.
(d) It indicates a historical zoning decision that allowed for both residential living and agricultural
activities.
20. How does the author describe the upbringing of the narrator?
(a) As a scientifically controlled experiment mimicking a laboratory setting.
(b) As a nurturing environment enriched with diverse educational methodologies.
(c) As a traditional schooling experience with a focus on conventional disciplines.
(d) As an unstructured upbringing without guidance or educational goals.

21. Which aspect of Dickens does the author emphasize with the depiction of its environment and residents?
(a) A thriving, upscale community that has successfully integrated urban farming.
(b) A gritty, vibrant neighbourhood characterized by a mix of urban life and rural elements.
(c) A desolate, impoverished area struggling with crime and lack of modern amenities.
(d) An experimental urban space focusing on sustainable living and green practices.

22. What is the author most likely to disagree with based on the passage's tone and content?
(a) The innovative use of urban spaces can successfully blend historical agricultural practices with
modern living.
(b) Residential zones designated for agricultural use can lead to a decrease in property values and an
increase in crime.
(c) Residential zones designated for agricultural use can lead to a decrease in property values and an
increase in crime.
(d) The blending of residential and agricultural zoning leads to enhanced community engagement and
environmental awareness.

23. What underlying theme is suggested by the historical charter of Dickens as described in the passage?
(a) A progressive vision aimed at creating a diverse and inclusive community.
(b) An attempt to preserve cultural heritage while promoting economic growth.
(c) A forward-thinking approach to urban development focusing on sustainability.
(d) An outdated, exclusive policy reflective of historical prejudices and biases.

24. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The narrator's father was a pioneer in the field of Liberation Psychology.
(b) The narrator was raised in a strict and scientifically controlled environment.
(c) Dickens was initially founded as an agrarian community with a diverse population.
(d) The Farms is a neighborhood where traditional and modern elements coexist seamlessly.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 37
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. History
Ancient Indian literature, including the ‗Yuga Purana‘, ‗Mahabharata‘, and Buddhist texts, documents the
interactions between the Greeks and Indians, revealing that Greeks were referred to as ‗Yavanas‘. This
term was used for the Ionian Greeks of Asia Minor and the Greek kingdom of Bactria. The Bactrian
conquest of Northern India is prominently featured in the Buddhist text ‗Milindapanha‘, which details a
philosophical dialogue between the Bactrian King Milinda (Menander I) and the Buddhist sage
Nagasena. Milinda, though of Greek origin, became a great patron of Buddhism and later converted to
the religion.
Greek artistic techniques had a profound influence on Indian Buddhist art, leading to the depiction of the
Buddha in human form, a significant shift in Indian artistic traditions. This blend of Greek and Indian
artistic styles resulted in a unique syncretic art form. Greek architectural elements, such as columns,
friezes, and cupids, were incorporated into Indian Buddhist architecture, marking a notable cultural
convergence.
The Indo-Greek kingdom, which spanned parts of modern-day India and Pakistan, is a prime example of
cultural syncretism, where Greek and Indian cultures merged. This is evidenced by the bilingual Indo-
Greek coinage, which displayed a fusion of Greek and Indian artistic styles and inscriptions in both
Greek and ancient Indian languages. Despite adopting Eastern religious and cultural practices, the
Greeks retained their own gods, integrating them into Indian religious contexts. This is evident in
Buddhist statues, which, while Eastern in subject matter, exhibit Hellenic design and [Link] Greek
influence on Indian culture was significant, particularly in the realm of Buddhist art and architecture. The
introduction of Greek artistic techniques and architectural styles had a lasting impact, evident in Buddhist
temples and statues. However, despite their substantial influence, the Greek presence in India
eventually faded. Nonetheless, the cultural legacy of the Indo-Greeks persisted, leaving behind a
fascinating historical narrative of cultural exchange and integration.
In conclusion, the Indo-Greek kingdom represents a remarkable period of cultural syncretism where
Greek and Indian cultures blended. The Greeks influenced Indian art, religion, and architecture, leading
to lasting changes that can still be seen today. While their direct presence in India diminished over time,
the cultural interactions between the Greeks and Indians during this period left an enduring legacy that
continues to intrigue historians and scholars.
Source: Wikipedia

1. Which of the following best represents the central idea of the passage?
(a) The Greek influence on Indian culture was limited to the realm of Buddhist art and architecture.
(b) The Indo-Greek kingdom was a period of remarkable cultural syncretism between Greek and Indian
cultures.
(c) The Greeks adopted Indian religious and cultural practices but retained their own gods.
(d) The cultural legacy of the Indo-Greeks persisted despite their eventual decline in India.

2. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the author's
attitude towards the cultural interactions between the Greeks and Indians?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The author views the cultural exchange as a one-way process, with the Greeks heavily influencing
Indian culture.
(b) The author considers the cultural interactions to be a mutually enriching experience for both the
Greeks and Indians.
(c) The author is critical of the Greek influence on Indian culture, considering it a form of cultural
appropriation.
(d) The author believes that the cultural interactions were primarily driven by the Greeks' desire to
impose their culture on India.

3. Which of the following assumptions can be made based on the information provided in the passage?
(a) Indo-Greek kingdom was the only period in history when Greek and Indian cultures interacted.
(b) The adoption of Greek artistic techniques by Indian Buddhists was a gradual process.
(c) The Greeks were the first foreign culture to influence Indian art and architecture.
(d) The Buddhist text 'Milindapanha' accurately depicts the historical events and philosophical dialogues
it describes.

4. In the passage, the word 'syncretic' is closest in meaning to:

(a) Harmonious (b) Blended
(c) Diverse (d) Unified

5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true regarding the influence of Greek
culture on Indian Buddhist art and architecture?
(a) The depiction of the Buddha in human form was a direct result of Greek influence.
(b) Greek architectural elements were incorporated into Indian Buddhist architecture, but Indian artistic
styles remained unchanged.
(c) The influence of Greek artistic techniques was limited to Buddhist statues and did not extend to
temples or architecture.
(d) The Greeks introduced the concept of portraying religious figures in human form, which was
previously absent in Indian artistic traditions.
II. Philosophy
The experience of separateness arouses anxiety; it is, indeed, the source of all anxiety. Being separate
means being cut off, without any capacity to use my human powers. Hence to be separate means to be
helpless, unable to grasp the world—things and people—actively; it means that the world can invade me
without my ability to react. Thus, separateness is the source of intense anxiety. Beyond that, it arouses
shame and the feeling of guilt. This experience of guilt and shame in separateness is expressed in the
Biblical story of Adam and Eve. After Adam and Eve have eaten of the "tree of knowledge of good and
evil," after they have disobeyed (there is no good and evil unless there is freedom to disobey), after they
have become human by having emancipated themselves from the original animal harmony with nature,
i.e., after their birth as human beings—they saw "that they were naked—and they were ashamed."
Should we assume that a myth as old and elementary as this has the prudish morals of the nineteenth-
century outlook, and that the important point the story wants to convey to us is the embarrassment that
their genitals were visible? This can hardly be so, and by understanding the story in a Victorian spirit, we
miss the main point, which seems to be the following: after man and woman have become aware of
them- selves and of each other, they are aware of their separateness, and of their difference, inasmuch
as they belong to different sexes. But while recognizing their separateness they remain strangers,
because they have not yet learned to love each other (as is also made very clear by the fact that Adam
defends himself by blaming Eve, rather than by trying to defend her). The awareness of human
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

separation, without reunion by love—is the source of shame. It is at the same time the source of guilt and
anxiety.
The deepest need of man, then, is the need to overcome his separateness, to leave the prison of his
aloneness. The absolute failure to achieve this aim means insanity, because the panic of complete
isolation can be overcome only by such a radical withdrawal from the world outside that the feeling of
separation disappears—because the world outside, from which one is separated, has disappeared.
Source: Art of Living by Erichh Fromm

6. Which of the following best represents the central theme of the passage?
(a) The experience of separateness leads to anxiety, shame, and guilt, and the need to overcome this
separateness is a fundamental human need.
(b) The Biblical story of Adam and Eve is a metaphor for the human experience of separateness and the
consequent shame and guilt.
(c) The Victorian interpretation of the Adam and Eve story is flawed and misses the true meaning of the
myth.
(d) Insanity is the result of the absolute failure to overcome the feeling of separateness and isolation.

7. According to the passage, what is the author's view on the relationship between separateness and
anxiety?
(a) Separateness is the source of all anxiety, as it means being cut off and unable to actively engage
with the world.
(b) Anxiety is the cause of separateness, as it leads to a withdrawal from the world and a feeling of
isolation.
(c) Separateness and anxiety are unrelated, and the author does not establish a clear connection
between the two.
(d) Separateness can lead to anxiety in some cases, but the author does not present it as the sole
source of anxiety.

8. Which of the following assumptions can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The experience of separateness is unique to human beings and not present in other animals.
(b) The concept of good and evil arises from the human ability to disobey and exercise freedom.
(c) Love is the only means to overcome the separateness and achieve reunification.
(d) The Victorian era had a narrow and prudish interpretation of the Adam and Eve story.

9. In the passage, what is the closest antonym of the word "reunion"?

(a) Separation (b) Isolation
(c) Alienation (d) Detachment

10. According to the passage, which of the following statements best elaborates on the author's
interpretation of the Adam and Eve story?
(a) The story emphasizes the embarrassment of exposed genitals as a result of disobedience.
(b) The story represents the transition from an animal-like state to human awareness and separateness.
(c) The story depicts the shame and guilt arising from the inability to love and overcome separateness.
(d) The story highlights the consequences of acquiring knowledge, which leads to separateness and
anxiety.
III. Society
One day at a mega store in Bangalore, I observed young mothers struggling to control their unruly
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

children, which piqued my interest in child psychology—a subject I have studied through works by Jean
Piaget and Reb Bradley. This incident, combined with observations from various households, led me to
conclude that modern parents often find themselves in a state of constant stress, making parenting feel
like a challenging task. Today's children no longer automatically obey their parents, requiring repeated
commands before complying, typically only when the parent is on the verge of losing their temper.
Jean Piaget, a renowned clinical psychologist, posited that parenting, while rewarding, can be incredibly
challenging. He suggested that understanding child behavior through psychology can make parenting
less frustrating. Piaget's theory of Cognitive Development emphasizes that children learn differently
based on their experiences, implying that parents should be patient and understanding. Modern parents
inadvertently teach their children to ignore initial commands by repeating instructions and only enforcing
consequences after multiple warnings. This teaches children that initial commands are not serious.
Piaget's theories support the notion that children can learn to obey the first time if parents give
instructions once and follow through with consequences for defiance.
Observations reveal that children who only comply after repeated, anger-laden commands demonstrate
their ability to obey but are conditioned to wait for parental seriousness. Parents often undermine their
authority by repeating phrases like "How many times should I tell you?" or threatening to report
misbehavior to the other parent, teaching children to wait for the final [Link] parents believe
harsh tones are necessary for obedience, creating a cycle where children only respond to stern
commands. This belief stems from parents accidentally reinforcing disobedience. However, children can
be reoriented to take calm instructions seriously if parents consistently give commands once and follow
through with consequences. Threats and warnings are another way parents inadvertently teach
disobedience. Parents, especially those who are insecure or exhausted, often make threats as a way to
avoid immediate disciplinary action. This approach undermines the parent‘s authority and teaches
children that instructions are negotiable until the final threat
Source: [Link]

11. What can be inferred about the author's attitude towards modern parenting practices?
(a) The author believes that modern parents are too lenient and permissive with their children.
(b) The author is critical of the way modern parents inadvertently reinforce disobedience in their children.
(c) The author suggests that modern parents are overly harsh and authoritarian in their approach.
(d) The author believes that modern parenting practices are largely effective and do not require any
changes.

12. According to the passage, which of the following statements best elaborates on Piaget's theory of
Cognitive Development?
(a) Piaget's theory suggests that children learn through imitation and repetition of parental behaviors.
(b) Piaget's theory emphasizes that children's cognitive development is influenced by their unique
experiences and environments.
(c) Piaget's theory proposes that children's cognitive development follows a strict, predetermined
sequence.
(d) Piaget's theory advocates for harsh disciplinary measures to ensure children's obedience.

13. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the author's view
on the use of threats and warnings by parents?
(a) The author believes that threats and warnings are necessary to establish parental authority.
(b) The author suggests that threats and warnings are effective in teaching children obedience.
(c) The author is critical of the use of threats and warnings, as they undermine parental authority and
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

reinforce disobedience.
(d) The author does not provide a clear opinion on the use of threats and warnings by parents.

14. In the passage, the author's tone when discussing modern parenting practices can best be described as:
(a) Sympathetic (b) Sarcastic
(c) Critical (d) Indifferent

15. In the passage, the phrase "inadvertently teach" is closest in meaning to:
(a) Deliberately instruct (b) Unintentionally reinforce
(c) Purposefully encourage (d) Intentionally inspire
IV. Environment
From massive kelp forests to monumental old-growth on land, British Columbia‘s biodiversity — which is
unrivalled in Canada — provides an array of cultural, economic, social and other benefits. B.C.‘s wide-
ranging ecological zones are home to over 70 per cent of Canada‘s mammal, bird and non-vascular
plant species. The province is ostensibly proud of having a healthy environment, with its mottos
―Splendour without Diminishment‖ and ―Beautiful British Columbia‖ promoting its natural beauty. Yet
despite this awareness, the province is hindered by a fragmented approach to biodiversity management.
B.C. possesses considerable knowledge resources with a wealth of top biodiversity scientists,
biodiversity-based industries and leading conservation organizations. It is also home to over 200 First
Nations with traditional knowledge systems closely tied with nature. However, current conservation
initiatives lack co-ordination and there is no independent organization or provincial governing body
overseeing the many actions underway. This must change. The lack of co-ordination in B.C. makes it
difficult to obtain a clear picture of ecosystem health across the province. This murky picture has
negative implications for efforts to quantify, forecast and adjust to biodiversity changes — with further
knock-on repercussions for efforts to hold people and organizations accountable for infractions.
For example, when a species is listed on Canada‘s Species at Risk Act, the first step for legislated action
by the province is to map locations of habitats that are necessary for the species‘ recovery. But, in part
due to poor biodiversity inventories and low engagement across sectors, this information has been
regularly delayed, by an average of 9.8 years. This is a costly time frame for an endangered [Link]
cannot manage what we do not monitor and this challenge will only get worse as climate change shifts
the range of many species.
Source: [Link]
biodiversity-crisis-225767

16. What is the author's main concern regarding biodiversity management in British Columbia?
(a) Lack of coordination among various conservation initiatives
(b) Insufficient knowledge resources and biodiversity scientists
(c) Absence of traditional knowledge systems from First Nations
(d) Lack of awareness about the province's natural beauty

17. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true, except:
(a) B.C. is home to over 70% of Canada's mammal, bird, and non-vascular plant species.
(b) The province has a fragmented approach to biodiversity management.
(c) B.C. has leading conservation organizations and biodiversity-based industries.
(d) The province has an independent organization overseeing all biodiversity-related actions.
18. Which of the following best describes the author's elaboration of the sentence "We cannot manage what
we do not monitor"?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The lack of coordination in B.C. makes it difficult to obtain a clear picture of ecosystem health across
the province.
(b) Current conservation initiatives lack coordination, and there is no provincial governing body
overseeing the many actions underway.
(c) The province is hindered by a fragmented approach to biodiversity management.
(d) The lack of biodiversity inventories and low engagement across sectors leads to delays in mapping
habitats for species at risk.

19. Which of the following best describes the type of writing in the given passage?
(a) Fiction (b) Non-fiction
(c) Academic paper (d) Journal article

20. The passage mentions that "when a species is listed on Canada's Species at Risk Act, the first step for
legislated action by the province is to map locations of habitats that are necessary for the species'
recovery." However, this information is regularly delayed by an average of how many years?
(a) 5.8 years (b) 7.8 years
(c) 9.8 years (d) 11.8 years

V. Novel
It shouldn't surprise us that the poor choose their food not mainly for their cheap prices and nutritional
value, but for how good they taste. George Orwell, in his masterful description of the life of poor British
workers in "The Road to Wigan Pier", observes: The basis of their diet, therefore, is white bread and
margarine, corned beef, sugared tea and potatoes-an appalling diet. Would it not be better if they spent
more money on wholesome things like oranges and whole meal bread or if they even saved on fuel and
ate their carrots raw? Yes, it would, but the point is that no ordinary human being is ever going to do
such a thing. The ordinary human being would sooner starve than live on brown bread and raw carrots.
And the peculiar evil is this, that the less money you have, the less inclined you feel to spend it on
wholesome food. A millionaire may enjoy breakfasting off orange juice and Ryvita biscuits; an
unemployed man doesn't. When you are unemployed, you don't want to eat dull wholesome food. You
want something a little bit "tasty". There is always some cheaply pleasant thing to tempt you.
The poor often resist the wonderful plans we think up for them because they do not share our faith that
those plans work, or work as well as we claim. We shouldn't forget, too, that other things may be more
important in their lives than food. Poor people in the developing world spend large amounts on
weddings, dowries and christenings. Part of the reason is probably that they don't want to lose face,
when the social custom is to spend a lot on those occasions. In South Africa, poor families often spend
so lavishly on funerals that they skimp on food for months afterward. And don't underestimate the power
of factors like boredom. Life can be quite dull in a village. There is no movie theater, no concert hall. And
not a lot of work, either. In rural Morocco, Oucha Marbk and his two neighbours told us they had worked
about 70 days in agriculture and about 30 days in construction that year. Otherwise, they took care of
their cattle and waited for jobs to materialize. All three men lived in small houses without water or
sanitation. They struggled to find enough money to give their children a good education. But they each
had a television, a parabolic antenna, a DVD player and a cell phone.
This is something that Orwell captured as well, when he described how poor families survived the
Depression: Instead of raging against their destiny they made things tolerable by reducing their
standards. But they don't necessarily lower their standards by cutting out luxuries and concentrating on
necessities; more often it is the other way around- the more natural way, if you come to think of it. Hence
the fact that in a decade of unparalleled depression, the consumption all the cheap luxuries has
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

increased. These "indulgences" are not the impulsive purchases of people who are not thinking hard
about what they are doing. Oucha Marbk did not buy his TV on credit: he saved up over many months in
India starts saving for her young daughter's wedding by buying a small piece of jewelry here and a
stainless steel bucket there.

21. According to George Orwell's observation in "The Road to Wigan Pier," why do poor British workers
prefer certain foods over others?
(a) They prioritize nutritional value and health benefits.
(b) They are unaware of healthier food options.
(c) They choose foods based on taste and affordability.
(d) They follow social customs and traditions.

22. What is the primary reason given in the passage for why the poor might resist plans made for them by
others?
(a) They lack the understanding of the benefits of such plans.
(b) They prioritize other aspects of life over the proposed plans.
(c) They are influenced by societal expectations and customs.
(d) They are inherently resistant to change.

23. How does the passage describe the spending habits of the poor during the Depression, as depicted by
Orwell?
(a) They focused solely on necessities and avoided luxuries.
(b) They reduced their standards by prioritizing basic needs.
(c) They increased their consumption of affordable luxuries.
(d) They relied heavily on credit to maintain their living standards.
24. Based on the description of Oucha Marbk and his neighbours in rural Morocco, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) They lived without any modern amenities or devices.
(b) Despite limited resources, they prioritized their children's education over other expenses.
(c) They spent lavishly on entertainment and leisure activities.
(d) They had access to modern gadgets like television, DVD player, and cell phones despite their basic
living conditions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 38
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Science and Technology
With private players also coming in, space has become a sunrise sector that the government is
promoting heavily. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has personally held several meetings with a select
group of space entrepreneurs. Amidst all the political activity around the elections, a private space
company, Agnikul Cosmos, carried out the first successful launch of its indigenously-built rocket last
week, opening up a new chapter in India‘s space sector. The event was significant enough to be noticed
by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and everyone else in the space sector, in India and
abroad. Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Home Minister Amit Shah, and External Affairs Minister S
Jaishankar congratulated the company for the achievement. To be sure, this was not the first time that
an Indian private company had flown a rocket from Indian soil. In November 2022, Skyroot Aerospace, a
young space start-up just like Agnikul, successfully launched a rocket which it has named Vikram, after
Vikram Sarabhai, the legendary space leader credited with building ISRO in the initial years. That
moment too had been hailed by the President, Prime Minister, and many others.
The inaugural flight of Agnikul‘s creatively named Agnibaan rocket builds on the success of Skyroot and
signals the range of options that are opening up in India‘s space market. Agnibaan was powered by the
world‘s first 3-D printed engine, and was launched from Agnikul‘s own launchpad, built at ISRO‘s
Sriharikota launch facility. Both Agnikul and Skyroot hope to begin launching commercial satellites on
their rockets within a year. The rocket flown on Thursday will eventually have several variants, capable of
carrying payloads between 30 kg and 300 kg to lower earth orbits. The Skyroot rocket, Vikram, also has
a few variants, with similar capabilities. Both of these are targeting the small satellite market to cater to a
rapidly growing demand for a variety of space-based applications in areas as diverse as
communications, broadcasting, disaster management, climate change, earth and ocean observation,
urban planning, and surveillance. These satellites are usually not meant for space exploration or
scientific experiments. ISRO itself is developing a new rocket, called SSLV or Small Satellite Launch
Vehicle, to serve this demand. SSLV, which has flown twice but only once with success, is slightly more
powerful and can carry payloads up to 500 kg. The uniqueness of Agnibaan lies in the fact that its semi-
cryogenic engine is entirely 3-D printed. The engine does not have any components or moving parts at
all. There are no joints, no welding, and no fusing. It is a smooth single piece of hardware. The use of 3-
D printing in space hardware is not a novel idea. But no one has used an entire engine that is 3-D
printed.
Source: [Link]
9366069/lite/

1. The author's tone towards the recent developments in India's private space sector can best be described
as:
(a) Skeptical (b) Enthusiastic
(c) Neutral (d) Cautiously optimistic

2. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The superiority of private space companies over ISRO
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The emergence of India's private space sector and its significance
(c) The technical details of Agnibaan and Vikram rockets
(d) The political implications of space technology advancements

3. Based on the passage, which inference can be drawn about the Indian government's stance on private
space companies?
(a) They are seen as potential competitors to ISRO
(b) They are viewed as complementary to ISRO's efforts
(c) They are considered a threat to national security
(d) They are ignored in favor of government space programs

4. What does the phrase "sunrise sector" in the first sentence imply about the space industry in India?
(a) It's a declining industry (b) It's a stagnant sector
(c) It's an emerging and promising field (d) It's a fully mature industry

5. The tone of the passage regarding the achievements of Agnikul Cosmos and Skyroot Aerospace is:
(a) Critical (b) Indifferent
(c) Celebratory (d) Concerned

6. In the context of the passage, what is a synonym for "indigenous" as used in "indigenously-built rocket"?
(a) Foreign (b) Homegrown
(c) Imported (d) Advanced

II. History
Jantar Mantar, now the preferred site of political protest and hunger strikes in New Delhi, was actually
one in a series of five observatories—the other four being Ujjain, Mathura, Varanasi, and Jaipur—built by
Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur in 1724 to measure astronomical data for the accurate prediction of the
movement of planets, the moon, sun, and stars in the solar system. This was based on the 4th-century
CE astronomical treatise Surya Siddhanta, which postulated a spherical Earth with the prime meridian, or
zero longitude, passing through Avanti, the ancient name for the historic city of Ujjain, and Rohitaka
(Rohtak) near Kurukshetra—28°54′N 76°38′E. The Surya Siddhanta also described a method of
converting local time to the standard time of Ujjain. Thus, every major locality in the country had its own
time, defined through the local ‗Panchang,‘ which incorporated the rising and setting of both the moon
and the sun.
However, with the advent of the British, Ujjain time gave way to Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), which
was based on the clocks at the Royal Observatory near London. Thus, all three presidencies — Calcutta,
Bombay, and Madras — fixed their time with reference to GMT. For Calcutta, it was five hours, fifty-three
minutes, and twenty seconds ahead; for Madras, it was five hours, twenty-one minutes, and fourteen
seconds; while the Bombay clocks were ahead by five hours, four minutes, and fifteen seconds with
respect to GMT. From 1963, GMT gave way to UTC, the official abbreviation of Coordinated Universal
Time. This is the primary time standard globally used by ATCs to coordinate the flight paths of airplanes
as well as the movement of ships to their berths in busy ports. However, in the Indian context, the credit
for bringing about the synchronicity of time, especially with reference to Indian Standard Time (IST),
should go to the [Link] a modest beginning in 1853, with a 32 km line between Bombay and
Thane, the next five decades saw the spread of a very extensive network of Indian railways from
Peshawar, Quetta, and Chaman on the Afghanistan border to the port cities of Karachi, Bombay,
Trivandrum, Waltair, and Madras, and going all the way up to Sadia in the North East Frontier Agency.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Of course, all the main cantonments, provincial capitals, industrial cities, stocking points of commodities,
and pilgrim centres were also connected, and the larger princely states had their own networks. The
Indian railways first started using the Madras time as the general standard, as it was in between the
Bombay and Calcutta times, but there were practical difficulties, and a forty-four-page supplement had to
be issued to mark the local adjustments of time. Thus, the notion of a precursor to IST is really Madras
Time, and it was backed by the rigorous astronomical methods applied in the Madras Observatory,
founded in [Link] matter came up for consideration by the Governor-General after the Asiatic Society
of Bengal deliberated upon it in their 1899 session. It took six years of back-and-forth, consultations with
provincial governments and some native princes, besides feedback from the Geological Survey of India,
before Curzon gave the go-ahead for the adoption of an IST for India.
Source: [Link]
indias-clocks/2093981/
7. What is the author's main argument regarding the development of Indian Standard Time?
(a) It was primarily influenced by ancient astronomical treatises
(b) It was a direct result of British colonial rule
(c) It evolved from a combination of traditional Indian and colonial influences
(d) It was solely determined by the needs of the Indian railways

8. The tone of the passage regarding the transition from traditional time-keeping to IST can best be
described as:
(a) Nostalgic (b) Critical
(c) Objective (d) Enthusiastic

9. Based on the passage, which inference can be drawn about the role of the railways in the development
of IST?
(a) The railways were the sole reason for IST's adoption
(b) The railways played a crucial role in highlighting the need for a standardized time
(c) The railways opposed the implementation of IST
(d) The railways had no significant impact on the development of IST

10. What is the antonym of "synchronicity" as used in the passage?

(a) Harmony (b) Coordination
(c) Discordance (d) Simultaneity

11. The sentence "Thus, every major locality in the country had its own time, defined through the local
'Panchang,' which incorporated the rising and setting of both the moon and the sun" suggests that:
(a) Time-keeping in ancient India was uniform across the country
(b) Local time was determined by celestial observations
(c) The 'Panchang' was a British invention
(d) Moon phases were more important than sun positions in time-keeping

12. In the sentence "From a modest beginning in 1853, with a 32 km line between Bombay and Thane, the
next five decades saw the spread of a very extensive network of Indian railways", what rhetorical device
is used?
(a) Hyperbole (b) Metaphor
(c) Understatement (d) Personification
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

III. Philosophy
In the Chandogya Upanishad (c. 7th century BCE), Indra, king of the Vedic gods, and his nemesis,
Virochana, king of the asuras (anti-gods), go to the temple of the creator god, Prajapati, to learn the
secret of Atman (the Self). Prajapati takes them both in, and, after 32 years, summons them and tells
them that Atman is the reflection of the self in the pupil of the eye. Satisfied with this answer, Virochana
returns to the asuras, who take to venerating the bodily self. But Indra is not so sure, and goes back to
the ashram. After 32 more years as a brahmacharya (celibate student), Prajapati tells him that Atman is
the dream self.
Still full of doubt, he is made to wait another 32 years, before being told that Atman is the unconscious
self. When he protests that no good can come out of this knowledge, Prajapati keeps him for five more
years, and, after a total of 101 years, finally tells him the secret of Atman. If Atman is neither the waking
self, nor the dreaming self, nor the sleeping self, then what is Atman? By having Indra wait for what is the
natural lifespan of a (wise) person, Prajapati is making the point that the deepest truths cannot simply be
taught, but must painstakingly be learnt. Only by much patience and perseverance, which Virochana did
not possess, is it possible to share in the knowledge of the gods. ―Atman‖ is often translated into English
as ―soul‖ but does not include the individual or cognitive aspects of the Judeo-Christian soul, and, for this
reason, is better translated as ―Self.‖ In Hindu thought, the individual aspects of the Judeo-Christian soul,
such as ego, mind, reason, emotion, and desire, are subsumed under the jivanatman (―life-breath‖), or
jiva for short. Whereas the jiva, the personal self, is enmeshed in the world, the Atman is detached from
this particular life and incarnation. And whereas the jiva is ever-changing and evolving, the Atman, the
universal Self, is steadfast and immoveable. In the Shvetashvatara Upanishad, the jiva and Atman are
compared to two inseparable birds sitting in a tree (the body). One bird, the jiva, gorges on the sweet
and bitter fruits of the tree, while the other, tasting of neither, calmly looks on. The Atman is neither the
waking self, nor the dreaming self, nor the sleeping self, as Indra had been led to believe, but pure
consciousness, or witness-consciousness, and of a kind with the supreme soul, paramatman, which is
either Brahman or an aspect of Brahman.
Source:[Link]
the-upanishads?amp

13. The author's attitude towards the concept of Atman can best be described as:
(a) Skeptical (b) Reverential
(c) Analytical (d) Dismissive

14. The sentence "Only by much patience and perseverance, which Virochana did not possess, is it possible
to share in the knowledge of the gods" implies that:
(a) Divine knowledge is unattainable for humans
(b) Spiritual enlightenment requires dedication and time
(c) The gods are unwilling to share their knowledge
(d) Virochana was incapable of learning
15. What assumption underlies Prajapati's teaching method?
(a) All students learn at the same pace
(b) Knowledge can be instantly transferred
(c) True understanding comes with time and reflection
(d) Gods are more capable of learning than humans

16. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the relationship between Atman and jiva?
(a) They are identical concepts
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) They are completely separate entities

(c) They are complementary aspects of self
(d) Jiva is superior to Atman

17. This piece of writing can best be described as:

(a) A fictional story (b) A philosophical exposition
(c) A scientific paper (d) A personal narrative

18. In the context of the passage, what is a synonym for "enmeshed"?

(a) Detached (b) Entangled
(c) Liberated (d) Elevated

IV. Literature
Now for a moment I will ask leave to remove my own insignificant personality and to describe events
which occurred before we arrived upon the scene by the light of knowledge which came to us afterwards.
Only in this way can I make the reader appreciate the people concerned and the strange setting in which
their fate was cast.
The village of Birlstone is a small and very ancient cluster of half-timbered cottages on the northern
border of the county of Sussex. For centuries it had remained unchanged; but within the last few years
its picturesque appearance and situation have attracted a number of well-to-do residents, whose villas
peep out from the woods around. These woods are locally supposed to be the extreme fringe of the
great Weald forest, which thins away until it reaches the northern chalk downs. A number of small shops
have come into being to meet the wants of the increased population; so there seems some prospect that
Birlstone may soon grow from an ancient village into a modern town. It is the centre for a considerable
area of country, since Tunbridge Wells, the nearest place of importance, is ten or twelve miles to the
eastward, over the borders of Kent. About half a mile from the town, standing in an old park famous for
its huge beech trees, is the ancient Manor House of Birlstone. Part of this venerable building dates back
to the time of the first crusade, when Hugo de Capus built a fortalice in the centre of the estate, which
had been granted to him by the Red King. This was destroyed by fire in 1543, and some of its smoke-
blackened corner stones were used when, in Jacobean times, a brick country house rose upon the ruins
of the feudal castle. The Manor House, with its many gables and its small diamond-paned windows, was
still much as the builder had left it in the early seventeenth century. Of the double moats which had
guarded its more warlike predecessor, the outer had been allowed to dry up, and served the humble
function of a kitchen garden. The inner one was still there, and lay forty feet in breadth, though now only
a few feet in depth, round the whole house. A small stream fed it and continued beyond it, so that the
sheet of water, though turbid, was never ditch-like or unhealthy. The ground floor windows were within a
foot of the surface of the water.
The only approach to the house was over a drawbridge, the chains and windlass of which had long been
rusted and broken. The latest tenants of the Manor House had, however, with characteristic energy, set
this right, and the drawbridge was not only capable of being raised, but actually was raised every
evening and lowered every morning. By thus renewing the custom of the old feudal days the Manor
House was converted into an island during the night—a fact which had a very direct bearing upon the
mystery which was soon to engage the attention of all England.
Source: The Valley of Fear by Sherlock Holmes

19. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The history and evolution of the village of Birlstone
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The description of the ancient Manor House of Birlstone

(c) The rise of modern towns from ancient villages
(d) The mystery that engages the attention of all England

20. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Manor House?
(a) It was built during the time of the first crusade
(b) It was originally a feudal castle built by Hugo de Capus
(c) It was destroyed by fire in the early seventeenth century
(d) The drawbridge was raised every night to convert it into an island

21. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
(a) The village of Birlstone has remained largely unchanged for centuries
(b) The woods around Birlstone are considered part of the great Weald forest
(c) The outer moat of the Manor House has dried up and serves as a kitchen garden
(d) The Manor House was built in the Jacobean era

22. What does the phrase "its picturesque appearance and situation" in the passage refer to?
(a) The village of Birlstone (b) The ancient Manor House
(c) The woods around Birlstone (d) The villas of well-to-do residents

23. Which rhetorical device is used in the following statement from the passage: "Only in this way can I
make the reader appreciate the people concerned and the strange setting in which their fate was cast."
(a) Metaphor (b) Personification
(c) Alliteration (d) Hyperbole

24. What can be inferred about the mystery mentioned in the passage?
(a) It involves the ancient Manor House of Birlstone
(b) It is related to the well-to-do residents who have moved to Birlstone
(c) It is connected to the history of the village of Birlstone
(d) It concerns the drawbridge of the Manor House
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 39
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Wrapped in mysticism, folk beliefs and traditions, midnight sun is a chance to see the world in a different
light. A phenomenon of constant daylight during summer in the northernmost parts of the Northern
Hemisphere, it can impart a reddish yellow or a pastel pink tint on the sky during dusk and dawn, casting
what feels like an otherworldly shroud over the world.
That magic is easily explained by science though. Due to the annual rotation of the planet and the tilt of
the Earth‘s axis, the North Pole is directed towards the sun during the summer months, which means
increased daylight hours throughout the Northern Hemisphere. In some destinations closer to the pole,
though, the sun barely dips below the horizon or doesn‘t set at all, creating an illusion of a never-ending
day. It's a stark contrast to the polar night in winter — some of these destinations get as little as a couple
of hours of daylight during the winter months or no daylight at all — meaning summer is high time for
making the most of ample opportunities to enjoy the great outdoors.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]

1. The primary reason for the extended daylight in northernmost regions during summer is:
(a) the sun's movement across the equatorial plane.
(b) the hemisphere‘s tilt towards the sun.
(c) global warming affecting seasonal changes.
(d) abnormal weather patterns in polar regions.

2. The reason for varied daylight durations between summer and winter in the same locations can be
attributed to:
(a) the Earth's unchanging axial position.
(b) a shift in the Earth's orbital speed.
(c) differences in the Earth‘s axial tilt throughout the year.
(d) the rotational direction of the Earth changing seasonally.

3. The author's attitude towards the midnight sun phenomenon can best be described as:
(a) indifferent. (b) critical.
(c) mystical. (d) factual.
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?
(a) The midnight sun occurs due to the Earth facing away from the sun.
(b) The midnight sun casts a pastel tint on the sky during certain times.
(c) Summer offers ample opportunities for outdoor activities in regions experiencing the midnight sun.
(d) Polar night contrasts starkly with the midnight sun in terms of daylight duration.

5. Statement 1: The northernmost regions experience constant daylight during summer.

Statement 2: The phenomenon of midnight sun impacts the lifestyle and activities of the inhabitants.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. For millions of Americans celebrating Independence Day, the 4th of July concludes with the noisy,
colourful spectacle of a professional fireworks show. But in many parts of the country—and at events
that traditionally include fireworks around the world—fireworks shows are being replaced with swarms of
synchronised drones that create animated images against the night sky.
Why are drone shows on the rise? You could argue it‘s a flashy trend, but proponents claim fireworks are
so bad for people, animals, and the environment that it‘s time for a permanent change. Here‘s why you
might be watching a drone show this year—and why these celebratory displays may be just a flash in the
pan.
When we started looking into this, the thing that surprised me most was the extent of the disturbance.
Researchers recently published a study that underscores what they call the ―highly damaging‖ impacts of
fireworks—spectacles that scare birds from roosting places and nesting sites, disturb and distress other
animals with their sudden light and noise, and even affect animal breeding.
Part of the issue lies in the startle response or reflex, a whole-body reaction that causes the muscles to
swiftly contract, the eyes to blink, and the pulse to race. Such reactions evolved to help animals and
humans respond to danger, making them more alert and helping them protect their most vulnerable
parts. Bateman and his colleagues write that the sounds and flashes of light associated with the blasts
trigger the startle response in animals, causing distress and even death to animals. Young cranes, for
instance, have been documented leaping from their nest in response to loud noises even though they
cannot fly.
Humans experience these startle reactions, as well. Though there appears to be some genetic
component to how easily someone startles, mental health conditions and post-traumatic stress can also
play a role. The unexpected and unpredictable nature of fireworks, along with their ability to elicit
flashbacks and memories in people who have survived combat situations, can trigger an ongoing feeling
of danger and hypervigilance that lasts far beyond the holiday.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]

6. How would you describe the ultimate impact of traditional fireworks on the environment, according to the
passage?
(a) Beneficial (b) Insignificant
(c) Detrimental (d) Overstated

7. The passage suggests that the reaction of humans to fireworks can be particularly problematic for
individuals with certain conditions because:
(a) It can trigger flashbacks and prolonged anxiety.
(b) They become overly excited and celebratory.
(c) They become indifferent to the noise.
(d) It enhances their enjoyment of the holiday.

8. Identify the primary reason drone shows are being considered as replacements for traditional fireworks:
(1) They are more visually appealing.
(2) They are less expensive to produce.
(3) They avoid the harmful effects associated with fireworks.
(4) They can be performed in any weather condition.
Choose the appropriate option:
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) (1), (2), (3) (b) (1), (3), (4)

(c) (2), (3), (4) (d) (3), (4), (1)

9. In the context of the passage, what does the phrase 'startle response' imply?
(a) An immediate and involuntary reaction to unexpected stimuli.
(b) A gradual adaptation to new environmental changes.
(c) A measured and controlled response to familiar events.
(d) A habitual behaviour developed over time.

10. Why might the shift to drone shows be considered a 'luxury' for some communities?
(a) Because it is easily affordable for all.
(b) Because it requires less planning and coordination.
(c) Because it eliminates all environmental concerns.
(d) Because it represents an advanced technological upgrade.

11. What drove the innovation of synchronized drone shows as an alternative to traditional fireworks?
(a) The need to surpass the entertainment value of fireworks.
(b) The quest to reduce noise pollution in urban areas.
(c) The effort to mitigate the adverse effects of fireworks on wildlife and humans.
(d) The desire to modernize traditional celebratory practices.

12. Segregating the detrimental impacts of fireworks from their aesthetic appeal helps in:
(a) Justifying the continuation of fireworks in traditional celebrations.
(b) Focusing on developing environmentally friendly alternatives.
(c) Enhancing the visual and auditory experience of fireworks.
(d) Encouraging more widespread use of fireworks in rural areas.

III. Ten months into the Civil War, the Union was short on a crucial supply, the absence of which threatened
to sap the fighting strength of the Northern army: coffee. This critical source of energy and morale was
considered almost as vital as gunpowder; Union General Benjamin Butler ordered his soldiers to carry
coffee with them always, saying it guaranteed success: ―If your men get their coffee early in the morning,
you can hold‖ your position.
But by 1862, imports of coffee were down by 40 percent since the start of the war. Though coffee was
cultivated around the world from Java to Ethiopia to Haiti, Brazil had been the main supplier to the United
States. The Union blockade of Southern ports, including New Orleans, had slowed coffee imports from
Brazil to a trickle—and Union merchants and military contractors were able to reroute only a portion of
that Brazilian coffee northward; even with Union port cities trying to pick up the slack, the U.S. imported
50 percent less by value from Brazil in 1863 than it did in 1860. Demand, meanwhile, had quadrupled
since the fighting began, fueled by a commitment to provide each Union soldier with a generous 36
pounds of coffee per year. Finding a new source of coffee had become a matter of survival.
Luckily for the Union, Stephen Allen Benson, president of the relatively young Republic of Liberia, had a
plan. In February 1862, he sent a message to Americans in the North: ―In Liberia there are about
500,000 coffee trees planted … [and] there is now more coffee exported from Liberia than in any
previous period.‖ Born in Maryland to free Black American parents, Benson had emigrated with his family
to the West African colony at the age of 6. By the outbreak of the Civil War, in April 1861, he was one of
the largest coffee farmers in Liberia—and he hoped that this new country, to which several thousand
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Black Americans had fled to escape American racial animus, could provide an essential fuel in the
Union‘s own fight against slavery.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
helped-the-union-caffeinate-their-way-victory-civil-war-180984502/

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________.

(a) history textbook on the Civil War (b) coffee industry trade magazine
(c) guide on agricultural exports (d) biography of Stephen Allen Benson

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________

(a) To outline the strategic movements during the Civil War.
(b) To highlight the economic impacts of blockades on war supplies.
(c) To showcase the importance of coffee in Civil War logistics.
(d) To criticize the Union‘s dependence on foreign coffee supplies.

15. The passage mentions ―Union soldiers to carry coffee with them always‖ to emphasize __________
(a) The necessity of coffee for survival in harsh war conditions.
(b) The logistical challenges faced by the military during wartime.
(c) The reliance on coffee as a strategic resource.
(d) The personal habits of soldiers during the Civil War.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a causal relationship.
(a) ―Union General Benjamin Butler ordered his soldiers to carry coffee with them always, saying it
guaranteed success.‖
(b) ―But by 1862, imports of coffee were down by 40 percent since the start of the war.‖
(c) ―Luckily for the Union, Stephen Allen Benson, president of the relatively young Republic of Liberia,
had a plan.‖
(d) ―Finding a new source of coffee had become a matter of survival.‖

17. According to the passage, why is securing alternative coffee sources crucial for the Union?
(a) To ensure the economic stability of the Northern states.
(b) To maintain the morale and energy levels of Union soldiers.
(c) To comply with international trade agreements.
(d) To enhance the nutritional intake of soldiers during the war.

18. The author‘s discussion of the Union blockade‘s impact on coffee imports is primarily intended to ______
(a) Illustrate the effectiveness of military strategies during the Civil War.
(b) Show the interconnectedness of global trade and military actions.
(c) Justify the Union‘s military tactics against the Southern states.
(d) Explain the challenges faced in maintaining necessary war supplies.

19. Which word from the passage could be substituted with ‗strategically significant,‘ without changing the
meaning?
(a) "critical" (in "critical source of energy and morale")
(b) "generous" (in "36 pounds of coffee per year")
(c) "trickle" (in "slowed coffee imports...to a trickle")
(d) "vital" (in "considered almost as vital as gunpowder")
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

20. The phrase ‗a matter of survival‘ in the context of the passage best reflects __________
(a) A hyperbolic expression to underscore a difficult situation.
(b) A literal description of life-or-death stakes.
(c) An emphasis on the strategic necessity of resources in wartime.
(d) A critique of the overemphasis on coffee in military planning.

21. In the passage, the phrase 'considered almost as vital as gunpowder' is best defined as
(a) Equally essential for military operations.
(b) Marginally less important than a major warfare resource.
(c) Exaggerating the importance of a non-military asset.
(d) Essential only for the morale of troops, unlike gunpowder.

22. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that securing alternative coffee
sources was crucial for the Union‘s success?
(a) Evidence shows that soldier morale significantly dropped in units experiencing coffee shortages.
(b) Historical records indicate that other armies did not prioritize coffee supply.
(c) Studies suggest that coffee consumption has minimal impact on soldier performance.
(d) Reports reveal that the Union had ample supplies of other resources like food and ammunition.

IV. The new National Democratic Alliance government faces some thorny old problems in national security.
It will have to make decisions — or else continue to defer them — on everything from whether to build
another aircraft carrier, to the process of implementing theaterisation, to managing strategic relations
with the United States and competition with China. How will the coalition government, with competing
demands on its resources and attention, make those decisions?
Its best option is to step back and consider national security holistically, from first principles. It should not
consider this reform or that relationship in a piecemeal, haphazard way; that would risk wasting scarce
resources and undermining national goals. It should, instead, commit to a new rubric for making these
decisions — it should commit to writing a National Security Strategy (NSS).
Most powerful states publish some form of national security strategy. India does not. Consequently, its
capability investment decisions are made by haggling between the military services. Plans and priorities
get stuck in well-worn grooves, and are never systematically re-evaluated. Grand strategic vision
becomes concentrated in the hands of a few individuals at the apex of government, where it gets hidden
behind closed doors, or crowded out by other political whims.
India cannot afford to be so reactive. The world is throwing up a slew of strategic risks, from climate
change to pandemics, which require decades of coordinated policy effort to address. China alone
represents an unprecedented array of interconnected challenges, from an explosive naval build-up, to
geoeconomic clout in South Asia, to leverage in global supply chains. And even distant conflicts, from
Ukraine to Gaza, are revealing new technologies and tactics of war that will invariably spread to India‘s
neighbourhood. India needs a regular process to make sense of this tumult and plan for it.
A regular and well-crafted NSS would give India five critical benefits that it currently lacks. First and
logically foremost, it would force the government to undertake a comprehensive strategic assessment —
a review of the country‘s threats and opportunities, and a stocktake of global security trends. Such a
periodic review would force New Delhi to spotlight evolving challenges, such as the growth of the
Chinese navy, even though it does not pose an urgent and lethal threat today. In the absence of an NSS,
long-term threats will be neglected until they pose an immediate and grave threat — when they will be
much harder to manage.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

the-anchor-of-a-national-security-strategy/[Link]

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Informative (b) Reflective
(c) Persuasive (d) Ironic

24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?

(a) Cause: Lack of a National Security Strategy, Effect: Haphazard military spending
(b) Cause: Global strategic risks, Effect: Need for coordinated policy effort
(c) Cause: Concentration of strategic decision-making, Effect: Neglected long-term threats
(d) Cause: Strategic competition with China, Effect: Need for increased naval capabilities

25. What is the purpose of the word ―reactive‖ in the passage?

(a) To describe India's proactive stance on national security.
(b) To emphasize the need for a more anticipatory and prepared approach.
(c) To indicate a shift towards more dynamic defense strategies.
(d) To convey a sense of complacency in strategic planning.

26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that India‘s lack of a National Security
Strategy is detrimental?
(a) India has maintained strong international alliances without an NSS.
(b) The Indian military has achieved significant technological advancements recently.
(c) Long-term threats have seldom materialized into actual conflicts.
(d) Ad-hoc decision-making has allowed for flexible responses to unpredictable threats.

27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
(a) ―Strategic vision should be diversified across various government bodies.‖
(b) ―A National Security Strategy is unnecessary for a country like India.‖
(c) ―Long-term security planning is crucial for addressing emerging global challenges.‖
(d) ―Military decisions should be made independently by each service without coordination.‖
28. The author implies that the absence of a National Security Strategy would be _____ to India‘s strategic
planning. Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) beneficial (b) detrimental
(c) irrelevant (d) transformative

29. Given the author‘s position on the importance of a National Security Strategy, what stand would the
author probably take on the issue of coordinated defense policies?
(a) The author would argue for the integration of various military departments under a common strategic
framework.
(b) The author would likely advocate for independent operational mandates for each military branch.
(c) The author would insist on reducing the overall military budget to decrease national expenditures.
(d) The author would emphasize the importance of maintaining traditional military structures without
changes.

30. In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the term ‗grand strategic vision‘?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) ―Grand strategic vision becomes concentrated in the hands of a few individuals at the apex of
government, where it gets hidden behind closed doors.‖
(b) ―The grand strategic vision of the nation has been widely discussed in public forums.‖
(c) ―Every military service has its own grand strategic vision, which they follow diligently.‖
(d) ―Grand strategic visions have no place in modern national security frameworks.‖

31. Which of the following substitutions for ‗systematically re-evaluated‘ in the given sentence would NOT
change the meaning of the quoted sentence?
"They are systematically re-evaluated to ensure relevance and efficacy."
(a) Routinely reassessed (b) Regularly reviewed
(c) Occasionally reconsidered (d) Periodically examined

32. What is the writer‘s aim in referring to decisions being made by 'haggling between the military services'?
(a) To indicate that decision-making processes are disjointed and inefficient.
(b) To suggest that decisions are reached through balanced and fair negotiations.
(c) To emphasize that military decisions are based on comprehensive strategic planning.
(d) To convey that military services have a harmonious relationship.

V. From a very young age we are encouraged to distinguish facts from opinions. Now the ability to
distinguish facts from merely alleged facts, and the ability to distinguish opinions from considered
judgments, is an important skill. However, the fact-opinion duality is a false dichotomy which rests on a
category mistake. In claiming that facts and opinions stand in a dichotomous relationship, we ignore the
two classes which stand in genuine opposition to each set in turn: facts are properly opposed to what we
variously call non-facts, merely alleged facts, fictions, or falsehoods; and opinions really stand in
opposition to considered judgments.
When someone asks, ―Is that a fact?‖ they can be understood as asking, ―Is that really the case?‖ or ―Is
that ultimately true?‖ When someone says, ―It is a fact that…‖ they are telling us, in other words, ―It is the
case that…‖ or ―It is true that…‖ That is, facts are not the statements themselves; they are, rather, the
state of affairs or the reality to which a true statement corresponds.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]

33. The opposition to the fact-opinion dichotomy as presented in the passage can be attributed to:
(1) a misunderstanding of the nature of facts.
(2) the realization that facts and opinions are not mutually exclusive.
(3) the recognition of different categories opposing each concept.
(4) a rejection of traditional views on facts and opinions.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (4) (d) (3) and (4)

34. In the context of the passage, how is the concept of "non-facts" best understood?
(a) As statements that have been proven to be false through scientific methods.
(b) As realities that are not widely accepted by the general public.
(c) As states of affairs that do not correspond to any reality.
(d) As opinions that have not been formed through careful consideration.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

35. The use of the word ―category mistake‖ in the passage conveys that the fact-opinion dichotomy:
(a) incorrectly categorizes two distinct concepts as opposites.
(b) accurately describes the relationship between facts and opinions.
(c) highlights the importance of distinguishing facts from opinions.
(d) simplifies the understanding of complex philosophical ideas.

36. Statement 1: Facts are statements themselves.

Statement 2: Facts are the state of affairs or reality to which a true statement corresponds.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. A significant issue with the fact-opinion dichotomy, as discussed in the passage, is:
(a) the oversimplification of complex ideas.
(b) the exclusion of subjective experiences.
(c) the misclassification of statements.
(d) the undervaluation of considered judgments.

38. In the passage, how does the author differentiate between "opinions" and "considered judgments"?
(a) Opinions are seen as uninformed beliefs, whereas considered judgments are based on thorough
analysis.
(b) Opinions are always wrong, while considered judgments are always right.
(c) Opinions are personal preferences, whereas considered judgments are public consensus.
(d) Opinions are expressions of doubt, whereas considered judgments are expressions of certainty.

39. According to the passage, what is implied when someone states "It is a fact that..."?
(a) They are emphasizing the subjective nature of their belief.
(b) They are declaring a personal opinion as universally true.
(c) They are asserting a statement that corresponds to an objective reality.
(d) They are indicating a probable hypothesis that needs verification.

VI. Corporate news coverage of gun violence in the United States skews heavily toward mass shootings.
The establishment press almost never reports on community-level gun violence, defined by the Johns
Hopkins Center for Gun Violence Solutions as incidents involving ―non-intimately related individuals in
cities.‖
Although community gun violence reflects the deep-rooted inequities of systemic racism—including
redlining, exclusionary zoning, and mass incarceration—mass shootings, which represent roughly 1
percent of U.S. gun violence, ―Soak up about 95 percent of the oxygen in terms of the national
conversation on gun violence,‖ Michael Anestis, of the New Jersey Gun Violence Research Center at
Rutgers University, told The New York Times last year. This skewed coverage shapes the public‘s
understanding of American gun violence, undermining popular support for community programs that treat
it as an urgent public health issue.
Corporate reporting on gun violence often marginalizes community-based solutions, because journalists
typically favor sources with official, bureaucratic statuses, such as current and former law enforcement
officers and elected officials. As a result, the establishment press typically fails to treat community
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

leaders and activists, whose statuses are unofficial, as newsworthy actors or commentators, negatively
impacting coverage of community gun violence.
The following case study of community gun violence in Chicago, as reported between April and June
2022, illustrates problematic patterns in news coverage that correspond to broader conventions in
reporting of gun violence that a colleague, Sam Peacock, and I documented in a quantitative analysis of
differences between corporate and independent news coverage of community gun violence.
The lack of news coverage of community-level gun violence fosters a fundamental misunderstanding of
the problem. Community-based solutions and direct preventive programs exist in cities all over the
country, but it‘s taken years for governmental support to catch up.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
distorts-gun-violence-voitl/

40. Based on the discussion of community gun violence in the passage, what could be a potential
consequence for communities if they do not address this form of violence effectively?
(a) Increased community development
(b) No change in community safety
(c) Decreased local economic growth
(d) Heightened community tensions and violence

41. How might the media's focus on mass shootings over community gun violence contribute to inadequate
community responses?
(a) By highlighting the effectiveness of community responses
(b) By overshadowing the need for community-focused solutions
(c) By promoting a more transparent approach to gun violence
(d) By reducing incidents of gun violence overall

42. What broader societal implications can be drawn from the media‘s skewed coverage of gun violence as
highlighted in the passage?
(a) Diminished public understanding and support for community interventions
(b) A push towards stricter gun control laws focusing on mass shootings
(c) Increased public awareness of systemic issues like redlining
(d) Enhanced effectiveness of law enforcement in community policing

43. In what ways does the establishment press‘s preference for official sources impact the coverage of
community gun violence?
(a) It provides a more balanced view of gun violence
(b) It leads to a marginalization of community voices in discussions
(c) It ensures accuracy in reporting on gun-related incidents
(d) It promotes a diverse range of opinions and solutions

44. What is the significance of recognizing and addressing the systemic roots of community gun violence as
indicated in the passage?
(a) It has no substantial impact on reducing gun violence
(b) It disconnects the violence from broader societal issues
(c) It can lead to more targeted and effective community programs
(d) It overemphasizes the role of law enforcement in community safety
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

VII. Most of us, in our day to day lives, experience time as something that‘s fixed: always ticking by, in the
forward direction, at an easily measurable rate that all observers can agree on. But when two observers
compare what they each experience, for themselves, as one second, they don‘t always find themselves
agreeing with one another. This was only explained in the early 1900s, with the arrival of Einstein‘s
theory of relativity: the surprise that time itself, long considered fundamental and universal, is actually
relative. Different observers, so long as they move through space at different speeds or in different
directions, will experience the flow of time differently from one another. Whether two events occur
simultaneously or one-before-the-other depends entirely on the observer‘s point of view.
And yet, despite how ambiguous time is, there are some facts about it that all observers can agree on.
Perhaps the most fundamental of these facts — and yet, perhaps the most puzzling among them as well
— is that everyone, in their own inertial reference frame, always sees time moving forward at the same
rate: one second-per-second. This fact is known as the arrow of time, or specifically our perceptive arrow
of time. There are many ideas as to what causes us to experience it the way we do, and one idea that‘s
been put forward is the only other ―arrow of time‖ we know about: the thermodynamic arrow of time, as
entropy always increases.
These two arrows, unfortunately, cannot be one and the same; the thermodynamic arrow of time is no
good as an explanation for the arrow of time we perceive. Although some will argue the contrary, the
science is very clear about this. With every moment that passes, no matter what is going on around us,
we find ourselves experiencing the most basic, boring, and mundane form of time travel of all: the slow
passage of time that ticks by as we progress into the future.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
time-dont-match/

45. What does the term ‗relative‘ imply in the context of the passage?
(a) Time is universally experienced in the same way by all observers.
(b) Time can vary in its perception depending on the observer's motion and position.
(c) Time remains constant and unaffected by the speed or direction of observers.
(d) Time has an absolute, unchanging nature that is independent of any observer.

46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following concept from the passage:
―the arrow of time‖?
(a) Time moves in a fixed, forward direction that all observers perceive similarly in their own reference
frame.
(b) The thermodynamic arrow of time refers to the increase of entropy, which parallels our perception of
time's passage.
(c) The perception of time‘s unidirectional flow is universally consistent due to the thermodynamic arrow
of time.
(d) The perception of time's flow as one second per second is a fundamental aspect of how we
experience reality.

47. Why has the writer used the term ―arrow‖ in the phrase ―arrow of time‖?
(a) To suggest that time moves in a precise and targeted manner like an arrow.
(b) To imply that time has a physical form and direction like an arrow in flight.
(c) To indicate that time is a weapon that moves in a straight line towards a target.
(d) To denote the directional and unidirectional nature of time‘s passage.
48. Select the option that correctly analyzes the relationship between the perceptive arrow of time and the
thermodynamic arrow of time as described in the passage.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) They are related in that both describe unidirectional processes but are not the same.
(b) They are distinct concepts with no relation to each other.
(c) They are fundamentally the same and explain each other‘s existence.
(d) They contradict each other and cannot coexist in any theoretical framework.

49. How can the writer‘s description of the passage of time as "the most basic, boring, and mundane form of
time travel" be interpreted?
(a) As an indication that time travel is a common and unremarkable phenomenon.
(b) As a critique of the perception that time travel is an exciting and extraordinary event.
(c) As a suggestion that time travel has become less significant in modern science.
(d) As an expression of the monotonous and inevitable nature of time‘s progression.

50. What is the significance of observers experiencing time differently in the context of the passage?
(a) It demonstrates the absolute nature of time across different frames of reference.
(b) It underscores the importance of motion and direction in understanding time‘s flow.
(c) It reveals the inconsistency of physical laws across various reference frames.
(d) It highlights the universal agreement on the rate of time passage among all observers.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 40
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Lifestyle: Traditional Chinese medicine has been known to incorporate interesting ingredients and
extract unexpected benefits from them. If you‘re turned off by the term snow fungus, don‘t fret — it‘s just
another word for a mushroom, our favourite consumable fungi. Snow fungus is an ―edible medicinal
mushroom with a gelatinous texture and a coral shape. It commonly grows in Asia and has been used in
traditional Chinese medicine for years. It‘s packed with many vitamins and minerals that are essential for
your health.
There are myriad health benefits of this plant and how you can incorporate it in your regular diet to boost
your immunity. There are numerous names for snow fungus, such as Tremella fuciformis, also silver ear
fungus, white fungus and snow mushroom among others. It is slimy in texture and has a plain taste
which makes it applicable in many dishes ranging from soups to desserts. Most of the time it comes in
dried form and must be soaked in water before being used.
Snow fungus is usually cooked with other ingredients like goji berries, red dates, and rock sugar to
produce nutritious foods that are tasty and beneficial. It can be used together with chicken or pork in
savoury dishes for extra nutrition. It is recommended to simmer it for a long time so it lets out most of its
bioactive substances. Snow fungus is a powerful immune system booster, skin enhancer and is anti-
inflammatory and antioxidant. It is also believed to increase hydration and been used for improving lung
function and relieving fatigue. It can help in controlling blood sugar levels and enhancing your digestion.
The polysaccharides found in snow fungus are thought to be anti-ageing properties that has led to the
name ―fountain of youth‖. This helps retain moisture, prevents senile micro-blood vessel degradation,
reduces wrinkles and smoothes out fine lines.
Snow fungus is recommended in soups or stews, including desserts that are prepared by blending the
traditional Indian spices and ingredients. The trick is to use it in moderation without consuming too much
of it. When added to dals, curries or even kheer, snow fungus not only adds its health benefits but also
provides interesting new flavors. Because of its neutrality, it combines well with various Indian recipes.
While snow fungus is generally safe for most people, those with allergies to mushrooms should avoid it.
Additionally, individuals on blood-thinning medications or with specific medical conditions should consult
a healthcare professional before adding it to their diet to ensure it won‘t interfere with their treatment.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
heard-of-snow-fungus-chinese-call-it-the-fountain-of-youth-9433310/
1. What is the central theme of the passage?
(a) The historical uses of snow fungus in different cultures and traditions.
(b) The various health benefits and culinary uses of snow fungus described.
(c) The comparison of snow fungus with other types of mushrooms detailed.
(d) The methods of cultivating snow fungus for medicinal purposes explained.

2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a health benefit of snow fungus in the passage?
(a) Boosting the immune system and enhancing skin health.
(b) Reducing inflammation and having antioxidant properties.
(c) Enhancing lung function and relieving general fatigue.
(d) Improving cardiovascular health through regular consumption.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. What evidence does the passage provide to support the claim that snow fungus has anti-aging
properties?
(a) Its ability to improve lung function and relieve fatigue efficiently.
(b) Its polysaccharides that help retain moisture and reduce wrinkles effectively.
(c) Its use in traditional Chinese medicine for many years and cultures.
(d) Its neutral taste which combines well with various recipes worldwide.

4. Which of the following words can best replace the word "gelatinous" as used in the passage?
(a) Slimy (b) Crunchy
(c) Watery (d) Brittle

5. Based on the passage, how can snow fungus be incorporated into a diet to maximize its health benefits?
(a) Consumed raw in salads to maximize its nutrient absorption and taste.
(b) Cooked with chicken or pork in savory dishes for extra nutrition benefits.
(c) Eaten in large quantities daily to achieve immediate health effects.
(d) Combined with spicy foods and strong flavors to enhance its properties.

6. What can be concluded about the use of snow fungus in traditional Chinese medicine based on the
passage?
(a) It is a recent discovery in the field of medicinal mushrooms and health.
(b) It is primarily used for its taste rather than its numerous health benefits.
(c) It has been valued for a long time for its various health benefits mentioned.
(d) It should only be used under strict medical supervision and guidance.

II. Leadership: With the rise of the Industrial Revolution, standardised process efficiencies through
automation — factories, mills, quality control, accounting and workflow planning — brought
conveniences, cost efficiencies and better overall lives for everyone.
The goal of many early management thinkers such as Adam Smith, Frederick Winslow Taylor, Henry
Gantt, Frank and Lillian Galbreth, and Herbert Townes was to increase the efficiency and consistency of
production, reduce variation, and make processes more predictable with fewer errors.
Leaders could only be as effective as their managers, so giving managers a process to follow was
essential. Process efficiency was integrated into how people were managed — find defects and correct
weaknesses. Human progress developed quickly through the Industrial Revolution, but human
development didn‘t.
In designing the processes that led to production efficiency, leaders took advantage of one of human
nature‘s greatest strengths: Our brains are hardwired to critique and find fault. Defect reduction is critical,
particularly in environments where lives and safety are at stake. In more modern workplaces, managers
write up annual employee reviews, and the first instinct is to focus on failures or ―opportunities for
improvement.‖
Traditional performance management is set up to rate and rank employees and focus primarily on their
weaknesses. But this approach fails to improve performance. Just 19% of employees strongly agree that
how they are managed motivates them to do outstanding work. We may be naturally wired to give
criticism, but we sure aren‘t wired to receive it. We crave praise any time we can get it. Constant criticism
makes it nearly impossible for a manager and employee to build a healthy relationship.
Critical feedback is necessary, and everyone needs to be aware and accountable for their shortcomings.
But to inspire great performance, managers must lead with meaningful feedback that‘s grounded in team
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

members‘ strengths. This simple starting point builds trust and increases the chance that critical
feedback will turn into real development. And no matter how many studies have been conducted
illustrating the impact of humanistic (positive) psychology, it has remained easier for mainstream leaders
and managers to try to inspire their workforces using systems that assume people operate like machines
and that everyone develops in the same way.
How then should managers structure the ―ideal‖ day for employees to encourage higher engagement
and performance? Today‘s workers expect their manager to coach them — primarily based on their
strengths. We are all the same, develop in the same way and need to be well-rounded.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
workplace-recognition/

7. Which of the following best evaluates the author's stance on traditional performance management?
(a) It is a well-established system that should be maintained in modern workplaces for its historical
effectiveness.
(b) It effectively enhances employee motivation and performance through a focus on identifying areas
for improvement.
(c) It falls short in motivating employees to achieve outstanding work due to its primary focus on
identifying weaknesses.
(d) It aligns with human nature's tendency to critique, making it inherently suitable for all types of work
environments.

8. Which of the following statements best highlights the passage?

(a) Modern management practices should solely focus on employee strengths.
(b) Traditional performance management's focus on weaknesses fails to motivate.
(c) The Industrial Revolution's efficiency improvements changed workplaces.
(d) Managers should avoid critical feedback to maintain employee morale.

9. How would you characterize the author's writing style in the passage?
(a) Analytical (b) Nostalgic
(c) Imaginative (d) Persuasive

10. What does the phrase "Our brains are hardwired to critique and find fault" mean in the context of the
passage?
(a) Humans naturally focus on and point out errors.
(b) People are inherently positive and supportive.
(c) Humans tend to overlook mistakes and errors.
(d) People are naturally inclined to praise strengths.

11. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Traditional performance management mainly focuses on weaknesses.
(b) The Industrial Revolution led to significant process efficiency.
(c) Modern employees expect their managers to focus on strengths.
(d) Human development advanced at the same rate as technological progress.

12. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
(a) Technological advancements have equally enhanced human development.
(b) Employees excel when managers balance strengths-based feedback.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The best management approach is to point out employees‘ shortcomings.

(d) Modern management should revert to traditional evaluation methods.

III. Economy: In late January this year, the government reduced the customs duties on assorted parts of
mobile phones from 15% to 10% via a notification; it didn‘t wait for the interim Budget that was to be
presented shortly. Many thought the move heralded a policy decision to trim tariffs across the board,
reversing the sweeping increases of these trade barriers for roughly a decade. However, that was not to
be; the interim Budget did not alter the import duties much.
Apple and Foxconn have been the key beneficiaries of the tariff cuts on cell phone components. The
American tech giant exported iPhones worth $10 billion from India in FY24, twice the level in the
previous fiscal, as it found it cheaper to assemble parts in India. Reportedly, Apple is on track to shift
more than a quarter of the production of its flagship product to India by 2026, up from about 15% now.
While it is proof that low tariffs for inputs and subsidies help boost domestic manufacturing, the fact is
assembling accounts for just a little over 5% of the cell phone value. Net domestic value creation is only
a small fraction of the surging phone exports.
This begs the question: Won‘t it be a more prudent policy to encourage upstream value creation by
keeping import tariffs on components high? Needless to say, such a policy would yield results only if it is
complemented by a more competitive domestic economy, with overall cost advantages.
With another Union Budget around the corner, the clamour for reduction in India‘s ―high‖ import tariffs,
especially those on industrial raw materials and intermediates has, become louder. What is being sought
is a reversal of the tariff increases seen since 2014, and the ―escalation‖ of the trend since 2017-18. As
many as 4,300 of the 12,000 tariff lines, defined by the HS code, have seen tariff cuts since 2014 (see
chart).
Niti Aayog in a report last week said India needs to significantly overhaul the import tariffs, and use fiscal
incentives for being a major player in global value chains (GVCs) for electronics, and set a target of
$500 billion for the sector by 2030 from a little over $100 billion at present.
Trade economists would say rising tariff and non-tariff barriers are contrary to the policy of progressive
external trade liberalistion pursued over the previous decades, particularly since the 1990s. The tariff
cuts, they say, were the logical extension of the dismantling of the quantitative restrictions on imports,
and trended towards the ASEAN levels. At the current juncture, with China-Plus-One strategy being
adopted by major economies, low tariffs are seen to be a prerequisite for faster integration of the Indian
economy with the GVCs that are fast rearranging themselves.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
barriers-but-for-how-long-3560017/

13. What is the overall tone of the passage?

(a) Optimistic (b) Critical
(c) Neutral (d) Pessimistic

14. Which piece of evidence does the author use to illustrate the limited domestic value creation in cell
phone manufacturing?
(a) The interim Budget's minimal changes to import duties.
(b) Apple‘s plan to shift more production to India by 2026.
(c) Assembling accounts for just over 5% of the cell phone value.
(d) Niti Aayog‘s recommendation for tariff overhaul by 2030.

15. What is the primary argument the author is making regarding the effectiveness of import tariff policies?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Current tariff policies have fully integrated India into global value chains.
(b) Tariff policies need to be complemented by a competitive domestic economy.
(c) High import tariffs are essential for protecting local industries.
(d) Low import tariffs alone are sufficient to boost domestic manufacturing.

16. What can be inferred about the author‘s view on the relationship between tariffs and India‘s integration
into global value chains?
(a) Low tariffs are essential for India‘s integration into global value chains.
(b) High tariffs are necessary to protect India‘s economy from global competition.
(c) Tariffs have little to no impact on India‘s integration into global value chains.
(d) India‘s integration into global value chains depends solely on fiscal incentives.

17. What does the word ―clamour‖ most closely mean as used in the passage?
(a) Silence (b) Demand
(c) Confusion (d) Criticism

18. Which statement is the author most likely to disagree with?

(a) Increasing import tariffs on components will encourage upstream value creation.
(b) Reduction in import tariffs has had a positive impact on India‘s electronics exports.
(c) Fiscal incentives can help India become a major player in global value chains.
(d) The current import tariff structure is conducive to domestic manufacturing growth.

IV. Psychology: Expressive writing is not a benign act of recounting the day‘s events but a transformative
tool for meaning-making. It gives the opportunity to rewrite our lives‘ narratives, repositioning ourselves
as chief-in-charge. It‘s an invitation to stand inside what writer, speaker, and activist refers to as the
―tragic gap,‖ or the space that exists between reality and possibility.
A professor researches expressive writing, asking individuals to write about a stressful or traumatic
event, standing in the ―tragic gap,‖ searching for a life rope to venture into a healthier space and place.
Originally, professors and his colleagues recruited college students to the lab and randomly assigned
them to either write about a troubling experience or an innocuous topic, such as chronicling last week‘s
activities, under the guise of reflecting upon their time management skills. In both the experimental and
control conditions, the participants wrote anonymously. Initially, the researchers hypothesised that self-
disclosure on the page, making the internal external, would bring about positive health consequences.
However, though some of these earlier assumptions were likely true, the real power appeared to be in
the act of writing itself, not in the disclosure. Although some participants in the experimental group felt
worse immediately following the writing, over time, they had healthier outcomes than the control group,
as measured by the frequency of visits to the student health center. In addition, amongst the
experimental group, students who routinely submitted sloppy work for class eloquently constructed
thought-provoking narratives, clearly valuing their story.
Follow-up studies conducted by a wide range of researchers replicated the results while vastly
expanding the population to include war veterans, healthcare workers, cancer survivors, chronic pain
sufferers, crime victims, first responders, new mothers, caregivers, the recently unemployed, and the
incarcerated. Moreover, the duration of the time spent writing and the number of writing sessions
appeared to not significantly alter the health benefits. Across studies, participants wrote anywhere from
two to 15 minutes in consecutive sessions spanning just minutes apart to weeks in between.
Interestingly, follow-up studies indicate that it is not even necessary to reflect upon your own life
circumstances. For example, participants who wrote in response to narratives documenting other
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

people's difficult life experiences still showed health benefits. Though not definitively known, one
explanation is that expressive writing invites people to hone their emotional granularity and processing
skills, which can later be applied to their own unique struggles. In addition, reading about others' pain
may diminish feelings of self-isolation as participants come to see hardship as part of the universal
human condition.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
wise/202407/how-writing-heals-the-soul

19. Which of the following idioms best represents the "given statement from the passage"?
Given Statement: "It‘s an invitation to stand inside what writer, speaker, and activist refers to as the
'tragic gap,' or the space that exists between reality and possibility."
(a) In the eye of the storm (b) Between Scylla and Charybdis
(c) Crossing the Rubicon (d) Standing at the crossroads
20. Which of the following is a synthesised understanding of the health benefits of expressive writing based
on the passage?
(a) Writing, regardless of the specific topic, brings significant health benefits.
(b) Expressive writing requires discussing personal trauma for benefits.
(c) Longer writing sessions ensure much greater health benefits overall.
(d) Reflecting on others' stories has no significant health benefits.

21. What does the term "emotional granularity" mean as used in the passage?
(a) Skill in hiding one's emotions effectively.
(b) Ability to identify and label detailed emotions.
(c) Habit of experiencing frequent emotional highs.
(d) Tendency to react impulsively to emotions.

22. Which of the following best analyzes the significance of the writing being anonymous in the studies?
(a) It encouraged participants to be candid in their writing, leading to more authentic and honest self-
expression.
(b) It allowed researchers to avoid ethical scrutiny and potential biases that might affect the study's
outcomes.
(c) It prevented bias in participants' health outcomes by ensuring their identities remained confidential
throughout.
(d) It ensured participants felt indifferent to the study, focusing solely on the writing process without
external pressures.

23. Which of the following best analyzes the significance of the writing being anonymous in the studies?
(a) It allowed researchers to avoid ethical scrutiny and oversight.
(b) It prevented any potential bias in participants' health outcomes.
(c) It encouraged participants to be candid and honest in their writing.
(d) It ensured participants felt indifferent to the study's purpose.

24. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about the impact of expressive writing on different
populations?
(a) It benefits people who write about personal issues exclusively, showing no effects when writing about
others.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It offers health benefits across various populations and contexts, indicating its wide applicability and
effectiveness.
(c) It is most effective when sessions are longer and more frequent, leading to greater overall health
improvements.
(d) It has limited impact on those writing about others' experiences, with benefits only seen in personal
reflections.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 41
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Education: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has announced the introduction of several
advanced security measures, including Aadhaar-based fingerprint authentication, facial recognition, and
live Artificial Intelligence (AI)-based CCTV surveillance in a move to bolster the integrity of its
examinations. These steps aim to prevent cheating, fraud, unfair means, and impersonation during
UPSC-conducted exams.
The decision comes amid the case of trainee IAS officer Puja Khedkar, who is currently under
investigation for allegedly faking her identity to bypass appearance norms for the Civil Service Exams
and the controversies surrounding the National Testing Agency‘s (NTA) conduct of exams, including the
NEET-UG exam.
UPSC conducts 14 examinations annually, including the prestigious Civil Services Examination (CSE)
and various recruitment tests and interviews for Group ‗A‘ and Group ‗B‘ posts in the Government of
India. To enhance exam security, UPSC has invited bids from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to
provide technological services during these exams.
The tender floated by UPSC specifies several advanced security measures, including: Aadhaar-based
Fingerprint Authentication to ensure that only registered candidates can sit for the exams. Facial
Recognition to prevent impersonation, candidates‘ faces will be verified against their registered photos.
QR code scanning of e-admit cards by hand-held devices to auto-fetch candidate details from the UPSC
database. Live AI-based CCTV surveillance in exam halls to monitor candidate activities and ensure
compliance with exam protocols.
According to the tender documents, UPSC will provide the exam schedule, list of venues, and number of
candidates per venue to the service provider two to three weeks before the examination, the Indian
Express reported. Candidate details, including names, roll numbers, and photos, will be shared seven
days before the exam for use in fingerprint authentication and facial recognition.
At each examination center, the service provider must deploy QR code scanner-integrated hand-held
devices and sufficient manpower. During the mains examination, interviews, and verification processes,
the service provider must verify candidate identities using the data captured initially.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
biometric-authentication-to-ai-based-cctv-surveillance-upsc-tightens-security-measure-to-curb-exam-
fraud-3564639/
1. Which of the following best describes the author's stance on the introduction of advanced security
measures for UPSC exams?
(a) The author is critical of the technological advancements due to potential privacy concerns and ethical
implications.
(b) The author presents the details of the security measures implemented by UPSC without
incorporating any subjective viewpoints.
(c) The author is optimistic that these security measures will completely eradicate cheating and
impersonation in exams.
(d) The author questions the effectiveness of these measures, suggesting they may be insufficient to
deter determined fraudsters.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the UPSC's decision to use Aadhaar-based
fingerprint authentication and facial recognition?
(a) The UPSC views technology as a pivotal tool for enhancing the examination process's reliability and
integrity.
(b) Authorities may have concerns regarding the verification of examinees' identities, prompting these
measures.
(c) Technological investments are prioritized by UPSC as a critical aspect of educational advancement.
(d) The primary goal of these measures is to streamline examination processes, not just to bolster
security.

3. Which of the following idioms best captures the essence of implementing advanced security measures
such as Aadhaar-based fingerprint authentication and facial recognition in UPSC exams?
(a) "Fortifying the fortress" (b) "Seeing through rose
(c) "Building castles in the air" (d) "Crossing the Rubicon"

4. What is a significant purpose of implementing technology such as Aadhaar-based authentication in

UPSC exams?
(a) Technology primarily enhances the efficiency of data transmission between examination centers and
UPSC headquarters.
(b) The adoption of technology is crucial for verifying the authenticity of candidates and safeguarding
against identity fraud.
(c) The intention behind using advanced technology is to eventually phase out the need for human
monitoring in examinations.
(d) There is concern that the implementation of these technological measures could escalate the costs
incurred by candidates.

5. What suitable title best encompasses the overall content of the passage?
(a) "Revolutionizing Exam Security: The Technological Leap in UPSC‘s Approach"
(b) "The Controversy of Technological Implementation in UPSC Exams"
(c) "An Overview of UPSC‘s Annual Exam Schedule and Procedures"
(d) "Evaluating the Effectiveness of New Security Measures in Educational Systems"

6. What is the primary motivation behind UPSC's implementation of advanced security measures?
(a) To ensure UPSC's protocols match the rigor of global examination standards.
(b) To rebuild trust in the exam's fairness following notable instances of alleged fraud.
(c) To streamline the examination process, making it more efficient for all participants.
(d) To reduce the administrative burden during exams by employing technological solutions.

II. Sports: The magnificent City of Light, dotted with the spectacular Eiffel Tower and scores of majestic
buildings featuring admirable architecture, welcomed the 33rd Olympic Games in a unique way, with the
much-awaited Opening Ceremony on the Seine involving a stretch of Paris‘ rich heritage, here on Friday.
The riot of colours and lights turned the Seine and the pastel city into a surreal place, amalgamating
history and contemporariness in a spellbinding show conceptualised by Thierry Reboul and directed by
Thomas Jolly, to celebrate the return of the Olympics to the city after a century.
Contrast this to the eighth edition of the Games which were held inside the Yves-du-Manoir Stadium in
1924. The Eiffel Tower was as young as only 35 years and the Roland Garros, the home of French Open
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

for close to a century now, was only 33 and was still a year away from hosting its first Major. Paris‘
Olympic reincarnation exactly after a century tells a story of the world‘s evolution as well.
The novel parade, over six kilometres on Seine, took off from the Austerlitz bridge beside the Jardin des
Plantes in the evening before passing under several bridges and gateways. It provided the athletes a
nice view of some of the Games venues, such as Parc Urbain La Concorde, the Esplanade des
Invalides, the Grand Palais and the Iena bridge, where the parade ended before the finale took place at
the Trocadero.
Greece, the first host of the Games, led the flotilla of 85 boats carrying 6800 athletes with water fountains
adding to the beauty of the setting. A Refugee Olympic Team followed, underlining the times we live in
as 205 delegates from different countries and hundreds of thousands of people, including several who
watched it free, witnessed the amazing show.
With helicopters keeping a watch overhead, 12 cultural tableaux, a cabaret show by Lady Gaga and
stunning musical performances by leading French artists, including Aya Nakamura, broke the monotony
of the parade. Seventy-one giant screens, beaming the live action from 170 cameras, and strategically
placed speakers allowed everyone to enjoy the magical atmosphere of this show reverberating
throughout Paris. Dressed in their tricolour-themed ceremonial attire, the designer kurta bundi sets for
men and sarees for women, the Indians stood out. At twilight, the bridges on the Seine lit up and set the
stage for the Olympic flame to take its pride of place.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
olympics-2024-opening-ceremony-paris-unveils-ultimate-spectacle-with-pomp-fervour-and-
splendour/[Link]

7. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with regarding the thematic
significance of the Olympic Opening Ceremony in Paris?
(a) The ceremony was solely a display of France's historical architecture and cultural prestige.
(b) The ceremony represented a fusion of historical reverence and modern innovation, reflecting global
progress.
(c) The significance of the ceremony was limited to showcasing Paris's ability to host large-scale
international events.
(d) The ceremony focused exclusively on technological advancements in the broadcast of sports events.

8. Based on the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the 2024 Olympic Games opening
ceremony in Paris?
(a) It featured a parade over six kilometers along the Seine River.
(b) The parade included performances by international artists to maintain its global appeal.
(c) The Olympic flame was positioned at the Trocadero at the culmination of the parade.
(d) The parade route started from the Roland Garros and ended at the Jardin des Plantes.

9. What can be inferred about the impact of the parade route on the athletes' experience?
(a) The route provided limited interaction with the city‘s landmarks, focusing primarily on the athletic
procession.
(b) The choice of route showcased Paris's iconic venues and provided a scenic backdrop, enhancing the
athletes' and spectators' experience.
(c) The route was chosen to minimize the duration of the parade to avoid athlete fatigue.
(d) The route's complexity led to logistical challenges that overshadowed its scenic benefits.

10. Which of the following best captures the contextual meaning of 'reincarnation' as used in the passage?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) A religious or spiritual rebirth symbolically attributed to Paris hosting the Olympics again.
(b) A literal return to life of the city's ancient sports traditions and venues.
(c) A metaphorical revival of the Olympic spirit in Paris after a century's gap.
(d) An actual restoration of the original buildings and sports facilities used in the 1924 Olympics.

11. Considering the details provided, which conclusion can be drawn about the scale and spectacle of the
Opening Ceremony?
(a) The ceremony was an understated event focusing solely on the athletes without any additional
entertainment.
(b) The ceremony was a grand spectacle, strategically using technology and performances to create a
memorable experience.
(c) The ceremony lacked coordination and did not successfully integrate Paris‘s historical elements.
(d) The ceremony primarily served to highlight technological advancements rather than cultural or
historical aspects.

12. Which evidence best supports the idea that the Olympic Opening Ceremony was inclusive and
accessible to a broad audience?
(a) The overhead monitoring of the event by helicopters, ensuring security and oversight.
(b) The array of cultural tableaux and performances by renowned artists like Lady Gaga.
(c) The participation of a Refugee Olympic Team and opportunities for public viewing without charge.
(d) The showcasing of national pride through the attire of the Indian delegation, featuring traditional
designer outfits.

III. Lifestyle: The markets are flooded with various cookware options — from stainless steel to cast iron and
non-stick. But there seems to be a new kid on the block, specially designed for people who swear by
healthy living. Enter triply cookware that claims to come with three layers that help keep the nutritional
value of the food intact. Touted as coatings and chemicals-free, this cookware is also believed to be
dishwasher-friendly unlike some of its counterparts.
In fact, such is its popularity that many chefs and influencers have been recommending it. So, we
decided to seek help from an expert to know whether we should all make the switch.
Triply diet cookware is made of food-grade two layers of stainless steel (exterior and interior) and one
layer of aluminium (in the middle). Its stainless-steel layers prevent chemical reactions between the food
and the cookware, maintaining the food‘s nutritional integrity. This cookware helps distribute heat evenly,
reducing the risk of burning and uneven cooking, which can destroy nutrients. This quality also reduces
the need for excess oil, which can help maintain a balanced diet. Additionally, triply cookware is durable
and often free of harmful coatings that can degrade over time. It is considered good for health because
of the material‘s non-leaching properties, besides its property to retain heat. According to the nutritionist,
the broader base of such cookware ensures uniform heat, which reduces cooking time and helps
conserve gas. However, it‘s essential to avoid overheating, which can cause stainless steel to leach
small amounts of nickel and chromium, though generally within safe limits for most people. Triply diet
cookware is often expensive in comparison to single-layer stainless steel or non-stick pans.
For those committed to healthy living, triply cookware offers a promising alternative with its balanced
combination of stainless steel and aluminum layers. The benefits of uniform heat distribution, reduced oil
usage, and non-leaching properties make it an appealing choice for health-conscious individuals.
However, the higher cost might be a consideration for some. Overall, triply cookware represents a
significant innovation in the realm of healthy cooking, offering both practical and nutritional advantages.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

wine/forget-stainless-steel-there-is-a-new-good-for-health-cookware-range-thats-all-the-rage-these-days-
9456805/

13. What risk is associated with excessive heating of triply cookware?

(a) Excessive heating may aesthetically modify the cookware by changing its colour and appearance.
(b) Prolonged exposure to high temperatures can result in the release of trace metals from the
cookware‘s layers.
(c) Retaining heat for extended periods due to excessive heating can lead to greater energy efficiency.
(d) The ability to evenly distribute heat can be compromised if the cookware is consistently overheated.

14. What is the primary benefit of triply cookware as highlighted in the passage?
(a) Triply cookware is less expensive than traditional cookware, making it accessible to a wider
audience.
(b) The combination of stainless steel and aluminum allows for a more artistic design in kitchen
appliances.
(c) The layered construction of triply cookware facilitates even heat distribution, which helps preserve
the nutritional value of food.
(d) Triply cookware's popularity stems from its aesthetic appeal rather than its practical utility in the
kitchen.

15. How does the passage describe the impact of triply cookware on dietary health?
(a) Triply cookware's design is primarily focused on improving the flavour of food rather than its health
benefits.
(b) Triply cookware is criticized for its potential to alter the taste and nutritional content of food due to
chemical coatings.
(c) There is an emphasis on the cookware's ability to cook food faster, thus saving time but not
necessarily improving health.
(d) The cookware is described as reducing the need for excess oil, which aligns with maintaining a
balanced diet.

16. What consideration is important when deciding to purchase triply cookware?

(a) The higher cost of triply cookware is balanced by its exceptional durability, which prolongs its usable
life significantly.
(b) Triply cookware's cost-effectiveness becomes apparent over time due to its non-leaching properties
and nutrient retention.
(c) Despite its health benefits, the elevated price of triply cookware can deter those managing tight
household budgets.
(d) The robust construction of triply cookware, while enhancing its longevity, adds to its cost, which
might not suit every budget.

17. In what way does the passage imply triply cookware might influence cooking practices?
(a) The lower oil requirement in cooking with triply cookware indicates a shift towards health-conscious
culinary routines.
(b) The uniform heat distribution characteristic of triply cookware promotes a methodical approach to
cooking, reducing food wastage.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Its popularity among culinary experts suggests that triply cookware could elevate home cooking to
more professional standards.
(d) Triply cookware's robust build encourages more frequent use, potentially leading users to experiment
with new recipes.

18. What nutritional benefit does triply cookware offer according to the passage?
(a) It enhances the natural flavours of food, contributing to a more enjoyable eating experience without
extra seasonings.
(b) It preserves essential nutrients during cooking, aiding in the promotion of healthier dietary choices.
(c) Efficient heat distribution leads to quicker cooking times, potentially preserving vitamins and minerals
in food.
(d) By avoiding chemical coatings, triply cookware ensures a safer cooking environment, indirectly
benefiting health.

IV. Health: Tens of thousands of years ago, during a period of Egyptian history known as the Old Kingdom
(around 2649–2130 BC), it was rare for people to be able to read and write. From an estimated
population of between 1 million and 1.5 million, only about 1 per cent were literate and able to write in
hieroglyphics. Their rare skills meant that scribes were highly valued by society and the state and were
members of the privileged classes. This can be seen in examples from the ancient Egyptian literary
genre now called teaching. In Duakheti‘s Teaching (known as The Satire of the Trades), a father
introduces his son to 20 different occupations and says: For the scribal profession is greater than any
profession, there is none like it on earth.
Scribes (always men) recorded the business dealings and revenues of the pharaonic court and the
powerful temples administered by the priests. If you‘ve seen reliefs or statues from the time, you‘ve likely
seen a representation of these scribes, usually sitting cross-legged or kneeling as they work. They had
no ergonomic chairs, adjustable desks or high-quality writing aids to mitigate these uncomfortable
positions. But, in Duakheti‘s Teaching, the father makes no mention of the trade‘s possible physical toll.
As an anthropologist and an Egyptologist, we wanted to find out how their work affected scribes‘ bodies.
In a recent study with several colleagues from both disciplines, we studied the skeletal remains of
privileged men from the Abusir necropolis in Egypt and found that scribes developed numerous
problems compared to other men who lived in the Old Kingdom. They were more likely than others in the
study to develop degenerative changes in their skeletons, most commonly osteoarthritis in their jaws,
cervical spines and knee joints.
Until now, nobody has focused on how scribes‘ occupational habits affected their skeletons and how that
compares to other professional groups. Being able to identify specific skeletal changes and degeneration
could also be helpful when researchers are trying to identify whether the remains they‘re studying
belonged to scribes. There aren‘t always situational clues or documents related to remains found at
ancient Egyptian burial sites.
In ancient Egypt, a person‘s social class depended on whether they held a senior position in one of the
departments of the state administration or on the rank they had attained in the royal court. Their status
also dictated where they were entombed. A tomb‘s position in the cemetery, its size, the way it was
decorated, the size of the burial chamber and the materials used for the burial equipment all tell us about
an individual‘s social status.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
killing-your-back-ancient-egyptian-scribes-had-the-same-aches-and-pains-say-researchers

19. Based on the passage, what primarily contributed to the privileged status of scribes in ancient Egypt?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The ergonomic challenges faced by scribes during their laborious writing tasks.
(b) The significant wealth they accumulated from their scribal duties.
(c) Their direct involvement in the religious activities within the powerful temples.
(d) The exclusive ability to read and write, which was a rare skill among the population.
20. What is implied about the physical toll of the scribal profession in ancient Egypt?
(a) The physical discomfort experienced by scribes was not commonly acknowledged or recorded.
(b) It was considered an acceptable sacrifice for the societal status it provided.
(c) Scribes frequently sought remedies for their occupational ailments from temple priests.
(d) Ergonomic innovations were eventually developed to alleviate the discomfort of scribes.

21. What new insight does the recent study on scribes‘ skeletal remains provide?
(a) It confirms the historical records about the lifestyles and occupational hazards of scribes.
(b) It offers the first evidence of occupational impact on the skeletons of ancient Egyptian scribes.
(c) It disproves earlier theories about the health impacts of scribal work in ancient Egypt.
(d) It details the specific types of skeletal deformities unique to the scribal profession.

22. What does the location and elaboration of a tomb indicate about an individual in ancient Egyptian
society?
(a) The person's involvement in temple and religious rituals as a primary societal function.
(b) The number of familial connections and their impact on society.
(c) The degree of wealth and influence the individual held during their lifetime.
(d) The person's literacy level and ability to perform complex administrative tasks.

23. According to the passage, how might identifying specific skeletal changes assist researchers studying
ancient Egyptian remains?
(a) It enables the determination of the age at which an individual likely became a scribe.
(b) It helps in reconstructing the daily life and work conditions of ancient Egyptian society.
(c) It allows researchers to potentially identify the professional group, such as scribes, to which
individuals belonged.
(d) It aids in understanding the genetic predispositions to certain diseases in ancient populations.

24. What idiom best represents the statement, 'For the scribal profession is greater than any profession,
there is none like it on earth'?
(a) "A cut above the rest" (b) "Jack of all trades"
(c) "Old as the hills" (d) "On top of the world"
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 42
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Social Issue: The Odisha government approved a proposal to plant 19 lakh palm trees to ward against
the problem of deaths due to lightning strikes, which were designated as a state-specific disaster in
2015.
A total of 3,790 people have lost their lives to lightning strikes in the last 11 years, with 791 alone in the
previous three fiscal years due to the increased frequency of lightning strikes. The state most notably
recorded 61,000 lightning strikes in a two-hour interval on September 2, 2023, which killed at least 12
people.
The Special Relief Commissioner‘s office said as many as 282 persons died in 2021-22 due to lightning
strikes, 297 in 2022-23 and 212 in 2023-24. Most lightning-related fatalities were reported from districts
such as Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Balasore, Bhadrak, Ganjam, Dhenkanal, Cuttack, Sundargarh, Koraput
and Nabarangpur. The state government has provided ex gratia of Rs 4 lakh for lightning deaths since
2015.
Scientifically, lightning is a rapid and massive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere some of which is
directed towards earth. Odisha is an eastern coastal state situated in the tropical zone, with its hot, dry
climate presenting the perfect blend of conditions for lightning strikes.
The highest number of cloud-to-lightning (CG) strikes occur in eastern and central India according to the
Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024, published by the Climate Resilient Observing Systems Promotion
Council (CROPC) and the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD).
A research paper titled ―Climate Change and Incidence of Lightning in Odisha: An Exploratory
Research‖, published by the IMD in 2021 further establishes the role of climate change in exacerbating
lightning strikes, with a nearly 10 per cent increase in lightning activity resulting from every one degree
Celsius of long-term warming. Odisha is particularly susceptible because of its ―complex combination of
climatic factors which influence the occurrence of lightning including pre-monsoon and monsoon period,
cyclonic activities influenced by sea temperature and the convective energy of the atmosphere. Mapping
main risk areas of lightning fatalities between 2000 and 2020 over Odisha state (India): A diagnostic
approach to reduce lightning fatalities using statistical and spatiotemporal analyses. Very high and high
lightning flash occurrences occur in the state‘s northern and central parts
With 96% of lightning strikes in rural areas, farmers and daily wage earners like agricultural labourers
bear the brunt of lighting. Over 80% of the Odisha population depend on agriculture and other allied
activities, and work long hours in open fields, making them vulnerable to lightning strikes. Although most
lightning strikes occurred between April and October, most deaths were reported during the peak
agriculture season between June and October.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
explainers/lightning-strikes-palm-trees-odisha-9490868/

1. Based on the research discussed, how does climate change influence the pattern of lightning
occurrences in Odisha?
(a) Climate change has a negligible impact on the lightning occurrences in Odisha, as the local weather
dynamics are more influenced by other regional climatic conditions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Research indicates an enhanced pattern of lightning occurrences in Odisha, linked indirectly to the
broader effects of global climate change.
(c) While global climate trends impact weather phenomena worldwide, the connection between these
trends and specific lightning activities in Odisha has yet to be clearly defined.
(d) Factors inherent to Odisha's geography primarily drive the heightened frequency of lightning,
overshadowing any effects from climate change.

2. How does the passage portray the government's response to managing lightning fatalities in Odisha?
(a) The description suggests a positive perspective on the government's strategic initiatives to mitigate
the risks associated with lightning fatalities.
(b) The passage critiques the government's actions as inadequate and poorly aimed, implying a need for
more effective strategies.
(c) The narrative presents an unbiased account of the government's measures, maintaining a factual
tone without leaning towards criticism or praise.
(d) The passage expresses doubts about the practicality and potential success of the government's
specific strategy of tree planting for lightning protection.

3. Considering the increase in lightning strike fatalities in Odisha, which of the following statements best
reflects the state's approach and challenges regarding this natural phenomenon?
(a) The Odisha government has been negligent in addressing the increased frequency of lightning
strikes and has not taken significant preventive measures.
(b) Planting palm trees across Odisha aims to fundamentally change the climatic conditions that foster
lightning strikes, effectively reducing their occurrence.
(c) The initiative to plant 19 lakh palm trees in Odisha is part of the state's broader strategy to mitigate
fatalities from lightning strikes, recognizing the high vulnerability of its rural agricultural population.
(d) None of the above
4. Given the information about the lightning strike fatalities and preventive measures in Odisha, which of
the following statements is NOT supported by the passage?
(a) The frequency of lightning strikes in Odisha has increased over recent years, contributing to a higher
number of fatalities.
(b) The majority of lightning strike fatalities occur in the urban areas of Odisha due to dense population
centers.
(c) The Odisha government has recognized lightning strikes as a state-specific disaster and is taking
measures such as planting palm trees to reduce fatalities.
(d) Climate change has been linked to an increase in lightning activity in Odisha, exacerbating the risk
especially during the pre-monsoon and monsoon periods.

5. Based on the research findings mentioned in the underlined sentence, which of the following statements
best describes the impact of climate change on lightning activity in Odisha?
(a) Climate change has a negligible impact on the frequency of lightning strikes in Odisha.
(b) The increase in global sea temperatures has no correlation with the frequency of lightning strikes in
Odisha.
(c) Every one-degree Celsius increase in long-term global temperatures leads to a significant rise in
lightning activity in Odisha.
(d) The decrease in agricultural activities due to warming has reduced the frequency of lightning strikes
in the region.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

6. What is the central theme of the passage regarding Odisha's approach to lightning fatalities?
(a) The necessity for agricultural reforms in Odisha to enhance protection against natural disasters,
specifically lightning.
(b) The implications of natural disasters like lightning on the socioeconomic fabric of Odisha's urban
areas.
(c) An evaluation of climate change policies and their effectiveness within Odisha‘s context.
(d) A comprehensive examination of both governmental initiatives and scientific research to mitigate the
effects of lightning strikes in Odisha.

II. Waste Management: Nearly 40 years after the Bhopal gas tragedy, the Madhya Pradesh state
government will finally move ahead with its plan to incinerate 337 Metric Tons (MT) of toxic waste from
the Union Carbide facility. On March 4, the central government earmarked Rs 126 crore for the purpose.
One of the biggest industrial disasters ever unfolded on the night of December 2, 1984, in Bhopal. The
survivors have been afflicted by ailments ranging from skin disease to detrimental reproductive health in
women and congenital health issues in children born to those exposed to the gas. The scale of the
environmental pollution has been massive — water sources surrounding the factory were contaminated
and many hand pumps were sealed.
The company at the centre of it all, UCIL, a subsidiary of the US-based Union Carbide Corporation
(UCC) and now a part of Dow Chemicals, has been held responsible by the survivors who have
demanded just compensation for their suffering. The Supreme Court in 2023 dismissed a curative
petition by the central government seeking additional compensation from UCC‘s successor firms.
According to the proposal, the Madhya Pradesh Department of Bhopal Gas Tragedy Relief and
Rehabilitation (BGTRR) will oversee the disposal of the toxic waste from the Union Carbide facility at the
incinerator of the Treatment Storage Disposal Facility in Pithampur, Indore, from July 2024.
The project is expected to be executed in 180 days. In the first 20 days, the waste will be transported
from the contaminated site to the disposal site in packed drums. Later, this waste is shifted from storage
to a blending shed where it is mixed with regents and then packed into small bags weighing 3-9 kg.
The actual incineration will happen only on the 76th day after all the reports related to the incineration
are sent to multiple departments for their approval before the actual disposal begins to ensure the air
quality doesn‘t deteriorate and the incineration takes place as per standard operating procedures.
A 2010 report sponsored by the BGTRR indicated the possibility of contamination at nine sites within the
Union Carbide premises. Reportedly 320,000 cubic metres of soil needed to be remediated at the site,
while groundwater contamination in the area predated the tragedy, with isolated pesticide contamination
found in five wells near the area.
A 2021 National Green Tribunal (NGT) report directed the remediation of the Solar Evaporation Ponds
(SEPs) located north of the factory. Traces of heavy metals like manganese and nickel, as well as
physicochemical parameters like chlorine and total hardness reportedly exceeded the acceptable limits
in the borewell water sampled around the site of the tragedy.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
mp-to-begin-toxic-waste-disposal-bhopal-gas-tragedy-9488668/

7. What underlying message is conveyed by the detailed account of health issues among Bhopal disaster
survivors?
(a) The listing of specific health impacts implies a systematic approach to categorizing the types of
medical assistance needed.
(b) The variety of ailments indicates ongoing medical scrutiny and governmental attention toward the
survivors' health.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The chronic health conditions signify the disaster's persistent and profound influence on the afflicted
community's well-being.
(d) The enumeration of health problems suggests a foundational role in legal claims for additional
compensation.

8. What does the procedural detail regarding the disposal of toxic waste imply about the government's
priorities?
(a) The intricate disposal plan indicates a preventive approach to managing potential hazards
associated with the waste.
(b) The elaborate steps underscore a commitment to ensuring safety and minimizing environmental
impact during disposal.
(c) The thorough detailing of disposal phases reflects an intention to maintain public confidence in
governmental actions.
(d) The specific breakdown of the disposal process suggests a prioritization of procedural transparency
and accountability.

9. What does the 2010 BGTRR report reveal about the environmental conditions at the Union Carbide
premises?
(a) It brings to light ongoing contamination that necessitates continued investigative and remedial efforts.
(b) It marks the premises as a critical zone needing urgent governmental intervention to prevent further
environmental damage.
(c) It designates the site as highly contaminated, demanding immediate comprehensive clean-up
measures.
(d) It identifies multiple contamination points, indicating the need for a segmented and strategic
approach to remediation.

10. What can be inferred about the Supreme Court's rationale in dismissing the curative petition for
additional compensation related to the Bhopal disaster?
(a) The court likely considered the existing settlements sufficient, focusing on the closure of
longstanding legal disputes.
(b) The dismissal indicates a judicial perspective that further litigation may not substantially alter the
compensatory framework.
(c) The decision suggests judicial restraint, implying an avoidance of extending legal battles beyond
established settlements.
(d) The court‘s action reflects a belief in the adequacy of past judgments, underscoring a commitment to
legal finality.

11. What stylistic approach does the author use to convey the ramifications of the Bhopal disaster?
(a) The style is expository, aimed at informing readers about the complexities of the disaster through a
factual recount of events and consequences.
(b) Utilizing a direct, narrative approach, the author chronicles the disaster's aftermath and its profound
effects on human and environmental health.
(c) The narrative is delivered with a clinical precision, focusing on the sequence of events and
responses without delving into emotive descriptions.
(d) The author employs a detailed, report-like style, presenting facts methodically to depict the extensive
scope of the disaster's impacts.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

12. What implication does the planned incineration process of toxic waste have about government priorities
in managing environmental hazards?
(a) It reflects a comprehensive and deliberate strategy, underscoring a focus on environmental safety
and thorough risk mitigation.
(b) The detailed incineration protocol suggests an emphasis on meticulous compliance to established
environmental guidelines.
(c) The systematic breakdown of the incineration steps implies a governmental focus on precision and
control in environmental procedures.
(d) The structured approach to waste disposal indicates a prioritization of public health and ecological
preservation.

III. Public Speaking: Organizations are changing, and so are the types of demands made by employees.
With new trends toward flatter structures and a greater emphasis on individual contributors, workplaces
have become more collaborative. New ways of organizing work are evolving that unlock organizational
bottlenecks and enable people to work together much more effectively, the management consultancy.
―Moving beyond siloed hierarchies to a network of autonomous teams working together with
transparency, trust, and collaboration offers companies a more adaptable and powerful organizing
construct.‖ This also means that it‘s not just executives, spokespersons, or public relations experts who
are expected to engage in public speaking. Employees at all levels are increasingly required to articulate
their thoughts and ideas, whether pitching a new concept to a team, presenting information at a
company-wide all-hands meeting, or speaking at outside events.
Some staff relish the opportunity to be heard, but many others become anxious at the thought of having
to speak in front of a group. According to a 2023 Gitnux Market Data Report, 75% of Americans fear
speaking in public, and 40% suffer from glossophobia, a more severe social anxiety disorder related to
public speaking. As employees are increasingly expected to engage with diverse teams, necessitating
clearer and broader communication in both small groups and larger settings, this can affect career
advancement. In a recent survey from LiveCareer, a job search resource platform, 81% of respondents
said they would turn down their dream job if it involved facing their biggest fear or phobia. Moreover,
81% of respondents said their fears and phobias have negatively impacted their careers.
If staff are to feel comfortable speaking at work, they need to feel that they won‘t be made fun of or
laughed at – in other words, there needs to be a climate of psychological safety. Psychological safety
nurtures an environment where people feel encouraged to share creative ideas without fear of personal
judgment or stepping on toes. In this kind of environment, it feels safe to share feedback with others,
including negative upward feedback to leaders about where improvements or changes are needed. This
doesn‘t always happen, however. According to a McKinsey Global Survey conducted during the
pandemic, just 43% of respondents reported a positive climate within their team.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
speaking

13. What can be inferred about the impact of public speaking requirements on employees across different
organizational levels?
(a) Employees are generally comfortable with public speaking, and the added requirements have had a
minimal effect on them.
(b) The requirements for public speaking have increased universally, leading to heightened anxiety
among employees who were already apprehensive.
(c) Only junior-level employees struggle with public speaking due to their lack of experience and
exposure.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Senior executives have increasingly sought to avoid roles involving public speaking due to the stress
associated with these activities.
14. Which of the following best describes the organizational evolution mentioned in the passage?
(a) Organizations are rigidly maintaining hierarchical structures to manage the increased complexity of
modern business environments.
(b) Organizations are focusing solely on enhancing individual performance without considering structural
changes.
(c) There is a trend towards larger, more centralized decision-making processes to streamline
operations and reduce costs.
(d) Organizations are shifting towards more collaborative and networked team structures to enhance
flexibility and effectiveness.

15. According to the passage, what is the primary challenge associated with the requirement for employees
to engage in public speaking?
(a) Finding appropriate training programs to help employees overcome their fears and improve speaking
skills.
(b) The inherent difficulty in public speaking, which is universally recognized as a highly skilled task.
(c) The increased anxiety and fear among employees, which could potentially hinder their career
progression.
(d) The lack of technological tools to adequately prepare employees for public speaking engagements.

16. How does psychological safety contribute to the effectiveness of organizational structures as depicted in
the passage?
(a) It establishes a framework where adherence to procedural norms is prioritized, diminishing the
likelihood of workplace disruptions.
(b) Psychological safety facilitates a culture where dialogue and innovation are encouraged, leading to
enhanced problem-solving capabilities.
(c) It provides a safeguard against the strain of overcommitment, allowing employees to manage their
responsibilities more effectively.
(d) It supports maintaining a competitive edge by ensuring that all team members feel equally valued
and motivated.

17. Based on the passage, which conclusion can be drawn about the future of work environments?
(a) Work environments will continue to evolve towards structures that prioritize individual achievements
over team collaboration.
(b) The future of work will likely see a reduction in public speaking requirements as technology takes
over more communication roles.
(c) Work environments are moving towards more decentralized and transparent structures that enhance
collaboration and adaptability.
(d) Traditional hierarchical organizational structures are expected to make a resurgence due to their
proven stability and effectiveness.
18. Which of the following options best reflects the passage's view on the relationship between employee
fears and career opportunities?
(a) Employees' fears have a negligible impact on their career opportunities, as most companies provide
support systems.
(b) The passage suggests that overcoming personal fears and phobias is crucial as they can
significantly hinder career advancement.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Most companies are indifferent to the personal fears of employees, focusing instead solely on
performance metrics.
(d) Employee fears are seen as a beneficial factor that drives competition and innovation within
companies.

IV. Novel Excerpt: At the first gesture of morning, flies began stirring. Inman's eyes and the long wound at
his neck drew them, and the sound of their wings and the touch of their feet were soon more potent than
a yardful of roosters in rousing a man to wake. So, he came to yet one more day in the hospital ward. He
flapped the flies away with his hands and looked across the foot of his bed to an open triple-hung
window. Ordinarily he could see to the red road and the oak tree and the low brick wall. And beyond
them to a sweep of fields and flat piney woods that stretched to the western horizon. The view was a
long one for the flatlands, the hospital having been built on the only swell within eyeshot. But it was too
early yet for a vista. The window might as well have been painted grey.
Had it not been too dim, Inman would have read to pass the time until breakfast, for the book he was
reading had the effect of settling his mind. But he had burned up the last of his own candles reading to
bring sleep the night before, and lamp oil was too scarce to be striking the hospital's lights for mere
diversion. So he rose and dressed and sat in a ladderback chair, putting the gloomy room of beds and
their broken occupants behind him. He flapped again at the flies and looked out the window at the first
smear of foggy dawn and waited for the world to begin shaping up outside.
The window was tall as a door, and he had imagined many times that it would open onto some other
place and let him walk through and be there. During his first weeks in the hospital, he had been hardly
able to move his head, and all that kept his mind occupied had been watching out the window and
picturing the old green places he recollected from home. Childhood places. The damp creek bank where
Indian pipes grew. The corner of a meadow favoured by brown-and-black caterpillars in the fall. A
hickory limb that overhung the lane, and from which he often watched his father driving cows down to the
barn at dusk. They would pass underneath him, and then he would close his eyes and listen as the
cupping sound of their hooves in the dirt grew fainter and fainter until it vanished into the calls of katydids
and peepers. The window apparently wanted only to take his thoughts back.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
Excerpted from Cold Mountain. Copyright © 1997 by Charles Frazier. All rights reserved.
19. What does Inman's reaction to the flies in the hospital ward imply about his condition?
(a) Inman's discomfort from the flies suggests he is still very sensitive to external stimuli, indicating a
slow recovery.
(b) The flies stirring at the gesture of morning underscore the mundane irritations that distract from
Inman's healing process.
(c) The mention of flies being more potent than roosters in waking him highlights a disturbed sleep
pattern, possibly due to pain or discomfort.
(d) His flapping at the flies indicates an annoyance that goes beyond mere physical discomfort, hinting
at a deeper psychological restlessness.

20. Which idiom best captures the essence of the 'first gesture of morning' as used in the passage?
(a) The crack of dawn (b) At the drop of a hat
(c) The still of the night (d) Breaking new ground

21. What can be inferred about the setting of the hospital based on the description provided?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The hospital‘s location on a swell allows for expansive views, suggesting it may have been
strategically placed for its therapeutic vistas.
(b) The rural setting with views of fields and woods indicates a tranquil, possibly isolated environment
conducive to recovery.
(c) The presence of a red road and oak tree near the hospital implies a well-trodden area, likely close to
other settlements or thoroughfares.
(d) The flat piney woods and field views suggest an environment that might contribute to a feeling of
monotony and isolation for patients.

22. What is the author most likely to disagree with regarding the description of Inman's morning view?
(a) The view is unchanging and monotonous, offering little stimulation for someone confined to a
hospital.
(b) The early morning fog enhances the mystical quality of the view, providing a sense of calm and
renewal.
(c) The obscured early vista due to the grey-like painted window suggests a metaphor for Inman‘s
uncertain future.
(d) The view's description serves merely as a background setting without deeper symbolic significance.

23. Based on the passage, what is the main idea conveyed through Inman‘s experiences and observations
in the hospital?
(a) The tediousness of hospital life is marked by small disturbances and the longing for familiar,
comforting sights.
(b) The narrative focuses on the struggle between enduring physical pain and seeking mental escape
through memories of home.
(c) Inman‘s hospital stay is characterized by a blend of physical discomfort and reflective nostalgia,
emphasizing his connection to nature.
(d) Inman's recovery in the hospital is depicted as a time of significant psychological and emotional
growth.

24. Which part of speech is the word 'drew' as used in the passage?
(a) Noun (b) Verb
(c) Adjective (d) Adverb
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 43
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. International News: For a country facing the world‘s largest displacement crisis in peacetime, grappling
with violent crime and inflation, Venezuela is a tinderbox that can explode at any minute. The recently
held presidential elections on July 28 add to this uncertainty and have captured global headlines. It is no
secret that the electoral process in Venezuela is marred by irregularities, with numerous presidential
candidates jailed or disqualified in the run-up to the elections, and opaque reporting of the results by the
National Electoral Council. The incumbent government led by Nicolás Maduro claims they have won the
elections, obtaining 51% of the vote, with 44% going to opposition candidate Edmundo González. The
opposition asserts they received 67% of the vote, more than double the votes for Maduro. In this
polarised environment, there are two narratives in response to the Venezuelan elections.
The first and more dominant narrative is that Maduro‘s repressive regime needs to go. Maduro is often
referred to as an autocrat, one who has co-opted most of the country‘s democratic institutions,
systematically silenced his critics and secured the support of the armed forces by bestowing them with
control over the country‘s critical resources. Consequently, the response from an overwhelming majority
of countries has been to either reject the results announced by Maduro‘s government or call for a
transparent count of votes, tabulated and verified by observers. Several Latin American countries have
reacted strongly, cutting off diplomatic ties or recalling their diplomats from Venezuela. Maduro has
retaliated in equal measure, recalling diplomats from Argentina, Chile, Costa Rica, the Dominican
Republic, Peru, Panama, and Uruguay. Even the leaders of countries that maintain a cordial relationship
with Maduro, like Brazil and Colombia, have questioned the veracity of the poll results. Unfortunately,
there remains little hope for a transparent and fair verification of all electoral data.
The second narrative is limited mostly to Maduro‘s own government and his dwindling number of
supporters, and a clique of autocratic countries. The list of countries that have recognised Maduro‘s
victory is small, but it includes two major powers that have a permanent seat on the United Nations
Security Council — China and Russia.
India will be watching the events in Venezuela with rapt attention. The reason? Venezuela is home to the
world‘s largest oil reserves. A decade ago, Venezuela was the third-largest supplier of oil to India, behind
only Saudi Arabia and Iraq. India stopped importing Venezuelan oil in late 2020 due to US secondary
sanctions.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
[Link]
1. What evidence does the passage provide regarding the international response to the Venezuelan
election results?
(a) Several nations have questioned the legitimacy of the election outcomes, with some even
withdrawing their diplomatic staff.
(b) Numerous countries have expressed support for the declared results, minimizing calls for further
verification.
(c) The majority of the international community has accepted the election results, bolstering Venezuela's
global relations.
(d) Global observers have uniformly accepted the election results as accurate, supporting the official
counts provided.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. What conclusion can be drawn about Maduro's governmental approach from the passage?
(a) Maduro‘s government operates with high transparency and seeks international validation for its
actions.
(b) The administration has secured unwavering support from all sectors within Venezuela, ensuring
political stability.
(c) The government has been involved in consolidating power by controlling key institutions and limiting
opposition.
(d) There is a unanimous national consensus in support of the government‘s policies and election
results.

3. What inference can be drawn about the role of the armed forces in Venezuela's current political
landscape?
(a) The armed forces are neutral entities that have stayed out of political matters, including the electoral
process.
(b) The leadership has strategically engaged the military, ensuring allegiance through the allocation of
essential economic sectors.
(c) The armed forces have openly opposed the current leadership, aligning themselves with opposition
forces to challenge the election results.
(d) While the military holds significant power, it has refrained from utilizing this influence to impact the
political environment in Venezuela.

4. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage regarding the recent presidential elections in
Venezuela?
(a) Global observers unanimously declared the elections transparent and equitable.
(b) The opposition's leading contender reportedly secured 67% of the votes as per opposition claims.
(c) Reports abound of widespread electoral misconduct and unfair candidate treatment.
(d) Each electoral candidate was provided a fair chance to campaign without facing any legal hurdles.
5. Based on the passage, which idiom best represents the situation in Venezuela following the elections?
(a) "Back to the drawing board" (b) "Crossing the Rubicon"
(c) "Smooth sailing" (d) "A ticking time bomb"

6. Which of the following best describes the international recognition of Maduro's election victory?
(a) It was universally acclaimed, with major global powers endorsing the fairness of the elections.
(b) A select group of nations, including significant Security Council members, acknowledged his victory.
(c) The election results were celebrated globally, leading to enhanced international relations.
(d) All neighbouring countries in South America quickly recognized and supported the election outcome.

II. Biodiversity: Socotra Island, at the crossroads of the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea, is celebrated
for its extraordinary biodiversity, earning it the nickname ―Galápagos of the Indian Ocean.‖ Its isolated
environment fosters a unique array of endemic species, making it a remarkable showcase of nature‘s
diversity and adaptability.
The vast expanse of land, surrounded by azure waters, lies where the Middle East meets the Indian
Ocean at the edge of the African continent. One of the world‘s largest and most beautiful shore dunes,
echoing the mainland deserts, can be seen from above, alongside breathtaking lagoons that wash the
coastline.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

The magnificent Detwah Lagoon, with its crystal-clear blue waters, unfolds like the gates of the island.
Moving over the white sand beaches of Qalansiyah, where pristine stretches of sand meet the turquoise
sea, reveals a serene and picturesque landscape that encapsulates the essence of Socotra‘s untouched
beauty.
Continuing along the coastline, the rugged cliffs and rocky outcrops of Homhil Reserve reveal hidden
pools and lush greenery, offering a stark contrast to the surrounding arid landscape. Inland, the Hajhir
Mountains rise majestically, their peaks often shrouded in mist, creating a mystical atmosphere.
These mountains are home to unique flora and fauna, such as the umbrella-like, fossil-looking dragon
blood trees, reminiscent of the prehistoric realms of our planet. Nearby, their miniature bonsai-like
counterparts, the desert roses and cucumber trees, adorn the island‘s surface like obese dwarfs, adding
to its unique landscape.
Further exploration reveals the Diksam Plateau‘s otherworldly panorama, featuring surreal limestone
formations and a range of endemic plant species that create an alien-like environment. These distinctive
features, found nowhere else on Earth, add to the island‘s profound allure and mystery for naturalists.
The combination of Socotra‘s extraordinary natural wonders and the rich cultural heritage of the Soqotri
people, who have harmoniously coexisted with the island‘s ecosystems for centuries, makes Socotra a
captivating and unforgettable destination.
When we think of insular island ecosystems, the Galapagos Islands or New Zealand usually come to
mind first. However, there are many untouched sites on Earth where amazing lifeforms emerge. One of
these hidden gems is Socotra Island, located right where the Gulf of Aden meets the Arabian Sea in the
northwest Indian Ocean.
Socotra, or Saqatri, is the largest of the four islands in the Socotra Archipelago. Located just 60 miles
from the Horn of Africa, it is a sovereign part of the Republic of Yemen. Despite the complex political
landscape, with the United Arab Emirates (UAE) engaging both economically and militarily, its most
outstanding feature is one of the world‘s most biodiverse endemic ecosystems, which have earned it the
name ―Galápagos of the Indian Ocean.‖
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
biodiversity-treasure/

7. What is the primary reason Socotra Island is referred to as the "Galápagos of the Indian Ocean" in the
passage?
(a) Its location where the Middle East meets the Indian Ocean fosters unique flora and fauna.
(b) The island‘s diverse ecosystems resemble those found in the Galápagos Islands.
(c) The isolation of the island has resulted in the evolution of unique species found nowhere else.
(d) Socotra's pristine beaches and azure waters make it comparable to the Galápagos Islands.

8. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true about the natural features of
Socotra Island?
(a) Detwah Lagoon is notable for its exceptionally transparent waters.
(b) Frequent mists shroud the Hajhir Mountains, enhancing their mystical appeal.
(c) The Diksam Plateau features sparse vegetation across its terrain.
(d) Hidden pools and lush vegetation define the Homhil Reserve.

9. Based on the passage, the UAE‘s involvement in Socotra Island is primarily characterized by:
(a) Significant financial input aimed at enhancing the tourism sector of the island.
(b) Dual engagement in both defense strategies and financial ventures, notwithstanding complex
geopolitical contexts.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Efforts centered on safeguarding the ecological systems and endemic species of the island.
(d) Negotiations aimed at easing territorial disputes with Yemen.

10. Which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree with, based on the passage?
(a) Socotra Island's diverse ecosystems are akin to those of the Galápagos Islands.
(b) The Soqotri community has little influence over the island‘s ecological system.
(c) The seclusion of Socotra Island plays a crucial role in its distinctive biological characteristics.
(d) The limestone landscapes of the Diksam Plateau create a setting that seems otherworldly.

11. Based on the passage, which of the following best captures the meaning of the phrase ―echoing the
mainland deserts‖ as used in the passage?
(a) The coastal sand formations on Socotra show visual resemblances to continental desert landscapes.
(b) Socotra's weather patterns reflect those typical of arid mainland environments.
(c) Socotra's variety of life forms matches those typically found in desert areas on the continent.
(d) Socotra's rocky terrain bears similarities to desert-like geological structures found on the mainland.

12. Which of the following does not accurately reflect evidence from the passage about Socotra Island's
unique landscapes?
(a) The misty peaks of the Hajhir Mountains add to their mystical ambiance.
(b) Socotra's coastal dunes mirror the arid landscapes found on the mainland.
(c) The plant life on the Diksam Plateau is described as sparse and limited.
(d) The Homhil Reserve is characterized by isolated pools and vibrant greenery contrasting with the arid
surroundings.

III. Artificial Intelligence: Generative AI has very quickly been adopted across various sectors. However,
this has led to increased global electricity consumption that is only predicted to increase further as the
technology expands, with many tech companies already at risk of defaulting on their net-zero
commitments.
OpenAI‘s launch of ChatGPT in late 2022 introduced the world to generative artificial intelligence –
commonly referred to as ―genAI‖ – allowing users to generate text and answer complex questions in an
almost human-like manner and at incredible speed. The new technology took the world by storm,
reaching 100 million active users in the first two months and sparking a race among companies to
embed the technology across their operations and products.
Beyond ChatGPT, genAI has already begun disrupting large industries, from biopharma, where the
technology can generate millions of candidate molecules for certain diseases, to marketing, where it can
personalise content and customer experiences. However, there is a dark side to all this.
Besides requiring huge quantities of fresh water to keep data centres cool, when powered by non-
renewable energy sources, artificial intelligence also releases significant amounts of carbon emissions.
Each individual use of genAI to answer a question or produce an image comes at an incredible cost to
the planet; with the technology spreading at unprecedented pace around the world, its environmental
footprint is only destined to increase. To put things into perspective, a single ChatGPT query requires 2.9
watt-hours of electricity, compared with 0.3 watt-hours for a Google search, as found in the International
Energy Agency‘s (IEA) Electricity 2024 forecast which was released earlier this year for global energy
use over the next two years. For the first time, it included projections for energy consumption by data
centres, cryptocurrency, and AI, citing market trends including the fast incorporation of AI across a
variety of sectors as reasons for increasing electricity demand.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Large Language Models (LLMs), which sit at the heart of many gen AI systems, are trained on vast
stores of information, allowing them to generate a response to virtually any query from scratch. A
December 2023 study, which is yet to be peer-reviewed, found that using large generative models to
create outputs is far more energy-intensive than using smaller AI models tailored to specific tasks. The
reason behind this conclusion is that generative AI models tend to do many things at once, such as
generating, classifying, and summarising text; this results in the whole model getting activated in
response to a query, which is ―wildly inefficient from a computational perspective‖.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
grid/

13. Which of the following best describes the author's stance on the rapid adoption of generative AI?
(a) The author sees generative AI as an unambiguously positive advancement, transforming industries
with minimal negative consequences.
(b) The author is critically aware of both the potential and the problems of generative AI, particularly its
environmental impact.
(c) The author is overwhelmingly negative about generative AI, focusing solely on its environmental
detriments and operational inefficiencies.
(d) The author acknowledges the benefits of generative AI but believes its adoption should be more
cautious and regulated.

14. Based on the environmental concerns highlighted in the passage about the adoption of generative AI
technologies, which term best describes the rapid growth and consequential environmental impact of
such technologies?
(a) Sustainable (b) Unprecedented
(c) Negligible (d) Renewable

15. What would be a suitable title for the passage?

(a) "The Unstoppable Rise of Generative AI in Global Industries"
(b) "Generative AI: The Future of Energy Consumption in Technology"
(c) "Exploring the Benefits of Generative AI in Modern Technology"
(d) "The Environmental Cost of Generative AI: A Critical Overview"

16. Based on the analysis of the data provided in the passage, what can be inferred about the energy
consumption of generative AI compared to traditional internet searches?
(a) Generative AI applications like ChatGPT have a considerably higher energy demand per interaction
than standard web searches.
(b) Energy consumption rates between generative AI technologies and traditional search engines are
not significantly different.
(c) Internet searches consume more energy per operation than generative AI, contradicting common
assumptions.
(d) The passage does not indicate any measurable difference in energy use between ChatGPT and
Google searches.

17. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage about the spread of generative AI?
(a) Generative AI has been widely adopted across various industries without any significant
environmental concerns.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The rapid adoption of generative AI has raised concerns about its environmental impact, particularly
in terms of electricity consumption.
(c) Generative AI is primarily used in the biopharma and marketing sectors with no real impact on other
industries.
(d) The environmental impact of generative AI is negligible compared to other modern technologies.

18. What conclusion can be drawn from the study mentioned in December 2023 about the use of large
generative models?
(a) Large generative models are optimized for energy efficiency and are particularly effective for targeted
applications.
(b) Energy consumption is consistent across AI models, irrespective of their scale.
(c) More compact AI models require less energy and are better suited for specialized functions
compared to their larger counterparts.
(d) The study did not determine any definitive differences in energy usage between large and small AI
models.

IV. Health: The Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare has issued a set of guidelines for the
transportation of live human organs. The transport protocols aim to ensure the expeditious movement of
life-saving organs from the point of harvest to their destination through effective use of available
infrastructure.
The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994, allows harvesting of organs from living
donors or brain-dead patients with the consent of family members. Such organs are transported from
one hospital to another, sometimes far away, by air or road depending on the location of eligible
recipients registered with their respective transplant authorities.
The Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) issued, will serve as a guiding document for healthcare
institutions in States/Union Territories to transport organs by various modes of transport, including metro
trains and over water. The instructions made it clear that human organs for transplant would be
transported only within the territory of India and no organ shall be transported outside the country. Also,
no human organ for transplant shall be allowed to be transported from outside the territory of India.
While transporting the organs by air (commercial/non-commercial aircraft/helicopter/ air ambulance etc.,
except drones), the Health Ministry recommended that the box containing the organ should be screened
without opening it but passengers carrying it shall not be exempted from pre-embarkation security
checks.
Staff carrying/accompanying the organ box should be given priority in deboarding for which an in-flight
announcement could be made by the Pilot-in-Command. Seating in front row seats, priority reservation,
and provision for late check-ins for organ transport may be facilitated by the airline concerned. It would
be the responsibility of the airport officials to define a green path (free from obstruction) and a trolley for
the organ box from the ambulance to the aircraft at the point of origin and from the aircraft to an
ambulance at the destination.
The flight captain may request Air Traffic Control to accord priority take-off and landing for the aircraft
and also make an in-flight announcement about the carriage of a live human organ onboard. In case the
ambulance is allowed until the runway, the airline crew would have to guide and assist the
accompanying medical personnel carrying the organ box to disembark from the staircase onto the
runway directly and into the waiting ambulance.
When organs are transported by road, a green corridor may be provided on the request of the concerned
authorities/agencies. The One Trigger System -- a request from the organ allocation authority (National
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation NOTTO or the regional/state authorities, ROTTO/SOTTO), as
the case may be -- to initiate the process of organ transport by creating a green corridor, may be
considered to help minimise the concerns around internal security as the request would be obtained from
a credible source.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
health-ministry-issues-guidelines-for-organ-transport-across-the-country/[Link]

19. What inference can be drawn about the role of air traffic control in the process of transporting human
organs?
(a) Air traffic control is responsible for organizing the scheduling of flights dedicated to organ
transportation.
(b) Air traffic control is mainly in charge of overseeing the security protocols associated with flights
transporting organs.
(c) Air traffic control is permitted to prioritize the ascent and descent sequences for aircraft transporting
human organs.
(d) Air traffic control engages directly with medical facilities to facilitate the logistics of organ transit.

20. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage regarding the transport of human
organs?
(a) Transplants involving human organs are conducted exclusively within India‘s geographical limits.
(b) It is permissible to bring human organs into India from other countries for transplantation purposes.
(c) Multiple transportation methods, including air travel and metro services, are employed for organ
transfers.
(d) Individuals tasked with transporting organ containers receive priority when disembarking from flights.

21. How does the passage illustrate the priority given to human organ transportation in flight operations?
(a) Dedicated flights are arranged specifically for organ transport to ensure the highest level of
operational prioritization.
(b) The captain of the aircraft is permitted to inform passengers about the presence of human organs
being transported during the flight.
(c) Aircraft transporting human organs are typically allowed to ascend and descend with precedence, yet
they operate within the regular flight schedule.
(d) Organ transport by air is managed as a conventional operation without the implementation of unique
procedural priorities.

22. Which aspect of the transport protocols is critical in maintaining the viability of transported organs
according to the passage?
(a) Ensuring that all organs are transported by air exclusively to speed up the process.
(b) Mandating that organ transportation occur strictly within the territorial boundaries of India.
(c) Using specific modes of transport, such as road or metro, depending on the urgency.
(d) Prioritizing the transport process at airports and on aircraft to minimize delays.

23. What does the introduction of a green corridor imply for organ transportation by road according to the
passage?
(a) It suggests an environmental initiative to make organ transport more sustainable.
(b) It indicates a direct route with no stops, specifically reserved for organ transportation.
(c) It symbolizes a dedicated lane that is always free from traffic.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) It implies a prioritized pathway facilitated upon request to ensure swift transportation.

24. Based on the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP), which statement best reflects the security protocols
for transporting organs by air?
(a) The container holding the organ is required to be unlocked and thoroughly searched during security
procedures before boarding.
(b) Containers used for organ transport bypass all security screenings to streamline the process.
(c) Screening of organ containers is conducted without opening them, while individuals responsible for
their transport undergo standard security procedures.
(d) The security measures applied to organ transport are more lenient compared to those for regular air
travellers to avoid transport delays.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 44
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Art and Culture: A moidam is a tumulus – a mound of earth raised over a grave – of Ahom royalty and
aristocracy. While Charaideo exclusively contains moidams of Ahom royals, other moidams of aristocrats
and chiefs can be found scattered across Eastern Assam, in the region between the towns of Jorhat and
Dibrugarh.
A typical moidam at Charaideo contains one or more chambers in a vault. On top of these is a
hemispherical earthen mound, rising high above the ground, covered in grass. On top of this mound,
there is a pavilion, known as the chow chali. A low octagonal wall surrounds the mound with one
entrance. Ahom kings and queens were buried inside these moidams. Unlike Hindus who cremate their
dead, the predominant funerary method of the Ahoms, originating from the Tai people, was the burial.
The height of a moidam is typically indicative of the power and stature of the person buried inside.
However, except for those of Gadhadhar Singha and Rudra Singha, most moidams remain unidentified.
Inside the chambers of the moidam, the dead king would be buried along with items he needed for the
―afterlife‖, as well as servants, horses, livestock and even their wives. It is the similarity of the Ahom
burial rites with that of the ancient Egyptians that give Charaideo moidams the moniker of ―Pyramids of
Assam.‖ The word Charaideo has been derived from three Tai Ahom words, Che-Rai-Doi. ―Che‖ means
city or town, ―Rai‖ means ―to shine‖ and ―Doi‖ means hill. In short, Charaideo means, ―a shining town
situated on a hilltop. ‖While the Ahoms shifted capitals multiple times over their 600-year history,
Charaideo is considered to be their first capital city established in 1253 AD by king Sukaphaa.
Throughout the Ahom rule, it remained a symbolic and ritual centre of power, due to its salience in the
dynasty‘s founding. After Sukaphaa was laid to rest in Charaideo in 1856, subsequent royals also chose
it as their own resting place. The Ahoms were one of India‘s longest-reigning ruling dynasties. At their
peak, their kingdom stretched from modern-day Bangladesh to deep inside Burma. Known to be able
administrators and valiant warriors, the Ahom dynasty has enduring cultural appeal in Assam.
Source: [Link]
unesco-9477194/lite/

1. What is the primary reason for Charaideo moidams being called the "Pyramids of Assam"?
(a) Their hemispherical shape
(b) Their historical significance
(c) Their burial practices similar to ancient Egyptians
(d) Their height indicating the status of the buried person
2. Which of the following statements about moidams is NOT true according to the passage?
(a) They contain one or more chambers in a vault
(b) All moidams of Ahom royalty are located in Charaideo
(c) They are surrounded by a low octagonal wall
(d) Most moidams remain unidentified

3. What does the passage suggest about the Ahom dynasty's relationship with Charaideo?
(a) It was their only capital throughout their 600-year rule
(b) It held symbolic importance despite changes in the capital
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) It was abandoned after Sukaphaa's burial

(d) It was primarily used for administrative purposes

4. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the Ahom burial practices?
(a) They were identical to Hindu cremation rituals
(b) They were influenced by ancient Egyptian customs
(c) They reflected the deceased's status and beliefs about afterlife
(d) They were primarily focused on preserving the body

5. What can be inferred about the Ahom dynasty from the information provided in the passage?
(a) They were native to the Assam region
(b) They maintained their original cultural practices throughout their rule
(c) They were primarily known for their architectural achievements
(d) They had significant military and administrative capabilities

6. According to the passage, what is the significance of the height of a moidam?

(a) It indicates the time period in which it was built
(b) It represents the architectural skill of the builders
(c) It signifies the power and stature of the buried person
(d) It determines the number of chambers within the moidam

II. Polity: The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) represents a longstanding and contentious issue in India's legal
and social landscape. Enshrined as a Directive Principle of State Policy in Article 44 of the Indian
Constitution, the UCC aims to replace the current system of diverse personal laws with a single set of
laws governing matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption for all citizens, regardless
of their religious affiliation.
The concept of UCC has been a subject of intense debate since India's independence. Proponents
argue that it would promote national integration, gender justice, and equality before the law, aligning with
Article 14 of the Constitution. They contend that a unified code would simplify the legal system, address
discriminatory practices, and foster a cohesive Indian identity. Supporters often cite successful
implementations of common laws in other areas, such as the Indian Penal Code, as precedents for a
unified civil code.
However, critics express concerns about preserving India's rich cultural and religious diversity. They
argue that personal laws are integral to religious practices and that a UCC could infringe upon the right
to religious freedom guaranteed by Article 25. Minority communities, in particular, fear marginalization
and the erosion of their cultural identity. Critics also highlight practical challenges in creating a code that
satisfies all communities in a country as diverse as India.
The debate has been further shaped by key judicial pronouncements, including the Shah Bano case
(1985) and the Sarla Mudgal case (1995), which emphasized the need for a UCC. More recently, the
implementation of a UCC in Uttarakhand has reignited discussions on its national feasibility.
Moving forward, experts suggest a nuanced approach. This includes inclusive dialogue with diverse
stakeholders, phased implementation beginning with areas of broad agreement, and robust
constitutional safeguards to protect minority rights. An evidence-based approach, learning from state-
level initiatives and international examples, could inform the design of a national UCC. Ultimately, the
challenge lies in balancing the goals of legal uniformity with the preservation of India's pluralistic
heritage.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

7. What is the central thesis of the passage?

(a) The UCC should be immediately implemented across India
(b) Personal laws are superior to a unified civil code
(c) The UCC represents a complex issue balancing legal uniformity and cultural diversity
(d) Religious freedom is incompatible with the concept of UCC

8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) All religious communities in India support the implementation of UCC
(b) The UCC has been successfully implemented across India
(c) Judicial pronouncements have played a role in shaping the UCC debate
(d) The Indian Constitution prohibits the implementation of UCC

9. What assumption does the passage make about the implementation of UCC?
(a) It will automatically solve all issues related to personal laws
(b) It requires careful consideration of diverse perspectives and potential impacts
(c) It is impossible to implement in a country as diverse as India
(d) It will be universally accepted once implemented

10. What appears to be the primary objective of the passage?

(a) To advocate for immediate nationwide implementation of UCC
(b) To present a balanced view of the UCC debate, including arguments for and against
(c) To argue against the concept of UCC
(d) To compare India's legal system with those of other countries

11. Based on the passage, which of the following could be considered a plausible approach to implementing
UCC?
(a) Immediate nationwide implementation without consultation
(b) Completely abandoning the idea of UCC
(c) Phased implementation starting with areas of broad agreement
(d) Implementing separate codes for each religious community

12. Which of the following notions is NOT expressed in the passage?

(a) UCC could promote national integration and gender justice
(b) Personal laws are considered integral to religious practices by some
(c) The implementation of UCC in Uttarakhand has revived national discussions
(d) UCC has already resolved all civil law disparities in India

III. Society: Rising unemployment in China is pushing millions of college graduates into a tough bargain,
with some forced to accept low-paying work or even subsist on their parents‘ pensions, a plight that has
created a new working class of ―rotten-tail kids‖. The phrase has become a social media buzzword this
year, drawing parallels to the catchword ―rotten-tail buildings‖ for the tens of millions of unfinished homes
that have plagued China‘s economy since 2021.A record number of college graduates this year are
hunting for jobs in a labour market depressed by COVID-19-induced disruptions as well as regulatory
crack-downs on the country‘s finance, tech and education sectors. The jobless rate for the roughly 100
million Chinese youth aged 16-24 crept above 20% for the first time in April last year. When it hit an all-
time high of 21.3% in June 2023, officials abruptly suspended the data series to reassess how numbers
were compiled. One year on, youth unemployment remains a headache, with the reconfigured jobless
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

rate spiking to a 2024 high of 17.1% in July, as 11.79 million college students graduated this summer in
an economy still weighed down by its real estate crisis. President Xi Jinping has repeatedly stressed that
finding jobs for young people remains a top priority. The government has called for more channels for
the youth to access potential employers, such as job fairs, and has rolled out supportive business
policies to help boost hiring. For many Chinese college graduates, better job prospects, upward social
mobility, a sunnier life outlook - all things once promised by a college degree—have increasingly become
elusive,‖ said Yun Zhou, assistant professor of sociology, University of Michigan. Some jobless young
people have returned to their hometown to be ―full-time children‖, relying on their parents‘ retirement
pensions and savings. Even those with post-graduate degrees haven‘t been spared. After spending
years climbing China‘s ultra-competitive academic ladder, ―rotten-tail kids‖ are discovering that their
qualifications are failing to secure them jobs in a bleak economy. Their options are limited. Either they
cut their expectations for top-paying jobs or find any job to make ends meet. Some have also turned to
crime. Joblessness among college graduates is not without precedent.
In 1999, China dramatically expanded the enrolment capacity of universities in a bid to produce a better
educated workforce to drive its fast-growing economy. But the supply of graduates had kept exceeding
jobs, with authorities expressing concern in 2007 over job availability, an issue that receded but never
fully faded as more youth armed with degrees entered the market. The outlook is uncertain even when a
student‘s major aligns with market needs.
Source: [Link]
working-class/[Link]/amp/

13. What does the term "rotten-tail kids" primarily refer to in the context of the passage?
(a) Unfinished construction projects in China
(b) Unemployed college graduates struggling to find suitable jobs
(c) Young people who have dropped out of college
(d) Children of retired parents living off their pensions

14. How has the Chinese government responded to the youth unemployment crisis, according to the
passage?
(a) By suspending the release of unemployment data
(b) By expanding university enrollment
(c) By organizing job fairs and implementing supportive business policies
(d) By encouraging young people to return to their hometowns

15. What parallel does the passage draw between "rotten-tail kids" and "rotten-tail buildings"?
(a) Both represent unfinished projects in China
(b) Both are symptoms of China's economic challenges
(c) Both terms originated on social media
(d) Both affect the same age group of Chinese youth

16. According to the passage, which of the following factors has NOT contributed to the current youth
unemployment crisis in China?
(a) COVID-19 disruptions (b) Regulatory crackdowns on various sectors
(c) Oversupply of college graduates (d) Declining birth rates

17. What historical context does the passage provide for the current unemployment situation among college
graduates in China?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The 1999 expansion of university enrollment

(b) The 2008 global financial crisis
(c) The implementation of the one-child policy
(d) The Cultural Revolution of the 1960s

18. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the current relationship between higher
education and employment prospects in China?
(a) Higher education guarantees better job prospects and social mobility
(b) There is a growing mismatch between educational qualifications and job market demands
(c) Post-graduate degrees are essential for securing employment in China's current economy
(d) The job market equally values all types of college degrees

IV. Literature: At three in the morning the chief Sussex detective, obeying the urgent call from Sergeant
Wilson of Birlstone, arrived from headquarters in a light dog-cart behind a breathless trotter. By the five
forty train in the morning he had sent his message to Scotland Yard, and he was at the Birlstone station
at twelve o‘clock to welcome us. White Mason was a quiet, comfortable-looking person in a loose tweed
suit, with a clean-shaved, ruddy face, a stoutish body, and powerful bandy legs adorned with gaiters,
looking like a small farmer, a retired gamekeeper, or anything upon earth except a very favourable
specimen of the provincial criminal officer.
―A real downright snorter, Mr. MacDonald!‖ he kept repeating. ―We‘ll have the pressmen down like flies
when they understand it. I‘m hoping we will get our work done before they get poking their noses into it
and messing up all the trails. There has been nothing like this that I can remember. There are some bits
that will come home to you, Mr. Holmes, or I am mistaken. And you also, Dr. Watson; for the medicos will
have a word to say before we finish. Your room is at the Westville Arms. There‘s no other place; but I
hear that it is clean and good. The man will carry your bags. This way, gentlemen, if you please.‖
He was a very bustling and genial person, this Sussex detective. In ten minutes we had all found our
quarters. In ten more we were seated in the parlour of the inn and being treated to a rapid sketch of
those events which have been outlined in the previous chapter. MacDonald made an occasional note,
while Holmes sat absorbed, with the expression of surprised and reverent admiration with which the
botanist surveys the rare and precious bloom.
―Remarkable!‖ he said, when the story was unfolded, ―most remarkable! I can hardly recall any case
where the features have been more peculiar.‖
―I thought you would say so, Mr. Holmes,‖ said
White Mason in great delight. ―We‘re well up with the times in Sussex. I‘ve told you now how matters
were, up to the time when I took over from Sergeant Wilson between three and four this morning. My
word! I made the old mare go! But I need not have been in such a hurry, as it turned out; for there was
nothing immediate that I could do. Sergeant Wilson had all the facts. I checked them and considered
them and maybe added a few of my own.‖
―What were they?‖ asked Holmes eagerly.
―Well, I first had the hammer examined. There was Dr. Wood there to help me. We found no signs of
violence upon it. I was hoping that if Mr. Douglas defended himself with the hammer, he might have left
his mark upon the murderer before he dropped it on the mat. But there was no stain.‖
―That, of course, proves nothing at all,‖ remarked Inspector MacDonald. ―There has been many a
hammer murder and no trace on the hammer.‖
Source: Sherlock Holmes - The Valley of Fear

19. What does the phrase "a real downright snorter" likely mean in the context of the passage?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) A case involving a loud criminal

(b) A particularly challenging or exciting case
(c) A case involving farm animals
(d) A case that will be quickly solved

20. Which of the following best describes White Mason based on the passage?
(a) A typical, stern detective from Scotland Yard
(b) An inexperienced local officer out of his depth
(c) A seasoned, unassuming provincial detective
(d) A retired gamekeeper turned amateur sleuth

21. What concern does White Mason express about the case becoming public?
(a) It might compromise witness testimonies
(b) It could lead to a mistrial
(c) The pressmen might interfere with the evidence
(d) It would overwhelm the small town of Birlstone

22. How does Holmes initially react to the details of the case?
(a) With skepticism and doubt
(b) With excitement and eagerness to begin
(c) With surprise and admiration
(d) With confusion and request for clarification
23. What can be inferred about the relationship between local law enforcement and Scotland Yard in this
passage?
(a) There is tension and rivalry between them
(b) They work independently of each other
(c) Local police defer to Scotland Yard's authority
(d) They collaborate while maintaining distinct roles

24. What disappointment does White Mason express regarding the examination of the hammer?
(a) It was not the murder weapon
(b) It was contaminated by Dr. Wood's examination
(c) It did not provide any evidence of the victim's defense
(d) It was not found at the crime scene
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 45
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. International Relations: China and India are close neighbours. We learned from each other in ancient
times, shared weal and woe in modern times, and have a common cause of rejuvenation today. China-
India relations have become one of the most important bilateral relations. President Xi Jinping and Prime
Minister Narendra Modi attach great importance to China-India relations, and have reached an important
consensus that China and India are not rivals or threats to each other, but are partners in cooperation
and development opportunities. This provides a clear direction for the development of bilateral relations.
We need to figure out how to implement it. Foreign Minister Wang Yi met with India‘s External Affairs
Minister S. Jaishankar twice recently, and stressed that China and India should adhere to mutual
respect, mutual understanding, mutual trust, mutual accommodation and mutual accomplishment. The
―Five Mutuals‖ provide a significant path for us to implement the above consensus. They should also be
the guiding principles for the two big neighbours to get along well. Against the backdrop of profound
changes unseen in a century, I believe that the ―Five Mutuals‖ are conducive to bring China-India
relations back to a stable and sound track. Mutual respect is the prerequisite for the development of
China-India relations. As an Indian proverb goes, ―jaisa des waisa bhes‖ (which roughly means ‗adapt
the environment in which you are living‘). Not long ago, I visited Maharashtra, attended a traditional
Indian wedding, wore local folk costumes and tasted masala tea. I realise that as two ancient
civilisations, both China and India have their own uniqueness in terms of dietary habits, lifestyles, cultural
traditions and development paths. However, these differences did not impede us from attracting and
inspiring each other in history. In the new era, it is of even greater significance for us to view each other
with an open mind, respect each other‘s development path, social system and role on the world stage,
and jointly promote development and prosperity of the two countries, the region and the world. Mutual
understanding is the basis of the development of China-India relations. The two peoples empathised with
and supported each other in their respective struggles for national independence and liberation. China
understands India‘s aspiration for national rejuvenation, and supports India‘s foreign policy of strategic
autonomy. We are both among the largest developing countries. No country understands better than
China what a great cause it is to enable more than 1.4 billion Indians to live a good life, and how much
effort it requires. Meanwhile, when I interacted with the Indian people, I found that the exchanges and
understanding between us are not enough. We need to further promote dialogue and communication at
all levels in various fields, encourage the two peoples to have more exchanges, and promote mutual
understanding and political trust, so as to consolidate the political and public foundation for the
development of bilateral relations.
Source: The Hindu

1. What is the central thesis of the passage regarding China-India relations?

(a) They are primarily rivals on the world stage
(b) They have irreconcilable differences in their development paths
(c) They are partners in cooperation with opportunities for mutual development
(d) Their relationship is of minor importance in global affairs

2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the current state of China-India relations?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) They are at their strongest point in history

(b) They are in need of improvement and stabilization
(c) They are irreparably damaged
(d) They are focused solely on economic cooperation

3. What assumption does the author make about cultural differences between China and India?
(a) They are insurmountable obstacles to cooperation
(b) They are irrelevant to bilateral relations
(c) They can be overcome through mutual respect and understanding
(d) They should be eliminated to improve relations

4. What appears to be the primary objective of the passage?

(a) To criticize India's foreign policy
(b) To advocate for China's superiority over India
(c) To promote improved relations between China and India based on mutual respect
(d) To analyze historical conflicts between the two nations

5. Based on the passage, which of the following could be considered a plausible solution for improving
China-India relations?
(a) Ignoring cultural differences
(b) Focusing solely on economic partnerships
(c) Encouraging more dialogue and exchanges at various levels
(d) Adopting identical development paths

6. Which of the following notions is NOT expressed in the passage?

(a) China and India have a shared history of struggles for independence
(b) Cultural differences between China and India are insurmountable
(c) Both countries are among the largest developing nations
(d) China supports India's policy of strategic autonomy
II. Society: A young tech graduate, full of potential, steps into the job market, only to find their skills
outdated and their opportunities limited. This scenario is all too common in India, where despite
substantial investments in higher education, a stark divide has emerged among students, particularly in
the computer science stream. I call this phenomenon the 'Cliff Effect' as it highlights the precipitous drop
in the quality of education beyond top-tier tech institutes like the IITs and IIScs. This 'cliff', which leaves
many students underprepared and alienated from cutting-edge advancements, underscores the need for
comprehensive reform in India's computer science education. The quality of computer science education
across many Indian institutions is far from what's needed in today's job market. Universities do not
update their syllabi frequently, leaving students unprepared for the demands of the industry. The lack of
experiential learning and hands-on training further exacerbates the problem. Compounding all these
issues is the stagnant entry-level pay offered by some major IT companies in India. Despite the
industry's growth, salaries have seen little change over the years. For instance, one major company's
campus placement offer was just about Rs 3.5 lakh per annum, compared to an average of Rs 4.15 lakh
per annum a decade ago. The stagnation indicates the lack of value ascribed to fresh graduates.
Knowing how to code is no longer enough. Thanks to AI, the job landscape is evolving rapidly, and
employers in the coming years will seek candidates with deep domain knowledge and an interdisciplinary
approach to problem-solving. This shift will be crucial because technology alone cannot drive innovation;
it must be complemented by a thorough understanding of the domain in which it is applied. Only then
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

can solutions be developed to effectively address real-world problems. For instance, a coder with a deep
understanding of agriculture can design AI-driven solutions to optimise crop yields, manage pest control,
and predict weather patterns, thereby enhancing productivity and sustainability in the agricultural sector.
Similarly, a coder who understands pedagogy can develop advanced learning platforms that cater to
diverse educational needs, personalise learning experiences, and track student progress effectively.
India stands to benefit significantly from computer scientists who possess interdisciplinary skills and don't
rely solely on technical knowledge. In that light, integrating interdisciplinary courses in computer science
education is important to foster a holistic understanding of technology and its impact on society. It is
essential that the next generation of technologists embodies responsible and trustworthy AI values and
is aware of and actively addressing challenges like privacy, security, and other ethical concerns.
Source: [Link]
cliff-effect-6222152/amp/1

7. What does the author mean by the 'Cliff Effect' in the context of computer science education in India?
(a) The sudden increase in job opportunities for tech graduates
(b) The sharp decline in quality of education beyond top-tier institutes
(c) The rapid advancement of technology in the job market
(d) The high dropout rate in computer science programs
8. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) Coding skills alone are sufficient for success in the tech industry
(b) Entry-level salaries in the IT sector have significantly increased over the past decade
(c) Universities regularly update their syllabi to meet industry demands
(d) Interdisciplinary knowledge is crucial for future tech professionals

9. What is the central thesis of the above extract?

(a) The IT industry in India is not growing fast enough
(b) Top-tier institutes like IITs provide the best computer science education
(c) There's a need for comprehensive reform in India's computer science education
(d) AI will replace human coders in the near future

10. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) The quality of computer science education in many Indian institutions is adequate for today's job
market
(b) Experiential learning and hands-on training are essential in computer science education
(c) Employers will seek candidates with deep domain knowledge in the coming years
(d) Integrating interdisciplinary courses in computer science education is important

11. According to the passage, what is a significant indicator of the lack of value ascribed to fresh graduates
in the IT industry?
(a) The rapid evolution of AI technologies
(b) The outdated syllabi in universities
(c) The stagnation in entry-level salaries
(d) The increased demand for interdisciplinary skills

12. Which of the following best describes the author's view on the future of computer science professionals?
(a) They should focus solely on improving their coding skills
(b) They should prioritize theoretical knowledge over practical experience
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) They should develop deep domain knowledge alongside technical skills
(d) They should prepare for AI to completely replace human coders

III. History: In 1975, the sisters had taken refuge in India after soldiers assassinated their father, Sheikh
Mujibur Rahman, along with seven members of the family, including Mujib‘s 10-year-old son Russell.
Hasina escaped because she was then in Germany with her husband and Rehana. The chequered
history of Bangladeshi democracy has seen periodic interventions by the military. The army appointed
Chief Justice Abu Sadat Mohammad Sayem as president in November 1975, and the country was ruled
by a military junta. In 1977, Gen Ziaur Rahman became president; he was assassinated in 1981 and his
successor Abdus Sattar was removed in a coup in 1982. Army chief H M Ershad took control, but mass
unrest led to his resignation in [Link] civilian governments of Khaleda Zia, widow of Gen Ziaur
Rahman (1991-96 and 2001-06), and Sheikh Hasina (1996-2001) followed. In between, there was an
attempted coup in [Link] widespread unrest at the end of Khaleda‘s term in 2006, the military
asked the then president to declare an emergency. A caretaker government was in charge from January
2007 to December [Link] Hasina came back to power in 2008, she made sure that the army
returned to the barracks. In 2010, the Supreme Court reduced the scope for military interventions
through legal loopholes, and reaffirmed the secular principles of the Bangladesh constitution. In 2009,
the Manmohan Singh government reached out with humanitarian aid and assistance. It helped that
Hasina had deep personal ties with the Gandhi family; Indira Gandhi had played a pivotal role in the
liberation of Bangladesh. Hasina‘s personal rapport with Sonia Gandhi, as well as Rahul and Priyanka,
was evident when she visited India in June. Former President Pranab Mukherjee acted as Hasina‘s local
guardian when, in the years after Mujib‘s assassination, she lived on Delhi‘s Pandara Road. Mukherjee‘s
wife Suvra is said to have introduced Hasina as her relative. Decades later, Hasina would attend both
their funerals. These early experiences left an indelible impact on Hasina, and she developed a deep
gratitude for the Indian leadership and its people. She received bipartisan support in India — after
assuming office in 2014, Prime Minister Narendra Modi also reached out to her. The core concerns of
fighting religious extremism and countering terrorism was the strategic glue that bound successive Indian
governments with Hasina‘s regime.
With this bi-partisan support, the outstanding maritime boundary issue was resolved, followed by the
land boundary agreement. As Bangladesh‘s economy grew rapidly, India extended it billions of dollars in
lines of credit, and supported its infrastructure and humanitarian requirements.
Source: The Indian Express

13. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with regarding Sheikh Hasina's
relationship with India?
(a) Sheikh Hasina's ties with India were purely strategic and lacked personal connections.
(b) Sheikh Hasina's relationship with India was primarily based on economic considerations.
(c) Sheikh Hasina's deep personal ties with Indian leaders significantly influenced Bangladesh-India
relations.
(d) Sheikh Hasina maintained equal relationships with all Indian political parties.
14. What is the central thesis of the above extract?
(a) The military's role in Bangladesh's political history
(b) The evolution of Bangladesh-India relations under Sheikh Hasina
(c) The importance of secular principles in Bangladesh's constitution
(d) The economic growth of Bangladesh since independence
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

15. Which of the following statements about Bangladesh's political history is the author most likely to
disagree with?
(a) The military has played a significant role in Bangladesh's governance.
(b) Civilian governments have had uninterrupted rule since Bangladesh's independence.
(c) Sheikh Hasina has worked to reduce the military's influence in politics.
(d) Bangladesh has experienced periods of both military and civilian rule.

16. Based on the passage, which factor contributed most significantly to the strengthening of Bangladesh-
India relations under Sheikh Hasina?
(a) Economic cooperation and infrastructure development
(b) Shared concerns about religious extremism and terrorism
(c) Resolution of the maritime boundary dispute
(d) Cultural exchanges between the two countries

17. According to the passage, how did the 2010 Supreme Court decision in Bangladesh affect the country's
governance?
(a) It increased the military's role in politics
(b) It strengthened the caretaker government system
(c) It reduced the potential for military interventions and reaffirmed secular principles
(d) It established a new system of checks and balances

18. Which of the following best describes the nature of support Sheikh Hasina received from Indian political
leadership?
(a) Limited to specific political parties (b) Inconsistent and fluctuating
(c) Bipartisan and continuous (d) Purely economic in nature

IV. Literature: It was a cool Sunday early morning. All of a sudden, my wife said, ―Don‘t you want to go for a
haircut?‖ True, I had not visited the barber for over two months. Like any service, haircut has become
costly and I was postponing the visit to the salon to delay the expense. The salon was bit far away, not at
a walking distance for a senior citizen, and I had to take an autorickshaw, adding to the cost. When I
reached, as expected, the salon was crowded. The hairdressers were happily busy, attending to special
requests from youngsters for beard trimming, fancy haircuts and facials, middle-aged men waiting to get
hair and moustache coloured, and seniors like me waiting for a normal haircut. The salon was air-
conditioned, with plush chairs and television was showing cricket. The walls were lined with empty boxes
and cans of beauty products and a long list of services was prominently displayed — haircut, haircut with
shave, beard trimming, hair dye, facial massage and so on. While I was waiting for my turn, the mind
wandered to my childhood days when haircuts were a simple affair. We were a joint family with several
boys and girls, living in my grandfather‘s house in Thrissur. The house had a large garden abundant with
flowering and fruit-bearing trees. My grandfather was particular that boys should get regular haircuts and
the first Sunday of every month would ask Neelakandan, the town barber, to come home. A tall, dark
person with a gentle smile, Neelakandan would set up his workshop under the big mango tree at the
entrance of the house. He carried a cloth pouch that he would unwrap and neatly display tools of the
trade — a worn-out comb, scissors and a sharp blade. One by one, we boys will silently walk and sit next
to him, bending our head for the haircut. Being the youngest, I was so scared of this ritual, mostly
because Neelakandan‘s scissors often plucked the hair painfully instead of making a clean cut. To cheer
me up, he would say, ―Samikutty, don‘t cry, I will give you a rooster. It has colourful tail feathers and a
red flower on the head.‖ Neelakandan would continue building the story keeping me amused and soon
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

finish the haircut. After his work, he will walk to the rear of the house, where my grandmother would give
him food and some money. As he walked out of the house, I would run behind him to remind to bring the
rooster next time. This continued for the few years I got the haircut but never a rooster.―Sirjee, please
come.‖ The hairdresser called me and I took my seat. In no time, the haircut was done and I was on my
way back home thinking about Neelakandan and the imaginary rooster.
Source: A Rooster for a Haircut

19. What does the author's description of his salon visit reveal about modern haircut services?
(a) They are more affordable than in the past
(b) They cater primarily to senior citizens
(c) They have become more diverse and luxurious
(d) They are less time-consuming than before

20. Which of the following best describes the contrast between the author's childhood haircut experiences
and his current salon visit?
(a) Personal vs. impersonal service (b) Outdoor vs. indoor setting
(c) Painful vs. painless procedure (d) Free vs. paid service
21. What does Neelakandan's promise of a rooster symbolize in the context of the story?
(a) A bribe to keep the child still (b) A way to distract from the discomfort
(c) An actual gift for good behavior (d) A representation of rural life

22. How does the author's description of the modern salon reflect changes in society?
(a) It shows a shift towards more individualized services
(b) It indicates a decline in the quality of haircuts
(c) It suggests that people care less about their appearance now
(d) It implies that modern salons are less efficient

23. What can be inferred about the author's attitude towards the changes in haircut services over time?
(a) He is entirely nostalgic for the past
(b) He appreciates the modern conveniences but misses the personal touch
(c) He prefers the modern salon experience
(d) He is indifferent to the changes

24. What does the author's reflection on Neelakandan and the "imaginary rooster" at the end of the passage
suggest?
(a) The author still believes he will receive a rooster
(b) The author regrets not getting a rooster as a child
(c) The author values the memory and the kindness it represents
(d) The author feels deceived by Neelakandan's false promises
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 46
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Social Issue: The Rajasthan government issued a notification on March 1 for the recruitment of 24,000
sanitation workers across the state‘s various municipal bodies. Since then, sanitation workers in
Rajasthan have gone on strike many times to stop the recruitment. On August 6, sanitation workers
ended their two-week strike after getting assurance from the government that their demands would be
fulfilled.
Around 1.5 lakh sanitation workers are currently working under the Rajasthan state government in
various municipal bodies. A majority of these workers are from the Valmiki community, among the most
marginalised of Scheduled Caste communities who have been involved in sanitation work for centuries.
Now, sanitation workers are demanding that Valmiki community members should be given preference in
the recruitment, which should not be done as per standard government norms in which General, ST,
OBC, and other SC communities will also be recruited.
Valmiki community people have alleged that workers from other communities do not clean roads, public
toilets, and drainage, and rather sub-let this work to Valmiki workers, increasing their burden. Before
1995, sanitation workers belonging to the Valmiki community were hired by sanitation inspectors in the
municipal bodies. After their application was accepted, they would be given temporary status for two to
four years, following which they were made permanent. In the 1996 and 2009 recruitments, a lottery
system was introduced to hand out permanent jobs.
In 2012, the state government introduced new rules for recruitment which added the requirement of an
experience certificate. Around 20,000 Valmiki community members were hired during this recruitment. In
2018, 21,000 sanitation workers were recruited in Rajasthan on the condition of having an experience
certificate. During this recruitment, non-Valmiki workers too were taken in, provided they provided
adequate certificates. This, for the first time, led to the appointment of upper castes as sanitation
workers.
In March, when the recruitment notification was issued, sanitation workers of the Valmiki community
objected, demanding preference be given to their community. The government then issued a
corrigendum which said that only experience working in municipal bodies would be considered valid,
effectively filtering out non-Valmiki communities since most do not work as sanitation workers. However,
non-Valmiki communities challenged this in the Rajasthan High Court, arguing that sanitation work
experience in hotels, schools or other organisations should be considered. This, they said, was
according to the Rajasthan Nagar Palika (Safai Karamchari Sewa) Rules of 2012. The High Court
accepted this argument and ordered the government to recruit as per extant rules.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
sanitation-workers-in-rajasthan-are-protesting-9506252/

1. What is the primary concern of the Valmiki community regarding the recruitment of sanitation workers?
(a) Ensuring that the process of recruitment does not solely depend on possessing standardized
certificates for all candidates.
(b) Advocating for a recruitment policy that acknowledges their longstanding role and contributions in the
sanitation sector.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Promoting a more inclusive hiring strategy that increases representation from diverse community
backgrounds.
(d) Advocating for the retention of a lottery system that ensures equitable selection opportunities for all
applicants.

2. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the above passage?

(a) The Valmiki community has historically been involved in sanitation work for centuries.
(b) Non-Valmiki workers have recently begun challenging recruitment practices in court.
(c) The Rajasthan government has always recruited sanitation workers using a lottery system.
(d) The recruitment rules in 2018 allowed upper-caste individuals to be appointed as sanitation workers.

3. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the shift in recruitment policies over time?
(a) Transitioning from a preference for specific communities to implementing stringent and objective
qualifications for all candidates.
(b) Evolving from a system where job security was uncertain to one where longevity is assured through
proven experience.
(c) Shifting from a universally inclusive hiring policy to one that explicitly supports those historically
engaged in the profession.
(d) Moving from decisions made at the discretion of individual inspectors to a randomized selection
process for job stability.

4. What does the passage imply about the impact of the High Court's decision on the recruitment policies
for sanitation workers?
(a) It has restricted the scope of valid experience, limiting it to those with direct work in municipal
sanitation roles.
(b) It has created an opportunity for workers from diverse backgrounds to qualify for sanitation roles
using varied work experiences.
(c) It has enforced a policy change that uniformly applies stringent criteria across all applicants without
community preference.
(d) It has reversed previous recruitment policies to exclusively benefit upper-caste individuals with non-
traditional sanitation experience.

5. Based on the demands of the Valmiki community, what underlying issue does the passage highlight
about their employment conditions?
(a) A systematic neglect of community-specific qualifications in the broader governmental employment
strategy.
(b) A historical continuity in giving the Valmiki community preferential access to sanitation roles within
municipal bodies.
(c) A consistent underrepresentation and exploitation of the Valmiki community in sanitation work across
different time periods.
(d) A growing disparity between traditional employment practices and modern, inclusive recruitment
policies.

6. What conclusion can be drawn from the changes in recruitment practices over time, as described in the
passage?
(a) Recruitment practices have evolved to become more inclusive and fair, focusing on diverse
experiences rather than community-based preferences.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Changes in recruitment practices have primarily aimed at increasing transparency and fairness in the
allocation of sanitation roles.
(c) The evolution in recruitment practices reflects a shift towards recognizing professional experience
over community lineage in hiring decisions.
(d) Despite changes, recruitment practices have continued to oscillate between community preference
and broader inclusivity.

II. Lifestyle: Yawning happens when you open your mouth, take a deep breath and take in air without even
thinking about it. You might be tired, bored or waking up. Most people yawn six to 23 times a day – even
animals yawn! You may have noticed that you often yawn after you see someone else yawn. This is
called ―contagious yawning‖. Contagious yawning feels automatic, like a reflex you don‘t have to think
about. But scientists know it‘s not completely automatic because we are not born knowing how to do it.
In fact, contagious yawning only starts around ages four or five, which is when kids begin to develop
better empathy. Empathy means understanding and sharing the feelings of others. So, without even
thinking about it, seeing someone yawn can make you want to yawn, too.
Scientists have noticed that people yawn more when the other person they see yawn is someone they
know well – like a best friend or a parent. This supports the idea that empathy plays a big role in
contagious yawning. When you see a friend or family member yawn, your brain understands their
feelings, and you might yawn, too. Contagious yawning can also help strengthen social connections and
coordination within a group. In other words, it‘s one way our brains help us connect with others.
Scientists found people might also yawn when they see animals like birds, reptiles and fish yawning (yes,
fish yawn too). In fact, some animals like dogs and chimpanzees also experience contagious yawning.
When a chimpanzee sees another chimpanzee yawn, it often yawns, too. Like for us humans, this helps
them build social connections with each other.
Scientists found that both in humans and in animals like chimpanzees and bonobos, contagious yawning
is more common among those who share a strong bond. This means you‘re more likely to catch a yawn
from your best friend or family member than from a stranger.
As people get older, they become better at understanding others‘ feelings, and they yawn more when
they see others yawn. However, this ability to catch yawns might decrease in very old age. This is seen
in both humans and chimpanzees. Humans can have a contagious yawn from many different types of
animals – not just their pets that they love and know well. This shows that yawning helps us connect and
understand each other, whether it‘s with another person or an animal.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
you-yawn-when-you-see-someone-else-yawn-the-science-behind-contagious-yawning-
[Link]

7. Which of the following best captures the author‘s attitude towards contagious yawning?
(a) Contagious yawning is a trivial and involuntary reflex that serves no real purpose.
(b) The phenomenon is largely overstated and does not significantly impact social behaviour.
(c) It is a fascinating reflex that deepens social connections and varies with emotional closeness.
(d) It is a psychological disturbance that can disrupt normal social interactions.

8. Based on the passage, which statement is true regarding the development of contagious yawning?
(a) Children exhibit contagious yawning from birth as a basic instinctive behaviour.
(b) It is learned over time, correlating with the development of empathy around ages four or five.
(c) Contagious yawning develops independently of empathetic abilities in children.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The ability to yawn contagiously is acquired in teenage years as cognitive functions mature.

9. What role does empathy play in contagious yawning according to the passage?
(a) It enhances the likelihood of yawning in response to a familiar person's yawn.
(b) Empathy limits the frequency of yawning to avoid social discomfort.
(c) Empathy decreases the occurrence of yawning in public settings.
(d) It makes individuals resistant to yawning when they see strangers yawn.

10. In what way does the passage suggest that age affects the phenomenon of contagious yawning?
(a) As people age, their ability to engage in contagious yawning declines due to diminished social
bonds.
(b) Older individuals show increased resistance to contagious yawning as their empathy wanes.
(c) The ability to engage in contagious yawning peaks in middle age, reflecting heightened emotional
intelligence.
(d) While it may diminish in very old age, the capacity to yawn contagiously generally increases with
age.

11. How does the passage illustrate the relationship between humans and animals in the context of
yawning?
(a) It suggests a universal physiological response to yawning across different species, indicating a
shared biological trait.
(b) The passage implies a deep evolutionary link that enables both humans and animals to benefit from
yawning.
(c) It highlights how humans are more likely to yawn in response to their pets than to humans they do
not know well.
(d) Humans and animals exhibit similar yawning behaviours, emphasizing the social utility of yawning
beyond species boundaries.

12. What can be inferred about the communicative function of yawning in groups, based on the passage?
(a) Yawning serves primarily as a means of expressing boredom or disinterest within a group.
(b) It acts as a subconscious signal that synchronizes the mood and behaviour among group members.
(c) The primary function of yawning in groups is to alert members to potential threats or changes.
(d) Contagious yawning in groups is seen as a sign of weak social bonds and lack of cohesion.

III. Economy: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that it had kept the benchmark interest rate
unchanged at 6.5% after the end of its monetary policy meeting — it marked the ninth straight meeting of
the central bank in which it held rates at the same level. According to governor Shaktikanta Das, the
reason was high food inflation, which pushed headline inflation beyond the bank‘s target of 4%.
During the press conference, Das said that the central bank is committed to bringing down inflation.
However, the data released by the RBI showed the predicament.
In July, the monthly print in inflation for tomato, onion and potato came in at 62.1%, 24.6% and 18%
respectively — and the year-on-year increase in inflation for vegetables is 29.3%. For cereals, inflation
increased to 8.8% in June from 8.6% in April; for fruits, inflation increased to 7.2% in June from 5.2% in
April; and for pulses inflation printed at 16.1% in June, recording 13 consecutive months of inflation in
double digits. Since November 2023, food inflation has been over 8%, a trend that has surprised both
the government and the RBI.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

This February, the RBI, in a paper, wondered whether food inflation was showing core-like
characteristics, meaning behaviour that is more like core inflation, which is less volatile compared to food
or energy inflation. Prolonged seasons of climate-related erratic weather — heatwave in 2022, La Nina
conditions for three years in a row, unseasonal rainfall in March 2023 followed by a delayed onset of the
monsoon, heavy rainfall in July 2023 and dry conditions in August 2023, persisting El Nino conditions
and another heatwave in 2024 — have affected agricultural yields and supply chains, pushing food
inflation higher.
The paper - co-written by deputy governor Michael Debabrata Patra - cautioned the monetary policy
committee ―to be conscious of the dangers of overkill in reactions to a transitory food price shock and
also of the pitfalls of benign neglect of looking through persistent food price shocks.‖ Additionally, it
warned about persistently high food inflation feeding into households‘ inflation expectations, and thus
affecting demand. Households are constrained in their spending abilities owing to higher inflation. The
challenge is to [gauge] whether this is getting more firmly ingrained in household inflation expectations,
don't know if this is clear cut yet. Certainly, if higher inflation persists for a long time, this is a potential
risk. And the RBI‘s monetary stance at the moment, Zook said, is relatively appropriate given the inflation
dynamics.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
[Link]
13. What has been identified as the principal factor contributing to the prolonged high levels of food inflation
in India?
(a) A sustained increase in domestic demand for essential food items across various regions of the
country.
(b) Supply chain disruptions caused by a series of unpredictable weather events over recent years.
(c) Policy adjustments within the government that have negatively impacted agricultural productivity.
(d) The escalation in costs associated with importing staple food products due to instability in global
markets.

14. What is the central concern of the RBI as described in the passage?
(a) The need to balance interest rates with economic growth objectives.
(b) The integration of modern technology in financial monitoring and policy making.
(c) The impact of global economic trends on domestic financial policies.
(d) The challenge of managing inflation without overreacting to temporary price shocks.

15. According to the passage, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
(a) Given the complexities of ongoing inflation trends, the existing interest rate policies of the RBI are
deemed suitable.
(b) Persistent high food inflation primarily results from the Reserve Bank of India‘s inadequate monetary
strategies.
(c) Recent inflation trends have been minimally influenced by changes in consumer purchasing
behaviours.
(d) To effectively manage inflation, the RBI's regulatory focus should shift predominantly towards non-
food sectors.

16. What does the term 'core-like characteristics' imply in the context of the passage?
(a) Traits that are fundamental and essential to the understanding of overall inflation.
(b) Attributes that resemble non-volatile sectors such as core inflation sectors excluding food and
energy.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Characteristics that are transient and not indicative of long-term inflation trends.
(d) Features that are exclusively related to monetary policies and their direct outcomes.

17. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage regarding the RBI's approach to
inflation?
(a) The RBI has maintained the benchmark interest rate unchanged to combat high food inflation.
(b) The RBI is actively considering the impact of climatic changes on agricultural outputs in its policy
reviews.
(c) The RBI has been surprised by the persistent high rates of food inflation despite its efforts.
(d) The RBI has recently lowered interest rates to stimulate economic growth despite high inflation.

18. What synonym for 'predicament' as used in the passage would be most appropriate?
(a) Dilemma (b) Catastrophe
(c) Advantage (d) Solution

IV. Science: All Indian salt and sugar brands, whether big or small, packaged or unpackaged, contain
microplastics, according to a study published. The study, "Microplastics in Salt and Sugar" and
conducted by the environmental research organisation Toxics Link, tested 10 types of salt including table
salt, rock salt, sea salt and local raw salt and five types of sugar purchased from both online and local
markets. The study revealed the presence of microplastics in all salt and sugar samples, in various
forms, including fibre, pellets, films and fragments. The size of these microplastics ranged from 0.1 mm
to 5 mm. The highest levels of microplastics were found in iodised salt, in the form of multi-coloured thin
fibre and films.
The objective of our study was to contribute to the existing scientific database on microplastics so that
the global plastic treaty can address this issue in a concrete and focused manner. We also aim to trigger
policy action and attract researchers' attention to potential technological interventions that could reduce
exposure risks to microplastics. Our study's finding of substantial amounts of microplastics in all salt and
sugar samples is concerning and calls for urgent, comprehensive research into the long-term health
impacts of microplastics on human health.
The concentration of microplastics in the salt samples ranged from 6.71 to 89.15 pieces per kilogramme
of dry weight, the report said. Iodised salt had the highest concentration of microplastics while organic
rock salt had the lowest, according to the study. In sugar samples, the concentration of microplastics
ranged from 11.85 to 68.25 pieces per kilogramme, with the highest concentration found in non-organic
sugar.
Microplastics are a growing global concern because they can harm both health and the environment.
These tiny plastic particles can enter the human body through food, water and air. Recent research has
found microplastics in human organs such as the lungs, heart, and even in breast milk and unborn
babies. Previous studies found that the average Indian consumes 10.98 grams of salt and around 10
spoons of sugar every day, much higher than the World Health Organization's recommended limits.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
[Link]
19. What best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(a) The necessity of global cooperation in addressing the contamination of food supplies by
microplastics.
(b) Detailed descriptions of the types of microplastics found in Indian salt and sugar brands.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The alarming presence of microplastics in all tested salt and sugar brands in India and the call for
urgent research.
(d) The health implications of consuming salt and sugar with microplastics on a daily basis.

20. Which statement would the author most likely disagree with?
(a) Microplastics' presence in basic food items like salt and sugar necessitates immediate action to
investigate potential health impacts.
(b) The current understanding of microplastics' effects on human health is sufficient to delay any further
research into the area.
(c) Efforts should be made to develop technological solutions to reduce microplastic contamination in
food items.
(d) Policy changes are essential to address the findings of microplastics in consumable products.

21. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the author's stance on the issue of
microplastics?
(a) Microplastics pose a severe threat to human health, and immediate regulatory measures should be
enacted.
(b) While concerning, the presence of microplastics in food does not constitute an immediate health
crisis.
(c) More research is needed to understand the implications of microplastics before any policy decisions
are made.
(d) Technological advancements have adequately addressed the major concerns regarding
microplastics in food.

22. What inference can be made about the variability of microplastic concentration in different salt types?
(a) Higher microplastic contamination in iodised salt suggests the iodization process may increase
microplastic content.
(b) The natural harvesting method of sea salt likely results in lower microplastic contamination than in
processed salts.
(c) Local raw salt, due to minimal processing, might exhibit microplastic levels comparable to those
found in iodised salt.
(d) Organic rock salt contains fewer microplastics due to its minimal processing compared to more
heavily processed salts.

23. Which statement reflects an implicit concern about microplastic size variability in food products, based on
the passage?
(a) Larger microplastics might be more easily detected and avoided during consumption compared to
smaller sizes.
(b) The presence of smaller microplastics, given their range, may pose a greater risk for unnoticed
ingestion.
(c) All sizes of microplastics, regardless of dimension, equally contribute to the health risks outlined in
the study.
(d) Microplastics larger than 1 mm are considered safer as they are less likely to be absorbed by human
organs.

24. From the context of the passage, what part of speech is the word 'trigger' as used in line "We also aim to
trigger policy action"?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Noun (b) Verb

(c) Adjective (d) Adverb
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 47
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. There is as yet no resolution after an unprecedented week in Kenyan politics. What began as protests
against a rushed-through finance bill has revealed a crisis of legitimacy within the executive, the
legislature and the police that were sent to do the government‘s bidding. And while the protesters have
been very clear about their demands – reject the finance bill – outsiders who are accustomed to
simplistic narratives about African politics have been scrambling and failing to understand what these
events really mean.
Kenya is experiencing a polycrisis of sorts. The finance bill is the immediate trigger: an annually
produced document that lays out the government‘s fiscal strategy, and which normally passes without
much comment. But this year it attracted an unprecedented level of attention because it contained
several proposals for the taxation of everyday goods, including bread, sanitary towels and more.
Kenyans were already struggling with the effects of a collapsing currency and the aftermath of the Covid-
19 crisis. However, the government was not merely looking to meet its financial obligations but to
increase year-on-year spending from the last finance bill, which had already introduced a number of new
taxes.
The challenge facing Kenya‘s treasury is that the previous administration, of which the current president
William Ruto was a part, went on a decade-long borrowing and spending spree, incurring massive debts
for ill-advised infrastructure projects that were over budget, poorly executed and behind schedule.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
debt]

1. The primary reason for the current political crisis in Kenya is

(a) the inefficiency of the previous government.
(b) the mismanagement of the country's infrastructure projects.
(c) the economic strain caused by new taxation policies.
(d) the influence of external political narratives.

2. The protesters' main demand in Kenya is rooted in

(a) a desire to replace the current government.
(b) dissatisfaction with foreign investments.
(c) opposition to the recently proposed finance bill.
(d) calls for constitutional reforms.
3. The writer‘s implicit view on the impact of previous government decisions on the current economic
situation is:
(a) Neutral (b) Critical
(c) Supportive (d) Indifferent

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

(a) The previous administration incurred massive debts for infrastructure projects.
(b) The finance bill included proposals to tax essential everyday goods.
(c) The protests against the finance bill were primarily driven by economic hardships.
(d) The new taxes were introduced to fund new infrastructure projects.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

5. Statement 1: The protests revealed a crisis of legitimacy within Kenya‘s executive, legislature, and
police.
Statement 2: The rushed-through finance bill and the economic burdens it imposed led to widespread
dissatisfaction and protests.
Choose the most appropriate answer
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. A ban on the dirtiest and most climate-damaging fuel for ships has come into effect in Arctic waters.
Heavy Fuel Oil (HFO) is a tar-like, thick but relatively cheap oil that is widely used in shipping around the
world, especially tankers. However, HFO is particularly damaging in the Arctic, where the black carbon it
emits when burned speeds up the melting of snow and ice.
Campaigners say the ban, while welcome, will make little immediate impact as a series of loopholes will
allow the vast majority of ships to use the fuel until 2029.
Produced from the waste left over in oil refining, HFO poses a huge threat to the oceans in general but to
the Arctic in particular.
This sludge-like fuel is almost impossible to clean up if a spill occurs. In colder waters, experts say, the
fuel does not break down but sinks in lumps that linger in sediments, threatening fragile ecosystems. In
climate terms, this oil is seen as particularly dangerous, not just producing large amounts of planet-
warming gas when burned, but also spewing out sooty particles called black carbon.
The black carbon is creating the sort of double whammy impact in the Arctic. It's attracting heat while it's
in the atmosphere, and then it settles onto the snow and ice and is speeding up the melting as well. The
oil was banned from use or transport in the Antarctic in 2011.
Environmentalists have been pushing to expand that restriction to northern waters for years, finally
persuading the countries that participate in the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) to enact a ban
back in 2021. The restriction now comes into force in Arctic waters – and while campaigners agree this is
progress, they believe there are far too many loopholes that will limit the impact. According to the
regulations, ships that have a ―protected fuel tank‖ will be exempt from the ban. Countries that border the
Arctic will also be able to exempt their own ships from the ban in their own territorial waters.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

6. Although campaigners were satisfied with the new ban, the immediate effectiveness of the ban on heavy
fuel oil in the Arctic waters was_______? Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) inconsequential (b) overwhelming
(c) temporary (d) unpredictable

7. The complexity of loopholes in the regulations posed a big hurdle for campaigners as
(a) they were forced to accept a compromise.
(b) it caused confusion about compliance.
(c) it delayed the enforcement of stricter controls.
(d) they felt the ban would lose its significance.

8. Identify the sequence of events that ultimately led to the loopholes in the regulations limiting the ban's
impact.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(1) campaigners highlighted the delay in impact.

(2) countries enacted the ban with exemptions.
(3) ships with protected fuel tanks were exempted.
(4) HFO ban was established.
Choose the appropriate option:
(a) (4), (2), (3), (1) (b) (2), (3), (4), (1)
(c) (4), (1), (2), (3) (d) (3), (2), (4), (1)

9. ‗Ripple effect‘ means

(a) anything that can go wrong will go wrong.
(b) the cumulative effect produced when one event sets off a chain of similar or other events.
(c) the continuing and spreading results of an event or action.
(d) moving in a circular path towards the centre of the circle.
10. Black carbon's "double whammy impact" in the Arctic can be understood as:
(a) A scenario where the atmospheric temperature is regulated naturally and consistently.
(b) A situation where black carbon causes heat absorption and speeds up ice melting simultaneously.
(c) A condition where marine life benefits from the temperature changes induced by black carbon.
(d) An event where black carbon reduces the melting rate of ice and lowers sea levels.

11. Environmentalists have pushed for the extension of HFO restrictions to northern waters primarily
because:
(a) The fuel is relatively expensive and increases shipping costs.
(b) The Arctic region is less vulnerable to spills than other regions.
(c) HFO poses a significant threat to the fragile Arctic ecosystem and contributes to climate change.
(d) Northern countries have no other sources of fuel for their ships.

12. The exemption of ships with ―protected fuel tanks‖ from the HFO ban indicates:
(a) An immediate and complete transition to environmentally friendly fuel alternatives.
(b) A regulatory gap that allows many ships to continue using harmful fuels in the Arctic.
(c) A reduction in shipping activity in Arctic waters due to stricter environmental controls.
(d) An increase in international shipping costs due to the need for cleaner fuels.

III. In India, severe water shortages in one part of the country often coincide with acute flooding in another.
When these dual tragedies occur, Indians are often left wishing for a way to balance out the inequities—
to turn one region‘s excess into a salve for the other. Soon, they may get their wish.
India is about to launch a massive engineering project—more than 100 years in the making—that will
connect several of the subcontinent‘s rivers, transforming the disparate flows of neighbouring
watersheds into a mega–water grid spanning from the Himalayas to the Arabian Sea and the Bay of
Bengal.
Fully realized, the National River Linking Project will see India‘s National Water Development Agency dig
30 links that will transfer an estimated 7 trillion cubic feet of water around the country each year. The
goal is to help irrigate tens of millions of hectares of farmland and bolster India‘s hydroelectric-power
generation. With an estimated price tag of $168 billion, the project is ―unique in its unrivalled grandiosity.
Similar—though less ambitious—water transfers happen in other parts of the world. China‘s South-to-
North Water Diversion Project will eventually carry trillions of cubic feet of water each year across more
than 600 miles. And in Sri Lanka, where water is diverted from the Mahaweli Ganga river basin, people
have benefited from improved food security and higher incomes, says Upali Amarasinghe, a data
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

scientist with the International Water Management Institute in Sri Lanka. India‘s river-linking project could
have some financial benefits, Amarasinghe says, but his calculations suggest they will come at the cost
of displacing people and submerging large tracts of land.
The project is already under way. India‘s government has accorded it top priority. The government has
obtained clearances for the first link in the grid—connecting the Ken and Betwa Rivers, in central India—
and Singh says the contract for its construction will likely be awarded soon.
Scientists and water-policy experts, however, have doubts about the scheme‘s scientific footing. They
worry that the government hasn‘t adequately accounted for the potential unintended consequences of
moving such a large amount of water. Case in point: New research suggests that the river-linking project
threatens to affect India‘s monsoon season.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) scholarly journal on environmental science
(b) promotional material for a construction company
(c) policy briefing for governmental agencies
(d) national news outlet

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) To alert readers about the potential environmental impacts of the river-linking project.
(b) To overview the scale and potential benefits of a major infrastructure project.
(c) To question the financial viability of the river-linking project.
(d) To promote investment in hydroelectric power.

15. The passage mentions "7 trillion cubic feet of water" to emphasize __________.
(a) The immense scale of the river-linking initiative.
(b) The logistical challenges of the project.
(c) The potential risk of water mismanagement.
(d) The environmental concerns associated with large-scale water transfer.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a past participial phrase.
(a) "India is about to launch a massive engineering project..."
(b) "Fully realized, the National River Linking Project will see India‘s National Water Development
Agency dig 30 links..."
(c) "The goal is to help irrigate tens of millions of hectares of farmland..."
(d) "With an estimated price tag of $168 billion, the project is unique in its unrivalled grandiosity."

17. According to the passage, the potential unintended consequences of the river-linking project are
primarily a concern because they __________.
(a) threaten to disrupt local ecosystems.
(b) may alter the patterns of India‘s monsoon season.
(c) could result in the displacement of many communities.
(d) challenge the financial estimates made by the government.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

18. The author‘s discussion of the benefits and challenges of the National River Linking Project is primarily
intended to ______.
(a) Advocate for rapid implementation despite potential risks.
(b) Discourage any criticism of governmental policies.
(c) Present a balanced view of the project.
(d) Promote alternative methods of water management.

19. Which word from the passage could be substituted with ‗ambitious‘, without changing the meaning?
(a) grandiosity (b) estimated
(c) transfer (d) irrigate

20. In the passage, the phrase ‗an estimated price tag of $168 billion‘ is best defined as –
(a) A speculated cost. (b) A fixed budget.
(c) A minimal expense. (d) A precise calculation.

21. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the assertion that the National River Linking Project
will significantly boost India‘s agricultural output?
(a) Recent studies confirm the positive impact of similar projects in other countries.
(b) The project will irrigate tens of millions of hectares of farmland.
(c) There are efficient alternative irrigation technologies available.
(d) The displacement of communities will lead to a decrease in agricultural workforce.

22. The passage suggests that concerns about altering monsoon patterns due to the river-linking project
__________.
(a) are based on unfounded fears.
(b) have been officially dismissed by the government.
(c) are irrelevant to the project‘s goals.
(d) are supported by new research.

IV. The criminal justice system is close to collapse. Don‘t take my word for it. ―The entire criminal justice
system stands on the precipice of failure,‖ warned the Prison Governors‘ Association (PGA) this week,
as it notified politicians that prisons in England and Wales are quite literally full. Meanwhile, two judges
who ruled on legal aid cuts in February, concluded: ―Unless there are significant injections of funding in
the relatively near future, any prediction … that the system will arrive in due course at a point of collapse
is not overly pessimistic.‖
Whoever comes into power will have to move quickly to address this. But observing the election
campaign, you would have little sense of the scale of the interrelated crises in the prison and court
systems. Politicians on both sides, nervous about seeming soft on crime, are reluctant to talk about
reducing sentence times, improving miserable prison conditions, and whether we actually want a
ballooning prison population. The irony is that while trying to appear tough, Conservative governments
have brought the justice system – our primary mechanism for dealing with crime – to its knees.
What would it mean for the criminal justice system to collapse? For a start, prisons in England and Wales
are at capacity. The latest Ministry of Justice figures, showed just over 1,000 available spaces in
England and Wales. If prisons are full, cell spaces in courts and police stations quickly fill, leaving
nowhere to detain people. In this scenario, the police cannot do their job. Crippling delays in the court
system are then exacerbated because there is nowhere to send people who are convicted, while the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

cases of those held on remand in overcrowded prisons are managed poorly – with administrative errors
and procedural delays causing more bottlenecks.
On average, it now takes nearly two years for a criminal case heard in crown court to go from offence to
verdict. This creates a fundamental problem with access to justice, as criminal cases are more likely to
collapse as victims of crimes – desperate to move on with their lives – withdraw from legal proceedings.
It‘s a chicken-and-egg situation. Delays in the court system mean there is now the highest number of
prisoners on remand for 50 years in England and Wales, while overcrowded prisons – caused in part by
people spending months on remand – further delay the courts.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
justice

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Advocatory (b) Dismissive
(c) Alarmed (d) Satirical

24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?

(a) Cause: Overcrowding of prisons, Effect: Delays in the court system
(b) Cause: Government funding, Effect: Improved prison conditions
(c) Cause: Legal aid cuts, Effect: Increased number of prisoners on remand
(d) Cause: Reduction in sentence times, Effect: Decrease in prison population

25. What is the purpose of the word ―crippling‖ in the passage?

(a) To indicate a minor inconvenience.
(b) To emphasize the severe impact on the court system.
(c) To suggest improvements in the justice system.
(d) To reflect a physical condition.

26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument that the current government policies
have strengthened the criminal justice system?
(a) Evidence shows a decrease in crime rates due to longer prison sentences.
(b) Studies indicate that more funding has been allocated to prisons than ever before.
(c) Reports confirm that the number of procedural delays and administrative errors has increased.
(d) Data reveals that the public feels safer and more satisfied with the justice system.

27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
(a) ―A significant injection of funding is crucial to prevent system collapse.‖
(b) ―Prisons should continue to operate at full capacity to deter crime.‖
(c) ―Reducing sentence times is essential to solving the crisis.‖
(d) ―The police are primarily to blame for the current state of the justice system.‖

28. The author implies that reducing sentence times would be _____ to addressing the crisis in the criminal
justice system. Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) counterproductive (b) essential
(c) insufficient (d) unrelated
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

29. Given the author‘s position on the need for comprehensive reforms, what stance would the author
probably take on the issue of legal aid cuts?
(a) The author would argue for deeper cuts to legal aid to reduce government spending.
(b) The author would likely advocate for reversing the cuts to legal aid.
(c) The author would support the reallocation of legal aid funds to other sectors.
(d) The author would emphasize the importance of maintaining current levels of legal aid.

30. In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the modal verb ―would‖?
(a) ―The entire criminal justice system stands on the precipice of failure.‖
(b) ―Whoever comes into power will have to move quickly to address this.‖
(c) ―It‘s a chicken-and-egg situation.‖
(d) ―If prisons are full, cell spaces in courts and police stations quickly fill, leaving nowhere to detain
people.‖

31. Which of the following substitutions for 'warning' in the given sentence would NOT change the meaning
of the quoted sentence? "The Prison Governors‘ Association issued a warning that the entire criminal
justice system stands on the precipice of failure."
(a) Caution (b) Alert
(c) Threat (d) Advisory

32. What is the writer‘s aim in referring to the system as ―on the precipice of failure‖?
(a) To emphasize that the criminal justice system is barely functioning but still operational.
(b) To suggest that the criminal justice system is thriving and overcoming challenges.
(c) To indicate that immediate reforms are unnecessary for the stability of the system.
(d) To convey that drastic measures are needed to prevent complete breakdown.

V. Printmaking, which dates to ancient times, was long considered a craft, useful mainly for reproducing
religious illustrations. But with his intricate woodcuts and engravings, Albrecht Dürer (1471-1528)
elevated it to a fine art. ―One cannot overstate the influence of Dürer on the history of the print. From a
purely technical point of view, engraving and woodcut for centuries have been measured against his
example.
A series of the German master‘s ―knot‖ prints, which are based on designs by Leonardo da Vinci, is a
highlight of the exhibit, which aims to demonstrate how artists use sequential prints to explore ideas,
develop a theme or tell a story. Often, in exhibitions, a single print is shown alone, extracted from a
series—it‘s like a quote from a book. But when you have the whole series, you can see how one image
interacts and connects with the next.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
printmaking-180984500/

33. Albrecht Dürer's elevation of printmaking to a fine art can be attributed to his
(a) pioneering spirit and experimental techniques.
(b) focus on religious themes.
(c) collaboration with Leonardo da Vinci.
(d) creation of sequential prints that tell a story.

34. A significant challenge in understanding the full impact of Dürer's work in printmaking is
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) the limited availability of his original prints.

(b) the complexity of interpreting sequential prints.
(c) the tendency to isolate single prints from their series.
(d) the overshadowing influence of his contemporaries.

35. The use of the phrase ―one cannot overstate the influence of Dürer‖ conveys that his impact was
(a) universally acknowledged but limited in scope.
(b) often misunderstood and undervalued.
(c) exceptionally profound and far-reaching.
(d) primarily relevant to his contemporaries.

36. Statement 1: Dürer‘s work in printmaking set a high technical standard for centuries.
Statement 2: The exhibit demonstrates how sequential prints develop themes and narratives.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. The concept of presenting a series of prints in an exhibition, as opposed to a single print, is akin to
(a) reading a single chapter of a novel instead of the whole book.
(b) viewing a collection of unrelated paintings.
(c) experiencing a standalone sculpture.
(d) listening to a complete symphony instead of one movement.

38. In which of the following contexts is the term ―highlight‖ used similarly to its use in the passage?
(a) The chef‘s special dish was the highlight of the meal.
(b) The athlete‘s performance was highlight of the season.
(c) The book‘s summary highlights the main points of each chapter.
(d) The artist‘s use of colour was a highlight of the exhibition.

39. The practice of showing an entire series of prints in an exhibition rather than a single print aims to
(a) illustrate the interconnectedness and progression of ideas.
(b) emphasize the importance of individual artistic works.
(c) focus on the commercial value of the artwork.
(d) highlight the technical flaws within the series.

VI. The only way to know firsthand would be to take a real Journey to the Center of the Earth—but for now,
a new study suggests our planet‘s inner core might be spinning more slowly than it used to. The Earth‘s
inner core, a solid ball of iron and nickel about 70 percent of the size of the moon, rotates along with the
rest of the planet, but scientists disagree about whether it might spin at a slightly slower, faster or equal
speed, compared to the outer layers. The study uses seismic waves to add evidence for the idea that the
inner core switches between spinning faster and slower than Earth‘s crust.
Such changes in the inner core‘s spin could have a small impact on the Earth‘s magnetic field—and they
could, very marginally, alter the length of days up on the surface.
The inner core is ―a planet within a planet, so how it moves is obviously very important.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

But scientists have been struggling to pin down the specifics of the inner core‘s motion. The controversy
of whether or not the heart of the planet spins differently than the rest of the Earth reignited in January
2023, after others proposed that the core‘s rotation oscillates in a 70-year cycle, alternating between
leading and lagging the spin of the planet every 35 years. The most recent switch, from faster to slower
than the outer part of the Earth, occurred about 15 years ago, according to those researchers.
This shows that the evidence for [faster] rotation is strong before about 2009 and basically dies off in
subsequent years.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
inner-core-may-be-slowing-its-spin-another-study-suggests-180984622/

40. Based on the study's findings about the inner core's changing spin, what might be an indirect
consequence for Earth's climate systems?
(a) Direct alteration of atmospheric temperatures
(b) No impact on climate systems
(c) Increased seismic activity affecting weather systems
(d) Marginal changes in the Earth‘s magnetic field influencing climate patterns

41. What does the ongoing controversy about the inner core‘s motion suggest about scientific research in
geophysics?
(a) It is marked by continuous debate and evolving theories.
(b) It has reached a consensus on most theories.
(c) Researchers lack interest in the inner core‘s dynamics.
(d) It primarily focuses on surface phenomena.
42. What can be inferred about the acceptance of new scientific evidence regarding the inner core's
rotation?
(a) It is quickly embraced by the scientific community.
(b) It faces skepticism and requires substantial proof.
(c) It has no impact on existing theories.
(d) It is only accepted if it aligns with older theories.

43. What does the proposed 70-year oscillation cycle of the inner core‘s rotation reveal about long-term
research trends in Earth sciences?
(a) They depend heavily on short-term data.
(b) They are inconsistent and lack reliability.
(c) They often require generational spans to verify.
(d) They focus solely on theoretical aspects without practical application.

44. How might the study of Earth's inner core's rotation influence educational content in geosciences?
(a) It will be excluded from curricula due to its complexity.
(b) It might lead to outdated theories being taught.
(c) It enriches curricula with current and dynamic scientific debates.
(d) It simplifies the concepts taught in Earth sciences.

VII. Two decades ago Lord Norman Foster, one of Britain‘s great architects, said that an architect designs for
the present, with an awareness of the past, for an essentially unknown future. These days, architects are
venturing deeper into the unknown as AI tools such as Dall-E and Midjourney create blueprints and turn
them into photorealistic images within seconds, rather than weeks.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Will these new AI tools put architects out of business? Not necessarily. But they should act as a wake-up
call for the profession. Architects need to reevaluate their role within society and embrace
interdisciplinary and transdisciplinary approaches in their everyday work. Philosophical inquiry, in
particular, can add innovative ideas to architecture and create spaces that resonate with deeper human
experiences and values, something that AI tools cannot do well.
Scratch beneath the surface and you will find that architecture is an intrinsically philosophical enterprise
grounded in aesthetics and ethics, including theories of human nature. Philosophy plays a pivotal role in
shaping spaces that transcend mere functionality. It prompts architects to consider the ethical and moral
implications of their work and think about the impact their designs have on individuals and communities,
as well as on the natural environment. The way we think about our homes, and what makes a beautiful
building, is deeply philosophical as it also reflects how we view ourselves and humanity at large. By
weaving philosophical ideas with the art of design, architecture allows us to explore the essence of
human existence, in doing so framing our values, beliefs, and aspirations.
The relationship between architecture and philosophy remains deeply ingrained in both design practice
and theoretical discourse. The profound, often discrete, influence of philosophy on architecture can also
be seen in the recent practice of adaptive reuse, the process of transforming vacant buildings into
schools, public parks, offices, or apartments.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
philosophy-to-guide-the-ai-design-revolution/

45. What does the use of "unknown future" imply about the architectural profession?
(a) Architects can accurately predict future trends and requirements.
(b) Architects work without any historical knowledge or context.
(c) Architectural designs remain constant over time.
(d) The path of architectural innovation and practice is unpredictable.

46. Which option does NOT align with the concept of architecture as an "intrinsically philosophical
enterprise"?
(a) Architecture is solely about the practical functionality of buildings.
(b) Architectural designs consider the ethical impact on society.
(c) Philosophy in architecture can guide the aesthetic and ethical dimensions of design.
(d) Theoretical discourse in architecture often intersects with philosophical inquiry.

47. What does the mention of "adaptive reuse" suggest about the nature of architectural practice?
(a) It indicates a disregard for the preservation of historical buildings.
(b) It signifies a static approach to architectural innovation.
(c) It highlights architecture's adaptability and responsiveness to changing societal needs.
(d) It implies that new construction is preferred over modifying existing structures.

48. Which interpretation of AI's role in architecture is supported by the passage?

(a) AI is set to completely replace human architects in the future.
(b) AI serves as a tool that challenges architects to redefine their roles.
(c) AI has minimal impact on the architectural profession.
(d) AI discourages philosophical inquiry within architecture.

49. How does the concept of "spaces that resonate with deeper human experiences and values" contrast
with AI-generated designs?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) AI focuses solely on aesthetic appeal without deeper significance.

(b) AI-generated designs prioritize environmental sustainability above all.
(c) AI can fully replicate the philosophical depth achieved by human architects.
(d) AI excels in creating spaces that reflect human nature and values.

50. Which statement best reflects the interdisciplinary approach suggested for architects?
(a) Architects should focus solely on enhancing their technical skills.
(b) Architects should engage with fields like philosophy to enrich their designs.
(c) Architects should isolate themselves from other disciplines to maintain purity in design.
(d) Architects should prioritize cost-effectiveness over all other design considerations.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 48
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Social Science: Stand-up comedians exercise a curious privilege, which allows them to peddle
controversial conclusions and uncomfortable insights without suffering the usual scorn and
admonishment that comes with challenging systems of power. The comedian's stage seems to be a
space that has been engineered for bringing indelicate knowledge about the world to the surface. For
instance, the suggestion that Americans are deeply divided by race and class usually causes people to
fidget, yet Chris Rock was greeted with laughter and applause when he unabashedly criticized the
racialized wealth gap in the United States during one of his performances in Washington DC. Similarly,
Louis C.K. received a rousing applause when he discussed his privilege as a white male, and Hari
Kondabolu made an entire room burst into laughter by exposing the nonsensical logic underlying
stereotypes aimed at Mexican immigrants.
Unfortunately, as with superheroes who use their powers for evil, not all comedians use the stage as a
venue for delivering social criticisms aimed at exposing injustice. For instance, comedy is just as likely to
reinforce stereotypes as it is to criticize them, or to put it differently, the comedian's stage is just as likely
to be a place where knowledge is "indelicate" because it is racist as it to be a place where knowledge is
indelicate because it is critical of racism.
Celebrated children's author, Dr. Seuss, published a cartoon only weeks before the United States would
forcibly relocate 120,000 ethnic Japanese persons living in the United States to internment camps. The
cartoon depicts a buck-toothed, fifth column of Japanese Americans lining up from Washington to
California for their very own box of TNT. A man with a monocular scales the rooftop of the explosives
depot "waiting for the signal from home." Or consider a Looney Tunes cartoon from the period, which is
named "Tokio Jokio" and similarly claims buck teeth and buffoonish behaviour for all Japanese persons
on the planet.
The cartoon elaborates upon many of the typical stereotypes associated with Japanese persons but
unlike the Dr. Seuss cartoon, the attempt at humor is harder to miss. Whereas the Seuss cartoon
reverberates extant fears about a treacherous Japanese enemy living among us, the Looney Tunes
cartoon lampoons them as bumbling idiots. In the Seuss cartoon, their tribal-like loyalties to the Emperor
mean they are capable of doing just about anything, but in the Looney Tunes cartoon they are too
incompetent to prevent their own Fire Prevention Headquarters from burning to the ground. Such
seemingly contradictory representations permeated the American imagination of the time, alternately
stoking anxieties while assuring Americans of their national and even racial superiority.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
1. What is the main argument presented by the author regarding the role of comedians?
(a) Comedians have the unique ability to highlight social issues without facing backlash.
(b) Comedians are primarily entertainers who occasionally touch on social topics.
(c) All comedians use their platforms to propagate stereotypes.
(d) The primary role of comedians is to entertain, not to critique society.

2. How does the author contrast the effects of comedy as used by Chris Rock, Louis C.K., and Hari
Kondabolu versus the examples given from Dr. Seuss and Looney Tunes?
(a) The former group uses comedy to reinforce societal norms, while the latter critiques those norms.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The former group uses comedy to expose and criticize societal issues, while the latter reinforces
harmful stereotypes.
(c) There is no contrast; both groups use their comedy to challenge societal norms.
(d) Both groups are equally likely to challenge or reinforce stereotypes without a clear distinction in their
approaches.

3. Identify the word in the passage that means "to sell or promote something, often in a way that is seen as
aggressive or brazen."
(a) Peddle (b) Privilege
(c) Lampoons (d) Indelicate

4. What does the phrase "the suggestion that Americans are deeply divided by race and class usually
causes people to fidget" imply about societal reactions to uncomfortable truths?
(a) It reveals a widespread eagerness to resolve divisions through open dialogue.
(b) It suggests a surface-level acceptance that masks deeper feelings of discomfort.
(c) It implies that discussions about racial and class divisions are met with subconscious unease.
(d) It indicates a proactive engagement in dialogue about societal issues.

5. In what ways does the passage suggest that humour can both challenge and reinforce societal norms
and prejudices?
(a) Humour serves primarily as a critical tool to undermine societal norms, occasionally slipping into
reinforcing stereotypes inadvertently.
(b) Humour balances the act of challenging societal prejudices with the risk of normalizing them through
repeated jests that may entrench existing stereotypes.
(c) While humour often critiques societal norms, its effectiveness in reinforcing prejudices is seen as
minimal or incidental by the author.
(d) Humour is equally effective in challenging societal prejudices and reinforcing them through its dual
ability to expose and normalize certain behaviours or beliefs.

6. What is the function of comparing different comedians‘ approaches to sensitive topics in the passage?
(a) To highlight the unique comedic styles of each comedian.
(b) To showcase the popularity of comedians who tackle societal issues.
(c) To argue that all comedians should approach sensitive topics in the same way.
(d) To demonstrate the varying impacts that comedy can have on societal issues.

II. Historical: In the past 30 years, the landscape of American industry has undergone significant
transformations in management science and the integration of professionally trained managers into
strategic planning roles. Despite these advancements and the considerable resources invested in
strategic planning, numerous American manufacturing sectors find themselves outpaced by international
competitors who prioritize these elements less.
The issue stems partly from how strategic planning is executed within companies. Numerous managers
from various American factories have expressed that strategic planning often diverts resources away
from essential manufacturing upgrades towards acquisitions, new ventures, or subsidizing other
company parts. This emphasis on external growth and diversification can lead to underinvestment in
core operational capabilities.
For instance, a company focusing on expanding market share and achieving low-cost-producer status
reduced its R&D budget significantly. Over time, it recognized that its position had shifted irreversibly
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

offshore, and innovation was the only avenue for survival. Unfortunately, the reduced focus on R&D left
the company bereft of innovative capabilities, leading to a desperate consideration of merging with a
more innovation-centric company.
Another company, known for its state-of-the-art production facilities, found itself in a predicament. It
quickly established factories for new products but did not invest in continual process improvements due
to the perceived short product life cycles in its industry. This lack of ongoing investment resulted in
technological stagnation, causing the company to lose market position to competitors who prioritized
process technology advancements.
These examples illustrate that even well-managed companies with rigorous strategic planning can find
themselves disadvantaged if the planning process is too rigid or misaligned with industry demands. The
traditional strategic planning model, based on an "ends-ways-means" logic, dictates that companies
should first establish objectives, then develop strategies to achieve them, and finally marshal resources.
However, this approach can be problematic.
Firstly, the objectives (ends) chosen may not always be aligned with the company's operational realities
or market conditions. Secondly, the strategies (ways) to achieve these ends may require resources that
the company either cannot acquire or does not use efficiently. Thirdly, this model assumes that the
resources (means) necessary to implement these strategies will be available and adequate.
The prioritization of strategic planning as seen in American companies, focusing predominantly on
expansion and diversification rather than on nurturing core competencies and adapting to market
changes, can undermine a company's competitive edge. This misalignment suggests a need for a more
flexible and responsive strategic planning approach that better integrates and responds to operational
capacities and market dynamics.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
reverse

7. What is the primary critique of American management strategies as discussed in the passage?
(a) American management strategies too frequently emphasize short-term acquisitions over long-term
internal growth.
(b) American strategic planning is often critiqued for its heavy focus on diversification at the expense of
operational efficiency.
(c) The primary critique revolves around the excessive allocation of resources to new ventures rather
than core operational improvements.
(d) It is suggested that American management often underestimates the importance of market
expansion in strategic planning.

8. How does the traditional "ends-ways-means" model of strategic planning potentially fail companies
according to the passage?
(a) The model often leads companies to set unachievable ends due to a mismatch with market realities.
(b) It is critiqued for assuming the perpetual adequacy and availability of necessary resources for
planned strategies.
(c) The strategic model sometimes fails due to overemphasis on setting ambitious ends without aligning
them with practical ways and means.
(d) The failure often arises from an overreliance on theoretical strategic frameworks that do not adapt to
changing operational conditions.

9. According to the passage, how does the focus on expansion and diversification impact a company‘s
competitive position?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) It leads to underinvestment in core operational capabilities.

(b) It enhances the company's adaptability to market changes.
(c) It ensures a dominant position in new markets.
(d) It increases the company's reliance on external ventures.

10. What does the word "bereft" imply in the context of the passage?
(a) Overwhelmed with excess (b) Deprived of or lacking something
(c) Supported by additional resources (d) Fortified against future challenges

11. What grammatical function does the word "however" (underlined in the passage) serve in the context
provided in the passage?
(a) It introduces a conditional clause. (b) It serves as a coordinating conjunction.
(c) It introduces a contrasting clause. (d) It serves as a noun modifier.
12. How does the passage illustrate the consequences of not investing in continual process improvements?
(a) By highlighting a company‘s shift to outsourcing its operations internationally.
(b) By showing a company's market position decline due to technological stagnation.
(c) By noting the lack of skilled workers as a result of underinvestment in training.
(d) By discussing the reduction in overall company profitability due to increased operational costs.

III. Environment: With glacier sizes rapidly reducing due to the impact of climate change in recent years,
there has been a gradual rise of moraine-dammed lakes in Himachal Pradesh and the Trans Himalayan
Region of Tibet, posing a potential threat to human life and infrastructure further downstream.
The number of glacial lakes in the Satluj river catchment area has almost doubled from 562 in 2019 to
1,048 in 2023, according to satellite data analysed in a recent study by the Centre on Climate Change of
Himachal Pradesh Council for Science Technology-Environment (HIMCOSTE). The catchment area of
the Satluj basin was studied from upstream of Jhakri to the Mansarover Lake in Tibet, in the Trans
Himalayan Region from where the river originates. Of the 1,048 lakes mapped in 2023, 900 are small,
each spanning an area of less than five hectares, while 89 lakes have an area between 5 hectares and
ten hectares, and 59 lakes are bigger than 10 hectares each.
Over the years, the number of glacial lakes has been gradually increasing. In fact, as the frequency of
small lakes with an area of less than five hectares has been rising, it indicates that the climate warming
effects are more significant in the higher Himalayan region. The swift melting of glaciers and less
snowfall during the winter could be reasons behind the rise in lakes. It could be inferred from the basin-
wise analysis that the number of lakes is much higher in the Tibetan Himalayan Region or the Upper
Satluj basin, in comparison to the Spiti and Lower Satluj basins, indicating that the Upper Satluj basin is
more susceptible to glacial lake formations. As the formation of small lakes is relatively higher in the
upper region, it indicates greater climate change impact in the higher region in comparison to the lower
regions. The average temperature in the high altitude areas is rising faster than the lower areas.
The study, which analysed multi-spectral satellite images, suggests that the rise in glacial lakes in
Himachal Pradesh‘s river basins can be disastrous downstream if the lakes burst their bounds for any
reason. Climate change has influenced the health of glaciers in the entire Himalayan region. As a result,
the cryospheric cover over the Himalayan terrain is reducing. One of the ramifications of this is the
development of high-altitude glacial lakes. The number of such lakes has increased over the years and
these lakes have become unstable due to the increase in the volume of water or due to the calving effect
of adjoining glaciers, [creating] avalanche either of snow or rocks. These lakes have a potential of
bursting out, and depending on the volume of water, velocity and the outburst spread, it can pose a
threat to habitations and infrastructure in the downstream region.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

environment/glacial-lakes-multiply-in-himachal-pradesh-and-tibet-posing-a-threat-to-lives-and-
infrastructure-downstream/[Link]

13. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the impact of climate change on the formation of
glacial lakes in the Himalayas?
(a) Climate change has significantly accelerated the formation of glacial lakes, especially in higher
altitude areas.
(b) The formation of glacial lakes is primarily influenced by geological activities rather than climatic
changes.
(c) Climate change has had a minimal impact on the formation of glacial lakes due to the adaptive
nature of the Himalayan ecosystem.
(d) The decrease in glacial lakes over the years has been mitigated by stringent environmental policies.

14. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage regarding the size distribution of
the newly formed glacial lakes?
(a) Most of the new glacial lakes are larger than 10 hectares, posing significant risks due to their size.
(b) The majority of glacial lakes are smaller than five hectares, suggesting a higher number of smaller,
possibly less hazardous lakes.
(c) The glacial lakes between five to ten hectares are fewer but cover most of the catchment area.
(d) There is an equal distribution of small and large glacial lakes throughout the Satluj river catchment.

15. According to the passage, what potential threat do the glacial lakes pose if they burst their bounds?
(a) They could potentially lead to a temporary increase in river water levels with minimal downstream
impact.
(b) Bursting of these lakes could trigger localized flooding but with no significant long-term effects.
(c) The bursting of these lakes might result in devastating floods affecting downstream habitations and
infrastructure.
(d) There is no significant threat posed by these lakes as preventive measures are already in place.

16. Which term best describes the "cryospheric cover" mentioned in the passage?
(a) The layer of gases surrounding the Earth, primarily responsible for climatic conditions.
(b) The frozen components of the Earth's surface, including glaciers, ice caps, and permafrost.
(c) The uppermost layer of vegetation found in mountainous terrain.
(d) The water bodies found within a geographic region, including lakes and rivers.

17. What evidence does the passage provide to support the claim that climate change is impacting the
Himalayan region?
(a) The doubling of glacial lakes in the Satluj river catchment area from 2019 to 2023.
(b) Detailed interviews with local inhabitants and their observations of the changing landscape.
(c) Comparative analysis of flora and fauna diversity in the region over the past decade.
(d) Economic data showing a decline in tourism due to altered climatic conditions.

18. Which idiom best represents the potential danger posed by the bursting of glacial lakes as described in
the passage?
(a) Opening Pandora's box (b) A drop in the bucket
(c) Spilling the beans (d) Walking on thin ice
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

IV. Psychology: As the next generation of the workforce steps onto college campuses, many are
unknowingly stepping into a realm of invisible work—where the subtle art of blending in becomes a
necessity. For example, some graduate students will launch their first day of orientation with a ―Dress for
Success‖ session, where they will begin to conform, molding themselves into the image of a
professional. For many, this will be their first introduction to the hidden labour of transforming their
appearance, behaviour, and even their identity to fit into corporate expectations.
This hidden labour, much like the traditional craft of ―invisible mending,‖ involves carefully adjusting
oneself to meet the unspoken demands of the workplace. While invisible mending refers to the delicate
process of repairing clothing from the inside, ensuring that the fixes remain unseen, it encapsulates the
often-overlooked efforts employees invest in conforming to organizational norms—efforts that can come
at a significant psychological cost.
Aligning with organizational norms requires more invisible work for some than others. For the new
employee, it may include the silent labour of worrying if their only second-hand suit will meet the
expectations of executives. For employees who are a different race or ethnicity than the majority of their
coworkers, the hidden labour takes a particular twist as they may engage in code-switching—or "fixing"
accents, attire, tone, diction, hair, emotional expression, and other external markers of status and
identity—to seamlessly blend into the prevailing corporate fabric.
For any underrepresented individual, navigating stereotype management—a form of emotional labour—
is hidden work. The idea of ―emotion work‖ was first coined in the 1980s by sociologist Arlie Russell
Hochschild to describe adding an extra layer of responsibility to jobs. She defined what we now call
emotional labour as ―the management of feelings to create a publicly observable facial and bodily
display.‖
At first glance, the concept of invisible mending might seem benign, perhaps even admirable—a
testament to a person‘s adaptability and commitment to professional success. However, a complex
psychological landscape lies below the surface fraught with challenges and implications for individual
well-being and organizational health.
Invisible mending is driven by the desire to fit in and be accepted, a fundamental human need rooted in
our evolutionary past. This drive is often amplified in professional environments where the acceptance
stakes are tied to career advancement, job security, and social belonging.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
work/202408/invisible-mending-the-silent-struggle-of-conforming-at-work

19. What does the term "invisible mending" metaphorically refer to in the passage?
(a) The physical repair of clothing in a way that makes the repair unnoticeable to others.
(b) The unseen structural changes within organizations to accommodate diverse workforce needs.
(c) The hidden labour involved in maintaining and managing professional attire in a corporate
environment.
(d) The psychological adjustments individuals make to align with corporate expectations, ensuring their
efforts are unseen.

20. Analyze how the concept of "emotion work" as described relates to the broader theme of the passage.
(a) Emotion work specifically deals with managing personal feelings and displays in social situations,
which is only tangentially related to the broader corporate adjustments discussed.
(b) Emotion work is central to the passage‘s theme, illustrating the deep level of personal adjustment
required to conform to corporate norms.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The concept illustrates the necessity of separating personal and professional emotions, a minor point
within the larger discussion of workplace conformity.
(d) Emotion work is mentioned as an outdated concept that the passage argues against in favour of
more modern approaches to workplace adaptation.

21. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage?

(a) The passage suggests that adapting to corporate norms can involve significant psychological effort
and cost.
(b) "Invisible mending" is used in the passage to describe both a clothing repair technique and a
metaphor for workplace adaptation.
(c) All employees, regardless of background or identity, face the same level of challenge in conforming
to corporate norms.
(d) The desire to fit in and be accepted is described as a fundamental human need amplified in
professional environments.

22. According to the passage, what is the primary psychological cost associated with invisible mending?
(a) The effort of continuously maintaining a professional appearance in terms of attire and grooming.
(b) The difficulty of maintaining social relationships with colleagues while managing professional
responsibilities.
(c) The challenge of acquiring and updating skills to remain competitive within the workplace.
(d) The strain of aligning personal identity with the prescribed corporate culture and norms.

23. With which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree?
(a) Invisible mending is a necessary skill that all employees must develop to succeed in the corporate
world.
(b) Invisible mending can lead to significant psychological distress, particularly for underrepresented
groups.
(c) The efforts required for invisible mending are universally distributed and affect all employees equally.
(d) Organizations should recognize and mitigate the pressures associated with invisible mending to
promote better mental health.

24. Which word best describes the author's use of language in discussing "invisible mending"?
(a) Technical (b) Metaphorical
(c) Expository (d) Narrative
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 49
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Literature: Jo! Jo! Where are you?" cried Meg at the foot of the garret stairs.
"Here!" answered a husky voice from above, and, running up, Meg found her sister eating apples and
crying over the Heir of Redclyffe, wrapped up in a comforter on an old three-legged sofa by the sunny
window. This was Jo's favorite refuge, and here she loved to retire with half a dozen russets and a nice
book, to enjoy the quiet and the society of a pet rat who lived nearby and didn't mind her a particle. As
Meg appeared, Scrabble whisked into his hole. Jo shook the tears off her cheeks and waited to hear the
news.
"Such fun! Only see! A regular note of invitation from Mrs. Gardiner for tomorrow night!" cried Meg,
waving the precious paper and then proceeding to read it with girlish delight.
"'Mrs. Gardiner would be happy to see Miss March and Miss Josephine at a little dance on New Year's
Eve.' Marmee is willing we should go, now what shall we wear?"
"What's the use of asking that, when you know we shall wear our poplins, because we haven't got
anything else?" answered Jo with her mouth full.
"If I only had a silk!" sighed Meg. "Mother says I may when I'm eighteen perhaps, but two years is an
everlasting time to wait."
"I'm sure our pops look like silk, and they are nice enough for us. Yours is as good as new, but I forgot
the burn and the tear in mine. Whatever shall I do? The burn shows badly, and I can't take any out."
"You must sit still all you can and keep your back out of sight. The front is all right. I shall have a new
ribbon for my hair, and Marmee will lend me her little pearl pin, and my new slippers are lovely, and my
gloves will do, though they aren't as nice as I'd like.‖
"Mine are spoiled with lemonade, and I can't get any new ones, so I shall have to go without," said Jo,
who never troubled herself much about dress.
"You must have gloves, or I won't go," cried Meg decidedly. "Gloves are more important than anything
else. You can't dance without them, and if you don't I should be so mortified."
"Then I'll stay still. I don't care much for company dancing. It's no fun to go sailing round. I like to fly
about and cut capers.‖
"You can't ask Mother for new ones, they are so expensive, and you are so careless. She said when you
spoiled the others that she shouldn't get you any more this winter. Can't you make them do?‖
Source: Little Women by Louisa May Alcott

1. What can be inferred about Jo's personality from her behavior described in the passage?
(a) She is very social and outgoing
(b) She is introverted and prefers solitude
(c) She is overly concerned with her appearance
(d) She is rebellious against all social norms

2. How does Meg's attitude towards the dance invitation differ from Jo's?
(a) Meg is reluctant while Jo is excited (b) Meg is excited while Jo is indifferent
(c) Both are equally enthusiastic (d) Both are equally apprehensive
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. What does Jo's statement "What's the use of asking that, when you know we shall wear our poplins,
because we haven't got anything else?" reveal about the family's circumstances?
(a) They have a wide variety of clothing options
(b) They are wealthy but choose to dress modestly
(c) They have limited financial means
(d) They prefer poplins over other fabrics

4. What is the significance of gloves in the context of the dance, according to Meg?
(a) They are a status symbol (b) They are essential for dancing etiquette
(c) They protect hands from germs (d) They are purely decorative

5. How does Jo's approach to dancing differ from conventional expectations?

(a) She prefers formal, structured dances
(b) She enjoys more energetic, free-form movement
(c) She refuses to dance at all
(d) She only dances with close friends

6. What does the dialogue about gloves reveal about the relationship between Jo and her mother?
(a) Her mother is overly strict and controlling
(b) Her mother is indifferent to Jo's needs
(c) Her mother is trying to teach Jo responsibility
(d) Her mother favors Meg over Jo

II. Polity: Secularism, a cornerstone of modern democratic societies, embodies the principle of separation
between religion and state affairs. In the Indian context, this concept has evolved uniquely, intertwining
with the nation's rich historical tapestry and diverse cultural heritage. The Indian model of secularism,
encapsulated in the phrase "Sarva Dharma Sambhava," advocates for equal respect for all religions,
diverging from the Western notion of strict separation between church and state. India's secular
traditions are deeply rooted in its history, exemplified by Emperor Ashoka's proclamation of religious
tolerance in the 3rd century BCE. This ethos was further nurtured by the Sufi and Bhakti movements in
medieval India, which fostered interfaith harmony. The Mughal Emperor Akbar's policies of religious
inclusivity, including the establishment of Din-i-Ilahi, further exemplify this tradition. The Indian
Constitution enshrines secularism as a fundamental principle, with various articles guaranteeing religious
freedom, equality, and non-discrimination. Articles 25-28 specifically address religious liberties, while
Articles 29-30 safeguard minority rights. The addition of the term "secular" to the Preamble in 1976
further solidified India's commitment to this ideal. However, the implementation of secularism in India
faces numerous challenges. The intermingling of religion and politics, communal tensions, and the rise of
religious nationalism pose significant threats to the secular fabric of the nation. Incidents of communal
violence, mob lynching, and religious polarization underscore the ongoing struggle to maintain secular
values in a deeply religious society. To fortify secularism in India, a multifaceted approach is necessary.
This includes promoting value-based education that fosters understanding and appreciation of diverse
religious traditions, identifying common ground among different communities, and expanding religious
freedoms rather than enforcing strict state neutrality. Additionally, addressing socio-economic disparities
and promoting inclusive development can help mitigate religious tensions and strengthen the secular
ethos of the nation.

7. The author's attitude towards the Indian model of secularism can best be described as:
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Critical and dismissive (b) Neutral and objective

(c) Enthusiastic and supportive (d) Analytical and cautiously optimistic

8. The phrase "Sarva Dharma Sambhava" in the context of Indian secularism implies:
(a) Strict separation of religion and state
(b) Preferential treatment for majority religions
(c) Equal respect for all religions
(d) Abolition of all religious practices in public life

9. Based on the passage, one can conclude that the Indian model of secularism:
(a) Is identical to Western secularism
(b) Has evolved independently of India's historical context
(c) Is incompatible with modern democratic values
(d) Reflects a unique blend of historical influences and constitutional principles
10. In the context of the passage, the word "intertwining" is closest in meaning to:
(a) Separating (b) Conflicting
(c) Merging (d) Competing

11. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) Emperor Ashoka promoted religious tolerance
(b) The Indian Constitution explicitly mentions the term "secular" in its original Preamble
(c) Akbar's policies exemplified religious inclusivity
(d) Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution address religious liberties

12. The central theme of the passage is:

(a) The superiority of Indian secularism over Western models
(b) The challenges facing secularism in contemporary India
(c) The evolution and complexities of secularism in the Indian context
(d) The need to abolish secularism in favor of a theocratic state

III. Science and Technology: Last week, a satellite developed by a coalition of companies and
organisations, including NASA‘s Jet Propulsion Laboratory, was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9
rocket from Vandenberg Space Force Base in California. Known as Tanager-1, the satellite can detect
major emitters of carbon dioxide and methane. Notably, the launch has come just months after
MethaneSAT — a satellite which tracks and measures methane emissions — was launched in March.
The satellite will use imaging spectrometer technology developed at Jet Propulsion Laboratory to track
methane and carbon dioxide emissions. It will do so by measuring hundreds of wavelengths of light that
are reflected by Earth‘s surface. ―Different compounds in the planet‘s atmosphere — including methane
and carbon dioxide — absorb different wavelengths of light, leaving spectral ―fingerprints‖ that the
imaging spectrometer can identify. These infrared fingerprints can enable researchers to pinpoint and
quantify strong greenhouse gas emissions, potentially accelerating mitigation efforts,‖ according to a
report by [Link]-1 will be able to measure point-source emission, down to the level of individual
facilities and equipment, on a global scale, the report said. It will scan 130,000 square kilometres of
Earth‘s surface per day. ―Scientists will analyse data from Tanager-1 to identify gas plumes with the
unique spectral signatures of methane and carbon dioxide — and pinpoint their sources. Plume data will
be publicly available online,‖ the NASA report added. Methane is an invisible but strong greenhouse gas,
and the second largest contributor to global warming after carbon dioxide, responsible for 30 per cent of
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

global heating since the Industrial Revolution. According to the United Nations Environment Programme,
over a period of 20 years, methane is 80 times more potent at warming than carbon dioxide. The gas
also contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone — a colourless and highly irritating gas that forms
just above the Earth‘s surface. According to a 2022 report, exposure to ground-level ozone could be
contributing to one million premature deaths every year. Therefore, it is crucial to cut methane emissions.
The main culprit is fossil fuel operations, which account for about 40 per cent of all human-caused
methane emissions.
Source: The Indian Express

13. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the Tanager-1 satellite?
(a) To study the formation of ground-level ozone
(b) To track and measure only methane emissions
(c) To detect major emitters of carbon dioxide and methane
(d) To analyze the spectral signatures of all greenhouse gases

14. The passage suggests that the launch of Tanager-1 is significant because:
(a) It is the first satellite capable of detecting greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It comes shortly after the launch of another satellite with similar capabilities
(c) It is the first collaborative effort between NASA and SpaceX
(d) It can measure emissions more accurately than any previous satellite

15. According to the passage, which of the following statements about methane is NOT true?
(a) It is responsible for 30% of global heating since the Industrial Revolution
(b) It is 80 times more potent at warming than carbon dioxide over a 20-year period
(c) It is the largest contributor to global warming
(d) It contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone

16. The imaging spectrometer technology used by Tanager-1 works by:

(a) Directly measuring the temperature of the Earth's surface
(b) Analyzing the absorption of different wavelengths of light by compounds in the atmosphere
(c) Capturing high-resolution images of methane and carbon dioxide molecules
(d) Detecting changes in air pressure caused by greenhouse gas emissions

17. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the
Tanager-1 satellite?
(a) It will primarily focus on measuring emissions from the energy sector
(b) Its data will only be accessible to the organizations involved in its development
(c) It has the capability to identify individual facilities contributing to emissions
(d) It will replace all existing satellites currently monitoring greenhouse gas emissions

18. The author's mention of ground-level ozone in the passage serves primarily to:
(a) Highlight an additional environmental concern related to methane emissions
(b) Argue that ground-level ozone is a more pressing issue than methane emissions
(c) Explain why the Tanager-1 satellite also measures ozone levels
(d) Demonstrate the complexity of atmospheric chemistry
IV. Society: When the celebrated Hindi writing duo Salim-Javed wrote ―Mere paas Maa hai‖, they were
clearly on to something. That brief line of movie dialogue has survived five decades in public memory as
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

a pithy reminder of the emotional, moral and ideological power invested in motherhood in our collective
imagination. However, one reason it remains deeply resonant is that, aside from death and taxes, if
there‘s one other thing we can be sure of, it is our mothers. If we exist, someone birthed us, and
regardless of how present or absent our individual mothers might be, mothering marks us in life as well
as in the realm of imagination. Julia Kristeva has written of consecrated motherhood as a fantasy of lost
territory that is nurtured by all adults. In the religious sphere, we see it in the form of a Mother Goddess
or as Mother Mary, while in culture, we see it as the ordinary-seeming Ma who holds her son‘s heart in
her fist. In politics too, it emerges as the motherland, although politicians also tap into the power of
consecrated motherhood when they bring their flesh-and-blood mothers into political discourse. We saw
this most recently when Kamala Harris described her mother as an immigrant in the US – ―a brown
woman with an accent‖ who was tough, courageous, and yet, never lost her cool.
What Harris doesn‘t quite say is that her mother, being human, is fallible. Instead, she sticks with the
fantasy Ma – an unfailing, temperate presence who compensates for other lacking, including an absent
or distant father. Nowhere is this more apparent than in the docu-series Angry Young Men, recently out
on Amazon Prime, where we see screenwriters Salim Khan and Javed Akhtar reflecting on the loss of
their mothers in childhood. Like childhood itself, everyone experiences mothering as a gradual loss and
writers often tap into this, capturing our longing to return to a maternal lap where we are eternally safe
and welcome. It is in this lap that Birju (Sunil Dutt) dies, shot by the righteous Radha (Nargis) in Mother
India (1957) and it is towards this lap that Vijay runs in Deewar (1975), despite having been rejected by
his Ma (Nirupa Roy).
Interestingly, the Hindi screen Ma looms larger if she is widowed, divorced or has been abandoned by
the father. In this form, she is nearer to the primal Mother – the unrivalled creator and provider whose
primacy cannot be challenged. In this way, she becomes an article of faith rather than a flesh and blood
woman. The tricky part, of course, is that articles of faith never have any longings of their own. In Of
Woman Born: Motherhood as Experience and Institution, Adrienne Rich writes that it is only as mothers
that women‘s bodies are seen as ―beneficent, sacred, pure, asexual, nourishing‖. In order to be deemed
worthy, a woman must be seen as maternal, or at least potentially maternal, and these ideas still play out
in public discourse.
Source: The Indian Express

19. According to the passage, what does Julia Kristeva suggest about consecrated motherhood?
(a) It is a reality experienced only by mothers
(b) It is a fantasy of lost territory nurtured by all adults
(c) It is exclusively a religious concept
(d) It is primarily a political construct
20. Which of the following best describes the author's view of the portrayal of mothers in Hindi cinema?
(a) Mothers are always portrayed realistically
(b) Mothers are often idealized, especially if widowed or single
(c) Mothers are typically shown as weak and dependent
(d) Mothers are primarily depicted as career-oriented

21. What does the author imply about Kamala Harris's description of her mother?
(a) It accurately reflects the complexities of her mother's character
(b) It adheres to the fantasy of the ideal mother figure
(c) It focuses solely on her mother's professional achievements
(d) It contradicts the typical portrayal of immigrant mothers
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

22. Based on the passage, which of the following statements about the Hindi screen Ma is NOT true?
(a) She is often portrayed as a widow or single mother
(b) Her primacy is frequently unchallenged
(c) She is depicted as having her own desires and ambitions
(d) She is sometimes portrayed as an article of faith

23. What does Adrienne Rich suggest about the perception of women's bodies in relation to motherhood?
(a) They are always seen as sexual
(b) They are viewed as pure and nourishing only when maternal
(c) They are considered sacred regardless of maternal status
(d) They are perceived as beneficent only when childless

24. Which of the following best captures the author's main argument about motherhood in the passage?
(a) Motherhood is universally experienced in the same way across cultures
(b) The concept of motherhood is primarily shaped by religious beliefs
(c) Motherhood is a complex idea that exists both in reality and in cultural imagination
(d) Political discourse has no impact on societal perceptions of motherhood
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 50
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Society: Instead of helping people quit tobacco, the manufacturers of these new-age gateway devices
have discovered a lucrative market — children. This has led to a surge in youth vaping, creating a new
pandemic. For example, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, in 2023, e-
cigarettes were the most commonly used tobacco product among middle and high school students in
United States, with 2.1 million (7.7%) students using e-cigarettes, including 5,50,000 (4.6%) middle
school students. These devices are now getting a new generation hooked on nicotine and exposing
them to potential long-term health consequences. Children have been lured into trying and becoming
addicted to e-cigarettes and vaping devices through a targeted marketing of flavours such as strawberry,
cotton candy, pop rocks, and lemonade. In addition to alleged predatory marketing tactics, mental health
issues and the negative effects of excessive technology use are also driving some children towards
these devices. The psychological factors affecting children operate on two levels. First, children are
increasingly susceptible to new-age devices from an early age. What was once an adolescent concern,
for engaging in distracting activities and developing addictive tendencies, has shifted, with even those
under 10 years of age now showing signs of vulnerability. The age group most at risk remains between
10 and 20 years old, a demographic that manufacturers allegedly exploit through appealing advertising
and enticing vaping flavours. The colourful imagery created by these new-age gateway devices suggests
that these products will bring happiness and elevate one‘s social status in the lives of targeted children.
In their eagerness to fit in, children often prioritize peer preferences over their own, leading them to
embrace vaping and other harmful behaviours. Those who vape are more likely to experience feelings of
loneliness and social isolation when compared to their peers who abstain from these. These
psychological factors contribute to a troubling surge in children being drawn to enticing electronic
devices such as vapes and e-cigarettes. The second aspect is the impact that such habits will have on
the physical and mental well-being of children. While physical impacts such as lung damage and the
spread of e-cigarette or vaping use-associated lung injury (EVALI) have become evident, we also need
to shine the spotlight on the mental impact on children due to these new-age gateway devices. The
Australian Institute of Family Studies, an Australian Government statutory agency, has said that
evidence indicates that vaping has negative effects on people who use e-cigarettes. With increasing
rates of e-cigarette usage in Australia and worldwide, such new-age gateway devices are associated
with mental health challenges such as depressive symptoms, anxiety, perceived stress, and suicide-
related behaviours among adolescents. Key risk factors include friends‘ positive attitudes towards vaping
and parental smoking. E-cigarettes are highly addictive, particularly for individuals up to around the age
of 25. This is a developmental stage which makes them especially vulnerable to structural and chemical
changes induced by nicotine addiction. Once addiction takes root, it can increase the likelihood of
developing other substance use disorders later in life, creating a cycle. What is inside these new-age
gateway devices that is causing more addiction?
Source: The Hindu

1. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor contributing to the surge
in youth vaping?
(a) Targeted marketing of flavors
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Mental health issues

(c) Negative effects of excessive technology use
(d) Peer pressure from social media influencers

2. The author suggests that the psychological factors affecting children's vulnerability to vaping operate on
two levels. Which of the following is NOT one of these levels?
(a) Increased susceptibility to new-age devices from an early age
(b) Impact on physical and mental well-being
(c) Influence of parental smoking habits
(d) Exploitation by manufacturers through advertising and flavors

3. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) E-cigarettes are a safe alternative to traditional tobacco products for children
(b) The surge in youth vaping is primarily due to peer pressure and social media influence
(c) Manufacturers of e-cigarettes are exploiting children through targeted marketing strategies
(d) The health risks associated with vaping are limited to physical effects like lung damage

4. What does the author imply about the relationship between vaping and mental health in adolescents?
(a) Vaping has no significant impact on mental health
(b) Vaping is associated with improved mental well-being
(c) Vaping is linked to various mental health challenges, including depressive symptoms and anxiety
(d) The mental health effects of vaping are limited to increased stress levels

5. According to the passage, what makes individuals up to around the age of 25 particularly vulnerable to
the effects of e-cigarettes?
(a) Their increased exposure to advertising
(b) Their developmental stage and susceptibility to structural and chemical changes
(c) Their higher disposable income
(d) Their greater tendency to engage in risk-taking behaviors

6. Which of the following best describes the author's tone towards the manufacturers of e-cigarettes and
vaping devices?
(a) Neutral and objective (b) Mildly concerned
(c) Supportive and encouraging (d) Critical and accusatory

II. Polity: During British rule, provincial governors were agents of the crown. The necessity of continuing
with the post was debated extensively in the Constituent Assembly. The Assembly decided to retain the
position but changed the governor‘s role from the British era. It was also debated if the governor should
be appointed by the president or if elections should be conducted for the post. Fearing the latter would
create a parallel state leadership, the Constituent Assembly chose appointment by the president. The
framers of our Constitution were clear on the governor‘s role. B R Ambedkar referred to the governor‘s
position as ―ornamental‖ and said that ―he has no functions which he can discharge by himself.‖ When
Delhi got an elected government in 1992, the L-G was tasked with directly administering the functions
related to land (through the DDA or Delhi Development Authority) and law and order (through the Delhi
Police) under the Centre‘s guidance. For all other functions, the L-G was to act on the advice of the
elected government. This arrangement worked well until 2015 when the AAP government came to office
with a historic mandate, which the BJP was unable to digest. Over the past decade, the BJP has
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

weaponised the L-G‘s office in Delhi much like it has used the governor‘s office in Opposition-ruled
states to stall the functioning of the elected governments. The past two years have seen a complete
breakdown in the constitutional role of the L-G‘s office in Delhi. In the past, retired bureaucrats, IPS
officers and ex-servicemen were appointed as Delhi L-G. A non-ex officer was appointed L-G in May
2022 and it is no secret as to whose ―aid and advice‖ he is taking. Over the past two years, the L-G has
worked with a single goal — derail many works of the elected government and upturn the democratic
mandate in Delhi. The interference ranges from appointing hostile bureaucrats in key positions to
blocking funds for the Delhi Jal Board and Farishtey Scheme.
Source: The Indian Express

7. According to the passage, what was the primary concern of the Constituent Assembly when deciding
how the governor should be appointed?
(a) Ensuring the governor remained an agent of the crown
(b) Preventing the creation of parallel state leadership
(c) Maintaining the governor's role from the British era
(d) Establishing a democratic process for governor selection
8. How did B.R. Ambedkar describe the role of the governor in the Indian Constitution?
(a) As a crucial decision-maker in state affairs
(b) As an ornamental position with no independent functions
(c) As a representative of the central government in the state
(d) As an elected leader with significant administrative powers

9. What change occurred in the governance of Delhi in 1992?

(a) The L-G was given complete control over all administrative functions
(b) An elected government was established for the first time
(c) The L-G's role was limited to advisory functions only
(d) The Centre took direct control of all administrative functions in Delhi

10. According to the passage, what has been the impact of the BJP's approach to the L-G's office in Delhi
over the past decade?
(a) It has strengthened the democratic process in Delhi
(b) It has led to better coordination between the Centre and the Delhi government
(c) It has resulted in the stalling of the elected government's functioning
(d) It has reduced political conflicts in Delhi's governance

11. What significant change in the appointment of Delhi's L-G is mentioned in the passage?
(a) The appointment of a retired bureaucrat as L-G
(b) The appointment of an ex-serviceman as L-G
(c) The appointment of a non-ex officer as L-G
(d) The election of the L-G by the people of Delhi

12. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the author's view of the current L-G's
actions in Delhi?
(a) The L-G is fulfilling his constitutional duties effectively
(b) The L-G is working to improve Delhi's infrastructure
(c) The L-G is acting as a neutral arbitrator between the Centre and Delhi government
(d) The L-G is deliberately obstructing the elected government's work
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

III. Environment: Perform, Achieve, and Trade‘ (PAT) - The Bureau of Energy Efficiency defines PAT as a
―regulatory instrument to reduce specific energy consumption in energy-intensive industries, with an
associated market based-mechanism to enhance the cost effectiveness through certification of excess
energy saving which can be traded.‖ PAT is about meeting energy efficiency standards, which means for
producing a certain output, there is an attempt to use no more than a prescribed amount of energy. So, a
firm that produces more steel than another can use more fuel, but can still be more energy efficient.
There is no restriction on the absolute energy used. Meeting these standards generates credits or
certificates for successful firms, which they can trade. In contrast, emissions trading, often known as cap
and trade, is a market-based approach to controlling pollution by providing economic incentives for
achieving reductions in the emissions of pollutants. Polluters are given emission caps. This is not based
on relative standards such as energy-efficiency requirements, but on absolute standards, which are
emission ceilings. The Finance Minister‘s announcement underlines the fact that even from the
perspective of a developing country such as India, climate change is not about equity concerns alone,
but also about searching for viable options to move away from excessive dependence on fossil fuel. In
the last 15 years, India has been trying to decarbonise various sectors to meet its multiple development
prerogatives, including poverty alleviation and providing its population access to affordable and reliable
energy. India joined the Clean Development Mechanism, one of the Kyoto Protocol‘s ‗flexibility
mechanisms‘ allowing industrialised countries to undertake climate mitigation projects in developing
countries through which they could earn certified emission reduction units which could be traded and
used by them to meet their emission reduction targets. By 2011, India became the largest supplier of
Certified Emission Reduction Units in the world after China. In pursuance of its National Mission for
Enhanced Energy Efficiency (one of the eight missions comprising the National Action Plan on Climate
Change), India launched PAT in [Link] needs iron and steel for industrialisation, especially given the
massive housing demand in urban centres with a rising population. Emissions from iron and steel
production are big contributors to climate change. In the context of a Net Zero Emissions scenario by
2050, the International Energy Agency (IEA) says in a policy brief that the signs of the announced iron
and steel projects meeting net zero emissions is very low.
Source: The Hindu

13. What is the primary difference between PAT and emissions trading as described in the passage?
(a) PAT is voluntary while emissions trading is mandatory
(b) PAT focuses on energy efficiency while emissions trading sets absolute emission limits
(c) PAT is for developing countries while emissions trading is for developed countries
(d) PAT doesn't allow trading of credits while emissions trading does

14. Which of the following best describes India's approach to climate change, according to the passage?
(a) Focusing solely on equity concerns
(b) Prioritizing industrialization over environmental concerns
(c) Balancing development needs with efforts to reduce fossil fuel dependence
(d) Rejecting international climate agreements

15. In the context of the Clean Development Mechanism, what position did India achieve by 2011?
(a) The largest consumer of Certified Emission Reduction Units
(b) The second-largest supplier of Certified Emission Reduction Units globally
(c) The initiator of the Clean Development Mechanism
(d) The largest investor in climate mitigation projects
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

16. What challenge does the passage highlight regarding India's industrialization and climate change
mitigation?
(a) Lack of technological innovations in the steel industry
(b) Insufficient international support for India's climate efforts
(c) Conflict between steel production needs and emission reduction goals
(d) Absence of regulatory frameworks for energy-intensive industries

17. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the PAT mechanism?
(a) A system to reduce absolute energy consumption in industries
(b) A regulatory tool to improve energy efficiency with a market-based component
(c) A punitive measure against energy-intensive industries
(d) A voluntary program for industries to trade energy credits

18. Based on the IEA's assessment, what is the outlook for announced iron and steel projects in India
meeting net zero emissions by 2050?
(a) Highly promising (b) Moderately achievable
(c) Uncertain but possible (d) Very unlikely to meet the target

IV. Literature: King Amrit loved his people and looked after the affairs of his kingdom well. His minister,
Chandan, was a wise man who helped the king in his work tirelessly. One day, King Amrit and Chandan
were taking a walk on the terrace of the palace. The terrace offered beautiful views of the surroundings,
and they could see far into the distance. They spotted the weekly market from up there, with people in
colourful clothes buying and selling all kinds of things. There was plenty to buy and people had money to
buy, too. There were no poor people to be seen anywhere. The king watched with a smile on his face.
He was delighted to see the prosperity of his kingdom. Like any good ruler he was happy when his
people were happy.
He turned to Chandan and said, ‗See how contented my people are. But I want to check this first-hand
by talking to them. Tomorrow, summon people from all walks of life to the court, and I will ask them
myself how they are doing.‘ Chandan was used to the king‘s strange requests, so he nodded and went
off to carry out this order. The next day, the king arrived in court humming a happy tune to himself.
Seeing all the people gathered there waiting for him, he was even more pleased. He cleared his throat
and said in a loud voice, ‗I have called you here to ask you a very important question. As your king, I
need to know if all of you are contented. Do you have enough for your needs? Do you know anyone who
is not happy about anything?‘ The citizens looked at each other, thought for a while and slowly one by
one they came forward to answer. One after the other they all said how happy they were—their kitchens
had enough food, their trades and businesses were doing well, the king had made them feel safe. The
farmers had grown good crops and the rivers and ponds were full of fish. What more could they ask for?
The king became more and more pleased as he heard this. Only Chandan, his minister, watched and
heard everything with a frown on his face. Why? What was wrong? Soon he walked up to the king and
whispered something in his ear. King Amrit‘s eyebrows rose up in astonishment. Surely, Chandan could
not be serious! But he looked at the minister‘s face and found no trace of this being a joke. He turned
back to the court and made a most unusual announcement. ‗I am delighted that all of you have said you
are happy. But I want to test this. Tomorrow, I want all the happy people of this kingdom to come and
meet me in the royal gardens. But I have a condition. All of you will have to enter the garden from the
main gate, walk across and meet me by the gate at the rear of the garden. I will wait for you there. When
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

you enter the garden you will be given a sack each and you can pick whatever fruits or flowers your heart
desires.‘
Source: Grandma's bag of stories by Sudha Murthy

19. What does King Amrit's desire to personally verify his people's contentment reveal about his character as
a ruler?
(a) He is distrustful of his subjects
(b) He is overly concerned with his public image
(c) He is hands-on and genuinely cares about his people's welfare
(d) He doubts the efficiency of his administration

20. Which of the following best describes Chandan's role in the story?
(a) A Yes-man who always agrees with the king
(b) A wise advisor who provides a different perspective
(c) An antagonist who opposes the king's decisions
(d) A neutral observer of the kingdom's affairs

21. The king's announcement of the garden test can be interpreted as:
(a) A trap to expose his subjects' greed
(b) A genuine attempt to reward his people
(c) A method to assess the true level of contentment in his kingdom
(d) A ploy to distract his subjects from underlying issues

22. What does the phrase "Chandan was used to the king's strange requests" imply about the relationship
between King Amrit and his minister?
(a) Chandan disapproves of the king's unconventional methods
(b) The king often makes irrational decisions
(c) Chandan and the king have a long-standing working relationship
(d) The king intentionally tests Chandan's patience

23. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the state of King Amrit's kingdom?
(a) A façade of prosperity hiding underlying issues
(b) A truly prosperous and contented society
(c) A kingdom with obvious signs of poverty and discontent
(d) A state of economic growth but social unrest

24. The king's reaction to Chandan's whisper suggests that:

(a) The king was aware of underlying issues in his kingdom
(b) Chandan had revealed a surprising piece of information
(c) The king and Chandan were in disagreement
(d) The subjects' responses were unexpected
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 51
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Scorching temperatures across Europe have killed tens of thousands of people in recent years. But as
fatalities rise, researchers are finding that one group is disproportionately bearing the brunt of extreme
heat: those living in poverty. It‘s common sense, a heatwave is not the same when you‘re in a shared
room with three other people and no air conditioning, as when you‘re in a villa with access to a pool and
air conditioning. Heatwaves had an impact on mortality in just three districts – those where household
incomes were below average.
People with lower incomes often struggle to access quality housing, with many living in overcrowded,
poorly ventilated homes that offer little respite from the heat. Some struggle to access adequate
healthcare, leaving them more likely to suffer from conditions that could be exacerbated by extreme heat,
while others work in sectors such as agriculture and construction where they are regularly exposed to
high temperatures.
Even when air conditioning is available, people with lower incomes are less likely to be able to afford to
use them. Earlier this year Save the Children warned that one in three children in Spain were unable to
keep cool at home. It said this could have a ―hugely detrimental‖ influence on the mental and physical
health of more than 2 million children.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]
heat-in-europe-say-spanish-researchers

1. What likely exacerbates the health risks during a heatwave for people living in poverty?
(a) The inaccessibility of preventive education.
(b) The lack of immediate medical interventions.
(c) The chronic exposure to environmental hazards.
(d) The limited availability of occupational health safeguards.

2. The passage implies that socioeconomic status influences one's ability to cope with heatwaves primarily
through:
(a) Social isolation and limited community support.
(b) Economic barriers to accessing cooling technologies.
(c) Cultural attitudes towards climate change.
(d) Geographic location and urban planning.
3. The tone used to describe the impact of heatwaves on children in Spain is best characterized as:
(a) Clinical (b) Alarmist
(c) Detached (d) Concerned

4. Which of the following statements would be inaccurate in the context of the passage?
(a) Substantial governmental intervention has been implemented to alleviate the impacts of heatwaves
on vulnerable populations.
(b) People in lower income brackets often reside in environments that poorly insulate against extreme
temperatures.
(c) Agricultural and construction workers are notably affected by heatwaves due to their working
conditions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Economical constraints hinder the use of air conditioning among the less affluent.

5. Statement 1: Lower-income households often lack air conditioning.

Statement 2: Economic disparities influence health outcomes during heatwaves.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. I call it ―the hill of death‖: a steep uphill section of dirt road towards the end of an otherwise pleasant and
not-too-taxing walk in the scenic Blue Mountains. It‘s challenging enough to get up it walking forwards
but my friend and I both feel quite confident about our fitness this morning, so I suggest we try walking
up it backwards.
Within a few metres, my quad and calf muscles are burning, my heart is pounding and I‘m regretting the
idea. But we persist, and with much huffing and whinging we walk backwards up a 30-metre-long
section. Backwards walking is so hot right now, literally and figuratively. The practice has apparently
been common in China for some time but, as so often happens when something is ―discovered‖ by an
influencer– it has suddenly become very popular with parts of the western world.
There have been a lot of headlines about the benefits of backwards walking, but relatively few well-done
clinical studies of the practice. The evidence that does exist suggests backwards walking could help
some people and in particular settings. But it‘s unlikely we‘re going to see popular walking spots looking
as though someone hit the rewind button on the remote. The first group who may yield benefits are those
at risk of falls, such as older people or those recovering from conditions such as stroke. Backwards
walking challenges the muscles and body in ways we don‘t normally experience. That can help you to
build what we call proprioception, which is essentially how your muscles and your joints communicate
with your brain, and how your brain communicates back to them to make sure you don‘t fall over.
Walking backwards is not something that we do very often, and so from that point of view, yes, it
absolutely does engage different systems and different muscle groups. But it‘s not a muscle training
exercise, it‘s not a strength exercise; it‘s more about coordination.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
m[Link]
any-better-than-walking-forwards

6. The narrator's initial enthusiasm for trying a challenging activity shifted to what emotion upon execution?
(a) Exhilaration (b) Regret
(c) Indifference (d) Satisfaction

7. What common reaction did the narrator and their friend share during their unconventional activity?
(a) They found it unexpectedly easy. (b) They wished to give up immediately.
(c) They laughed at their foolishness. (d) They both exhibited frustration.

8. The progression from a casual to a challenging part of the walk can be sequenced as:
(1) Deciding to increase the difficulty of their walk
(2) Initial enjoyment of the scenic route
(3) Facing the physical demands of the challenge
(4) Reflecting on the sudden popularity of the activity
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Choose the appropriate option:

(a) (2), (1), (3), (4) (b) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(c) (1), (2), (3), (4) (d) (1), (4), (2), (3)

9. The concept of "proprioception" in the context of the passage most closely relates to which of the
following?
(a) The ability to perceive or feel emotions.
(b) A type of sensory feedback loop between muscles and the brain.
(c) The psychological resistance to change in physical activity.
(d) The metabolic adjustments to new exercises.

10. The term "hot right now" in the passage metaphorically suggests that backwards walking is:
(a) Gaining a sudden increase in temperature.
(b) Experiencing a resurgence in popularity.
(c) Becoming physically more demanding.
(d) Being debated for its health benefits.

11. The discovery of backwards walking by influencers has led to its:

(a) Adoption by a broader audience in the western world.
(b) Recognition in medical therapeutic practices.
(c) Integration into professional sports training.
(d) Dismissal as a faddish trend.

12. In the context of the passage, backwards walking primarily serves as an exercise for:
(a) Muscle strengthening.
(b) Enhancing cardiovascular health.
(c) Improving coordination and stability.
(d) Weight loss.

III. Pacific island leaders have agreed to back a sweeping regional policing plan after Australia overcame
last-minute concerns that the proposal was part of a geopolitical play to exclude China. The Australian
prime minister, Anthony Albanese, discussed the issue with his counterparts at the Pacific Islands Forum
(Pif) in Tonga on Wednesday amid increasing contest for influence between the US and China. He later
welcomed the agreement from Pif leaders to support the Pacific Policing Initiative, which will see up to
four police training centres of excellence established in the Pacific.
The proposal also includes the formation of multi-country police units. Albanese said this would provide
―a ready pool of trained Pacific police to deploy in response to Pacific country requirements, such as for
major event management or additional capacity in times of crisis‖.
The Australian government will also set up a police development and coordination hub in Brisbane,
giving Pacific police officers access to Australian federal police facilities for training and to prepare for
deployments. Australia has offered about $400m in funding over five years to help deliver the scheme,
including infrastructure costs to build policing centres of excellence in the region.
Albanese said it was ―a Pacific-led initiative‖ that reflected the desire of Pacific neighbours to ―stand with
each other and help each other in times of need‖. Without directly mentioning China, Albanese said it
was a case of the Pacific working together to make the security of the entire region ―much stronger‖. It
would allow the Pacific to look after its own security ―ourselves‖.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

But hours before the deal was announced, the prime minister of Vanuatu, Charlot Salwai, and the
regional sub-grouping to which Vanuatu belongs went public with its concerns the plan may be intended
to serve western strategic interests. Salwai described the Pacific policing initiative as ―important‖ but
indicated the region should ensure the plan was ―framed to fit our purposes and not developed to suit the
geostrategic interests and geostrategic denial security postures of our big partners‖. This ―denial‖
language is a clear reference to excluding China. Australia has repeatedly registered its concerns about
China‘s attempts to reach security and policing agreements with Pacific Island countries, including the
2022 deal with Solomon Islands.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]
leaders-push-back-at-australian-police-training-plan

13. The article detailing the Pacific Policing Initiative is most likely from a __________.
(a) regional geopolitical analysis journal
(b) technology-focused website
(c) travel guide about the Pacific
(d) sports magazine discussing regional events

14. The primary purpose of this passage is to __________.

(a) criticize Australia's foreign policy towards Pacific nations.
(b) outline the specifics of a new regional policing initiative.
(c) argue for the inclusion of China in Pacific regional plans.
(d) detail the economic impacts of policing initiatives.

15. The repeated reference to 'geostrategic interests' in the passage emphasizes __________.
(a) the potential for conflict in international relations.
(b) the importance of economic incentives in political agreements.
(c) the dominance of military considerations in diplomacy.
(d) the complexity of regional security dynamics.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that implies a causal relationship.
(a) "The Australian prime minister, Anthony Albanese, discussed the issue with his counterparts at the
Pacific Islands Forum."
(b) "Australia has offered about $400m in funding over five years to help deliver the scheme."
(c) "But hours before the deal was announced, the prime minister of Vanuatu went public with its
concerns."
(d) "The proposal also includes the formation of multi-country police units."

17. According to the passage, why is it significant that the Pacific Policing Initiative is labeled as 'Pacific-led'?
(a) It implies a reduction of Australian influence in the region.
(b) It suggests that the initiative may help balance China's influence.
(c) It indicates a shift in how international aid is structured.
(d) It highlights the cooperation among Pacific countries without external interference.

18. What does the passage suggest about the balance between strategic interests and regional
cooperation?
(a) Strategic interests inevitably undermine regional cooperation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Regional cooperation is often framed to accommodate strategic interests.

(c) Strategic interests are irrelevant to the success of regional initiatives.
(d) Regional initiatives are solely determined by external geopolitical pressures.

19. Which term from the passage could be substituted with ‗strategic foresight‘, without changing the
meaning?
(a) "geopolitical play" (b) "major event management"
(c) "security postures" (d) "coordination hub"

20. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the assertion that the Pacific Policing Initiative is
genuinely Pacific-led?
(a) Training centers are located in each participating Pacific country.
(b) The initiative includes only Pacific island nations.
(c) Australia is the sole funder of the initiative.
(d) The initiative was first proposed by the Pacific Islands Forum.

21. In the context of the passage, the phrase "to fit our purposes" primarily emphasizes the need for:
(a) customization of international policies to meet specific regional needs.
(b) alignment of global strategies with local traditions and practices.
(c) independence from external geopolitical influences.
(d) transparent and accountable governance structures.

22. The concern expressed by the Prime Minister of Vanuatu about the Pacific Policing Initiative suggests
that:
(a) there is general resistance to any form of external influence in the Pacific region.
(b) smaller nations fear being overshadowed by larger countries in regional agreements.
(c) there is a preference for development strategies that originate within the region itself.
(d) diplomatic negotiations often overlook the needs of smaller nations.

IV. The soldiers arrived in ―three ships of war, with their sails wafted by the wind and with omens and
prophecies … that they should occupy the country to which they were sailing three hundred years, and
half of that time … should plunder and despoil the same.‖ So wrote Gildas, a sixth-century British monk,
describing the Germanic conquest of Britain shortly after the end of Roman rule. His account of this
bloody war endured, as did the belief that the conflict had elevated a Germanic upper class, who
oppressed the natives for generations afterward. These beliefs stood as a hallmark of British identity for
centuries.
But did that invasion actually happen? Since the Renaissance, scholars have been engaged in a curious
and feverish debate over where the people who populate England came from. Did they arrive as
conquerors, as Gildas would have it? Or by a more gradual and peaceful migration? The answer matters
because it provides an explanation for a perplexing reality: In a remarkably short three centuries after the
Roman occupation, Britain was transformed into a dramatically different kind of place.
Under Roman administration, Britain was largely urban. People lived in tile-roofed stone buildings in
towns connected by roads; they boasted a standing army and a coinage system. Native Britons spoke
an indigenous Celtic language and probably some Latin. By the 700s, things had changed entirely:
Inhabitants lived mostly in country hamlets in wood-and-thatch homes resembling Grubenhäuser, those
partly sunken houses typical of northern Germany and southwest Denmark. With the empire gone, many
workers, from builders to vintners to smiths to perfumers, simply no longer had a market for their
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

products or services, so the only way to survive was subsistence farming. In this way, the Britons
produced what they needed, and they bartered for the rest. The things they made, jewelry or pots, drew
on both continental and indigenous traditions but were uniquely theirs. Most striking, they had created a
new national identity and were speaking a new language, the earliest form of English. Analyzing DNA
from hundreds of Anglo-Saxon-era bones in England and in northwest Europe, they have concluded that
as much as 76 percent of ancestry in eastern medieval England came from what is now Germany and
Scandinavia.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
uncover-real-story-england-became-england-180984911/

23. How can the tone of the historical analysis in the passage best be described?
(a) Speculative (b) Definitive
(c) Neutral (d) Critical

24. What is the implied cause-and-effect relationship in the transformation of Britain post-Roman
occupation?
(a) Cause: Disappearance of the Roman administrative system, Effect: Shift to subsistence farming
(b) Cause: Invasion by Germanic tribes, Effect: Development of a new national identity
(c) Cause: Loss of urban centers, Effect: Adoption of rural living styles
(d) Cause: Roman influence, Effect: Continuation of urban lifestyle

25. In the context of the passage, the phrase "wafted by the wind" metaphorically enhances understanding
of which historical aspect?
(a) The unpredictability of the invaders‘ journey to Britain.
(b) The inevitable change brought about by the invaders.
(c) The natural progression of historical events.
(d) The violent nature of the conquest.

26. Which statement, if true, would most challenge the notion presented in the passage that the Germanic
peoples replaced the Roman systems entirely?
(a) Archaeological evidence shows continued use of Roman roads and coinage after the Germanic
takeover.
(b) DNA analysis reveals no significant Germanic ancestry in modern British populations.
(c) Historical records from the period immediately following the Roman exit show a peaceful coexistence
of Roman and Germanic cultures.
(d) Studies indicate that the Roman administrative structures were already declining before the
Germanic arrival.
27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements regarding the transformation of
Britain after the Roman era?
(a) The transformation was primarily driven by the complete eradication of Roman cultural influences.
(b) The changes were a blend of Germanic influences and the remnants of Roman culture.
(c) The Germanic conquest led to a homogeneous cultural landscape across Britain.
(d) Roman practices remained dominant in Britain until the late medieval period.

28. Based on the author‘s depiction of the historical changes, pursuing knowledge about ancient migrations
would likely be _____ to understanding Britain‘s cultural evolution.
(a) essential (b) peripheral
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) irrelevant (d) supplementary

29. In discussing "DNA analysis" from Anglo-Saxon-era bones, the author most likely aims to:
(a) Undermine traditional historical narratives.
(b) Corroborate the historical account provided by Gildas.
(c) Highlight the scientific advancements in historical research.
(d) Prove the predominant Germanic influence in medieval England‘s population.

30. Which sentence in the passage uses the past perfect tense to describe historical transitions?
(a) "Britain was transformed into a dramatically different kind of place."
(b) "People lived in tile-roofed stone buildings in towns connected by roads."
(c) "Native Britons spoke an indigenous Celtic language and probably some Latin."
(d) "Analyzing DNA from hundreds of Anglo-Saxon-era bones in England and in northwest Europe, they
have concluded that as much as 76 percent of ancestry in eastern medieval England came from
what is now Germany and Scandinavia."

31. Which of the following synonyms for 'indicative of' in the context of the passage would NOT maintain the
intended meaning of its use regarding the changes in Britain?
(a) Symbolic of (b) Reflective of
(c) Suggestive of (d) Equivalent to

32. What is the author's likely purpose in referring to the transition from Roman to Anglo-Saxon influences as
part of a broader debate?
(a) To underscore the complexity and multi-layered nature of historical analysis.
(b) To suggest that historical facts are often clear and indisputable.
(c) To argue for a singular, correct interpretation of historical events.
(d) To diminish the importance of understanding historical nuances.

V. Plastered on the walls of every Métro station in Paris this week are adverts boasting some boundary-
pushing Franglais. Alongside images of Paralympic athletes running, leaping and wheeling is a slogan
directed at residents of the French capital. It reads: ―Game [is not] over‖.
For those unfamiliar with 1980s video arcade jargon, ―game over‖ was the message that heralded the
moment a machine ate your money. The grammatically tortuous ―is not‖ has been overlaid by organisers
of Paris 2024 to remind locals that the summer of sporting excellence will continue.
After months of anxiety over low ticket sales and concerns over whether a French audience would
embrace disability sport, the news in recent days has been good. The Île de France regional government
has announced an ambition to make the Paris Métro accessible to wheelchair users at last, one of the
abiding concerns around the Games.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]

33. What does the use of ―Game [is not] over‖ primarily convey about the Paris 2024 organizers' intentions?
(a) To challenge conventional understandings of sports.
(b) To affirm the ongoing relevance of the Paralympic Games.
(c) To emphasize the end of traditional sports formats.
(d) To promote video games alongside physical sports.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

34. What major concern around the Games is being addressed by the Île de France regional government?
(a) Security measures at sports venues.
(b) Accessibility of public transportation.
(c) Availability of affordable lodging for visitors.
(d) Environmental impact of hosting the Games.

35. The phrase ―grammatically tortuous 'is not'‖ suggests that the organizers
(a) overlooked grammatical correctness for stylistic effect.
(b) struggled with the French language.
(c) were unsure about the slogan's final version.
(d) aimed to confuse the audience.

36. The introduction of the slogan alongside images of Paralympic athletes suggests the organizers' strategy
to
(a) shift focus from the athletes to the slogan.
(b) equate physical and digital gaming.
(c) highlight the athletes' ongoing challenges.
(d) underscore the continuity and excitement of the Paralympics.

37. The campaign‘s utilization of Franglais is likely intended to

(a) appeal to a younger, bilingual audience.
(b) create a sense of exclusivity.
(c) challenge linguistic purism in France.
(d) comply with international advertising standards.

38. In this campaign, the strategic use of a video game phrase reflects an attempt to
(a) modernize the image of the Paralympics.
(b) cater to a niche audience of gamers.
(c) distract from the issues of low ticket sales.
(d) integrate modern pop culture with sports.

39. The recent positive news about ticket sales for the Paralympic Games implies that
(a) initial marketing strategies were ineffective.
(b) public interest in disability sports is increasing.
(c) the games were previously unpopular.
(d) ticket prices were initially set too high.

VI. We may finally know how the brain processes a beat drop: people use two distinct brain networks to
anticipate and identify transitions between segments in a piece of music.
Musical boundaries, the moments when one section of a composition ends and another begins, are
important to our enjoyment of music, particularly from the Western tradition. Otherwise, your favourite hit
would sound like a monotonous stream of random sounds, ―similar to reading a text with no punctuation.
To understand how the brain processes musical boundaries, researchers analysed brain activity in 36
adults while they listened to three instrumental works from different genres: the Argentinian nuevo tango
composition Adiós Nonino by Astor Piazzolla, the US progressive metal piece Stream of Consciousness
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

by Dream Theater and the Russian ballet classic The Rite of Spring by Igor Stravinsky. All of the
listeners lived in Finland, and half considered themselves semi-professional or professional musicians.
The researchers found that, right before a musical boundary, a brain network they called the early
auditory network activates in anticipation of the musical phrase ending. This network primarily involves
auditory areas in the posterior, or back, of the brain‘s outer region, called the cortex.
A different network then activates during and after musical transitions. Dubbed the boundary transition
network, it is characterised by increased activity in auditory areas toward the middle and anterior, or
front, of the cortex. The shift in brain activity between these two areas is similar to how our brains
understand the differences between sentences in language. Several brain regions deactivate during and
after musical boundaries, including the right ventrolateral prefrontal cortex, which is involved in complex
cognitive tasks and decision-making. This suggests that, as a new segment begins, the brain redirects
attention and resources towards integrating the new musical information.

40. What impact does the deactivation of the right ventrolateral prefrontal cortex during musical transitions
suggest about the brain's focus?
(a) The brain's capacity for multitasking increases.
(b) There is a reduction in the brain‘s overall cognitive workload.
(c) Attention is heightened and redirected to new musical information.
(d) The brain‘s ability to process complex cognitive tasks is enhanced.

41. How might the early auditory network‘s role in anticipating musical phrase endings influence a listener‘s
experience of music?
(a) It diminishes the emotional impact of the music.
(b) It enhances the listener‘s predictive listening skills.
(c) It disrupts the continuity of musical perception.
(d) It leads to a decreased interest in music.
42. What does the activation of the boundary transition network during musical transitions imply about
human auditory processing?
(a) It indicates a limitation in our ability to process complex sounds.
(b) It shows a lack of differentiation between musical genres in processing.
(c) It signifies a redundancy in the auditory processing areas of the brain.
(d) It reflects an adaptive mechanism for understanding musical structure.

43. Considering the similar brain activity in response to language and music, what might this suggest about
the evolutionary development of music and language?
(a) They may have co-evolved, sharing significant neural pathways.
(b) Music and language evolved independently with no shared pathways.
(c) Language evolved as a byproduct of musical expression.
(d) Music is a less complex form of communication than language.

44. How might the findings about brain networks related to musical transitions impact the development of
educational methods in music?
(a) They could lead to a focus on reducing cognitive load during learning.
(b) They may prompt methods that enhance anticipation and transition recognition in students.
(c) They suggest eliminating traditional music teaching methods.
(d) They imply a need for focusing solely on contemporary music genres.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

VII. Objects that wash ashore in Antarctica could carry non-native floral and faunal species, which can
disrupt native species if they are able to survive the cold conditions, researchers warned. Passively
floating objects can drift to Antarctica not only from sub-Antarctic islands, but also from continental
locations north of the subtropical front including Australia, South Africa, South America and New
Zealand. The Antarctic Peninsula is the area most vulnerable to the introduction of non-native species,
which arrive through natural oceanic dispersal as well as via ship traffic and rapid warming. The study
highlighted that the severe environmental conditions in Antarctica hinder the establishment of numerous
species. However, rising temperatures and the emergence of ice-free areas might already be lowering
these barriers.
The extensive links with sub-Antarctic and temperate regions, along with a growing number of marine
human-made rafting vectors, present an increasing threat to Antarctic marine ecosystems. This risk is
particularly concerning as future environmental conditions around Antarctica are expected to become
more favourable for non-native species.
Researchers used "0.1° global ocean model simulations to explore whether drift connections exist
between more northern, temperate landmasses and the Antarctic coastline". Virtual particles,
symbolising drifting objects, were released from ten sub-Antarctic and Southern Ocean islands and
continents. These sites were selected because they host the southern bull kelp species known for long-
distance rafting (including South America, South Georgia, Crozet Islands, Gough Island, Kerguelen
Islands, Macquarie Island, Marion Island, and New Zealand), or they are potential sources of plastic,
driftwood, giant kelp, and other ocean debris (Australia, South Africa, New Zealand, and South America).
The particle tracking simulations indicated that the Antarctic coastline is widely connected to southern
landmasses, including all southern hemisphere continents. The study indicated that debris, including
plastic, might facilitate the arrival of non-native animals such as molluscs to Antarctica from southern
continents and islands.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
species-arriving-on-plastic-rafts-threaten-antarticas-marine-ecosystem

45. What does the statement about "the severe environmental conditions in Antarctica" indirectly suggest
about species migration?
(a) It enhances the mobility of non-native species into Antarctica.
(b) It historically limited the introduction of non-native species.
(c) It indicates the inadaptability of Antarctic species to changing conditions.
(d) It leads to an increase in the native Antarctic species population.

46. Which statement does NOT align with the description of the "Antarctic Peninsula" as being vulnerable to
non-native species introduction?
(a) The peninsula acts as a primary entry point for invasive species.
(b) Climate changes have increased the vulnerability of the peninsula.
(c) The region is susceptible to influences from both natural and human-assisted dispersal.
(d) Geographic isolation protects the peninsula from non-native species.

47. What implication does the use of "virtual particles" in simulations suggest about the study's approach to
predicting drift patterns?
(a) It emphasizes direct, real-time oceanic observations.
(b) It depends on modeled scenarios to understand dispersal.
(c) It overlooks the complexity of ocean currents.
(d) It ignores previous oceanic drift research.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

48. How does including diverse landmasses in the study enhance its findings on non-native species threats
to Antarctica?
(a) It broadens the assessment of global impacts on Antarctic ecosystems.
(b) It restricts the study's focus to only southern hemispheric regions.
(c) It concentrates the study on the most impacted regions.
(d) It indicates localized issues in specific southern landmasses.

49. What does the use of "ice-free areas" imply about the future ecological challenges in Antarctica?
(a) It indicates a reduction in biodiversity due to colder temperatures.
(b) It suggests an expansion of habitable zones for non-native species.
(c) It marks a decrease in human activity in the region.
(d) It points to a complete melting of the Antarctic ice.

50. Based on the simulation findings, what broader environmental concern does the study indirectly
highlight?
(a) The effectiveness of global ocean current models.
(b) The potential for increased pollution from southern continents.
(c) The resilience of Antarctic ecosystems to invasive species.
(d) The interconnectedness of global ecosystems and the ease of species dispersal.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 52
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Climate: Environmental activists have filed a lawsuit at an Oslo court challenging Norway‘s proposal to
carry out seabed mineral exploration, saying that authorities have not done sufficient impact assessment
of the mining.
The development has come after Norway‘s parliament in January sanctioned a plan to ―open a vast
ocean area larger than Britain for seabed mineral exploration after a government-commissioned study
concluded that its impact would be minimal,‖ according to a Reuters report. The lawsuit is the latest
addition to the long list of climate-related cases being filed across the world. In recent years, more and
more people have been turning to the courts to sue governments and companies for either not taking
adequate steps to mitigate the effects of climate change or taking decisions that severely impact the
environment.
Deep-sea mining involves removing mineral deposits and metals from the ocean‘s seabed. There are
three types of such mining: taking deposit-rich polymetallic nodules off the ocean floor, mining massive
seafloor sulphide deposits and stripping cobalt crusts from rock. These nodules, deposits and crusts
contain materials, such as nickel, rare earth, cobalt and more, that is needed for batteries and other
materials used in tapping renewable energy and also for everyday technology like cellphones and
computers. However, there are many environmental concerns regarding deep sea mining as
conservationists worry that it can damage ecosystems. Damage from mining can include noise, vibration
and light pollution, as well as possible leaks and spills of fuels and other chemicals used in the mining
process.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
climate/deep-sea-mining-climate-litigation-9351761/

1. What is the primary concern of environmental activists regarding Norway's seabed mineral exploration
plan as discussed in the passage?
(a) The activists are concerned about the economic feasibility and profitability of seabed mining.
(b) They believe the plan could potentially lead to geopolitical tensions in the region.
(c) The activists are worried about the environmental impact assessments being insufficient.
(d) There is a concern regarding the transparency of the governmental procedures involved.

2. Based on the passage, which statement best describes the reaction to deep-sea mining?
(a) Deep-sea mining is universally accepted due to its potential to support renewable energy
technologies.
(b) There is significant opposition due to concerns about the environmental damage it can cause.
(c) The mining operations have been proven to be completely safe and environmentally friendly.
(d) Support for deep-sea mining is growing because it offers a sustainable alternative to land-based
mining.

3. Based on the passage, consider the following suggestions for mitigating environmental risks associated
with seabed mineral exploration:
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

I. Enforcing rigorous pre-exploration environmental impact assessments to ensure minimal ecological

disruption.
II. Implementing real-time monitoring systems during mining operations to manage any immediate
environmental impacts effectively.
Which of the above suggestions is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

4. Which sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error?

(a) Environmental activists have filed a lawsuit at an Oslo court challenging Norway‘s proposal to carry
out seabed mineral exploration.
(b) The development has come after Norway‘s parliament in January sanctioned a plan to open a vast
ocean area larger than Britain for seabed mineral exploration.
(c) These nodules, deposits, and crusts contain materials, such as nickel, rare earth, cobalt and more,
that is needed for batteries and other materials used in tapping renewable energy and also for
everyday technology like cellphones and computers.
(d) Damage from mining can include noise, vibration and light pollution, as well as possible leaks and
spills of fuels and other chemicals used in the mining process.

II. Media: Not long ago, streaming TV came with a promise: Sign up, and commercials will be a thing of the
past. Netflix rose to streaming dominance in part by luring customers to an ad-free experience. Amazon
Prime Video, Disney+ and HBO Max followed that lead. Well, that did not last long.
Ads are getting increasingly hard to avoid on streaming services. One by one, Netflix, Disney+, Peacock,
Paramount+ and Max have added 30- and 60-second commercials in exchange for a slightly lower
subscription price. Amazon has turned ads on by default. And the live sports on those services include
built-in commercial breaks no matter what price you pay. The importance of advertising was driven home
this month when Amazon and Netflix both staged their first in-person presentations during the so-called
upfronts, a decades-old television event in New York where media companies try to woo advertisers.
One frustrated consumer vented on social media this past week: Why am I paying for Prime Video and
getting all these commercials? It is beginning to get annoying. Representatives for Netflix and Amazon
declined to comment. Perhaps the changed viewing experience was inevitable. Over the past decade, as
media companies raced to introduce streaming services to compete with Netflix, they prized subscriber
counts above all else. There was just one problem: profits.
The companies bled money, and Wall Street soured on their businesses. So executives are turning back
the clock. They are ordering lower-cost, old network standbys such as medical dramas, legal shows and
sitcoms. They are offering bundled packages to make consumers less tempted to click on the cancel
button. (Disney+, Hulu and Max will team up later this year, for instance.) And they are embracing
commercials, as a way to increase revenue.
The commercial tiers, however, are becoming more essential to their business. There were at least 93
million ad-supported streaming subscriptions in the United States at the end of last year, according to
estimates from Brian Wieser, an industry analyst, and Antenna, a subscription research firm. In the wake
of Amazon's automatic switch to advertising, and more ad-tier customers picked up by other streaming
services, Wieser and Antenna estimate that there are at least 170 million ad-supported subscriptions
now. Through the first three months of 2024, 56% of new subscribers to a streaming service chose the
lower-priced ad-tier, according to Antenna. That was up from 39% a year earlier. Executives have tried to
assure subscribers that while advertising is back, it won't be as overwhelming as in traditional television.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:

[Link]
tv/articleshow/[Link]

5. What does the phrase "turning back the clock" suggest about the strategy of streaming companies?
(a) Companies are reverting to older, more traditional business models because they have proven to be
more sustainable.
(b) Streaming services are seeking to reintroduce older shows to capitalize on nostalgia and attract a
wider audience.
(c) The phrase indicates a regression in innovation, as companies abandon newer technologies in
favour of previous methods.
(d) It refers to the resumption of past strategies, such as introducing ads and bundling services, to
stabilize profits.

6. What can be inferred about the impact of adding commercials on streaming platforms based on the
passage?
(a) The inclusion of commercials has been universally disliked by consumers, leading to a massive drop
in subscriber counts.
(b) Despite initial resistance, the introduction of commercials is gradually being accepted by consumers
for cost benefits.
(c) Adding commercials has led streaming services to lose their distinctive edge over traditional
television.
(d) The decision to add commercials is directly linked to the decline in quality of content provided by
streaming services.

7. Which of the following is true in context of the passage regarding ad-supported streaming subscriptions?
(a) The number of ad-supported streaming subscriptions has declined as more consumers opt for ad-
free experiences.
(b) There has been a significant increase in ad-supported streaming subscriptions over the past year.
(c) Ad-supported streaming subscriptions are only popular in markets outside the United States.
(d) Most ad-supported streaming subscriptions include options for live sports without commercials.

8. How does the author's writing style contribute to understanding the shift in streaming services' strategy?
(a) Chronological (b) Descriptive
(c) Persuasive (d) Analytical

9. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements.

1. Streaming services have introduced commercials to cope with financial pressures from Wall Street.
2. Advertising is reintroduced to streaming platforms primarily to offer viewers a variety of old network
shows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Based on the passage, the following assertions have been made:
I. Commercials are primarily reintroduced to cover operational deficits.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

II. Bundled service packages are designed to retain subscribers.

III. Upfronts in New York are crucial for securing ad commitments.
IV. Commercials aim to mimic traditional TV revenue models.
Which of the above assertions is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) I and III only
(c) II and IV only (d) I, II, and III only

III. Socio-Economic: ―The Communists do not preach morality at all.‖ Those are Marx's own words, and
they sure seem pretty clear: Marx hated morality. He called it a bourgeois prejudice, a way to trick
workers into being docile drones instead of rebelling against the system. And yet at other times Marx
sounds very much the moralist. He's constantly railing against capitalist business owners, saying they
exploit their workers, deprive people of dignity, and suck the life out of society. Marx thought we could do
better than bourgeois morality: there‘s a real morality out there, he implied, ready to replace the fake
one.
So what should we make of Marx when he writes that ―Communism abolishes eternal truths, it abolishes
all religion and morality, instead of constituting them on a new basis‖? Is he not saying that rather than
seeking a new ethical system, we should smash them all? Well yes, but not now—he‘s saying we should
smash them in the future, once we have a communist utopia. In that utopia, everyone‘s needs will be
met, so we won‘t have to worry about conflicting needs.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]

11. What is the most rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
(a) Marx's critiques of morality were aimed primarily at discrediting all ethical considerations.
(b) Marx believed that once a communist society is achieved, the need for any form of morality would
cease to exist.
(c) Marx's criticisms were focused solely on the economic aspects of capitalism without regard to its
moral implications.
(d) Marx saw potential for a new form of morality that could emerge in a future communist society.
12. Based on the passage, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
1. Marx's critique of morality aims to completely dismantle any form of moral system.
2. Marx envisions a replacement for bourgeois morality with a form of morality based on communist
ideals.
3. Marx believes that morality is unnecessary and should be entirely discarded in any form of society.
Which of the statements given above would the author most likely agree with?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

13. In the context of the passage, what does the word "bourgeois" most closely mean?
(a) Pertaining to the working class
(b) Related to capitalist business owners or middle-class values
(c) Concerning governmental or political systems
(d) Relating to agricultural or rural standards

IV. Socio-Economic: When most people think of ―experiments,‖ they think of test tubes and telescopes, of
Petri dishes and Bunsen burners. But the physical apparatus is not central to what an ―experiment‖
means. Instead, what matters is the ability to specify different conditions–and then to observe how the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

differences in the underlying conditions alter the outcomes. When ―experiments‖ are understood in this
broader way, the application of ―experiments‖ is expanded.
For example, back in 1881 when Louis Pasteur tested his vaccine for sheep anthrax, he gave the
vaccine to half of a flock of sheep, expose the entire group to anthrax, and showed that those with the
vaccine survived. More recently, the ―Green Revolution‖ in agricultural technology was essentially a set
of experiments, by systematically breeding plant varieties and then looking at the outcomes in terms of
yield, water use, pest resistance, and the like.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]

14. What is the main purpose of the passage?

(a) To argue against the traditional view of experiments as primarily laboratory-based.
(b) To provide a detailed history of scientific experiments from Pasteur to the present.
(c) To describe the specific technical equipment necessary for conducting experiments.
(d) To suggest that all scientific advancements are results of intentional experimental setups.

15. According to the passage, what criteria distinguish an activity as an experiment?

(a) The use of advanced technological equipment and complex methodologies.
(b) The ability to manipulate conditions and analyse the resultant changes in outcomes.
(c) The physical setting in which the activity takes place, such as a lab or field site.
(d) The involvement of biological subjects like plants or animals in testing hypotheses.
V. Science: In an age dominated by keyboards and touchscreens, handwriting is becoming a lost art.
Schools now emphasise typing over handwriting, and workplaces rely on automatic transcription and AI-
generated notes.
Handwriting involves complex coordination between our motor and visual systems, strengthening neural
pathways associated with memory and learning. You see, gripping a pen to write is a complex task. Your
brain constantly monitors the pressure each finger exerts on the pen. Then, your motor system adjusts
that pressure delicately to form each letter of the words in your head on the page.
Incidentally, science supports handwriting over typing. Recent research highlights cognitive benefits
linked to the tactile, deliberate process of handwriting. Writing by hand, whether with pen on paper or
stylus on a screen, engages our brains in ways typing doesn't. The tactile feedback from the pen, the
resistance of the page, and the sensory experience of forming each letter contribute to deeper
engagement.
For children, the benefits of writing by hand are especially pronounced. Studies show that kids who learn
to write by hand recognise and understand letters better, laying the groundwork for literacy and learning.
A study published recently found that students who took handwritten notes had higher levels of brain
activity across the regions responsible for movement, vision, sensory processing, and memory. In
contrast, typing led to minimal activity in these areas. Researchers Audrey van der Meer and Ruud van
der Weel suggest handwriting forces students to process information more deeply. When you‘re writing
by hand, you can‘t copy everything down verbatim, so you have to think as you write, unlike typing,
where the temptation to transcribe lectures word-for-word is high.
In addition, handwriting reinforces memory and learning pathways. The action of forming letters creates
a feedback loop with our visual and sensory systems, embedding information more deeply in our brains.
This process is like drawing or building something. In all these cases, the process helps strengthen the
concept and makes it stick in our memory.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
speaking-if-it-matters-write-it-down-by-hand-the-surprising-scientific-benefits-of-handwriting-
[Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

16. According to the passage, what is the contextual meaning of the word "tactile" as used in describing the
handwriting process?
(a) Relating to the sense of touch, especially in connection with writing tools.
(b) A methodical approach to learning and memorization.
(c) The visual aspect of reading and writing.
(d) The auditory feedback received from the environment.

17. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage regarding benefits of handwriting?
(a) Handwriting activates more brain regions compared to typing.
(b) Handwriting is less effective than typing in forming long-term memory links.
(c) The physical act of handwriting aids in embedding information deeply.
(d) Handwriting may contribute to a foundational literacy in children.

18. What does the author imply about the cognitive process involved in handwriting compared to typing?
(a) The act of handwriting demands a higher level of cognitive interaction than typing.
(b) Handwriting requires less cognitive engagement as it is a more automatic process.
(c) Typing and handwriting require the same levels of cognitive involvement for effective learning.
(d) Cognitive processes are not significantly influenced by the method of note-taking.

19. Identify the sentence in the passage that incorrectly uses a modifier:
(a) Recent research highlights cognitive benefits linked to the tactile, deliberate process of handwriting.
(b) When you‘re writing by hand, you can‘t copy everything down verbatim, so you have to think as you
write, unlike typing, where the temptation to transcribe lectures word-for-word is high.
(c) Writing by hand, whether with pen on paper or stylus on a screen, engages our brains in ways typing
doesn't.
(d) For children, the benefits of writing by hand are especially pronounced.

20. The passage seems to imply that:

I. Writing by hand facilitates an engaging process distinct from mechanical note-taking methods.
II. The act of handwriting cultivates cognitive functions that are underutilized by typing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Both I and II

VI. Psychology: The therapeutic value of being in natural environments (including parks and arboretums in
urban areas) is, in some circles, even considered to be a new field of medicine. The Japanese have a
specific term for the generally calming and health-enhancing experience of immersion in nature: Shinrin-
yoku which translates to "forest bathing." Shinrin-yoku can be defined as making conscious contact with
and taking in the atmosphere of the forest. Forest bathing can have significant positive mental,
emotional, physical, and spiritual effects that include reducing stress, lowering blood pressure, improving
mood as well as sleep, and enhancing immune system functioning. While the understanding that being
in nature can be beneficial is relatively ancient wisdom, research began documenting its specific health
benefits only in the last two decades. A meta-analysis of 20 clinical trials found that forest bathing can
reduce blood pressure—in some cases with effects that parallel anti-hypertension medications. Other
studies demonstrate that this practice reduces anxiety and depressive symptoms, while another meta-
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

analysis indicates that connecting with nature and feeling happy are indeed connected. Recent research
also suggests that forest bathing is associated with decreases in the hormones implicated in metabolic
disorders such as obesity and diabetes.
Source: [Link]
reduces-stress-and-facilitates-healing

21. The central focus of the passage is on

(a) The evolving view of traditional healing practices
(b) The integration of modern science with ancient wisdom
(c) The psychological effects of environmental immersion
(d) The development of new medical fields in the urban sphere

22. Which of the following best describes the potential impact of forest bathing, as discussed in the
passage?
(a) It promotes urban development by reducing environmental pressures.
(b) It enhances individual well-being by addressing multiple dimensions of health.
(c) It provides short-term relief from daily stressors without lasting health benefits.
(d) It is mainly a recreational activity with limited medical applications.

23. The studies cited in the passage primarily serve to

(a) Question the legitimacy of traditional healing practices
(b) Illustrate the scientific backing for an age-old understanding
(c) Propose an entirely new approach to health and wellness
(d) Highlight the potential risks of over-reliance on nature-based therapies

24. What does the passage suggest about the role of modern science in validating traditional practices?
(a) It offers a more accurate measurement of nature's benefits.
(b) It discredits earlier views on natural therapies.
(c) It bridges the gap between scepticism and acceptance.
(d) It eliminates the need for further exploration of nature's effects.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 53
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Philosophy: When we think of people who speak on behalf of us, we usually think of someone elected
or appointed to do so: a congressperson, a senator, maybe even a department chair. But what about
people who aren‘t elected or officially appointed? What if, say, one of your neighbours goes to a city
council meeting and complains about all the noise on your street? They‘re speaking on behalf of the
whole street, including you—would you be pleased or upset that they said something?
Of course, that might depend on (among other things) whether you're the one who was throwing that
loud party. But either way, shouldn‘t they check in with you and the other residents before speaking on
your behalf? What gives them the right to think they represent the whole block? Aren‘t they just
busybodies, arrogating power to themselves in an undemocratic way?
Maybe, but who else is going to stand up against you and your raging improv nights? That person is
doing a public service by taking the initiative to speak up. They may not have been appointed to any
official role, but once they were there, everyone (except you) felt good about it—that‘s a form of
democratic endorsement. But should the same logic apply to constituencies larger than a small city
block? What if someone appoints themselves spokesperson for the city, the country, the world? Who
gets to speak on behalf of women, minorities, the younger generation? It seems obvious who should get
to speak on behalf of, say, women: a woman. Women are best placed to know what life is like for them,
since they‘ve had to deal with the thing the world throws at them for being women, and they‘ve had time
and incentive to think about it.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
spokesperson

1. Which of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?
(a) Citizens are primarily responsible for ensuring their representatives accurately reflect their views in
democratic systems.
(b) Individuals who take initiative in public matters must always have an official position to be legitimate.
(c) Informal representation in small communities can sometimes reflect a democratic endorsement if the
majority supports the speaker.
(d) Speaking on behalf of a larger community, like a city or country, requires formal election or
appointment to avoid misrepresentation.

2. On the basis of the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Individuals assuming representative roles without formal election can still express valid concerns of a
community.
2. Official appointments or elections are the only legitimate way to determine who can speak on behalf
of a community.
3. The actions of self-appointed representatives can sometimes be democratically endorsed by
community consent.
Which of the above assumptions are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. Based on the passage, the following suggestions may be made:

1. Individuals acting without formal appointment should check with others before representing their
community's concerns.
2. Self-appointed representatives can sometimes be endorsed by their community through informal
means.
Which of the above suggestions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. According to the passage, what does the word "arrogating" most closely mean?
(a) Delegating (b) Usurping
(c) Cooperating (d) Simplifying

II. Sci-Tech: Caterpillars have a sixth sense that most land-based animals do not. They can sense electric
fields around them with small bristles called setae on its body — a feat called electroreception. British
researchers have discovered this in laboratory experiments and their findings.
They studied four species of caterpillars: cinnabar moth, scarce vapourer moth, European peacock
butterfly, and common wasp. Researchers have long known that aquatic and amphibious use
electroreception to detect both predators and prey. Since 2013, scientists have also found
electroreception in arthropods like bumblebees, hoverflies, and spiders. However, none of these land-
based creatures use the ability to defend against predators.
Caterpillars, which are also arthropods, may break this mould, using electroreception to sense predatory
insects nearby. ―It works exactly the same way as [brushing a] rubber balloon on your hair,‖ said first
author Sam England. He is a postdoctoral researcher at the Museum für Naturkunde in Berlin and was at
the University of Bristol before.
Static charges accumulate on both the balloon and the hair, leading to a mutual electrostatic attraction.
The balloon can then move the hair without needing contact. As an insect‘s wings flap through the air,
static charges build up on them. When it nears the caterpillar, the setae senses these charges by
building up charges of its own. This mutual interaction gives rise to an oscillating electric field. In the
study, researchers stimulated caterpillars with a live electrode carrying a voltage oscillating at 180 Hz, to
mimic an approaching wasp. In response, the caterpillars flailed and coiled, a sign that they were
stressed. Caterpillars around an electrode without the voltage didn‘t behave this way.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
may-sense-threats-using-electric-fields/[Link]

5. In the context of the passage, what does the word "flailed" most closely mean?
(a) Hid (b) Thrived
(c) Struggled (d) Calmed

6. Which of the following statements best infers the significance of the discovery of electroreception in
caterpillars?
(a) The discovery highlights an unprecedented sense in caterpillars, potentially revolutionizing the
understanding of arthropod defense mechanisms.
(b) This discovery proves that caterpillars are the most advanced of all insects in terms of sensory
capabilities.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The identification of electroreception in caterpillars will likely deter predator insects from targeting
these caterpillars.
(d) Electroreception in caterpillars underscores the inefficiency of their other sensory capabilities.

7. What can be synthesized from the comparison between the caterpillars' response to electroreception
and the interaction between a rubber balloon and hair?
(a) Both phenomena demonstrate the fundamental principles of electrostatic forces leading to
observable physical reactions.
(b) The comparison indicates that caterpillars might be able to manipulate their predators by controlling
electric fields.
(c) It shows that caterpillars' ability to detect electric fields is a direct result of human-induced
environmental changes.
(d) This analogy confirms that electroreception in caterpillars is a form of communication among different
species.

8. What is the central theme of the passage regarding caterpillars' sense of electroreception?
(a) Electroreception is a unique sensory ability that caterpillars use to enhance their communication with
other species.
(b) Electroreception in caterpillars illustrates a significant evolutionary adaptation for detecting and
responding to predators.
(c) The discovery of electroreception in caterpillars suggests a potential for technological advancements
in bio-inspired sensors.
(d) Caterpillars use electroreception primarily to navigate their environment more effectively.

III. Sports: Cricket is the only major team sport where the captain doesn‘t sport an armband. It‘s also the
only sport where having (capt) against one‘s name entails greater responsibility than merely turning up
for the spin of coin and deciding whether to attack or receive, and which is the favoured end at the start
of a contest.
Then again, there is captaincy, and there is leadership. Captaincy loosely translates to being on top of
the game cricket-wise, in terms of understanding the conditions and the opposition, working out
strategies, zeroing in on field placements, making bowling changes, sometimes revisiting the batting
order to address the demands of the situation. Leadership is more far-arching, encompassing various
non-sporting elements including but not limited to calmness under pressure, the propensity to lift the
spirits of when things go south, and motivational and man-management skills which recognise that there
is no one size that fits all.
Captaincy and leadership can‘t, and shouldn‘t, be mutually exclusive, but not all captains make good
leaders. There are plenty of ‗fair-weather‘ skippers whose outlook is bright and sunny when everything
pans out according to plan, but who slip into lackadaisical indifference when plans come unstuck for one
reason or the other. To be on top of one‘s leadership game when doing the front-running is natural and
uncomplicated; it‘s adversity that tests the true mettle of a leader because it‘s in a crisis that the rest look
up to you for inspiration and encouragement. After all, especially in T20 cricket, the coach becomes
cricket‘s equivalent of a football manager whose job it is to draw up game-plans and alternative game-
plans.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
complex-code-called-captaincy-in-the-ipl/[Link]

9. What is the central idea of the passage?

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The difference in responsibilities between a cricket captain and a football manager.
(b) The specific responsibilities of a cricket captain during a match.
(c) The distinction and overlap between captaincy and leadership in cricket.
(d) The challenges faced by cricket captains during T20 matches.

10. What does the word "lackadaisical" imply in the context used in the passage?
(a) Exhibiting intense and careful attention.
(b) Showing an enthusiastic and energetic approach.
(c) Displaying a lack of enthusiasm or determination.
(d) Being overly cautious and conservative in decision-making.

11. What can be synthesized from the passage about the impact of T20 cricket on captaincy?
(a) T20 cricket has simplified the captaincy role, allowing players more autonomy on the field.
(b) The fast pace of T20 cricket requires captains to rely more on instinct rather than on set strategies.
(c) T20 cricket increases the reliance on coaches for strategy, reducing the captain‘s on-field decision-
making role.
(d) Captains in T20 cricket have more time to make decisions due to the shorter format of the game.

IV. Environment: Heat waves are becoming deadlier due to a combination of rising temperatures,
increasing humidity and urban expansion. The research has also uncovered a worrying phenomenon:
cities are not cooling down at night as much as they did. It found that while air temperatures haven‘t
risen significantly in some cities, increased humidity is worsening the heat stress people experience.
The United States‘ National Weather Service states that the heat index, which includes humidity,
indicates how hot it feels, with a heat index of 41 degrees Celsius being dangerous for human health.
Assessing the changing trend in heat, relative humidity and land surface temperature along with day and
nighttime temperatures is necessary to develop a comprehensive heat management plan for the urban
centres.
Addressing the combination of high heat and humidity is particularly important as this can compromise
the human body‘s main cooling mechanism: sweating. The evaporation of sweat from skin cools our
bodies, but higher humidity levels limit this natural cooling. As a result, people can suffer heat stress and
illness, and the consequences can even be fatal even at much lower ambient temperatures.
Interestingly, night time temperatures remain elevated in cities.
The culprit behind rising humidity? Uncontrolled urban sprawl. The study found a direct correlation
between an increase in built-up area and a rise in urban heat stress in all six cities. For example,
Chennai have seen their green cover shrink by nearly 14 per cent in the last two decades, while
concretisation has doubled. This trend is creating a vicious cycle. Concrete absorbs and retains heat,
contributing to the ―urban heat island effect‖ where cities are significantly warmer than surrounding
areas.
Hotter nights are another worrying finding. While cities used to cool down considerably at night, the study
shows this nighttime cooling has significantly reduced in recent years. This means people get little
respite from the daytime heat, further impacting their health. The consequences of this deadly
combination are severe.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
cse-study-96370
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

12. Which of the following best describes the author's stance on the role of urban sprawl in exacerbating
heat waves?
(a) Urban sprawl is indirectly related to the increase in nighttime temperatures in cities.
(b) Urban sprawl is a minor contributor to the heat stress experienced in cities compared to other factors
like global warming.
(c) Urban sprawl is a direct and significant contributor to rising humidity and the urban heat island effect.
(d) Urban sprawl primarily affects rural areas more than urban centers in the context of heat stress.

13. What conclusion can be drawn about the effect of humidity on urban heat stress from the passage?
(a) Humidity contributes significantly to urban heat stress by impairing the body‘s ability to cool itself
through sweating.
(b) Urban heat stress is largely unaffected by humidity levels, which have more influence on rural rather
than urban environments.
(c) While humidity increases, its impact on urban heat stress is mitigated by the widespread use of air
conditioning.
(d) Although humidity is rising, technological advances in building materials have largely neutralized its
effect on heat stress.

14. Considering the context of the passage, how does the "heat index" function in urban environments?
(a) It acts as a predictive measure that integrates relative humidity with air temperature to determine
potential health hazards during heatwaves.
(b) It serves as a diagnostic tool for urban planners to evaluate the immediate impact of urban heat on
public health and adjust city policies accordingly.
(c) It is utilized as a standard for constructing public health advisories, crucial for informing residents
about the risk levels during extreme weather conditions.
(d) It functions as an evaluative benchmark in environmental studies, assessing how effectively urban
greening initiatives are mitigating perceived heat stress.

15. What can be inferred about the impact of nighttime temperatures on urban populations based on the
passage?
(a) The decrease in nighttime temperatures has been effectively countered by increased urban green
spaces in most cities.
(b) Despite higher nighttime temperatures, urban populations benefit from advanced cooling
technologies that negate any negative effects.
(c) Nighttime temperatures have little effect on urban heat stress, as most activities occur during the day
when temperatures are higher.
(d) Elevated nighttime temperatures in cities contribute significantly to the continuous thermal discomfort
experienced by residents, impacting their overall health.

V. Culture: What has intelligence? Slime moulds, ants, fifth-graders, shrimp, neurons, ChatGPT, fish
shoals, border collies, crowds, birds, you and me? All of the above? Some? Or, at the risk of sounding
transgressive: maybe none? The question is a perennial one, often dusted off in the face of a previously
unknown animal behaviour, or new computing devices that are trained to do human things and then do
those things well. We might intuitively feel our way forwards – choosing, for example, to accept border
collies and children, deny shrimp and slime moulds, and argue endlessly about different birds – but really
it‘s impossible to answer this question until we‘ve dealt with the underlying issue. What, exactly, is
intelligence?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Instead of a measurable, quantifiable thing that exists independently out in the world, we suggest that
intelligence is a label, pinned by humanity onto a bag stuffed with a jumble of independent traits that
helped our ancestors thrive. Though people treat intelligence as a coherent whole, it remains ill-defined
because it‘s really a shifting array masquerading as one thing. We propose that it‘s hard to empirically
quantify intelligence because it exists only relative to our expectations – expectations that are human
and, moreover, individual to particular humans. Because of this, much like Monty Python‘s Spanish
Inquisition, intelligence often turns up in the places we least expect it.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
the-eye-of-the-beholder

16. Which of the following is the most definitively implied by the passage?
(a) Intelligence as a measurable trait remains elusive due to individual expectations.
(b) A universal standard for defining intelligence will eventually be reached.
(c) Animal behavior has consistently challenged human definitions of intelligence.
(d) Intelligence is a phenomenon that is consistent across various species.

17. The passage suggests that:

I. Human definitions of intelligence are influenced by subjective standards.
II. Intelligence may be recognized in places where it was previously overlooked.
Which of the above conclusions is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

18. The author appears to be concerned that the concept of intelligence:

(a) Remains dependent on traits valued by human societies over time.
(b) Will lead to overgeneralized conclusions about species' cognitive abilities.
(c) Limits the scope of our understanding by relying on outdated paradigms.
(d) Forces a reconsideration of the boundaries between human and artificial minds.

VI. Politics: Donald Trump, the Republican presidential candidate, described the move by the Federal
Reserve to cut its benchmark interest rate by half a percentage point as a " political move," and said it
would have been better if the move had been smaller. ―It really is a political move. Most people thought it
was going to be half of that number, which probably would have been the right thing to do,‖ Trump said.
―So it‘s a political move to try and keep somebody in office, but it‘s not gonna work, because the inflation
has been so bad.‖ The former president appeared to then level criticism at Fed Chairman Jerome
Powell, saying he "missed the inflation." ―They missed it. They missed the number. They‘re either too
early or too late. Now they‘re too early. Before they were too late. But inflation is already done,‖ Trump
said.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
condemns-fed-rate-cut-as-a-political-move-destined-to-fail-760687

19. Based on the passage, the following conclusions can be drawn:

I. The Federal Reserve's decision-making process is influenced by political considerations more than
economic factors.
II. Interest rate cuts are ineffective in combating the inflation that has already occurred.
Which of the above conclusions is/are valid?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) I only (b) II only

(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

20. What is the central critique presented in the passage?

(a) The Federal Reserve‘s actions were intended to delay the economic consequences of inflation.
(b) The Federal Reserve‘s policies lack consistency, contributing to fluctuating economic conditions.
(c) The Federal Reserve's decisions are often misaligned with the actual state of the economy.
(d) The Federal Reserve is complicit in political efforts to maintain the current administration in power.
VII. National News: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), the government‘s food
regulatory authority under the Health Ministry, has issued a show-cause notice to A.R. Dairy, one of the
companies which supplied ghee to the Tirupati temple in Andhra Pradesh, for allegedly providing
substandard product to the temple. Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams (TTD) had reportedly got samples
of its laddu prasadam tested and allegedly they did not meet the set standards and were found
―adulterated‖ with palm oil and animal fat, including fish oil, beef tallow. The issue came to light after
Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu alleged on September 18 that the previous Y. S.
Jagan Mohan Reddy-led government had used substandard ingredients and animal fat in Tirupati
laddus. Mr. Naidu subsequently announced a Special Investigation Team to probe these claims.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
authority-issues-show-cause-notice-to-firm-on-contamination-in-tirupati-laddus/[Link]

21. The passage mainly explores:

(a) Procedural lapses in religious offerings production
(b) Alleged political manipulation through regulatory bodies
(c) Claims regarding ingredient quality in temple products
(d) Disputes over traditional practices in temple management

22. The most significant implication of the allegations made by Mr. Naidu could be
(a) Erosion of public trust in religious institutions
(b) Deterioration of food safety norms across the state
(c) Potential decline in temple pilgrimage numbers
(d) Increased political scrutiny of previous government actions

23. The role of the FSSAI in the context of this passage is primarily to:
(a) Ensure adherence to strict hygiene protocols
(b) Investigate claims about adulteration of temple offerings
(c) Penalize food suppliers for operational deficiencies
(d) Monitor the quality of products distributed nationwide

24. What action did Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu take after the allegations of
substandard ingredients in Tirupati laddus?
(a) Issued a show-cause notice to A.R. Dairy
(b) Ordered a Special Investigation Team to investigate
(c) Dismissed the claims
(d) Apologized for the substandard ingredients
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 54
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Politics is about who gets what. This definition of politics goes back to the 1930s political scientist Harold
Lasswell but continues to be relevant. In the early days of the Indian republic, a rhetoric of equality
prevailed. B.R. Ambedkar warned that political democracy is in danger as long as social and economic
life displays large inequalities. The Congress party spoke the language of socialism and equality, and the
main opposition parties were the socialists and the communists. The rhetoric of equality was betrayed in
practice. India failed to build the infrastructure of a welfare state. Universal healthcare and even
universal schooling were dismissed as pipe dreams.
Nowadays even the rhetoric of equality has disappeared. In the last Lok Sabha election campaign, both
major political parties distanced themselves from any talk about the redistribution of wealth. The debate
before and after the Budget scarcely focused on ideas of equality. Instead, the government, the
opposition, and much commentary in the media appealed to the middle class. Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman stated her ambition as providing tax relief to the middle class. The opposition attacked the
government on this ground claiming that the Budget was overburdening the salaried middle class. The
business media, too, focused on the tax burden of the middle class.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from Two myths about the Indian middle class, Frontline,
[Link]
sitharaman-budget-2024-hindenburg/[Link]#cxrecs_s

1. According to the passage, which political focus has been emphasized in recent governmental policies
and discussions within India, especially during the last Lok Sabha election campaign and surrounding
budget debates?
(a) Prioritizing economic reforms aimed at minimizing wealth disparities among various demographics
within India.
(b) Concentrating on the economic challenges faced specifically by the salaried middle class, including
tax burdens.
(c) Committing to the widespread implementation of universal healthcare and schooling systems as
primary governmental objectives.
(d) Reviving and promoting ideologies centered around socialism and equitable resource distribution.

2. The passage indicates that the early rhetoric of equality in the Indian republic failed to manifest in
practical policies. What reason does the passage suggest for this disconnect between ideological
rhetoric and actual policy implementation?
(a) The presence of strong opposition from socialist and communist parties thwarted the ruling Congress
party's attempts to implement equality-focused policies.
(b) The foundational aspects of a welfare state, such as universal healthcare and schooling, were
comprehensively implemented during this period.
(c) B.R. Ambedkar's warnings regarding the dangers of maintaining political democracy amidst large
inequalities led to significant social reforms.
(d) The establishment of political democracy occurred without effectively addressing the deep-rooted
social and economic inequalities that persisted.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. In the context of the passage's discussion on the early promises of the Indian republic, what do the
unrealized social and economic reforms symbolize?
(a) The gap between political rhetoric and practical achievement.
(b) A successful implementation of socialist policies.
(c) A fully realized vision of equality and welfare.
(d) An example of effective political leadership.

4. According to the passage, what historical warning by B.R. Ambedkar about political democracy in India
does recent political behavior continue to ignore?
(a) The risk to political democracy posed by failing to address large social and economic inequalities.
(b) The necessity of involving the main opposition parties in all governmental decisions to ensure a
balanced approach to democracy.
(c) The importance of maintaining a socialist rhetoric to ensure the survival of political democracy.
(d) The effectiveness of political democracy in addressing and reducing the wealth gap between
different social classes.

II. Having false memories is normal. We are all built from real and false memories. Memories are
dynamically constructed. They are susceptible to social influences or from inadvertently altering your
own memories. We tell ourselves that we are our memories. We hold onto memories to understand our
past selves and build a narrative of our lives, cross-comparing them with other people‘s memories and
asking, ―What was I like back then?
And if I could recall more vivid memories, I could create a fuller narrative of my life, and so I could know
myself more. The reverse seems true as well: If you lose memories, you become less of the person you
feel you were. Dementia or age muddles memories: You forget yourself. But if so many of our memories
are false or forgotten, how do we know who we really are—our true identity? The answer starts with how
our memories are stored in the brain.
Scientific research shows us that a memory is hardwired into the structure of the brain. The brain
physically stores memories as connections between neurons, particularly in the hippocampus or
amygdala brain regions.
New memories are formed when neurons create new synapses with other neurons, building a mesh of
neuronal connections. Memories need to be actively maintained to last. Recalling a memory strengthens
the connections between the neurons, forming it through remembrance.
Then there is the act of forgetting. Forgetting is an act of ―pruning‖ the connections between neurons.
Neglect or befuddlement withers a memory away. We tend to fill in the blanks with what other people
have told us. The problem is that those false memories—memories of things we did not experience the
way we remember them—are stored in the brain in exactly the same way as our real memories are
stored. The same is true of biased information.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
memory-how-they-make-us-who-we-are-human-brain-identity-bias/[Link]

5. What does the passage indicate about the impact of forgetting on our memory's neural structure?
(a) Forgetting stimulates the neural connections by forming more robust synapses among neurons.
(b) It leads to a reduction in the connections between neurons, which contributes to the fading of
memories.
(c) Forgetting is triggered by an excessive generation of new neural links that interfere with existing
memories.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) It is caused by the transfer of memories from more active to less active brain regions.

6. Reflecting on the passage's description of memory storage and recall, which statement best captures the
implications of how memories are modified over time?
(a) Memories that are frequently recalled become more accurate and less susceptible to alteration due
to their strengthened neural connections.
(b) The integration of memories based on social interactions and external inputs suggests that our
memory's reliability is highly dependent on contextual influences.
(c) The act of remembering is purely a biological process, uninfluenced by external social or emotional
factors, ensuring a stable recall of past events.
(d) As memories are stored the same way regardless of their origin, the distinction between real and
fabricated memories becomes increasingly blurred over time.

7. According to the passage, the construction of personal identity is influenced by the nature of our
memories. What conclusion can be drawn from the interaction between memory retention and self-
concept?
(a) Increasing the accuracy of our memories can significantly enhance the clarity of our self-identity.
(b) The gradual fading of memories, whether real or false, inevitably leads to a diminished sense of
personal history and identity.
(c) The reliability of memory as a tool for personal identity is compromised by the inability to distinguish
true experiences from false recollections.
(d) Maintaining a stable self-identity relies primarily on the continuous formation of new memories rather
than the preservation of old ones.

8. Considering the passage‘s insights into the nature of memory and identity, what implication can be
drawn about the process of self-reflection based on past experiences?
(a) Self-reflection based on memories is a reliable process, as memories cannot be easily altered by
social influences and personal biases.
(b) It is a highly reliable method for personal development, as memories provide a stable base for self-
assessment and growth.
(c) The process relies heavily on the active maintenance and recall of memories to ensure the fidelity of
past experiences in shaping one‘s identity.
(d) Engaging in self-reflection is less about accuracy and more about constructing a narrative that aligns
with one‘s current self-perception.

9. In the context of the passage, what does "befuddlement" most likely refer to when discussing the
process of forgetting?
(a) A condition that causes the weakening or loss of existing memories.
(b) The intentional act of distorting memories to protect one's self-identity.
(c) A psychological strategy for managing overwhelming information.
(d) A state of confusion that disrupts the creation of new memories.

III. Chronologically, the permeation of Shakespeare into the Indian psyche occurred with the productions of
the most culturally uncomplicated ―garrison theatres‖ catering to the British colonists. Theatres were built
in all major trading centres within the Empire, and Shakespeare provided a prestigious part of the
repertory. Initially it began with performances of Shakespearean plays, by English troupes in Bombay
from 1770. In Calcutta, then capital of British India, the earliest recorded performance is of Othello at the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Calcutta Theatre during Christmas of 1780. Over the next eight years, Hamlet, The Merchant of Venice,
Romeo and Juliet, Richard III and Henry IV were enacted at the same venue. Performances continued
unabated, till the mid-19th century, chiefly at the Chowringhee (the teeming heart of Kolkata) and Sans
Souci Theaters. And the earliest notable tours were undertaken by Lewis Theater Company in the 1870s
and Maurice E Bandmann‘s Company in 1880s.
Touring companies however, became famous only in the heyday of the Raj, from the late 19th century.
Next with growing interest in Shakespearean plays, local theatrical companies came into existence,
especially in Bombay. Consequently, in 1868, the Oriental Theatrical Company started performing
Shakespearean plays followed by the Parsi companies. In the academic sphere of 19th century Bengal,
it was Richardson, an eminent English teacher of Presidency College, who first ventured to develop a
literary taste for Shakespearean dramas in the minds of his Indian students. He taught them to recite and
enact scenes from Shakespearean plays. In response, in 1837, several Bengali students performed The
Merchant of Venice in the governor‘s house, Othello in 1853 at the Oriental Academy and Henry IVin
1855. Subsequently, the growing success of Shakespearean performances, inspired many regional
playwrights to both translate and adapt Shakespeare in vernaculars — thereby leading to a spurt of
translated and adapted Shakespeare in several Indian languages for performance on Indian stages.
However, despite the best efforts of the enthusiastic regional dramatists, India initially remained a mere
outpost of Shakespeare performance, quite untouched by the greater phenomenon of Shakespeare.
Radical departure occurred, when Shakespeare entered the curriculum of the new Western-style
education. By the continuing paradox inherent in Indian society, this Western infusion was then absorbed
into the cultural mainstream of Indian languages. Although the Romantic image of Shakespeare as poet
or Bard was clearly dominant with Indian writers who would never see a play staged in English and might
have reacted to an Indian-language production with critical or even moral disapproval.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
[Link]

10. How did the initial introduction of Shakespeare to the Indian audience occur, according to the passage?
(a) Through academic courses in British literature offered at Indian universities.
(b) Via touring English theatre companies performing in major Indian cities starting in the late 19th
century.
(c) Through local theatrical companies in Bombay adapting Shakespeare for Indian audiences in the
19th century.
(d) By English troupes performing Shakespearean plays in Bombay from the 1770s and later in Calcutta.

11. What impact did the inclusion of Shakespeare in the curriculum of Western-style education have on
Indian society, according to the passage?
(a) It led to an immediate acceptance and integration of Shakespeare into the Indian cultural
mainstream.
(b) Shakespeare was resisted due to its foreign origins and the societal disapproval of adapting Western
literature.
(c) The introduction into education helped Shakespeare's works become absorbed into the cultural
mainstream despite initial resistance.
(d) Shakespeare‘s works remained unpopular and unperformed in India until they were included in
school curricula.

12. The primary purpose of the passage is to

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) explore the historical trajectory and cultural impact of Shakespeare's introduction and assimilation
into Indian society.
(b) argue against the traditional methods of teaching Shakespeare in Indian educational institutions.
(c) advocate for a renewed interest in staging original English-language Shakespearean plays in India.
(d) compare the influence of Shakespeare on Indian theatre with his impact on other colonial regions.

13. The passage suggests that which of the following was an indirect consequence of Shakespeare entering
the curriculum of Western-style education in India?
(a) There was widespread resistance to Shakespeare across Indian society, leading to a decline in his
popularity.
(b) Shakespeare's works were translated and adapted into various Indian languages, sparking a wave of
localized Shakespearean dramas.
(c) English troupes were discouraged from performing in India, leading to a rise in local theatrical
companies.
(d) Indian students of English literature predominantly rejected Shakespeare due to cultural differences.
14. In the context of the passage, what does the term "heyday" most closely mean as it is used to describe
the peak period of touring Shakespearean companies in India?
(a) A reference to a specific annual celebration related to theatre performances.
(b) A period marked by great enthusiasm and success in Shakespearean theatrical presentations.
(c) A gradual decline in the popularity of traditional theatre forms.
(d) A stage setup commonly used during Shakespearean performances.

15. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage regarding the spread and adaptation of
Shakespeare's works in India?
(a) Shakespeare's plays were first introduced to Indian audiences through performances by English
theatre companies.
(b) The successful staging of Shakespeare's plays in Calcutta led to further performances across major
Indian cities.
(c) Regional dramatists in India initially resisted the incorporation of Shakespeare into their theatrical
repertoires.
(d) Educational initiatives helped facilitate the integration of Shakespeare into the broader cultural fabric
of Indian society.

IV. India has taken a big step to protect ocean life by signing an important international agreement called the
Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement, or the "Treaty of the High Seas". The goal
of the BBNJ Agreement is to protect marine life in areas of the ocean that are not owned by any one
country. These areas start 370 kilometres from any country's coastline and cover two-thirds of the
world's oceans. The agreement helps countries use ocean resources in a sustainable way, meaning
they can't claim these resources for themselves. It also ensures that benefits from marine life are shared
fairly between countries.
The treaty encourages an inclusive approach that combines traditional knowledge and modern science
to protect the ocean. It sets rules for countries to follow when planning activities in the high seas, like
conducting environmental impact assessments to avoid harm to marine ecosystems. This agreement
also helps meet the goals of Sustainable Development, especially SDG 14, which focuses on protecting
life underwater.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
agreement-to-protect-marine-life-in-the-high-seas
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

16. Based on the passage, the following suggestions may be made:

1. The BBNJ Agreement allows for unrestricted exploitation of marine resources by all countries.
2. The agreement involves combining traditional knowledge and modern science to protect ocean life.
Which of the above suggestions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Which statement best reflects the inclusivity approach of the BBNJ Agreement?
(a) It incorporates both traditional knowledge and modern science in ocean conservation.
(b) It encourages the use of modern science alone for ocean conservation.
(c) It excludes traditional practices in favor of modern environmental impact assessments.
(d) It solely relies on environmental impact assessments conducted by developed countries.

V. Wonder is, no pun intended, a wonderful emotion, and it's one we can feel toward a wide variety of
phenomena, from the stars above us to the beauty of nature all around us, not to mention the artistic
feats that humans are capable of. And it‘s not just big things: watching a hummingbird in your garden,
hearing a beautiful guitar solo, or feeling sand under your feet at the beach—those things can fill you
with wonder too.
Of course, not all experiences of awe are cheerful. The eternal silence of these infinite spaces terrifies
me. Sometimes we can be overwhelmed by all the things we don‘t understand. But in many cases, such
experiences are often inspiring, and even comforting, "if you have a sense of wonder, you‘re never really
alone." And they motivate us to get curious about the world. As Plato‘s Socrates famously puts it in the
Theaetetus, ―Wonder is the origin of philosophy.‖
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]

18. According to the passage, which statement best captures the nature of wonder as it relates to human
experiences?
(a) Wonder is typically sparked by highly visible, extraordinary events that catch the eye.
(b) Wonder arises from various experiences, both simple and profound, encouraging deeper inquiry.
(c) To genuinely experience wonder, one must possess an extensive understanding of the
phenomenon.
(d) Experiencing wonder leads to feelings of detachment, as it isolates individuals from their routine
surroundings.

19. What does the passage imply about the influence of wonder on philosophical thought?
(a) Philosophy and the sensation of wonder operate in distinct realms without overlapping.
(b) Academic study in philosophy is the primary method by which individuals start to experience wonder.
(c) Philosophy diminishes our sense of wonder by explaining away the mysteries that inspire it.
(d) The impulse for philosophical exploration often starts with a sense of wonder about our existence.

20. According to the passage, what primary impact does wonder have on individuals' engagement with the
world around them?
(a) It leads to a greater appreciation and understanding of the natural and artistic world.
(b) It causes confusion and disorientation due to the overwhelming nature of awe-inspiring events.
(c) It has a negligible effect, as individuals quickly adapt to awe-inspiring experiences.
(d) It results in increased anxiety and fear, especially in response to the vast unknown.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

21. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the author's attitude toward the emotion of
wonder?
(a) Intensely enthusiastic (b) Cautiously optimistic
(c) Moderately indifferent (d) Mildly skeptical

22. Which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree with, based on the passage?
(a) Wonder primarily serves as a conduit for deeper philosophical inquiry and understanding of the
universe.
(b) Experiencing wonder is essential for leading a fulfilling and intellectually stimulating life.
(c) Wonder is a fleeting emotion that has little impact on our long-term perception of the world.
(d) The feeling of wonder can transform ordinary experiences into moments of profound significance.

VI. Dominance of fossil fuels in electricity generation in India will end by the end of the decade, said the
Reserve Bank of India in its latest report. The report also noted that renewable energy is expected to
cross 50 per cent share in electricity generation globally. It added that the energy transition has
accelerated in recent years, with the pace of clean technology deployment and capital investment
surging to record levels.
The era of fossil fuels' dominance is coming to an end, with renewables expected to cross 50 per cent
share of electricity generation globally by the end of this decade. It added that the rise of cleaner power
generation offers a valuable window to address "hard-to-abate" sectors such as steelmaking and
aviation, where low-carbon alternatives are still in their nascent stages. The central bank also highlighted
the importance of increasing investments in low-carbon energy.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]
generation-to-end-by-2030-renewable-to-cross-50-share-rbi/articleshow/[Link]

23. With reference to the passage, the following conclusions have been drawn:
1. The transition to renewable energy is crucial for sectors that are challenging to decarbonize, like
steelmaking and aviation.
2. There will be no significant changes in the electricity generation sector in the near future.
3. Investment in low-carbon technologies is increasing as part of the global shift towards renewable
energy.
4. The Reserve Bank of India does not see the value in investing in renewable energy technologies.
Which of the above conclusions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only

24. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The transition to renewable energy will benefit all sectors of the economy.
2. All countries globally will achieve at least 50% renewable energy in their electricity generation by the
end of the decade.
3. The Reserve Bank of India is the primary global agency tasked with funding renewable energy
projects.
4. The move towards renewable energy aims to create equal benefits for all countries, regardless of
their current energy infrastructure.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) 1 only (b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 55
English Language

I. Niccolò Machiavelli, often compared to India's Chanakya, revolutionized the concept of governance by
divorcing it from morality and focusing solely on strategy. In his seminal work "The Prince," written in
1513 for a Medici prince, Machiavelli outlined tactics for political success, devoid of conventional moral
considerations. His perspective that political victory hinges not on notions of good and evil, but on
effective strategy, even if it entails deceit, was groundbreaking in European thought.
Machiavelli's relevance today hinges on accepting his view that amorality is an integral part of politics—a
stance he argues with historical examples ranging from Hannibal to Charles VIII in his other significant
work, "Discourses." He advises rulers to evaluate the strength of alliances and the tactical advantages of
either initiating conflict or waiting defensively, based on the nation's military readiness.
Described as unemotional and pragmatic, Machiavelli‘s style is reminiscent of his contemporary, Michel
de Montaigne, though their content diverges. His approach was so novel for his time that the term
‗Machiavellian‘ emerged, denoting cunning and unscrupulous tactics, particularly in politics— a
description Machiavelli himself might have found amusingly apt.
Machiavelli's ideas drew parallel to those of Chanakya, an ancient Indian strategist who espoused similar
principles 1,500 years earlier, at a time unburdened by ecclesiastical oversight. This early adoption of
pragmatic statecraft in India might reflect the distinctive nature of its people and rulers. Both figures,
each influential in their respective eras, underscore a timeless truth: the essence of politics often lies not
within the bounds of morality but in the realm of strategic execution.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
florence-machiavelli-and-the-prince/[Link]

1. Which of the following best describes Machiavelli's perspective on governance as outlined in "The
Prince"?
(a) Political leadership should prioritize moral integrity above all to ensure societal welfare.
(b) Success in politics is primarily achieved through adherence to traditional moral values and ethical
governance.
(c) Effective political strategy often requires actions that are separated from conventional moral
considerations.
(d) Political actions should be evaluated solely based on their potential to promote peace and harmony.

2. According to the passage, what reason does Machiavelli give for rulers to evaluate their military
readiness before engaging in conflict?
(a) To ensure the nation's capacity for maintaining extended periods of diplomatic stability.
(b) To identify the optimal timing for either initiating or defending against conflict based on strategic
advantages.
(c) To comply with global standards and prevent conflicts that might lead to international repercussions.
(d) To synchronize military strategies with ethical considerations for maintaining support from the
populace.

3. What does the word "espouse" mean as used in the passage?

(a) To reject vehemently (b) To adopt or support
(c) To investigate thoroughly (d) To criticize openly
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II. To understand the conflict‘s roots, one must turn to Serhii Plokhy‘s works, The Gates of Europe (2015)
and The Russo-Ukrainian War (2023), which provide a concise history of Ukraine from ancient times to
the present Russo-Ukrainian conflict. Plokhy describes Ukraine‘s strategic geopolitical position as a
gateway to Europe, historically a battleground for empires like the Roman, Ottoman, Habsburg, and
Romanov.
The ongoing strife is deeply entrenched in the contentious legacy of Kyivan Rus‘, a medieval polity that
many Russians view as the origin of their state and culture. Kyivan Rus‘ thrived from the 10th to the mid-
13th century before its decline due to the Mongol invasions. Its Christianization under Grand Prince
Volodymyr linked it culturally to Byzantium and Eastern Christianity, which later underpinned Russian
territorial claims over Ukraine.
The myth of Kyivan Rus‘ was later exploited by Ivan III of Moscow in the mid-15th century to legitimize
his rule and subsequent territorial expansions. This narrative has fueled Moscow's authoritative stance
and justified further conquests into Ukrainian and Belarusian lands, laying a historical groundwork that
reverberates in today‘s conflict. The Russo-Ukrainian War is not merely a geopolitical struggle but a
historical contestation over the narrative and legacy of Eastern European history.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
endless-war-on-the-edge-of-europes-frontier/[Link]

4. According to the passage, how does Ivan III of Moscow‘s use of the Kyivan Rus‘ narrative differ from its
original medieval significance?
(a) Ivan III used the narrative to assert Moscow‘s spiritual succession from Kyivan Rus‘, aligning closely
with its original medieval role as a Christian center.
(b) Ivan III repurposed the Kyivan Rus‘ narrative to support Moscow's expansionist policies, diverging
from its primarily religious medieval significance.
(c) Ivan III adhered strictly to the factual historical accounts of Kyivan Rus‘, using the narrative solely to
educate about the past.
(d) Ivan III minimized the importance of Kyivan Rus‘ in Russian history, focusing more on Moscow‘s
independent development.

5. The passage describes the ongoing Russo-Ukrainian War as a contestation over historical narratives.
What can be inferred about the author's view on the role of historical legacy in contemporary conflicts?
(a) The author sees historical legacies as merely symbolic elements with little impact on present
geopolitical dynamics.
(b) The author suggests that historical legacies are often misconstrued by contemporary leaders to
serve personal agendas.
(c) The author believes historical legacies are pivotal, directly shaping the strategies and justifications in
modern conflicts.
(d) The author views the role of historical narratives as largely overstated in geopolitical conflicts,
considering economic factors more influential.

6. All of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT:

(a) The historical narratives of Kyivan Rus‘ have been manipulated over centuries to support political
ambitions.
(b) The Christianization of Kyivan Rus‘ played a pivotal role in shaping its cultural ties with Eastern
Christianity.
(c) The Mongol invasions had little impact on the cultural and political development of Kyivan Rus'.
(d) Ivan III of Moscow utilized the legacy of Kyivan Rus‘ to legitimize his territorial expansions.
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7. Which figure of speech is employed in the passage when describing Ukraine as a "gateway to Europe"?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile
(c) Personification (d) Hyperbole

III. Over a century after the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand sparked the July Crisis and the
subsequent outbreak of the First World War, historians and the general public continue to delve into the
events of July 1914 with keen interest. Despite the vast passage of time, the debate over what precisely
led to one of history's deadliest conflicts remains vibrant and contentious. Initially fueled by the Fischer-
era discussions focused on German war guilt, the controversy has evolved, expanding into new areas of
historical inquiry.
The persistent fascination with the origins of the First World War is not merely academic. While political
motivations for these debates have weakened over time, the need to revisit and reassess the critical
assumptions of past narratives remains vital. Historians are urged to reevaluate the roles and
responsibilities attributed to various actors in the lead-up to the war, challenging long-standing views and
introducing new perspectives that add depth to our understanding of the conflict.
This ongoing reexamination includes scrutinizing the historiographical battlegrounds that have emerged,
particularly those following the Fischer debates of the 1960s and 70s. Such discussions have not only
questioned the immediate causes and broader implications of the July Crisis but have also opened up
avenues for fresh scholarly contributions that provide nuanced insights into the complex dynamics of
early 20th-century geopolitics.
As we continue to explore these pivotal moments in history, it becomes clear that the origins of the First
World War offer an inexhaustible field for historical study. The debate, far from concluding, is an evolving
narrative that demands continuous investigation and discourse, reflecting the complexities and the
enduring impact of the Great War on global history.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
new-consensus-the-post-centenary-historiography-on-the-origins-of-world-war-i

8. Which of the following best encapsulates the main idea of the passage?
(a) The passage primarily highlights the specific actions of key historical figures in the lead-up to the
First World War, examining their individual contributions to the outbreak of the conflict.
(b) The passage chiefly discusses the role of technological advancements in the early 20th century that
influenced the geopolitical landscape before the First World War.
(c) The passage predominantly focuses on the ongoing debates and reexaminations of the causes of
the First World War, underscoring the complexity and evolving nature of historical understanding.
(d) The passage mainly explores the economic conditions in Europe prior to the First World War and
how they contributed to the tensions that led to the conflict.

9. Which of the following can be inferred about the impact of the Fischer debates on historical scholarship
as described in the passage?
(a) The Fischer debates were universally accepted and led to a unified understanding of the causes of
the First World War among historians.
(b) The debates introduced by Fischer initiated a shift in focus from solely blaming Germany to
examining the roles of various other nations and political dynamics.
(c) The Fischer debates had little to no impact on historical scholarship, as they failed to introduce any
significant new perspectives or insights.
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(d) The debates primarily reinforced the existing views about Germany's sole responsibility for the war
without challenging or expanding the historiographical discourse.

10. Which of the following sentences from the passage demonstrates the use of passive voice?
(a) "Over a century after the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand sparked the July Crisis..."
(b) "The persistent fascination with the origins of the First World War is not merely academic."
(c) "Historians are urged to reevaluate the roles and responsibilities attributed to various actors..."
(d) "The debate, far from concluding, is an evolving narrative that demands continuous investigation and
discourse."

11. Which word in the passage can be replaced with the synonym "prompted" without changing the meaning
of the sentence?
(a) "sparked" (b) "fascination"
(c) "reevaluate" (d) "evolving"

IV. On the evening of April 6, 1922, a significant debate unfolded in Paris between philosopher Henri
Bergson and physicist Albert Einstein, concerning the nature of time. This intellectual clash took place
during a lecture at the Société française de philosophie, where Einstein, at 43, was presenting his
groundbreaking theory of relativity. This theory introduced the idea that time, as measured by clocks, is
not absolute and varies across different frames of reference.
Among the audience was the 62-year-old philosopher Henri Bergson, a well-known figure for his work on
time and consciousness, particularly through his concept of 'la durée'. Bergson appreciated the scientific
merit of Einstein's theory in physics but challenged its philosophical implications, particularly its
application to the subjective experience of time. He argued that our lived experience of time, or 'duration',
is intuitively sensed and cannot be fully captured by the objective measures used in physics. Einstein
responded quickly, dismissing Bergson's perspective as irrelevant to physics, emphasizing that science
dealt with objective time, not philosophical concepts. He asserted that there is no "time of the
philosopher" but only psychological time, distinct from the physicist's time.
The debate highlighted fundamental differences in understanding time: Einstein focused on time's
objective measurability in physics, while Bergson emphasized the subjective perception of time
experienced by individuals. This confrontation set off a broader discussion that extended into both the
scientific and philosophical communities, questioning the relationship between science and human
experience regarding the concept of time. Bergson's critique was based on his belief that the lived
experience of time, or duration, though unmeasurable, forms the basis of how time is understood and
cannot be entirely equated with the time measured by clocks. He argued that while science requires the
exactitude of clock time, it should not replace our direct experience of duration with a purely scientific
concept. Despite Einstein's critiques and the scientific community's lean towards relativity, Bergson's
perspective remains significant in philosophical discussions about time. It underscores the complexity of
integrating subjective experiences with objective scientific frameworks and continues to influence
contemporary debates on the nature of time.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
and-einstein-debated-time

12. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately reflect the perspectives shared during the
debate between Henri Bergson and Albert Einstein on April 6, 1922?
(a) Henri Bergson emphasized the philosophical significance of subjective time experiences,
distinguishing it from the measurable time in physics.
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(b) Albert Einstein argued that the only time relevant to physics is measurable and objective, dismissing
the philosophical interpretation of time as irrelevant.
(c) Both thinkers agreed on the necessity of integrating subjective experiences of time with the objective
measurements used in physics.
(d) The debate underscored the divergent approaches to understanding time, with Einstein focusing on
objective measurability and Bergson on subjective experience.

13. Which statement best represents Einstein‘s stance on the relationship between philosophical and
scientific concepts of time as inferred from the passage?
(a) Einstein acknowledged the value of philosophical concepts of time but prioritized the scientific
measurability in his theories.
(b) Einstein firmly separated the scientific concept of time from philosophical discussions, viewing them
as entirely distinct and unrelated.
(c) Einstein considered the philosophical concept of time to be a crucial component that should be
integrated into scientific theories.
(d) Einstein was open to discussions about the philosophical implications of his theories but maintained
a clear preference for scientific objectivity.

14. In the context of the passage, what is the most accurate meaning of the foreign language term "la durée"
as used by Henri Bergson?
(a) A specific period of time measured in scientific terms, such as seconds or minutes.
(b) The intuitive and subjective experience of time that cannot be captured by objective measures.
(c) A philosophical theory that rejects the scientific understanding of time altogether.
(d) An obsolete scientific concept that was disproven by advancements in physics.

15. What impact did the debate between Henri Bergson and Albert Einstein have on the philosophical and
scientific communities according to the passage?
(a) It led to a universal rejection of Bergson's philosophical views on time within the scientific community.
(b) The debate was largely ignored by both communities due to its perceived irrelevance to practical
scientific applications.
(c) The confrontation catalyzed ongoing discussions on the integration of subjective experiences with
scientific frameworks.
(d) The debate resulted in a definitive resolution of the differences between philosophical and scientific
views of time.

16. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1. Albert Einstein viewed philosophical time concepts as irrelevant to the realm of physics.
2. Henri Bergson believed that the subjective experience of time could be effectively measured by
clocks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

V. On May 24, 1960, Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru arrived in Beirut, Lebanon, concluding his
journey around the eastern Mediterranean. This visit was part of his return trip to India after attending the
London Conference of Commonwealth Prime Ministers. Nehru‘s itinerary included significant stops in the
United Arab Republic (UAR)—a political union between Egypt and Syria from 1958 to 1961—where he
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visited major cities and landmarks such as Cairo, Luxor, and the Aswan High Dam, and engaged in
discussions with Arab leaders including the UAR‘s Gamal Abdel Nasser.
Nehru‘s engagement in the region highlighted his diplomatic focus on strengthening ties with Arab
nations while advocating against Western interventions, as exemplified by his criticism of the Anglo-
French-Israeli actions during the Suez Crisis in 1956. His visit to Gaza to meet with the U.N. Emergency
Force underscored his commitment to international peacekeeping efforts. The purpose of Nehru‘s Beirut
stop extended beyond diplomacy. Economically, it aimed to open markets for Indian products, such as
silk and coal, in the Arab world. Historically, Lebanon had been a significant silk producer, and the
decline of this industry opened opportunities for Indian traders, which Nehru sought to capitalize on.
Moreover, Nehru‘s visit coincided with geopolitical shifts, including the recent U.S.-USSR summit
collapse. In Beirut, Nehru hoped to persuade the Lebanese government, closely aligned with the U.S., to
mediate and ease Cold War tensions. However, political instability within Lebanon, marked by a recent
change in prime ministers, complicated his efforts. This visit encapsulated Nehru‘s multifaceted approach
to diplomacy, blending economic interests with strategic international alliances amidst the complex
backdrop of Cold War politics.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
beirut/[Link]

17. Which of the following can be inferred about Nehru's approach to diplomacy from the passage?
(a) Nehru was primarily focused on promoting Indian cultural values abroad, using diplomacy as a
means to spread Indian ideologies.
(b) Nehru‘s diplomatic efforts were mostly aimed at isolating Pakistan internationally by forming alliances
against it.
(c) Nehru was interested in leveraging economic trade opportunities to strengthen political alliances with
Arab nations.
(d) Nehru‘s diplomatic strategy was centered on military alliances rather than on economic or cultural
engagements.

18. Which statement best captures Nehru's strategic intent during his visit to Beirut as described in the
passage?
(a) Nehru aimed to primarily discuss trade policies that would exclusively benefit India, without regard for
the economic impacts on Lebanon.
(b) Nehru sought to use his influence to directly challenge U.S. policies in Lebanon and push for pro-
Soviet alignments.
(c) Nehru's strategy involved using economic and diplomatic engagements to subtly mediate Cold War
tensions.
(d) Nehru was focused on establishing Lebanon as a military base for India to strengthen its presence in
the Middle East.

19. What challenge did Nehru face in Lebanon that impacted his diplomatic efforts as per the passage?
(a) The presence of U.N. peacekeeping forces in Lebanon limited his diplomatic freedom.
(b) Recent political instability in Lebanon complicated his efforts to engage effectively.
(c) Strong anti-Indian sentiment in Lebanon made economic negotiations difficult.
(d) Lack of infrastructure in Lebanon hindered effective communication with local leaders.

VI. Franz Kafka‘s literary prowess masterfully intertwines visual imagery and complex narratives to engage
and provoke his readers, encapsulating deep themes of political corruption, injustice, and human
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emotion. Kafka‘s works, rich with symbolism, do more than narrate stories; they serve as deliberate tools
of instruction, compelling readers to confront uncomfortable realities and question the structures around
them.
In Kafka's universe, the stark imagery of suffering and injustice transcends mere fiction, pressing upon
the reader's conscience and stirring a visceral response. Kafka does not merely write to tell a tale but to
implicate his readers as witnesses to the injustices his characters endure. This creates a trance-like
engagement where readers see the unfolding horrors not as distant events but as urgent, personal
crises. Such intimacy between Kafka‘s narrative and the reader blurs the lines between fiction and
reality, encouraging a protective vigilance against such injustices in their own lives. Kafka‘s intent
extends beyond mere storytelling to a deliberate instruction about recognizing and resisting political
corruption. By embedding his narratives with rich, evocative descriptions, Kafka enhances the reader's
visual experience, transforming abstract injustices into tangible, emotional encounters. These narratives
are not passive; they demand active engagement and self-reflection, pushing readers to see beyond the
text and make personal and societal transformations.
Moreover, Kafka‘s narratives often withhold the conventional resolutions found in typical stories,
challenging the reader‘s expectations and desires for a 'happy ending.' This technique is particularly
evident in the fate of characters like Joseph K, whose unresolved journeys symbolize the elusive nature
of justice and satisfaction in Kafka‘s fictional realm. This manipulation of narrative expectations mirrors
the complex, often unsatisfactory nature of real-life justice and personal desire. Kafka‘s storytelling is a
labyrinth of legal and emotional complexities, mirroring the elusive nature of law and love, as
experienced by his characters. This portrayal makes Kafka‘s work a profound exploration of the human
condition, reflecting the perpetual human struggle to find clarity and justice within societal and personal
relationships.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
responsive/files/law/critical-legal-studies/issues/volume-3/3-1-pistone-
[Link]?la=en&rev=3b1d54fec03c4e17a6b1776ae78a281d

20. The passage mentions Kafka's characters like Joseph K to illustrate:

(a) The triumph of individual characters over adversity
(b) The unresolved nature of justice in Kafka‘s narratives
(c) The personal happiness achieved by characters at the end
(d) The straightforward moral lessons imparted by the stories

21. Which of the following best describes why the readers see the injustices in Kafka's stories as personal
crises?
(a) Kafka‘s detailed and vivid descriptions make the narratives relatable.
(b) Kafka‘s narratives ensure that characters are directly reflective of the reader.
(c) Kafka‘s choice of setting is familiar to the reader.
(d) Kafka‘s use of first-person narration gives a sense of personal involvement.

22. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage?
(a) Kafka‘s narratives provoke readers to actively confront societal issues.
(b) Kafka‘s use of imagery is primarily for creating aesthetic appeal.
(c) Kafka‘s stories engage readers by making them witnesses to injustices.
(d) Kafka‘s characters, such as Joseph K, symbolize the elusive nature of justice.

23. What tone does the author of the passage use to describe Kafka‘s literary style?
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(a) Critical and disapproving (b) Admiring and laudatory

(c) Indifferent and neutral (d) Humorous and light-hearted

24. In the context of the passage, the word "transcends" most nearly means:
(a) Exceeds (b) Crosses
(c) Changes (d) Simplifies
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Mock - 56
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Many people know Hildegard of Bingen for her musical compositions, which were really innovative for
the 12th century and are still being performed today. In fact, in the 1990s, an electronic version of them
by Richard Souther, Vision: The Music of Hildegard von Bingen, even reached number one in the charts.
But she also did a bit everything: botany, medicine, theology, philosophy—she even wrote a play. It‘s an
allegorical drama, where a Soul gets tempted by the Devil on one side and encouraged by a host of
Virtues on the other. The virtues sing beautifully, but the Devil doesn't get to sing—he can only shout. In
fact, there‘s something symbolic about the gender of all these characters: the virtues are women, and the
devil is a man—and Hildegard is clearly on the side of the women.
And that‘s not the only time Hildegard takes the side of women. In the 12th century, the dominant
position was that women were inferior, designed by God to serve men, and definitely not allowed to
preach. But Hildegard went on speaking tours; she said that men were also designed to serve women;
and she insisted on the equal importance of both genders. What's more, she claimed that God spoke to
her. She said she started getting powerful visions at a very young age, and didn‘t know what to make of
them—until finally, in her 40s, she realized they must be from God.
Of course, Oliver Sacks said that her visions sounded a bit like ―scintillating scotoma,‖ a kind of migraine.
So, what made her believe they weren't hallucinations—or even deceptions by an evil demon? Well, if
you believe in the possibility of divine revelation—which Hildegard did—and you have a picture of truth
where truth is a sudden flash of inspiration, then it's more than just convenient to see these visions not
as medical but mystical. Hildegard felt she had important things to tell her community—things about
morality, society, gender, and religion—and the visions seemed to back those ideas up.
But couldn't it seem just a bit arrogant to think that God is talking to you, especially given the Christian
virtue of humility? It‘s true that Hildegard talked about God speaking to her, but she also kept insisting
that she wasn‘t that special—she even called herself ―a foolish and uneducated woman.‖ Was that just a
rhetorical trick? After all, she also says that anyone who doubts her revelations is going straight to hell.
She writes: ―Let no man be so bold as to add anything to the words of this book… nor to delete
anything… lest he be deleted from the book of life.‖
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions [Link]
polymath

1. What can be inferred about Hildegard‘s position on the role of women based on the gender roles in her
allegorical drama?
(a) She considered men inherently evil, as represented by the Devil.
(b) She believed in traditional gender roles, supporting women‘s subservience.
(c) She advocated for the strength and importance of female virtues against male vices.
(d) She saw no significant distinction between the roles of men and women.

2. What best describes Hildegard's rationale for believing her visions were of divine origin rather than
hallucinations?
(a) She lacked understanding of medical conditions that could explain her visions.
(b) She had a theological framework that associated sudden inspiration with divine truth.
(c) She wanted to leverage her visions to gain authority and suppress dissent.
(d) Her community widely accepted her visions without skepticism, reinforcing her beliefs.
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3. What motivated Hildegard to continue sharing her visions and insights despite societal norms?
(a) She believed her insights could potentially challenge and change societal views on gender and
morality.
(b) She was primarily interested in gaining political power within her religious community.
(c) Her community strongly encouraged her to speak out and share her visions.
(d) She sought to gain personal fame and recognition through her controversial views.

4. According to the passage, why does Hildegard not consider herself special despite her claims of divine
visions?
(a) She experienced visions that were medically explained as migraines by modern scholars.
(b) She described herself as ―a foolish and uneducated woman‖ to express humility and deflect praise.
(c) Her visions were never officially recognized by the Church during her lifetime.
(d) She believed that divine visions should be a common experience among her contemporaries.

5. Based on the passage, what does the term "allegorical" most likely mean as used in the context of
Hildegard's play?
(a) A story with characters symbolizing moral qualities.
(b) A narrative involving conflict between good and evil.
(c) A historical account based on real events.
(d) A detailed description of daily life during medieval times.

II. The importance of food goes far beyond basic sustenance. It plays a central role in festivals and rituals
and reflects our cultural identity. The food industry drives growth, creates jobs, and fosters rural and
agricultural development. It significantly contributes to the national economy through domestic
consumption and exports. As India moves towards the vision of Viksit Bharat in its 78 th year of
Independence, advancing food safety and security is crucial. This entails ensuring that the food reaching
consumers is safe, as well as minimising loss and waste to guarantee that sufficient, nutritious food is
available to all.
Addressing these losses, especially of perishable items like fruits and vegetables, is crucial. It also helps
ensure remunerative prices for farmers.
As the trade of agricultural and processed food products grows, food safety management is becoming
increasingly important. Many developed economies have stringent food safety regulations and practices,
including for imports. Food safety incidents can have serious economic repercussions — public health
risks, reduced consumer confidence, and disruptions in food supply and price stability.
To address the issues of food safety and security, in line with India‘s commitment to the Sustainable
Development Goals, the Union budget for 2024-25 has allocated funds to set up 50 multi-product food
irradiation units in the MSME sector. Food irradiation technology extends the shelf life of agrifood
products, ensuring they reach consumers in optimal condition while reducing food losses along the
production and supply chain.
Irradiation involves exposing food, whether packaged or in bulk, to ionising radiation in a controlled
environment. This method reduces the risk of food-borne illnesses by eliminating harmful
microorganisms. It also prevents spoilage by slowing down the process of decay and minimises food
loss by delaying premature ripening, germination, or sprouting. It also reduces the need for chemical
preservatives, contributing to a more sustainable food supply chain. Irradiation processing typically
requires just one exposure treatment to achieve the desired effects, which simplifies food safety
practices, and contributes to cost savings in the food supply chain.
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Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]

to-ensure-food-safety-and-reduce-waste-9548814/
6. Although the country has made significant strides towards becoming self-reliant in food production, the
overall effectiveness of its food security efforts has been ____.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) questionable. (b) insufficient.
(c) commendable. (d) overwhelming.

7. The greatest challenge faced in addressing the issue of food safety is

(a) the lack of awareness among consumers.
(b) dealing with perishable items.
(c) the complexity of global food safety regulations.
(d) high costs of implementing safety measures.

8. Identify the sequence of events that contribute to food safety issues in India.
(1) Increase in domestic and international trade of food products.
(2) Failure to address loss and waste of perishable items.
(3) Strict safety regulations in developed economies.
(4) Public health risks due to unsafe food practices.
Choose the appropriate option:
(a) (1), (3), (2), (4) (b) (2), (4), (1), (3)
(c) (1), (2), (4), (3) (d) (3), (1), (2), (4)

9. The broader consequences of food safety failures are best described as:
(a) a sequence of impacts on public health and economic stability.
(b) a slow erosion of consumer confidence over time.
(c) sporadic disruptions causing short-term market fluctuations.
(d) a gradual enhancement of safety standards.

10. In the context of India's food industry, 'time' is described as a luxury due to:
(a) lengthy processes in implementing safety protocols.
(b) the rapid pace of industry growth requiring quick adaptation.
(c) delays in technological updates impacting food quality.
(d) the critical timing in handling perishable goods.

11. The rationale for implementing food irradiation technology in India's MSME sector stems from the
necessity to:
(a) comply with international market demands.
(b) streamline production processes.
(c) minimize food wastage effectively.
(d) enhance export competitiveness.
12. Segregating initiatives in food safety and security helps in:
(a) focusing resources on critical areas more efficiently.
(b) providing tailored solutions for different types of food products.
(c) meeting diverse consumer demands more effectively.
(d) enhancing the scalability of food safety measures.
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III. Plants, unlike animals, cannot escape predators. They are literally rooted to one spot. They have
overcome this disadvantage by arming themselves with a vast chemical armory as a defense. Those
parts of a plant that are below the ground are particularly vulnerable to attack. Bacteria, fungi,
nematodes, larvae, snails, mice — the list of threats is long. Not surprisingly, plants such as onion and
garlic, which store food for future growth in underground bulbs, have equipped themselves with
defensive chemicals of every conceivable hue and variety.
A recent inventory of the molecular army of garlic, using very sensitive analytical tools of chemistry has
shown that there are over 2,300 chemicals in its cloves. Most of them are there for reasons that we do
not comprehend yet. Barely 70 of these figure in today‘s nutrition charts. These include manganese,
selenium and vitamin B6: three human nutrients that garlic is particularly rich in.
Many of the other constituents – thiosulfinates, lectins, saponins and flavonoids, to name a few - can
play protective roles in humans too. It is not surprising that humans have a long history of incorporating
garlic into their diets. Sumerian clay tablets from 4000 years ago have recipes that use garlic. And
beyond nutritive value, garlic has been used for its medicinal properties in many cultures. In Ayurveda,
warm garlic-infused milk, is beneficial for respiratory conditions such as asthma, cough and common
cold, and for generally improving body strength. Similarly, garlic-infused water (lasuna phata) is used as
a tonic, improving digestion by stimulating the secretion of digestive enzymes, and by its carminative
properties, which reduce gas formation.
The pungent flavour that is characteristic of garlic and related species comes from a sulphur-containing
compound. Allicin is not present in fresh garlic. It is produced when an odour-free precursor called allicin
is acted upon by an enzyme. The two are brought together when garlic is chopped, crushed, or even
chewed. Allicin interacts with receptors found on sensory neurons in the trigeminal nerve, which gathers
sensations from the mouth and the nose. The pungent taste of garlic is a result of this interaction.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
chemical-treasury-in-garlic/[Link]

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) scientific journal on plant defense mechanisms
(b) culinary magazine discussing health benefits of ingredients
(c) travel guide on medicinal herbs
(d) environmental report on agricultural practices

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) to advocate for using garlic in traditional remedies
(b) to explain the role of chemical defenses in plants like garlic
(c) to encourage readers to consume garlic regularly
(d) to highlight the complexity of garlic‘s chemical makeup

15. According to the passage, why are underground parts of plants particularly vulnerable?
(a) They are not exposed to sunlight.
(b) They grow more slowly than above-ground parts.
(c) They are not protected by the plant‘s chemical defenses.
(d) They store nutrients, making them attractive to predators.

16. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) "A recent inventory of the molecular army of garlic has shown that there are over 2,300 chemicals in
its cloves."
(b) "Plants such as onion and garlic, which store food for future growth in underground bulbs, have
equipped themselves with defensive chemicals."
(c) "Many of the other constituents – thiosulfinates, lectins, saponins and flavonoids – can play
protective roles in humans too."
(d) "Allicin is produced when an odour-free precursor is acted upon by an enzyme."

17. The author‘s discussion of garlic‘s history in human cultures is primarily intended to ______.
(a) illustrate how garlic‘s properties have been long appreciated
(b) show how garlic was used in traditional culinary practices
(c) demonstrate the historical ignorance of garlic‘s true chemical makeup
(d) highlight the lack of modern scientific understanding of garlic

18. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?
(a) Plants like garlic use a wide range of chemical defenses.
(b) Garlic is rich in nutrients such as manganese and vitamin B6.
(c) Allicin is naturally present in fresh garlic and is responsible for its odor.
(d) Garlic has both nutritive and medicinal properties.

19. The phrase ―stimulating the secretion of digestive enzymes‖ in the passage is best defined as:
(a) balancing the body's digestive processes
(b) slowing down the production of acids in the stomach
(c) helping in the production of digestive fluids
(d) limiting the release of harmful digestive acids

20. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that garlic‘s chemical compounds have
a protective role in humans?
(a) Recent studies show no correlation between garlic consumption and reduced illness.
(b) Garlic is difficult to incorporate into the average person‘s diet.
(c) The majority of garlic‘s chemical compounds are not digestible by humans.
(d) There are alternatives to garlic that provide similar benefits.

21. What does the passage suggest about the formation of allicin?
(a) Allicin is created through mechanical disruption of garlic cells.
(b) Allicin forms only when garlic is heated to a high temperature.
(c) Allicin is naturally present in all garlic species.
(d) Allicin forms as garlic matures over time.

22. The passage mentions ―sulphur-containing compounds‖ to emphasize _________.

(a) the unpleasant odor of garlic
(b) the chemical diversity of garlic‘s defense mechanisms
(c) the medicinal value of garlic
(d) the historical use of garlic in human cultures

IV. The wave comes, throat-high and hungry. The last thing I see before it sweeps me off the rock and into
the ocean is a man in a wetsuit leaning his shoulder into a wall of water. When we swam out here
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

around 2 a.m. and hoisted ourselves onto the algae-slick face of a boulder, he had warned me: ―If you go
in here, it won‘t be fun.‖ And he was right.
I manage to keep hold of my fishing rod, and I‘m reeling in lost line and treading water and trying to
forget all the stories I‘ve heard about sharks as a second large wave begins sucking me up its face. By
the time the third crashes over me, I‘ve abandoned any pretense of swimming back to our original perch.
Sputtering and coughing, I make my way toward another rock closer to shore. A last wave pushes me
onto it, and I get my feet under me.
Thirty yards in front of me, having held on to that sloping rock through the entire set, Brandon Sausele
makes a long, arcing cast into the pounding surf.
Sausele is 27 years old. Shaggy-haired, tattooed, and muscular, he is a devoted describe and
impossible for the uninitiated to understand. When I was first getting into the sport a few years ago, the
advice I received from another fisherman was simply: Don‘t.
Wetsuiting is a form of saltwater fishing that involves wearing a wetsuit and wading or swimming out to
offshore rocks—almost exclusively at night, often during storms—to access deeper water or faster
currents than can be reached in traditional waders. The quarry are striped bass, a fish that migrates
every spring, mostly from the Chesapeake and Delaware Bays, to as far north as Maine, and back down
again in the fall.
Although ―stripers‖—one of the most popular game fish in America—can be caught during normal waking
hours, the largest members of the species, some more than four feet long, usually come close to shore
at night. Stripers prefer inclement weather and rough water, which make ambushing their prey easier,
but also make conditions more dangerous for the men—wetsuiters are nearly all men—who chase them.
Catching big stripers requires dedication and sleep deprivation. And if you‘re wetsuiting, it involves more
than a little risk.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]
bass/679574/

23. How can the narrator's experience with wetsuiting be best described?
(a) Enlightening (b) Foreboding
(c) Exhilarating (d) Regrettable

24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship evident in the pursuit of wetsuiting?

(a) Cause: Thrill of danger, Effect: Engagement in high-risk activities
(b) Cause: Availability of large stripers, Effect: Nighttime fishing excursions
(c) Cause: Advice from experienced fishers, Effect: Cautious approach to the sport
(d) Cause: Cultural significance, Effect: Preservation of traditional fishing methods

25. The use of the word 'hungry' to describe the wave primarily serves to:
(a) Personify the ocean as an adversary.
(b) Highlight the unpredictable nature of the sea.
(c) Emphasize the danger inherent in the sport.
(d) Illustrate the nourishing aspect of water.

26. Which of the following scenarios would most undermine the perceived risks associated with wetsuiting?
(a) An experienced wetsuiter never encountering dangerous situations.
(b) Night fishing becoming less popular due to technological advancements.
(c) Implementation of improved safety measures reducing incidents.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Studies showing that daytime fishing yields similar catches.

27. Based on the author's portrayal of wetsuiters, which statement would they most likely agree with?
(a) "Risk is essential for true achievement in sports."
(b) "Traditional fishing methods should be preserved at all costs."
(c) "The dangers of wetsuiting are overstated by those unfamiliar with it."
(d) "Adrenaline is the primary motivator for extreme sports enthusiasts."

28. Given the author's depiction of wetsuiting, what stance would they likely take on the regulation of such
high-risk sports?
(a) The author would support stricter regulations for safety in high-risk sports.
(b) The author would advocate for complete deregulation to maintain the sport's purity.
(c) The author would recommend only voluntary guidelines, not mandatory rules.
(d) The author would encourage more public funding to support high-risk sports.

29. In the narrative, which sentence uses the past perfect tense to describe the narrator's experiences?
(a) ―I managed to keep hold of my fishing rod, despite the waves.‖
(b) ―We choose to ignore the warnings before venturing out that night.‖
(c) ―The waves swept me off the rock before I could react.‖
(d) ―He had warned us about the risks, yet we still went out.‖
30. Which substitution for 'intense' in the passage would alter the meaning of the narrative about the ocean's
behaviour?
(a) Turbulent (b) Mild
(c) Harsh (d) Severe

31. In the context of the passage, what does the term "quarry" most likely mean?
(a) A place where stone or slate is extracted.
(b) The object of a hunt; prey.
(c) An open area for public gatherings.
(d) A deep, usually stone-lined pit.

32. What might be inferred about the writer‘s perspective on human resilience based on the narrative
description of the narrator's struggle with the ocean?
(a) It suggests that individuals are inherently weak in the face of nature‘s challenges.
(b) It conveys a sense of inevitability about defeat in adverse circumstances.
(c) It indicates that the narrator views human efforts as futile in extreme situations.
(d) It implies a belief in the enduring spirit of individuals when confronted with adversity.

V. Sometimes it‘s the little things that matter. An unexpected kindness, a burst of late summer sunshine, a
cheerful snippet of news; things that are never going to change the world, but lift the mood a bit. For
teachers braced for the return to school this week, the news that Ofsted‘s dreaded one-word grades –
potentially career-ending labels, from ―outstanding‖ to ―inadequate‖, which ended up being all anyone
really remembered of an often more nuanced inspection report – will be scrapped with immediate effect
may well fall into this category. It‘s hardly a revolutionary change, since schools that would have been
judged to be failing under the old regime will still face immediate intervention. But it gives teachers just a
bit more room to breathe.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from

[Link]
rayner-dancing

33. The decision to scrap Ofsted‘s one-word grades can be attributed to:
(1) the need to reduce stress on teachers.
(2) the desire to provide more nuanced feedback.
(3) a policy to improve student outcomes.
(4) the demand for greater accountability in schools.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (4) (d) (3) and (4)
34. A significant limitation of the Ofsted one-word grading system was:
(a) It provided an overly simplistic assessment of school performance.
(b) It failed to identify underperforming schools.
(c) It was too lenient on failing schools.
(d) It was difficult for schools to challenge or appeal the grade.

35. The use of the phrase ―gives teachers just a bit more room to breathe‖ suggests that the decision to
scrap the one-word grading system:
(a) offers significant long-term benefits for teachers.
(b) alleviates some of the immediate pressure faced by teachers.
(c) leads to a complete overhaul of the school inspection system.
(d) results in more positive student outcomes.

36. Statement 1: Scrapping the one-word grades will eliminate all stress from school inspections.
Statement 2: Teachers may still face immediate interventions under the new system.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. The phrase ―career-ending labels‖ in the passage refers to:

(a) judgmental comments made by students that affect teachers' careers.
(b) labels used by teachers to describe underperforming students.
(c) negative public opinions that influence school administration‘s decisions.
(d) harsh and definitive judgments from Ofsted that could severely impact teachers‘ careers.

38. In which of the following sentences is the word ‗intervention‘ used in the same sense as given in the
passage?
(a) The doctor recommended an immediate intervention to treat the patient‘s condition.
(b) The government's intervention in the economy was highly controversial.
(c) The teacher‘s intervention helped the struggling student improve significantly.
(d) The company‘s board made an intervention to resolve the internal conflict.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

39. In which areas has scrapping Ofsted‘s one-word grading system provided relief for educators, according
to the passage?
(a) Increased teacher autonomy and reduced administrative interference
(b) Improved student outcomes and less time spent on lesson planning
(c) Reduced career pressure and a more comprehensive school evaluation
(d) Fewer school inspections and more professional development opportunities

VI. It is just over a month since the first riots broke out in Southport – seemingly provoked by rumours
containing false information about the alleged identity of the attacker who killed three children and
injured eight others, as well as two adults, at a Taylor Swift-themed dance class.
Five further days of disorder followed in a number of English towns and cities and in Northern Ireland –
with the rioters apparently taking their lead from what happened in Southport. Violence was aimed at
immigrants, at mosques, at Asian-owned businesses and at hotels and other locations where immigrants
were thought to be housed.
In the weeks since the riots, a number of fairly firm narratives have become established. The first is that
misinformation spread on social media was crucial in bringing people out on to the streets. Second, the
anti-immigration rhetoric associated with the far right – and the ―tough on immigration‖ messages now
popular across the political spectrum – are assumed to have helped foment the violence. In short, the
story goes that these were racist, Islamophobic, anti-migrant riots.
The final piece of the jigsaw concerns the state‘s response to the disorder. Tough policing and robust
sentencing by the courts are now widely touted as the key to bringing the violence to an end. So far, so
straightforward. Nothing more to know or understand.
It seems our standard desire for simple explanations has been sated. But social phenomena are rarely
simple, and riots are no exception. They are complicated, requiring nuanced explanations. But this is not
just about understanding. It is about prevention, about what needs to be done as a response to such
complex events, not least by the government. Rioting is generally an indicator that all is not well in the
body politic. We ignore this at our peril.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
[Link]
southport

40. What could be a potential consequence of ignoring the underlying causes of the riots mentioned in the
passage?
(a) A long-term decline in economic stability
(b) A deepening of political divisions and further unrest
(c) A stronger focus on immigration policies
(d) Improved relations between communities and the government

41. In what ways might the spread of misinformation have contributed to the violence during the riots?
(a) By misdirecting public anger toward government officials
(b) By providing factual evidence that justified the violence
(c) By fuelling hatred and mistrust toward specific communities
(d) By encouraging peaceful protests that later escalated into violence

42. What broader implications can be drawn from the way the riots were handled by the state?
(a) The need for stronger immigration policies to prevent future unrest
(b) The importance of social media regulation in preventing misinformation
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The effectiveness of punitive measures in maintaining long-term social stability

(d) The need for more nuanced approaches to address underlying social and political issues

43. What role might political rhetoric have played in the riots, according to the passage?
(a) It likely calmed tensions by emphasizing unity and tolerance.
(b) It contributed to the unrest by amplifying anti-immigration sentiment.
(c) It was irrelevant, as social media misinformation was the sole cause of the riots.
(d) It led to the immediate involvement of international organizations to help control the situation.

44. What is the significance of the author's emphasis on nuanced explanations for the riots?
(a) It highlights the complexity of social unrest and the need for a multifaceted response.
(b) It suggests that the riots were justified and the response should have been more lenient.
(c) It implies that law enforcement did not act quickly enough to prevent the riots.
(d) It indicates that addressing economic disparities would have resolved the issue entirely.

VII. India needs 60-148 million additional jobs cumulatively between now and 2030. But she gave short shrift
to agriculture, saying, we need ―to get workers to move out of agriculture into other areas‖. My question
is: Why can‘t agriculture too be a driver of growth and creator of desirable jobs?
In 1954, when Arthur Lewis argued that development involves workers moving from agriculture to
manufacturing and services, and from rural to urban areas, agriculture was still low-tech and
subsistence-oriented. Today, farming in many countries is high-tech and highly productive. We can get
there too if we give agriculture its rightful place and rethink the way we farm. Although Indian agriculture
has had a five-year average growth rate of 4 per cent, it contributes 18 per cent to the GDP. Its growth is
erratic and environmentally costly. It employs 46 per cent of all workers and 60 per cent of rural workers,
but incomes remain low, and educated youth don‘t wish to farm.
For agriculture to be an engine of growth and attractive to youth, we need to overcome ecological,
technological, institutional challenges; reconnect with allied sectors; and create synergy with rural non-
farm sector. Ecologically, we must regenerate our water and soils and tackle climate change. Irrigation is
the key to higher productivity and drought resilience. Currently, only half of India‘s gross cropped area is
irrigated, mainly via groundwater whose over-extraction has led to alarming falls in water tables. A
notable cause is free electricity. In Punjab, between 1997 (when free power was introduced for irrigation)
and 2002, there was a 40 per cent decline in canal irrigation and a sharp rise in groundwater use and
area under rice. This continues. We need regulation, not freebies. For irrigation expansion, a
combination of groundwater regulation, rainwater harvesting and micro-irrigation would be effective.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions [Link]
engine-growth-9549171/

45. The concept of 'rethinking the way we farm' primarily suggests:

(a) Maintaining traditional farming methods due to their proven success.
(b) Adapting agricultural practices to modern technological advancements.
(c) Ignoring technological interventions in agriculture.
(d) Focusing exclusively on increasing manual labour in farming.

46. Which statement is NOT a valid inference from the discussion on the shift of labour from agriculture?
(a) Labour migration from agriculture is necessary for economic development.
(b) Agriculture cannot provide sufficient employment opportunities for the growing workforce.
(c) Shifting workers from agriculture to other sectors will resolve all employment challenges.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The movement from agriculture to other sectors is part of broader economic development trends.

47. The use of 'rightful place' in reference to agriculture suggests that:

(a) Agriculture is currently overemphasized in India's economic policies.
(b) Agriculture should be phased out in favour of industrial development.
(c) Agriculture has not been given adequate importance in developmental strategies.
(d) The role of agriculture in the economy is negligible and should remain so.

48. Analyzing the impact of 'free electricity' on farming practices, what does the passage implicitly criticize?
(a) The economic burden of energy subsidies on the state budget.
(b) The effectiveness of government policies in promoting crop diversity.
(c) The lack of technological innovation in agriculture.
(d) The environmental sustainability of current farming practices.

49. What does the emphasis on 'reconnect with allied sectors' imply about the future direction of agricultural
policy?
(a) A focus on diversifying agricultural practices beyond traditional farming.
(b) An intention to isolate agriculture from other sectors to focus on core issues.
(c) A reduction in the importance of agriculture in the national economy.
(d) An increase in the reliance on imported agricultural technologies.

50. How does the concept of 'creating synergy with the rural non-farm sector' expand the scope of
agricultural development?
(a) By limiting agricultural activities to traditional farming only.
(b) By integrating agriculture with other rural economic activities.
(c) By focusing exclusively on export-oriented agricultural strategies.
(d) By promoting urban-centric economic policies at the expense of rural areas.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 57
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Read the excerpt from a ruling of the Court (Supreme Court‘s ruling on immunity for legislators facing
bribery charges) and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
In a landmark judgement, the Supreme Court ruled that Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of
Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) cannot claim any immunity from prosecution for accepting bribes to cast
a vote or make a speech in the House in a particular fashion. Article 105(2) of the Indian Constitution
confers on MPs immunity from prosecution in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament or
on any parliamentary committee. Similarly, Article 194(2) grants protection to MLAs. While elaborating
upon the purpose of Articles 105 and 194, the Chief Justice pointed out that such privileges are
guaranteed to sustain an environment in which debate and deliberation can take place within the
legislature. However, such a purpose is destroyed when a member is induced to vote or speak in a
certain manner following an act of bribery.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
courts-ruling-on-immunity-for-legislators-facing-bribery-charges-explained/[Link]

1. Select which of the following assumptions underlies the Supreme Court's ruling.
(a) Legislative immunity should be extended to all acts within parliamentary proceedings.
(b) The integrity of legislative debates is paramount and must be safeguarded against corrupt
influences.
(c) The general public holds the power to directly influence parliamentary speeches and votes.
(d) Parliamentary privileges serve primarily to shield members from legal scrutiny.

2. According to the passage what is the primary purpose of granting parliamentary privileges to MPs and
MLAs?
(a) To enable unrestricted expression within legislative bodies.
(b) To enhance the personal benefits of legislative members.
(c) To ensure legislative proceedings are conducted without public interference.
(d) To provide legal immunity for all actions taken by legislators.

3. Which of the following words is an antonym to the word "induced" used in the text?
(a) persuaded (b) compelled
(c) deterred (d) encouraged

II. Indian shrimp exporters follow a robust regulatory and safety regime, as it helps them to ship quality
marine products to developed regions like the US and Europe. India is aiming to increase seafood
exports to Rs one lakh crore in the next two years by increasing its processing capacity and shifting to
higher value-added products. Debunking certain reports of poor working conditions and safety
standards, the official said India's 548 seafood units are regularly inspected and monitored by various
government agencies. These units follow world-class quality and standards, and the major export
destinations are developed nations. Some reports that are alleging food safety and bad labour conditions
in the Indian shrimp industry are wrong and baseless.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

aims-to-increase-seafood-exports-to-rs-1-trillion-in-next-2-years-124040301000_1.html

4. Substitute the expression ―robust regulatory and safety regime‖ in a way that maintains the original
context:
(a) Strict governance and inspection framework
(b) Occasional safety checks and controls
(c) Infrequent but thorough policy enforcement
(d) Minimal compliance measures

5. The objective to ―increase its processing capacity‖ suggests:

(a) A reduction in the number of operational seafood units.
(b) An enhancement in the productivity and efficiency of existing units.
(c) A complete overhaul of current seafood processing technologies.
(d) An expansion of seafood varieties beyond shrimp.

6. Evaluate the following assertions based on the passage:

(i) Government inspections of seafood units are occasional and not thorough.
(ii) Seafood export targets are ambitiously set to reach one lakh crore within two years.
(iii) Developed nations are not the primary markets for Indian seafood.
(iv) The quality standards of Indian seafood units match global benchmarks.
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), and (iv)

7. What can be inferred about the Indian shrimp industry from the text?
(a) There is a unilateral global demand for Indian shrimp.
(b) Export destinations are limited to lesser-developed countries.
(c) Misconceptions about industry practices are prevalent.
(d) All industry revenue comes solely from shrimp exports.

8. Select the most appropriate by-line for the article based on the given information:
(a) Advancing Global Market Share
(b) Challenges in Seafood Industry Regulation
(c) Innovations in Seafood Export Practices
(d) Refuting Misconceptions: A Stride Toward Quality

9. Which conclusion is most justified by the passage regarding India's seafood industry?
(a) The industry primarily relies on domestic consumption.
(b) Shrimp export practices have faced no external criticisms.
(c) Safety and labour conditions in seafood processing are misrepresented in some reports.
(d) Most seafood processing units operate without any governmental oversight.

III. Read the book descriptions for three different books up for sale online and answer the questions by
choosing the correct options.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Harvest, Jim Crace‘s Frankenstein is an old classic The Adventures of Huckleberry

latest novel, dramatises about a scientist who creates a Finn is an amazing adventure
one of the great under- monster and the awful events he book. The main characters are
told narratives of English unintentionally causes. Victor an uncivilised young boy named
history: the forced Frankenstein is a hard-working Huck and a runaway slave, Jim,
enclosure of open fields young man at university who a middle aged man, searching for
and common land from discovers how to give life to an his freedom. Huck narrates the
the late medieval era on, inanimate body and uses his story of their adventures
whereby subsistence knowledge to create a man- travelling down the Mississippi on
agriculture was replaced monster. He believes his a raft. Tales are told about the
by profitable wool discovery will lead to further various places they stop at on the
production and the scientific advances but when he way, this involves comedy,
peasant farmers succeeds in bringing his creation suspense and tragedy and lots of
dispossessed and to life he is filled with loathing. mischief.
displaced. "The sheaf is [Link] [Link]
giving way to sheep", as rens-books- drens-books-
Crace puts it here, and site/2014/aug/06/review-mary- site/2012/mar/04/review-
an immemorial shelley-frankenstein adventures-of-huckleberry-finn-
connection between mark-twain
people and their local
environment is being
broken.
[Link]
com/books/2013/feb/14/h
arvest-jim-crace-
review#:~:text=Harvest%
2C%20his%20latest%20
novel%2C%20dramatise
s,peasant%20farmers%2
0dispossessed%20and%
20displaced.

10. By using the phrase ―the sheaf is giving way to sheep,‖ the author most likely intends to communicate
which of the following about the novel "Harvest"?
(a) The change from agriculture to livestock farming was beneficial for all inhabitants.
(b) Livestock farming requires less labour and thus significantly decreased employment in rural areas.
(c) The new agricultural practices were universally accepted and implemented without dispute.
(d) There is an economic shift that has broader social and environmental impacts.

11. Which aspect of Victor Frankenstein‘s experiences is indirectly highlighted through his initial reaction to
the animated creature?
(a) His mastery over supernatural elements.
(b) The unforeseen consequences of unbridled scientific exploration.
(c) His ability to control the outcomes of his scientific experiments.
(d) The moral support he receives from the academic community.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

12. In "The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn", the combination of 'comedy, suspense, tragedy, and lots of
mischief' serves to illustrate what aspect of Huck and Jim‘s journey?
(a) The unpredictable nature of life along the Mississippi River.
(b) The consistent danger present in pre-Civil War America.
(c) The educational development of Huck through diverse experiences.
(d) The specific historical events that occurred during their travels.

13. In describing the forced changes in "Harvest", the phrase 'an immemorial connection... being broken' is
succinctly used to suggest:
(a) The minor impact on local environmental policies.
(b) The brief interruption in agricultural practices.
(c) The permanent alteration of traditional lifestyles.
(d) The end of an era in historical development.

14. What underlying theme can be inferred from Jim Crace's description of the transition in "Harvest"?
(a) The evolution of agricultural techniques enhances community welfare.
(b) Economic progress invariably brings about enhanced living standards for all community members.
(c) Societal advancement often comes at the expense of traditional livelihoods and cultural continuity.
(d) Transitioning to more profitable economic activities is universally welcomed by all societal segments.

15. What aspect of Victor Frankenstein's character is highlighted by his reaction to his creation?
(a) His moral conflict and the immediate regret following his scientific success.
(b) His foresight in predicting the consequences of his actions.
(c) His resilience in the face of scientific challenges.
(d) His detachment from societal norms and ethical considerations.

16. Which literary technique is primarily used in "The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn" to explore societal
issues?
(a) Direct exposition through narrative monologue.
(b) Allegorical representation of characters.
(c) Satirical portrayal of societal norms.
(d) Dramatic irony and suspense.

17. Which book most explicitly deals with the theme of individual resistance against societal norms and
regulations?
(a) "Harvest" by Jim Crace, depicting the upheaval caused by agricultural changes.
(b) "Frankenstein" by Mary Shelley, focusing on the consequences of unchecked scientific endeavors.
(c) "The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn" by Mark Twain, showcasing the journey of a boy and a
runaway slave against societal norms.
(d) All of the above, as each narrative explores individual resistance in varying contexts.

IV. Read the excerpt from a handicrafts‘ manual titled ‗Guide to Handbuilding Pottery‘ and answer the
following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
Pinching Pots
Pinch pots are a great first handbuilding technique to learn when you first begin to work with clay. Simply
begin with a single ball of clay and shape it into a small pot using only your hands by pressing your
thumb into the center of the ball. Hold and spin the ball in one hand while you press the walls out with
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

your thumb. Pinch pots are a direct method for beginning to work with clay and getting familiar with the
medium.
Slab pots
A slab pot is formed by joining flat slabs of clay together after they have been processed through a slab
roller. Slab rollers, which are basically industrial-sized rolling pins, are a great tool that allows for quick
and efficient production of clay slabs used.
First, place your clay on the cloth of your slab roller and spin the wheel to move your clay through. Then,
use a pointed tool to trim the slab to your desired size. You may make paper templates to follow to map
out your project and cut the slab accordingly. You can also use a slump mold to create uniform shapes
for things like plates and bowls. In this case, you would roll out your slab and drape it over or inside your
form. Finally, you will join the two slabs together using a process called ―score and slip.‖ Scoring your
clay is essentially scratching marks on the two sides that will be joined together. After scoring, you will
brush slip on each side as if you are gluing the sides together.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
handbuilding,moving%20onto%20to%20slab%20construction.

18. What is the primary purpose of using a slab roller in the process described?
(a) To compress the clay to eliminate air pockets
(b) To ensure uniform thickness of the clay slabs
(c) To create intricate designs on the clay surface
(d) To dry the clay faster

19. Which of the following best describes the meaning of "score and slip" as used in the context of joining
two slabs?
(a) Molding (b) Glazing
(c) Adhering (d) Carving

20. Select the reason why the passage details methods like pinching and slab construction in pottery.
(a) To highlight the simplicity and accessibility of handbuilding techniques.
(b) To compare the efficiency of different pottery-making machines.
(c) To emphasize the artistic expression in advanced pottery techniques.
(d) To promote the sale of pottery-making tools.

21. Choose the correct order of the following steps in creating a slab pot.
(i) Roll out the clay through the slab roller.
(ii) Cut the clay slab to the desired size.
(iii) Join the cut slabs together using score and slip.
(iv) Use a mold to shape the slab.
(a) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(c) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

22. Which quality makes the slab roller an indispensable tool in pottery making, according to the passage?
(a) Speed in clay preparation (b) Versatility in clay shaping
(c) Precision in thickness control (d) Enhancement of artistic designs
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

V. Read the excerpt of a published interview by The Hindu where they speak to Sangita Iyer, founder,
Voices for Asian Elephants on A project to give forestland back to animals. Answer the following
questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
Q: You have been working on a project that aims at giving forestland encroached upon by people
decades ago back to animals. The project to create awareness of the conservation of elephant
habitats has almost materialised after around five years. What is the project all about.
A: It‘s a simple project. We purchased around four acres of land at Nilambur which abuts the forest to
create a safe corridor for elephants in the area. The land is connected to Karimpuzha Wildlife
Sanctuary, the Kerala side of Silent Valley National Park, and Mukkuruthy National Park in Tamil
Nadu side, and has high conservation value. The aim is to ensure continuity of elephant habitat. It
was a plantation area, and we removed the electric fencing set up there by planters and closed the
wells in the region. The space is now completely left open for natural rewilding.
Q: What are the salient features of the project?
A: The 4-acre plot is now a safe corridor and approximately 340 elephants can use the land to traverse
between two forest patches, thus helping alleviate the human-elephant conflict in the region. This will
also prevent inbreeding, and ensure genetic flow between herds, aiding the survival of an
endangered species. Buying back forestland that belongs to wildlife is critical and is the only long-
term measure to ensure harmonious coexistence.
Q. Why did this project take around five years to complete?
A. First, we admit the complexity of land purchase regulations in India, particularly for foreign
organisations such as ours. We facilitated the acquisition of land through our local partner, Nature
Mates, in 2023 and subsequently initiated the transfer process to the Kerala Forest department. We
raised the funds for the project in 2020 amidst the COVID-19 pandemic. We spent around $60,000
(approximately ₹50 lakh) for the project, including legal expenses. It took around five tedious years to
complete the proceedings. Given that this was our first land purchase project in India, we learnt
many lessons. We had to face smear campaigns and allegations propagated by the Kerala
Independent Farmers Association (KIFA) regarding the transfer of land for conservation purposes.
The bureaucratic hurdles inherent in the land transfer process and the tedious and inefficient nature
of these procedures led to delays. However, the cooperation of Forest department officials is worth
mentioning, particularly Forest department secretary K.R. Jyothilal, officials like Prakriti Srivastava,
Vijayanand, former South Nilambur DFO Praveen Kumar, and our local partner, Nature Mates, for
making this project a reality.
Q. Have you achieved your goal now? Do you have any intention to make the private land trapped inside
the forest available to animals?
A. The process that may take around two to three months in foreign countries is almost over now,
although we are still awaiting official declaration of the land as protected forest. In fact, there are
around 60 acres of land inside the forest with private players, and they have contacted us to acquire
their land as well. Given the experience, the Board of Directors will reconsider future land deals. Our
main objective of purchasing the land and transferring it to the State government is to highlight the
issue of conserving elephant habitats, their migratory pathways and corridors, which will help
mitigate the human-elephant conflict by preventing them from straying out of their habitats, fostering
peaceful co-existence.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
project-to-give-forestland-back-to-animals/[Link]

23. What is the primary aim of this passage?

(a) To discuss the complexities of wildlife land acquisitions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) To detail a conservation initiative and its challenges.

(c) To argue against the use of electric fences in conservation.
(d) To promote a foreign organization's conservation efforts.

24. What is the tone conveyed by the speaker when describing the project's completion timeline?
(a) Frustrated (b) Resigned
(c) Encouraged (d) Neutral

25. The phrase 'rewilding naturally' refers to what process in the context of this passage?
(a) Reintroducing domesticated animals into wild habitats.
(b) Constructing environments that mimic natural settings.
(c) Planting native flora to attract wildlife.
(d) Allowing land to return to its natural ecological state.

26. How did the involvement of the Kerala Independent Farmers Association impact the project?
(a) It provided necessary financial support.
(b) It facilitated quicker approval from local authorities.
(c) It caused delays and public relations issues.
(d) It led to the project‘s expansion beyond the initial scope.

27. What does the reference to learning 'many lessons' imply about the organization's future projects?
(a) They will avoid similar future projects.
(b) They will approach future projects with caution.
(c) They will focus on less complex projects.
(d) They will stop working with local partners.

28. Which rhetorical strategy does the narrator employ by mentioning specific officials and partners in the
passage?
(a) Exemplification (b) Critique
(c) Narration (d) Argumentation

29. The term 'mitigate' in the context of 'mitigate the human-elephant conflict' most closely means what?
(a) To end completely (b) To escalate
(c) To ignore (d) To manage and reduce

30. Which of the following is the least likely inference to be drawn from the given passage?
(a) The project significantly contributes to the genetic diversity of elephant populations.
(b) Local opposition was a major obstacle in the project's progress.
(c) The primary goal was to generate profit from land transactions.
(d) The project received some level of support from government officials.

31. What does the reference to 'official declaration of the land as protected forest' suggest about the
project‘s status?
(a) It is completed but not yet legally recognized.
(b) It has been fully recognized and implemented.
(c) It is in initial stages of planning.
(d) It has been abandoned due to legal complications.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

32. What does the organization‘s response to potential future land acquisitions indicate about their strategy?
(a) They plan to expand land acquisitions cautiously.
(b) They are reevaluating their approach to land deals.
(c) They intend to focus exclusively on land-based efforts.
(d) They are content with their current land holdings.

VI. February 17, 1988, I opened my eyes and heard a procession of sounds: first the phone going off on the
opposite side of the bed, rousing us at 5:04 a.m. to what could only be a calamity, then rain pummeling
the roof of our old Victorian house, sluicing its sneaky way to the basement, and finally small puffs of air
coming from Hugh‘s lower lip, each one perfectly timed, like a metronome. Twenty years of this puffing.
I‘d heard it when he wasn‘t even asleep, when he sat in his leather wing chair after dinner, reading
through the column of psychiatric journals rising from the floor, and it would seem like the cadence
against which my entire life was set.
The phone rang again, and I lay there, waiting for Hugh to pick up, certain it was one of his patients,
probably the paranoid schizophrenic who‘d phoned last night convinced the CIA had him cornered in a
federal building in downtown Atlanta.
A third ring, and Hugh fumbled for the receiver. "Yes, hello," he said, and his voice came out coarse, a
hangover from sleep.
I rolled away from him then and stared across the room at the faint, watery light on the window,
remembering that today was Ash Wednesday, feeling the inevitable rush of guilt.
My father had died on Ash Wednesday when I was nine years old, and in a convoluted way, a way that
made no sense to anyone but me, it had been at least partially my fault.
Source: From The Mermaid Chair by Sue Monk Kidd. Copyright Sue Monk Kidd. All rights reserved.

33. Which interpretation diverges from the narrator's perspective as depicted in the passage?
(a) The protagonist retains a vivid memory of morning sounds.
(b) The protagonist's existence seems intertwined with habitual domestic sounds.
(c) The protagonist displays apathy towards annual remembrances.
(d) The protagonist's reflections reveal deep emotional ties.

34. How is Ash Wednesday characterized indirectly through the narrator's experiences?
(a) A period marked by sorrow. (b) A customary observance.
(c) A trivial commemoration. (d) A chance for rejuvenation.

35. Which pair of words best encapsulates the narrator's implied sentiments in the conclusion of the
passage?
(a) unintended, liable (b) unavoidable, fortuitous
(c) unfathomable, accountable (d) regretful, involved

36. Identify the correct parts of speech for 'pummeling', 'sneaky', and 'calamity'.
(a) action verb, describing adjective, object noun
(b) modifying adjective, action verb, describing adjective
(c) enhancing adverb, subject noun, action verb
(d) object noun, enhancing adverb, subject noun
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

37. What is a fitting title that captures the essence of the narrative without directly using passage
terminology?
(a) Memories of a Stormy Dawn (b) Reflections of Sound and Sorrow
(c) Echoes of Conscience (d) Disruptions at Daybreak

VII. Mary Wollstonecraft was a fascinating philosophical figure, in part because she didn‘t just write
philosophical treatises: just like our previous Wise Woman, Margaret Cavendish, she also wrote
pamphlets and novels. And she campaigned not just against sexism but against all kinds of inequality,
including slavery and monarchy. She was a (qualified) fan of the French Revolution, thinking that if we
don‘t all have social and economic equality, none of us can be genuinely happy—or even good.
That last thought may sound puzzling. It's true that if you‘re oppressed it‘s hard to be happy, and if you‘re
oppressing others it‘s hard to be good. But why can't an oppressed person be good?
Wollstonecraft isn't denying that oppressed people can be virtuous; her thought is only that they don't get
the chance to do the most good they're capable of, the chance to "max out their virtue points" by making
a significant contribution. Society, says Wollstonecraft, owes everyone that opportunity. But it gives that
opportunity only to some, and not to others.
One important step on the way to making a contribution to society is understanding the world around
you: ―virtue, to deserve the name, must be founded on knowledge.‖ And while oppressed people can
know some things, they‘re prevented from knowing the important stuff, things you‘d need to know if
you‘re going to make that contribution to society. When it comes to women, for example. Wollstonecraft
said society makes them focus on frivolous matters, like next season‘s frock. If that‘s all you‘re thinking
about, it's going to hard to change the world. As a result, while women can certainly be kind to the
people around them, they won‘t have the opportunity to help people they don‘t know: they‘ll never get to
be stateswomen, build a school, or develop a vaccine for smallpox. To make a real impact, women need
power over their own lives.

38. According to the passage, what does Wollstonecraft believe society prevents oppressed people from
doing?
(a) Accumulating wealth through social and economic equality
(b) Developing meaningful relationships with others
(c) Gaining the necessary knowledge to make a significant contribution to society
(d) Engaging in frivolous activities that promote social equality

39. What does Wollstonecraft suggest is a major barrier to women making a real impact on society?
(a) Their natural inclination towards domestic tasks
(b) The societal focus on frivolous matters like fashion
(c) The lack of moral virtue inherent to women
(d) Their disinterest in gaining knowledge about the world

40. The second paragraph of the passage is an example of:

(a) Philosophical argumentation (b) Personal reflection
(c) Literary critique (d) Historical narrative

41. The passage suggests that Wollstonecraft believed societal change would come from:
(a) Women gaining control over their own lives
(b) The dismantling of monarchies
(c) The equal distribution of wealth
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The promotion of traditional domestic roles for women

42. The passage could likely be an excerpt from:

(a) A feminist treatise (b) A scientific journal
(c) A historical fiction novel (d) A travelogue

VIII. A SPLASH OF LIGHT from the late-afternoon sun lingered at the foot of Nariman's bed as he ended his
nap and looked towards the clock. It was almost six. He glanced down where the warm patch had lured
his toes. Knurled and twisted, rendered birdlike by age, they luxuriated in the sun's comfort. His eyes fell
shut again.
By and by, the scrap of sunshine drifted from his feet, and he felt a vague pang of abandonment. He
looked at the clock again: gone past six now. With some difficulty he rose to prepare for his evening
walk. In the bathroom, while he slapped cold water on his face and gargled, he heard his stepson and
stepdaughter over the sound of the tap.
"Please don't go, Pappa, we beseech you," said Jal through the door, then grimaced and adjusted his
hearing aid, for the words had echoed deafeningly in his own ear. The device was an early model; a
metal case the size of a matchbox was clipped to his shirt pocket and wired to the earpiece. It had been
a reluctant acquisition four years ago, when Jal had turned forty-five, but he was not yet used to its
vagaries.
"There, that's better," he said to himself, before becoming loud again: "Now, Pappa, is it too much to
ask? Please stay home, for your own good."
"Why is this door shut that we have to shout?" said Coomy. "Open it, Jal."
She was two years younger than her brother, her tone sharper than his, playing the scold to his
peacemaker. Thin like him, but sturdier, she had taken after their mother, with few curves to soften the
lines and angles. During her girlhood, relatives would scrutinize her and remark sadly that a father's love
was sunshine and fresh water without which a daughter could not bloom; a stepfather, they said, was
quite useless in this regard. Once, they were careless and spoke in her hearing. Their words had
incandesced painfully in her mind, and she had fled to her room to weep for her dead father.
Jal tried the bathroom door; it was locked. He scratched his thick wavy hair before knocking gently. The
inquiry failed to elicit a response.
Coomy took over. "How many times have I told you, Pappa? Don't lock the door! If you fall or faint inside,
how will we get you out? Follow the rules!"
Source: Excerpted from Family Matters by Rohinton MistryCopyright 2002 by Rohinton Mistry. Excerpted
by permission of Knopf, a division of Random House, Inc. All rights reserved.

43. Which family member's affection is metaphorically compared to essential nourishment for a daughter's
growth, according to the passage?
(a) A biological mother's care (b) A stepfather's guidance
(c) A biological father's love (d) A grandmother's wisdom

44. What is the main concern expressed by Coomy regarding Nariman's actions?
(a) Fear of his potential isolation (b) Annoyance at his independence
(c) Disapproval of his daily routines (d) Worry over his physical safety

45. What does the description of Coomy and Jal's relationship suggest about their roles within the family?
(a) Coomy as the caretaker and Jal as the mediator
(b) Jal as the primary caregiver and Coomy as the assistant
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Coomy as the dominant sibling and Jal as the subordinate

(d) Jal and Coomy sharing equal responsibilities

46. Provide suitable antonyms for the following terms as used in the context of the passage: "luxuriated",
"abandonment", and "reluctant".
(a) endured, presence, enthusiastic
(b) discomforted, companionship, willing
(c) suffered, inclusion, eager
(d) despised, engagement, voluntary

47. Identify the type of sentence used in Jal's statement to Nariman: "Please don't go, Pappa, we beseech
you."
(a) Declarative statement (b) Exclamatory remark
(c) Interrogative request (d) Imperative plea

IX. Capitalism can be likened to a spiral staircase. Every economic advance is like a circle completed, then
comes a new problem, followed by a new circle above the old one, which means solving the problem,
only to give rise to another problem and another circle, and so on. So it was with globalisation, which
produced global prosperity but also hastened the spread of COVID, which led to the creation of new
vaccines; or cars and planes, which led to mobility and loneliness, which led, in turn, to social media and
new forms of connectedness. Out of these circles rising aloft comes the never-ending spiral we call our
economy.
That never-ending spiral may have reached an end in a part of the economy known as the ―caring
industry.‖ It is not the caring industry itself, composed of thousands of psychologists, social workers, and
coaches, that has ended. On the contrary, the number of caring professionals grows each year. The
number of social workers, who deliver most of the psychotherapy in the US, rose from 680,000 in 2016
to 708,000 in 2021, with another nine percent increase expected by 2030. With social breakdown,
people need other people to talk to about their everyday problems, and caring professionals fill this void.
What has ended is any pretence that the problem of everyday unhappiness is evolving, that talking
cures—including self-help and psychotherapy—are advancing, and that new circles are spiralling
upwards, solving old problems, creating new ones, and solving those too.

48. According to the passage, what does the spiral staircase metaphor suggest about the nature of
capitalism?
(a) Capitalism resolves problems permanently.
(b) Each solution in capitalism leads to new, unforeseen challenges.
(c) The economy is consistently declining as new problems arise.
(d) Capitalism is primarily focused on solving issues related to mobility and connectedness.
49. What does the passage suggest about the current state of the "caring industry"?
(a) The caring industry has declined significantly in recent years.
(b) The number of caring professionals is growing, but the effectiveness of talking cures is no longer
evolving.
(c) The caring industry has solved the problem of everyday unhappiness.
(d) The number of social workers has decreased due to the ineffectiveness of psychotherapy.

50. What argument does the author make about the future of self-help and psychotherapy?
(a) They are becoming more effective as society advances.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) They continue to evolve, solving new problems in the caring industry.
(c) They have reached a plateau where no new advancements are being made.
(d) They have become unnecessary as society's problems have largely been solved.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 58
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Notwithstanding objections, the Supreme Court in an interim order said that there should be no
demolition without its permission of properties of persons just because they are accused of being
involved in a crime.
―Till next date, there should be stay on demolition without leave of court,‖ a two-judge bench of Justices
B R Gavai and K V Viswanathan said, adding that it was passing the direction in exercise of its powers
under Article 142 of the Constitution. The bench clarified that the direction will not apply to removal of
unauthorised constructions on public streets, footpaths, railway lines or water bodies.
―Even if there is one instance of illegal demolition, it is against ethos of the Constitution,‖ remarked
Justice Viswanathan as the bench was hearing pleas which alleged that some states were carrying out
demolitions of houses of persons accused of involvement in crimes.
However, the bench questioned the timing and asked why the authorities suddenly acted in 2024 only.
Fixing the matter for hearing next on October 1, it said that ―heavens will not fall‖ if the demolitions are
not carried out for two weeks.
―Stay your hands. Nothing will happen in 15 days,‖ said Justice Gavai. The judge said the court had
already made it clear that it will not come in the way of removing unauthorised constructions, and added,
―but the executive can‘t be judge.‖
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
permission-sc-bulldozer-justice-9572483/

1. The primary challenge posed by the Supreme Court's interim order relates to:
(a) the balance between individual rights and public safety.
(b) the judicial oversight in preventing demolitions.
(c) the sudden timing of government actions in 2024.
(d) the application of different standards to public and private properties.

2. The main reason authorities‘ actions in 2024 are being scrutinized is:
(a) their failure to act in previous years.
(b) the lack of transparency in their decisions.
(c) the suddenness and timing of their interventions.
(d) the accusations being politically motivated.

3. The Supreme Court‘s attitude towards the demolitions carried out without permission can be described
as:
(a) supportive of executive powers in controlling unauthorised structures.
(b) critical of unauthorized actions against individuals accused of crimes.
(c) dismissive of any state involvement in such matters.
(d) neutral, allowing the executive to take necessary actions in public interest.

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

(a) The Court allowed demolitions of unauthorized structures on public lands.
(b) The Court expressed concern over the sudden action by the authorities in 2024.
(c) The Court ruled out demolitions of all kinds without judicial permission.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) The Court emphasized the constitutional ethos against illegal demolitions.

5. Statement 1: The Court has drawn a distinction between demolitions of private properties and
unauthorized public constructions.
Statement 2: The bench showed concern about the timing of the state‘s actions in 2024.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. Political theorists often argue that citizens need to have certain capabilities for their political projects to
be successful. Ancient and medieval political theorists, like Plato or Aquinas, often demand that people
receive advanced spiritual and civic education as a prerequisite for participating in rule. This training is
intricate. It takes time, and it can be expensive. Pre-industrial economic systems do not generate a very
big surplus. In highly stratified ancient republics, citizenship was often reserved for the rich and powerful.
Modern liberals, like Adam Smith or Benjamin Constant, tend to take a different approach – they argue
that most people already have the qualities that are necessary for citizenship. If they don‘t have them,
they can gain them by participating in markets and in civil society organisations, without need for careful
planning. It helps that modern liberals envision a more limited role for their citizens – they need enough
civic education to be able to vote for representatives, but they are not expected to make important
everyday political decisions.
Gandhi was a different sort of thinker. He wanted ordinary people to make difficult moral and political
judgments themselves. Instead of lowering the bar for citizenship or excluding the poor and the weak
from citizenship, Gandhi argues that it is possible to dramatically improve the capabilities of ordinary
people.
To do this, he called for the reconstruction of the varna system, in which young people adopt the
professions of their parents. In its original form, the system consists of four varnas. There are the
Brahmins, who serve as scholars, priests or teachers. There are the Kshatriyas, who serve as rulers,
administrators or warriors. There are the Vaishyas, who serve as farmers or merchants. Finally, there are
the Shudras, who serve as artisans, labourers or servants. The members of all four varnas are
householders, in the sense that it is permissible for people occupying any of the four varnas to produce
children. One‘s varna is determined by one‘s parents‘ varna.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
plan-to-empower-the-workers

6. Gandhi emphasized enhancing capabilities and the outcome of reconstructing the varna system was
perceived as ____?
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) restrictive (b) progressive
(c) controversial (d) regressive

7. ‗Participation without planning‘ posed a hurdle for citizens as

(a) they lacked essential civic education.
(b) they relied on spontaneous decisions.
(c) it did not allow them to fully understand political nuances.
(d) it encouraged passive involvement.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

8. Identify the sequence of events as theorized by political thinkers from ancient to modern times regarding
citizen education and participation.
(1) Modern liberals advocate for active participation without extensive prior planning.
(2) Gandhi promotes self-reliance in making political and moral judgments.
(3) Ancient theorists require rigorous education for governance roles.
(4) Spiritual and civic training are emphasized as costly and intricate.
Choose the appropriate option:
(a) (3), (4), (2), (1) (b) (3), (2), (4), (1)
(c) (1), (3), (4), (2) (d) (4), (3), (1), (2)

9. Reconstruction‘ in the context of Gandhi‘s approach means

(a) rebuilding from the ground up without historical reference.
(b) reverting to ancient practices in their original form.
(c) completely discarding old systems in favour of new ones.
(d) modifying traditional systems to enhance current societal roles.
10. The scarcity of economic surplus in pre-industrial systems is referred to as a ‗challenge‘ because
(a) it limited the scope of civic and spiritual education.
(b) it enhanced social stratification.
(c) it was difficult to maintain large administrative states.
(d) it forced reliance on agricultural outputs.

11. The shift from ancient to modern liberal theories regarding citizenship was necessary because:
(a) ancient systems were not sustainable economically.
(b) civic participation needed to be more inclusive.
(c) rigorous education was impractical for most citizens.
(d) political systems evolved towards representative democracy.

12. Segregating historical approaches to citizenship helps

(a) differentiate theoretical foundations.
(b) compare the economic viability of various systems.
(c) criticize modern approaches as overly simplistic.
(d) understand the evolution of civic roles.

III. There's another golden reason for travelling. A study made some new revelations that have made
travelling even more appealing. It applied the ‗theory of entropy‘ to travel, the general tendency of the
universe toward disorder and decay. This new perspective suggests that tourism can have positive
effects on the natural ageing process, helping to slow down physical and cognitive decline. Travelling
exposes people to new experiences that contribute to a holistic physical and mental wellness. Travelling
goes beyond leisure and is one of the factors responsible for a healthier life.
The researchers suggested that travel keeps the body in a state of low entropy. The state of low- entropy
means the body is functioning harmoniously and all the bodily systems are healthy and efficient. Positive
travel experience sustains the body and helps the four key bodily systems thrive.
Traveling introduces people to new environments and exploration reduces stress and boosts
metabolism. Exploring new places also activates the body‘s adaptive immune system and strengthens it.
The body's defense system becomes more resilient and stronger. Hormones that help repair and
regenerate tissues are released and boost the body's ability to heal itself. Travel relaxes and calms down
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

stress, and uncoils all the tension stored in muscles and joints. In a way, the calming mindset travel
offers helps to slow down the wear and tear of the muscles and joints.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
[Link]

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) academic paper on human anatomy
(b) technical guide on travel logistics
(c) government report on healthcare improvements
(d) wellness and lifestyle magazine article

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) to convince readers that travel is the best way to manage stress
(b) to explain how travel impacts the human immune system
(c) to argue that travel plays a vital role in both physical and mental wellness
(d) to compare the benefits of travel with other recreational activities

15. The passage mentions travel as promoting a ―low entropy state‖ to emphasize __________.
(a) the body's natural tendency to maintain balance
(b) the need for physical activity while traveling
(c) the role of sleep in restoring bodily functions
(d) the rejuvenating power of new experiences on body and mind

16. According to the passage, what is one of the primary benefits of travel on the body‘s systems?
(a) It forces the body to engage in rigorous physical activity.
(b) It strengthens the immune system through exposure to new environments.
(c) It leads to weight loss by boosting metabolism.
(d) It accelerates recovery from physical injuries.

17. The author‘s discussion of the connection between travel and the immune system is primarily intended to
______.
(a) highlight the positive effects of new experiences on health
(b) explain the importance of a balanced diet during travel
(c) suggest that travel may lead to harmful exposure to diseases
(d) advocate for vaccinations before traveling abroad

18. What does the passage suggest about travel‘s effect on stress levels?
(a) It alleviates stress by fostering mental tranquility and physical recovery.
(b) It causes persistent worries related to health and safety.
(c) It heightens stress due to the logistical demands of traveling.
(d) It amplifies stress through unfamiliar cultural encounters.
19. Which of the following best explains why travel helps to maintain a ―low entropy state‖?
(a) It requires a significant amount of physical energy.
(b) It leads to the breakdown of routine and monotony.
(c) It promotes harmony among the body‘s systems.
(d) It forces the body to adapt to new dietary conditions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

20. According to the passage, the release of hormones during travel primarily benefits which of the
following?
(a) The regulation of sleep cycles
(b) The improvement of short-term memory
(c) The efficiency of digestion and metabolism
(d) The body‘s ability to heal and regenerate

21. What can be inferred about the relationship between travel and cognitive decline?
(a) Travel accelerates cognitive decline due to stress and fatigue.
(b) Travel slows down cognitive decline by providing new mental challenges.
(c) Travel prevents cognitive decline entirely through exposure to new cultures.
(d) Travel has no significant impact on cognitive health according to the passage.

22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that travel helps to improve overall
wellness?
(a) Traveling frequently exposes individuals to new types of stress.
(b) Travel requires significant financial investment, making it inaccessible to many.
(c) The benefits of travel are limited to physical health and do not affect mental well-being.
(d) Travel is most effective when done in short, frequent trips rather than extended vacations.

IV. What makes computation possible? Seeking answers to that question, a hardware engineer from
another planet travels to Earth in the 21st century. After descending through our atmosphere, this
extraterrestrial explorer heads to one of our planet‘s largest data centres, the China Telecom-Inner
Mongolia Information Park, 470 kilometres west of Beijing. But computation is not easily discovered in
this sprawling mini-city of server farms. Scanning the almost-uncountable transistors inside the
Information Park, the visiting engineer might- be excused for thinking that the answer to their question
lies in the primary materials driving computational processes: silicon and metal oxides. After all, since the
1960s, most computational devices have relied on transistors and semiconductors made from these
metalloid materials.
If the off-world engineer had visited Earth several decades earlier, before the arrival of metal-oxide
transistors and silicon semiconductors, they might have found entirely different answers to their question.
And visiting a century earlier, long before the age of modern computing, an alien observer might come to
even stranger conclusions. If they had arrived in 1804, the year the Jacquard loom was patented, they
might have concluded that early forms of computation emerged from the plant matter and insect excreta
used to make the wooden frames, punch cards and silk threads involved in fabric-weaving looms, the
analogue precursors to modern programmable machines.
But if the visiting engineer did come to these conclusions, they would be wrong. Computation does not
emerge from silicon, tungsten, insect excreta or other materials. It emerges from procedures of reason or
logic.
This speculative tale is not only about the struggles of an off-world engineer. It is also an analogy for
humanity‘s attempts to answer one of our most difficult problems: life. For, just as an alien engineer
would struggle to understand computation through materials, so it is with humans studying our distant
origins.
Today, doubts about conventional explanations of life are growing and a wave of new general theories
has emerged to better define our origins. These suggest that life doesn‘t only depend on amino acids,
DNA, proteins and other forms of matter. Today, it can be digitally simulated, biologically synthesised or
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

made from entirely different materials to those that allowed our evolutionary ancestors to flourish. These
and other possibilities are inviting researchers to ask more fundamental questions: if the materials for life
can radically change – like the materials for computation – what stays the same? Are there deeper laws
or principles that make life possible?
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
process

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Expository (b) Analytical
(c) Speculative (d) Descriptive

24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?

(a) Cause: Discovery of computing materials, Effect: Understanding of computation
(b) Cause: Misinterpretation of materials, Effect: Misguided understanding of computation
(c) Cause: Advances in technology, Effect: Changes in the foundational materials of computation
(d) Cause: Exploration of different materials, Effect: Evolution of computational theories

25. What is the purpose of the word "emerges" in the passage?

(a) To denote a sudden appearance. (b) To emphasize gradual development.
(c) To indicate a foundational shift. (d) To suggest a definitive conclusion.

26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the assertion that materials do not define
computation?
(a) Historical data indicating that early computers were limited more by cultural than by material
constraints.
(b) Evidence that computational theory has evolved independently of material science.
(c) Studies showing that most computational advancements were due to improved algorithms, not
materials.
(d) Discovery of a new material that can significantly speed up computational processes.

27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements regarding the evolution of
computing materials?
(a) "Computing materials are the sole determinants of computational capabilities."
(b) "Advances in computing have always been constrained by available materials."
(c) "The choice of computing materials is irrelevant to computational theory."
(d) "Computational advances often precede innovations in materials."

28. The author implies that the belief in materials as the source of computation would be _____ to
understanding the true nature of computation. Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) beneficial (b) detrimental
(c) essential (d) complementary

29. Given the author‘s discussion on materials and computation, what stand would the author probably take
on the role of materials in technological innovation?
(a) The author would argue for a greater focus on material science in technology education.
(b) The author would likely advocate for a reduced emphasis on materials in discussing technological
advancements.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) The author would insist on a balanced view that equally emphasizes materials and algorithms.
(d) The author would promote the primary focus on algorithm development over material innovation.

30. In the passage, which sentence best exemplifies the use of metaphorical language to convey complexity
in technological evolution?
(a) "After descending through our atmosphere, this extraterrestrial explorer heads to one of our planet‘s
largest data centres."
(b) "It emerges from procedures of reason or logic."
(c) "If they had arrived in 1804, the year the Jacquard loom was patented..."
(d) "Scanning the almost-uncountable transistors inside the Information Park, the visiting engineer
might- be excused for thinking..."

31. Which of the following substitutions for "scanning" in the given sentence would NOT change the meaning
of the quoted sentence?
"Scanning the almost-uncountable transistors inside the Information Park, the visiting engineer might be
excused for thinking that the answer to their question lies in the primary materials driving computational
processes."
(a) Examining (b) Viewing
(c) Observing (d) Surveying

32. What is the writer‘s aim in comparing early computation methods to modern ones?
(a) To illustrate the progress in technology over time.
(b) To suggest that older methods were ineffective.
(c) To indicate that modern methods are overly complex.
(d) To convey that fundamental principles of computation remain unchanged despite technological
advances.

V. For years, two subway cars were filled with commuters, families and other riders trying to get around
Atlanta. Today, they‘re filled with fish. The retired railcars are now getting a second life at the bottom of
the Atlantic Ocean, where they‘re providing habitat for fish and other marine creatures. The artificial reef
is looking great, and we are encouraged by the amount of coral growth and marine wildlife activity.
Georgia‘s Coastal Resources Division has been building and improving artificial reefs meant to support
fisheries and create wildlife habitat for more than four decades. On the seafloor along the state‘s coast,
expanses of sand and shells stretch for tens of miles offshore—a habitat that‘s not well-suited for reef
growth. Instead, fish can spawn and take shelter among bridge supports, sunken ships, concrete rubble
and other man-made objects as part of the effort. And now, some of Atlanta‘s decommissioned railcars
have been added to the mix.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
full-of-commuters-atlantas-old-subway-cars-are-now-filled-with-fish-180985085/
33. The effectiveness of artificial reefs can be attributed to their_______
(1) uniqueness in the ecosystem. (2) role in supporting marine life.
(3) attractiveness to tourists. (4) resemblance to natural reefs.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (4) (d) (3) and (4)

34. A significant challenge for marine habitats along Georgia‘s coast is

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) the high cost of maintaining artificial reefs.

(b) the overpopulation of marine creatures.
(c) the pollution from nearby urban areas.
(d) the scarcity of natural reefs.

35. The phrase ―second life‖ in the context of the subway cars implies that
(a) they are reused after retirement.
(b) they are refurbished into newer models.
(c) they have become a tourist attraction.
(d) they are now more valuable than before.

36. Statement 1: The artificial reefs have significantly increased coral growth.
Statement 2: The artificial reefs attract a diverse range of marine wildlife.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. ―Providing habitat‖ in the context of artificial reefs refers to the process of
(a) cleaning the ocean floor.
(b) mapping underwater topographies.
(c) offering shelter and breeding grounds.
(d) researching marine life behaviours.

38. In which context is the term ―mix‖ used in a similar manner as in the passage?
(a) A committee included a mix of experienced and novice members.
(b) A cake was made using a store-bought mix.
(c) A mix-up at the office caused report delays.
(d) A playlist featured a mix of jazz and blues.

39. Which aspects have artificial reefs in Georgia improved according to the passage?
(a) Tourism and marine research.
(b) Shipping safety and navigational aids.
(c) Ocean floor mapping and pollution control.
(d) Coral growth and fish population.

VI. India is on the verge of creating a carbon market. The move will set emissions targets for emitters and
allow overachievers to sell their excess emission cuts, while underachievers will have to purchase them
to meet their goals. The market will be created once the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), comes
into force. In August 2024, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), which will implement CCTS, released
the scheme‘s compliance procedure (see ‗Evolution of...‘). But emission targets, which will determine
CCTS‘ effectiveness, are yet to be announced. BEE officials say CCTS will likely take effect by 2026.
Simply put, CCTS is a market-based mechanism to reduce or limit emissions. Its genesis lies in India‘s
commitment to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions—emissions reduction target for 2030
committed under the Paris Agreement of 2016. One of India‘s targets is to reduce the ―emissions
intensity of its GDP by 45 per cent from 2005 levels by 2030‖. In 2021, India also declared the target of
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

becoming a net-zero emitter by 2070. These global commitments and the increasing impacts of climate
change on India generated a need to limit emissions, leading to the government to launch new policies
and instruments. CCTS is one such instrument.
The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a tariff to be imposed by the European Union from
2026 (under which the bloc will put an additional price on imported products on the basis of green-house
gases emitted in manufacturing them) and the development of carbon markets by developing countries
like China and Indonesia, have also likely driven India towards CCTS. The challenge, however, is to
ensure that the scheme fulfils its purpose of reducing emissions.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
get-its-own-carbon-market

40. What could be a potential consequence for industries if they fail to comply with emission targets under
the CCTS?
(a) Increased investment opportunities in carbon-heavy sectors
(b) Higher operational costs due to mandatory purchases of carbon credits
(c) Boosted global competitiveness through innovation in emission reduction
(d) Decreased reliance on government subsidies for energy efficiency

41. How might external global economic pressures contribute to India‘s implementation of CCTS?
(a) By reducing India‘s focus on local industries‘ environmental impact
(b) By fostering international trade relations without emission controls
(c) Through global trade mechanisms that impose penalties on carbon-heavy imports
(d) By shifting India‘s policy focus away from global commitments and towards internal growth

42. What broader implication can be inferred from India‘s adoption of CCTS for the international community‘s
climate change efforts?
(a) It signals that developing countries are now leading the global charge on emission reduction
(b) It indicates that developed nations may need to compensate for lagging developing countries in
emission reduction
(c) It highlights the increasing global alignment on climate policies driven by both internal and external
pressures
(d) It suggests that the CCTS will enable India to bypass its global commitments under the Paris
Agreement

43. What can be inferred about the relationship between market-based mechanisms like CCTS and
economic development?
(a) Market-based mechanisms like CCTS create additional economic barriers for high-emission
industries
(b) They primarily act as a deterrent to foreign investment in developing countries
(c) Market-based mechanisms such as CCTS only impact developed economies, leaving developing
countries unaffected
(d) They provide opportunities for both innovation and compliance, leading to potential economic
benefits

44. What could be the significance of India‘s CCTS in shaping future national and global policy decisions on
climate change?
(a) It may signal a retreat from global climate agreements in favor of local policy adjustments
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It represents an opportunity for India to assume a leadership role in international climate discussions
(c) It will likely result in increased friction between India and other developing nations
(d) It suggests India‘s focus is shifting towards domestic economic growth over global climate
commitments
VII. Why are Europe‘s young voters moving towards right-wing parties? I ask this because it is the young
who are angry about inaction on climate change, and yet they are voting for parties that are most in
denial of this action. Why this paradox? What does it mean for our increasingly warm and at-risk Planet?
In the June 2024 European Parliament elections, voters under 30 years gave their support to what are
termed far-right parties, like the Alternative Fur Deutschland (AfD) in Germany, National Rally in France,
Vox in Spain, the Brothers of Italy, Enough in Portugal, Vlaams Belang in Belgium, Finns Party in Finland
and others. In many instances, it was a swing from the green vote in the 2019 elections to the far-right
vote in 2024. Does this mean that there is less appetite for climate action among the European youth?
Or does it mean that other concerns like unemployment and migration are taking precedence? Or, is it
because the youth in Europe believe that far-right parties will still stay the course on climate action?
The fact is, Europe is equally impacted by extreme weather events. And its action is not on track to
reduce emissions and limit the global temperature rise to the guardrail of 1.5°C above pre-industrial
levels. So, the youth, who will inherit this increasingly warmer and catastrophic world are bound to be
concerned—in fact, anguished and worried about their future.
Climate change is no longer the exclusive domain of the green and left parties. But when you consider
far-right parties‘ positions on climate change, there is a clear shift in emphasis if not a downright denial.
This suggests that there will be greater resistance against measures that are inconvenient and drastic—
the kind that are necessary to bend the curve of Planet-destroying emissions.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
paradoxical-turn-to-right

45. What does the term 'paradox' imply in the context of the passage?
(a) A straightforward situation with clear outcomes.
(b) A contradiction between the expectations and the actual behavior of young voters.
(c) An agreement among various political perspectives on climate issues.
(d) A predictable and consistent pattern in political voting trends.

46. Which statement is NOT a correct inference about the youth's voting behavior?
(a) The youth believe far-right parties will uphold climate action commitments.
(b) The youth's swing to far-right parties signifies a diminished interest in climate action.
(c) The youth are prioritizing other political issues over environmental concerns.
(d) The youth‘s vote for far-right parties indicates a uniform discontent with traditional parties' handling of
climate issues.
47. What does the reference to "increasingly warmer and catastrophic world" suggest about the youth's
concerns?
(a) Youth are disconnected from the realities of climate change.
(b) Youth are primarily focused on immediate economic conditions.
(c) Youth are deeply concerned about the long-term impacts of climate change.
(d) Youth are indifferent to the policy positions of the parties they vote for.

48. How does the phrase "far-right parties‘ positions on climate change" impact the perception of their
environmental policies?
(a) It reassures voters about the parties' commitment to sustainable practices.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It causes concern about potential rollbacks in environmental protections.

(c) It confirms the parties‘ alignment with international climate agreements.
(d) It highlights the parties' innovative approaches to environmental issues.

49. What is implied by the term "Planet-destroying emissions" in the passage?

(a) Emissions with minimal planetary impact.
(b) Emissions controlled well by current policies.
(c) Emissions eliminated by far-right policies.
(d) Emissions contributing to global warming.

50. What could be inferred about the future of climate policy in Europe given the youth's voting trends?
(a) There will be a unified and aggressive pursuit of climate goals.
(b) Climate policy will likely become more aligned with scientific recommendations.
(c) All European countries will meet their climate targets ahead of schedule.
(d) There may be a decrease in the priority given to climate issues.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 59
English Language

XV. The victim of any form of crime is considered the most neglected person in the Criminal Justice System
across the globe and India is no exception. The entire Criminal Justice System (CJS) focuses on
accused persons with the object of establishing their guilt or innocence. It takes care of criminal‘s trial,
conviction, retribution, reformation and rehabilitation. But sadly, the victim of crime is treated as a mere
witness in the prosecution of the offence. The victims suffer in the form of physical, emotional and mental
trauma, and economic losses are generally not taken into consideration, as he or she doesn‘t play any
central role in the entire criminal justice system. Victims of crime can be broadly classified into three
categories. The primary victim is the person who actually suffers physical or economic harm in the form
of loss of life, limb, dignity, honour and property. The secondary victims are dependents of the victim who
is either killed or has been incapacitated from doing any economic activity. Society is the third victim
because it suffers a violation of its laws. As the State must maintain law and order in society, it
undertakes the prosecution of criminals on behalf of individuals who have suffered and also to deter
potential criminals from going the wrong way. In the whole process, the victims of crime often feel
neglected and sidelined in the State‘s investigation and prosecution process. The primary focus of these
agencies will be on the accused persons and generally the plight of the victim is ignored. Although the
State bears the cost of investigation and prosecution, the consequential cost of crime is enormous on the
victim. It can be a physical injury in the form of death, partial and permanent disability, disfigurement and
other form of bodily injuries. Mental and health consequences in the form of depression, anxiety or post-
traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) for victims of sexual offence. Economic consequences may take the
form of property losses, medical and legal expenses or even the death of the sole breadwinner in the
family. In order to provide much-needed relief to the victims of crime, it is essential that the focus of
criminal justice system shifts from being accused-centric to victim-centric. The rights of victims should be
given focus and, he/she should be involved to play an active role during the investigation and trial.
Realizing this in 1985, the United Nations adopted the Declaration of Basic Principles of Justice for
Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power, recognizing four key rights for victims of crimes:
1. Access to justice and fair treatment: Victims have the right to access justice mechanisms, prompt
redress, and be informed of their rights. They are entitled to proper assistance throughout the legal
process and protection of their privacy and safety.
2. Restitution: Victims should receive restitution for harm or loss suffered, including the return of
property or financial compensation. If public officials or agents of the state have violated criminal
laws, victims should receive restitution from the state.
3. Compensation: When victims cannot fully recover compensation from the offender or other sources,
the state should provide financial compensation, particularly for violent crimes that result in bodily
injury, funded by national resources.
4. Assistance: Victims should receive necessary material, medical, psychological, and social support
through government, voluntary, and community services. Additionally, police, justice, health, and
social service personnel should be trained to assist victims effectively.
Source: The Hindu

69. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the current focus of the Criminal Justice
System?
(a) Victim rehabilitation (b) Societal protection
(c) Accused-centric approach (d) Equal focus on victim and accused
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

70. The author argues that victims of crime are neglected in the Criminal Justice System primarily because:
(a) They are not considered important witnesses
(b) They are treated merely as witnesses in the prosecution
(c) The system prioritizes societal protection over individual victims
(d) Victims refuse to participate in the legal process

71. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the relationship between the state
and victims of crime?
(a) The state fully compensates victims for all their losses
(b) Victims are satisfied with the state's handling of their cases
(c) The state's focus on prosecuting criminals may inadvertently neglect victims' needs
(d) The state actively discourages victims from participating in the legal process

72. The author's central thesis in this passage is that:

(a) The Criminal Justice System should be abolished
(b) Victims should be given more rights and play a more active role in the justice process
(c) Accused persons are treated unfairly in the current system
(d) Society is the primary victim of all crimes

73. Which of the following best elaborates on the statement "Society is the third victim because it suffers a
violation of its laws"?
(a) Society experiences direct physical harm from crimes
(b) The breach of societal norms and legal order affects the community as a whole
(c) Society bears the entire financial burden of the Criminal Justice System
(d) All members of society are potential victims of crime

74. Based on the information provided in the passage, one can conclude that:
(a) The UN Declaration of 1985 has successfully resolved all issues related to victims' rights
(b) Victim compensation is currently adequate in most criminal justice systems
(c) There is a growing recognition of the need to balance the rights of the accused with those of the
victims
(d) Victims are generally satisfied with their role in the current Criminal Justice System

XVI. I‘m almost ready to go. I did the dishes, swept dust and candy wrappers out from underneath the couch,
mopped the living room floor, wiped the bathroom sink clean of my toothpaste smears, and even made
my bed. I‘m back in front of my laptop, faced with a greater challenge: the inscription for my headstone in
no more than eight words. How do I sum up my life in eight words? He Lived Where He Died: In His
Bedroom. What a Waste of a Life. Children Take More Risks Than Him. I have to do better. Everyone
wanted so much more out of me, myself included. I have to honor this. It‘s my last day to do so. Here
Lies Mateo: He Lived for Everyone. I hit Submit. There‘s no going back. Yeah, I can edit, but that‘s not
how promises work, and living for everyone is a promise to the world. I know it‘s early in the day, but my
chest squeezes because it‘s also getting late, for a Decker, at least. I can‘t do this alone, the leaving
part. I‘m really not dragging Lidia into my End Day. Once I get out of here—not if—I‘ll go see Lidia and
Penny, but I‘m not telling Lidia. I don‘t want her to consider me dead before I am, or ever bring her any
sadness. Maybe I‘ll send her a postcard explaining everything while I‘m out living. What I need is a coach
who can double as a friend for me, or a friend who can serve as a coach for me. And that‘s what this
popular app often promoted on Count Downers provides. The Last Friend app is designed for lonely
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Deckers and for any good soul who wants to keep a Decker company in their final hours. This isn‘t to be
confused with Necro, which is intended for anyone who wants a one-night stand with a Decker—the
ultimate no-strings-attached app. I‘ve always been so disturbed by Necro, and not just because sex
makes me nervous. But no, the Last Friend app was created so people can feel worthy and loved before
they die. There are no user charges, unlike Necro, which goes for $7.99 a day, which disturbs me
because I can‘t help but feel as if a human is worth more than eight bucks. Anyway, just like any
potential new friendship, the relationships born from the Last Friend app can be pretty hit-or-miss. I was
once following this Count Downers feed where this Decker met a Last Friend, and she was slow about
updating, sometimes for hours, to the point where viewers in the chat room assumed she‘d died. She
was actually very much alive, just living her last day right, and after she died her Last Friend wrote a brief
eulogy that taught me more about the girl than I‘d learned in any of her updates. But it‘s not always
sweet like that. A few months ago this Decker with a sad life unwittingly befriended the infamous Last
Friend serial killer, and that was so tragic to read about, and one of the many reasons I struggle with
trusting this world. I think engaging with a Last Friend could do me some good. Then again, I don‘t know
if it‘s sadder to die alone or in the company of someone who not only doesn‘t mean anything to you, but
also probably doesn‘t care much for you either.
Source: They both die at the end by Adam Silvera
75. What is the main purpose of the "Last Friend" app as described in the passage?
(a) To provide one-night stands for Deckers
(b) To offer companionship to Deckers in their final hours
(c) To charge users for connecting with Deckers
(d) To create long-term friendships

76. Which of the following best describes the narrator's attitude towards the Necro app?
(a) Enthusiastic (b) Indifferent
(c) Disturbed (d) Curious

77. What does the passage suggest about the narrator's relationship with Lidia?
(a) They are estranged friends
(b) They are romantic partners
(c) They are close friends, but the narrator wants to protect her from sadness
(d) They have a purely professional relationship

78. What does the narrator's choice of headstone inscription reveal about their character?
(a) They are self-centered
(b) They have a dark sense of humor
(c) They feel a sense of obligation to others
(d) They are indecisive

79. Based on the passage, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a "Decker"?
(a) They know it's their last day alive (b) They often use apps like Last Friend
(c) They are always elderly (d) They may appear on Count Downers feeds

80. What does the narrator's description of the CountDowners feed incident suggest about the nature of Last
Friend relationships?
(a) They are always superficial
(b) They can be unpredictable in their depth and impact
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) They are consistently meaningful

(d) They always end in tragedy

XVII. The 6,000-tonne INS Arighaat will join its predecessor, the nuclear submarine INS Arihant, as a key
component of the country‘s nuclear triad. It refers to a country‘s ability to fire nuclear missiles from
platforms in the air, land and sea. India is in a select group of countries, including the United States,
Russia, China and France, which have nuclear triads.
India can fire missiles such as the Agni 2, the Agni 4 and the Agni 5 from land. Fighter jets of the Indian
Air Force, such as the Sukhoi Su-30MKIs and Mirage 2000s, can also fire nuclear missiles. While the
induction of INS Arihant into the Navy in 2016 added a maritime strike capability for the first time, the
commissioning of INS Arighaat will enhance its arsenal. The nuclear-propelled submarine will be armed
with indigenously made K-15 missiles, having a range of over 700 km. It has undergone extensive trials
over the last few months. Like INS Arihant, the INS Arighaat is powered by 83 MW pressurised light-
water nuclear reactors, allowing it to remain submerged for longer periods when compared to
conventional submarines. Being difficult to detect for long periods, the nuclear submarines will
strengthen India‘s ability to carry out retaliatory strikes in the maritime domain when needed. This also
assumes importance given India‘s ―No first-use‖ policy on nuclear weapons, which says it will never
initiate a nuclear attack against any other country, only using the weapons for deterrence and retaliation.
A nuclear submarine acts as a strong deterrent, showcasing formidable second-strike capabilities —
surviving a nuclear attack and then launching a counter-attack. The technological advancements
undertaken indigenously on this submarine make it significantly more advanced than INS Arihant, a
defence ministry statement said. It further said the construction of INS Arighaat involved advanced
design and manufacturing technology, detailed research and development, utilisation of special
materials, complex engineering and highly skilled workmanship. ―It has the distinction of having the
indigenous systems and equipment which were conceptualised, designed, manufactured and integrated
by the Indian scientists, industry and naval personnel,‖ it added. In 2016, the INS Arihant was
commissioned into the Navy as India‘s first nuclear submarine. The project for such a submarine was
initiated over three decades ago, with help from Russia, private firms and the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO).
Source: The Indian Express

81. What is the primary significance of INS Arighaat joining India's naval fleet?
(a) It's the first nuclear submarine in India's navy
(b) It enhances India's nuclear triad capability
(c) It's powered by a new type of nuclear reactor
(d) It can fire long-range Agni missiles

82. Which of the following statements is NOT true about India's nuclear capabilities?
(a) India can launch nuclear missiles from land, air, and sea
(b) India has a "No first-use" policy for nuclear weapons
(c) India's nuclear submarines are powered by pressurized heavy-water reactors
(d) The Sukhoi Su-30MKI can be used to deliver nuclear payloads
83. What is the author most likely to agree with regarding the importance of nuclear submarines for India?
(a) They primarily serve an offensive military purpose
(b) They are crucial for first-strike capabilities
(c) They strengthen India's deterrence and second-strike capabilities
(d) They are mainly used for conventional warfare
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

84. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the development of INS Arighaat?
(a) It was entirely dependent on foreign technology
(b) It involved significant indigenous technological advancements
(c) It was a direct copy of INS Arihant
(d) It relied primarily on off-the-shelf components

85. What can be inferred about the K-15 missiles mentioned in the passage?
(a) They are imported from other countries
(b) They have intercontinental range
(c) They are specifically designed for submarine launch
(d) They can only be used for conventional warfare

86. Which of the following best captures the central theme of the passage?
(a) The superiority of India's nuclear capabilities over other nations
(b) The history of India's nuclear submarine program
(c) The enhancement of India's nuclear deterrence through submarine capabilities
(d) The technical specifications of INS Arighaat

XVIII. The Pathans of Kashmir, a minority group in the region, have a rich cultural and ethnic diversity, with
their unique traditions and language being a significant part of their identity. They trace their origins to
the Pashtun tribes of Afghanistan and Pakistan and have established a centuries-old presence in
Kashmir for millennia. However, they are currently facing challenges that threaten their language and
cultural heritage.
The movement of Pashtuns to Kashmir can be traced back to multiple instances, particularly during the
reign of the Mughal Empire and the Afghan Durrani Empire as traders. Settlement started mostly during
the British Raj, and the Pathans emerged as prominent individuals in the area, often assuming roles as
military personnel, bureaucrats, and merchants. After the fall of the Afghan Empire in Kashmir, some
people suggested that they migrated to different areas and assimilated with the Kashmiri population to
avoid persecution by the Sikh Empire. Pashto is an old language with literature available for over 400
years. Sanaullah Khan, a news anchor at All India Radio for the Pashtun language, highlighted the two
dialects of Pashtun: eastern and western. Pashtuns have books from the pre-Akbar era, such as Shah
Nama in Pashto, and stories of grief and jubilation in their language. They are also known as "India
Pathankor" because Pashtuns came to India and never returned to their native lands. After partition, the
Pashto linguistic identity gradually started to dilute in both India and Pakistan. The educational system in
Kashmir favours Urdu and Kashmiri mediums of instruction, further propelling this linguistic shift. The
lack of institutional support for Pashto in the region exacerbates the situation, as compared to other
communities with robust mechanisms for language promotion. Cultural assimilation has significantly
contributed to the erosion of the Pathans' distinct cultural traditions. The Pathans have gradually
embraced Kashmiri customs due to the intricate social structure of Kashmir, but they mostly still follow
inter-caste/community marriages within their own Pashtu community. Pashtuns prefer simplicity and
inter-community marriages, which has allowed their culture to survive in Kashmir. Moreover, the process
of industrialisation and globalisation has brought about new cultural dynamics, specifically within the
younger Pathan population. The influence of global and regional media, along with the appeal of modern
lifestyles, has weakened traditional Pashtun cultural manifestations. The younger members of the group
often prioritise conforming to broader social norms rather than preserving their ancestral rituals.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Addressing these challenges requires concerted efforts to safeguard the rich Pashto heritage among the
Pathans of Kashmir for future generations to cherish and nurture.
Source: [Link]
cultural-erosion-in-kashmir

87. What does the passage suggest about the Pathans' integration into Kashmiri society?
(a) They have completely abandoned their cultural identity
(b) They have maintained strict isolation from Kashmiri customs
(c) They have gradually embraced Kashmiri customs while retaining some of their traditions
(d) They have actively resisted any form of cultural assimilation

88. Based on the passage, how has globalization affected the younger Pathan population?
(a) It has strengthened their connection to traditional Pashtun culture
(b) It has led to a complete rejection of their ancestral heritage
(c) It has caused them to prioritize broader social norms over ancestral rituals
(d) It has had no significant impact on their cultural identity

89. What does the phrase "India Pathankor" reveal about the Pathans' historical migration pattern?
(a) They frequently traveled between India and Afghanistan
(b) They settled permanently in India without returning to their native lands
(c) They maintained dual residences in India and their homeland
(d) They were forcibly relocated to India

90. How does the passage characterize the current state of the Pashto language in Kashmir?
(a) It is thriving due to strong institutional support
(b) It is facing gradual dilution and lack of institutional support
(c) It has completely disappeared from use
(d) It is the primary language of instruction in Kashmiri schools

91. What inference can be drawn about the Pathans' marriage practices based on the passage?
(a) They strictly prohibit inter-community marriages
(b) They have completely adopted Kashmiri marriage customs
(c) They generally prefer marriages within their own community
(d) They encourage marriages with other minority groups in Kashmir

92. Which of the following best describes the challenges faced by the Pathan community in preserving their
cultural identity, as presented in the passage?
(a) Active suppression by the majority population
(b) Legal restrictions on cultural practices
(c) Linguistic shifts, cultural assimilation, and modernization
(d) Lack of economic opportunities for cultural expression
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 60
English Language

I. The rise of artificial intelligence (AI) is revolutionizing industries across the globe. AI systems are now
being integrated into manufacturing, healthcare, and finance sectors to improve efficiency and reduce
human error. In manufacturing, robots equipped with AI are enhancing productivity by automating
complex tasks. In healthcare, AI algorithms help doctors diagnose diseases faster and more accurately.
The finance sector uses AI to detect fraud and predict market trends, enabling more informed decision-
making. However, the rapid advancement of AI raises ethical concerns, particularly regarding job
displacement and data privacy. Addressing these concerns requires balancing innovation with regulation
to ensure AI is used responsibly.

1. Based on the passage, the following suggestions may be made:

I. AI in manufacturing enhances productivity by automating complex tasks.
II. AI raises ethical concerns about job displacement and data privacy.
Which of the above suggestions is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

2. What is the crucial message conveyed by the passage?

(a) AI can solve all problems in industries.
(b) AI‘s integration into industries improves efficiency but raises ethical concerns.
(c) AI should be used only in healthcare and finance sectors.
(d) The rise of AI eliminates the need for human workers.

3. Which of the following is an advantage of AI, according to the passage?

(a) It replaces human workers entirely.
(b) It improves decision-making in the finance sector.
(c) It reduces the need for data privacy.
(d) It eliminates all risks in healthcare.

II. The global movement towards renewable energy has gained momentum in recent years. Countries are
shifting away from fossil fuels like coal and oil, investing in solar, wind, and hydroelectric power.
Renewable energy offers a sustainable alternative to traditional energy sources, reducing greenhouse
gas emissions and mitigating climate change. Additionally, renewable energy systems are becoming
more affordable due to technological advancements. However, transitioning to renewable energy on a
large scale presents challenges, including the need for substantial infrastructure investments and
political will. Collaborative efforts between governments, industries, and international organizations are
essential for a successful transition.
4. What is the crucial message conveyed by the passage?
(a) Renewable energy is affordable for all countries.
(b) Renewable energy is a sustainable alternative but requires large-scale investment.
(c) The global movement towards renewable energy is complete.
(d) Fossil fuels are more efficient than renewable energy sources.

5. Which challenge is associated with renewable energy, as per the passage?

(a) Lack of technological advancement.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) High greenhouse gas emissions.

(c) Need for political commitment and infrastructure investments.
(d) Absence of international collaboration.

III. Urbanization has led to significant changes in housing patterns and real estate markets. As cities grow,
demand for affordable housing has increased, but supply has not kept pace. This has resulted in rising
property prices and a shortage of housing for low-income families. Governments are now focusing on
affordable housing policies, such as rent control and public housing projects, to address this issue.
Additionally, developers are exploring sustainable housing solutions, including energy-efficient buildings
and eco-friendly materials, to cater to the rising demand for environmentally conscious living. However,
balancing affordability with sustainability remains a key challenge.

6. Based on the passage, the following suggestions may be made:

I. Affordable housing policies, such as rent control, help address the housing shortage for low-income
families.
II. Sustainable housing solutions, like energy-efficient buildings, are gaining importance in urban real
estate markets.
Which of the above suggestions is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

7. What is the crucial message conveyed by the passage?

(a) Urbanization has eliminated the need for affordable housing.
(b) Balancing affordability and sustainability is a challenge in urban housing
(c) Rent control is the only solution to affordable housing issues.
(d) Sustainable housing is not feasible in cities.

8. Which issue is highlighted by the passage regarding urbanization?

(a) Lack of demand for housing.
(b) Rising property prices and a shortage of affordable housing.
(c) Decreasing interest in sustainable living.
(d) Overproduction of eco-friendly housing.
IV. Biodiversity loss is a growing concern as ecosystems around the world face threats from human
activities. Deforestation, pollution, and climate change have led to the extinction of numerous species,
disrupting natural habitats. Conservation efforts, such as wildlife reserves and reforestation programs,
are essential to preserve biodiversity. Additionally, scientists are advocating for stronger environmental
policies and stricter regulations on industries that contribute to habitat destruction. Public awareness
campaigns are also playing a role in encouraging individuals to adopt eco-friendly practices. However,
the success of these efforts depends on long-term commitment and global cooperation.

9. What is the crucial message conveyed by the passage?

(a) Biodiversity loss can be reversed by stricter industry regulations.
(b) Preserving biodiversity requires a combination of conservation, regulation, and public awareness.
(c) Deforestation is the only threat to biodiversity.
(d) Public awareness alone can solve biodiversity loss.

10. Which factor contributes to biodiversity loss, as per the passage?

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Wildlife reserves.

(b) Public awareness campaigns.
(c) Habitat destruction due to human activities.
(d) Adoption of eco-friendly practices.

V. Jaswant Thada is a stunning white marble memorial built by Maharaja Sardar Singh in 1899 to honour
his father, Maharaja Jaswant Singh II, the 33rd ruler of the Rathore dynasty in Jodhpur. The memorial
was built for the beloved ruler of Jodhpur, Maharaja Jaswant Singh II. Known for his bravery, generosity,
and reforms, Maharaja Jaswant Singh II expanded the kingdom and built many forts, palaces, temples,
and gardens throughout the city. He also supported the arts and culture by patronizing musicians, poets,
and painters.
Wanting to pay tribute to his father‘s legacy, Maharaja Sardar Singh chose a site near Mehrangarh Fort,
the seat of power and pride of Jodhpur, to build Jaswant Thada. He appointed Ratnu and Laxhu, two
native artisans, to build this huge structure out of pure Makrana white marble, the same as that of the Taj
Mahal. They are also painted and photographed alongside other influential ruling families of Jodhpur and
other fort ancestors. This place is a truly stunning piece of architecture that blends Hindu and Mughal
design elements. It‘s like a temple with a central dome and four smaller domes at each corner, and the
Mughals heavily inspire the domes themselves. The main dome has a lotus motif on top, symbolising
purity and divinity. The walls of Jaswant Thada are made from fragile and polished white marble. It‘s so
translucent that it almost glows when sunlight hits it, and there‘s even lattice work on there that lets light
and air flow through. This creates all these beautiful patterns and shadows on the walls and floors. The
inside of Jaswant Thada is just as impressive as the outside. There‘s a big hall where the marble
cenotaph of Maharaja Jaswant Singh II sits on a raised platform. The cenotaph is surrounded by marble
pillars that support the dome above it, and the hall‘s walls are covered in paintings and portraits of past
Jodhpur rulers, showing off their achievements and personalities.
One of the most striking things about Jaswant Thada‘s design is how it contrasts with the red steps
leading up to it. The steps are made from red sandstone, which stands out against the monument‘s white
marble. Those steps also offer a great view over Jodhpur city and Mehrangarh Fort. Another exciting
thing about Jaswant Thada is its appearance in the lake below. This is an artificial body of water that
Maharaja Jaswant Singh II created for the sole purpose of supplying water to What‘s city. The lake just
blends in so perfectly with the peaceful surroundings of the place, and it is not a big surprise to see birds
and animals chilling there too, thus enhancing the general natural feel of the whole area.

11. What is the author's main argument regarding Jaswant Thada?

(a) It is primarily a tribute to Maharaja Jaswant Singh II's military achievements
(b) It represents a unique blend of Hindu and Mughal architectural styles
(c) It is the most important historical site in Jodhpur
(d) It was built solely to showcase the skill of local artisans

12. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The history of the Rathore dynasty in Jodhpur
(b) The architectural features and significance of Jaswant Thada
(c) The artistic patronage of Maharaja Jaswant Singh II
(d) The contrast between Jaswant Thada and Mehrangarh Fort

13. Which statement would the author most likely agree with?
(a) Jaswant Thada is architecturally superior to the Taj Mahal
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The memorial's design prioritizes functionality over aesthetics

(c) Jaswant Thada is a harmonious blend of natural and architectural elements
(d) The memorial's primary purpose is to showcase Jodhpur's wealth

14. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is true?

(a) Jaswant Thada was built entirely of red sandstone
(b) The memorial was commissioned by Maharaja Jaswant Singh II himself
(c) The marble used in Jaswant Thada is from the same source as that used in the Taj Mahal
(d) Jaswant Thada houses the remains of all Jodhpur rulers

15. What is the meaning closest to the word "cenotaph" as used in the passage?
(a) A type of dome (b) An empty tomb or monument
(c) A raised platform (d) A marble pillar
16. From the passage, one can conclude that:
(a) Jaswant Thada was primarily built as a water conservation project
(b) The memorial serves both aesthetic and functional purposes
(c) Maharaja Jaswant Singh II was unpopular among his subjects
(d) Jodhpur's architecture is predominantly influenced by Mughal styles

VI. In Ukraine, a handful of startups are developing Artificial Intelligence (AI) systems to help fly a vast fleet
of drones, taking warfare into uncharted territory as combatants race to gain a technological edge in
battle. Ukraine hopes a rollout of AI-enabled drones across the front line will help it overcome increasing
signal jamming by the Russians as well as enable unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) to work in larger
[Link] drone development in Ukraine is broadly split between visual systems helping identify targets
and fly drones into them, terrain mapping for navigation, and more complex programmes enabling UAVs
to operate in interconnected "swarms". Swarmer is one of more than 200 tech firms that have sprung up
since Russia launched its full-scale invasion in 2022, with civilians from IT backgrounds developing
drones and other devices to help Ukraine counter a much larger enemy.
Kupriienko said that while human pilots struggled to run operations involving more than five drones, AI
would be able to process hundreds. The system, called Styx, directs a web of reconnaissance and strike
drones, both large and small, in the air and on the ground. Every drone would be able to plan its own
moves and predict the behaviour of the others in the swarm, he said. As well as scaling up operations,
Kupriienko said automation would help protect drone pilots who operate close to the front lines and are a
priority target for enemy fire. Swarmer's technology is still under development and has only been trialled
on the battlefield experimentally, he added.
Samuel Bendett, Adjunct Senior Fellow at the Center for a New American Security, said AI drone control
systems would likely need a human in the loop to prevent the system making errors in target selection.
There are broad concerns about the ethics of weapons that exclude human judgment. A 2020 European
Parliament research paper warned that such systems could commit violations of international
humanitarian law and lower the threshold of going to [Link] is already being used in some of Ukraine's
long-range drone strikes which target military facilities and oil refineries hundreds of kilometres inside
Russia.
One Ukrainian official, speaking anonymously, told Reuters that the attacks sometimes involve a swarm
of about 20 drones. The core drones fly to the target, but it is the job of others to take out or distract air
defences along the way. To do this, they use a form of AI with human oversight to help spot targets or
threats and plan possible routes, the source added.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

17. What is the author's primary concern regarding the development of AI-enabled drones in Ukraine?
(a) The ethical implications of autonomous weapons
(b) The potential for AI to make errors in target selection
(c) The rapid advancement of drone technology in warfare
(d) The inability of AI to fully replace human pilots
18. What assumption does the passage make about the future of drone warfare?
(a) AI-controlled drones will completely replace human pilots
(b) Swarm technology will become the dominant form of drone warfare
(c) AI systems will significantly enhance drone capabilities and operations
(d) Ukraine will gain a decisive advantage over Russia through AI drones

19. In the context of the passage, what does the statement "taking warfare into uncharted territory" suggest?
(a) Drones are being used in unexplored geographical areas
(b) AI in warfare is leading to unprecedented and unpredictable scenarios
(c) Ukraine is developing secret military technologies
(d) Drone warfare is moving from land to sea operations

20. What can be inferred about the role of civilians in Ukraine's drone development?
(a) They are only involved in non-combat applications
(b) They are primarily focused on visual identification systems
(c) They play a significant role in advancing military technology
(d) They are discouraged from participating in drone development

VII. By the time Michael arose the next morning, Kilmartin House seemed to be back up and running as
befitted the home of an earl. There were fires in every grate, and a splendid breakfast had been laid out
in the informal dining room, with coddled eggs, ham, bacon, sausage, toast with butter and marmalade,
and his own personal favorite, broiled mackerel.
Francesca, however, was nowhere to be found. When he inquired after her, he was given a folded note
she‘d left for him earlier that morning. It seemed she felt that tongues might wag at their living alone
together at Kilmartin House, and so she had removed herself to her mother‘s residence at Number Five,
Bruton Street, until either Janet or Helen arrived down from Scotland. She did, however, invite him to call
upon her that day, as she was certain they had much to discuss. And Michael supposed she was right,
so once he‘d finished with his breakfast (finding, much to his great surprise, that he rather missed the
yogurts and dosas of his Indian morning meal), he stepped outside and made his way to Number Five.
He elected to walk; it wasn‘t very far, and the air had warmed appreciably since the icy gusts of the day
before. But mostly, he just wanted to take in the cityscape, to remind himself of the rhythms of London.
He‘d never noticed the particular smells and sounds of the capital before, how the clip-clop of horses‘
hooves combined with the festive shout of the flower seller and low rumble of cultured voices. There was
the sound of his feet on the pavement, and smell of roasting nuts, and the vague heft of soot in the air,
all combining to make something that was uniquely London. It was almost overpowering, which was
strange, because he remembered feeling precisely the same way upon landing in India four years
earlier. The humid air, redolent with spice and flowers, had shocked his every sense. It had felt almost
like an assault, leaving him drowsy and disoriented. And while his reaction to London wasn‘t quite that
dramatic, he still felt rather like the odd man out, his senses buffeted by smells and sounds that shouldn‘t
have felt so unfamiliar. Had he become a stranger in his own land? It seemed almost bizarre, and yet, as
he walked along the crowded streets of London‘s most exclusive shopping district, he couldn‘t help but
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think that he stood out, that anyone glancing upon him must instantly know that he was different,
removed from their very British existence.

21. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
(a) Michael preferred Indian breakfast over English breakfast
(b) Michael's senses were more overwhelmed in India than in London
(c) London's smells and sounds felt unfamiliar to Michael after his time away
(d) Michael regretted his decision to walk to Number Five, Bruton Street

22. The sentence "Had he become a stranger in his own land?" can be elaborated as:
(a) Michael felt completely alienated from British culture
(b) Michael questioned whether he still belonged in London
(c) Michael was excited to rediscover his homeland
(d) Michael was confident he could easily readjust to life in London

23. Which of the following best expresses the author's opinion about Michael's experience in London?
(a) Michael felt completely at ease in his familiar surroundings
(b) Michael was overwhelmed by the stark differences between London and India
(c) Michael experienced a sense of disconnection from his once-familiar environment
(d) Michael was excited to be back in London and barely noticed any changes

24. What does the phrase "tongues might wag" in the passage mean?
(a) People might gossip (b) Dogs might bark
(c) People might argue (d) Bells might ring
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 61
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. We humans are affected by the cycle of light and darkness that occurs every day. Our bodies have a 24-
hour (circadian) rhythm that is translated into physiological processes such as hormone secretion, which
in turn drive our actions. To stay in synchrony with the environment, and therefore to perform the right
activities at the right time, light serves as an alarm clock. This light synchronisation, photoentrainment,
happens in the brain by light signals coming from the eye. Many other species also depend on light to
provide them with cues for their daily routine. When these light patterns are disrupted, their natural
rhythms and behaviours can be affected. An example: tourism operators in the Maldives take boatloads
of visitors out at night, and shine bright lights of about 4000 watts on the ocean surface. Biological
activity in the water picks up as if it is morning, and tourists get to see whale sharks. Our vision is
enabled by the rods and cones, which are photoreceptor cells in the outer retina. The rods are very
sensitive to light but are not colour sensitive and so are most useful in dim light; the cones work best in
bright light, giving us colour vision. Rods and cones convert photons of light into electrical signals, which
are passed on to retinal ganglion cells. These cells process information from the retina and pass it on to
the brain. About 20 years ago, a new class of cells that could perceive light was found in the inner retina.
Called the intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGC), these cells contain a photopigment,
melanopsin, that allows them to directly respond to light. These cells have very important roles in our
body‘s interaction with light that are not related to seeing. Electrical impulses from the ipRGC travel to
areas of the brain that are involved in sleep, alertness and mood regulation. Signals also project to the
area of the brain that controls the pupils of the eyes, causing them to constrict in response to bright light.
Importantly, electrical signals travel to a part of the hypothalamus that regulates circadian rhythms. This
part of the brain has long been known to be the master clock, where your body‘s internal clock is
synchronised with the light-dark cycle in the outside world that is driven by the sun.
Source: The Hindu

1. What is the primary purpose of the intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGC) in the
human body?
(a) To enable colour vision
(b) To process visual information for object recognition
(c) To synchronize the body's internal clock with external light cycles
(d) To enhance night vision

2. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the impact of artificial light on marine
ecosystems?
(a) It has no significant effect on marine life
(b) It can disrupt natural biological rhythms and behaviors
(c) It only affects nocturnal marine species
(d) It improves the hunting abilities of marine predators

3. The author's stance on nighttime tourism activities in the Maldives can best be described as:
(a) Enthusiastic support (b) Neutral reportage
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Implied criticism (d) Laudatory

4. Which of the following statements is true about rods and cones in the human eye?
(a) Rods are more sensitive to color than cones
(b) Cones function better in dim light conditions
(c) Rods are more effective in low-light environments
(d) Both rods and cones convert sound waves into electrical signals

5. The information about tourism in the Maldives is likely included in the passage to:
(a) Promote nighttime whale shark watching tours
(b) Highlight the economic benefits of tourism
(c) Illustrate the potential negative effects of artificial light on natural cycles
(d) Compare marine ecosystems to human circadian rhythms

6. In the context of the passage, the word "photoentrainment" is closest in meaning to:
(a) Light absorption (b) Visual processing
(c) Circadian rhythm synchronization (d) Retinal cell development

II. Rogue waves — unusually large waves compared to ones which come before and after — pose a threat
to ships, coastal and offshore infrastructure, and human lives. Unfortunately, there has existed no
method to forecast rogue waves — until now. Using billions of data points collected by a network of 172
ocean buoys, University of Maryland mathematicians Thomas Breunung and Balakumar Balachandran
have trained an artificial intelligence programme to distinguish wave patterns that preceded rogue
waves, up to five minutes in advance. In oceanography, sea state refers to the condition of the surface of
a large body of water at a certain location, at a certain point of time. The World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) sea state code characterises sea state based on wave height on a scale of 0 (no
waves) to 9 (waves over 14 m). Rogue waves defy the average sea state, and are twice the size of
surrounding waves, according to the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
Such waves often form when swells — which occur not due to local winds, but distant weather systems
— converge to raise a single, amplified wave. They may also form when ocean currents compress swells
to create strong billows. While scientists have long known rogue waves are not altogether unpredictable,
the lack of a real-time forecasting method has had deadly consequences. According to oceanographer E
G Didenkulova, between 2011 and 2018, rogue waves killed at least 386 people and sank 24 ships
Breunung and Balachandran considered 20-minute long samples recorded by ocean buoys. For samples
containing rogue waves (as defined by NOAA), the recording ends at the point when the rogue waves
occur. The rogue wave samples were then compared to all other samples (in which rogue waves did not
occur) to train the AI programme. This programme was subsequently able to predict about 75% rogue
waves one minute in advance. Roughly 73% rogue waves could be predicted five minutes in advance.
Crucially, the researchers demonstrated that the tool could be used to predict the emergence of rogue
waves near two buoys at widely different depths not included within the data sets used for training the AI
— suggesting that the tool may have universal predictive capabilities.
The accuracy and advance warning time of the AI‘s forecasts could be further improved by incorporating
physical quantities such as water depths, wind speeds, and buoy locations, the researchers said.
Breunung hinted that harnessing more powerful AI architectures alongside more data may even lead to
near-perfect predictions in the future.
The study, ―Prediction of freak waves from buoy measurements‖, was published on July 18 in the journal
Scientific Reports.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: The Indian Express

7. According to the passage, why have rogue waves been particularly dangerous in the past?
(a) Due to their unpredictable nature (b) Because of their massive size
(c) Lack of a real-time forecasting method (d) Insufficient oceanographic data

8. The statement "Rogue waves defy the average sea state" implies that:
(a) Rogue waves are always the largest waves in the ocean
(b) Rogue waves do not follow typical wave patterns
(c) Rogue waves only occur in extreme weather conditions
(d) Rogue waves are impossible to measure accurately

9. Based on the passage, which of the following can be deduced about the AI tool developed by Breunung
and Balachandran?
(a) It can predict all rogue waves with 100% accuracy
(b) It works only for specific ocean depths
(c) It has potential for universal application across different ocean conditions
(d) It requires constant human supervision to function effectively

10. What is a plausible solution suggested in the passage to improve the AI's forecasting capabilities?
(a) Increasing the number of ocean buoys
(b) Incorporating additional physical data like water depths and wind speeds
(c) Extending the prediction time to more than five minutes
(d) Focusing solely on areas with frequent rogue wave occurrences

11. The notion expressed in the passage about the formation of rogue waves suggests that:
(a) They are solely caused by local wind patterns
(b) They result from a combination of various oceanic factors
(c) They are random events with no discernible cause
(d) They only occur in deep ocean waters

12. In the context of the passage, the antonym of "converge" would be:
(a) Diverge (b) Combine
(c) Merge (d) Unite

III. What is idealism? Throughout history, in most cases, philosophical idealism is a metaphysical position.
The idealist is concerned with reality‘s fundamental nature. It is often mistakenly thought to be a
reductive theory of the fundamental nature of reality. Many critics have supposed that the idealist tries to
reduce reality to the subjective states of individual minds. According to this form of subjective idealism
there is no world outside our minds. This view is often associated with the British empiricist Bishop
Berkeley (1685-1753). Famously, when told that such idealism was irrefutable, the English author
Samuel Johnson (1709-1784) shouted, ―I refute it thus‖ and kicked a stone. The idealist therefore is
thought to be the one who denies. They are anti-realist, anti-materialist, anti-naturalist, and certainly anti-
stones. This way of thinking about philosophical idealism is misleading. Many kinds of philosophers have
both voluntarily and involuntarily been referred to as idealists. However, they are united by an
understanding of idealism as a form of realism. Idealism is not a reductive philosophy. It argues for the
real existence of elements of reality often dismissed. It is a realism about ideas. Even Berkeley frames
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

his position as a realism. He wrote that ―the real things are those things I see, and feel, and perceive by
my senses.‖ Berkeley opposed his view to those who regard our rich conscious phenomenal world, the
world of tastes, feels, colours, and sounds, as in some way less real than the physical world. For
Berkeley, the real stone is the coloured object which we see and feel and that resists us when kicked. If
Johnson kicked the stone as hard as I imagine, he entered a world of pain. For Berkeley, this world is the
real world. His idealism is ampliative, not reductive. Its aim is to account for the full extent of our reality.
Berkeley, then, is not anti-stone. He argued that only idealism can do justice to stones. Although
idealism may refer to a doctrine that affirms the reality of our ideas in this subjective sense, there is
another sense of the word ‗idea.‘ This is the Platonic Idea, often referred to as ‗Form‘ or ‗Universal.‘
Idealism shares something in common with the modern philosophical view known as Platonism. But
there are significant differences. Platonists defend the existence of universals in addition to particular
properties. A Platonist about properties, for example, believes that in addition to the individual things in
the world that have redness amongst their properties, such as the red pen in front of me and the red
symbols on my computer screen, there is the universal redness. This universal isn‘t in front of me. It
doesn‘t exist anywhere in space or time. It is an abstract object. An abstract object is neither physical nor
mental. It is causally inert, fixed, and unchanging. Yet, when we see redness in the world, this redness is
an exemplification or instantiation of that universal. Particular red things are united by the fact that they
instantiate this universal. Accordingly, the modern Platonist seems to postulate two worlds. One of
abstract objects and another in which they are instantiated. However, since the abstract objects are
causally inert, the relationship between these worlds is mysterious.
Source: [Link]

13. The author's attitude towards the common perception of idealism can best be described as:
(a) Supportive (b) Neutral
(c) Critical (d) Indifferent

14. The sentence "Berkeley, then, is not anti-stone" implies that:

(a) Berkeley believed in the physical existence of stones
(b) Berkeley's idealism accommodates the reality of sensory experiences
(c) Berkeley rejected the concept of stones entirely
(d) Berkeley's philosophy was inconsistent with his beliefs about stones

15. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) Idealism is often misunderstood as a reductive philosophy
(b) Berkeley's idealism aims to account for the full extent of our reality
(c) Modern Platonism and idealism are essentially the same philosophical views
(d) Idealism argues for the real existence of elements often dismissed by other philosophies

16. Based on the passage, what can be concluded about the relationship between idealism and realism?
(a) They are completely opposed philosophical views
(b) Idealism is a form of realism about ideas
(c) Realism rejects all aspects of idealism
(d) Idealism and realism cannot coexist in any philosophical framework

17. The central theme of the passage is:

(a) The superiority of idealism over other philosophical views
(b) A critique of Berkeley's idealism
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) A clarification of the nature and scope of philosophical idealism

(d) The evolution of idealism throughout history

18. Which of the following would be the most suitable title for this passage?
(a) Berkeley's Idealism: A Misunderstood Philosophy
(b) The Conflict Between Idealism and Realism
(c) Understanding Idealism: Beyond Common Misconceptions
(d) The Historical Development of Idealist Thought

IV. I have never known my friend to be in better form, both mental and physical, than in the year ‘95. His
increasing fame had brought with it an immense practice, and I should be guilty of an indiscretion if I
were even to hint at the identity of some of the illustrious clients who crossed our humble threshold in
Baker Street. Holmes, however, like all great artists, lived for his art‘s sake, and, save in the case of the
Duke of Holdernesse, I have seldom known him claim any large reward for his inestimable services. So
unworldly was he—or so capricious—that he frequently refused his help to the powerful and wealthy
where the problem made no appeal to his sympathies, while he would devote weeks of most intense
application to the affairs of some humble client whose case presented those strange and dramatic
qualities which appealed to his imagination and challenged his ingenuity. In this memorable year ‘95 a
curious and incongruous succession of cases had engaged his attention, ranging from his famous
investigation of the sudden death of Cardinal Tosca—an inquiry which was carried out by him at the
express desire of His Holiness the Pope—down to his arrest of Wilson, the notorious canary-trainer,
which removed a plague-spot from the East-End of London. Close on the heels of these two famous
cases came the tragedy of Woodman‘s Lee, and the very obscure circumstances which surrounded the
death of Captain Peter Carey. No record of the doings of Mr. Sherlock Holmes would be complete which
did not include some account of this very unusual affair. During the first week of July my friend had been
absent so often and so long from our lodgings that I knew he had something on hand. The fact that
several rough-looking men called during that time and inquired for Captain Basil made me understand
that Holmes was working somewhere under one of the numerous disguises and names with which he
concealed his own formidable identity. He had at least five small refuges in different parts of London in
which he was able to change his personality. He said nothing of his business to me, and it was not my
habit to force a confidence. The first positive sign which he gave me of the direction which his
investigation was taking was an extraordinary one. He had gone out before breakfast, and I had sat
down to mine, when he strode into the room, his hat upon his head and a huge barbed-headed spear
tucked like an umbrella under his arm.
Source: The Adventure of Black Peter by Arthur Conan Doyle
19. What can be inferred about Holmes' approach to his work based on the passage?
(a) He prioritized financial gain over intellectual stimulation
(b) He only took cases that were high-profile or from wealthy clients
(c) He valued the intellectual challenge of a case over its monetary reward
(d) He avoided cases that involved powerful or influential individuals

20. Which of the following statements is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) Holmes sometimes worked under disguises and aliases
(b) The narrator was always aware of the details of Holmes' ongoing investigations
(c) Holmes had solved cases for both influential and ordinary clients
(d) The year 1895 was particularly eventful in Holmes' career
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

21. What argument is the author likely making about Holmes' character through the description of his case
selection?
(a) Holmes was inconsistent and unreliable in his work
(b) Holmes prioritized fame and recognition above all else
(c) Holmes was driven by a genuine passion for solving intriguing puzzles
(d) Holmes was primarily motivated by financial considerations

22. The author's tone in describing Holmes' activities and character can best be described as:
(a) Critical and disapproving (b) Admiring and respectful
(c) Neutral and detached (d) Sarcastic and mocking

23. How does the sentence "No record of the doings of Mr. Sherlock Holmes would be complete which did
not include some account of this very unusual affair" function in the passage?
(a) It introduces a new case that Holmes is about to investigate
(b) It emphasizes the significance of the upcoming narrative
(c) It concludes the list of Holmes' recent investigations
(d) It criticizes incomplete accounts of Holmes' work

24. In the context of the passage, what does the phrase "crossed our humble threshold" mean?
(a) Visited Holmes and the narrator at their residence
(b) Overcame a difficult challenge
(c) Passed by their house without entering
(d) Insulted their living conditions
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 62
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Mental health is a topic of a lot of public debate. As an area that infuses science, politics, philosophy,
morality, law, and many other areas, it is easy to see why. These debates and controversies can get
heated, which to some degree is unavoidable but, in others, is becoming an increasingly tiresome
product of rigid and oversimplified thinking that we would all do well to move on from.
Having been a part of these conversations for decades, there are a few errors I see being made
repeatedly in these public discourses. They come from two major and erroneous assumptions.
For decades, the classic nature versus nurture debate dominated the discussion. More recently, new
―camps‖ of people have arrived, who advocate that mental health problems are solely due to any of:
trauma, genetics, poverty, brain chemistry, nutrition, parenting, screens, or simply an over-pathologizing
of regular human traits and emotions.
For so much of the discussion, elevating one cause means squashing another. Either serotonin is the
primary driver of people getting depressed, for example, or it is completely irrelevant. What‘s ironic
behind these extremely common claims is that good research never supports the one-cause model.
Rather, it shows us over and over again that our mental health is a complex soup that develops from a
multitude of mutually interacting ingredients, operating at magnitudes that can be different for different
people.
Why we just can‘t seem to embrace this thoroughly supported truth is puzzling. Maybe it is just too
boring. Maybe it doesn‘t get enough clicks or book sales. It‘s a real mystery, but what isn‘t a puzzle is
how this urgent need to promote one cause of mental health at the expense of all others holds us back.
We all understand that differences exist between us, of course, but you wouldn‘t know it from reading
and listening to a lot of the commentary on various mental health-related topics. My bad reaction to a
particular medication means that all medications are evil. My mandated treatment that changed my life in
a positive way means that we should be doing this for everyone who resists help. The parenting
approach that worked for my kids will necessarily work for yours, too. We know that eating a peanut can
be a tasty snack for one person and a death sentence for another but, once again, there seems to be
this aversion to embracing any kind of complexity or diversity in our thinking.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
psychiatry/202402/our-biggest-mistakes-when-debating-mental-health

1. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with regarding the nature of mental
health discussions?
(a) The public discourse on mental health is enriched by the presence of diverse viewpoints that offer a
comprehensive understanding of its multifaceted causes.
(b) Elevating a single cause of mental health issues above others has proven to be the most effective
approach in understanding and treating these conditions.
(c) The insistence on promoting one cause of mental health issues at the expense of others is beneficial
as it simplifies complex concepts for the general public.
(d) The complexity of mental health issues necessitates a multifaceted approach to understanding and
treatment, rather than a singular focus.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage about the public debate on mental
health?
(a) The debate has shifted from a simple nature versus nurture discussion to include a variety of singular
causes advocated by different groups.
(b) Good research consistently supports the one-cause model as the most accurate explanation for
mental health problems.
(c) The author suggests that the complexity of mental health is often overlooked in favour of more
simplistic explanations.
(d) The reluctance to embrace the complexity of mental health issues is criticized as being
counterproductive to advancing understanding and treatment.

3. What does the metaphorical use of "soup" in the passage implicitly suggest about the author's view on
mental health issues?
(a) It underlines the author's belief in a simplistic approach where mental health can be easily
deciphered and addressed with uniform solutions.
(b) It subtly conveys a preference for focusing on single factors at a time to simplify the complex nature
of mental health for public understanding.
(c) It indicates a nuanced understanding that mental health issues are not monolithic but rather a blend
of various factors that interact in complex ways.
(d) It hints at the author's skepticism towards the multifaceted nature of mental health, advocating
instead for a reductionist perspective that prioritizes certain causes over others.

4. Which of the following statements does the author most likely agree with regarding the impact of
personal experiences on mental health discussions?
(a) Personal experiences should be the cornerstone of all mental health discussions and policy-making,
as they provide incontrovertible evidence of what works and what doesn't.
(b) While personal experiences add valuable insights, generalizing these to everyone can oversimplify
and misrepresent the complexity of mental health issues.
(c) Personal experiences are irrelevant to mental health discussions, as only clinical research can
provide the objective truth needed for understanding and treatment.
(d) Sharing personal experiences in mental health discussions only serves to confuse and derail
meaningful debate on the subject.

5. Which of the following accurately reflects the passage's stance on the role of research in mental health
discussions?
(a) Research findings are often overshadowed by narratives that are more easily marketable or
sensational, detracting from a nuanced understanding of mental health.
(b) Comprehensive research consistently supports a singular approach to mental health issues,
underscoring the predominance of one factor over others.
(c) The author posits that the complexity highlighted by research findings fails to engage public interest,
leading to its underrepresentation in media and discussions.
(d) High-quality research unequivocally identifies brain chemistry as the primary factor in mental health
conditions, simplifying treatment approaches.

6. In the context of the passage, which word most closely aligns with the author's critique of "oversimplified"
thinking in public debates about mental health?
(a) Multifaceted (b) Monolithic
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Elemental (d) Intricate

II. A phase-3 trial in Malawi, Africa, a typhoid fever-endemic region, demonstrated that the efficacy of
Bharat Biotech‘s Typbar, a conjugate typhoid toxoid vaccine, persists for at least four years. The trial
included children aged nine months to 12 years, all of whom received a single vaccine dose between
February and September of a particular year.
The study was a randomized, controlled, double-blind trial, a first of its kind to assess the long-term
efficacy of a single typhoid vaccine dose in such a setting. Participants were either administered Bharat
Biotech‘s typhoid vaccine or a meningococcal A conjugate (MenA) vaccine, serving as the control. The
trial's design ensured that neither the researchers nor the participants knew who received which vaccine.
The vaccine's efficacy was notable across all age groups, with the highest observed in children aged two
to four years and five to 12 years. During the median follow-up period, a smaller number of vaccinated
children contracted typhoid compared to those in the control group, indicating the vaccine's protective
effect.
The study's results, published in The Lancet, highlight the vaccine's sustained efficacy over time, with a
minimal reduction in effectiveness per year over a four-year span. This long-term protection is especially
crucial for younger children, given the consistent incidence of typhoid fever across age groups in the
control population. The trial's findings underscore the vaccine's potential in preventing typhoid infections,
with a significant absolute risk reduction per thousand vaccinated children. This efficacy translates to a
substantial number of vaccinations needed to prevent a single case of typhoid fever, showcasing the
vaccine's impact in endemic regions.
Previous trials with shorter follow-up periods had already demonstrated the vaccine's high efficacy, and
this study further supports its long-term effectiveness and cost-efficiency. The authors emphasize the
vaccine's consistent protection over an extended period, reinforcing its role in combating typhoid fever,
particularly in high-risk areas. The study also paves the way for future research, including the
assessment of a booster dose's immunogenicity nearly five years after the initial vaccination, to further
understand and enhance the vaccine's protective capabilities over time.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
typhoid-vaccine-efficacy-lasts-for-four-years-study/[Link]

7. Which statement best captures the significance of the trial's design in ensuring the reliability of its
findings?
(a) The trial's double-blind nature minimized biases, leading to a clear distinction in typhoid incidence
between the vaccinated and control groups.
(b) By selecting children aged nine months to 12 years, the trial aimed to evaluate the vaccine's efficacy
across a broad pediatric age range.
(c) The inclusion of a control vaccine (MenA) rather than a placebo allowed for a more ethical
comparison without withholding potential benefits.
(d) The randomization process ensured an equitable distribution of participants, thereby preventing any
pre-existing health conditions from skewing the results.

8. Based on the passage, how does the author likely perceive the role of randomized, controlled, double-
blind trials in medical research?
(a) As a necessary but cumbersome process that complicates the interpretation of results due to the
intricate setup required.
(b) As the gold standard that provides unequivocal evidence of a medical intervention's efficacy and
safety, despite its complexity.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) As one of many equally valid methods to evaluate medical interventions, with its specific utility
depending on the context of the research.
(d) As an outdated approach that is being steadily replaced by more innovative and less resource-
intensive research methodologies.
9. What does "the vaccine's protective effect" imply about Typbar's role in the trial?
(a) Typbar possibly offers a universal shield against typhoid, transcending the environmental boundaries
of Malawi.
(b) The efficacy of Typbar could be somewhat reliant on external variables, including the sanitation
standards of the local environment.
(c) Typbar provided a notable defense against typhoid, evidenced by the fewer instances of the disease
among the immunized children.
(d) While Typbar shows promise, its efficacy might not be ample to endorse its widespread adoption
without further improvements.

10. In the context of the passage, what does "sustained efficacy" most closely mean?
(a) The ability of the vaccine to maintain its effectiveness over a short period following vaccination
before requiring a booster.
(b) A consistent level of protection against typhoid fever that does not diminish significantly over time,
even without additional doses.
(c) The gradual increase in the vaccine's protective capabilities as it adapts to the evolving strains of
typhoid bacteria.
(d) The vaccine's capacity to provide immediate, but not long-lasting, immunity against typhoid fever,
necessitating frequent re-vaccination.

11. What does the passage imply about the potential need for a booster dose of the Typbar vaccine?
(a) Future research may explore the benefits of a booster dose nearly five years post-initial vaccination,
hinting at its potential utility.
(b) Given the vaccine's long-term efficacy, the study suggests the immediate necessity of a booster
dose is currently under evaluation.
(c) The passage hints at ongoing discussions about the efficacy of booster doses, considering the
minimal effectiveness reduction over time.
(d) Research on booster doses, nearly five years after the initial shot, suggests a proactive approach to
enhancing long-term immunity.

12. Which concept would the author likely refute regarding the study's implications?
(a) Annual booster doses of Typbar might be redundant, given the minimal decline in its effectiveness
over the observed period.
(b) Assessing long-term vaccine efficacy might be better served through methodologies other than
randomized, controlled, double-blind trials.
(c) The research significantly bolsters the global strategy against typhoid fever in endemic areas,
affirming the trial's value.
(d) Concentrating future studies solely on novel vaccine development could be more crucial than
investigating the merits of booster doses.
III. In Graz, Austria, researchers at TU Graz have developed a patch of 'artificial skin' or 'smart skin' that is
touted to be more sensitive than the human fingertip. This innovative material is a result of the
'SmartCore' project, led by Dr. Anna Maria Coclite and her team from the Institute of Solid-State Physics
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

at Graz University of Technology (TU Graz). The project recently received Proof of Concept funding from
the European Research Council.
SmartCore is a three-in-one hybrid material that mimics human skin by sensing pressure, moisture, and
temperature and converting these stimuli into electronic signals. Remarkably, with 2,000 individual
sensors per square millimeter, this material is more sensitive than a human fingertip and is significantly
thinner than human skin. The smart skin prototype stands out in the market of electronic skin materials
by reacting to three human sensory impressions, unlike other materials that only respond to pressure
and temperature.
Dr. Coclite explains that artificial skins are materials designed to emulate the functionality of human skin,
focusing on sensing properties in this particular case. The smart skin can differentiate between colder
and warmer objects and detect objects with or without spikes, similar to human skin. The resolution of
the artificial skin is finer than that of human skin, allowing it to provide more integrated and precise
responses and sense smaller objects.
The materials used in the prototype are fundamental to its functionality. It includes a piezoelectric
material that generates an electric current when compressed or stretched, allowing the artificial skin to
sense force or pressure. Another key component is a smart polymer that changes thickness based on
humidity and temperature. These materials are combined in nano rods, with the polymer in the middle
and the piezoelectric material on the outside. When the polymer expands due to changes in temperature
or humidity, it applies pressure on the piezoelectric material, generating an electrical current. The
inspiration for the smart polymer comes from biomimetic examples, such as pine cones or plant leaves,
which change shape and thickness in response to humidity and temperature. The materials used are
biocompatible, considering potential biomedical applications. The sensors are made using a precise
chemical vapor deposition technique, ensuring a high resolution below that of human skin.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
when-artificial-skin-is-more-sensitive-than-the-original/[Link]

13. What can be inferred about the potential applications of the 'smart skin' based on its described
properties?
(a) The 'smart skin' is primarily intended for industrial applications, such as enhancing the sensitivity of
robotic equipment in manufacturing settings.
(b) The 'smart skin' is developed for environmental monitoring, focusing on detecting changes in
atmospheric conditions.
(c) The 'smart skin' is designed for consumer electronics, aiming to improve the tactile response of
devices like smartphones and tablets.
(d) The 'smart skin' is likely to be used in medical fields, possibly in prosthetics or as a tool for
monitoring patients' vital signs.
14. In the context of the passage, how does the use of the word 'biocompatible' (in "The materials used are
biocompatible, considering potential biomedical applications") influence the perception of the smart skin's
applicability?
(a) 'Biocompatible' suggests the smart skin is primarily intended for environmental monitoring, with
limited human interaction.
(b) 'Biocompatible' implies the smart skin is designed with adaptability to various technological devices,
enhancing its versatility.
(c) 'Biocompatible' denotes the smart skin's suitability for integration with human tissue, emphasizing its
potential in medical fields.
(d) 'Biocompatible' indicates the smart skin's resistance to biological elements, focusing on its durability
in harsh conditions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

15. Which of the following statements would the author of the passage most likely disagree with?
(a) The 'smart skin' represents a significant advancement in the field of artificial skins, surpassing human
skin in sensitivity and resolution.
(b) The 'smart skin' is an incremental improvement over existing electronic skin materials, offering only
marginal benefits.
(c) The 'smart skin' is a revolutionary material that combines multiple sensory capabilities in a way that
mimics human skin closely.
(d) The 'smart skin' has the potential to revolutionize various industries due to its unique combination of
sensitivity and biocompatibility.

16. According to the passage, what is the significance of the piezoelectric material in the smart skin
prototype?
(a) It generates an electric current when exposed to changes in humidity and temperature, enhancing
the skin's sensitivity.
(b) It serves as a protective layer for the nano rods, ensuring the durability and longevity of the smart
skin.
(c) It produces an electric current when compressed or stretched, allowing the skin to sense force or
pressure.
(d) It acts as a binding agent for the smart polymer, maintaining the structural integrity of the smart skin.

17. Which idiom best represents the statement "The smart skin prototype stands out in the market of
electronic skin materials by reacting to three human sensory impressions"?
(a) A cut above the rest – indicating that the 'smart skin' is superior to other electronic skin materials in
the market.
(b) All bark and no bite – suggesting that the 'smart skin' promises more than it can deliver.
(c) A drop in the ocean – implying that the 'smart skin' is just a minor improvement in a vast market of
electronic skin materials.
(d) A flash in the pan – indicating that the 'smart skin's uniqueness is temporary and not likely to have a
lasting impact.
18. What is the primary focus of the passage regarding the development of 'smart skin' by TU Graz
researchers?
(a) Highlighting the biocompatibility of materials used in smart skin for potential biomedical applications.
(b) Detailing the technical specifications and material composition of the smart skin prototype.
(c) Emphasizing the superiority of smart skin's sensitivity compared to the human fingertip.
(d) Discussing the inspiration behind the smart polymer used in smart skin from biomimetic examples.

IV. As winter intensifies in various regions, cold waves emerge as a significant threat, affecting community
well-being on multiple levels. These waves bring not only bone-chilling temperatures but also a range of
physical and mental health challenges. Physically, communities face numerous health risks due to
extreme cold. Hypothermia becomes a concern as the body loses heat rapidly, leading to symptoms like
shivering and confusion, and in severe cases, it can be life-threatening. Respiratory conditions are
exacerbated by the cold air, with ailments like asthma and bronchitis becoming more pronounced. Kiran
Madala, Head of Critical Care at Government Medical College Nizamabad, points out the increased
difficulty in breathing for individuals with pre-existing respiratory issues during the winter months.
Cardiovascular health is also at risk as the heart must work harder to maintain a stable internal
temperature, leading to elevated blood pressure and heart rate. This is particularly concerning for
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

individuals with underlying heart conditions. Additionally, the overlap of cold waves with flu season
increases the health risks for communities, making the winter period especially challenging.
Beyond the physical effects, the psychological impact of cold waves is profound. Social interactions tend
to decrease during cold spells, affecting mental health. The lack of sunlight and limited mobility due to
weather conditions can lead to Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD). Bona Colaco, a clinical psychologist
based in Hyderabad, emphasizes the importance of human connection for mental well-being, noting that
the uncertainty of weather conditions can lead to mood fluctuations during periods of reduced sunlight.
Sleep patterns are also disrupted by the cold, as the discomfort makes it difficult to achieve restful sleep.
The combination of physical discomfort and mental strain creates a challenging environment for
individuals during the winter season. To address these challenges, psychologists recommend proactive
measures. Engaging in comforting activities and maintaining social interactions can be beneficial.
Adjusting daily routines, such as scheduling physical exercises during warmer parts of the day, can help
mitigate the impact of the cold. These strategies aim to help individuals cope with the physical and
mental toll of cold waves, enhancing community well-being during the harsh winter months.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
physical-and-mental-toll-of-cold-waves-on-community-well-being/[Link]
19. What is the primary implication of the passage regarding the relationship between cold waves and
community health?
(a) Cold waves are a trivial disruption that marginally alters the daily life of communities.
(b) Communities exhibit robust resilience to cold waves, effectively diminishing their influence on health
and daily activities.
(c) The influence of cold waves is chiefly on mental health, with physical health repercussions being of
lesser importance.
(d) Cold waves represent a complex hazard, exerting substantial influence on both physiological and
psychological health.

20. What is the antonym of "exacerbated" as used in the context of respiratory conditions during cold
waves?
(a) Aggravated (b) Alleviated
(c) Intensified (d) Worsened

21. Which piece of information from the passage most directly supports the assertion that cold waves have a
considerable effect on heart health?
(a) The rapid loss of body heat during cold waves triggers symptoms such as shivering, indicative of the
body's struggle to maintain warmth.
(b) The heart's burden increases during cold spells, necessitating extra effort to stabilize internal
warmth, which in turn heightens cardiac workload indicators.
(c) Diminished sunlight and restricted movement in cold weather are linked to mood disorders, but not
directly to heart health.
(d) While engaging in comforting activities and socializing can improve overall well-being, they do not
directly address the heart's increased workload in cold conditions.

22. What is the tone of the passage as it explores the impacts of cold waves and offers coping strategies?
(a) Optimistic (b) Pessimistic
(c) Informative (d) Indifferent

23. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the passage?

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The impact of cold waves on nocturnal rest is minimal, barely affecting the quality of sleep.
(b) Chilly periods lead to a reduction in social interactions, potentially triggering Seasonal Affective
Disorder (SAD).
(c) Cold waves intensify respiratory issues and elevate risks associated with heart health.
(d) Adopting comforting routines and preserving interpersonal connections can alleviate the effects of
cold waves.

24. According to the passage, what are the recommended strategies to cope with the challenges posed by
cold waves?
(a) Enhancing physical exertion during colder periods and minimizing social engagements.
(b) Embracing activities that provide solace, nurturing social connections, and tailoring daily routines.
(c) Relying predominantly on therapeutic measures to confront the physical repercussions of cold
waves.
(d) Focusing primarily on the physical ramifications while overlooking the psychological impacts of cold
waves.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 63
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. John Rawls‘s starting point was the striking and profound moral claim that each person possesses an
inviolability that no society can override: in terms borrowed from Kant, the individuals were always to be
regarded as ends in themselves and never merely as means to some other collective project. A proper
theory of justice would, he argued, give full expression to our status as free and equal beings. He argued
that we could come up with a conception of justice that was fair if we imagined ourselves in what he
called an ―original position‖. Conduct this thought experiment. What rules of justice would citizens
deliberating together choose if they knew some general facts about society, but did not know what their
own position in society was going to be: which class they belonged to, what their particular beliefs were
going to be, what talents they might possess and so forth? It is likely that the rules of justice chosen
under such conditions of deliberation would be impartial, just and binding on all because, they were
chosen under conditions that were themselves impartial and honoured each individual‘s moral status as
free and equal beings.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, ―JUSTLY FAMOUS - John Rawls's liberalism
speaks to all societies divided by difference‖, written by Mr. Pratap Bhanu Mehta and published in The
Telegram.

1. According to John Rawls, the purpose of the ―original position‖ thought experiment is:
(a) to allow citizens to understand their roles in society based on their social class and talents.
(b) to determine the rules of justice that citizens would choose without knowing their own position in
society.
(c) to identify how society should function through collective projects for the greater good.
(d) to create a system where individuals can pursue their personal goals without concern for justice.

2. How does John Rawls‘s idea of justice draw from Kantian ethical principles?
(a) It claims that individuals should always put the interests of society ahead of their personal moral
entitlements.
(b) It argues that individuals can be used to fulfill the objectives of a fair society.
(c) It stresses that people should be valued for their own sake and not simply as tools for achieving
societal goals.
(d) It suggests that justice is achieved by maximizing the overall happiness of the community.
II. Literacy is not to be viewed in the minimal sense. To be literate is to be wise, productive and creative
and perfect. When we talk about mass literacy we should talk about mass perfection. The Chinese call it
‗yu' or ‗how to flow.'
To create mass culture is not easy. Masses get accustomed to what they get by minimum effort.
Everyone is a hero in mass culture. The Indian hero has to place the emphasis on culture, not on wealth.
The West is wealth oriented. Why should India tread the trodden path? Culture based on originality is a
path not chosen by others. Because it is difficult and heroic. But once achieved the results will be
beneficial on a wide variety of fronts. Mass Indian culture will be democratic, green, peaceful and socially
innovative. Material comforts will be there but not in a stifling way.
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It is now clear that the industrial revolution of the West has been easy to copy by other countries. India is
no exception. The Indian economy has been doing well for the past decade. But to deal with the side
effects of industrialisation like global warming is much more difficult. It requires unity of approach, which
only a strong cultural base can give. Thus development means a parallel ability to keep the show going
on all fronts. The Industrial revolution can give us prosperity but we have to decide by our intellectual
vitality what kind of prosperity that will be. The environment and resources have to be conserved if
development is to be meaningful. Creative aspects of development have to be answered by culture. To
exchange the boredom of poverty for the boredom of affluence is not wise. It requires a greater
intellectual effort than that required for material progress.
Our world is prosperous but not orderly. This disorder comes from fragmentation. In the atom particles
are in their place. If they fly in different directions, the atom cannot exist as a whole. In the atom, nature
has provided for spontaneous unifying forces to keep the order that is implicate. Man has not found that
wholeness and freedom. The Industrial age demands a new faith which only culture can provide. To go
beyond the fragment and see a unity that binds all human beings is the work of culture that liberates. To
be rich and frustrated is a waste of human potential. A new prosperity should include the spirit too. Indian
culture must put together different strands of its intellectual strength to arrive at the spirit of freedom and
anchor itself there permanently and gracefully.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, ―Is culture the way forward?‖, written by Mr.
Ganapati Ramakrishnan and published in The Hindu.

3. According to the passage, the challenge India faces in creating mass culture is:
(a) adapting Western cultural models of wealth accumulation and industrial success.
(b) encouraging the masses to embrace a culture that prioritizes originality and intellectual effort.
(c) finding a way to blend industrialization with rapid wealth generation for the masses.
(d) overcoming the reluctance of the masses to engage in industrial work over agricultural traditions.

4. According to the passage, what does the author mean by ―This disorder comes from fragmentation‖?
(a) The division between different industries and sectors causes disorder in society.
(b) Fragmentation refers to the lack of a unifying cultural and spiritual framework to development that
leads to societal chaos.
(c) Fragmentation is the breaking up of social classes, causing economic imbalance and disunity.
(d) Disorder arises from the technological advancements that have separated human connections from
nature.

5. What key insight does the passage suggest India should take from the experience of the Western
Industrial Revolution?
(a) The Western Industrial Revolution provides a perfect example of economic growth that India should
follow entirely.
(b) Industrial growth should take priority in India, with environmental issues dealt with after economic
success is secured.
(c) The focus of India‘s development should be on replicating the West‘s success without worrying about
cultural implications.
(d) India must pursue development that integrates prosperity with cultural values and environmental
care, avoiding the negative effects of Western industrialization.

6. What does the author suggest about the role of creativity in India's development?
(a) Creativity is important, but its role should be secondary to achieving industrial and material success.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Creativity is valuable as long as it contributes to building wealth and economic strength for the
nation.
(c) Creativity is a crucial aspect of development, driving intellectual growth and shaping a sustainable,
culturally rich society.
(d) Creativity should align with established global models to ensure India‘s development keeps pace with
other nations.

7. In the context of the passage, what does the word ―vitality‖ most closely mean?
(a) The capacity for generating material wealth.
(b) The quality of being physically strong and energetic.
(c) The power of intellectual and creative energy that drives progress.
(d) The ability to maintain traditional cultural practices without change.

III. Alexey Fyodorovitch Karamazov was the third son of Fyodor Pavlovitch Karamazov, a land owner well
known in our district in his own day, and still remembered among us owing to his gloomy and tragic
death, which happened thirteen years ago, and which I shall describe in its proper place. For the present
I will only say that this ―landowner‖—for so we used to call him, although he hardly spent a day of his life
on his own estate—was a strange type, yet one pretty frequently to be met with, a type abject and
vicious and at the same time senseless. But he was one of those senseless persons who are very well
capable of looking after their worldly affairs, and, apparently, after nothing else. Fyodor Pavlovitch, for
instance, began with next to nothing; his estate was of the smallest; he ran to dine at other men's tables,
and fastened on them as a toady, yet at his death it appeared that he had a hundred thousand roubles in
hard cash. At the same time, he was all his life one of the most senseless, fantastical fellows in the
whole district. I repeat, it was not stupidity —the majority of these fantastical fellows are shrewd and
intelligent enough— but just senselessness, and a peculiar national form of it.
He was married twice, and had three sons, the eldest, Dmitri, by his first wife, and two, Ivan and Alexey,
by his second. Fyodor Pavlovitch's first wife, Adelaïda Ivanovna, belonged to a fairly rich and
distinguished noble family, also landowners in our district, the Miüsovs. How it came to pass that an
heiress, who was also a beauty, and moreover one of those vigorous, intelligent girls, so common in this
generation, but sometimes also to be found in the last, could have married such a worthless, puny
weakling, as we all called him, I won't attempt to explain. I knew a young lady of the last ―romantic‖
generation who after some years of an enigmatic passion for a gentleman, whom she might quite easily
have married at any moment, invented insuperable obstacles to their union, and ended by throwing
herself one stormy night into a rather deep and rapid river from a high bank, almost a precipice, and so
perished, entirely to satisfy her own caprice, and to be like Shakespeare's Ophelia. Indeed, if this
precipice, a chosen and favorite spot of hers, had been less picturesque, if there had been a prosaic flat
bank in its place, most likely the suicide would never have taken place. This is a fact, and probably there
have been not a few similar instances in the last two or three generations.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the novel ―The Brothers Karamazov‖, written by Mr.
Fyodor Dostoyevsky

8. According to the passage, Adelaïda Ivanovna, Fyodor Pavlovitch's first wife, is characterized as:
(a) a naive and simple-minded woman who was easily manipulated and deceived into marrying Fyodor
Pavlovitch
(b) a privileged young woman who, despite her intelligence and vigor, mysteriously married a man
deemed worthless by others.
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(c) a quiet and passive woman who was completely dependent on Fyodor Pavlovitch for her fortune and
happiness.
(d) a woman with modest means who married Fyodor Pavlovitch to gain access to his wealth and social
status and to improve her social standing.
9. What is implied about the "romantic" generation referenced in the passage?
(a) The "romantic" generation was prone to impulsive and capricious behavior, often making dramatic
and irrational decisions driven by emotion.
(b) The "romantic" generation prioritized rationality and logic over emotional impulses, ensuring that their
actions were always well-reasoned.
(c) The "romantic" generation was deeply focused on building wealth and social stability, placing little
emphasis on emotional or dramatic expressions.
(d) The "romantic" generation was known for being highly practical and realistic, with little room for
emotional sentimentality or dramatic gestures.

10. What is the main contradiction in Fyodor Pavlovitch Karamazov‘s character as depicted in the passage?
(a) Despite his irresponsible and foolish nature, he was highly skilled at managing his finances and
accumulating wealth.
(b) Although he was known for his generosity, he struggled to maintain any real relationships with those
around him.
(c) While he was intelligent and charming, he constantly faced financial ruin due to reckless spending.
(d) Even though he came from a wealthy background, he failed to capitalize on his inheritance and
became poor over time.

11. Which is the closest synonym for the word "caprice"?

(a) Whim (b) Diligence
(c) Conviction (d) Apathy

12. What does the phrase "fastened on them as a toady" most likely mean in the context of Fyodor
Pavlovitch's behaviour?
(a) Fyodor Pavlovitch relied on others for financial support, constantly being obsequious to them.
(b) Fyodor Pavlovitch wore extravagant clothing to gain attention from others, hoping they would admire
him.
(c) Fyodor Pavlovitch demanded respect from others because of his growing wealth and rising social
status.
(d) Fyodor Pavlovitch acted as a leader, offering others help to improve their social and financial
situation.

IV. There is a bomb in my hometown, and no one speaks about it.

The park that surrounds it acts like a nest, grown up naturally around the smooth, rounded metal body
that lies half buried in the soil, the ground itself embracing it.
Sensible people would put it out of their minds altogether, but ever since my classmates and I discovered
it by sneaking past the barbed wire fence into its clearing, I was never able to. At first, I had been
disappointed. This, a charcoal grey container, half hidden by moss and bracken, was the affront that
everyone avoided even looking at as they went by?
Only when I got home that evening – when I saw how my mother reacted to the news of where I had
been – did I gain my first inkling of understanding.
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Her face drained of all colour, her lips slackened, and her eyes widened as though trying to drink in all of
me for fear that I might have suddenly disappeared. Her hands trembled as her arms encircled me, and
she dropped to her knees as she held me close to her body, buried her face in my hair. The top of my
head grew wet with her tears as she held on tightly, and whispered a plea, begging me never to go near
it again, saying that the thing could go off any day now and no one knew what damage it would do.
That was the first time I learned of my own impermanence. That there was a world before me, and one
day, would be a world after.
Eventually, I would thank my mother for doing that for me, especially after looking back on the untruths
some of my fellow adventurers had been told by their parents when they went home with the news of
what we had found. The lies they were told that night stayed with me for a long time. That the bomb
would one day take people away, to a place beyond the clouds. That the bomb was inert, or wasn‘t what
people say it is at all. Or, worse, that when the inevitable happened, it won‘t impact them.
All thought of it was denied out of hand.
That year, my 11th year, I was intrigued. I asked my teachers, the parents of friends, my fellow
classmates, everyone who would listen what they thought would happen to them if the bomb went off,
knowing only that it one day would; I got a mixture of responses from bewilderment to bemusement, and
from shock to anger.
During my 13th year, when my teacher had me visit a lady with a pinched brow and motivational posters
on her walls, who played meditative cassettes and talked like I myself was something liable to explode, I
stopped asking.
And then, during my 15th year, I got angry.
There is a bomb in my hometown, and no one does anything about it.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the short story ―The Name of the End‖, written by Mr.
Gabriel Muers.

13. What theme does the narrator begin to understand after witnessing the reaction of their mother?
(a) The theme of trust and betrayal between family members.
(b) The realization that adults often lie to children to protect them.
(c) The concept of transience and the fragility of life.
(d) The importance of curiosity and exploration in a child‘s development.

14. How does the narrator‘s emotional response to the bomb evolve over time?
(a) From curiosity, to indifference, to acceptance of the bomb‘s presence.
(b) From fear, to guilt, to understanding the need for action.
(c) From curiosity, to fear, to anger at the inaction of the community.
(d) From fear, to detachment, to amusement at the bomb's mysterious nature.

15. What underlying symbolism can be attributed to the "bomb" in the passage?
(a) The bomb symbolizes the inevitability of death and the uncertainty of life.
(b) The bomb stands for the unresolved guilt and shame that adults carry in secret.
(c) The bomb signifies a destructive force that is constantly glorified by the community.
(d) The bomb stands for the freedom to explore and break societal boundaries.

16. What impact does the narrator's 11th-year experience have on their understanding of the adult world?
(a) The narrator begins to see adults as sources of truth and security, capable of protecting them from
danger.
(b) The narrator realizes that adults often deny uncomfortable realities and live in ignorance of threats.
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(c) The narrator learns that adults are mostly indifferent to danger, focusing only on their immediate
needs.
(d) The narrator concludes that adults are powerless in the face of real threats and rely on superstition to
cope.

17. What literary device is used in the line, "The park that surrounds it acts like a nest, grown up naturally
around the smooth, rounded metal body that lies half buried in the soil"?
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) Personification (d) Hyperbole

V. India has been struggling with a learning deficit for years now. And though there is more awareness
about this thanks to Pratham‘s annual surveys, little seems to have changed on the ground. Attendance
in public schools tends to be low, so despite children being enrolled in school, many of them don‘t learn
much. This is largely because schools are unable to engage children. Therefore, children and parents
see little value in school. Across classrooms, government school teachers attribute poor student learning
outcomes to poor student attendance. When students don‘t show up, teachers lose their motivation and
do little to increase the level of engagement with learners, which could in turn motivate students to show
up. It‘s a chicken and egg situation.
Students learn when there is motivation to do so and that happens when classrooms are meaningful and
psychologically safe spaces. However, in classrooms across India, the teacher focuses only on the few
students who sit in the front rows. The teacher writes questions and often even the answers on the
blackboard. The students spend most of their learning hours copying off the board while the teacher
leaves the room to do ―more important‖ work. The teacher asks questions, but only a few children
generally answer. Otherwise, the class answers in a chorus. The children repeat after the teacher in
unison. The teacher asks if everyone has understood and receives an enthusiastic ‗yes‘ in response. But
this does not give a sense of how much the students have really learned. This looks and sounds like
active learning, but is not, because the children are not cognitively or emotionally engaged. India has a
long tradition of rote learning. Many have progressed in life learning this way, but this kind of learning
does not serve all students. In any case, with the world changing so fast, children need different skills.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, ―Higher engagement, better learning‖, written
by Ms. Urmila Chaowdhury and published in The Hindu

18. According to the passage, how is the typical classroom interaction between teachers and students in
schools described?
(a) Teachers engage all students equally, encouraging critical thinking and discussion in the classroom.
(b) Teachers mainly focus on a few students while the rest of the class passively copies from the
blackboard or answers in chorus.
(c) Teachers promote active participation by involving all students in problem-solving activities and
debates.
(d) Teachers carefully assess each student's progress, ensuring individualized learning plans for all
students.

19. What does the passage imply about the current understanding of active learning in many Indian
classrooms?
(a) Active learning is effectively implemented, with students constantly engaged in meaningful activities.
(b) Active learning is misunderstood, with classrooms appearing busy but students not being cognitively
or emotionally engaged.
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(c) Active learning is a central focus, with teachers adapting innovative methods to make learning
interactive.
(d) Active learning is hindered by overcrowded classrooms and a lack of student participation.

20. The passage suggests that government school teachers in India attribute poor student learning
outcomes to:
(a) the outdated curriculum used in classrooms that is no longer engaging or relevant.
(b) a lack of technological resources available to students that could enhance student learning.
(c) the low attendance of students in class, which decreases teacher motivation.
(d) the increasing pressure on students to perform well in exams.

21. What can be implied by the phrase "an enthusiastic 'yes'" in the context of the passage?
(a) The students are genuinely excited and fully understand the material being taught.
(b) The students often pretend to understand the lesson, even when they may not have fully grasped it.
(c) The teacher ensures that the students comprehend the material thoroughly before moving on.
(d) The students actively participate in discussions and engage deeply with the content.

VI. For a long time, I was afraid of Shakespeare. I am not the only one. In his 1964 essay ―Why I Stopped
Hating Shakespeare,‖ James Baldwin detailed his initial resistance. Like many people today, Baldwin
wrote that he, too, was ―a victim of that loveless education which causes so many schoolboys to detest
Shakespeare.‖ A major part of Baldwin‘s loathing of Shakespeare had nothing to do with the English
writer specifically, but rather the white elitism that surrounded his work and literature. But as Baldwin
eventually realized, Shakespeare was not the ―author of his oppression.‖Just as Shakespeare didn‘t
create misogyny and sexism, he didn‘t create race and racism. Rather, he observed the complex realities
of the world around him, and through his plays he articulated an underlying hope for a more just world.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, ―What Shakespeare can teach us about
racism‖, written by Mr. David Sterling Brown and published in The Conversation.

22. What does the phrase "author of his oppression" most likely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Shakespeare was the creator and enforcer of societal oppression.
(b) Shakespeare‘s works directly contributed to Baldwin‘s feelings of repression.
(c) Shakespeare was blamed for the cultural norms that caused Baldwin‘s resistance to his work.
(d) Shakespeare inspired Baldwin to fight against the oppressive structures in society.

23. What is the closest synonym for the word loath as used in the context of the passage?
(a) Amenable (b) Averse
(c) Disposed (d) Enthralled

24. The passage suggests that Shakespeare observed the complex realities of the world around him, but:
(a) he often created stories disconnected from those realities.
(b) he did not contribute to the major social issues of his time.
(c) he expressed a desire for a fairer and more just world through his plays.
(d) he ignored the injustices present in society.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 64
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. There were only twenty-nine left out of the fifty! Once I got a fright, for, seeing Lord Godalming suddenly
turn and look out of the vaulted door into the dark passage beyond, I looked too, and for an instant my
heart stood still. Somewhere, looking out from the shadow, I seemed to see the high lights of the Count‘s
evil face, the ridge of the nose, the red eyes, the red lips, the awful pallor. It was only for a moment, for,
as Lord Godalming said, ―I thought I saw a face, but it was only the shadows,‖ and resumed his inquiry, I
turned my lamp in the direction, and stepped into the passage. There was no sign of any one; and as
there were no corners, no doors, no aperture of any kind, but only the solid walls of the passage, there
could be no hiding-place even for him. I took it that fear had helped imagination, and said nothing.
A few minutes later I saw Morris step suddenly back from a corner, which he was examining. We all
followed his movements with our eyes, for undoubtedly some nervousness was growing on us, and we
saw a whole mass of phosphorescence, which twinkled like stars. We all instinctively drew back. The
whole place was becoming alive with rats.
For a moment or two we stood appalled, all save Lord Godalming, who was seemingly prepared for such
an emergency. Rushing over to the great iron-bound oaken door, which Dr. Seward had described from
the outside, and which I had seen myself, he turned the key in the lock, drew the huge bolts, and swung
the door open. Then, taking his little silver whistle from his pocket, he blew a low, shrill call. It was
answered from behind Dr. Seward‘s house by the yelping of dogs, and after about a minute three terriers
came dashing round the corner of the house. Unconsciously we had all moved towards the door, and as
we moved I noticed that the dust had been much disturbed: the boxes which had been taken out had
been brought this way. But even in the minute that had elapsed the number of the rats had vastly
increased. They seemed to swarm over the place all at once, till the lamplight, shining on their moving
dark bodies and glittering, baleful eyes, made the place look like a bank of earth set with fireflies. The
dogs dashed on, but at the threshold suddenly stopped and snarled, and then, simultaneously lifting their
noses, began to howl in most lugubrious fashion. The rats were multiplying in thousands, and we moved
out.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―DRACULA‖ by Bram Stoker

1. What significant change occurred in the room's conditions shortly before the group opted to evacuate?
(a) The quantity of rats markedly multiplied in a brief span.
(b) The movement of the rats slowed down noticeably, creating a deceptive calm.
(c) The rats began to climb on each other, forming towering piles.
(d) The rats‘ eyes began to glow more intensely, casting eerie lights around.

2. What does the passage suggest about the narrator‘s perception when he briefly believed he saw the
Count‘s face in the shadows?
(a) The narrator's heightened alertness caused him to mistake shadowy figures for the Count's face.
(b) The narrator‘s intense focus led him to visualize the Count's face, though no one was actually
present.
(c) The narrator‘s fear-enhanced imagination led him to momentarily see the Count's face in mere
shadows.
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(d) The narrator‘s apprehensive state caused him to briefly envision the Count's face among the
shadows.

3. What is the primary thematic setting of the passage described above?

(a) A haunted and isolated space where supernatural events occur.
(b) A dimly lit, vaulted passage within an old structure.
(c) A quiet library filled with ancient books.
(d) A serene and peaceful countryside environment

4. What is evident about Lord Godalming‘s attitude from the passage?

(a) He exhibits resilience and decisiveness, adeptly managing the unforeseen emergency.
(b) He succumbs to trepidation, becoming immobilized by the sudden appearance of rats.
(c) He demonstrates indecision, struggling to formulate a response to the escalating threat.
(d) He maintains a skeptical stance, underestimating the gravity of the emergent peril.

5. What does the word "lugubrious" most closely mean as it is used to describe the dogs' howling in the
passage?
(a) Euphoric (b) Dolorous
(c) Ebullient (d) Belligerent

6. Which of the following words is a synonym for "phosphorescence" as used to describe the twinkling seen
by the group in the passage?
(a) Fluorescence (b) Luminescence
(c) Opalescence (d) Confluence

II. Early in the morning our artillery began firing from the hill-crest immediately in front of where our men
were camped. Several of the regiment were killed and wounded by the shrapnel of the return fire of the
Spaniards. One of the shrapnel bullets fell on my wrist and raised a bump as big as a hickory nut, but did
not even break the skin. Then we were marched down from the hill on a muddy road through thick jungle
towards Santiago. The heat was great, and we strolled into the fight with no definite idea on the part of
any one as to what we were to do or what would happen. There was no plan that our left wing was to
make a serious fight that day; and as there were no plans, it was naturally exceedingly hard to get
orders, and each of us had to act largely on his own responsibility.
Lawton's infantry division attacked the little village of El Caney, some miles to the right. Kent's infantry
division and Sumner's dismounted cavalry division were supposed to detain the Spanish army in
Santiago until Lawton had captured El Caney. Spanish towns and villages, however, with their massive
buildings, are natural fortifications, as the French found in the Peninsular War, and as both the French
and our people found in Mexico. The Spanish troops in El Caney fought very bravely, as did the Spanish
troops in front of us, and it was late in the afternoon before Lawton accomplished his task.
Meanwhile we of the left wing had by degrees become involved in a fight which toward the end became
not even a colonel's fight, but a squad leader's fight. The cavalry division was put at the head of the line.
We were told to march forward, cross a little river in front, and then, turning to the right, march up
alongside the stream until we connected with Lawton. Incidentally, this movement would not have
brought us into touch with Lawton in any event. But we speedily had to abandon any thought of carrying
it out. The maneuver brought us within fair range of the Spanish intrenchments along the line of hills
which we called the San Juan Hills, because on one of them was the San Juan blockhouse. On that day
my regiment had the lead of the second brigade, and we marched down the trail following in trace behind
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the first brigade. Apparently, the Spaniards could not make up their minds what to do as the three regular
regiments of the first brigade crossed and defiled along the other bank of the stream, but when our
regiment was crossing they began to fire at us.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―AN AUTOBIOGRAPHY BY THEODORE ROOSEVELT‖
by Theodore Roosevelt

7. How did the structural characteristics of Spanish towns impact the combat effectiveness during the
encounters described?
(a) They provided essential cover for troops to regroup and strategize.
(b) They played a pivotal role as natural fortifications due to their massiveness.
(c) They were used strategically to funnel enemy movements.
(d) They offered minimal strategic value and were largely decorative.

8. Which of the following military strategies exhibits its importance during the encounter near San Juan
Hills?
(a) The necessity of adaptable leadership in the absence of clear orders.
(b) The importance of advanced weaponry in overcoming enemy fortifications.
(c) The benefit of large-scale maneuvers to intimidate opposing forces.
(d) The value of extended reconnaissance before engaging in combat.

9. According to the passage, the Spanish troops at El Caney are characterized as:
(a) discouraged and ineffective in their defensive efforts.
(b) unprepared for the scale of the attack by Lawton's infantry.
(c) valiant and steadfast throughout their extended engagement.
(d) quick to retreat when faced with superior forces.

10. What is the likely source of the detailed account describing the battle dynamics and individual
experiences at San Juan Hills?
(a) A historical textbook on American military campaigns.
(b) A personal diary or memoir of a soldier who participated in the battle.
(c) An official military report detailing the events for record-keeping purposes.
(d) A novel set during the Spanish-American War, incorporating fictional elements.

11. What literary device is used in the phrase ―One of the shrapnel bullets fell on my wrist and raised a bump
as big as a hickory nut, but did not even break the skin‖?
(a) Alliteration (b) Metaphor
(c) Simile (d) Personification

12. In the passage, the word "defiled" most closely means:

(a) soiled or dirtied. (b) marched in a line.
(c) destroyed completely. (d) disrespected or dishonored.

III. No two cultures are the same, some are more stable and better for human flourishing than others. A
culture which encourages human flourishing requires three things.
A moralising force that establishes societal moral standards and prevents anarchy. Having moral
standards that most people can internalise increases mutual trust. It leads to more trade and business
collaborations. It also de-emphasises tribal vote-bank politics. Politicians are instead forced to compete
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

on other things based on society‘s philosophical leanings. By its definition, moralising force is collectivist
in nature.
A philosophising force that acts as an umbrella for new ideas, innovations and defines the purpose of
life. Philosophising force allows for individualism. Without such a force, you get a stagnant society,
unable to adapt to the changing world.
A state to defend the society against internal and external threats and enforce contracts. Size of the state
matters too. Too large a scale may lead it to fall apart. Too small a scale can make it un-competitive
against other competing cultures. Right scale might vary throughout history, roughly based on the speed
of propagation of ideas and logistics. Currently, somewhere between national and civilisational seems to
be the right scale.
India‘s philosophising force looks at the world as a place full of diversity, with underlying unity that
connects them together. Hinduism is a result of that philosophical outlook. In ancient India‘s context,
Dharma provided the moralising force. Dharma talks about establishing morality based on the impact of
the actions on sustainability of society and environment. Unlike in other traditions, where the baseline
was established in society via proselytisation, often accompanied by use of force, establishing the
baseline of Dharma requires debates and discussions within the wider society. Dharma needs to be
established again and again, to suit the new realities, as times change.
There is this notion among some people that religion somehow prevents economic development.
Religion is not some narrow concept, but a collection of wide ranging ideas, and it‘s unfair to treat it
simplistically.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―Understanding Indian cultural system and importance of
Dharma for India‖, by Vikas Kushwaha, The Print

13. According to the passage, what is one of the main benefits of having a moralising force in a society?
(a) It promotes equality by encouraging the equal distribution of resources.
(b) It increases societal cohesion by fostering mutual trust among individuals.
(c) It prevents economic development by enforcing rigid moral standards.
(d) It allows politicians to control the society through authoritarian means.

14. How does the philosophising force contribute to human flourishing according to the passage?
(a) It ensures societal stability by maintaining strict moral standards.
(b) It promotes innovation and allows individuals to explore new ideas freely.
(c) It encourages economic growth by focusing solely on trade and business.
(d) It strengthens the collective by limiting individual expression for the greater good.
15. According to the passage, in the context of India‘s philosophical outlook, Dharma is characterized by:
(a) remaining fixed and unchanging, unaffected by evolving societal conditions.
(b) relying on proselytization to establish moral standards across society.
(c) imposing moral principles with no allowance for debate or discussion.
(d) continuously adapting over time through debates and adjusting to new realities.

16. What does the passage suggest about the relationship between religion and economic development?
(a) Religion is complex and cannot be simplified when considering its effects on economic progress.
(b) Religion is an obstacle to economic development and hinders societal growth.
(c) Religion plays a minimal role in shaping the economic policies of a society.
(d) Religion primarily focuses on spiritual matters and is unrelated to economic advancement.

17. What is the overall tone of the passage?

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Thoughtful and evaluative. (b) Pessimistic and alarmed.

(c) Enthusiastic and encouraging. (d) Cynical and skeptical.

IV. The continual attempt, by each of us, to determine our language‘s nature is the force that shapes it over
time. Everyone acts as if the rules are already common knowledge, and then – the strangest part! – they
gradually try to work out what this common knowledge is. This is strikingly different to determining the
position of a planet, or the weight of a large cake, where there is a fact of the matter totally separate from
our beliefs about it, which can be reconstructed by investigation through telescopes or scales.
With all this in mind, it is easier to see why a convention would appear to be a natural object, since the
real process by which it comes to be is quite counterintuitive. This thought is put into words by Judith
Butler. She is coming from a different tradition, building on the ideas of Beauvoir, Edmund Husserl and
Maurice Merleau-Ponty, rather than the analytic philosophers that inspired Lewis. And rather than
language, Butler‘s topic of study is gender. The ‗Hermogenes‘ view – gender as a convention – was a
running theme of feminist thought long before Butler of course, in which gender arises from a messy
historical process and does not bear a direct or immutable relationship to biological characteristics.
Even more than language though, gender has historically been regarded as bearing just such a
relationship to biology, in the spirit of Cratylus‘ naturalism.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―Cathedrals of convention‖, by Reuben Cohn-Gordon,
aeon

18. What realization does the author come to regarding the nature of conventions like language and gender?
(a) Conventions such as language and gender are directly determined by biological characteristics and
are immutable over time.
(b) The nature of conventions like language and gender is shaped by collective societal beliefs rather
than by objective facts.
(c) Gender, unlike language, has no historical or cultural underpinnings and is solely a biological
construct.
(d) The nature of language can be accurately determined using scientific tools like telescopes and
scales.

19. What does the phrase "a messy historical process" imply in the context of the passage?
(a) It refers to a structured and intricate evolution of societal norms and conventions.
(b) It describes a chaotic and tumultuous development of ideas within society.
(c) It indicates a complex and disorderly evolution of societal norms and conventions.
(d) It suggests a fragmented and chaotic progression of historical ideas and values.

20. The passage suggests that proponents of the "Hermogenes" view in feminist thought attribute the
complexities of gender to:
(a) the simplistic notion that gender is solely based on biological characteristics.
(b) the historical processes and societal norms that shape gender identity.
(c) the rigid and unchanging nature of cultural conventions.
(d) the influence of political ideologies on gender perceptions.

V. The process of change in Indian society acquired a qualitatively different dimension since the last
decade of the 20th century. There has been a strong tendency to integrate with the global market
economy, a trend brought sharply into focus with the collapse of 'Soviet style Socialism' in the former
Soviet Union and the erstwhile Balkan states. This phenomenon, better known as 'globalization', has
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

reshaped the politico-economic and cultural space in India. Yogendra Singh's book, Culture change in
India: Identity and Globalization, presents a critical insight into changes in cultural values, institutions and
ideologies, which also constitute India's response to the challenges from the forces of globalization.
Singh begins with a conceptual categorization of cultural change in India. The study at one level is
concerned with the substantive structures of culture and its relationship with social institutions; and at a
more dynamic level, it deals with the process of change, especially engendered by the forces of
globalization. These changes are: revolution in communications technology and global circulation of
information in the shortest time possible leading to a shrinkage of time and space, circulation of financial
capital on a global scale and economies of scale through international division of labour; homogenization
of consumer products and market processes both in the realm of commodity production and cultural
symbols and styles; loss of nation-state boundaries and their sovereignties to 'supra-national'
organizations like the market. These changes have consequences, both manifest and latent, predictable
as well as anticipated. More often than not, globalization has been a unidirectional process, with the flow
of goods and ideas moving in one direction, from the centre (West) to the periphery. Also, the local is
being influenced by the global and not vice versa and within the local, the effect of globalization has been
uneven, thus, sharpening the already existing social stratification. Interestingly, instead of local and
regional identities being eroded by the dynamics of globalization, constant interaction between them may
lead to a hybridization. But the process also leads to a hardening of cultural contours and even engender
new oppositions. In this context, Singh makes a comparative analysis of the cultural response to
globalization in south Asia. In India, it results not only in defining identities through a celebration of
localism and regionalism but also encourages people to assert their identities through religious
chauvinism.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―BOOK REVIEW /MODERNITY'S MANY EFFECTS―, by
SUHRITA SAHA, The Telegraph

21. The passage suggests that the forces of globalization have reshaped cultural identities in India, but:
(a) they have only reinforced traditional values without introducing any new ideas.
(b) they have resulted in a uniform culture across all regions of India.
(c) they have led to a complex interplay between local and global influences.
(d) they have completely eradicated local identities and practices.

22. What role does technology play in the process of globalization, according to the passage?
(a) Technology has contributed to the impediment of efficient communication across regions.
(b) Technology has enabled the rapid dissemination of information and ideas on a global scale.
(c) Technology has limited the influence of global trends on local cultures.
(d) Technology has primarily enhanced the retention of traditional cultural practices.

23. What figure of speech is employed in the phrase "shrinkage of time and space" as used in the passage?
(a) Metaphor (b) Hyperbole
(c) Personification (d) Alliteration

24. What does the term "homogenization" most closely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Diversification and variety in cultural expressions.
(b) The process of making things uniform or similar across different contexts.
(c) The increase of local customs and traditions in response to global influences.
(d) The separation of global markets from local economies.
Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 65
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. India should come out with a road map for nanotechnology usage in order to achieve net zero
commitment by 2070. More R&D programmes should be carried out in academic institutions and
industries.
Nanotechnology offers novel approaches to capturing and storing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
and industrial processes. Nanomaterials and Nanotubes can selectively absorb carbon dioxide from gas
mixtures, making the capture process more efficient. Nanotechnology can also improve the storage and
conversion of captured carbon dioxide and can fasten the conversion of Carbon dioxide into useful
chemicals and fuels helping in the reduction of greenhouse gas concentration.
Avoiding a climate disaster will require 10 billion tons of CO2 emissions to be eliminated from the
atmosphere each year by 2050 through decarbonisation and capture. Novel nanomaterials and other
nanotechnology-enabled innovations can help accelerate the current timeline and decrease the cost
associated with many of the technologies being used and developed. Nanotechnology can act as a
catalyst for innovation in key areas and industries that could help accelerate progress towards climate
change mitigation and sustainable goals in the short term.
Scientists and engineers should innovate solutions in nanotechnology for critical areas such as food and
energy security, water purification, healthcare, and waste management. Addressing the challenges
posed by urbanisation and environmental hazards requires robust international collaboration and a
strong link between academia, industry, and research to advance this promising technology for the
benefit of humanity.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
[Link]

1. The foremost impediment to positioning nanotechnology as a viable instrument for net-zero objectives
lies in
(a) the incompatibility of regulatory frameworks with evolving technologies.
(b) a scarcity of interdisciplinary collaboration across scientific domains.
(c) the reluctance of stakeholders to overhaul existing infrastructure.
(d) the gradual decline in public funding for research initiatives.

2. Nanotechnology contributes to mitigating environmental challenges primarily by

(a) enabling novel solutions that expedite decarbonization processes.
(b) facilitating the gradual elimination of reliance on non-renewable resources.
(c) enhancing adaptability of industries to stricter emission controls.
(d) reducing energy consumption in chemical conversion processes.

3. The writer‘s stance on the use of nanotechnology for climate change initiatives is best described as:
(a) pragmatic (b) hopeful
(c) skeptical (d) optimistic

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

(a) Nanotechnology can enhance the capture and conversion of CO2.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Nanotechnology promises a comprehensive solution to climate change by 2050.

(c) Collaboration between research and industry is essential for progress.
(d) Addressing urban challenges will require nanotechnology innovations.

5. Statement 1: Nanotechnology can make the capture of carbon dioxide more efficient.
Statement 2: A major contribution of nanotechnology is reducing the cost of decarbonization
technologies.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

II. Many cultures have the archetype of the lone genius. These are the hermetic scholars who isolate
themselves from worldly concerns to focus on their studies, inventions, and arcane tomes. The thing is,
this archetype is more myth and storytelling convenience than reality. Yes, there are examples of great
minds who did their best work in solitude, but innovation tends to prefer groups of people sharing,
vetting, and critiquing each other‘s ideas through shared social networks.
Innovation clusters are a modern take on this historic trend. These hotbeds of creative businesses
produce new technologies at fantastic rates. These businesses attract money, talent, and credentialed
workers, which attracts more new industries to the area. Why they work and how they operate can shed
light on the nature of innovation and offer a blueprint for a more inventive future.
The idea that businesses tend to cluster and spur growth isn‘t new. Different cities throughout history
have garnered renown as hubs of economic activity through high concentrations of world-class
enterprises. The broader concept of certain regions hosting groups of master craftsmen in a single field
is even older. For instance, Venice has been famous for its glassmakers for centuries.
However, the idea of purposefully concentrating businesses together to focus on innovation, research,
and development is more recent. An influential article on the subject only dates back to 1998 — although
attempts to group people, not businesses, together in hopes that they will dream up new technologies go
back decades. Today, governments even try to kickstart innovation clusters in areas needing economic
growth. The results have been mixed but are absolutely stunning when they turn out.
The most well-known of these successes is Silicon Valley. It is home to many of the world‘s largest tech
companies, is widely held as a hub of innovation, and is the place for a hot new startup to be. It‘s not just
computer and internet companies either; several industries call the area home.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

6. Although innovation clusters are intentionally designed to foster success, some initiatives end up
producing _______ results.
(a) marginal (b) disruptive
(c) ambitious (d) inconsistent

7. ‗Over-reliance on individual effort‘ posed a challenge for businesses because:

(a) it stifled collective creativity.
(b) it increased dependency on outdated technologies.
(c) it reduced profitability of innovation hubs.
(d) it resulted in fewer ventures being launched.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

8. Identify the sequence of factors that lead to the success of an innovation cluster:
(1) influx of credentialed workers
(2) attraction of new industries
(3) investment of capital in promising ventures
(4) concentration of creative businesses
Choose the correct sequence:
(a) (4), (1), (3), (2) (b) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(c) (4), (3), (1), (2) (d) (1), (4), (3), (2)

9. The concept of 'innovation clusters' in the passage most closely refers to:
(a) specialized groups working in isolation to avoid interference.
(b) geographically concentrated industries fostering mutual growth.
(c) government-imposed regions focused on economic competition.
(d) temporary collaborations aimed at rapid technological development.

10. Economic growth is depicted as an 'uncertain pursuit' because:

(a) clusters are reliant on financial speculation to expand.
(b) there are no consistent strategies for innovation clusters.
(c) results vary, with some clusters failing to take off.
(d) skilled labour often migrates unpredictably between industries.

11. The archetype of the ―lone genius‖ had to be replaced with innovation clusters because:
(a) individual efforts were not generating consistent breakthroughs.
(b) organizations wanted to diversify their intellectual assets.
(c) creative individuals preferred working in groups.
(d) technological advances required cross-disciplinary work.

12. Segregating creative industries into clusters helps:

(a) foster specialized communities with shared expertise.
(b) reduce costs associated with research and development.
(c) encourage competitive rivalry between different clusters.
(d) limit the impact of failure within individual sectors.

III. In exciting news for the global travel and tourism community, the National Geographic Society has
officially announced the upcoming National Geographic Museum of Exploration, set to open its doors in
mid-2026. Located in the heart of Washington, D.C., this groundbreaking museum promises to become a
premier destination for both local visitors and international travellers, blending cutting-edge technology,
immersive experiences, and the adventurous spirit that National Geographic is famous for.
The Museum of Exploration will showcase stunning exhibitions, state-of-the-art theaters, and dynamic
displays, providing visitors with unforgettable educational and entertainment experiences. Whether
you‘re a passionate traveller, explorer at heart, or simply a tourist seeking new adventures, this museum
will offer something special for everyone. It‘s set to become a top-tier attraction, cementing Washington,
D.C.‘s status as a must-visit city for cultural and adventure tourism. his exhibition will showcase the
equipment and stories from National Geographic‘s most iconic expeditions, bringing to life the awe-
inspiring adventures of real-life explorers. Tourists will have the chance to see artifacts from expeditions
that have traversed some of the world‘s most remote and dangerous landscapes.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

For the first time in Washington, D.C., visitors can witness an outdoor nighttime show featuring
spectacular visual projections, interactive media, and audio-visual displays. This experience brings to life
National Geographic‘s stunning images, highlighting the beauty and diversity of our planet—an
unforgettable visual journey for every travel enthusiast.
Washington, D.C. is already one of the most visited cities in the U.S., known for its rich history, iconic
landmarks, and vibrant culture. The National Geographic Museum of Exploration will further bolster the
city‘s tourism appeal, offering a modern, engaging, and educational experience unlike anything else.
Situated in the Golden Triangle neighbourhood, the museum is poised to become a key attraction for
both domestic and international tourists, adding a new layer of adventure-based learning to D.C.‘s
cultural landscape. This innovative attraction not only enhances the city‘s tourism industry but also aligns
with a global trend of interactive and educational travel, where visitors seek out meaningful experiences
that deepen their understanding of the world.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
2026-a-new-must-visit-destination-for-global-travelers/

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________.

(a) press release for an art gallery exhibition
(b) economic report on museum funding
(c) lifestyle and tourism guide
(d) government circular promoting public transportation

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) To describe the cultural impact of Washington, D.C.‘s existing landmarks.
(b) To promote the museum as a must-visit destination for travellers and explorers.
(c) To outline the operational challenges in running a modern museum.
(d) To compare Washington, D.C.'s tourism industry with other U.S. cities.

15. The passage mentions ―immersive experiences‖ to emphasise _________.

(a) The importance of interactive exhibitions in attracting visitors.
(b) The use of advanced technology to replace traditional museum displays.
(c) The limited appeal of standard museum attractions.
(d) The growing trend of museums competing with entertainment venues.
16. According to the passage, why is the location of the museum strategically important?
(a) It allows access to exclusive research institutions in D.C.
(b) It is situated in a neighbourhood with high foot traffic from tourists.
(c) It ensures partnerships with government museums.
(d) It aligns with D.C.‘s efforts to expand public transport facilities.

17. In the passage, the phrase ‗cementing Washington, D.C.‘s status as a must-visit city‘ is best defined as –
(a) Constructing new tourism infrastructure in the city.
(b) Disputing other cities‘ claims of being top tourist destinations.
(c) Challenging misconceptions about the city's cultural significance.
(d) Reinforcing the city‘s reputation as a prime tourist destination.

18. The discussion of interactive exhibits in the museum serves primarily to __________.
(a) Convince readers to avoid static, outdated museums.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Present the museum as aligning with modern visitor expectations.

(c) Criticize museums that do not invest in new technology.
(d) Emphasize the superiority of virtual tours over physical visits.

19. Which word from the passage could be substituted with ‗vibrant‘, without changing the meaning?
(a) dynamic (b) exclusive
(c) authentic (d) remote

20. What does the passage suggest about the relationship between education and adventure-based
learning?
(a) Adventure-based learning entirely replaces traditional education.
(b) Education through museums is becoming obsolete in the digital age.
(c) Adventure-based learning is only appealing to a niche audience.
(d) Adventure-based learning adds a valuable dimension to cultural education.

21. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that the museum will significantly boost
tourism in Washington, D.C.?
(a) The number of international tourists visiting Washington, D.C. has been steadily decreasing.
(b) Other museums in the city have reported higher-than-expected visitor numbers.
(c) The Golden Triangle neighbourhood is undergoing redevelopment to attract more visitors.
(d) National Geographic plans to host temporary exhibitions in other cities simultaneously.
22. Which of the following assumptions is most critical to the success of the National Geographic Museum of
Exploration?
(a) Tourists prefer interactive museum exhibits over passive displays.
(b) The cultural significance of Washington, D.C. will remain unchanged in the future.
(c) National Geographic‘s brand reputation will attract a large and diverse audience.
(d) The museum‘s focus on expeditions will appeal to younger visitors more than older ones.

IV. You are standing on a boat that is drifting down a placid river. You watch the trees on the shore glide
along. For a moment, it looks like the trees themselves are moving – not your boat. But this, of course, is
mere appearance: the trees are still, and it is your boat that moves. This parallax effect was described by
medieval philosophers, but it may be more familiar in another form: when you‘re sitting on a train slowly
rolling out of the station, it can seem like it is the stationary train next to yours that is departing instead.
A handful of 14th-century scholastic thinkers wondered how this parallax effect came about. What
explains our perceptual error? Let‘s call this the problem of erring. In finding a solution, the medieval
philosophers had to take into account another observation: nonhuman animals err too. According to
scholastic orthodoxy, human and nonhuman animals were alike in being animals. Even so, within this
category, humans occupied a special place: they are the only type of animal that is endowed with an
intellect, a rational soul. They are, in medieval parlance, rational animals.
What happens in the case of erring? Do nonhuman animals err? Together, these two questions posed a
considerable philosophical challenge. The first question, as we will see, was answered that erring is an
act of the intellect. To the second, the answer was a tentative yes, as empirical observations suggest.
Together, these answers put the medieval philosophers in an awkward position: nonhuman animals
carry out acts of the intellect, yet without having one. Call this the problem of nonhuman erring.
While centuries old, this debate reveals a question that is relevant for today‘s debates on nonhuman
minds. How much are we willing to give up in order to hold on to our basic assumptions? Nonhuman
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

minds continue to be a source of discord. After all, we simply cannot infer with absolute certainty from
the outside what is going on in the inside of someone else, let alone a nonhuman being.
The above three scholastics bend over backwards to fit the empirical findings of erring animals with the
idea that only humans have an intellect. As such, the medieval debate on erring animals exposes the
underlying structure of many disputes on nonhuman minds. The nonhuman mind perplexes them and
mocks their basic ideas of how the world works – much like it challenges us nowadays.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
cared-if-animals-made-mistakes
23. What is the tone of the passage?
(a) Analytical (b) Critical
(c) Speculative (d) Humorous

24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?

(a) Cause: Scholastic assumptions about intellect; Effect: Tension in philosophical explanations.
(b) Cause: Philosophical debates on nonhuman animals; Effect: Changes in empirical observation
methods.
(c) Cause: Empirical observations of animal behaviour; Effect: Reevaluation of assumptions about
rationality.
(d) Cause: Confusion between perception and reality; Effect: Introduction of modern parallax theories.

25. What is the purpose of the parallax analogy in the passage?

(a) To argue that nonhuman animals are also capable of intellectual insight.
(b) To explain the difference between human and nonhuman errors.
(c) To show how perception can mislead reasoning.
(d) To justify the philosophers' views on perception.

26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that only humans possess intellect?
(a) Studies showing that animals exhibit problem-solving skills in novel situations.
(b) Findings suggesting that animals react only to immediate stimuli.
(c) Research indicating that human error is always linked to rational thought.
(d) Evidence that human intellect is based purely on cultural development.

27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
(a) "Nonhuman animals lack any form of cognitive capability."
(b) "Perception alone cannot explain the nature of intellect."
(c) "Human intellect is inherently superior to animal cognition."
(d) "Philosophical conclusions must evolve with empirical evidence."

28. What does the passage imply about nonhuman perception and cognition?
(a) It indicates that animal behaviour is always instinctive and predictable.
(b) It demonstrates the limitations of human understanding of animal minds.
(c) It suggests that animals possess rationality identical to humans.
(d) It proves that nonhuman behaviour has no connection to intellect.

29. Given the author‘s position on nonhuman cognition, what stand would the author probably take on the
issue of nonhuman intelligence in scientific research?
(a) The author would support expanding scientific studies on animal cognition.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The author would advocate for a reduction in research on nonhuman intelligence.
(c) The author would argue that scientific inquiry into nonhuman minds is futile.
(d) The author would insist that human cognition should remain the only focus of research.

30. In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the past perfect tense?
(a) "Nonhuman animals mimic intellectual acts as if they possessed rationality."
(b) "The philosophers had grappled with the problem of nonhuman erring for centuries."
(c) "The scholars discuss the relationship between intellect and perception."
(d) "Philosophers explain the issue of parallax as a perceptual error."

31. Which of the following substitutions for ‗act of the intellect‘ in the given sentence would NOT change the
meaning of the sentence?
"The medieval philosophers claimed that erring is an act of the intellect."
(a) Demonstration of reasoning (b) Example of reflex behaviour
(c) Operation of rational thought (d) Function of cognitive ability

32. What is the writer‘s aim in mentioning the ―awkward position‖ of medieval thinkers?
(a) To highlight the inconsistency in their philosophical framework.
(b) To argue that nonhuman intellect should be equated with human intellect.
(c) To show that empirical observation is superior to philosophical reasoning.
(d) To justify the rigid views of medieval scholars on nonhuman behaviour.

V. After several days of whirling across the Gulf of Mexico, blowing at up to 180 miles per hour, Hurricane
Milton made landfall on Florida‘s Gulf Coast last night as the terrible embodiment of a historically
destructive season. Milton inflated at a near-record pace, growing from a Category 1 storm into a
Category 5 behemoth in half a day, to become one of the most intense hurricanes in recorded history.
The hurricane had already dispatched plenty of dangers, including a string of deadly tornadoes, before
coming ashore as a Category 3 storm south of Tampa. Since then, it has torn across the state, knocking
out power for more than 3 million people and destroying the roof of the Tampa Bay Rays‘ stadium, which
was housing emergency workers. It will be hours before the extent of Milton‘s damage in Florida
becomes clear.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
change/680205/

33. The severity of Hurricane Milton can be attributed to:

1. The unusual speed of intensification
2. The lack of preparedness among coastal communities
3. A series of favourable environmental conditions
4. Long-term structural vulnerabilities
Choose the most appropriate Answer:
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (4) (d) (3) and (4)

34. A significant limitation in Florida‘s emergency response is:

(a) Lack of reliable shelter for emergency workers
(b) Insufficient coordination in power restoration
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Inadequate anticipation of secondary disasters

(d) Delayed response to restore transportation routes

35. The word ―behemoth‖ in the passage implies that the hurricane is:
(a) A massive force that commands fear and respect.
(b) An uncontrollable disaster with unpredictable movements.
(c) A rare natural event that causes economic collapse.
(d) A predictable storm that steadily worsened over time.

36. Statement 1: Hurricane Milton‘s impact extended beyond mere wind damage.
Statement 2: Emergency facilities suffered damage, disrupting rescue efforts.
Choose the most appropriate Answer:
(a) Both statements are true, and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true, but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.

37. The concept of 'cascading challenges' in hurricane response refers to:

(a) A series of infrastructure failures that occur one after another.
(b) The inability to restore power to critical regions within a reasonable timeframe.
(c) A delay in communication between state and federal relief agencies.
(d) The combined effects of multiple natural hazards amplifying each other.

38. In which of the following sentences is the word ―intensify‖ used in the same sense as in the passage?
(a) As the music intensified, the dancers began to move faster.
(b) The scientist intensified her focus to finish the experiment.
(c) Tensions between the two countries intensified after the failed negotiations.
(d) The search intensified as the deadline approached.
39. Which of the following illustrates the interplay of structural and environmental factors in hurricane
management?
(a) Providing adequate shelters before a hurricane strikes.
(b) Developing advanced forecasting models to predict hurricane paths.
(c) Designing coastal infrastructure to withstand extreme conditions.
(d) Formulating policies to ensure quick power restoration.

VI. What is happening here? Why, rather than taking the moral concerns behind social reforms seriously, do
we so often respond with this kind of petulant, knee-jerk defensiveness? It‘s not that we don‘t care about
right and wrong. But cases like these can feel like a far cry from the sort of moral issues that we‘re
inclined to take seriously – you know, like murder and human rights. In fact, there seems to be an
unspoken expectation that when we‘re confronted with genuine, important arguments for moral change,
they‘ll be easy to recognise. Probably they‘ll be accompanied by a flash of righteous anger, or a pang of
compassion. And of course we will rise to the occasion. Annoyance and irritation, though, are often taken
as a sign that the concerns aren‘t that big of a deal, that the arguments are mere quibbles that can be
safely dismissed. Call this the eyeroll heuristic: if it‘s preachy and annoying, it‘s OK to ignore it.
As philosophers who work on moral cognition, we think that the eyeroll heuristic is a serious obstacle to
moral progress. Many genuinely good arguments for moral change will be initially experienced as
annoying. Moreover, the emotional responses that people feel in these situations are not typically
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

produced by psychological processes that are closely tracking argument structure or responding directly
to moral reasons. Instead, they stem from psychological mechanisms that enable people to adapt to
local norms – what‘s called our norm psychology. While this aspect of the human mind is a critical part of
our facility for navigating our social world on a day-to-day basis, it can also make us resistant to social
change – even when that change is for the better.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
preachy-and-annoying

40. What could be an unintended consequence of dismissing minor-seeming moral concerns based on their
initial annoyance?
(a) Enhanced acceptance of new ideas
(b) Strengthening of existing moral judgments
(c) Reduction in critical moral debates
(d) Increased openness to moral change

41. In the context of moral cognition, how might the norm psychology hinder societal adaptation to beneficial
moral changes?
(a) By fostering a rigid adherence to local norms
(b) By promoting diverse moral viewpoints
(c) By enhancing the emotional response to change
(d) By accelerating the acceptance of new norms

42. What might be inferred about the societal perception of moral change based on the passage‘s
discussion of the eyeroll heuristic?
(a) It is viewed as crucial and readily accepted
(b) It is often met with initial skepticism and resistance
(c) It is generally regarded as unnecessary
(d) It receives immediate and widespread support

43. Based on the eyeroll heuristic, what might be a critical challenge in advocating for social reforms?
(a) Convincing people to value individual effort more highly
(b) Ensuring that all social reforms are free from emotional influence
(c) Encouraging people to rely solely on rational thought
(d) Overcoming initial negative emotional responses to moral arguments

44. What does the passage imply about the role of emotional responses in the perception of moral
arguments?
(a) They are essential for recognizing the validity of arguments
(b) They hinder the objective assessment of moral reasons
(c) They enhance the acceptance of traditional norms
(d) They are irrelevant to the process of moral reasoning

VII. Languages are a lot like living organisms. Both evolve over time, allowing an ancestral tongue like Latin
to sire diverse descendants — Spanish, French, Romanian — that are more closely related to each other
than to, say, Korean. This much is old news; Charles Darwin himself noted the resemblance. ―The
formation of different languages and of distinct species,‖ he writes in The Descent of Man, ―are curiously
parallel.‖
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Now, new research shows that the analogy runs deeper. Islands, long recognized as hotbeds of
biological diversity, are just as much engines of linguistic diversity. Drawing on a global database of
languages from more than 13,000 inhabited islands (with a size cutoff at about 4,250 square miles),
researchers at the Australian National University discovered that some of the same evolutionary patterns
hold true in both life and language.
Incredibly, although these islands make up less than 1 percent of Earth‘s inhabited land, the study found
that 10 percent of languages are endemic to them — spoken nowhere else. Compare that to Russia,
where the ratio is exactly reversed — 10 percent of the world‘s landmass, with a little over 1 percent of
its languages. Islands capture a disproportionate amount of both biodiversity and language diversity.
Biologists solved the first half of that mystery long ago, so researcher and her colleagues decided they‘d
take a stab at the second half. We in evolutionary biology have spent decades building up a suite of
analytical tools to answer those kinds of questions. In it, they proposed that the number of plant and
animal species on any given island depends largely on two factors: its size and its distance from the
mainland. The larger the island, the more species it can sustain; the closer to well-populated continents,
the more species will stumble upon it in the first place.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
sciences/language-evolves-over-time-and-islands-can-drive-linguistic-diversity

45. What does the term ―ancestral tongue‖ imply in the first paragraph?
(a) A language that has remained unchanged throughout history and continues to be spoken in its
original form.
(b) A language that serves as the foundation for other languages, eventually developing into various
new forms over time.
(c) A language that disappeared without leaving any significant trace in modern language evolution.
(d) A language that was isolated from external influence and had limited impact on global linguistic
development.

46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following sentence from the first
paragraph?
―The formation of different languages and of distinct species are curiously parallel.‖
(a) The process of language formation is similar to how species evolve through gradual adaptation.
(b) Just as species diversify based on environments, languages change and form differently depending
on external factors.
(c) The way languages evolve follows the same scientific principles as biological evolution.
(d) Linguistic formation is entirely different from biological evolution, sharing no common features.

47. Why has the writer used the word ―endemic‖ in the phrase ―languages are endemic to them‖?
(a) To suggest that languages found on islands are universally spread across multiple regions.
(b) To indicate that these languages are native and restricted to specific geographical locations.
(c) To imply that languages on islands frequently migrate to mainland areas.
(d) To suggest that island languages are created artificially and maintained through cultural intervention.

48. Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the writer‘s analogy between islands and linguistic
diversity.
(a) The comparison demonstrates how islands serve as incubators for both biological and linguistic
varieties.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The comparison is used to argue that linguistic diversity on islands is entirely due to human
migration.
(c) The comparison illustrates that islands are isolated from cultural and linguistic exchange.
(d) The comparison suggests that language formation on islands results from random evolutionary
processes without any external influences.

49. How does the concept of evolutionary patterns apply to both languages and species on islands,
according to the passage?
(a) Evolutionary patterns in both cases are driven purely by random mutations.
(b) Language diversity on islands mirrors species diversity because both are unaffected by the size or
location of the island.
(c) Languages and species on islands evolve completely independent of each other and have no
common influences.
(d) Both species and languages on islands are influenced by external factors like isolation and size,
shaping their development.

50. What is an example of a key factor driving linguistic diversity on islands, based on the passage?
(a) The widespread use of mainland languages for trade and commerce.
(b) The deliberate attempt by islanders to preserve their cultural heritage.
(c) The island‘s geographical isolation, which limits external linguistic influences.
(d) The rapid migration of people between islands and continents.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 66
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Empathy is empirically shown to build deeper connections with other people. Empathy plays a critical
interpersonal and societal role, enabling sharing of experiences, needs, and desires between individuals
and providing an emotional bridge that promotes prosocial behaviour. For those who operate in high-
intensity environments, such as emergency responders, healthcare providers, and social workers, to
name just a few, the expectation to constantly feel empathy can lead to burnout. Some researchers have
argued that empathy leads to increased well-being, whereas others posit that it leads to burnout and
social withdrawal. Yet, despite its profound importance, empathy isn‘t always readily accessible. There
are times when fatigue, stress, or personal struggles can dim its light, making it challenging to connect
with others on an emotional level.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
of-stuck/202410/the-problem-with-empathy

1. According to the passage, what might hinder empathy from being consistently accessible?
(a) Emotional detachment to ensure professional objectivity
(b) Persistent exposure to traumatic situations
(c) Lack of societal support systems for empathy practitioners
(d) Personal struggles such as stress or fatigue

2. What dilemma regarding empathy does the passage highlight?

(a) It can foster emotional well-being or cause burnout
(b) It is beneficial in personal contexts but not in professional settings
(c) Empathy is easily replenished despite intense work demands
(d) It is valued more in personal life than in professional roles

3. Which statement best summarizes the role of empathy in high-stress professions?

(a) It ensures emotional resilience under challenging circumstances
(b) It fosters prosocial behavior but risks leading to burnout
(c) It promotes emotional withdrawal to avoid professional exhaustion
(d) It alleviates professional stress through interpersonal connections

II. Museums with colonial-era collections have always known about the brutal parts of their biographies.
But, through acts of purification via historical distance, they have chosen to ignore them. Museum
directors now have to re-think their position as defenders of their collections in light of a different political
agenda that locates people and their patrimony in a precolonial, yet radically altered, landscape.
When learning about cultural heritage, you will be directed to the etymology of the words ‗heritage‘ and
‗patrimony‘. Whereas ‗heritage‘ invokes inheritance, ‗patrimony‘ leads us to patriarchy. In French, patrie
refers to the homeland, the fatherland, and during colonialism vast swathes of West Africa were brought
under this French conceptual model in the 19th and early 20th centuries. Objects taken from West Africa
(the periphery) and brought back to the centre/metropole were therefore conceptualised as part of the
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

coloniser‘s national identity. They were used in a series of Great Exhibitions and expos to gain support
for the colonial project before entering national and private collections throughout Europe.
The immediate paradox here is that, whereas objects from the periphery were welcome in the centre,
people were very much not. Since the independence of West African countries throughout the late 1950s
and early ‘60s, the retention of objects and the simultaneous rejection of people has become ever more
fraught. Young undocumented migrants from former French colonies stand metres away from the Musée
du quai Branly – Jacques Chirac, a museum in Paris full of their inaccessible patrimony. The migrants
are treated with contempt while the objects from their homelands are cared for in museums and treated
with great reverence. The migrants will be deported but the objects will not be repatriated. The homeland
is therefore only home to objects, not people.
Source: Extracted with edits and revision [Link]
patrimony-not-heritage

4. Which of the following is most definitively implied by the passage?

(a) The retention of colonial objects reflects political reluctance to confront historical legacies.
(b) Migrants from former colonies seek entry to Europe primarily for cultural reclamation.
(c) Museums' focus on artistic value supersedes concerns about human dignity.
(d) Patrimony serves as a bridge between colonial identity and modern global migration.

5. Migrants from former colonies are

(a) Disregarded and marginalized by host countries.
(b) Integrated seamlessly into cultural institutions.
(c) Motivated by a desire to contribute to their homeland‘s identity.
(d) Regarded as symbols of reconciliation and heritage recovery.

6. The paradox highlighted in the passage reveals which of the following contradictions?
(a) Precolonial identities are preserved, but postcolonial ones are erased.
(b) Museum collections unify nations, while immigration policies divide them.
(c) Cultural objects are valued more than the people to whom they belong.
(d) Migrants from former colonies find easier access to heritage than to homes.

7. The primary purpose of colonial exhibitions, according to the passage, was to

(a) Foster cultural understanding between Europe and the colonies.
(b) Garner public support for the colonial project.
(c) Promote the immediate repatriation of colonial artifacts.
(d) Strengthen economic relations with former colonies.

8. The passage suggests that:

1. Colonial objects were appropriated to reinforce the colonizers' national identity.
2. The rejection of migrants reflects a continuity of colonial exclusion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

III. At the heart of current environmental debates is a crucial question: is economic growth possible without
environmental destruction? Climate change, biodiversity degradation, overexploitation of natural
resources and many forms of pollution are evident problems, and their recognition is backed by a strong
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

consensus of the sciences. It is a sign of the times that most people no longer deny the maxim that
endless material growth is impossible on a limited planet. There are limits to growth, material and
ecological. Only people dreaming about asteroid mining fuelled by fusion and facilitated by terraforming
deny this tenet. Despite being often super-rich, like Elon Musk, in this regard they are fringe. Recognition
of key environmental problems is becoming increasingly widespread, even if this is not met by necessary
action.
However, alongside this is the dominant and widely accepted economic belief that growth is necessary –
economic growth. It is needed not only to feed and clothe the poor of the world, but it is necessary for the
energy and momentum of societies everywhere. Actually, if one listens to the eulogies of economic
growth by politicians in wealthy countries, like my home country Finland, the latter is usually the main
argument. Growth is needed, or else unemployment soars, pensions are unpaid, and debts accumulate.
It is widely acknowledged that in recent decades and centuries, economic growth has caused
environmental problems. The severity of the ecological crisis is debated, some of it even denied, but this
is the big picture. However, in recent years there has been a consistent effort to resolve this tension
between economic growth and ecological limits with the notion of ‗decoupling‘. (This should not be
confused with the ‗decoupling‘ of global trade and ‗friendshoring‘ that is debated around US-China
relations.) The basic idea is that economic growth can continue and literally decouple, or part ways, with
material growth and environmental degradation. Growth can be green.
There are surely ecological problems, but they are not insurmountable. Just like the ‗dark Satanic Mills‘
were cleaned, just like ozone depletion was overcome, any and all environmental problems will be
resolved with growth, not without it. The connection between economic growth and negative impacts can
be broken.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
of-truly-green-growth

9. One of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage:
(a) Economic growth needs environmental destruction to remain feasible.
(b) Growth without ecological harm is achievable through decoupling.
(c) The ecological crisis demands halting all economic growth soon.
(d) Space exploration is the only way to sustain economic growth.

10. The passage is concerned with:

(a) Analyzing the failure of zero-growth economic models.
(b) Exploring the trade-off between growth and ecology.
(c) Promoting space technologies as future solutions.
(d) Critiquing wealthy nations for ecological failures.

11. For the author, rise of populist politics raises the concern as:
(a) It delays reforms for long-term ecological goals.
(b) It promotes trade decoupling over ecology.
(c) It denies the reality of environmental harm.
(d) It reinforces dependence on constant growth.
12. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. Economic growth is essential to maintaining societal stability and reducing unemployment.
II. Achieving sustainable economic growth requires separating growth from ecological harm.
III. The belief in endless material growth is no longer widely accepted.
IV. Space exploration technologies are necessary to overcome ecological limits.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) I, II, and III only (d) II and IV only

13. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) Growth has historically harmed the environment.
(b) Unlimited growth on Earth is widely dismissed.
(c) Politicians prioritize ecology over growth.
(d) Decoupling aims to reconcile growth with ecology.

14. The author‘s analysis of growth and environmental limits suggests that:
(a) Economic growth conflicts with ecology but can coexist.
(b) Political reforms must take precedence over growth.
(c) Environmental stability requires ending all growth.
(d) Space projects are essential for sustainable growth.

IV. Is the adage ―calories in, calories out‖ true? The short answer is yes, but the full story is more nuanced.
From the moment food touches your tongue to the time it leaves your body, your digestive system and
gut microbiome work to extract its nutrients. Enzymes in your mouth, stomach and small intestine break
down food for absorption, while microbes in your large intestine digest the leftovers.
―Calories in, calories out‖ refers to the concept that weight change is determined by the balance between
the calories you consume and calories you expend. This includes not only the number of calories you eat
due to appetite and absorb via digestion, but also how well those absorbed calories are burned through
metabolism. Recent research indicates that a significant factor influencing people‘s variable appetites,
digestion and metabolism are biologically active leftover components of food, known as bioactives.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
calories-in-calories-out-in-the-end-its-your-gut-microbes-and-leftovers-that-make-your-calories-count-
237629

15. Which among the following best captures the relationship between bioactives and weight regulation as
per the passage?
(a) Bioactives block calorie absorption in the large intestine.
(b) Bioactives neutralise excess calories through enzymes.
(c) Bioactives affect digestion, appetite, and metabolism.
(d) Bioactives convert undigested food into muscle nutrients.

16. What is implied by the passage regarding the accuracy of the "calories in, calories out" concept?
(a) The concept holds universally true, but only when appetite is strictly controlled.
(b) The concept is valid, but biological variability influences how it applies to individuals.
(c) It is incorrect because digestion and metabolism are entirely independent processes.
(d) It only applies to individuals without a functioning gut microbiome.

17. Based on the passage, the following conclusions may be drawn:

I. Weight change depends on both calorie consumption and expenditure through metabolism.
II. The efficiency of enzymes in breaking down food is the primary factor in weight regulation.
Which of the above conclusions is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) II only
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

V. Under warm summer conditions, the sea ice stretching across much of the Arctic Ocean shrivelled much
more dramatically than it did during cooler summers of decades past, the National Snow and Ice Data
Center has reported. While it wasn‘t a new record low, this year‘s sea ice minimum is yet another
example of a changed Arctic environment.
Every year, the Arctic's floating sea ice shrinks under summer warmth, typically reaching a minimum
extent in September. This year, the sea ice appears to have bottomed out, continuing a long-term
downward trend driven in large measure by human-caused warming. Along with the paltry amount of sea
ice across the Arctic Ocean, other signs were a reminder (as if any was needed) that the Arctic has
warmed nearly four times faster than the globe overall.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
open-water-at-the-north-pole-to-a-marathon-run-on-an-ice-floe-it-was

18. What is the essential message in this passage?

(a) The Arctic‘s warming rate is accelerating beyond scientific predictions.
(b) A steady reduction in Arctic sea ice is indicative of human-induced climate change.
(c) Temporary variations in Arctic sea ice levels can mask long-term climate trends.
(d) Annual sea ice reductions reflect cyclical natural weather patterns in the Arctic.

19. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Arctic ice loss results from unpredictable seasonal changes.
(b) Arctic ice decline reflects long-term climate change.
(c) Seasonal shifts are the primary cause of Arctic ice loss.
(d) Arctic ice levels show signs of recovery in cooler years.

20. What is the meaning of the phrase ―paltry amount of sea ice‖ in the context of the passage?
(a) The sea ice levels are significantly lower, reflecting a profound environmental change.
(b) Sea ice has decreased slightly, with only minor long-term impacts expected.
(c) The ice levels, though low, remain within historically typical ranges.
(d) The shrinking sea ice indicates a sudden but short-lived climatic anomaly.

VI. Automating food is unlike automating anything else. Food is fundamental to life – nourishing body and
soul – so how it‘s accessed, prepared and consumed can change societies fundamentally. The
technology is real and global. Right now, robots are used to flip burgers, fry chicken, create pizzas, make
sushi, prepare salads, serve ramen, bake bread, mix cocktails and much more. AI can invent recipes
based on the molecular compatibility of ingredients or whatever a kitchen has instock. More advanced
concepts are in the works to automate the entire kitchen for fine dining.
Since technology tends to be expensive at first, the early adopters of AI kitchen technologies are
restaurants and other businesses. Over time, prices are likely to fall enough for the home market,
possibly changing both home and societal dynamics.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
are-coming-to-the-kitchen-what-that-could-mean-for-society-and

21. According to the passage, which of the following are most likely to occur as a result of kitchen
automation?
1. Enhanced efficiency and productivity in restaurants.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. A transformation in how food is accessed, prepared, and consumed across societies.

3. A rise in the popularity of molecular gastronomy due to AI recipe generation.
4. The disappearance of traditional home-cooking practices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

22. The author is most likely to agree that kitchen automation will primarily lead to:
(a) improved efficiency limited to restaurant operations.
(b) job losses due to the replacement of human labor.
(c) positive changes in both restaurants and society at large.
(d) the irreversible decline of home-cooking traditions.

VII. Ending hunger, food insecurity and any form of malnutrition is one of the Sustainable Development
Goals set to be realised by 2030. Such a goal is far removed from its realisation given rising conflicts,
climate vulnerability and extremes as well as economic slowdown in regions that remain vulnerable and
food deficient.
Food insecurity and malnutrition are a manifestation of a lack of access to and the unaffordability of
healthy diets. In fact, food sufficiency serves as a pre-requisite to address hunger. But for a nation to be
food sufficient, it needs to have an ideal distributional mechanism that ensures universal access to food
that is affordable. Further, adequate food does not necessarily imply balanced food intake with all
required nutrients to address the concern of malnourishment. Hence, a transformation from a hunger-
free environment to a nutritionally compliant one needs to take into account the unaffordability of healthy
diets, unhealthy food intakes and their underlying inequalities across the population segment.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
india-needs-to-be-hunger-free-too/[Link]

23. The passage primarily deals with challenges in achieving sustainable food systems by focusing on
(a) Improving food storage facilities (b) Addressing both hunger and malnutrition
(c) Enhancing agricultural output (d) Reducing food imports

24. According to the passage, a nation can achieve food sufficiency only if:
(a) It ensures affordable access to food (b) It reduces food waste significantly
(c) It increases reliance on food exports (d) It promotes organic farming practices
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 67
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. An early ten years had passed since the Dursleys had woken up to find their nephew on the front step,
but Privet Drive had hardly changed at all. The sun rose on the same tidy front gardens and lit up the
brass number four on the Dursleys‘ front door; it crept into their living room, which was almost exactly the
same as it had been on the night when Mr. Dursley had seen that fateful news report about the owls.
Only the photographs on the mantelpiece really showed how much time had passed. Ten years ago,
there had been lots of pictures of what looked like a large pink beach ball wearing different-colored
bonnets — but Dudley Dursley was no longer a baby, and now the photographs showed a large blond
boy riding his first bicycle, on a carousel at the fair, playing a computer game with his father, being
hugged and kissed by his mother. The room held no sign at all that another boy lived in the house, too.
Yet Harry Potter was still there, asleep at the moment, but not for long. His Aunt Petunia was awake and
it was her shrill voice that made the first noise of the day.
―Up! Get up! Now!‖ Harry woke with a start. His aunt rapped on the door again.
―Up!‖ she screeched. Harry heard her walking toward the kitchen and then the sound of the frying pan
being put on the stove. He rolled onto his back and tried to remember the dream he had been having. It
had been a good one. There had been a flying motorcycle in it. He had a funny feeling he‘d had the
same dream before.
His aunt was back outside the door.
―Are you up yet?‖ she demanded.
―Nearly,‖ said Harry.
―Well, get a move on, I want you to look after the bacon. And don‘t you dare let it burn, I want everything
perfect on Duddy‘s birthday.‖
Harry groaned.
―What did you say?‖ his aunt snapped through the door.
―Nothing, nothing…‖Dudley‘s birthday — how could he have forgotten? Harry got slowly out of bed and
started looking for socks. He found a pair under his bed and, after pulling a spider off one of them, put
them on. Harry was used to spiders, because the cupboard under the stairs was full of them, and that
was where he slept.
When he was dressed he went down the hall into the kitchen. The table was almost hidden beneath all
Dudley‘s birthday presents. It looked as though Dudley had gotten the new computer he wanted, not to
mention the second television and the racing bike. Exactly why Dudley wanted a racing bike was a
mystery to Harry, as Dudley was very fat and hated exercise — unless of course it involved punching
somebody. Dudley‘s favorite punching bag was Harry, but he couldn‘t often catch him. Harry didn‘t look
it, but he was very fast.
Source: Harry Potter and the Sorcerer Stone by J.K Rowling

1. Which of the following statements most accurately encapsulates the paradox of Harry Potter's
existence at Number Four, Privet Drive?
(a) The preservation of domestic normalcy despite harboring an extraordinary individual within its
confines
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) The juxtaposition of opulent indulgence toward one child while maintaining austere conditions for
another
(c) The deliberate erasure of a resident's presence despite their integral role in daily household
operations
(d) The perpetuation of familial discord through systematic marginalization of a younger family
member

2. What literary device does the author primarily employ to illustrate the passage of time in the Dursley
household?
(a) The evolutionary trajectory of photographic evidence depicting Dudley's developmental milestones
(b) The juxtaposition of temporal constants against the backdrop of inevitable familial transformations
(c) The utilization of celestial imagery to emphasize the cyclical nature of domestic routines
(d) The integration of auditory elements to signify the commencement of quotidian activities

3. Which inference regarding Harry's psychological adaptation to his living circumstances is most
strongly supported by the text?
(a) His propensity for rapid physical movement as a defensive mechanism against familial
antagonism
(b) The development of stoic resilience towards arachnid cohabitation due to environmental necessity
(c) An unconscious predilection for escapist dreams featuring unconventional modes of transportation
(d) The cultivation of selective amnesia regarding significant dates to mitigate emotional distress

4. What subtle indication does the author provide regarding the Dursleys' approach to parenting?
(a) The dichotomous treatment of the two boys, manifested through material possessions and living
conditions
(b) The implementation of stringent wake-up protocols to instill disciplinary habits in young residents
(c) The delegation of culinary responsibilities to foster independence and domestic capability
(d) The preservation of photographic memorabilia to document developmental milestones selectively

5. Which literary technique does the author employ to accentuate the monotony of life on Privet Drive?
(a) The utilization of temporal parallelism to emphasize the stagnation of suburban existence
(b) The implementation of sensory imagery to delineate the quotidian nature of domestic routines
(c) The incorporation of architectural constants to underscore the resistance to temporal progression
(d) The employment of meteorological consistency to reinforce the immutability of daily life

6. Which statement best describes the implicit power dynamics within the Dursley household?
(a) The orchestration of daily activities through matriarchal directives and unilateral decision-making
(b) The maintenance of domestic harmony through rigidly enforced hierarchical structures
(c) The implementation of inequitable living arrangements to reinforce familial power imbalances
(d) The utilization of culinary responsibilities as a mechanism for exerting authoritative control

7. What can be inferred about Harry's character from his response to Aunt Petunia's morning demands?
(a) A cultivated predisposition towards acquiescence as a survival mechanism in hostile environments
(b) The development of strategic compliance to minimize confrontational interactions with authority
figures
(c) An internalized acceptance of inequitable treatment manifested through reflexive obedience
(d) The exhibition of resigned pragmatism in response to unreasonable domestic expectations
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

II. Human beings are complex and composite wholes. This complexity can be addressed only by holistic
education. Unfortunately, the kind of education imparted in most higher educational institutions is piece-
meal and fragmented, with a preponderant focus on rationality. The emotional, spiritual, political and
ecological dimensions are glossed over. This is a fallout of the Cartesian paradigm with its excessive
emphasis on reason (Cogito, ergo sum).Holism, which incorporates the idea of the ‗whole‘, is at the roots
of holistic education. The UNESCO document Learning to Be: A Holistic and Integrated Approach to
Values Education for Human Development emphasises that ―Education must contribute to the all-round
development of each individual — mind and body, intelligence, sensitivity, aesthetic sense, personal
responsibility and spiritual values‖. Holistic education emerged in the 1980s in North America as a
reaction against the mechanistic paradigm that resulted in a fragmented, reductionist model of education
that left out the meta-rational dimensions of life, among other issues. John P. Miller‘s book The Holistic
Curriculum (1988) and Ron Miller‘s journal Holistic Education Review, launched in 1988, formally
inaugurated the campaign for a holistic education in the West. In What Are Schools for? Holistic
Education in American Culture, Miller cautions, ―Holistic education is not to be defined as a particular
method or technique; it must be seen as a paradigm, a set of basic assumptions and principles that can
be applied in diverse ways‖. In other words, it is not just another concept or theory, but a way of thinking
and living. Teachers have a crucial role to play in both the design and implementation of a holistic
curriculum. They should ensure that it is multi-disciplinary with a fine balance of core papers and
electives, especially those from across disciplines. Care should be taken to include art subjects for a
science programme and conversely a couple of basic science subjects in an arts programme. In addition
to languages, a foundational course in Philosophy should be introduced so that students are trained to
think critically. Second, teachers should promote experiential learning. There is no point in filling
students‘ minds with information bytes that have no direct relevance to life. On the contrary, learning by
doing not only stimulates the students but also makes learning fun-filled, inferential, and [Link],
teachers should be both indoors and outdoors people. Traditional classrooms required teachers to
operate within four walls. But a holistic curriculum will liberate them from these narrow confines by
inviting them to accompany their students on field trips. In fact, they should occasionally shed their
professorial garb and spend time with their students in the cafeteria doubling up as friends and mentors
discussing literally everything under the sun. In other words, they should be connected to their students
and be a beacon as the latter navigate life‘s narrow lanes and alleys.
Source: The Hindu

8. Which paradigm is implicated as the progenitor of the fragmented educational model critiqued in the
passage?
(a) The holistic paradigm emphasizing interconnectedness and multidimensional human development
(b) The Cartesian paradigm with its disproportionate emphasis on rational thought processes
(c) The UNESCO paradigm advocating for a balanced approach to educational methodologies
(d) The experiential learning paradigm promoting practical application of theoretical knowledge
9. How does the passage elucidate the quintessential role of educators in implementing a holistic
curriculum?
(a) By advocating for their confinement to traditional classroom settings and didactic methodologies
(b) Through emphasizing their responsibility in balancing core subjects with interdisciplinary electives
(c) By suggesting they prioritize theoretical knowledge over practical, experiential learning opportunities
(d) Through recommending they maintain a strictly professional demeanor in all student interactions

10. Which of the following best encapsulates the author's perspective on the nature of holistic education?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) A prescriptive methodology with standardized techniques applicable across diverse educational
contexts
(b) A paradigmatic shift in educational philosophy emphasizing multifaceted human development
(c) A reactive movement against traditional educational models, lacking substantive theoretical
foundations
(d) An idealistic approach to education that neglects the pragmatic demands of modern society

11. What does the passage suggest about the current state of higher education vis-à-vis holistic
development?
(a) It adequately addresses all dimensions of human development through comprehensive curricula
(b) It disproportionately emphasizes rationality while neglecting other crucial aspects of human
experience
(c) It successfully integrates emotional and spiritual dimensions into mainstream educational practices
(d) It prioritizes ecological and political awareness over traditional academic subject matter

12. How does the text characterize the ideal relationship between educators and students in a holistic
educational framework?
(a) Maintaining professional distance to ensure objectivity in academic assessments and evaluations
(b) Fostering a multifaceted connection transcending traditional classroom boundaries and hierarchies
(c) Prioritizing formal academic interactions to maximize efficiency in knowledge transmission
(d) Limiting engagement to structured classroom settings to maintain clear pedagogical boundaries
13. Which of the following most accurately represents the author's stance on experiential learning within a
holistic curriculum?
(a) It should be eschewed in favor of rigorous theoretical instruction and rote memorization
(b) It serves as an auxiliary tool, subordinate to traditional lecture-based pedagogical approaches
(c) It constitutes an indispensable component, facilitating enduring and meaningful knowledge
acquisition
(d) It should be implemented sparingly to avoid detracting from core academic subject matter

III. The Rann of Kutch evolved when waters of the Arabian Sea made incursions into this region 150-200
million years ago. Geological upheavals led to the rise of a landmass that cut off the Kutch basin from
the sea. The Little Rann of Kutch lies at the end of the Gulf of Kutch and covers an area of 5,000 [Link],
chiefly in the Surendranagar district of Gujarat. For most of the year, this landscape consists of vast,
barren and white salt flats. A striking alteration occurs when the monsoon sets in, and the Rann turns
into a shallow wetland. About 75 elevated pieces of land turn into islands, called bets by the local
Agariya and Maldhari communities. The Little Rann of Kutch is home to the wild ass sanctuary, which is
the only remaining habitat of the Indian wild ass (Equus hemionus khur), locally called khur. About 6,000
of these sandy and brown creatures live in this area. The terrain they occupy is harsh through most of
the year, and the vegetation is dry and xerophytic. Khur, like donkeys and other members of the Asinus
subgenus, possesses a remarkable ability to locate sustenance in desolate environments. Their
digestive systems are adept at processing even the most arid vegetation. The khur has outlasted
predators such as the cheetah and the lion, which were last spotted in this region in the [Link] khur
is almost the size of a zebra, and lives for 21 years. Stable groups of khur consist of females and their
young. Stallions tend to be loners, especially in the breeding season. On the flat terrain of the Rann, they
are capable of bursts of up to 70 km per hour. Life can be tough for the mares, as gestation periods are
long, 11 to 12 months, and concurrent lactation and pregnancy is sometimes [Link] khur have
recently overcome a near-extinction event on account of diseases. The viral African Horse sickness, and
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Surra (caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma evansi and spread by biting insects) had
decimated many herds, and only a few hundred survivors were estimated in the [Link] of the
mitochondrial DNA of the khur by scientists at the Government Vidarbha Institute of Science in Amravati
has indicated a low level of genetic diversity. This is because of a genetic bottleneck caused by disease
outbreaks, which left only a small number of survivors. Thanks to persistent conservation efforts, the
population of the khur has shown an upward trend in recent decades.
Source: [Link]

14. What geological phenomenon is primarily responsible for the current topographical configuration of the
Rann of Kutch?
(a) Gradual erosion of limestone deposits by persistent oceanic incursions over millennia
(b) Tectonic uplift resulting in the severance of the Kutch basin from marine influences
(c) Sedimentary accretion due to the confluence of multiple river systems in the region
(d) Glacial retreat leaving behind a vast expanse of saline flats and ephemeral wetlands

15. Which physiological adaptation of the khur is most crucial for its survival in its inhospitable habitat?
(a) Enhanced visual acuity enabling efficient navigation across the barren salt flats
(b) Highly developed olfactory senses facilitating the detection of scarce water sources
(c) Specialized digestive system capable of extracting nutrients from arid vegetation
(d) Thermoregulatory mechanisms allowing for optimal body temperature maintenance in extreme heat

16. How does the passage characterize the khur's reproductive strategy in relation to its challenging
environment?
(a) Accelerated gestation periods to maximize offspring survival in harsh conditions
(b) Prolonged lactation phases to ensure adequate nutrition for developing young
(c) Synchronization of breeding cycles with favorable environmental conditions
(d) Physiological capacity for simultaneous gestation and lactation despite resource scarcity

17. What inference can be drawn about the khur's genetic makeup based on the mitochondrial DNA
analysis?
(a) High genetic variability indicating robust adaptability to diverse environmental pressures
(b) Presence of unique genetic markers distinguishing it from other equine species
(c) Limited genetic diversity resulting from a historical population bottleneck
(d) Evidence of genetic admixture with domesticated equine species in recent history

18. Which ecological phenomenon best describes the seasonal transformation of the Little Rann of Kutch?
(a) Biorhythmic oscillation between xeric and hydric ecosystems driven by monsoonal patterns
(b) Anthropogenic alteration of landscape through controlled flooding for salt production
(c) Cyclical desertification and regreening influenced by long-term climatic variations
(d) Tidal inundation creating a temporary estuarine environment in the inland basin

19. How does the passage implicitly juxtapose the khur's survival against historical predator populations?
(a) By emphasizing the khur's superior adaptability to changing environmental conditions
(b) Through contrasting the persistence of prey species with the extinction of apex predators
(c) By highlighting the khur's evolutionary development of advanced defensive mechanisms
(d) Through comparing the relative genetic resilience of different mammalian species
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

IV. Hezbollah is known to be a highly organised group and may throw up an ideologue as a new undeclared
leader, while operational commanders may remain under the radar to avoid being targeted. This has
become a new tactic for big groups. For instance, after the killing of its chief, Ayman al-Zawahiri, in Kabul
in July 2022, al Qaeda has not yet named its new chief. The new crop of younger operational
commanders of Hezbollah may turn out to be more passionate about revenge and bigger risk-takers.
The deployment of ground troops in southern Lebanon would present serious force protection issues for
Israel, even if aerial attacks by Hezbollah pause for a while. Apart from Gaza and the West Bank, Israeli
troops could also get bogged down on Lebanese soil. It may be recalled that after the killing of Osama
Bin Laden in Pakistan in May 2011, it took the US more than 10 years to pull all its troops out of
Afghanistan. Does Israel have the capacity to do so? Would the Axis of Resistance not find ways to
counter these tactical wins in a manner difficult to fathom at the moment? The chaos in the Middle East
is surfacing in distant lands, too. On September 8, the French General Directorate for Internal Security
announced the arrests of a French-Algerian dual citizen and his partner for attempting to execute an
Iran-backed plot to assassinate seven individuals, probably all Jewish/Israeli, across Paris, Munich and
Berlin. The asymmetric warfare of the broader combat engulfing the Middle East is likely to intensify
across the region and far beyond. Iran is holding fire following the killing of Hamas political chief Ismail
Haniyeh in Tehran a day after the inauguration of the Iranian President in July, which signals strategic
patience. The US and Iran have ―indirectly‖ coordinated their words and moves since October 7 to avoid
going to war with each other, with the latter helping prevent attacks on US bases and personnel across
Syria and Iraq. The region has also not polarised along Shia-Sunni lines, whereby Sunni Palestinians are
being supported by Shia Iran and all its Shia allies, Houthis, Hezbollah and groups across Iraq and Syria.
The deep humanitarian crisis in Gaza and the expansion of the war to Lebanon have made it near-
impossible for Sunni Arab States to participate in any Israel-led informal alliance against Iran and its
allies. The security risk for Israel itself has increased since the killing of Nasrallah on September 27,
which has also been marked by Moody‘s degrading Israel‘s credit rating, the second time in this war,
from A2 to Baa1, citing ―significantly intensified geopolitical risk‖ with consequences for Israel‘s
creditworthiness. The Middle East has entered a much more dangerous escalatory phase where no
single actor can restore peace.
Source: Indian Express

20. The passage suggests that Hezbollah's potential new leadership structure, following recent events, might
be characterized by:
(a) A publicly declared ideologue supported by covert operational commanders
(b) A triumvirate of equally visible leaders sharing responsibilities equitably
(c) An undeclared ideological figurehead with clandestine operational leadership
(d) A decentralized network of autonomous cells without hierarchical structure

21. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the strategic considerations Israel faces
in southern Lebanon?
(a) Unimpeded aerial supremacy negating the need for ground troop deployment
(b) Complex force protection issues despite potential aerial attack cessation
(c) Minimal resistance due to Hezbollah's diminished operational capabilities
(d) Guaranteed swift victory through overwhelming technological superiority

22. The author's reference to the U.S. experience in Afghanistan post-Bin Laden serves primarily to:
(a) Highlight the potential for prolonged military entanglement in foreign territories
(b) Illustrate the efficacy of targeted assassinations in dismantling terrorist organizations
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Demonstrate the superiority of American military strategy in counterinsurgency operations

(d) Emphasize the inevitability of victory for technologically advanced Western powers

23. The passage suggests that the aftermath of recent events in the Middle East has resulted in:
(a) A clear polarization along Shia-Sunni lines, with predictable alliances forming
(b) Unprecedented unity among Sunni Arab states in support of Israel's actions
(c) Complex realignments transcending traditional sectarian and geopolitical divides
(d) Immediate and overt military confrontation between Iran and the United States

24. Which of the following best encapsulates the author's perspective on the current state of the Middle East
conflict?
(a) A unilateral de-escalation is imminent due to economic pressures on key actors
(b) The situation has entered a precarious phase defying single-actor resolution
(c) Traditional diplomatic channels are poised to swiftly restore regional stability
(d) Asymmetric warfare will be confined to the immediate geographical vicinity
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 68
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. As a coach and a psychologist I have had the privilege to meet with remarkably thoughtful people who
are working to gain insights into themselves, including their thoughts, emotions, and patterns of
behavior. Many of these individuals have impressive personal and professional achievements. And each
one of them has put in effort to earn their achievements.
I often hear these individuals talk about the importance of teamwork and how they tell others how helpful
it can be to ask for help and to utilize the support that is offered. Therefore, it was initially somewhat
perplexing when I also heard these individuals say that it's okay for others to receive help, but that they
can't accept help from others. They frequently go on to explain how they need to do things on their own.
These individuals have often climbed proverbial mountains to build up their careers, their families, and
their lives. They've told themselves that they can't just climb, they have to climb perfectly and completely
on their own.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
enough/202410/why-is-it-so-hard-to-accept-help

1. What implicit challenge do individuals in the passage face regarding their mindset toward accepting
help?
(a) They fear becoming dependent on others if they rely on external assistance.
(b) They prefer to offer help rather than receive it, which reinforces their sense of worth.
(c) They view receiving help as a threat to their self-perception of competence.
(d) They believe teamwork only applies in professional settings, not in personal matters.

2. Which of the following statements identifies a contradiction in the behavior described in the passage?
(a) Individuals encourage teamwork in principle but avoid it in practice for themselves.
(b) They achieve professional success by embracing help, yet deny others the same opportunity.
(c) Although they are skilled at managing others, they fail to recognize the need for self-care.
(d) They believe teamwork is ideal for families, but not applicable in professional environments.

3. What is the meaning of the word "perplexing" as used in the passage?

(a) Surprising due to being unexpected (b) Confusing and difficult to understand
(c) Annoying because of inconsistency (d) Disappointing and frustrating

4. What underlying reason might explain why the individuals feel the need to achieve perfection
independently?
(a) They fear external help will diminish the recognition of their success.
(b) They believe personal growth is only achieved through struggle and isolation.
(c) They feel indebted to those who offer help, which makes them uncomfortable.
(d) They think accepting help compromises the moral value of their achievements.

II. At 78 degrees north latitude, which is about 12 degrees farther north than the lower boundary of the
Arctic Circle, Svalbard is no stranger to polar night. Throughout this period of darkness, the sun remains
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

hidden from us. The sun‘s position is so distant that no light reaches Svalbard at all, casting the sky into
a perpetual state of pitch-black darkness. Here, only the moon, the stars and the occasional
appearances of the northern lights offer up some natural light for us during this everlasting night.
Polar night is the season that takes place each year inside polar circles when night lasts for more than
24 hours. This phenomenon occurs in the Arctic and Antarctic Circles due to the Earth‘s rotation in
relation to where the sun is positioned. Because the Earth rotates on a tilted axis at 23.5 degrees, there
are periods of the year when the areas located in the polar circles on the top and bottom of our planet
are either completely obscured from or completely exposed to the light of the sun.
Some latitudes are not situated far enough north to experience continual total darkness. Instead, these
locations experience polar twilight as their brightest periods during this season, which replaces their
daylight. Svalbard is far enough north to feel the full effects of polar night and witness nearly three
months of complete darkness between the middle of November and the end of January.
Although you might assume this time of year is the most challenging period for the locals who call
Svalbard home, I quickly learned after my arrival that it is a season many people appreciate. The town of
Longyearbyen carries on with daily life in the usual matter. The only notable difference is that everyone
walks around with a headlamp permanently attached to their heads.
Since Svalbard lacks an Indigenous population due to its remoteness and how far north it is, a
substantial majority of its residents have moved here by choice. Longyearbyen, the largest town on the
archipelago, is typically viewed as a place to find employment for a while, rather than a place to make
into your lifelong residence.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
experience-polar-night-in-the-worlds-northernmost-town-180985271/

5. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Neutral (b) Critical
(c) Nostalgic (d) Sarcastic

6. What is the author‘s stance regarding the polar night in Svalbard?

(a) It is a disruptive time that demands extraordinary adjustment from residents
(b) It is a unique period that residents have come to appreciate
(c) It is a regrettable aspect of Svalbard that locals endure out of necessity
(d) It is an unchangeable natural phenomenon that limits human activities

7. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(a) The polar night in Svalbard lasts from mid-November to late January.
(b) Polar twilight occurs in places farther south than Svalbard's latitude.
(c) The tilt of the Earth‘s axis at 23.5 degrees leads to polar night.
(d) Longyearbyen has Indigenous residents adapted to the harsh climate.

8. Identify the part of speech of the word ―perpetual‖ as used in the passage.
"The sun‘s position is so distant that no light reaches Svalbard at all, casting the sky into a perpetual
state of pitch-black darkness."
(a) Verb (b) Adverb
(c) Adjective (d) Noun

9. Which of the following synthesizes the key idea behind why Svalbard‘s polar night occurs?
(a) Polar night happens when the moon and stars remain visible for extended periods.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Earth‘s rotation makes sunlight unavailable to certain polar regions for months.
(c) The sun‘s complete absence behind the horizon causes the polar night to occur.
(d) The northern lights provide illumination throughout the polar night season.

10. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Despite the extreme conditions of polar night, residents of Svalbard have adapted and found
meaning in it.
(b) The polar night is an unyielding and harsh natural phenomenon, disrupting life in Svalbard.
(c) Svalbard‘s polar night is primarily defined by the absence of sunlight and reliance on artificial lighting.
(d) The polar night phenomenon highlights the Earth‘s fascinating axial tilt and its effects on life at the
poles.

III. With 1.1 million described species and ten quintillion individual insects hopping, buzzing, burrowing and
swimming about, this could seem like a daunting exercise. Is your first impulse to choose insects known
to carry disease or in some other way cause us harm? The rat flea initiated the Black Death that slashed
the world‘s population by a third. Mosquito-borne malaria kills well over half a million people a year and
has altered the trajectory of wars and the building of vital infrastructure, such as the Panama Canal. The
body louse, as a vector of epidemic typhus, helped ruin Napoleon‘s march on Moscow. There are crop
destroyers, kitchen invaders, and insects that defend themselves with an unpleasant sting.
Though the species of insects implicated in these unhappy human interactions are not to be dismissed,
in the grand scheme of biodiversity, they represent tiny twigs on the insect tree of life that pale in
comparison to the remaining bastion of hexapod marvels that positively impact our lives, through
ecosystem services (like pollination and decomposition) or in shaping our cultures.
Insects affect how we dress, what we eat, where we travel, and how we perceive the world. Insects are
the subject of endless acts of biomimicry, inspiring engineers and architects, fashion designers and
artists. Whether you choose to acknowledge or embrace insects, or recoil at their presence, they are
your neighbors and your intimate companions, and their presence permeates your life in profound and
positive ways. Insects outnumber, outweigh and predate us. They fill countless niches, feed others, and
perform feats of wonder and beauty. Without insects, not only would we lose explicit and hidden facets
that enrich our cultures, but the fabric of the natural world would unravel, leaving our cultural heritage—
and us—a mere footnote in Earth‘s history.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
moths-to-fruit-flies-these-five-insects-have-changed-the-world-180985252/

11. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The adverse role of insects in spreading diseases throughout history.
(b) The dangers posed by insects and the challenges in controlling them.
(c) The crucial contribution of insects to biodiversity and human culture.
(d) The financial impact of insect invasions and strategies to manage them.

12. The passage primarily emphasizes

(a) How insects are vectors of diseases and threats to human health.
(b) The intricate and unavoidable connection between humans and insects.
(c) Strategies to eradicate harmful insect populations.
(d) Ways to avoid the presence of insects in human environments.

13. Which of the following statements most closely aligns with the passage's view on insect-borne diseases?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Insect-borne diseases represent the majority of insect-human interactions.

(b) While destructive, diseases spread by insects are an insignificant aspect of biodiversity.
(c) Insect-borne diseases are inevitable consequences of human ignorance.
(d) These diseases have shaped history but do not define the broader role of insects.

14. According to the passage, what would be the most likely consequence if insects disappeared from the
planet?
(a) A resurgence in human exploration and scientific discovery.
(b) The unraveling of ecosystems and loss of cultural heritage.
(c) An increase in disease-free environments worldwide.
(d) Reduced need for ecological conservation efforts.

15. Which of the following is the most definitively implied by the passage?
(a) The impact of insect-borne diseases on human history cannot be overlooked.
(b) All insects will eventually become part of the human cultural heritage.
(c) Most modern infrastructure owes its design to insect biomimicry.
(d) The survival of the human race is directly dependent on insect populations.

IV. From influencer therapists on social media to psychotherapy platforms advertising on TV and radio,
going to see a therapist is increasingly mainstream – yet many people know little about who they are
seeing and what they are getting.
Experts said more information and awareness among the public of how therapy works was desperately
needed, to minimise the risks of making their mental health worse. The public needs more understanding
that psychotherapy can do good but it also can do harm, and anything that‘s powerful enough to change
your life for the better is powerful enough to do some damage if it‘s in the wrong hands and done
wrongly, or recklessly.
There was very little good research evidence to establish the extent of the harm caused by under
qualified therapists. In most cases, the evidence suggested therapy does good, with research suggesting
around 5-8% of people feel worse after therapy. However, it was particularly hard to research ―the wild
west situations like the online areas‖. It is inappropriate when therapists say ―you have to feel worse
before you feel better‖, and when a therapist does not discuss expectations with the client. The therapist
has to assess risk, and some don‘t. They plunge in without understanding anyone‘s vulnerabilities or a
history of psychotic breaks.
One of the reasons therapy goes wrong is transgressive therapists who are literally abusive or
exploitative, and they are in the minority, but they do exist. But much more common are people getting in
out of their depth, they don‘t understand the limits of their competence – they‘re trying their best to be
helpful but they‘re not able to see they‘re making things worse.
Regulation would help ensure that all therapists have an agreed minimum level of training and
experience, and would be expected to keep up with new research and professional updates.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
therapy-goes-wrong-the-problem-of-underqualified-psychotherapists

16. The author would most likely disagree with:

(a) Therapy always brings positive outcomes for clients.
(b) Some therapists might unintentionally harm their clients.
(c) Regulation in psychotherapy can improve the standard of care.
(d) Online therapy poses risks due to the lack of control over practice.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

17. The term ―transgressive‖ in the passage most closely refers to:
(a) Violating established ethical standards or boundaries.
(b) Operating without the required professional licenses.
(c) Practicing beyond one‘s level of competence and training.
(d) Engaging with clients beyond professional settings or hours.

18. Which of the following is the most logical corollary to the passage?
(a) Greater public awareness about therapy methods can mitigate the risks associated with therapy.
(b) Only licensed therapists should be permitted to practice online to reduce harm.
(c) The public should expect to feel worse initially when starting therapy with a new therapist.
(d) Harm from therapy is inevitable and cannot be minimized even with regulation and training.

19. According to the passage, which of the following factors are essential to minimize harm in
psychotherapy?
1. Proper regulation ensuring minimum levels of training and experience among therapists.
2. Raising public awareness about the risks and benefits of therapy.
3. Avoiding therapists who expect clients to feel worse before getting better.
4. Therapists must avoid any practice on online platforms to prevent harm.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

V. The shore: that immeasurable fringe that will exist as long as sea and land do. At waterfronts, we relish
gently splashing waters at the edge of glassy expanses, where powerful currents move unfathomable
volumes at speed. At waterfronts, we dread waves stirred by the wind and coming at an inexorable beat
from invisible distances.
The shore has always evoked deep emotions of detachment, exposure and homecoming for our
terrestrial selves seeking at sea adventure, betterment, power, profit and sustenance. No surprise that
the arts, science, technology and accounts of everyday endeavours have been devoted to its words and
numbers beyond survey. Here, we turn to some literature that comes down to us from Greek antiquity
and to a little physics held in common with those predecessors. Scrolling documents that survived history
will tell us of some who feared shipwrecks and longed for a safe return; and of others who wondered
how waves deliver the motion harvested from the wind to the land. In the shore we will recognise a
fascination for instability in deed and in metaphor; the quests for shelter from harm and for sound
knowledge; and perpetual laughter that language has forgotten.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
expresses-a-seaborne-imagination

20. The author is most likely to agree that the shore symbolizes:
(a) A place where only scientific inquiries meet their conclusions
(b) A realm of contrasting emotional states and pursuits
(c) An environment where human curiosity gives way to resignation
(d) A setting dedicated purely to poetic and imaginative ventures

21. In the context of the passage, the phrase "fascination for instability in deed and in metaphor" most likely
refers to:
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The unpredictable nature of both human endeavors and poetry

(b) The uncertain outcomes of technological and maritime advances
(c) The fluidity of artistic creations and natural phenomena
(d) The constant tension between adventure and safety on the shore

22. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The shore serves as a metaphor for the instability inherent in human endeavors.
2. Ancient texts reveal both a longing for safety and an intellectual curiosity about natural phenomena.
3. The arts and sciences are presented as opposing forces in human understanding of the shore.
4. Human fascination with the shore stems solely from fear of shipwreck and the unknown.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
VI. In 1793-1794, during the height of the French Revolution, a deck of playing cards was introduced that
radically changed the future of playing cards as well as symbolically portrayed the transformation
occurring in France. To most people, a deck of cards is just 52 pieces that are played in a variety of
games. In 18th century France, they were used for similar games. Yet, upon closer inspection, playing
cards reveal the psyche of a populace – what they enjoying doing, what they fear, what they love.
Although somewhat lengthy, Joyce Goggin‘s perspective is informative on this point: In The Rape of the
Lock, Pope‘s mock epic about a game of cards, we read that ―mighty Contests arise from trivial Things‖;
and since the entry of this line into the English language, the word ‗trivial‘ has been inextricably linked to
the playing card. Utterly ubiquitous, playing cards blend comfortably into the background of experience
as a way of passing time, and because they are used as randomisers or markers in games, playing
cards are most often seen as a means to an end rather than the focus of attention. It is this ostensible
triviality of cards that has discouraged serious study of them and ensures that playing cards persist as
arcane bits of the everyday. So while the court cards with their elaborate costumes and antique icons
resonate with a deep connection to the past, the rich cultural history of the playing card remains largely
untapped.
The symbols inscribed on the cards tell us something about history, culture, and social relations. The
―Revolutionnaires‖ deck of the French Revolution, also known as Jeu Prise de la Bastille, illustrates how
ideology functions in popular culture. Designed by the French philosopher, the Count of Saint Simon,
and produced by the French craftsmen Jaume and Dugoure in 1793, the Revolutionnaires deck creates
ideological symbols intended to produce particular political meanings (Benjamin, 2002). They also
represent how everyday objects, which often go unnoticed, can reinforce ideological beliefs in the larger
cultural framework.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]
of-symbols-the-ideological-representations-of-a-french-revolution-playing-card-deck-the-revolutionnaires

23. What does Joyce Goggin suggest about playing cards in the excerpt?
(a) They are mere tools for recreational activities with no deeper significance.
(b) They symbolically represent the trivial pursuits of 18th-century French society.
(c) They are often overlooked in studies despite their deep cultural and historical significance.
(d) They serve primarily as randomizers in games without any connection to cultural practices.

24. According to the text, how does the "Revolutionnaires" deck of cards reflect the ideological currents of its
time?
(a) By transforming the card deck into a vehicle for trivial entertainment during the French Revolution.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) By using elaborate costumes and antique icons to echo the opulence of the French aristocracy.
(c) By creating symbols on the cards that were intended to produce specific political meanings.
(d) By randomly assigning political figures to card designs without consideration of their symbolic
importance.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 69
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. If the citizens of a nation were asked what should be the general aim of the national policy, they would
reply, in tenor if not in exact words, that it should be such as to guarantee them ―an honourable,
prosperous, and secure existence.‖
No normal citizen of a democracy would willingly imperil this by a resort to war. Only when he considers,
or it is suggested to him convincingly, that his honour, prosperity, or security are endangered by the
policy of another nation, will he consent to the grave step of making war.
When, however, the fateful decision for war has been taken, what does common sense tell us should be
the national objective? To ensure a resumption and progressive continuance of what may be termed the
peace-time policy, with the shortest and least costly interruption of the normal life of the country.
What stands in the way of this? The determination of the hostile nation to enforce its contrary policy in
defiance of our own aims and desires. To gain our aim or objective we have to change this adverse will
into a compliance with our own policy, and the sooner and more cheaply in lives and money we can do
this, the better chance is there of a continuance of national prosperity in the widest sense.
The aim of a nation in war is, therefore, to subdue the enemy‘s will to resist, with the least possible
human and economic loss to itself.
If we realize that this is the true objective, we shall appreciate the fact that the destruction of the enemy‘s
armed forces is but a means—and not necessarily an inevitable or infallible one—to the attainment of
our goal. It is clearly not, despite the assertion of military pundits, the sole true objective in war. Clear the
air of the fog of catchwords which surrounds the conduct of war, grasp that in the human will lies the
source and mainspring of all conflict, as of all other activities of man‘s life, and it becomes transparently
clear that our goal in war can only be attained by the subjugation of the opposing will. All acts, such as
defeat in the field, propaganda, blockade, diplomacy, or attack on the centres of government and
population, are seen to be but means to that end; and, instead of being tied to one fixed means, we are
free to weigh the respective merits of each. To choose whichever are most suitable, most rapid, and
most economic, i.e., which will gain the goal with the minimum disruption of our national life during and
after the war. Of what use is decisive victory in battle if we bleed to death as a result of it?
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―The Future of War‖ by Capt. B. H. LIDDELL HART
1. The passage suggests that national policies aim to guarantee citizens a secure and prosperous
existence, yet:
(a) these policies continually need to adapt to the evolving dynamics of global power structures.
(b) these goals often necessitate ongoing economic sacrifices from the citizens.
(c) citizens generally prioritize economic prosperity over national security.
(d) the effectiveness of these policies is primarily evaluated through international trade indices.

2. According to the passage, what pivotal factor influenced the citizens' consent to engage in war, despite
their fundamental preference for peace and security?
(a) Belief that their national sovereignty was at risk due to international trade disputes.
(b) Economic incentives promised by the government for supporting the war.
(c) Perception that their honor, prosperity, or security was threatened by another nation.
(d) Increased political pressure from allied nations.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

3. According to the passage, which method is identified as a primary strategy for achieving the goal of
subduing the enemy's will in war?
(a) Unilaterally increasing economic sanctions to cripple the enemy‘s economy.
(b) Utilizing a combination of military actions, psychological operations, and diplomatic maneuvers.
(c) Imposing a continuous military presence in hostile territories.
(d) Prioritizing electronic warfare to undermine the enemy's communication systems.

4. What does the author imply by the last line of the passage?
(a) Military victories are the ultimate goal of any war regardless of the consequences.
(b) Winning battles can be counterproductive if they lead to severe national detriment.
(c) The enemy's defeat should be pursued at all costs, including significant national sacrifices.
(d) The most effective military strategy focuses solely on immediate battlefield success.

5. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Pragmatic (b) Pessimistic
(c) Aggressive (d) Optimistic

6. What does the word "subjugation" in the passage most closely mean?
(a) Liberation (b) Cooperation
(c) Domination (d) Negotiation

II. When Buck earned sixteen hundred dollars in five minutes for John Thornton, he made it possible for his
master to pay off certain debts and to journey with his partners into the East after a fabled lost mine, the
history of which was as old as the history of the country. Many men had sought it; few had found it; and
more than a few there were who had never returned from the quest. This lost mine was steeped in
tragedy and shrouded in mystery. No one knew of the first man. The oldest tradition stopped before it got
back to him. From the beginning there had been an ancient and ramshackle cabin. Dying men had
sworn to it, and to the mine the site of which it marked, clinching their testimony with nuggets that were
unlike any known grade of gold in the Northland.
But no living man had looted this treasure house, and the dead were dead; wherefore John Thornton
and Pete and Hans, with Buck and half a dozen other dogs, faced into the East on an unknown trail to
achieve where men and dogs as good as themselves had failed. They sledded seventy miles up the
Yukon, swung to the left into the Stewart River, passed the Mayo and the McQuestion, and held on until
the Stewart itself became a streamlet, threading the upstanding peaks which marked the backbone of
the continent.
John Thornton asked little of man or nature. He was unafraid of the wild. With a handful of salt and a rifle
he could plunge into the wilderness and fare wherever he pleased and as long as he pleased. Being in
no haste, Indian fashion, he hunted his dinner in the course of the day‘s travel; and if he failed to find it,
like the Indian, he kept on travelling, secure in the knowledge that sooner or later he would come to it.
So, on this great journey into the East, straight meat was the bill of fare, ammunition and tools principally
made up the load on the sled, and the time-card was drawn upon the limitless future.
To Buck it was boundless delight, this hunting, fishing, and indefinite wandering through strange places.
For weeks at a time they would hold on steadily, day after day; and for weeks upon end they would
camp, here and there, the dogs loafing and the men burning holes through frozen muck and gravel and
washing countless pans of dirt by the heat of the fire. Sometimes they went hungry, sometimes they
feasted riotously, all according to the abundance of game and the fortune of hunting. Summer arrived,
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

and dogs and men packed on their backs, rafted across blue mountain lakes, and descended or
ascended unknown rivers in slender boats whipsawed from the standing forest.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―The Call of the Wild‖ by Jack London

7. What does the passage primarily reveal about the nature of the lost mine and its impact on those who
have pursued it?
(a) The mine consistently offered vast wealth to those who found it, leading many to successful fortunes.
(b) The mine was easily locatable by following the traditions and stories passed down through
generations.
(c) The mine, steeped in tragedy and wrapped in mystery, often led seekers to their demise without
achieving success.
(d) The mine was a myth fabricated by locals to attract prospectors and boost the local economy.
8. What best describes John Thornton‘s approach to survival and travel during his journey into the East?
(a) He meticulously planned his daily meals and meticulously prepared for emergencies.
(b) He relied on his extensive survival skills, utilizing minimal resources to sustain himself and his team.
(c) He travelled with a large supply of food to ensure no dependency on hunting or natural resources.
(d) He primarily depended on guidance and provisions from local settlements along his route.

9. What primarily constituted the load on John Thornton's sled during his journey into the East?
(a) A varied assortment of camping gear and personal belongings for comfort.
(b) Ammunition and tools, emphasizing the practical needs of the wilderness journey.
(c) Medical supplies and emergency equipment for potential crises.
(d) Maps and navigation instruments to guide through unfamiliar territories.

10. What does the author mean by the line, "The oldest tradition stopped before it got back to him"?
(a) The origin of the legend is unknown, and no one knows who first discovered the mine.
(b) There is a record of who initially found the mine, but the information is only partially accurate.
(c) The earliest explorers left written records, but they were eventually lost over time.
(d) The legend of the mine was passed down through generations with details changing frequently.

11. What best reflects the nature of Buck and his team‘s experience during their expedition as described in
the passage?
(a) A consistent routine of hunting and fishing that provided reliable sustenance and comfort.
(b) A dynamic and adventurous lifestyle characterized by fluctuating periods of abundance and scarcity.
(c) A leisurely and unchallenging journey marked by constant relaxation and ample food supplies.
(d) A perilous trek dominated by constant threats from wildlife and harsh environmental conditions.

12. According to the passage, what does "bill of fare" refer to?
(a) A list of luxurious dishes that John Thornton planned to prepare during their journey.
(b) The assortment of provisions carried on the sled for hunting and cooking during their travels.
(c) A menu of fine dining options available at various stops along the journey.
(d) A schedule detailing the times and locations for meals during their expedition.
III. On a wintry February evening, along a narrow road leading to a village nestled in the East Khasi Hills in
India‘s north-east, some children are playfully running around with branches of dry trees.
Smoke hangs in the cold air. Around another winding turn on the road, a fire in the forest comes into
sight. A local farmer is burning the undergrowth of the land he owns, employing the traditional slash-and-
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

burn cultivation method. This method, also known as swidden agriculture, is referred to locally as jhum
cultivation and has been prevalent across South and South-East Asia for centuries.
The dry winter months of January, February and March sees scores of such fires crackling their way
through forests, across all states of north-east India.
This fire-fallow farming method helps fix potash in the soil, thereby increasing its fertility. As I stop to
watch the fire spread through the forest undergrowth – a spectacular sight – the children come and join
me. Only later do I realise that they were not just playing around: they were there as fire-fighters.
I asked the farmer about his land. He explained that he plans to grow pineapples after the soil is
prepared. The pineapples of Meghalaya are one of the sweetest and juiciest in northeast India. This
forest land lies along an arterial road connecting villages near the border with Bangladesh. Livelihoods in
these villages are sustained by farming privately owned plots of land or community-owned forests
adjoining the village. The major crops are betel nuts and leaves, pineapple, jackfruit, oranges, bay
leaves, bamboo, tapioca and honey.
As the fire quickly spread through the forest, the farmer called upon the children to begin their fire-
fighting activities. The goal is not to allow the fire to spread to the adjoining plot of land. The children get
busy brandishing the branches they had been playing with at the edge of the plot. They rush into small
nooks and corners to effectively contain the fire and put it out.
Not too dangerous an activity for children to perform? I ask the farmer. He shrugs, saying that it is
normal. The children need to learn the ways of the forest, of preparing the land for cultivation. They need
to know how to conserve water in the dry season and deal with turbulent streams in the monsoon,
manage fire and be aware of its implications and assess wind directions from an early age.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―The fire-fighting children of the Khasi Hills and the
decline of traditional farming in north-east India‖, by Mirza Zulfiqur Rahman, The Conversation

13. What is the primary purpose of the slash-and-burn cultivation method as mentioned in the passage?
(a) To enable the expansion of farming territories by systematically clearing dense forest areas.
(b) To promote biodiversity through the intermittent renewal of forest ecosystems.
(c) To incrementally improve soil fertility through the strategic application of fire.
(d) To mitigate the risk of spontaneous wildfires through deliberate and periodic undergrowth clearance,
reducing fuel loads.
14. What understanding does the author gain about the traditional roles of children in agricultural
communities as described in the passage?
(a) Children are primarily responsible for the commercial sale of the crops grown.
(b) Children are encouraged to take part in non-agricultural community events rather than farm-related
tasks.
(c) Children are actively involved in essential farming practices, including fire management and land
preparation.
(d) Children are discouraged from participating in farming activities to focus solely on their education.

15. What does the farmer imply by his response, 'He shrugs, saying that it is normal,' when asked about the
children's involvement in fire-fighting activities?
(a) He believes the activities are too dangerous for children but feels powerless to change the tradition.
(b) He is indifferent to the dangers of the activities, accepting them as a routine part of childhood in the
community.
(c) He feels that the activities are an excellent way for children to build character and physical strength.
(d) He is unsure about the appropriateness of the activities but follows the community's lead.
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16. What does the word "undergrowth" imply in the context of the passage?
(a) The accumulation of dead plant material and organic residues found on the forest floor.
(b) The dense layer of smaller vegetation, including shrubs and young trees, that thrives beneath the
forest canopy.
(c) The mat of low-lying perennial plants and fungi that form the lowest stratum of a forest ecosystem.
(d) The network of secondary and tertiary branches that extend beneath the primary canopy of mature
trees.

IV. In the medieval Latin world, Nature could – and often did – act predictably. But some phenomena were
sufficiently weird and rare that they could not be considered of a piece with the rest of the natural world.
They therefore were classified as preternatural: literally, praeter naturalis or ‗beyond nature‘.
What might fall into this category? Pretty much any freak occurrence or deviation from the ordinary
course of things: a two-headed sheep, for example. Then again, some phenomena qualified as
preternatural because their causes were not readily apparent and were thus difficult to know. Take
certain hidden – but essential – characteristics of objects, such as the supposedly fire-retardant skin of
the salamander, or the way that certain gems were thought to detect or counteract poison. Magnets
were, of course, a clear case of the preternatural at work.
If the manifestations of the preternatural were various, so were its causes. Nature herself might be
responsible – just because she often behaved predictably did not mean that she was required to do so –
but so, equally, might demons and angels. People of great ability and learning could use their
knowledge, acquired from ancient texts, to predict preternatural events such as eclipses. Or they might
harness the secret properties of plants or natural laws to bring about certain desired outcomes. Magic
was largely a matter of manipulating this preternatural domain: summoning demons, interpreting the
stars, and preparing a physic could all fall under the same capacious heading.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―Preternatural machines‖, by E R Truitt, aeon

17. According to the passage, which agents are acknowledged as responsible for causing preternatural
phenomena?
(a) A diverse array of causes including unpredictable natural forces, supernatural beings, and human
intervention.
(b) Solely unpredictable natural events that occasionally produce anomalies.
(c) Primarily human errors and scientific misjudgments leading to unusual occurrences.
(d) Natural occurrences that are misinterpreted as unusual due to a lack of scientific understanding.

18. Which of the following message is being conveyed by the author in this passage?
(a) The medieval Latin world viewed preternatural phenomena as part of nature's unpredictability,
encompassing unusual occurrences, hidden properties, and sometimes the influence of supernatural
forces.
(b) The medieval Latin world believed that preternatural events only occurred when natural laws were
deliberately broken by human intervention.
(c) Medieval thinkers were skeptical of preternatural events, often dismissing them as superstitions or
myths lacking scientific basis.
(d) In the medieval view, preternatural occurrences were always beneficial signs from nature, meant to
guide or protect humanity.

19. Which of the following is a synonym for the word "capacious" as used in the passage?
(a) Expansive (b) Intricate
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Limited (d) Narrow

V. One of the most fascinating developments in modern science is the surprising discovery of recent
decades that the laws of physics are fine tuned for life. This means that, for life to be possible, certain
numbers in physics had to fall within an incredibly narrow range. Like Goldilocks‘s porridge, these
numbers had to be just right, not too big and not too small.
Perhaps the most striking case is that of the cosmological constant, the number that measures the force
that powers the accelerating expansion of the universe. The cosmological constant is an odd number: it‘s
extremely small but non-zero. You don‘t tend to find fundamental constants with that kind of value. But
it‘s a good job that it does. Because, if the cosmological constant were a bit bigger, everything would
have been forced apart so rapidly that no two particles would ever have met. We would have no stars,
no planets nor any kind of structural complexity. On the other hand, if the cosmological constant was less
than zero, it would have added to gravity, meaning that the entire universe would have collapsed back
on itself within a split second. For life to be possible, this number had to be in the strange, highly specific
category it in fact occupies: extremely close to zero without crossing over into the negative. There are
many other examples of finely tuned constants in current physics.
As a society, we‘re somewhat in denial about fine-tuning, because it doesn‘t fit with the picture of science
we‘ve got used to. It‘s a bit like in the 16th century when we started getting evidence that our Earth
wasn‘t in the centre of the universe, and people struggled to accept it because it didn‘t fit with the picture
of the universe they‘d got used to. Nowadays, we scoff at our ancestors‘ inability to follow the evidence
where it leads. But every generation absorbs a worldview it can‘t see beyond. I believe we‘re in a similar
situation now with respect to the mounting evidence for cosmic purpose. We‘re ignoring what is lying in
plain view because it doesn‘t fit with the version of reality we‘ve got used to. Future generations will mock
us for our intransigence.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ―Purposeful universe‖, by Philip Goff, aeon

20. What is the significance of the cosmological constant's specific value as described in the passage?
(a) It represents the typical value for most fundamental constants in physics.
(b) It facilitates the rapid expansion of the universe to promote complex structure formation.
(c) It is crucial in maintaining a balance that allows the universe to support complex life by preventing
rapid expansion or immediate collapse.
(d) It indicates a random variation in universal constants that has no significant impact on the structure
of the universe.

21. How does the analogy of "Goldilocks‘s porridge" enhance the explanation of the cosmological constant in
the passage?
(a) It illustrates the necessity of extreme conditions for the emergence of complex life.
(b) It highlights the precarious nature of scientific constants, which are constantly fluctuating.
(c) It emphasizes the precision required in the values of constants for life to be possible.
(d) It compares the cosmological constant's effect to that of cooking methods on porridge.
22. What is the overall tone of the passage?
(a) Reflective (b) Skeptical
(c) Technical (d) Nostalgic

23. According to the passage, how is modern society‘s reaction to fine-tuning evidence compared to a past
scientific discovery?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Modern society shows openness to new scientific ideas, contrasting with past resistance to paradigm
shifts.
(b) Unlike previous generations, modern society welcomes discoveries that reshape long-held scientific
beliefs.
(c) Modern society‘s scientific skepticism primarily concerns findings that cannot be empirically proven.
(d) Modern society‘s resistance to fine-tuning mirrors historical reluctance to accept transformative
scientific ideas.

24. Which of the following suggestions would be endorsed by the author?

1. Scientific investigation should continue to follow a strict materialistic approach
2. Scientists should be more open to considering interpretations that go beyond the materialistic
framework
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 70
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. The Battles of Lexington and Concord were engagements fought between British regular soldiers and
militia from the colony of Massachusetts. The British troops were on their way to seize military supplies
stored in the town of Concord when they were confronted by the colonial militiamen.
The battles were the culmination of a decade-long struggle between the British Parliament and the
Thirteen Colonies of British North America over the issue of American rights and the idea of 'no taxation
without representation'. Beginning in the mid-1760s, Parliament had attempted to impose several taxes
on the colonies. Each of these acts had been vehemently resisted in the colonies, on the basis that,
since the Americans were unrepresented in Parliament, Parliament had no power to directly tax them.
Incidents such as the Boston Massacre and the Boston Tea Party only deepened the rift between the
mother country and her children; hoping to restore order, particularly in the impertinent Province of
Massachusetts Bay, Parliament enacted the Intolerable Acts, which, among other things, closed
Boston's port to commerce and replaced several of the colony's elected officials with royal appointees.
This was too much for the colonists to stomach. In September, delegates from twelve of the Thirteen
Colonies gathered at the First Continental Congress in Philadelphia to discuss a potential boycott of
British imports. While there, the delegates approved the Suffolk Resolves, a measure that called for the
local militias of Massachusetts to prepare to defend the colony's liberties. Tensions between the colony's
patriots and Loyalist factions increased over the winter, as British troops routinely marched into the
Massachusetts countryside looking to confiscate weapons and ammunition from the militias. On a
particular day in April, a column of British troops set out to seize Patriot munitions stored in the town of
Concord. On the way, they were confronted by roughly American militiamen on Lexington Green; after a
brief standoff, someone fired a shot, leading the soldiers to fire two volleys into the militia, killing and
wounding several.
The British continued to Concord, only to find that most of the supplies had been moved or destroyed.
Meanwhile, the British covering force at Concord's North Bridge was engaged by militiamen, and the
soldiers were forced to withdraw. During their retreat to Boston, the British soldiers were harassed by a
steadily growing number of New England militiamen, who took shots at the regulars from behind barns,
trees, and stonewalls. When the British finally reached the safety of Boston, as many as colonial
militiamen waited outside the town, ready to begin the Siege of Boston. The Battles of Lexington and
Concord, led to the Revolutionary War and the independence of the United States of America, becoming
one of the key moments of the broader American Revolution.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions: [Link]
and-concord/#google_vignette

1. What factor in the British Parliament's policies most directly led to the Battles of Lexington and Concord?
(a) The gradual reduction of colonial autonomy and imposition of direct rule from London.
(b) The establishment of a series of progressively restrictive laws governing colonial trade.
(c) The Parliament's insistence on enforcing tax laws without colonial representation.
(d) Introduction of military forces to maintain order and assert British authority in the colonies.
2. What can be inferred about the colonial militias' preparedness for conflict with British troops?
(a) The militias were well-prepared and highly organized, anticipating a conflict for a long time.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) They were hastily assembled and lacked formal military training but were motivated by a strong
sense of purpose.
(c) The militias were primarily defensive and had no intentions of engaging in open conflict with the
British.
(d) They were under-equipped and relied heavily on foreign support to counter the British forces.

3. In the context of the passage, which idiom best describes the colonies' reaction to the British
Parliament's measures?
(a) "The straw that broke the camel's back" (b) "Biting off more than they can chew"
(c) "Beating around the bush" (d) "Turning a blind eye"

4. How would you describe the author's writing style in the passage?
(a) Persuasive (b) Descriptive
(c) Narrative (d) Technical

5. Which statement accurately reflects the events leading to the Battles of Lexington and Concord?
(a) The Intolerable Acts were seen as a moderate measure by the colonies to maintain order.
(b) Escalating taxes led to widespread acceptance of British governance in the colonies.
(c) The colonies' reaction to the Intolerable Acts included organizing armed resistance.
(d) British attempts to reconcile with the colonies prevented any military confrontations.

6. What figure of speech is evident in the description of the British and colonial relationship as 'the mother
country and her children' in the passage?
(a) Simile (b) Metonymy
(c) Synecdoche (d) Personification

II. The district agriculture department has launched a unique initiative to help farmers from 16 tribal villages
near Bhimashankar. The department has joined hands with a private organization to create lucrative and
alternate options for the farmers in order to help them earn a good income. The farmers from these
villages traditionally depend on growing paddy farming. They cannot even grow other crops as the farms
are on hilly terrain. The income on paddy harvest is not as impressive as compared to sugar cane. As a
result, many farmers migrate to other cities for jobs. To prevent this trend our office tested the soil in
these villages and provided saplings to these farmers. So far, 45 farmers have planted strawberries and
more are expected to follow suit.
They analyzed the day and night temperature data of these villages for the past 10 years. The data
revealed that weather in these villages is similar to Mahabaleshwar and Panchgani region of Satara
district. Besides, these villages have red soil which is required for cultivating strawberries. Hence, we
decided to promote this crop in the region. The department has also conducted workshops for interested
farmers from the region. We are covering almost 90% of the capital required by the farmers,‖ Kachole
said. As far as the market for strawberries is concerned, the farmers can set up their stalls. The farmers
can also sell the produce on the Pune-Nashik highway corridor in Manchar town just like grape farmers.
They also have the option of going to the conventional market. They can also send their produce to
Pune, Mumbai, and other big markets in the state.
Meanwhile, farmers are hopeful to get better returns from selling strawberries. There main challenge
would be to counter infestation and diseases in crops. The agriculture department officials should visit
the farms at regular intervals to provide timely help. Most of the farmers are not aware of techniques that
are required for growing strawberries. A significant number of villagers have migrated to Pune and
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mumbai for jobs. If farmers can earn good returns, it would change the socio-economic situation of these
villages in the future.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions: [Link]
tribal-villages-near-bhimashankar-take-up-strawberry-cultivation/articleshow/[Link]

7. Before the introduction of strawberry cultivation, what primary agricultural activity were the farmers in the
tribal villages near Bhimashankar engaged in?
(a) Cultivation of a water-intensive crop limited by the region's topography.
(b) Production of a traditional grain common in hilly terrains.
(c) Raising of livestock as a primary source of income due to land limitations.
(d) Growing a variety of vegetables suited to the local climate.

8. Which statement would the author most likely agree with regarding the new initiative for strawberry
farming?
(a) The initiative is a guaranteed solution to the socio-economic challenges faced by the tribal farmers.
(b) Strawberry farming could be a lucrative alternative, offering a potential increase in income for the
farmers.
(c) Strawberry farming is an impractical choice due to the unique climate and soil conditions in the
region.
(d) The success of strawberry farming solely depends on the farmers' ability to migrate to larger
markets.

9. What evidence does the passage provide to support the promotion of strawberry farming in these
villages?
(a) Comparative analysis with other regions that have similar environmental conditions and successful
strawberry cultivation.
(b) Detailed studies on climatic patterns and soil suitability specific to strawberry growth in these tribal
villages.
(c) Extensive research linking the region's climate and soil properties to the requirements of strawberry
farming.
(d) Observations of successful strawberry farming in areas with similar day-night temperatures and soil
types.

10. In the passage, what does the term 'lucrative' imply in the context of strawberry farming for the tribal
farmers?
(a) Financially beneficial and potentially increasing their standard of living.
(b) Entailing a high level of economic investment with promising returns.
(c) Offering a solution to mitigate the challenges of traditional farming practices.
(d) Providing a sustainable and environmentally friendly agricultural option.

11. Which of the following words is a suitable synonym for 'infestation' as used in the context of the passage
regarding challenges in strawberry farming?
(a) Irrigation (b) Contamination
(c) Proliferation (d) Invasion

12. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the information provided in the passage?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The region's climate and soil conditions are suitable for strawberry cultivation, similar to other
successful regions.
(b) Paddy farming was less profitable compared to other crops, leading to the exploration of alternative
options.
(c) The agriculture department is providing substantial financial support for the farmers' transition to
strawberry farming.
(d) The traditional farming methods in the villages were highly profitable and sustainable.

III. A woman employee can now nominate her child or children for family pension in precedence over her
husband in case of marital discord. Rule 50 of the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 2021 allows
the grant of family pension following the death of a government servant or retired government servant. If
a deceased government servant or pensioner is survived by a spouse, family pension is first granted to
the spouse. Other family members become eligible for family pension, on their turn, only after the spouse
of the deceased government servant/pensioner becomes ineligible for family pension or dies, according
to the rules.
The Department of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare (DoPPW) has now amended the rules and allowed
a woman employee to nominate her child/children over her husband for the family pension. The
amendment allows disbursement of family pension of a female government servant to an eligible child in
precedence to her husband, in all cases where she has filed a divorce petition or a petition under the
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act or cases under Indian Penal Code.
The amendment is progressive in nature and empowers women employees in family pension cases. In
an order, the DoPPW said that in case divorce proceedings in respect of a female government
servant/female pensioner are pending in a court of law, or she has filed a case against her husband
under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act or Dowry Prohibition Act or under Indian
Penal Code, "such female government servant/female pensioner may make a request for grant of family
pension after her death to her eligible child/children, in precedence to her husband".
The DoPPW said it received a large number of references from ministries and departments, seeking
advice as to whether a female government servant/female pensioner can be allowed to nominate her
eligible child/children for family pension in place of her spouse in the event of marital discord leading to
filing of divorce proceedings in a court of law. A woman employee may make a request in writing to the
concerned head of office that in the event of her death "during the pendency of any of the aforesaid
proceedings, family pension may be granted to her eligible child/children in precedence to her spouse.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions:
[Link]
children-instead-of-husband-for-pension-in-marital-discord-cases/articleshow/[Link]

13. What can be inferred about the circumstances under which a female government servant can nominate
her child/children for family pension in precedence over her husband?
(a) The rule is applicable whenever there are signs of discord in the marriage, regardless of formal legal
intervention.
(b) It is relevant in scenarios where the marital bond is effectively non-functional, without necessitating
court involvement.
(c) This applies in situations where legal action is underway regarding marital disputes or safety
concerns.
(d) The provision is valid in cases where the marriage is under strain, even in the absence of legal
proceedings.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

14. Which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree with?
(a) The amendment to the pension rules is a step towards empowering women in decision-making
regarding family pensions.
(b) This rule change reflects a progressive shift in recognizing the complexities of marital relationships
and legal disputes.
(c) The amendment addresses specific scenarios involving divorce, domestic violence, or related legal
proceedings.
(d) Female government servants should not be allowed to nominate their children for family pension in
cases of marital discord.

15. What is the main idea conveyed in the passage?

(a) The Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 2021 have been updated to focus on the pension rights
of female government employees.
(b) Female government servants can now prioritize their children for family pensions in specific
circumstances due to a notable amendment.
(c) Recent changes in pension rules address the complexities of marital relationships, focusing on
female government employees.
(d) Modifications in the pension rules enhance the decision-making power of female government
servants in troubled marriages.

16. Which idiom best represents the statement "The amendment is progressive in nature and empowers
women employees in family pension cases"?
(a) "Turning over a new leaf" (b) "Barking up the wrong tree"
(c) "Adding fuel to the fire" (d) "Beating around the bush"

17. What are the conditions under which a female government servant can prioritize her children for the
family pension over her husband, as per the recent amendment?
(a) The new rules permit such a nomination when a female government servant has formal legal
disputes, encompassing any marital discord cases.
(b) A female government servant can nominate her children over her husband if she is involved in legal
proceedings such as filing for divorce.
(c) Whenever there is a legal challenge in the marriage, including but not limited to divorce or domestic
violence, this provision can be applied.
(d) This amendment applies in circumstances where the female government servant is engaged in legal
battles like divorce or domestic violence proceedings.
18. Identify the parts of speech of the word "progressive" as used in the passage.
(a) Noun (b) Verb
(c) Adjective (d) Adverb

IV. Winter evokes images of chunky sweaters, fuzzy blankets, and steamy bowls of soup with crusty bread.
These are symbols of physical comfort, an enveloping sense of peace that allows for stillness and
release. But emotional comfort is a different concept. When we're emotionally distressed, whether from a
hard day or a surge of anxiety, the goal isn't to force ourselves into peace and stillness to eliminate all
negative emotions. Instead, it's about understanding and managing these emotions.
Life is unpredictable, filled with uncontrollable elements like harsh words from a spouse or boss, physical
ailments, or financial crises. These experiences inevitably create feelings of discomfort and disquiet. We
naturally desire to stop these feelings, but often, we can't directly influence the situation. When our ability
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

to influence external circumstances reaches its limit, we're left with our feelings about the situation and
the capacity to comfort ourselves in those feelings.
Comforting ourselves doesn't mean placating or minimizing our feelings to trick ourselves into believing
we're not upset. This approach often leads to increased discomfort. True self-comfort means allowing
difficult feelings to exist. It involves giving these feelings space, acknowledging their right to be present,
and understanding that they are natural responses to our circumstances. It's about believing that we're
not foolish for feeling a certain way and recognizing our ability to care for ourselves in those moments.
Comfort is the acceptance that our difficult feelings are valid and then caring for ourselves in response.
It's not about shooing away these feelings but showing compassion for ourselves while experiencing
them. It involves making choices that align with the life we want to build, even while carrying difficult
emotions. It's about actions that allow our nervous system to relax enough to create a sense of internal
safety.
Every day presents challenges we can't control. The key to emotional comfort lies in how we respond to
these challenges. It's about acknowledging our feelings, understanding their roots, and responding with
self-compassion and care. This process doesn't necessarily remove the discomfort but helps us navigate
through it with a sense of personal strength and resilience.
In essence, emotional comfort is about creating a space where our feelings, no matter how difficult, are
allowed and acknowledged. It's a process of self-understanding and self-care that enables us to maintain
our well-being in the face of life's inevitable challenges. By embracing our emotions and responding to
them with kindness and understanding, we can find a sense of peace and stability, even in the midst of
turmoil. This approach to emotional comfort is a vital aspect of our overall well-being and an essential
skill for navigating the complexities of life.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions: [Link]
prep/202311/comfort-and-comforting-yourself-what-it-is-and-isnt

19. How does the passage describe the role of external circumstances in achieving emotional comfort?
(a) It suggests that external circumstances are significant but not the sole factor in emotional comfort.
(b) Emotional comfort is rooted in transforming external situations to better align with personal desires.
(c) Emotional comfort is primarily about internal emotional management, irrespective of external
conditions.
(d) It advocates for a balance between changing external circumstances and internal emotional
adjustments.
20. Choose the antonym of the word 'placating' as used in the passage.
(a) Appeasing (b) Aggravating
(c) Pacifying (d) Soothing

21. Which statement best encapsulates the central idea of the passage?
(a) Emotional comfort is primarily about changing our environment to better cope with internal distress.
(b) The essence of emotional comfort lies in the recognition and nurturing of our emotions in the midst of
life's unpredictability.
(c) Achieving emotional comfort requires the elimination of negative feelings and focusing on positive
outcomes.
(d) Emotional well-being is dependent on the consistent achievement of peace and stillness within
ourselves.

22. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Judgmental (b) Persuasive
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) Pessimistic (d) Analytical

23. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
(a) True self-comfort involves allowing difficult feelings to exist and giving them space.
(b) Our emotional comfort is significantly influenced by our ability to control external situations.
(c) Comforting ourselves means recognizing the naturalness of our responses to circumstances.
(d) Emotional comfort involves actions that allow our nervous system to relax and feel safe internally.

24. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a method for true self-comfort?
(a) Convincing ourselves that our feelings of upset are baseless or trivial.
(b) Recognizing and allowing space for our emotions, even when challenging.
(c) Accepting the legitimacy of our emotional responses and nurturing ourselves.
(d) Aligning our actions with our aspirations, notwithstanding difficult emotions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 71
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Among the plastic in your house might be an orange-coloured hard laundry detergent bottle and a
squeezable clear ketchup bottle. Come recycling day, you might put them on the curb in a blue bin or
bag, expecting they will become something new.
But here‘s the problem: those two plastic bottles cannot be recycled together because they are different
colours, different plastic types and made from different chemicals. Unlike an old aluminium can that can
be recycled into a new aluminium can, plastics are fundamentally not designed to be recycled.
Yet the idea that plastics are just as recyclable as aluminium is a pervasive misconception because the
plastics and petrochemical industries have been drilling it into our brains for nearly half a century. This
long con has allowed these industries to make billions of dollars with zero accountability—until recently,
when California attorney general Rob Bonta announced that the state of California was suing
ExxonMobil for environmental damage and recycling lies.
This is a historic moment in the fight against plastic pollution, a crisis that has been created by
companies that have known recycling was not possible for most plastics. While others have filed
important suits against consumer brand companies.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
big-oils-big-lie-about-plastic-recycling/

1. What primarily fuels the misinformation regarding the recyclability of plastics according to the passage?
(a) Consumer lack of awareness about recycling processes.
(b) Misleading advertisements by the plastics and petrochemical industries.
(c) Inadequate government regulations on recycling.
(d) Insufficient technology for recycling different types of plastics.

2. Based on the passage, why might individuals continue to believe that all plastics are recyclable?
(a) They have seen some plastics being successfully recycled.
(b) The environmental benefits of recycling are highly publicized.
(c) Ongoing propaganda by industries about the recyclability of plastics.
(d) Most consumers observe recycling processes firsthand.

3. The passage implies a criticism of which aspect of the plastics and petrochemical industries‘ practices?
(a) Their failure to create biodegradable plastics.
(b) Their deliberate spreading of false information about recycling.
(c) Their lack of investment in recycling technologies.
(d) Their focus on profit over environmental protection.

4. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

(a) Plastic bottles of different colours and types are not recyclable together.
(b) Aluminium is fundamentally designed to be recycled into new products.
(c) The recycling of plastics has always been straightforward and successful.
(d) Lawsuits have been filed against major corporations over misleading recycling claims.

5. Analyze the following statements based on the passage:

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Statement 1: Recycling different plastics together is feasible and effective.

Statement 2: The recycling myth has been perpetuated by influential industrial players. Choose the most
appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
(d) Both statements are false.

II. From pizza to panini and from quiche to quesadilla, melted cheese plays a starring role in countless
culinary classics. But why do some cheeses melt into ooey-gooey deliciousness, and others simply
don‘t? Forget black holes or the origins of life—this is the sort of question that science was created to
address.
―Cheese melting is a very complex phenomenon. When people eat cheese, they should think about what
may be going on inside the cheese at the molecular level. At that level, the process by which all the
action happens involves a protein called casein. In milk, casein delivers the vital nutrients calcium and
phosphate to a calf, lamb or baby. But the cheese-making process turns casein into a network held
together by weak bonds and studded with molecules of water and fat.
In general, the dissolution of that network—the melting of the cheese—plays out in stages as the cheese
is heated. First, beginning as cool as around room temperature, the cheese‘s assorted fats will begin to
melt and seep out of the network, floating to the surface (this is why cheese gets sweaty). Next, as the
cheese reaches the temperature of water from a hot tap, the proteins within it start losing water,
shrinking and softening. By around 160 degrees Fahrenheit, about the temperature of thoroughly cooked
meat, the melting process is complete. ―Everything is molten‖.
But thoroughly melted cheese doesn‘t act like typical melted substances. When ice, butter and chocolate
melt, they become liquid: they flow and drip. In contrast, mozzarella oozes and stretches, making it the
poster cheese for good melting.
The magic happens thanks to casein—more specifically, as a function of the loose interactions between
casein molecules. The casein network needs to be flexible enough to move but rigid enough that the
cheese hangs together. Increasing the amount of water or fat locked into the casein network can
encourage melting, but so can modifying the casein itself.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
such-as-mozzarella-and-cheddar-melt-differently-than-ricotta/

6. Which of the following best describes the metaphorical implication of the melting stages of cheese?
(a) A progressive loss of essence. (b) A transformation towards a new utility.
(c) A degradation into a lesser form. (d) An irreversible change in physical state.

7. In the context of the passage, why might cheese 'sweat' be seen as a preparatory phase rather than a
problem?
(a) It is an indicator of spoilage.
(b) It is a sign of poor cheese quality.
(c) It represents a breakdown in the cheese's structure.
(d) It signals readiness for further processing.

8. Which sequence best captures the molecular changes in cheese when exposed to heat, according to the
passage?
(a) Fats melt, proteins shrink, everything molten.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Proteins shrink, fats melt, everything molten.

(c) Everything molten, fats melt, proteins shrink.
(d) Proteins shrink, everything molten, fats melt.

9. The passage implies that the unique behavior of melted cheese compared to other substances is
primarily due to:
(a) Its molecular composition.
(b) The temperature at which it melts.
(c) The external environmental conditions.
(d) The type of cheese.

10. Why is the process of cheese melting considered complex rather than straightforward?
(a) Due to the varying melting points of different fats within the cheese.
(b) Because of the unpredictable reactions of consumers to melted cheese.
(c) Owing to the multi-stage transformation involving fats and proteins.
(d) As a result of the changes in taste and texture during the melting process.

11. What aspect of cheese's molecular structure allows it to maintain integrity while melting?
(a) High water content. (b) Low-fat content.
(c) Flexible casein networks. (d) Rigidity of protein bonds.

12. The adaptation of casein molecules during cheese production is most analogous to:
(a) Ice changing to water.
(b) A caterpillar transforming into a butterfly.
(c) A building's foundation strengthening.
(d) A musical composition being revised.

III. Under the dry, piercing heat of the Utah sun, Sasha Reed is growing plots of plants — and bacteria,
lichen and fungi, too. But Reed is no farmer, and at first glance, her fields look to be mostly dirt. She‘s an
ecologist, and what she is growing is cryptobiotic soil.
Also called biocrust, cryptobiotic soil is a community of tiny, dirt-dwelling organisms that form a distinct
crust on the top of soil in arid landscapes. These crusts are vital across Earth‘s dryland ecosystems,
helping to hold loose soil together and prevent erosion. They retain water, provide nooks for other
microbes to live in and add nitrogen to the soil.
Cryptobiotic soil often looks like a discoloured patch of ground. Upon closer inspection, the stain
becomes a mosaic of small, dark lumps, dotted with tiny beds of moss and inconspicuous patches of
lichen. But it can also look very similar to regular, crusty soil. Although the crunchy earth might be
tempting to trek over, like stomping through a pile of crisp autumn leaves, that‘s a major faux pas:
Biocrust can take decades to regenerate.
And these days, in addition to getting crushed by boots, biocrusts are threatened by another kind of
human footprint: Climate change. So researchers are diligently working to learn more about the crusts
and how to restore them. It‘s been a pretty busy but also exciting time, because we‘re kind of inventing
how to do this.
The drylands where biocrusts reside are vital ecosystems, she says, but they are some of the most
degraded around the globe. As biocrusts decline in these areas, soil fertility will drop and wind erosion
will blow away the loose, unprotected dirt. Less water will soak into the ground. Even the carbon cycle
could be affected, as there will be fewer tiny life forms absorbing carbon dioxide.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Biocrusts cover around 12 percent of Earth‘s land surfaces and inhabit every continent in the world. A
major component of these crusts is often photosynthesizing bacteria called cyanobacteria) The
cyanobacteria form sticky filaments that act like glue in sandy desert soil, creating a clumpy, crusty
surface where fungi and other bacteria take hold.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

13. The tone of the passage most likely suggests that it was written for a(n) __________.
(a) environmental advocacy newsletter (b) textbook on desert ecosystems
(c) corporate internal report (d) science fiction novel

14. The primary purpose of this passage is to __________.

(a) detail the scientific process of studying biocrusts
(b) advocate for reduced human activity in desert regions
(c) catalog the different types of biocrusts found worldwide
(d) alert readers to the environmental threats to biocrusts

15. The mention of "biocrusts can take decades to regenerate" is primarily to emphasize the __________.
(a) speed at which biocrusts grow
(b) delicacy and vulnerability of biocrust ecosystems
(c) need for immediate scientific intervention
(d) impact of climate on regeneration rates

16. The passage suggests that the damage to biocrusts by human activities primarily leads to __________.
(a) an increase in desert land area
(b) an improvement in the nutrient content of the soil
(c) a reduction in overall ecosystem resilience
(d) enhanced biodiversity in affected regions

17. According to the passage, what is a significant threat to biocrusts aside from physical damage?
(a) Natural desertification processes (b) Invasive plant species
(c) Climate change (d) Overfertilization of soils

18. The passage most likely implies that the decline of biocrusts will __________.
(a) cause a decrease in soil fertility and increase in erosion
(b) lead to an increase in desert biodiversity
(c) enhance the water retention capacity of soils
(d) improve the atmospheric carbon dioxide absorption

19. The role of cyanobacteria in biocrusts, as described in the passage, primarily serves to __________.
(a) accelerate the decomposition of organic matter
(b) compete with native plant species for nutrients
(c) introduce harmful chemicals into the ecosystem
(d) bind soil particles and prevent erosion

20. Which word from the provided passage could be substituted with ‗vulnerable‘, without changing the
meaning?
(a) delicate (b) drylands
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) lumps (d) mosaic

21. In the context of the passage, the phrase "vital ecosystems" is best defined as:
(a) Crucial for the stability of global ecological balance
(b) Necessary for the survival of specific animal species
(c) Important for agricultural purposes
(d) Essential for aesthetic and recreational purposes

22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the importance of preserving biocrusts as discussed
in the passage?
(a) Biocrusts are found to contribute minimally to soil nitrogen levels.
(b) New technologies allow rapid artificial regeneration of biocrusts.
(c) Biocrusts are discovered in fewer geographic areas than previously thought.
(d) Additional studies show biocrusts have a negligible effect on water retention.

IV. What is smell training? It is a practice of exposing yourself to different scents on a regular basis to
improve or restore your sense of smell. Olfactory training/retraining is mainly used nowadays to help
COVID-19 patients. It is estimated that about 60% of COVID-19 patients lost some ability to taste or
smell. But can smell training help with cognitive functions?
It sounded kind of crazy at first, but then I paused. Our nose has a direct connection to the brain through
the olfactory nerve and olfactory bulb) The olfactory nerve is the shortest cranial nerve. It is the shortest
distance from the outside world to our brain. It is only a few centimeters long; therefore, smell training
may make deep sense.
In the mentioned 2023 study, the subjects (43 men and women aged 60 to 85, with no diagnosis of
cognitive impairment or dementia) were randomly assigned to an olfactory enrichment group or a control
group. During the six months of the study duration, the subjects in the olfactory enrichment group were
exposed to seven different scents of essential oils (rose, orange, eucalyptus, lemon, rosemary, and
lavender) delivered by a diffuser at home, one scent per night for two hours and rotating the scents. The
subjects were asked to turn on the diffuser when they went to bed and the diffuser released the scent for
two hours at night when they were sleeping. The control group received bottles of distilled water with a
minimal amount of deodorant to use in the diffuser.
All subjects were assessed at the beginning of the study and at the end of the study (after six months).
The assessment contained olfactory abilities (smelling sticks were used), cognitive abilities (assessment
of verbal learning and memory, working memory and planning and attention switching tasks) and mental
health status. All participants also had brain imaging completed.
The results were quite impressive because they showed an improvement in both cognitive and neuronal
functions. The participants in the olfactory enrichment group had a 226% improvement in learning and
memory. The FMRI studies results showed improvement in the left uncinated fasciculus, which is a part
of the brain that is involved in episodic memory, memory retrieval, language, and socio-emotional
processing.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
change/680205/

23. How does the author's initial skepticism about smell training contribute to the overall tone of the
passage?
(a) It introduces a critical stance that is maintained throughout the text.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) It sets a scientific tone by questioning and then validating through evidence.
(c) It serves to undermine the credibility of the findings discussed.
(d) It dramatizes the narrative to engage the reader emotionally.

24. Which causal relationship is implied by the study findings in the passage?
(a) Exposure to scents leads to cognitive improvement.
(b) Increased brain activity results in improved olfactory abilities.
(c) Enhanced mental health status results from improved memory functions.
(d) Cognitive assessments influence the outcomes of brain imaging.

25. In the context of the passage, what is the implication of using 'diffuser' during sleep?
(a) To enhance the comfort level of the participants.
(b) To ensure continuous exposure to scents without active participation.
(c) To monitor sleep patterns among participants.
(d) To mitigate any potential discomfort from direct scent exposure.

26. Which factor, if proven, would most challenge the study's conclusions about smell training enhancing
cognitive functions?
(a) Participants had previous exposure to similar scent-based interventions.
(b) Essential oils used were of varying concentrations, influencing potency.
(c) Cognitive improvements were temporary and subsided after the study.
(d) The control group showed improvements due to placebo effects.

27. Which statement would the researchers likely agree with based on the study results?
(a) "Cognitive training has no substantial impact on neuronal functions."
(b) "The human olfactory system plays an insignificant role in cognitive enhancement."
(c) "Olfactory enrichment can be a viable method to support cognitive health in the elderly."
(d) "Neuronal improvements are unrelated to sensory stimulation."

28. Based on the passage, how might the author view the integration of olfactory training in routine cognitive
therapy?
(a) It should be avoided as it distracts from more proven methods.
(b) It might be considered as a supplementary approach to traditional cognitive therapies.
(c) It should replace conventional cognitive training methods entirely.
(d) It is likely ineffective and should not be integrated.

29. Which statement correctly uses the future perfect tense to describe the implications of the study's
findings?
(a) "The study will have shown that sensory stimulation could play a key role in cognitive health by the
time it is published."
(b) "The researchers have been proving the importance of sensory training in cognitive enhancement."
(c) "The implications of these findings will be realized long after the study concludes."
(d) "This study will prove to be a turning point in how cognitive therapies are perceived."

30. Which synonym for 'integral' would not alter the meaning of the following hypothetical sentence based on
the passage? "Olfactory stimulation has proven to be integral to enhancing cognitive functions in elderly
populations."
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) Essential (b) Fundamental

(c) Complementary (d) Crucial

31. Which of the following substitutions for ‗emblematic of‘ in the given sentence would NOT change the
meaning of the quoted sentence?
"They are emblematic of the tireless hours, the unwavering dedication, and the indomitable spirit
invested in chasing our dreams."
(a) Similar to (b) Representative of
(c) Proof of (d) Conducive to

32. What is the writer‘s aim in referring to the significant improvement in cognitive functions due to smell
training?
(a) To emphasize that individuals possess a largely untapped potential in sensory-based cognitive
enhancement.
(b) To suggest that traditional cognitive therapies might be ineffective without the inclusion of sensory
training.
(c) To indicate that improvements in cognitive function are exclusively due to olfactory training.
(d) To convey that such training should be mandatory for all elderly individuals.

V. Crows and ravens, which belong to the corvid family, are known for their high intelligence, playful
natures, and strong personalities. They hold grudges against each other, do basic statistics, perform
acrobatics, and even host funerals for deceased family members. But we keep learning new things about
the savvy of these birds, and how widespread that savvy is among the corvid family.
Earlier this year, a team of researchers found that a species of crow called the hooded crow—which has
a gray bust and black tail and head feathers, making it look like it is wearing a ―hood‖—is able to manage
a mental feat we once thought was unique to humans: to memorize the shape and size of an object after
it is taken away—in this case a small piece of colored paper—and to reproduce one like it.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

33. he cognitive abilities of the hooded crow can be linked to

(1) its unique physical appearance.
(2) the broader intelligence observed in the corvid family.
(3) its ability to mimic human actions.
(4) environmental factors.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (4)
(c) (2) and (3) (d) (2) and (4)

34. A noteworthy aspect of corvids is

(a) their exclusive reliance on visual memory.
(b) their lack of interaction with other bird species.
(c) their application of memory to problem-solving.
(d) their seasonal migration patterns.

35. The use of the term ―mental feat‖ suggests that the behavior of the hooded crow is
(a) an extraordinary example of cognitive ability in birds.
(b) an expected outcome of typical avian intelligence.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) a learned skill from interaction with humans.

(d) a common trait among all corvids.

36. Statement 1: Corvids possess the capability to hold grudges.

Statement 2: Corvids are known to perform complex social interactions.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. The concept of "hosting funerals" by corvids is used to illustrate their ____
(a) adaptation to human cultural practices.
(b) basic instinctual behaviours.
(c) complex emotional capacities.
(d) mimicry of human behaviours.

38. In which context is the term 'savvy' used similarly as in the passage?
(a) Her business savvy led the company to triple its profits.
(b) He navigated the tricky political landscape with great savvy.
(c) The chef's kitchen savvy was evident in every dish.
(d) Their technical savvy was crucial in solving the software issue.

39. The recent findings about the hooded crow primarily challenge the notion that
(a) memory tasks are common among all birds.
(b) animal intelligence has been fully understood by scientists.
(c) corvids are predominantly visual learners.
(d) some cognitive abilities were thought to be uniquely human.

VI. Is your inner life what makes you, you? Or is your identity about connecting to your community? How can
West African philosophy help us think about the self? This week, we‘ll be thinking about Akan
Philosophy, specifically its conception of personhood.
Akan philosophy is a centuries-old tradition from West Africa of discussing big topics like the meaning of
freedom, and the most ethical way to live, and what it means to be a person. Like any group of
philosophers, Akan philosophers have plenty of debates and disagreements among themselves. But
when it comes to being a person, there are some common themes.
In the Akan tradition, being a person involves contributing to your family and community: participating in
local rituals, doing important work, and getting married and having children. This was pretty shocking to
my American sensibilities: why should anyone have to get married and have children just to count as a
person? Shouldn‘t there be space in our communities for single people?
But this is less shocking when you remember that we‘re talking about a conception of personhood that
arose in a particular West African cultural context. If you wanted to translate Akan values for
contemporary America, you‘d probably have to think about what ―family‖ and ―community‖ mean over
here. In the cultural context I‘m used to, there are plenty of ways to contribute to your community without
being a parent: you can take your nephews and nieces to a ballgame, work in a soup kitchen on
weekends, or even teach the next generation. Another possible criticism of the Akan conception of
personhood challenges the concepts of family and community themselves.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

and-akan

40. What might be a consequence of adhering strictly to traditional Akan values in a non-West African
contemporary context?
(a) Exclusion of non-traditional family structures.
(b) Enhanced cultural understanding and acceptance.
(c) Increased communal engagement and cohesion.
(d) Strengthened inter-family relationships.

41. How does the concept of personhood in Akan philosophy potentially conflict with American individualistic
values?
(a) It complements the American emphasis on community service.
(b) It conflicts due to its collectivist nature demanding specific social roles.
(c) It supports the American entrepreneurial spirit by emphasizing community contribution.
(d) It has no impact on American values as both systems are fundamentally similar.

42. What broader implications might the Akan conception of personhood have if applied universally?
(a) It could enforce a uniform standard of living across diverse cultures.
(b) It might lead to a more integrated global community with shared values.
(c) It could result in social tension due to differing cultural norms about family and community.
(d) It would have no significant impact outside of West Africa)

43. How might the inclusion of Akan philosophical concepts enrich the educational curriculum in a
multicultural learning environment?
(a) By providing a rigid framework for personal and social development.
(b) By limiting the exposure to diverse philosophical thoughts.
(c) By enforcing traditional roles that might not be applicable to all students.
(d) By offering a broader perspective on the definitions of community and personhood.

44. What is the significance of adapting Akan family and community concepts to contemporary American
settings?
(a) It simplifies the definitions of family and community.
(b) It discourages diversity in personal life choices.
(c) It may lead to a more inclusive understanding of societal roles.
(d) It encourages adherence to traditional social structures.

VII. Democracy is something we‘re hearing a lot about these days. But what are we actually talking about
when we say, ―democracy?‖
The Merriam-Webster dictionary defines democracy as being ―a government in which the supreme
power is vested in the people and exercised by them directly or indirectly through a system of
representation usually involving periodically held free elections.‖
Through much of the twentieth century, white supremacist groups challenged the right of Black people to
vote. But once votes were finally cast, the results of those votes were largely honored, and the peaceful
transfer of power occurred. Recently, however, things have been changing. The sanctity of votes and the
validity of elections have come under increasing challenge.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

A big reason for that change is a gradual shift taking place in the attitudes and relationships within the
electorate. Through much of the twentieth century, there was a relatively easy give-and-take between
Republicans and Democrats. They were on different sides of the political fence, but the difference was
often something they could joke about. And few people questioned the results of elections or the obvious
need for the peaceful transfer of power.
But around the year 2000, the country began to be more polarized. People placed greater importance on
their political views and were more conscious of those whose views differed from theirs. They were
becoming polarized.
Recently polarisation has undergone a still more radical change. Now people are polarised not because
they love their own political viewpoints but because they feel active personal hostility toward the
members of the opposite party. Today, 40% of Democrats, and 40% of Republicans are willing to justify
violence for political ends. A big factor has to do with the way we receive our news. Early in the twentieth
century, the radio came into prominence, and the government required that all broadcast stations be
licensed.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
just-get-along/202410/do-americans-really-want-democracy

45. What implication can be drawn from the transition in media consumption mentioned in the passage?
(a) Media evolution has led to a more informed and balanced electorate.
(b) Radio and television are now obsolete modes of information.
(c) Newer media technologies have decreased public interest in political matters.
(d) The shift in media platforms correlates with increased political polarization.

46. What does the passage suggest about the historical perspective on election outcomes?
(a) Disputes over election results are a recent phenomenon.
(b) Election results have always been accepted without question.
(c) The acceptance of election outcomes has eroded over time.
(d) Electoral disputes have had minimal impact on political polarization.

47. The term "peaceful transfer of power" in the context of the passage highlights:
(a) A longstanding tradition that is increasingly being questioned.
(b) The legal mechanisms in place to ensure government stability.
(c) The role of international observers in validating elections.
(d) The effectiveness of electoral reforms.

48. Which factor primarily contributes to the radical change in polarization mentioned in the passage?
(a) The innate differences in political ideology.
(b) The increased hostility towards opposing party members.
(c) The role of external influencers in shaping opinions.
(d) The fluctuating economic conditions.

49. What does the mention of "40% of Democrats, and 40% of Republicans are willing to justify violence for
political ends" imply about current political dynamics?
(a) There is a balanced but intense divide between major political parties.
(b) Political violence is a minor issue in contemporary politics.
(c) Most political party members advocate for peaceful resolutions.
(d) Political parties are becoming less divided over time.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

50. How does the historical context provided about media licensing relate to current political polarization?
(a) It suggests a loss of regulatory oversight over media)
(b) It highlights the government's role in ensuring balanced news coverage.
(c) It points to the diminishing impact of traditional media on public opinion.
(d) It underscores the shift towards unregulated digital media platforms.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 72
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. Human interactions are complex and come with their share of disappointments. This can be the case, for
instance, when a loved one doesn‘t react to our distress or joy the way we wish they had.
Communication accidents happen! Psychiatry teaches us, however, that if these mishaps occur over and
over with the same person, it might not be because the person lacks good intentions. It could be the
result of a change in their social cognition.
A growing number of studies are establishing a link between social cognition and different psychiatric
conditions. Reactions that are normal for most people, such as showing concern for a person who
expresses sadness, may be absent in others.
For some, a situation or interaction that seems very basic might lead to a misinterpretation, which in turn
could provoke behaviour that is inappropriate or inadequate. If these kinds of errors happen often, this
might be due to impairment of a key cognitive skill: social cognition.
Social cognition is mainly about our ability to decode emotions and understand the beliefs and intentions
of people around us. Determining whether this cognitive skill has been affected by a psychiatric illness,
or by another disorder, is essential in order for the person to be able to respond appropriately to the
problems they encounter, and to limit potential harmful effects.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
9652658/

1. The primary reason behind recurring misunderstandings in social interactions could be attributed to
(a) a person‘s general disregard for others‘ feelings.
(b) an inability to distinguish between emotional cues.
(c) a decline in communication abilities across society.
(d) the preference for individualistic behavior in modern times.

2. A reason people may fail to respond to others‘ distress could be due to

(a) a misunderstanding of the signals they receive.
(b) a preoccupation with their personal struggles.
(c) their lack of empathy and concern for others.
(d) being distracted by their own emotional state.

3. The author‘s view on misinterpretations in social interactions is best described as

(a) critical and disappointed. (b) empathetic yet concerned.
(c) objective and indifferent. (d) dismissive and unsympathetic.

4. Which of the following is not implied in the passage regarding social cognition issues?
(a) Social cognition affects the ability to react appropriately in interpersonal scenarios.
(b) Misinterpretations in social settings may stem from conditions beyond a person‘s control.
(c) Social cognition challenges can lead to socially inappropriate behavior.
(d) Most individuals lack the basic skills required to interpret others‘ emotions effectively.

5. Statement 1: Individuals with impaired social cognition may misinterpret simple interactions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Statement 2: Misinterpretations in social settings generally arise from poor intentions.

Choose the most appropriate answer:
(a) Both statements are true, and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true, but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.

II. By some estimates, about 3,000 dead satellites are orbiting Earth, and around 34,000 pieces of space
junk have been left behind by humans. Wherever humans go, we always leave a trace. And it‘s an even
bigger problem in space because it takes much longer to decompose and does nothing but muck up the
place.
As humans go back to the moon and aim to travel to Mars, the more people that visit space, the more
likely they are to end up dying there. Which brings up the question, what would happen to those bodies
in space?
For organic material to break down, you need bacteria, which oftentimes requires oxygen. Although
there are some types of bacteria that can break down material anaerobically or without oxygen, often
that‘s not the case. So the question becomes ‗is there enough bacteria present on this item to break
something down?
If they had, however, there might be enough bacteria already in the body to allow for some sort of
decomposition. The decomposition process would be slow, though, seeing as there is no oxygen in
space to help move the process along, and dry air would also slow decay. But when it comes to a piece
of trash, it doesn‘t naturally contain bacteria, and it would be difficult to begin the process of
decomposition. If an item is floating in the vacuum of space, then the atmosphere would also lack
oxygen, which would mean that aerobic decomposition, or that which would require oxygen, couldn‘t
happen. Basically, in the places that decomposition did occur, it would happen much more slowly.
For inorganic objects like a piece of metal, for example, the process of decomposition would take much
longer in space. While different processes might break stuff down, they all move much more slowly than
they would on Earth.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
would-happen-to-a-decomposing-body-in-space

6. Although space is seen as a vast frontier, the state of human-made objects orbiting Earth can best be
described as:
(a) chaotic. (b) accidental.
(c) irrelevant. (d) pristine.
7. The persistence of organic matter in space would likely pose a challenge because:
(a) its exposure to a vacuum accelerates its breakdown.
(b) a lack of essential bacteria hinders natural processes.
(c) heat from the sun quickens its deterioration.
(d) it generates harmful chemicals over time.

8. Arrange the following factors in the sequence that would slow down decomposition of objects in space,
based on the passage:
(1) Absence of oxygen. (2) Low bacterial presence.
(3) Exposure to dry air. (4) Type of object material.
Choose the appropriate option:
(a) (1), (2), (3), (4) (b) (2), (3), (4), (1)
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(c) (1), (3), (2), (4) (d) (3), (1), (4), (2)

9. The term "trace" in this passage most likely refers to:

(a) a pattern or outline. (b) faint markings.
(c) physical remnants. (d) human exploration.

10. The need to ensure aerobic conditions is essential in the decomposition process primarily because:
(a) it enables the growth of all microorganisms.
(b) it allows bacteria to function optimally.
(c) it stabilizes any environmental hazards.
(d) it enables faster cooling of objects.

11. An approach to managing space debris could be challenging because:

(a) debris is difficult to track in space.
(b) the lack of atmospheric pressure interferes.
(c) the growing presence of human activity.
(d) the absence of natural breakdown processes.

12. Decomposition in space is viewed as a "challenge" because:

(a) the limited presence of microorganisms inhibits the decay process.
(b) time passes more slowly in space, hindering natural breakdown.
(c) factors such as gravity and temperature accelerate decay unnaturally.
(d) materials begin to decompose immediately due to radiation exposure.

III. The food waste crisis is impacting not just the environmental sector but also the health and well-being of
people. Millions on our planet live in poor conditions, unable to access healthy, nutritious food that first-
world countries throw away so quickly.
The global food waste disaster will not only destabilize economies, putting millions of agricultural jobs at
risk, but it will also lead to the decline of entire species and habitats as resources are depleted and
ecosystems are disrupted.
As the effects of climate change become increasingly evident globally, scientists and farmers are racing
against the clock to find solutions that will reduce trash and preserve our planet while sustainably
consuming food, including one innovative method of preserving food waste in mason jars, and
transforming it into delicious ferments.
Food waste is the most prevalent material sent to landfills and incinerators in the US, accounting for 24%
of landfilled municipal solid waste and 22% of that which is burned.
These staggering numbers highlight a significant inefficiency in our food systems, where a large portion
of the food produced never reaches our plates. Not only does this represent a waste of resources like
water, energy, and labor but it also underscores the urgent need for better food management practices.
The energy and resources used to produce, transport, and store food are effectively wasted when food is
discarded, contributing to a cycle of environmental degradation and resource depletion.
Countries across the globe are grappling with the food waste crisis, though some are more severely
impacted than others. Developing nations, particularly in regions like Sub-Saharan Africa and South
Asia, face significant challenges. Here, up to 40% of food produced can be lost before it even reaches
consumers, primarily due to poor facilities, lack of refrigeration, and inefficient supply chains. This not
only exacerbates food insecurity but also limits economic opportunities for farmers, who lose potential
income from unsold produce.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

In contrast, developed countries such as the US and Western European nations experience food waste
primarily at the consumer level. This waste occurs in households, restaurants, and supermarkets, driven
by factors like over-purchasing items, aesthetic standards for produce as seen on social media trends,
and misinterpretation of expiration dates.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
and-climate-change-one-jar-at-a-time/

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) environmental journal report (b) food industry marketing brief
(c) scientific ethics forum transcript (d) economic analysis on energy resources

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) To highlight the severe global consequences of food waste.
(b) To recommend practices for better food security in developed nations.
(c) To argue for stricter regulations on food disposal practices.
(d) To persuade readers to support innovations in agricultural supply chains.

15. The passage‘s reference to ―millions on our planet live in poor conditions‖ underscores __________.
(a) the economic impact of food distribution inefficiencies
(b) the environmental toll of overproduced resources
(c) the disparities in food access across different regions
(d) the lifestyle choices impacting climate change

16. According to the passage, why is the food waste crisis challenging for developing nations?
(a) Lack of financial support for farmers.
(b) Absence of food waste policies.
(c) Limited access to sustainable food packaging.
(d) Insufficient storage and supply chain infrastructure.

17. What does the passage imply about the food waste practices in developed versus developing nations?
(a) Developing nations discard more due to limited infrastructure.
(b) Developed nations‘ waste stems largely from consumption habits.
(c) Both regions waste food similarly due to systemic inefficiencies.
(d) Food waste is predominantly an issue in developing regions.

18. The discussion of innovative methods to reduce food waste, such as using mason jars, serves to
__________.
(a) criticize traditional food preservation practices
(b) emphasize the limitations of current agricultural practices
(c) illustrate consumer-level solutions to waste reduction
(d) discourage reliance on mass food production

19. In the passage, the phrase ‗significant inefficiency in our food systems‘ is best understood as –
(a) Systematic waste within food production and distribution.
(b) Over reliance on agricultural exports for revenue.
(c) Rising costs of food storage globally.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Increased environmental regulation in agriculture.

20. Which word from the passage could be substituted with ‗economic drain,‘ without changing the meaning?
(a) efficiency (b) consumption
(c) instability (d) depletion

21. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that food management practices need
improvement globally?
(a) Food waste contributes minimally to global emissions.
(b) Agricultural advancements reduce loss at every supply stage.
(c) Developed nations are reducing food waste by 50% annually.
(d) Emerging economies are unaffected by food distribution issues.
22. According to the passage, which of the following is most likely a consequence of the inefficiencies in
food management practices?
(a) Increased reliance on imported food in developing nations.
(b) Escalation of resource demands and environmental strain globally.
(c) Shift toward localized farming to reduce food miles.
(d) A decrease in consumer waste awareness in developed countries.

IV. Smallholder farmers produce over 30% of the world‘s food and yet they receive just 0.8% of climate
finance. In low or middle-income countries, that figure is more like 70%.
Across the world, our soils are degrading. This does not only threaten our harvests. It means our
agricultural soils, traditionally a carbon sink, are slowly becoming a net emitter of greenhouses as
degraded soils lose their ability to retain carbon underground. To protect our soils, we desperately need
the world‘s farmers to transition to more regenerative farming methods. Yet they cannot be expected to
make this transition alone.
At this year‘s UN COP29 summit in Baku, Azerbaijan, we need to ensure that the world‘s smallholder
farmers get the climate finance they need and deserve, to protect our farmlands and, by default, ensure
global food security.
Some estimates suggest that we are losing up to 24 billion tonnes of fertile land each year. This is
especially concerning given that global food demand is expected to rise 60% by 2050. By mid-century,
the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) predicts that a staggering 90% of the world‘s topsoil
could be degraded. The deterioration of our soils is a carbon bomb, waiting to go off. That is because
soil (traditionally) operates as a carbon sink. The process of photosynthesis harvests carbon dioxide
(CO2) to produce nutrients for all the many millions of life forms found in soil. There is more carbon
storage potential in the soil than in our atmosphere and all animal and plant life combined.
Conventional methods, including monocrop farming, those requiring the use of synthetic fertilizers and
excessive tilling, reduce the amount of organic matter (mostly carbon) stored in soils. Meanwhile,
regenerative farming harvests carbon in plants and locks it up in the soil. Regenerative practices like
cover cropping, crop rotation, no or low tilling and agroforestry have all been shown to help to realize the
potential of soil as a carbon sink, and also improve the health and resilience of agricultural land.
Yet regenerative agriculture is not only more sustainable, it can be more profitable, too. Land becomes
more productive and farmers can reduce their costs on fertilizers and pesticides. One study conducted in
Kansas showed that a switch to regenerative agriculture could increase profitability by 120% over time.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from
: [Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

23. What is the primary tone of the passage?

(a) Dispassionate (b) Critical
(c) Cautionary (d) Imperative

24. What underlying cause-and-effect relationship is implied in the passage?

(a) Cause: Farmer income disparity, Effect: Regenerative practice adoption
(b) Cause: Financial restrictions, Effect: Unsustainable agricultural practices
(c) Cause: Global food demand, Effect: Environmental policy constraints
(d) Cause: Climate finance surplus, Effect: Food production surplus

25. The purpose of the term ―carbon bomb‖ is to convey:

(a) Soil degradation‘s hidden risks (b) Rapid growth in food production
(c) Financial loss for small farmers (d) Gradual benefits of soil restoration

26. Which of the following, if true, would most challenge the passage's concern for smallholder farmers‘
access to climate finance?
(a) Small farmers have adopted sustainable practices without climate finance.
(b) Global climate finance has doubled over the past year.
(c) Most climate finance goes to larger agricultural corporations.
(d) Small farmers receive non-financial aid for sustainability efforts.

27. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
(a) Conventional methods are necessary for optimal soil productivity.
(b) Sustainable farming is achievable through balanced practices.
(c) Regenerative farming is superior for soil health and productivity.
(d) Farming without any soil tilling yields the best carbon capture.

28. By mentioning soil as a ―carbon sink,‖ the author implies that:

(a) Soil has potential to absorb excess carbon.
(b) Soil prevents biodiversity decline.
(c) Soil does not require external intervention.
(d) Soil emissions are essential to farming.

29. What viewpoint would the author likely support on regenerative practices in agriculture?
(a) These practices require extensive regulation to be effective.
(b) Profitability makes regenerative practices favourable for all farmers.
(c) Conventional farming must be prioritized for cost efficiency.
(d) Climate finance should exclude support for regenerative agriculture.

30. Which of the following sentences uses the present perfect tense?
Reference Line: "Some estimates suggest that we are losing up to 24 billion tonnes of fertile land each
year."
(a) ―Farmers have begun using regenerative methods to improve soil health.‖
(b) ―Regenerative practices ensure sustainable soil usage.‖
(c) ―Agricultural lands emit greenhouse gases, causing concerns.‖
(d) ―Soil regeneration is crucial to reducing emissions.‖
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

31. Which substitution for ―degrading‖ in the passage would best convey the same meaning?
(a) Securing (b) Diversifying
(c) Generating (d) Diminishing

32. What does the author‘s emphasis on ―photosynthesis‖ in the passage suggest about the role of soil?
(a) Soil merely acts as a nutrient source for plants.
(b) Soil actively sustains diverse life through nutrient exchange.
(c) Soil‘s primary role is to emit oxygen for plants.
(d) Soil is passive in agricultural productivity.

V. In a historic leap forward for the private space industry, astronauts successfully completed the world‘s
first commercial spacewalk, testing new, streamlined spacesuits designed by SpaceX. This achievement
was undertaken as part of the Polaris Dawn mission. The mission was led by Jared Isaacman, the
billionaire entrepreneur who funded the mission.
Over the course of five days, the crew will carry out important scientific research, including studies on
how the human body reacts to space radiation. Traveling through parts of the Van Allen radiation belt,
the crew will collect data that could inform future missions into deep space. This mission also achieved a
record-breaking feat by traveling farther into space than any human crew has since NASA‘s Apollo
program ended more than 50 years ago. The crew reached a peak altitude of over 1,400 kilometers (870
miles), pushing the boundaries of what private space missions have accomplished so far.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
dawn-mission-completes-historys-first-commercial-spacewalk/

33. The primary purpose of the Polaris Dawn mission can be best understood as:
(1) advancing commercial space travel.
(2) testing the viability of space tourism.
(3) pioneering private ventures in deep space research.
(4) increasing commercial presence in low-Earth orbit.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (4)
(c) (1) and (3) (d) (2) and (3)

34. One major challenge the Polaris Dawn crew faced during their mission was:
(a) extended exposure to zero gravity.
(b) navigating within a high-radiation area.
(c) a lack of real-time support from Earth.
(d) an inability to conduct adequate medical research.

35. The phrase "pushing the boundaries" in the passage suggests that Polaris Dawn‘s mission:
(a) is aimed at redefining the limits of private space exploration.
(b) attempts to challenge governmental regulations on space travel.
(c) aspires to commercialize the entire space travel industry.
(d) seeks to enforce stricter safety protocols in space missions.

36. Statement 1: Polaris Dawn mission marked a new milestone in private space missions.
Statement 2: Polaris Dawn was the first private mission to study human reactions to deep space
radiation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Choose the most appropriate answer:

(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

37. The term "deep space" in the context of this passage refers to areas:
(a) extending just beyond Earth‘s atmosphere.
(b) beyond the low-Earth orbital paths.
(c) closer to lunar distances.
(d) only within the Van Allen belts.

38. In which of the following sentences is the word ―mission‖ used in the same sense as in the passage?
(a) The charity‘s mission is to eradicate poverty.
(b) He believes his mission is to educate the youth.
(c) Her mission to climb the highest mountains was completed.
(d) The pilot completed a successful mission.

39. In which sector did the Polaris Dawn crew make a pioneering achievement?
(a) Human-computer interaction testing
(b) Space suit and mobility technology
(c) Advanced material testing for low-Earth orbit
(d) Satellite communication technology

VI. Higher educational institutions in India face significant challenges. While private engineering colleges,
the newer Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) and universities have expanded access to education over
the last few decades, studies show that a vast majority of students graduating from these colleges lack
the basic skills that are required by industry. Research institutes have also voiced concerns about the
quality of students who wish to pursue higher studies. While industries and premier research institutions
have managed with top students from these colleges, there is a problem now. Across various sectors,
there is a struggle to find students who are skilled, and it is alarming that the number of students
pursuing higher education has dwindled. At this rate, institutions, which are already grappling with the
issue of faculty shortages, will face even greater challenges in the years ahead. Large sums of money
announced for initiatives such as quantum computing, cybersecurity or artificial intelligence could go
underutilised in the absence of qualified talent. This widespread problem threatens the socio-economic
fabric of the country.
The root cause lies in the quality of training in teaching institutions. Many faculty members are products
of their own institutions and are often pressured to chase papers and patents for their colleges to
maintain their rankings, often at the expense of scholarship and pedagogy. This results in poor-quality
graduates, with a domino effect on industry standards, research output, and faculty quality. While
upskilling programmes, outreach initiatives, internships and online courses could address the problem to
some extent, these efforts are not scalable enough to meet ever-increasing demand for skilled
professionals. This article offers some broad ideas, based on the experiences of the writers, which may
be of help. These suggestions call for a rebalancing of current efforts and a more imaginative use of
existing resources.
Source: [Link]
education/[Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

40. Based on the challenges outlined in the passage, what could be a possible long-term consequence for
the job market if educational institutions do not address skill gaps among graduates?
(a) Increased job satisfaction in niche industries
(b) Greater economic inequality due to skill disparity
(c) Unaffected employment rates across all sectors
(d) Enhanced competition for high-skilled jobs

41. How might educational institutions inadvertently contribute to the skill gap among graduates?
(a) By prioritizing academic research over practical training
(b) Through the consistent use of innovative teaching techniques
(c) By encouraging interdisciplinary study among faculty
(d) Through increased collaboration with industry experts

42. What broader impact could the described skills shortage have on India‘s technological and economic
advancements?
(a) A rise in foreign investment as India seeks international expertise
(b) A shift toward more traditional, less technology-intensive industries
(c) A slowdown in key technological initiatives
(d) Greater public interest in educational reforms

43. In what way does the passage imply that addressing faculty quality could influence student skill levels
and career readiness?
(a) Faculty quality has no impact on students‘ career readiness
(b) Improved faculty quality could enhance pedagogical standards
(c) Increasing faculty qualifications would reduce student dropouts
(d) Hiring more faculty would reduce competition for jobs among graduates

44. Why might a rebalancing of educational initiatives, as suggested in the passage, be crucial for socio-
economic stability?
(a) It would directly reduce faculty shortages
(b) It would increase government funding for research institutions
(c) It would lead to higher numbers of students enrolling in advanced programs
(d) It may address skill shortages essential for socio-economic growth
VII. Transformative technologies may start by making us more efficient, but it‘s when they are embedded in
new business models that they fundamentally change the way that we live and work. For instance, trains
began as ―faster horses‖ aiming to displace wagons, and ended up enabling modern industry. The radio
was just a ―wireless‖ telegraph until it became the first mass medium, with entire countries listening to a
single moment together.
Decentralized renewable energy provides an opportunity to create the same level of disruption as some
of these defining inventions from the past century, but we are still in the ―faster horses‖ stage of the
sector‘s development. Real success will come when we see wholly new models for production and trade
built on a vast web of decentralized power systems.
Access to affordable, sustainable energy has consistently been shown to have significant impacts on
users‘ lives and livelihoods. In particular, technologies and appliances such as solar-powered irrigation,
electric motorbikes, and cooling solutions in shops or at the farm gate — often referred to collectively as
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

productive uses of energy (PUE) — have the potential to unlock higher incomes by replacing more costly
fuel sources, or by opening new markets and sources of revenue.
The most straightforward case for impact is seen in replacing expensive, dirty technologies, like diesel or
petrol-powered pumps and milling machines. This approach saves users money and increases incomes,
but may not fundamentally change the nature of their livelihoods. Yet PUE can create even more exciting
economic opportunities by moving communities towards an entirely new economic paradigm. Through
harnessing new, sustainably powered technologies, companies can build entirely new markets, helping
lift rural and low-income communities out of poverty.
Source: [Link]
to-impact-productive-use-of-energy/

45. What does the term "embedded in new business models" imply in the context of transformative
technologies?
(a) Business models are unaffected by the integration of new technologies.
(b) New business models accelerate the integration of transformative technologies.
(c) Embedding in business models allows technologies to impact society more broadly.
(d) Technologies remain experimental until fully understood by the market.

46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the sentence, "Decentralized renewable
energy provides an opportunity to create the same level of disruption as some of these defining
inventions from the past century"?
(a) Decentralized renewable energy could transform markets like past technologies did.
(b) Renewable energy holds a potential comparable to previous landmark inventions.
(c) Renewable energy might serve as a minor addition to existing power structures.
(d) Disruptive potential in renewable energy mirrors that seen in major historical inventions.

47. Why has the author used "faster horses" to describe early stages of technology like trains?
(a) To indicate that trains initially imitated old methods without radical change.
(b) To convey that trains were immediately seen as groundbreaking in transit.
(c) To imply that early trains were unstable and needed more refinement.
(d) To suggest that trains were a temporary advancement in transportation.

48. Select the option that correctly interprets the impact of renewable energy as presented in the context of
"productive uses of energy" (PUE).
(a) Renewable energy innovations provide convenience without affecting income potential.
(b) Access to energy technologies has limited effect beyond environmental benefits.
(c) These energy sources offer aesthetic improvements without practical applications.
(d) Energy technologies can offer new opportunities to increase income and reduce costs.

49. How can the shift to sustainable technologies in rural economies be described as "paradigmatic"?
(a) Because it involves small-scale, incremental improvements in economic activities.
(b) As it signifies a shift from traditional methods to modern, sustainable systems.
(c) Because it limits traditional economic practices without offering alternatives.
(d) As it merely supports existing practices without changing broader economic frameworks.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

50. What is an example of how new energy solutions create economic shifts in low-income communities, as
described in the passage?
(a) By maintaining existing high-cost fuel sources for consistency in production.
(b) By developing new markets that can increase community income levels.
(c) By focusing only on replacing current energy sources with sustainable alternatives.
(d) By reducing dependency on energy altogether for traditional livelihoods.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 73
English Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate answer.
I. In April 1955, at a closed session of the Asian-African Conference in Bandung, Indonesia, India‘s prime
minister Jawaharlal Nehru spoke forcefully about the need for countries in Asia and Africa to refuse to
join either of the two great powers – the United States and the Soviet Union – and to remain unaligned.
Arguing that alignment with either power during the Cold War would degrade or humiliate those countries
that had ‗come out of bondage into freedom‘, Nehru maintained that the moral force of postcolonial
nations should serve as a counter to the military force of the great powers. At one point, Nehru chided
the Iraqi and Turkish delegates at the conference who had simultaneously spoken favourably about the
Western bloc and the formation of NATO while lamenting the continued French colonisation of North
Africa. Nehru said:
We must take a complete view of the situation and not be contradictory ourselves when we talk about
colonialism, when we say ‗colonialism must go‘, and in the same voice say that we support every policy
or some policies that confirm colonialism. It is an extraordinary attitude to take up.
Having lifted the yoke of British colonialism, India presented itself as poised to take on the moral and
political leadership of the decolonising world. This was perhaps to be expected, especially given that
India was the largest and most populous country to become independent from European colonial rule.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
rule-in-kashmir-is-colonial

1. The primary motivation behind Nehru's stance on non-alignment was likely based on the desire to:
(a) Promote unity among nations previously under colonial rule
(b) Encourage collective resistance to former colonial powers
(c) Assert the political autonomy of postcolonial nations
(d) Establish India's influence over Asian and African states

2. Nehru's criticism of the Iraqi and Turkish delegates suggests that his concern was that:
(a) Their support for military alliances contradicted their call for independence.
(b) They failed to understand the broader political implications of their actions.
(c) Their conflicting views would alienate them from other postcolonial nations.
(d) Their lack of unity would diminish the influence of their region globally.

3. The tone with which Nehru addressed the delegates from Iraq and Turkey regarding their political
alignment can best be described as:
(a) empathetic (b) disapproving
(c) neutral (d) encouraging

4. Which of the following statements does not align with Nehru‘s perspective on colonialism and alignment?
(a) Nations previously under colonial rule should not join alliances that uphold colonial ideologies.
(b) Nations should use their moral authority rather than align with military powers for influence.
(c) Aligning with superpowers compromises the independence recently gained by these nations.
(d) Building alliances with superpowers would strengthen postcolonial solidarity and autonomy.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

5. Statement 1: Nehru believed that postcolonial countries should counter the superpowers with moral
influence.
Statement 2: Nehru thought alliances with superpowers compromised the newfound independence of
postcolonial countries.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true, and statement 2 explains statement 1.
(b) Both statements are true, but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.

II. Public conversations about the legacies of slavery and calls for reparations have continued to gain
traction. Some states such as California and cities such as Boston created task forces to study the
legacies of slavery and Jim Crow and formulate proposals of reparations to remedy the harms caused by
these atrocities. And yet, across southern states such as Florida, new bills proposed the prohibition of
the teaching of topics associated with slavery and race.
And yet, chattel slavery was not peculiar to the United States. The largest number of enslaved Africans
were transported to the Caribbean and Latin America. In fact, Kamala Harris‘ candidacy is a great
reminder of the need to see the roots and consequences of human bondage that existed across the
Americas. She has direct links with this painful history as her paternal ancestors were enslaved, not in
the United States, but in the British Caribbean colony of Jamaica. Harris‘ family has roots in Saint Ann
Parish, on the north coast of the island, where Marcus Mosiah Garvey, the founder of the Universal
Negro Improvement Association and African Communities League (UNIA) , was born.
The history of slavery in the United States cannot be dissociated from the history of human bondage in
the Caribbean, and to understand this painful history we must also look to the history of Latin America,
especially Brazil, where the largest number of enslaved Africans were transported during the era of the
Atlantic slave trade.
Approximately 12.5 million Africans were brought to the Americas between 1501 and 1875. During this
period of the Atlantic slave trade, nearly 300,000 enslaved persons were transported in slave ships from
African ports to mainland North America and more than 3.4 million disembarked in the British and French
West Indies. But nothing could be further from the truth. Like in the British colonies of North America and
the Caribbean, the working and living conditions of enslaved people in Latin America were equally
violent and even more deadly.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]

6. Although efforts have been made to address the legacies of slavery, current societal attitudes toward
these issues can be best described as
(a) indifferent. (b) unanimous.
(c) receptive. (d) fragmented.

7. Kamala Harris‘s family history serves as a reminder of

(a) the necessity of examining individual histories in the context of American slavery.
(b) the persistence of inequality among different racial communities.
(c) the need to acknowledge widespread experiences of African heritage.
(d) the geographic concentration of the Atlantic slave trade in the United States.

8. Identify the sequence of historical factors that led to the involvement of African descendants in
Caribbean societies.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

1. Widespread Atlantic slave trade

2. Exploitation in British colonies
3. Socioeconomic impact on generations
4. Enforced migration to labour camps
Choose the appropriate option:
(a) (1), (4), (2), (3) (b) (2), (4), (3), (1)
(c) (1), (2), (4), (3) (d) (1), (4), (3), (2)

9. The "historical context" referred to in the passage implies

(a) the need for comprehensive study of race-related educational content.
(b) the residual effects of past actions in present societal attitudes.
(c) an irreversible pattern of racial discrimination and its global consequences.
(d) a shared recognition of universal values through historical awareness.

10. The writer describes California‘s reparations task force as an example of how
(a) some regions aim to address historical grievances through systematic analysis.
(b) political efforts often mirror public apathy on historical matters.
(c) community projects sometimes yield results too complex for practical outcomes.
(d) legal systems struggle to maintain impartiality in regional legislation.

11. Kamala Harris‘s heritage underscores her involvement in social justice because
(a) her family roots were shaped by struggles in Jamaica‘s colonial society.
(b) her political career is grounded in advocating for immigrant rights.
(c) she has been dedicated to highlighting the inequities faced by the Black community.
(d) her lineage promotes unity between Caribbean and American identities.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

12. The task of analyzing slavery across regions like the Caribbean is essential to
(a) maintaining accurate records of human rights violations worldwide.
(b) examining socioeconomic patterns that still influence these regions.
(c) promoting cultural awareness through historical discussions.
(d) ensuring that educational reforms are universally standardized.

III. Holes are forming in my favourite socks. They aren‘t anything special – a black poly-cotton blend. But
they are just the right length to cover the gap between my trousers and my boots, with the perfect
amount of elasticity, staying up without pinching. I could try to darn them but why bother, when I can
replace them with a few dollars and a click on a shopping app?
There is the planet to consider. The sociologist Pierre Bourdieu might have considered mending my
socks to be an act of resistance against the culture of fast-moving consumer goods; the environmental
catastrophe of high capitalism. Repair cafes are springing up all over the world. At last count, there were
almost 50,000 volunteers gathering in more than 3,000 global locations, offering to fix broken things and
teach people like me how to do the same.
It‘s also good practice for a zombie apocalypse. If, in the unlikely event that the undead invade, or the far
more likely event of bushfires, I have my exit route planned. I will grab my family and head for the water,
the irreplaceable photos I have not yet digitised ready in a suitcase under the house, along with a spare
pair of glasses and a tiny screwdriver. Duct tape will be in short supply if civilization crumbles.
But the ability to repair things can also be experienced as a spiritual practice. In almost all major
religions, repair work is understood as a potential route of connection. Engaged in mindfully, and with the
intention of doing good, this work can become a contemplative act, a bridge between the divine and the
mundane.
Repairing broken objects can become an experiential site for this shift, a practice in which the everyday
struggle can meet the divine. In the Zen Buddhist practice of kintsugi, you take a broken bowl and stick
the pieces back together. Do not try to hide the fracture but instead emphasise it, using gold or silver as
the glue. Repair does not hide the object‘s past, it integrates it into the object‘s present.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from:
[Link]
a-bridge-between-the-mundane-and-the-divine

13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate
option.
(a) philosophy journal discussing lifestyle choices
(b) government report on environmental sustainability
(c) editorial on self-sufficiency and survival tactics
(d) consumer magazine focused on fast fashion

14. The author‘s primary purpose in this passage is __________.

(a) To urge readers to reconsider their consumer habits toward sustainability.
(b) To criticize people who do not repair items and prefer fast consumer goods.
(c) To provide a historical account of consumer habits in various societies.
(d) To highlight the benefits of a minimalist lifestyle over consumerism.
15. The passage mentions ―repair cafes‖ to emphasize _________.
(a) A growing trend in urban lifestyle that prioritizes quality over quantity
(b) The economic benefit of retaining older items
(c) The traditional craftsmanship valued by people worldwide
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Community efforts to promote environmentally conscious living

16. According to the passage, why is repairing broken items considered valuable?
(a) It is a reminder of traditional values from past generations.
(b) It serves as a spiritual practice connecting individuals to a higher purpose.
(c) It is a cost-saving measure for those on a budget.
(d) It allows people to be creative and innovate with old items.

17. What does the passage suggest about modern consumer habits?
(a) They reflect a desire for immediate convenience over durability.
(b) They are primarily driven by a need for technological advancement.
(c) They indicate a growing trend towards handmade, high-quality items.
(d) They demonstrate an increasing awareness of environmental sustainability.

18. The author's mention of ―zombie apocalypse‖ serves to ________.

(a) Create a somber image of society‘s imminent collapse
(b) Illustrate a fictional scenario to convey humor about self-sufficiency
(c) Emphasize the economic advantage of mending instead of replacing
(d) Reflect concerns about global technology and connectivity loss

19. Which phrase from the passage could best replace ―spiritual practice‖ without changing the overall
meaning?
(a) ritualistic engagement (b) transcendent pursuit
(c) ethical responsibility (d) mindful endeavour

20. In the passage, the phrase ―act of resistance‖ can be best interpreted to mean –
(a) Deliberate nonconformity against prevailing consumer trends.
(b) A cautious approach to environmental issues.
(c) Efforts to support sustainable shopping.
(d) Passive response to global capitalism.

21. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the passage‘s emphasis on the environmental
importance of repairing items?
(a) Consumer goods are now largely biodegradable and cause minimal waste.
(b) Most repair materials are as environmentally damaging as the original goods.
(c) The cost of repairing items far exceeds the cost of replacement.
(d) Most people are unwilling to repair their belongings due to lack of time.

22. Which best describes the purpose of mentioning ―kintsugi‖ in the passage?
(a) To show how cultural traditions can inspire sustainable practices.
(b) To exemplify repair work as a fusion of art and utility.
(c) To illustrate how imperfections can add value to an object‘s history.
(d) To highlight the technical skills required in careful repair work.
IV. In an era of hyper-connectivity, it‘s easy for individuals to remain in echo chambers—environments
where their beliefs are continually reinforced while alternative perspectives are ignored. This tendency
impacts social harmony, political polarization, and personal growth. Psychologically, echo chambers
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

arise from intertwined cognitive and social processes, particularly perception, conformity, and the false
consensus effect.
Perception is the process through which individuals interpret sensory information, shaping their
understanding of the world. Yet, perception is inherently subjective, shaped by personal experiences,
culture, and biases. This subjectivity is central to maintaining echo chambers, where people are drawn to
information that aligns with their existing beliefs. Known as selective exposure, this tendency limits
perception, prompting people to interpret ambiguous information in ways that reinforce their views.
A primary bias influencing perception is confirmation bias, where individuals favor information that
supports their beliefs and overlook contradictory evidence. Within echo chambers, this bias manifests as
a tendency to emphasize flaws in opposing views and overlook flaws in similar viewpoints. Through
selective exposure and confirmation bias, perception creates a lens through which beliefs appear
validated and reasonable. This subjective reality becomes even more powerful when combined with
social pressures to conform.
Conformity is the tendency to align one's behaviour or opinions with a group. As inherently social beings,
humans often adapt their views to fit in. Solomon Asch‘s experiments in the 1950s revealed the strength
of social influence, showing that people frequently conform to group opinions even when they know them
to be incorrect. This drive to belong can be especially strong in echo chambers, where shared beliefs
reinforce conformity.
For instance, individuals in online echo chambers may feel pressured to adopt the dominant viewpoint to
avoid judgment or rejection. This social pressure leads to normative conformity, which involves adjusting
views to gain acceptance. Over time, this conformity solidifies commitment to specific beliefs, even when
they lack critical examination or factual support, further narrowing perspectives.
Informational influence, another aspect of conformity, emerges when individuals conform because they
believe the group has more accurate information. This influence is especially strong when issues are
complex or uncertain. Within echo chambers, informational influence leads individuals to perceive the
group‘s consensus as more factual, reinforcing their beliefs. Combined with perception, conformity
creates a feedback loop: individuals adopt group views to belong, perceive these views as correct, and
strengthen them through repeated exposure.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
school-walls/202411/trapped-in-the-echo-chamber

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Analytical (b) Inquisitive
(c) Descriptive (d) Cautionary

24. What cause-and-effect relationship is central to the passage?

(a) Cause: Selective exposure, Effect: Reinforcement of personal views
(b) Cause: Exposure to diverse views, Effect: Enhanced social harmony
(c) Cause: Social acceptance, Effect: Increased individuality
(d) Cause: Accurate perception, Effect: Objective understanding

25. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the passage's argument about echo chambers limiting
perspectives?
(a) Studies show that exposure to similar views enhances open-mindedness.
(b) Individuals in echo chambers often seek and engage with opposing viewpoints.
(c) People exposed to diverse beliefs are less inclined to change opinions.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Conformity within groups leads to less polarization over time.

26. What is the purpose of mentioning "selective exposure" in the passage?

(a) To highlight how individuals prefer neutrality in social information
(b) To illustrate a tendency to focus on views aligning with personal beliefs
(c) To suggest that people ignore social pressures in decision-making
(d) To imply that most individuals actively seek diverse perspectives

27. The author would likely agree with which of the following statements?
(a) ―Social pressure strongly influences individuals to conform.‖
(b) ―Echo chambers foster intellectual curiosity and diversity.‖
(c) ―Echo chambers have little impact on personal belief systems.‖
(d) ―Conformity in groups often encourages critical thinking.‖

28. The author implies that echo chambers are _____ to personal growth.
(a) conducive (b) irrelevant
(c) marginal (d) obstructive

29. Based on the passage, what stand might the author take on efforts to increase ideological diversity in
social platforms?
(a) Support initiatives to broaden exposure to diverse viewpoints.
(b) Oppose such efforts, fearing they lead to greater confusion.
(c) Advocate for platforms that minimize exposure to differing opinions.
(d) Indifference, as diversity is seen as unrelated to echo chambers.

30. Which sentence best illustrates conformity as described in the passage?

(a) "She shared her opinion despite it clashing with the group."
(b) "He hesitated but eventually echoed the group‘s opinion to fit in."
(c) "They actively sought diverse views, balancing perspectives."
(d) "She held firmly to her beliefs, unaffected by others' views."

31. In the passage, which of the following terms would best replace "false consensus" without changing the
meaning?
(a) Independent decision (b) Confident interpretation
(c) Misinformed agreement (d) Unbiased observation

32. Why does the author discuss Asch's experiment in the context of echo chambers?
(a) To demonstrate how external pressures reinforce conformity in groups
(b) To show that individual beliefs remain uninfluenced by groups
(c) To argue that factual information is prioritized over group opinion
(d) To suggest that conformity is not relevant in social settings

V. While it is heartening that the students aged between 21 to 24 years are now eligible to apply for the
Prime Minister‘s Internship Scheme (PMIS), which has been initiated to cultivate nascent talent and
augment the capacities and the skills of India‘s youth, the exclusion of postgraduate (PG) degree holders
from its ambit is disconcerting. The inclusion of PG students could have made this scheme more useful
and attractive as the specialised expertise of such students could contribute immensely, post internship,
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

to the development trajectory of India. Over 80,000 internship opportunities across 737 districts and 24
sectors are reportedly listed on the portal meant for this internship scheme registration.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
ambitious-internship-scheme-falls-short/[Link]

33. The significance of including young graduates in the PMIS initiative can be attributed to
(1) enhancing the work readiness of the youth.
(2) filling critical skill gaps in various sectors.
(3) empowering students with specialized degrees.
(4) ensuring regional inclusivity in employment.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (4)
(c) (1) and (3) (d) (3) and (4)

34. The omission of postgraduate students from the PMIS could likely cause
(a) fewer opportunities for skilled workers in the program.
(b) a reduced impact of the program on national development.
(c) an influx of underqualified applicants in the scheme.
(d) a lack of diversity in the internship sectors.

35. The PMIS can be interpreted as a ―catalyst‖ for

(a) driving early career development.
(b) ending unemployment in urban areas.
(c) fostering diverse job roles in government sectors.
(d) creating competitive recruitment processes.

36. Statement 1: The PMIS opens doors for graduates from rural areas to gain experience.
Statement 2: Graduates with post-secondary qualifications are among the PMIS target applicants.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(b) Both statements are true, but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
37. The ―scope of PMIS‖ refers to the program‘s ability to
(a) address sectoral needs for professional diversity.
(b) extend opportunities to all types of students.
(c) offer postgraduate qualifications upon completion.
(d) train undergraduates in specified fields.

38. In which of the following sentences is the term ―capacity-building‖ used in the same sense as in the
passage?
(a) The NGO has initiated capacity-building workshops to empower community leaders.
(b) She attended a capacity-building seminar on entrepreneurship in small towns.
(c) The company‘s capacity-building efforts focus on producing goods more efficiently.
(d) The team engaged in capacity-building exercises to improve coordination.

39. The PMIS aims to create internship opportunities primarily for

 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) rural communities. (b) postgraduate scholars.

(c) recent undergraduate graduates. (d) individuals with prior work experience.

VI. Cattle and conservation don‘t typically mix. For centuries, East African pastoralists like the Maasai
trudged across the region‘s savannas with their herds, passing by elephants and lions in their search for
life-giving grasses. But times have changed. Today, landscapes that were once a no-man‘s-land are a
bordered maze of ranches, farms and national parks. Cattle are especially unwelcome in the latter.
Letting livestock graze freely inside areas set aside for wildlife, the argument goes, can bring them to
ruin. Grasses that a wildebeest or buffalo might eat are instead consumed by cattle, turning green areas
barren and forcing the non-domestic animals into smaller pockets. It‘s an argument with a lot of traction,
undergirding policies in conservation areas across East Africa that amount to ―no cattle allowed.‖ And
there‘s research to back it up.
But a group of scientists say data they gathered over 19 months in Kenya‘s Maasai Mara National
Reserve (MMNR) tells a different story. Their study, published in September, is causing a stir in the world
of ecologists who work in the Maasai Mara — and among tourism operators there.
The Maasai are barred from bringing their herds into the MMNR, and if they‘re caught they face stiff
penalties. Still, some do it anyway, especially when there are droughts or during the annual dry season.
The new study‘s findings say that when they do, the reserve‘s wildlife don‘t much seem to mind.
Given the data that we had — at the current livestock density and the range of environmental variables
that we looked at — we found that there was a really negligible effect that cattle had on other wildlife and
the environment.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
wildlife-co-exist-in-the-maasai-mara-a-controversial-study-says-yes/

40. What could be a potential consequence for wildlife if livestock access to conservation areas continues
unchecked?
(a) Restoration of lost wildlife habitats
(b) Increase in species migration and population density
(c) Alteration of natural competition for resources
(d) No significant impact on wildlife diversity

41. In what way might conservation policies unintentionally affect local communities dependent on pastoral
activities?
(a) By fostering stronger relationships with wildlife management
(b) By restricting critical access to livelihood resources
(c) By providing seasonal grazing permits to balance wildlife and livestock needs
(d) By increasing government funding for community development

42. What broader implications can be drawn from the findings of the study conducted in the Maasai Mara
National Reserve (MMNR) regarding the coexistence of cattle and wildlife?
(a) A need for stricter enforcement of existing cattle bans in conservation zones
(b) Potential for developing adaptive conservation policies considering pastoral needs
(c) Recognition of cattle grazing as a critical factor in ecosystem collapse
(d) Increased support for anti-poaching measures within conservation areas

43. According to the passage, what relationship is implied between livestock density and the ecological
impact on conservation areas?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) High livestock density inevitably leads to environmental degradation

(b) Moderate livestock density shows negligible disruption to wildlife habitats
(c) Wildlife habitats only improve in the absence of all livestock
(d) The environment adapts to increasing livestock density without change

44. What is the broader significance of the scientific study conducted in the Maasai Mara regarding the
Maasai community‘s relationship with conservation practices?
(a) It suggests that traditional practices may benefit local biodiversity
(b) It highlights potential for integration of community practices in conservation policy
(c) It emphasizes that wildlife preservation should remain separate from human interests
(d) It reveals the detrimental impact of community practices on conservation efforts

VII. Clouds form when water vapor – an invisible gas in the atmosphere – sticks to tiny floating particles,
such as dust, and turns into liquid water droplets or ice crystals. In a newly published study, we show
that microplastic particles can have the same effects, producing ice crystals at temperatures 5 to 10
degrees Celsius (9 to 18 degrees Fahrenheit) warmer than droplets without microplastics.
This suggests that microplastics in the air may affect weather and climate by producing clouds in
conditions where they would not form otherwise.
We are atmospheric chemists who study how different types of particles form ice when they come into
contact with liquid water. This process, which occurs constantly in the atmosphere, is called nucleation.
Clouds in the atmosphere can be made up of liquid water droplets, ice particles or a mixture of the two.
In clouds in the mid- to upper atmosphere where temperatures are between 32 and minus 36 F (0 to
minus 38 C) , ice crystals normally form around mineral dust particles from dry soils or biological
particles, such as pollen or bacteria.
Microplastics are less than 5 millimeters wide – about the size of a pencil eraser. Some are microscopic.
Scientists have found them in Antarctic deep seas, the summit of Mount Everest and fresh Antarctic
snow. Because these fragments are so small, they can be easily transported in the air.
Ice in clouds has important effects on weather and climate because most precipitation typically starts as
ice particles.
Many cloud tops in nontropical zones around the world extend high enough into the atmosphere that
cold air causes some of their moisture to freeze. Then, once ice forms, it draws water vapor from the
liquid droplets around it, and the crystals grow heavy enough to fall. If ice doesn‘t develop, clouds tend to
evaporate rather than causing rain or snowfall.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: [Link]
cloud-formation-with-likely-effects-on-weather-and-climate-240192

45. What concept does ―nucleation‖ primarily convey about atmospheric phenomena in the passage?
(a) Atmospheric particles exhibit rapid transformation upon contact with moisture.
(b) Only certain particles in the atmosphere serve as catalysts for cloud formation.
(c) Cloud development is an irreversible phenomenon driven solely by liquid droplets.
(d) Specific gases in the air are essential for clouds to nucleate and form.

46. Which choice does NOT accurately interpret the notion that "microplastics in the air may affect weather
and climate by producing clouds in conditions where they would not form otherwise"?
(a) Microplastics increase cloud formation potential in atypical atmospheric states.
(b) Microplastics permit cloud creation under previously unlikely conditions.
(c) The presence of microplastics reduces natural particles‘ impact on cloud formation.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(d) Microplastics enable cloud formation at conditions that typically prevent it.

47. Why does the passage emphasize ―high-altitude‖ conditions for clouds in non-tropical regions?
(a) To illustrate limited precipitation due to warmer conditions in these regions.
(b) To highlight that ice formation is restricted to tropical atmospheric zones.
(c) To indicate that colder altitudes are crucial for ice formation essential to precipitation.
(d) To suggest that cloud formation occurs at lower altitudes in non-tropical climates.

48. In what way is the term ―transported‖ in relation to microplastic particles most accurately understood?
(a) Microplastics spread over short ranges due to their mass and size.
(b) Atmospheric dynamics carry microplastics vast distances, despite their size.
(c) Microplastics primarily settle near their origin because of gravitational effects.
(d) Microplastics need specific atmospheric conditions to move across regions.

49. According to the passage, what role does ice formation play in precipitation processes?
(a) Clouds require ice to initiate vapor release back into the atmosphere.
(b) Ice formation pulls moisture from droplets, allowing crystals to grow and fall.
(c) Water vapor condenses more efficiently in the absence of ice within clouds.
(d) Ice particles dissolve quickly, leading directly to precipitation.

50. Which of the following best illustrates the potential significance of ice in cloud systems on climate?
(a) Ice particles dissipate quickly, leading to more rapid precipitation.
(b) Ice presence stabilizes clouds, enhancing their long-term moisture retention.
(c) Ice initiates a process where vapor condenses, fueling eventual rainfall.
(d) Ice promotes water vapor collection, making precipitation more likely.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 74
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. Mentorship stands as a cornerstone for personal and professional growth, offering guidance, wisdom,
and inspiration. A mentor transcends the roles of teachers or coaches, embodying role models and
confidants who shape lives with their experience and dedication.
The significance of mentors in personal growth is profound. They guide critical life decisions, challenge
comfort zones, and foster self-confidence. By sharing life lessons, mentors equip individuals with insights
to navigate challenges and embrace new possibilities. Additionally, mentors play pivotal roles in
professional spheres, offering advice, networking opportunities, and industry knowledge. Their guidance
aids in career advancement, ensuring mentees achieve their professional aspirations.
Beyond immediate benefits, effective mentoring yields lasting impacts, shaping values, beliefs, and
perspectives. Mentors bolster mental and emotional well-being, serving as trusted confidants during life's
challenges. Numerous successful individuals attribute their accomplishments to mentorship,
underscoring its enduring influence on personal and professional achievements.
For those aspiring to mentor or seek mentorship, compatibility remains paramount. Establishing trust and
understanding forms the bedrock of fruitful mentor-mentee relationships. Effective mentors prioritize
empowerment, encouraging critical thinking, decision-making, and independence in their mentees.
Rather than fostering dependencies, they equip mentees with tools and confidence to thrive
independently.
In essence, mentors illuminate paths toward self-discovery, growth, and success. Whether seeking
mentorship or cherishing existing relationships, recognizing the transformative power of mentorship is
crucial. By fostering knowledge, experience, and compassion, individuals can create positive impacts,
fostering growth, success, and fulfillment for themselves and others. Embracing mentorship not only
unlocks potential but also perpetuates a cycle of growth and inspiration, enriching lives and communities
alike.

1. What is the primary tone of the passage on mentorship?

(a) Indifferent (b) Optimistic
(c) Pessimistic (d) Ambiguous

2. What is the central idea of the passage regarding mentorship?

(a) Mentorship is a one-sided relationship benefiting only the mentor.
(b) Effective mentorship offers both immediate and lasting impacts on individuals' lives.
(c) Seeking mentorship is a sign of weakness and dependency.
(d) The primary goal of mentorship is to foster competition among individuals.

3. How does the passage describe the role of mentors in guiding individuals?
(a) Mentors merely provide academic knowledge.
(b) Mentors only offer emotional support during tough times.
(c) Mentors challenge comfort zones and offer valuable life lessons.
(d) Mentors focus solely on promoting their own achievements.
4. What does the passage suggest about the relationship between mentors and mentees?
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(a) The relationship between mentors and mentees is purely transactional.

(b) The mentor-mentee relationship is solely based on professional achievements.
(c) Trust and understanding form the foundation of a fruitful mentor-mentee relationship.
(d) Mentorship is a fleeting connection with no lasting impact.

5. According to the passage, what role does mentorship play in individuals' career development?
(a) Mentorship limits individuals' career growth opportunities.
(b) Mentorship provides individuals with shortcuts to success without effort.
(c) Mentorship offers invaluable advice and opportunities, aiding in career advancement.
(d) Mentorship encourages individuals to rely solely on their skills without external guidance.

6. What is the most appropriate antonym for "resilience" as depicted in the passage?
(a) Fragility (b) Stability
(c) Firmness (d) Rigidity

II. When we were children there was no need to know who the king in the fairy story was. It didn‘t matter
whether he was called Shiladitya or Shalibaan, whether he lived at Kashi or Kannauj. The thing that
made a seven-year-old boy‘s heart go thump, thump with delight was this one sovereign truth; this reality
of all realities: ―Once there was a king.‖
But the readers of this modern age are far more exact and exacting. When they hear such an opening to
a story, they are at once critical and suspicious. They apply the searchlight of science to its legendary
haze and ask: ―Which king?‖
The story-tellers have become more precise in their turn. They are no longer content with the old
indefinite, ―There was a king,‖ but assume instead a look of profound learning, and begin: ―Once there
was a king named Ajatasatru,‖
The modern reader‘s curiosity, however, is not so easily satisfied. He blinks at the author through his
scientific spectacles, and asks again: ―Which Ajatasatru?‖
―Every schoolboy knows,‖ the author proceeds, ―that there were three Ajatasatrus. The first was born in
the twentieth century B.C., and died at the tender age of two years and eight months, I deeply regret that
it is impossible to find, from any trustworthy source, a detailed account of his reign. The second
Ajatasatru is better known to historians. If you refer to the new Encyclopedia of History….‖
By this time the modern reader‘s suspicions are dissolved. He feels he may safely trust his author. He
says to himself: ―Now we shall have a story that is both improving and instructive.‖
Ah! how we all love to be deluded! We have a secret dread of being thought ignorant. And we end by
being ignorant after all, only we have done it in a long and roundabout way.
There is an English proverb; ―Ask me no questions, and I will tell you no lies.‖ The boy of seven who is
listening to a fairy story understands that perfectly well; he withholds his questions, while the story is
being told. So the pure and beautiful falsehood of it all remains naked and innocent as a babe;
transparent as truth itself; limpid as afresh bubbling spring. But the ponderous and learned lie of our
moderns has to keep its true character draped and veiled. And if there is discovered anywhere the least
little peep-hole of deception, the reader turns away with a prudish disgust, and the author is discredited.
When we were young, we understood all sweet things; and we could detect the sweets of a fairy story by
an unerring science of our own. We never cared for such useless things as knowledge. We only cared
for truth. And our unsophisticated little hearts knew well where the Crystal Palace of Truth lay and how to
reach it. But to-day we are expected to write pages of facts, while the truth is simply this:
―There was a king.‖
Source:[Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

7. What does the author imply by contrasting the innocence of childhood with the scepticism of modern
readers in the passage?
(a) Modern readers are more adept at discerning truth from falsehood in storytelling.
(b) Childhood innocence allows for a deeper appreciation of the essence of stories.
(c) The proliferation of information has made modern readers more critical and analytical.
(d) The traditional art of storytelling is being lost in the face of modern scepticism.

8. What is the author's attitude towards the modern reader's approach to storytelling in the passage?
(a) Appreciative (b) Disapproving
(c) Neutral (d) Indifferent

9. What does the author mean by "the Crystal Palace of Truth" in the passage?
(a) A metaphor for the innocence of childhood perception.
(b) A reference to a famous historical landmark.
(c) A symbol of modern scepticism.
(d) An allegory for the enduring nature of truth.

10. What effect does the author suggest scepticism has on storytelling?
(a) It enhances the credibility of stories.
(b) It leads to deeper understanding and appreciation of stories.
(c) It diminishes the enjoyment and authenticity of stories.
(d) It encourages authors to produce more factual narratives.

11. According to the passage, how do modern readers typically approach short video clips of public figures'
statements on social media?
(a) With scepticism and suspicion (b) With indifference and apathy
(c) With enthusiasm and trust (d) With curiosity and eagerness

III. Socio-Economic: When most people think of ―experiments,‖ they think of test tubes and telescopes, of
Petri dishes and Bunsen burners. But the physical apparatus is not central to what an ―experiment‖
means. Instead, what matters is the ability to specify different conditions–and then to observe how the
differences in the underlying conditions alter the outcomes. When ―experiments‖ are understood in this
broader way, the application of ―experiments‖ is expanded.
For example, back in 1881 when Louis Pasteur tested his vaccine for sheep anthrax, he gave the
vaccine to half of a flock of sheep, expose the entire group to anthrax, and showed that those with the
vaccine survived. More recently, the ―Green Revolution‖ in agricultural technology was essentially a set
of experiments, by systematically breeding plant varieties and then looking at the outcomes in terms of
yield, water use, pest resistance, and the like.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from [Link]

12. What is the main purpose of the passage?

(a) To argue against the traditional view of experiments as primarily laboratory-based.
(b) To provide a detailed history of scientific experiments from Pasteur to the present.
(c) To describe the specific technical equipment necessary for conducting experiments.
(d) To suggest that all scientific advancements are results of intentional experimental setups.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

13. According to the passage, what criteria distinguish an activity as an experiment?

(a) The use of advanced technological equipment and complex methodologies.
(b) The ability to manipulate conditions and analyse the resultant changes in outcomes.
(c) The physical setting in which the activity takes place, such as a lab or field site.
(d) The involvement of biological subjects like plants or animals in testing hypotheses

IV. I have long consider‘d the gross abuse of astrology in this kingdom, and upon debating the matter with
myself, I could not possibly lay the fault upon the art, but upon those gross impostors, who set up to be
the artists. I know several learned men have contended that the whole is a cheat; that it is absurd and
ridiculous to imagine, the stars can have any influence at all upon human actions, thoughts, or
inclinations: And whoever has not bent his studies that way, may be excused for thinking so, when he
sees in how wretched a manner that noble art is treated by a few mean illiterate traders between us and
the stars; who import a yearly stock of nonsense, lyes, folly, and impertinence, which they offer to the
world as genuine from the planets, tho‘ they descend from no greater a height than their own brains.
I intend in a short time to publish a large and rational defence of this art, and therefore shall say no more
in its justification at present, than that it hath been in all ages defended by many learned men, and
among the rest by Socrates himself, whom I look upon as undoubtedly the wisest of uninspir‘d mortals:
To which if we add, that those who have condemned this art, though otherwise learned, having been
such as either did not apply their studies this way, or at least did not succeed in their applications; their
testimony will not be of much weight to its disadvantage, since they are liable to the common objection of
condemning what they did not understand.
Nor am I at all offended, or think it an injury to the art, when I see the common dealers in it, the students
in astrology, the philomaths, and the rest of that tribe, treated by wise men with the utmost scorn and
contempt; but rather wonder, when I observe gentlemen in the country, rich enough to serve the nation
in parliament, poring in Partridge‘s almanack, to find out the events of the year at home and abroad; not
daring to propose a hunting-match, till Gadbury or he have fixed the weather.
Source: [Link]

14. According to the passage, why does the author blame the abuse of astrology?
(a) The lack of interest among the learned.
(b) The absurdity of imagining stars influence human actions.
(c) The illiterate traders who falsely present themselves as artists.
(d) The cheat and ridiculous nature of astrology.

15. Why does the author mention Socrates in the passage?

(a) To emphasize Socrates' opposition to astrology.
(b) To highlight Socrates' role as a wise defender of astrology.
(c) To criticize Socrates for misunderstanding astrology.
(d) To question the relevance of Socrates in the context of astrology.
16. What is the author's opinion about the common dealers in astrology?
(a) Offended by their contemptible treatment.
(b) Surprised by their success in the field.
(c) Wonders at their interest in astrology.
(d) Not offended but rather wonders when observing their actions.

17. What does the author intend to do in the future regarding astrology?
(a) Denounce and condemn astrology.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

(b) Publish a large and rational defense of astrology.

(c) Advocate for stricter regulations in astrology.
(d) Discredit Socrates' defense of astrology.

18. What does the author consider the primary problem with astrology in the kingdom?
(a) Lack of interest among the learned.
(b) Absurdity of stars influencing human actions.
(c) Illiterate traders falsely representing themselves as artists.
(d) Annual import of nonsense from the planets.

19. In the passage, what does the author think about the common perception of astrology held by wise men?
(a) The common perception is entirely justified.
(b) Wise men respect and value astrology.
(c) The common perception is often scornful and contemptuous.
(d) Wise men are indifferent to the practice of astrology.

V. The Parisian travels but little, he knows no language but his own, reads no literature but his own, and
consequently he is pretty narrow and pretty self-sufficient. However, let us not be too sweeping; there
are Frenchmen who know languages not their own: these are the waiters. Among the rest, they know
English; that is, they know it on the European plan –which is to say, they can speak it, but can‘t
understand it. They easily make themselves understood, but it is next to impossible to word an English
sentence in such away as to enable them to comprehend it. They think they comprehend it; they pretend
they do; but they don‘t. Here is a conversation which I had with one of these beings; I wrote it down at
the time, in order to have it exactly correct.
I. These are fine oranges. Where are they grown?
He. More? Yes, I will bring them.
I. No, do not bring any more; I only want to know where they are from where they are raised.
He. Yes? (with imperturbable mien and rising inflection.)
I. Yes. Can you tell me what country they are from?
He. Yes? (blandly, with rising inflection.)
I. (disheartened). They are very nice.
He. Good night. (Bows, and retires, quite satisfied with himself.)
That young man could have become a good English scholar by taking the right sort of pains, but he was
French, and wouldn‘t do that. How different is the case with our people; they utilize every means that
offers. There are some alleged French Protestants in Paris, and they built a nice little church on one of
the great avenues that lead away from the Arch of Triumph, and proposed to listen to the correct thing,
preached in the correct way, there, in their precious French tongue, and be happy. But their little game
does not succeed. Our people are always there ahead of them Sundays, and take up all the room. When
the minister gets up to preach, he finds his house full of devout foreigners, each ready and waiting, with
his little book in his hand–a morocco-bound Testament, apparently. But only apparently; it is Mr.
Bellows‘s admirable and exhaustive little French-English dictionary, which in look and binding and size is
just like a Testament and those people are there to study French. The building has been nicknamed
―The Church of the Gratis French Lesson.‖
These students probably acquire more language than general information, for I am told that a French
sermon is like a French speech–it never names a historical event, but only the date of it; if you are not up
in dates, you get left. A French speech is something like this.
Source: [Link]
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

20. What is the main point of the passage?

(a) French waiters are excellent at understanding and speaking English.
(b) Parisians are generally well-traveled and multilingual.
(c) French Protestants in Paris struggle to find room in their church.
(d) The language barrier between Parisians and English speakers, especially with waiters.

21. What does the author think about French waiters and their language skills?
(a) French waiters are generally fluent in multiple languages.
(b) French waiters can speak English but struggle to understand it.
(c) French waiters are not interested in learning other languages.
(d) French waiters are as multilingual as Parisians.

22. What happens at the "Church of the Gratis French Lesson"?

(a) French Protestants gather for religious services.
(b) Our people attend church services.
(c) Students use it as a place to study French.
(d) The church is known for its historical sermons.

23. Why does the author say the young French man could have become a good English scholar?
(a) Because he was naturally gifted in languages.
(b) Because he took the right sort of pains to learn English.
(c) Because he was eager to study English literature.
(d) Because he was a waiter.
24. What does the author imply about the French approach to language learning?
(a) French people are generally disinterested in learning languages.
(b) French people make a significant effort to learn and understand English.
(c) French people rely on dictionaries to understand foreign languages.
(d) French people are proficient in languages but pretend not to understand.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

Mock - 75
English Language

Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer each question
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more
than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
I. The feeling was like sinking. Gert and the counselor drifted outside her field of vision; her breath halted.
Sophie knew even if she could speak, her words would go unheard.
She wanted to run out of the room, but thought better of it, so she sat, head in hand as if she were
concentrating.
―Are you ok?‖ The counselor‘s voice was even, warm.
The clock ticking, the sound of Gert breathing next to her on the couch, the stare of the counselor, all
irritated her.
She took a deep breath, looked up.
Gert said, ―We all want you to be ok.‖ He turned to her, put his hand on her knee.
Sophie searched for an object in the room and settled on the bookshelf behind the counselor, who sat in
front of them in her wheeled office chair. The shelf was tall, burnished in a dark stain that caught the light
in places, rings of oak visible throughout. It was expensive looking and completely lined with books, no
gaps. Had the counselor read all of these books, or none of them? Put together, how much did they
weigh? Sophie wondered what would happen if the counselor was careless in her wheely chair, feet
pushing a little too hard off the floor as she shuffled back to her desk. Sophie saw her bump into the
bookcase, saw it rocking slightly at first and then in larger and larger seesaw arcs until it fell forward.
Surely, the counselor would be crushed beneath its weight. Was it tall enough to reach her and Gert,
where they sat on the plush, teal colored sofa?
She wanted to talk about the pretentious bookshelf, how unnecessary it was. She‘d use an open-ended
question: ―What do you think about that bookshelf?‖ but instead, she said, ―I‘m ok, thank you,‖ and put
her hand on top of Gert‘s.
Sophie pulled her large nosed Buick over a rare curve in I-90, where Louisiana and Texas would soon
meet. The car was an ‗87, with roll down windows and broad seats. The sun was hot on her left side,
ears and neck burning as the sun assumed a perch high in the cloudless sky. She pictured California,
anxious to feel wet sand beneath her feet and see the foamy surf. Unlike the feeble coastline of her
hometown, she knew she would appreciate the endless horizon the Pacific Ocean would provide. When
asked ―Why California? It‘s so far,‖ she‘d replied for no other reason than she hadn‘t been there before.
Sophie leaned on the doorframe and pulled her fingers through her curls, singing the words she knew to
Tina Turner‘s, You Better be Good to Me and humming the rest. She‘d need gas in another couple
hours, but nothing else until she pulled into Houston for the night. ―Good job old girl,‖ she said, patting
the molded plastic dash that was cracked at its base.
Source : Getting Better by Christine Foy

1. What is the author's attitude towards the counselor‘s bookshelf in the passage?
(a) Admiration for its aesthetic appeal and elegance.
(b) Disdain and irritation towards its pretentiousness.
(c) Indifference, as it is not significant to the narrative.
(d) Curiosity about the counselor's reading habits and preferences.
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

2. What does Sophie‘s act of placing her hand on top of Gert‘s instead of discussing the bookshelf reveal
about her state of mind?
(a) She is focused on confronting her issues directly.
(b) She is reluctant to engage in meaningful conversation and prefers to avoid conflict.
(c) She is eager to discuss the bookshelf but is unsure of how to start.
(d) She is completely absorbed in her thoughts about the bookshelf and ignores Gert‘s presence.

3. How does Sophie‘s reflection on the bookshelf contribute to the overall mood of the scene in the
counseling room?
(a) It creates a sense of calm and contentment.
(b) It introduces a sense of anxiety and unease.
(c) It highlights the counselor‘s professionalism and expertise.
(d) It adds a layer of humor and lightheartedness to the scene.

4. What is the central theme of the passage related to Sophie‘s journey?

(a) The importance of addressing unresolved issues in personal relationships.
(b) The significance of physical and emotional escape from daily life.
(c) The impact of nostalgia on one‘s travel experiences.
(d) The role of music in enhancing one‘s driving experience.

5. In the context of the passage, what does the metaphor of the car ("old girl") signify?
(a) The car is a reliable companion in Sophie‘s journey.
(b) The car is a symbol of Sophie‘s nostalgic attachment to her past.
(c) The car represents Sophie‘s longing for a new beginning.
(d) The car signifies Sophie‘s frustration with her current situation.

6. What is the tone of the passage describing Sophie‘s drive through Texas and Louisiana?
(a) Melancholic (b) Reflective
(c) Anxious (d) Jubilant

II. When I moved to Delhi from Kashmir for undergraduate studies in 2018, one of the many things that
struck me in the metropolitan hubbub was how recreation was centred around markets and obsessive
consumption.
For the people around me, weekends meant incurring expenses to buy and consume – food, malls,
cafes, clothes and movies. I was not accustomed to this when I was growing up. But I soon fell into step.
After I‘d run through the exhaustive list of ancient tombs and monuments to explore, I also found myself
going to ticketed places, and spending weekends making purchases. The Delhi ways of spending my
Sundays contradicted my Kashmiri sensibilities. In Kashmiri culture, recreation meant picnics, or as my
Dadi says, ―piknik‖. Unlike Delhi, Kashmir has an abundance of streams, lakes and mountains. In my
childhood, recreation meant planning trips to Mughal gardens like Chasma Shahi and Nehru Park
around the Dal Lake in Srinagar.
Occasionally, we‘d set off early Saturday mornings for Pahalgam, Gulmarg, or Sonmarg, further away
from Srinagar. The extended family would book a Matador or Tempo Traveller, and we‘d play music all
the way to our destination. If we were lucky, there would be an overnight stay in the serene valleys and
lunch by the riverside before returning. These picnics were a fundamental part of my upbringing and
helped me to develop an appreciation of the wonders of nature. At Kashmiri picnics, families often carry
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

hot bowls of steamed white rice and mutton curry. A portable gas cylinder is taken along to brew evening
tea. As the women and men occupy themselves with warming the food, the children play games such as
aab jung – splashing water at each other. Some claim that the culture of picnicking in Kashmir traces its
roots to its Mughal or colonial times. Stories of family picnics being a long tradition abound in Kashmir.
My mother and grandmother often recounted tales of walking miles to see cherry blossoms in Badam
Vaer, carrying a samovar of nun-chai, Kashmiri pink tea. Despite years of unrest, turmoil, and instability,
picnicking has endured. Perhaps, there‘s a clue to be found in Imtiaz Ali's recent film Amar Singh
Chamkila, about a musician performing during Punjab‘s troubled times in the 1980s. He realises that his
records are selling extensively not despite the turmoil but rather because of it. Maybe people in troubled
times require different kinds of diversions to alleviate their pain for a short while. For Kashmiris, picnics
might be the element that adds strength to their resilient spirits.
Source: [Link]

7. What was the author's primary observation about recreation in Delhi compared to Kashmir?
(a) Delhi had more ancient tombs and monuments
(b) Recreation in Delhi was centered around markets and consumption
(c) Delhi offered more outdoor activities
(d) Recreation in Delhi was less expensive

8. Which of the following best describes the Kashmiri tradition of "piknik" as mentioned in the passage?
(a) Visiting shopping malls and cafes
(b) Exploring ancient tombs and monuments
(c) Spending time in nature and carrying homemade food
(d) Attending ticketed events and making purchases

9. According to the passage, what is "aab jung"?

(a) A traditional Kashmiri dish (b) A game involving splashing water at each other
(c) A type of Kashmiri tea (d) A portable gas cylinder used for cooking

10. The author draws a parallel between Kashmiri picnics and which other cultural phenomenon?
(a) Delhi's weekend shopping culture
(b) Mughal garden design
(c) The popularity of Amar Singh Chamkila's music during Punjab's troubled times
(d) British colonial recreational activities

11. Which of the following statements best captures the author's perspective on the endurance of picnicking
in Kashmir?
(a) It's a result of increased tourism in the region
(b) It's a form of resistance against political instability
(c) It's a way to alleviate pain and strengthen resilient spirits during troubled times
(d) It's solely a continuation of Mughal and colonial traditions

12. How does the author primarily view the transition from Kashmiri to Delhi recreational culture?
(a) With enthusiastic embrace
(b) With indifference
(c) With initial resistance followed by gradual adaptation
(d) With outright rejection
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

III. Raavan worship is as old as the worship of Ram, especially in south India. He also resonates among
sections of the subaltern, including the Dalit-Bahujan-Adivasi community movements for identity and
political assertion. The Gond community in Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand
views Raavan as a Gondi king and environmentalist, celebrating Raavan Mahotsavs during Dussehra
festivities across India. Gonds in Gadchiroli worship Raavan‘s son Meghnad. Adivasi communities like
the Bhil and Koli—found across central, Deccan and south-western India—also venerate him, as do
some caste Hindus in Bisrakh, a small town on the outskirts of Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh, believed to
be his birthplace. In Maharashtra, the Maharashtra Rajya Adivasi Bachao Abhiyan, led by Ashok Bagul,
advocates against the burning of Raavan effigies, emphasising his representation of the downtrodden.
Bagul‘s 2019 movement united various tribes to honour Raavan, echoing similar protests in Chhattisgarh
and Madhya Pradesh. Activist Laxman Bagul from Dang, Gujarat, notes that for backward, Adivasi
and moolnivasi (original inhabitant) communities, the Ramayana offers little solace. ―The killings of
Shambuca and Vali, the stories of discrimination against Ekalavya, Karna and the fact that the story is of
a ‗warrior caste‘ ruler who is actually a God incarnate and his council of Brahmin ministers, make it rather
non-inclusive of the marginalised,‖ Bagul states. In Dang, festivals like Dongarya Dev Pujan feature the
recitation of ‗Dangi Ramkantha‘, a local version of the Ramayana with significant variations, particularly
in its portrayals of Ram and Raavan. In Nashik, the Bohada mask festival provides another opportunity
for Adivasi communities such as the Mahadev Kolis, Malhar Kolis, Dhor Kolis, Katkari and Warlis to
come together in celebration. During this festival, they honour not only Raavan but also other ‗asura‘
characters, including Mahisasur, Bakasur, Hidimba, Narsinha and Dait. Hindu mythological narratives,
rooted in Vedic literature, often embody a ―nationalist‖ character that plays out through an epic conflict
between the ‗Gods‘ (deva/devta) and demons (asura). Proponents of subaltern reinterpretation and
deconstruction of these myths frequently identify the subaltern with the ―asura‖, transforming villains into
heroes, or at least anti-heroes. In this sense, the ―demon‖ becomes a symbol of the oppressed rather
than the oppressors. Central to these revisionist narratives are mythic episodes from the Mahabharata
and Ramayana, which highlight the cruelty of Hindu gods toward the asura characters. Dalit and
subaltern movements in India have often been shaped by dominant cultural representations and
scholarly theories, leading to countercultures of political and self-assertion. This is evident in Dalit-
Bahujan-Adivasi student identity politics. In 2013, students at Osmania University‘s English and Foreign
Languages University (EFLU) faced a backlash for celebrating ―Asura Week‖ on the campus to promote
subaltern Dravidian culture. The event included face-painting, art installations depicting Surpanakha,
open canvas sessions for artworks on ‗Memories of Oppression‘ and discussions on resisting dominance
through cultural articulation. In 2015, students in Andhra Pradesh ruffled right-wing groups by
―celebrating‖ Diwali in mourning for Narkasura, another ―asura‖ from the Hindu mythology, who was killed
by Krishna and Satyabhama during an epic battle coinciding with Diwali. In Goa‘s Ponda, where
Narkasura effigies are burned on Diwali, local artists from the backward castes view the ―demon‖ as their
hero. ―The annual Narkasura floats (or parades) are our financial mainstay. Thanks to Narkasura, we
earn enough to sail through six months,‖ one artist jokes. Such inversions of myths attempt to construct a
more inclusive or Bahujan identity, encompassing not only ex-―untouchables‖ but also other marginalised
‗backward‘ castes, tribes and religious minorities, notes Kristina Garalyte, a Lithuanian researcher and
author of Subaltern Autonomy: Dalit Students‘ Identity Politics in India. Post-colonial theorist Ashis
Nandy‘s works on humiliation as a psycho-social state highlight that humiliation functions through mutual
consensus on its meaning systems that could be reversed through rejection and inversion. This could
explain why some Dalit-Bahujan-Adivasi identity politics and counterculture movements focus on
deconstructing and re-signifying the meaning systems within the Hindu nationalist discourse, leading to
changes in self-perception, as Garalyte notes. In this context, rejecting the notion of Raavan as a villain
 Law Prep Tutorial/CLAT 2025/English

signifies a persistent need to challenge the dominant narrative while remaining part of it. As Lakhbir puts
it, ―Raavan worshippers are not against Ram. We just want Raavan to get the respect he deserves. Ram
is a hero, but Raavan is not the villain.‖
SOURCE: [Link]

13. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The celebration of Raavan in various Adivasi communities.
(b) A deconstruction of Hindu mythology to create inclusive narratives for marginalised groups.
(c) The role of Dalit-Bahujan-Adivasi identity movements in contemporary Indian politics.
(d) An examination of Raavan‘s influence on subaltern political movements in Maharashtra.

14. How does the passage explain the significance of Raavan worship among the Gond community?
(a) The Gond community views Raavan as a symbol of environmental degradation caused by Hindu
rituals.
(b) Raavan is celebrated as a heroic figure who embodies resistance against upper-caste dominance.
(c) Raavan is regarded as a representation of or connected to their ancestral leaders, reflecting a
historical legacy of Gondi kingship.
(d) The Gond community honours Raavan‘s contributions to regional agricultural practices.

15. According to Laxman Bagul, why does the Ramayana offer little solace to the backward and Adivasi
communities?
(a) The Ramayana glorifies an elitist Brahminical worldview that marginalises lower castes.
(b) Its narratives are primarily concerned with the upper-caste gods, sidelining stories of Adivasi heroes.
(c) The text reinforces the systemic oppression of moolnivasi groups by glorifying violence against them.
(d) The Ramayana presents a caste-based framework that does not account for subaltern struggles.

16. What role does the ―inversion of myths‖ play in Dalit-Bahujan-Adivasi movements, as per the passage?
(a) It allows marginalised communities to reclaim their identity by redefining their ancestral myths as
empowering.
(b) It seeks to eliminate the notion of gods and asuras, creating a new pantheon of deities.
(c) These inversions aim to erase historical narratives entirely, in favour of creating new subaltern
myths.
(d) Inversions of myths seek to undermine traditional Hindu practices and replace them with Adivasi
beliefs.

17. How does Kristina Garalyte view the role of Bahujan identity in the context of subaltern autonomy?
(a) She sees Bahujan identity as a political tool for transforming India‘s democratic structure into a tribal-
majority system.
(b) She describes Bahujan identity as encompassing multiple marginalised groups, which challenges
upper-caste dominance.
(c) Garalyte believes that Bahujan identity is restricted only to Dalit and ex-―untouchable‖ communities.
(d) Her argument revolves around the idea that subaltern autonomy is achievable only through the total
rejection of Hindu cultural practices.

18. What can be inferred from the passage about the broader implications of Raavan worship as percieved
by some of the Indian society?
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(a) Raavan worship undermines the legitimacy of Hindu nationalist narratives by elevating asuras as the
central figures of reverence.
(b) The recognition of Raavan by certain groups leads to a complete rejection of Ram and his role in
Indian mythology.
(c) The subaltern reinterpretation of Raavan is primarily a religious protest against Brahminical
Hinduism, with limited political implications.
(d) Worshiping Raavan is a tangible action that alters the social and political hierarchies present within
Indian society.

IV. The awareness of equal corruption will be a better emotional basis for the so-called multiracial
Commonwealth, of which much is made than its professed principle - the pursuit of common aims in
world politics, aims which are so rarefied that a large volume of artificial political oxygen is needed to
keep that body - politic breathing. After all, it cannot be denied that even the United States and the
Russia are pursuing common aims in world affairs, such as peace, disarmament, democracy,
technological progress, as well as freedom as understood by each. But that is not preventing them from
doing things which might lead to the destruction or near destruction of mankind. Thus, common aims
would seem to be very undependable as guarantees for goodwill and cooperation among nations. On
the contrary, a frank admission of being equal sinners would at least encourage charity and discourage
moral arrogance. That would be a better foundation for integration for international and multiracial
cooperation.

19. The Superpowers may claim to have the same laudable objectives, but
(a) Do not work earnestly to achieve them.
(b) Undo each other's efforts.
(c) Still act against the interests of mankind.
(d) Do not see them in the right perspective.

20. The Commonwealth is characterised by

(a) A lack of substantive action to achieve its stated goals.
(b) A superficial unity based on shared history rather than shared interests.
(c) A tendency to prioritize symbolism over tangible outcomes.
(d) An inability to adapt to changing global dynamics.

21. The thrust of the author's argument is that:

(a) The Commonwealth's idealistic goals are undermined by the reality of national self-interest.
(b) True international cooperation requires a more honest and pragmatic approach to global politics.
(c) Shared moral failings among nations can serve as a foundation for stronger international bonds.
(d) The Commonwealth's focus on racial diversity is a superficial facade that masks deeper divisions.

V. Youth today do not realise that one is modern only when his thoughts and actions bring out something
new, which can set an example to the rest of the world. Imitating only the Western outlook in lifestyle,
leaving aside their values, is not what modernism is. Should we consider a youth modern if he opts for a
dozen girlfriends and then pretends to be ignorant when dowry in marriage is concerned? The family
also plays a vital role in shaping one's life.
If the urban population in India is divided into two broad divisions, the elite and the middle class, we will
find that youths belonging to both these classes suffer from severe frustrations. The parents in the higher
society are so busy with their work that their children are left neglected. Loneliness, tensions arising out
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of parent's unhappy relations and family feuds result in psychiatric depression in the youth. The case is
similar in the middle-class families, though with a difference. Lack of attention at home ruins them. The
situation is not so grave with the girls as they generally prefer to stay at home, whatever its conditions
be. But young men, desperate to find some refuge; quite often come in contact with drugs, alcohol and
other illegal activities. Neither are they happy with the society nor is the society happy with them.

22. The passage is concerned with

(a) The urban youth (b) The elite class youth
(c) The middle-class youth (d) The modern girls

23. Youths in the elite class families are

(a) Lonely and depressed (b) Prone to drug-addiction
(c) Desperate for revenge (d) Angry and defiant

24. Being truly modern means

(a) Imitating the West (b) Opting for a dozen girl-friend
(c) Accepting dowry in marriage (d) Doing something exemplary