Reading Workshop – Nasrin Hadarezaie

Reading:
IELTS Reading Question Types: Information & Tips: ....................................................... 2
1. Matching Headings Questions: ............................................................................................... 2
2. True False Not Given / Yes No Not Given Questions: ........................................................... 2
3. Matching Paragraph Information Questions: .......................................................................... 3
4. Summary Completion Question .............................................................................................. 3
5. Sentence Completion Questions: ............................................................................................ 3
6. Multiple Choice Questions:..................................................................................................... 4
7. List Selection: .......................................................................................................................... 4
8. Choosing a Title: ..................................................................................................................... 4
9. Classification Questions: ......................................................................................................... 5
10. Matching Sentence Endings: ................................................................................................. 5
11. Table Completion: ................................................................................................................. 6
12. Flow Chart Completion Questions: ....................................................................................... 6
13. Diagram Completion Questions: ........................................................................................... 6
14. Short Answer Questions:....................................................................................................... 7
keywords: ............................................................................................................................. 7
Test 1 answer key with extra explanations : ........................................................................ 8
Reading Passage 1 : ..................................................................................................................... 8
Reading Passage 2 : ..................................................................................................................... 9
Reading Passage 3 : ................................................................................................................... 11
Test 2 answer key with extra explanations : ...................................................................... 14
Reading Passage 1 : ................................................................................................................... 14
Reading Passage 2 : ................................................................................................................... 15
Reading Passage 3 : ................................................................................................................... 18
Test 3 answer key with extra explanations : ...................................................................... 20
Reading Passage 1 : ................................................................................................................... 20
Reading Passage 2 : ................................................................................................................... 21
Reading Passage 3 : ................................................................................................................... 23

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IELTS Reading Question Types: Information & Tips:

In IELTS Reading, there are 14 different types of questions that you can be given. In IELTS reading, you will
have only one hour to read 3 passages and answer 40 questions. These questions are always divided into different
types of questions which you must complete. Each passage usually has about 3 or 4 different types of questions
to answer.
In order to prepare well for your test, you must make sure that you practice each type of question. Below is a list
of the question types you can get in IELTS reading with information and tips to help you

1. Matching Headings Questions:

Task Choose a heading from the list which matches a section or paragraph in the passage
Skills:

 understanding the aim of a section

 identifying the difference between a main idea and supporting points
 understanding aims of paragraphs and sections
 understanding the general content of paragraphs or sections
Tips:

 read the headings before you read the passage

 there are often more headings than you need
 analyze the headings before trying to match them to sections or paragraphs
 answers are often numerals (i u, iit, iv, etc)- read mat ructions carefully to check
 answers do not come in order

2. True False Not Given / Yes No Not Given Questions:

Task Decide if the information or writer's opinion in the question statements can be found in the passage
Skills

 identifying specific information in the passage

 scanting and understanding information (T/FING questions) understanding the opinions of the verities
(Y/NING questions)
Tips

 Understand the meaning of each answer

 yes/true same information is found in the passage
 no/false the opposite information is found in the passage
 not given the information is not found in the passage
 paraphrase the statements before trying to locate the answers
 answers come in order

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3. Matching Paragraph Information Questions:

Task: Matching the information given in the question with information found in one of the paragraphs in the
passage.
Skills:

 identifying specific information

 scanning for information
Tips:

 paraphrase the information in the question

 find the information on the passage
 answers do not come in order
 the answer is often a letter (A. D. C.D.-real instructions carefully to check
 not all paragraphs may be used

4. Summary Completion Question

Task: Completing a summary by falling in the gaps using words from the passage or words given in a box
Skills:

 scanning for specific information in the passage

 understanding ideas and supporting points
 selecting appropriate words
Tips:

 identify the type of word needed for each gap (noun/verb/adjective etc)
 locate the information in the passage in order to choose the night word
 if you choose words from the passage, check how many words can be used for each answer
 answers usually come in order
 the summary must be grammatically correct which can help you an choosing the right word for the gap

5. Sentence Completion Questions:

Task: Completing sentences by hilling in the gap with words from the passage
Skills

 scanning for specific information

 selecting appropriate words
 understanding information in the passage
Tips

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 identify the type of word needed for each gap (noun/verb/adjective etc)
 locate the information in the passage in order to choose the right word
 the sentences must be grammatically correct which can help you in choosing the right word for the gap
 check how many words can be used for each answer
 answers usually come in order

6. Multiple Choice Questions:

Task: Choose the correct answer to a question or the correct ending to a sentence from usually 3 or 4 possible
options.
Skills

 scarring for specific Information

 understanding information in the passage
Tips

 paraphrase the information in the question and options

 locate the precise information in the passage
 answers come in order
 answers are usually letters (A.B,C or D)-read the instructions carefully to check

7. List Selection:

Task: Choose the correct option from a list of words, information or names. This differs from multiple choice
because the questions all relate to only one long list of possible answers.
Skills:

 scanning for information

 understanding information in the passage
 identifying ideas relating to others
Tips:

 read through paraphrases the list and prepare parapet

 read through the questions and identify keywords
 locate the information in the passage
 answers come in order
 answers are usually letters (A-G)- read the instructions carefully to check

8. Choosing a Title:
Task: Choosing the most appropriate title from a list

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skills:

 identifying aims of a passage

 distinguishing between detail and main aims
Tips

 look at the differences between the possible titles

 pay attention to the opening paragraphs and closing paragraphs of the passage
 don't spend too much time on this question - it is only worth one point
 Click to practice choosing a title

9. Classification Questions:
Task: Decide which category the information belongs to from a list.
Skills:

 locating information in the passage

 categorizing information
Tips:

 find information in the passage

 decide which category the information belongs to
 look out for paraphrases

10. Matching Sentence Endings:

Task: Completing sentences by matching the start of the sentence with the correct ending given in a list.
Skills:

 locating information in the passage

understanding information
Tips

 read through the sentences and then read through the possible endings
 prepare paraphrases
 find information in the passage
 choose the best ending to match the information in the passage
 the completed sentence must be grammatically correct
 sentence beginnings follow the order of information the passage
 answers are usually letters (A-G)-read instructions carefully to check
 there are usually more endings given than you need

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 Click to practice matching sentence endings to improve your reading skills. Answers do not always come in
order.

11. Table Completion:

Task: Completing the table using the correct word from the passage.
Skills

 locating specific information in the passage

 choosing appropriate words
 understanding details
Tips:

 read the column headings in the table

 identify the type of word needed for each part of the table
 scan the passage for information
 answers are often located in a specific part of the passage check how many words you can use for the
answer

12. Flow Chart Completion Questions:

Task: Completing the flow chart using the correct words from the passage
Skills

 locating specific information in the passage

 choosing appropriate words
 understanding details and order of information
Tips:

 identify the type of word needed for each part of the flow chart
 scan the passage for information
 answers do not always come in order
 use the direction of the arrows and boxes to follow the order of information in the chart
 select the appropriate words from the passage
 check the number of words that can be used for be used for each answer

13. Diagram Completion Questions:

Task: Labelling a diagram

Skills

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 locating information in the passage

 relating the information to the diagram
 choosing appropriate words
Tips

 identify the type of word needed for the answer (noun/verb etc)
 find the information in the passage
 the information is usually located in one specific paragraph or two in the passage
 check how many words you can use for the answer
 Answers do not always come in order

14. Short Answer Questions:

Task: Answering questions regarding details in the passage.

Skills

 locating information in the passage

 understanding detail and specific information
Tips:

 identify the type of words you need for each answer (noun, verb etc)
 paraphrase vocabulary in the questions scan the passage to locate information
 answers come in order

Keywords:
**Non linguistics= numbers\punctuation\capitals
**Linguistics=
1. Concept: noun\ adj.\ adv.\ v.

2. Function words\grammar:

•Comparative n\ adj. \adv.-superlative words: older/ more students/ the best

• Quantity adverbs: a lot of/ some.....
• Modifying adverbs=very\ quite\ extremely/ pretty+ adj.
• Contrast words: but\although\ however...
• Negative words=seldom\rarely, no\ not
• Cause: because \since \justification\reason\motive\ due to \owing to …

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• Effect: so\ therefor\as a result/influence/impact/affect …

• Conditional sentences: if\ as long as\ unless\ provided…
• Adverbs of frequency: always\ usually …
• Wh...: who\ when\ how …
• Restricted words: only \just …
• Possession words: 's\ of \ mine\ my..

Test 1 answer key with extra explanations: C.16

Reading Passage 1:

Questions 1–13
1 The correct answer is FALSE: The text refers to the layer of fat under polar bears’ skin and
the fact that ‘Humans with comparative levels of adipose tissue would be considered obese and
would be likely to suffer from diabetes and heart disease.’ It then contrasts humans and polar
bears, saying ‘Yet the polar bear experiences no such consequences.’ The phrase ‘no such
consequences’ refers back to obesity, diabetes and heart disease in humans: this means that polar
bears do not suffer these health problems as a result of their fat.
2 The correct answer is FALSE: The text says that the study by Liu and colleagues ‘compared
the genetic structure of polar bears with that of their closest relatives from a warmer climate, the
brown bears.’ In other words, they compared two different species of bear; they did not compare
two different groups of polar bears.
3 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: The text says that Liu and colleagues compared polar
bears and brown bears genetically, but it does not say whether they were the first researchers to
do this.
4 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says, ‘Liu and his colleagues found the polar bears
had a gene known as APoB, which reduces levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) – a form
of “bad” cholesterol.’ Having a gene which reduces the levels of ‘bad’ cholesterol has the same
meaning as controlling this by genetic means.
5 The correct answer is TRUE: The text describes how female polar bears remain in dens in
the snow throughout the winter and then says, ‘This process results in six months of fasting,
where the female bears have to keep themselves and their cubs alive’. The word ‘fasting’ means
living without food for a period.

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6 The correct answer is FALSE: The text refers to the period which female polar bears spend
in their den over the winter and then says, ‘Despite this, their bones remain strong and dense’. It
also refers to Lennox and Goodship’s findings that ‘six months later, when they finally emerged
from the den with their cubs, there was no evidence of significant loss of bone density’.
7 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says, ‘If the mechanism of bone remodelling in polar
bears can be understood, many bedridden humans, and even astronauts, could potentially
benefit.’ These are two examples of groups of people who could benefit from scientific
developments based on the polar bear’s mechanism for increasing bone density.
8 The correct answer is ‘violent’: The text says, ‘Bears … seem to be perceived as stupid and
in many cases violent.’
9 The correct answer is ‘tool’: The text says, ‘A male bear called GoGo in Tennoji Zoo, Osaka,
has even been observed making use of a tool to manipulate his environment. The bear used a
tree branch on multiple occasions to dislodge a piece of meat hung out of his reach.’ The second
sentence adds information to the first, specifying what the tool was and how the bear manipulated
his environment; it explains that that the ‘tool’ mentioned in the first sentence was a ‘tree
branch’.
10 The correct answer is ‘meat’: The text says, ‘A male bear called GoGo in Tennoji Zoo,
Osaka, has even been observed making use of a tool to manipulate his environment. The bear
used a tree branch on multiple occasions to dislodge a piece of meat hung out of his reach.’ The
word ‘dislodge’ has a similar meaning to ‘knock down’ in this context: the bear used the branch
to reach upwards and knock the piece of meat out of the tree.
11 The correct answer is ‘photographer’: The text says, ‘A calculated move by a male bear
involved running and jumping onto barrels in an attempt to get to a photographer standing on a
platform four metres high.’
12 The correct answer is ‘game’: The text refers to Ames’s study and says that she ‘observed
bears putting objects in piles and then knocking them over in what appeared to be a game’.
13 The correct answer is ‘frustration’: The text says, ‘many bears have been seen to hit out at
ice and snow – seemingly out of frustration – when they have just missed out on a kill’.
Reading Passage 2:

Questions 14–26
14 The correct answer is iv, ‘A single certainty among other less definite facts’: The text
mentions that ‘The evolution of the pyramid form has been written and argued about for
centuries.’ This means that people do not agree about the evolution of the pyramid form. It then
says, ‘However, there is no question that, as far as Egypt is concerned, it began with one
monument to one king designed by one brilliant architect: the Step Pyramid of Djoser at
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Saqqara.’ The phrase ‘there is no question’ means that although there is a lack of certainty about
other subjects, this one fact is certain. ix is incorrect: This paragraph refers to questions, but there
is no mention of unexpected questions.
15 The correct answer is vii, ‘An idea for changing the design of burial structures’: The text
describes the design of tombs before the reign of Djoser, then says that Djoser’s main official,
Imhotep, ‘conceived of building a taller, more impressive tomb for his king by stacking stone
slabs on top of one another, progressively making them smaller, to form the shape now known
as the Step Pyramid’. A burial structure is a synonym for ‘tomb’, and if someone conceives of
something, this means that they had an idea or invented something new. iii is incorrect: This
paragraph tells us about a king, but it does not say that he saved his people.
16 The correct answer is ii, ‘A difficult task for those involved’: The text mentions that ‘Much
experimentation was involved’, which suggests that the construction of the pyramid was not a
simple task. It then says, ‘The weight of the enormous mass was a challenge for the builders’. If
something is a challenge, it means that it is not easy to do.
17 The correct answer is v, ‘An overview of the external buildings and areas’: The text refers
to the size of the Step Pyramid and the area it occupied, as well as the purpose of certain
buildings, such as the temple. It also describes the outer wall and trench surrounding the
complex. This paragraph is therefore an overview – a general description – of the outside of the
pyramid site. i is incorrect: This paragraph does not refer to anything inside the pyramid.
18 The correct answer is i, ‘The areas and artefacts within the pyramid itself’: This paragraph
begins by describing how different sections inside the pyramid – the burial chamber, tunnels and
rooms – were arranged. It then describes some artefacts: the stone vessels which were found
inside the pyramid. v is incorrect: This paragraph describes the areas inside the pyramid, not the
external areas.
19 The correct answer is viii, ‘An incredible experience despite the few remains’: The text
refers to ancient robbers, saying that ‘all archaeologists found were a small number of [Djoser’s]
valuables overlooked by the thieves’. This means that there were few objects left in the pyramid.
But it then goes on to say, ‘There was enough left throughout the pyramid and its complex,
however, to astonish and amaze the archaeologists who excavated it.’ This tells us that even
though there were few remains, the archaeologists still thought the discovery of them was
amazing.
20 The correct answer is vi, ‘A pyramid design that others copied’: The text says that the Step
Pyramid ‘became the archetype which all the other great pyramid builders of Egypt would
follow’. This means that all the other great pyramid builders copied the design of the Step
Pyramid.

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21 The correct answer is ‘city’: In Paragraph D, the text refers to the Step Pyramid and then
says, ‘The complex in which it was built was the size of a city in ancient Egypt’.
22 The correct answer is ‘priests’: In Paragraph D, the text says that the complex ‘included a
temple, courtyards, shrines and living quarters for the priests’. The phrase ‘living quarters’ has
the same meaning as accommodation.
23 The correct answer is ‘trench’: In Paragraph D, the text says, ‘the entire wall was then
ringed by a trench 750 meters long and 40 meters wide’. If something rings another thing, it
means that it goes all around it or encircles it.
24 The correct answer is ‘location’: In Paragraph D, the text refers to the false doors and then
says, ‘If someone wished to enter, he or she would have needed to know in advance how to find
the location of the true opening in the wall.’ This means that if visitors did not know the location
of the real door, they would not have been able to enter.
25 and 26 The correct answers are B and D (in either order): B is correct because in
Paragraph B, the text says, ‘Djoser is thought to have reigned for 19 years, but some historians
and scholars attribute a much longer time for his rule, owing to the number and size of the
monuments he built.’ This means that not everyone agrees about how long Djoser’s reign was:
some people think it was 20 years, while others think that it was much longer. D is correct
because in Paragraph F, the text says, ‘Djoser’s grave goods, and even his body, were stolen at
some point in the past and all archaeologists found were a small number of his valuables
overlooked by the thieves.’ If the archaeologists found ‘a small number of his valuables’, this
means that they found a few of his possessions in his tomb.
A is incorrect: In Paragraph B, the text says that the Step Pyramid was built in stone rather
than clay, but it does not say whether King Djoser had to be persuaded to use stone.
B is incorrect: In Paragraph D, the text says that Djoser was very proud of Imhotep’s
accomplishment. E is incorrect: The text does not say anything about Djoser’s attitude towards
other pyramids.
Reading Passage 3:

Questions 27–40
27 The correct answer is B: The text says, ‘3–14% of the global workforce will need to switch
to a different occupation within the next 10–15 years, and all workers will need to adapt as their
occupations evolve alongside increasingly capable machines’. This sentence tells us how many
people will have to change the job that they do or the way that they work. The text then refers to
AI as ‘one aspect of the disruptive effects of technology on the labour market’, meaning that AI
is one of the causes of this change. A is incorrect: This paragraph tells us about the proportion
of the labour force who will have to change their jobs because of AI; it does not specify what

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kinds of jobs these will be. C is incorrect: This paragraph tells us about the proportion of the
labour force who will have to change their jobs because of AI; it does not say how many will
have jobs in AI. D is incorrect: This paragraph explains the distinction between embodied and
disembodied AI but does not say anything about their different impacts on workers.
28 The correct answer is D: The text says that Stella Pachidi ‘believes that some of the most
fundamental changes are happening as a result of the “algorithmication” of jobs that are
dependent on data rather than on production – the so-called knowledge economy’. If something
results in fundamental changes in a particular area, this means that it is a key factor in current
developments there. A is incorrect: This paragraph gives examples of the tasks previously
needing human judgement which algorithms can now do, but it doesn’t say whether Pachidi
believes this is having an influence the number of jobs available. B is incorrect: This paragraph
does not say anything about people’s attitudes towards their occupations. C is incorrect: The text
makes no reference to a decline in the production sector.
29 The correct answer is C: The text says, ‘Pachidi and colleagues even observed people
developing strategies to make the algorithm work to their own advantage,’ and then quotes
Pachidi saying, ‘We are seeing cases where workers feed the algorithm with false data to reach
their targets’. If workers are giving the algorithm false data in order to reach their targets, this is
a way of making sure that it produces the results that they want. A is incorrect: The text does not
say that staff disagreed with the recommendations of AI. B is incorrect: The text does not say
what the staff’s attitude towards AI was. D is incorrect: The text does not say that staff allowed
AI to carry out tasks that they ought to do themselves.
30 The correct answer is D: The text refers to Ewan McGaughey’s research and then quotes
him saying, ‘History is clear that change can mean redundancies. But social policies can tackle
this through retraining and redeployment.’ The word ‘tackle’ has a similar meaning to handle.
McGaughey gives the examples of retraining and redeploying workers as illustrations of ways
that social policies can successfully handle changes in the job market. A is incorrect: What
McGaughey challenges is the idea that new technologies are entirely to blame for
unemployment: he acknowledges that redundancy is a negative thing and gives his views on how
to deal with it. B is incorrect: The text refers to unemployment but does not say anything about
the effect of mass unemployment on society. C is incorrect: The text refers to past and future job
losses but does not compare them.
31 The correct answer is G: In the second paragraph, the text quotes Stella Pachidi talking
about ‘the “algorithmication” of jobs that are dependent on data rather than on production’.
Saying that jobs are ‘dependent on data’ is the same as saying that they rely on information.
32 The correct answer is E: In the sixth paragraph, the text refers to Pachidi’s observations that
workers sometimes begin to ‘learn through the “algorithm’s eyes” and become dependent on its

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instructions’. Becoming ‘dependent’ on AI’s instructions means the same as having a growing
reliance on its recommendations.
33 The correct answer is C: In the sixth paragraph, the text says, ‘Alternative explorations –
where experimentation and human instinct lead to progress and new ideas – are effectively
discouraged.’ ‘Instinct’ has a similar meaning to intuition, ‘progress and new ideas’ has a similar
meaning to innovation, and ‘discouraged’ has a similar meaning to prevented. The text is
therefore saying that using experimentation and human instinct is discouraged in the workplace.
34 The correct answer is F: In the eighth paragraph, the text refers to the researchers and says,
‘Their objective is to make AI technologies more trustworthy and transparent, so that
organisations and individuals understand how AI decisions are made.’ Having trust in something
is a synonym for having confidence in something, so trying to make AI technology ‘more
trustworthy’ has the same meaning as trying to increase people’s confidence in it.
35 The correct answer is B: In the tenth paragraph, Hamish Low refers to the effect of
automation in the future and says, ‘The number of jobs will increase’.
36 The correct answer is A: In the third paragraph, Stella Pachidi says, ‘Organisations are
attracted to using algorithms because they want to make choices based on what they consider is
“perfect information”, as well as to reduce costs and enhance productivity.’ The phrase
‘Organisations are attracted to using algorithms’ has the same meaning as AI is appealing to
businesses. Pachidi then goes on to give three reasons for this.
37 The correct answer is C: In the final paragraph, Ewan McGaughey says, ‘Just as the
industrial revolution brought people past subsistence agriculture, and the corporate revolution
enabled mass production, a third revolution has been pronounced.’ The industrial revolution and
the corporate revolution are two major cultural shifts that occurred in previous centuries, and
McGaughey highlights the parallels between the impact of these events and that of the current
AI-driven changes by using the phrase ‘Just as’.
38 The correct answer is A: In the fourth paragraph, Stella Pachidi says, ‘But these
enhancements are not without consequences’. The word ‘enhancements’ refers back to the
advantages of algorithms mentioned in the previous paragraph. Pachidi then goes on to mention
several negative consequences of AI in the workplace.
39 The correct answer is B: In the ninth paragraph, Hamish Low says, ‘The traditional
trajectory of full-time education followed by full-time work followed by a pensioned retirement
is a thing of the past.’ A ‘traditional trajectory’ has a similar meaning to a conventional path, and
the phrase ‘a thing of the past’ means that this no longer exists. Low is therefore saying that
career paths are now different from the conventional ones that people used to follow.
40 The correct answer is C: In the 13th paragraph, the text says, ‘McGaughey’s findings are a
call to arms to leaders of organisations, governments and banks to pre-empt the coming changes

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with bold new policies that guarantee full employment, fair incomes and a thriving economic
democracy.’ If something is ‘a call to arms’, it is calling on people to take action or measures.
McGaughey’s findings are therefore encouraging authorities such as governments to make sure
that there will be full employment and fair incomes: in other words, adequately paid work for
everyone.

Test 2 answer key with extra explanations:

Reading Passage 1:

Questions 1–13
1 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says, ‘There are 56 hill figures scattered around
England, with the vast majority on the chalk downlands of the country’s southern counties.’ The
phrase ‘the vast majority of’ means the same as most, and ‘the country’s southern counties’ is
one particular area of England.
2 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: The text says, ‘The figures include giants, horses,
crosses and regimental badges.’ It does not say whether there are more figures in the shape of a
horse than figures with other shapes.
3 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says, ‘The White Horse has recently been re-dated
and shown to be even older than its previously assigned ancient pre-Roman Iron Age date.’ As
the recent dating shows that the White Horse is even older than its previously assigned date, this
means that people’s previous estimate of the White Horse’s age was incorrect.
4 The correct answer is FALSE: The text refers to the date of the Long Man of Wilmington as
‘controversial’ and says, ‘While many historians are convinced the figure is prehistoric, others
believe that it was the work of an artistic monk from a nearby priory and was created between
the 11th and 15th centuries.’ The fact that there are two different views among historians about
the figure’s origins means that they have not come to an agreement.
5 The correct answer is FALSE: The text says, ‘The method of cutting these huge figures was
simply to remove the overlying grass to reveal the gleaming white chalk below.’ This means that
people did not place the chalk on the hillside: the chalk was already on the hillside, and they
uncovered it by cutting away the grass that was growing on top.
6 The correct answer is TRUE: The text refers to the fact that ‘the vast majority of hill figures
have disappeared’. This means that that most of these are not visible any more.
7 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says, ‘over hundreds of years the outlines would
sometimes change due to people not always cutting in exactly the same place, thus creating a

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different shape to the original geoglyph.’ If the shapes of some geoglyphs are now different from
their original shapes, this means that they have altered over time.
8 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: The text describes the Uffington White Horse, but does
not say whether its fame is due to its size.
9 The correct answer is ‘Ridgeway’: The text says, ‘The horse is situated 2.5 km from
Uffington village … and below the Ridgeway, a long-distance Neolithic track.’ A track which
dates from Neolithic times is several thousand years old: this means that the Ridgeway is an
ancient road. The capital ‘R’ of ‘Ridgeway’ tells us that this is the name which the road is known
by.
10 The correct answer is ‘documents’: The text says, ‘The earliest evidence of a horse at
Uffington is from the 1070s CE when “White Horse Hill” is mentioned in documents from the
nearby Abbey of Abingdon’. The phrase ‘earliest evidence’ means that these documents contain
the first reference to White Horse Hill in existence.
11 The correct answer is ‘soil’: The text says that ‘Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL)
testing was carried out by the Oxford Archaeological Unit on soil from two of the lower layers
of the horse’s body, and from another cut near the base.’ ‘Testing’ of soil has the same meaning
as analysis of soil.
12 The correct answer is ‘fertility’: The text says that the goddess Epona ‘was worshipped as
a protector of horses, and for her associations with fertility’.
13 The correct answer is ‘Rhiannon’: The text says, ‘It is possible that the carving represents
a goddess in native mythology, such as Rhiannon, described in later Welsh mythology as a
beautiful woman dressed in gold and riding a white horse.’ The words ‘such as’ refer back to the
word ‘goddess’, indicating that Rhiannon was an example of a goddess; the capital ‘R’ of
‘Rhiannon’ indicates that this was the name of the goddess.
Reading Passage 2:

Questions 14–26
14 The correct answer is D: The text says, ‘Microbes, most of them bacteria, have populated
this planet since long before animal life developed and they will outlive us.’ The word ‘us’ refers
to animal life, including humans. The idea that microbes ‘will outlive us’ means that they will
live for longer than we will: there will still be microbes on this planet when the human race no
longer exists. A is incorrect: This paragraph mentions the environments where microbes live,
but it does not say anything about how quickly they adapt to these environments. B is incorrect:
The writer says, ‘we mess with them at our peril’, meaning that it would be dangerous for humans
to interfere with microbes. This implies that the risk which they could pose is very great, and not

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at all exaggerated. C is incorrect: The text gives examples of both animal and plant life where
microbes are found, but it does not compare them in terms of the numbers present.
15 The correct answer is C: The text says, ‘What is amazing is that while the number of human
cells in the average person is about 30 trillion, the number of microbial ones is higher – about
39 trillion.’ The phrase ‘What is amazing’ tells us that the writer is impressed by the fact which
follows: the writer finds it impressive that the average person has a higher number of microbial
cells than human cells. A is incorrect: The writer says that each species has different microbes
but does not express any opinion about this fact: we do not know whether or not the writer is
impressed by this. B is incorrect: The text says that microbes vary from one part of an individual
to another; it refers to varying types of microbes and does not say anything about varying
numbers of microbes. D is incorrect: The text refers to scientists, but it does not say that they
have limited understanding of how microbial cells behave.
16 The correct answer is A: The text describes how Antony van Leeuwenhoek designed
microscopes and ‘examined a drop of water from a nearby lake and found it teeming with tiny
creatures’. B is incorrect: The text refers to two scientists but does not compare their theories. C
is incorrect: The text refers to two scientists but does not mention any confusion. D is incorrect:
The text refers to the fact that some microbes cause disease but does not give any details about
this.
17 The correct answer is G: ‘Disease’ has a similar meaning to illness. In the sixth paragraph,
the text says that ‘while fewer than one hundred species of bacteria bring disease, many
thousands more play a vital role in maintaining our health’. This compares the number of bacteria
which lead to illness with the number which help keep us healthy. The ‘fewer than one hundred’
bacteria species which cause disease is relatively small in comparison to the thousands which
maintain our health.
18 The correct answer is B: The text says, ‘bacteria should not be viewed as either friends or
foes, villains or heroes. Instead we should realise we have a symbiotic relationship, that can be
mutually beneficial or mutually destructive.’ ‘Foes’ means enemies, so the text is saying that we
should not think of bacteria as either our friends or our enemies. We should think of them as a
species with which we have a ‘symbiotic’ relationship: this is when different species co-exist
together in close association, similar to a partnership.
19 The correct answer is H: In the seventh paragraph, the text refers to ‘our unhealthy, low-
fibre diets’ as one of several factors contributing to the increase in allergies and immune system
problems. Our ‘diets’ are what we eat and drink, and this word has a similar meaning to nutrition.
If our diet is ‘unhealthy’, this means that our nutrition is poor. E is incorrect: The word
cleanliness does not fit in this part of the sentence because the text does not say that our standard
of cleanliness is poor.

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20 The correct answer is E: In the seventh paragraph, the text refers to ‘Our obsession with
hygiene’ as one of several factors contributing to the increase in allergies and immune system
problems. If people have an ‘obsession with hygiene’, this means that they focus far too much
on keeping themselves clean. H is incorrect: The word ‘nutrition’ does not fit in this part of the
sentence because the text does not say that we focus too much on nutrition.
21 The correct answer is YES: In the eighth paragraph, the writer says, ‘there are studies
indicating that the excessive use of household detergents and antibacterial products actually
destroys the microbes that normally keep the more dangerous germs at bay’. The writer suggests
that using antibacterial products may not lead to the result that we want: we use the products to
kill dangerous germs, but in fact they might be killing the microbes which keep us safe from
these germs. If these products do not keep us safe from dangerous germs, they are failing to have
the desired effect.
22 The correct answer is NO: In the eighth paragraph, the writer says, ‘Other studies show that
keeping a dog as a pet gives children early exposure to a diverse range of bacteria, which may
help protect them against allergies later.’ The phrase ‘exposure to a diverse range of bacteria’
means ‘contact with many different types of bacteria’. In other words, the writer thinks that
children may get protection against allergies if they are exposed to as many bacteria as possible
when they are young. It is therefore not a good idea to ensure they come into contact with as few
bacteria as possible.
23 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: In the ninth paragraph, the writer refers to several case
studies in Yong’s book but does not give an opinion about whether there are too many or too
few case studies included.
24 The correct answer is YES: In the ninth paragraph, the writer says that the study involving
fungus and frogs is ‘Among the less appealing case studies’. The writer then goes on to say,
‘Another is about squid that carry luminescent bacteria that protect them against predators.’ The
word ‘Another’ refers back to the phrase ‘Among the less appealing case studies’; this means
that the writer thinks the case study about bacteria and squid is also one of the less appealing
ones. In other words, this case study is somewhat dull, or even unpleasant, and may therefore
have limited appeal for readers.
25 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: In the ninth paragraph, the writer refers to an attempt
to stop mosquitoes spreading dengue fever but does not say whether this has been successful.
26 The correct answer is NO: In the ninth paragraph, the writer says, ‘In the future, our ability
to manipulate microbes means we could construct buildings with useful microbes built into their
walls to fight off infections’, and then mentions a hospital ward as an example of a possible
location where we could imagine this happening. This means that microbes which reduce the
risk of infection have not yet been put in the walls of hospital wards.

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Reading Passage 3:

Questions 27–40
27 The correct answer is B: The writer says that wisdom ‘isn’t an exceptional trait possessed
by a small handful of bearded philosophers after all’. The phrase ‘isn’t … after all’ indicates that
this idea was believed until recently, but now research suggests that it may be wrong. This point
is then reinforced by the phrase ‘in fact’, which introduces the findings of the research. A is
incorrect: The writer says that wisdom is ‘one of the most revered human qualities’ but does not
suggest that it is unique to humans. C is incorrect: The writer refers to different concepts of
wisdom but does not relate these to society. D is incorrect: The writer refers to recent findings
about the nature of wisdom but does not say whether there is more to be discovered.
28 The correct answer is C: Igor Grossmann is quoted as saying, ‘It appears that experiential,
situational, and cultural factors are even more powerful in shaping wisdom than previously
imagined’. This means that people did not previously realise how powerful the influence of these
factors was. In other words, their importance was underestimated. A is incorrect: Grossmann
suggests that a person’s ability to make wise decisions ‘varies dramatically across experiential
and situational contexts’; he does not suggest that this varies from one person to another. B is
incorrect: Grossman does not say anything about earlier research. D is incorrect: Grossman refers
to several branches of psychology but does not suggest that they have different definitions of
wisdom.
29 The correct answer is B: Grossmann is quoted as saying, ‘wisdom … unfolds as a function
of situations people happen to be in. Some situations are more likely to promote wisdom than
others.’ This means that a person will show more wisdom in some circumstances than in others.
A is incorrect: Grossman does not mention what people think about their own level of wisdom.
C is incorrect: Grossman claims that an individual’s level of wisdom depends on ‘a variety of
external factors’; he does not suggest that personality is a determining factor. D is incorrect:
Grossman does not say anything about wisdom developing over time.
30 The correct answer is D: The fourth paragraph lists four characteristics identified as being
associated with wise reasoning; the writer is implying that people can use these to help them
reason wisely. A is incorrect: There is no mention of any difficulties. B is incorrect: There is no
mention of any specific type of person. C is incorrect: There is no mention of any controversial
view.
31 The correct answer is D: The fourth paragraph refers to the four characteristics in the
framework of wise reasoning and says, ‘One is intellectual humility or recognition of the limits
of our own knowledge’. ‘Humility’ has a similar meaning to modesty, and the ‘recognition of
the limits’ of something has a similar meaning to modesty regarding the extent of it.

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32 The correct answer is A: The fourth paragraph mentions ‘compromise or integration of

different attitudes and beliefs’ as being a characteristic in the framework of wise reasoning.
Someone who integrates different attitudes and beliefs into their decisions is taking into account
opinions which may not be the same as their own. ‘View’ is incorrect: While view can have a
similar meaning to opinions, this word does not fit grammatically. View is a singular countable
noun; this gap requires a plural or uncountable noun.
33 The correct answer is C: The fourth paragraph mentions ‘appreciation of perspectives wider
than the issue at hand’ as being a characteristic in the framework of wise reasoning. This has a
similar meaning to taking a broad view. ‘Opinions’ is incorrect: While opinions can have a
similar meaning to ‘view’, this word does not fit grammatically. Opinions is a plural noun; this
gap requires a singular countable noun.
34 The correct answer is F: The fifth paragraph suggests that ‘one of the most reliable ways to
support wisdom in our own day-to-day decisions is to look at scenarios from a third-party
perspective, as though giving advice to a friend’. This is a recommendation to regard scenarios
in a detached way, as if from another person’s viewpoint: in other words, to look at them with
objectivity.
35 The correct answer is G: The fifth paragraph suggests that taking a third-person perspective
helps people ‘focus more on interpersonal and moral ideals such as justice and impartiality’. The
concepts of ‘justice and impartiality’ have a similar meaning to fairness.
36 The correct answer is FALSE: The text says, ‘The students were instructed to imagine their
career either “as if you were a distant observer” or “before your own eyes as if you were right
there”.’ It then refers to participants being ‘assigned’ to particular groups. Both of these
statements indicate that the students were given no choice about the perspective to take.
37 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: The text describes how the couples experiment was
conducted but does not mention whether the participants were aware that the study was about
wise reasoning.
38 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: The text says that the ‘perspectives’ taken by the
participants had an impact on the results; it does not say whether the length of the couples’
relationships had any impact on these.
39 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says of the job prospects experiment that
‘Participants in the group assigned to the “distant observer” role displayed more wisdom-related
reasoning (intellectual humility and recognition of change) than did participants in the control
group’; it says of the couples experiment that ‘Couples in the “other’s eyes” condition were
significantly more likely to rely on wise reasoning – recognizing others’ perspectives and
searching for a compromise – compared to the couples in the egocentric condition.’ This means

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that the two experiments produced the same results: in both cases, the participants who took the
wiser decisions were those who looked at the situation from a detached viewpoint.
40 The correct answer is TRUE: The final paragraph says, ‘We might associate wisdom with
intelligence or particular personality traits, but research shows only a small positive relationship
between wise thinking and crystallized intelligence’. If there is ‘only a small positive
relationship’ between wisdom and intelligence, this means that the former is determined by the
latter to only a very limited extent. The text then quotes Grossmann expanding on this point,
saying, ‘It is remarkable how much people can vary in their wisdom from one situation to the
next, and how much stronger such contextual effects are for understanding the relationship
between wise judgment and its social and affective outcomes as compared to the generalized
“traits”.’ This indicates that Grossman agrees with this view.

Test 3 answer key with extra explanations:

Reading passage 1:

Questions 1–13
1 The correct answer is FALSE: The text says, ‘The Romans were not traditionally sailors but
mostly land-based people, who learned to build ships from the people that they conquered,
namely the Greeks and the Egyptians.’ In other words, the Romans picked up their shipbuilding
skills from the Greeks and the Egyptians: they did not pass these skills on to these people.
2 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: The text mentions the change to the ‘mortise and tenon’
method of fixing planks but does not say whether skilled craftsmen were needed for this.
3 The correct answer is FALSE: The text says, ‘Mediterranean shipbuilders shifted to another
shipbuilding method, still in use today, which consisted of building the frame first and then
proceeding with the hull and the other components of the ship.’ In other words, their practice
involved building the frame before the hull.
4 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says, ‘Rome’s navy became the largest and most
powerful in the Mediterranean, and the Romans had control over what they therefore called Mare
Nostrum, meaning “our sea”’. This means that Romans gave the Mediterranean this name
because they dominated its use.
5 The correct answer is TRUE: The text says that rowers were ‘mostly Roman citizens enrolled
in the military’.
6 The correct answer is ‘lightweight’: In the third paragraph, the text says, ‘Warships were
built to be lightweight and very speedy’. ‘Speedy’ is incorrect: The summary already says that
warships were designed so that they moved quickly; ‘speedy’ has the same meaning as this.
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7 The correct answer is ‘bronze’: In the third paragraph, the text says, ‘They had a bronze
battering ram’. ‘Timber’ is incorrect: This refers to the hulls of enemy ships.
8 The correct answer is ‘levels’: In the fourth paragraph, the text refers to the ‘trireme’ and
then says, ‘It had rowers in the top, middle and lower levels’.
9 The correct answer is ‘hull’: In the fifth paragraph, the text says that merchant ships ‘had a
wider hull, double planking and a solid interior for added stability’. The word broad has the same
meaning as ‘wide’. ‘Interior’ is incorrect: the text says that the interior was ‘solid’, not that it
was wide.
10 The correct answer is ‘triangular’: In the fifth paragraph, the text says that merchant ships
had ‘one to three masts with large square sails and a small triangular sail at the bow’. ‘Large’ is
incorrect: the gap requires a word describing the shape of the sails, contrasting with ‘square’ and
referring to the other type of sail (‘small triangular’).
11 The correct answer is ‘music’: In the fifth paragraph, the text says that ‘coordinating the
hundreds of rowers … was not an easy task’ and then says, ‘In order to assist them, music would
be played on an instrument, and oars would keep time with this.’
12 The correct answer is ‘grain’: In the sixth paragraph, the text says, ‘The cargo on merchant
ships included raw materials, (e.g. iron bars, copper, marble and granite), and agricultural
products, (e.g. grain from Egypt’s Nile valley).’
13 The correct answer is ‘towboats’: In the sixth paragraph, the text says, ‘Large merchant
ships would approach the destination port and, just like today, be intercepted by a number of
towboats that would drag them to the quay.’ The phrase ‘drag them to the quay’ means that these
small boats pulled the merchant ships to the shore.
Reading Passage 2:

Questions 14–26
14 The correct answer is D: The text says, ‘Hunters would have easily misplaced arrows and
they often discarded broken bows rather than take them all the way home.’ This sentence gives
two reasons why hunters left weapons in the mountains: it explains about arrows that were
‘misplaced’ – in other words, lost – and bows that hunters threw away because they were broken.
A is incorrect: Section A refers to ancient arrows being found on mountains, but it does not
explain why they were left there.
15 The correct answer is C: The text quotes Barrett saying, ‘Fieldwork is hard work – hiking
with all our equipment, often camping on permafrost’. The term ‘fieldwork’ refers to the work
of archaeologists when they go to excavate ancient sites looking for evidence. F is incorrect:
Section F mentions the difficulty of travelling in the mountains, but this refers to travel in the
ancient past: it does not refer to present-day archaeological expeditions.
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16 The correct answer is F: The text quotes Barrett referring to ‘failing agricultural harvests in
time of low temperatures’ and then says, ‘A colder turn in the Scandinavian climate would likely
have meant widespread crop failures’. These are both explanations about the climate becoming
too cold to grow food successfully.
17 The correct answer is H: The text says that ‘archaeologists could be extracting some of
those artefacts from retreating ice in years to come’. The phrase ‘in years to come’ means in the
future.
18 The correct answer is G: The text refers to ‘a booming demand for hides to fight off the
cold, as well as antlers to make useful things like combs.’ Hides (animal skins) and antlers are
examples of two animal products which people needed and which hunters would have traded. C
and E are not correct: Sections C and E mention trade but do not give any examples of items.
19 The correct answer is B: The text says, ‘glacial archaeologists need to race the clock to find
newly revealed artefacts, preserve them, and study them’. The idiom ‘race against the clock’
refers to the pressure to do something quickly before time runs out. The text then gives two
examples explaining why they have to work quickly: ‘If something fragile dries and is
windblown it might very soon be lost to science, or an arrow might be exposed and then covered
again by the next snow’. C is incorrect: Section C refers to how hard archaeologists’ work can
be, but makes no mention of the pressure to work quickly.
20 The correct answer is ‘microorganisms’ or ‘micro-organisms’: In Section B, the text says,
‘Organic materials like textiles and hides are relatively rare finds at archaeological sites. This is
because unless they’re protected from the microorganisms that cause decay, they tend not to last
long.’ The term ‘hides’ is another word for animal skins.
21 The correct answer is ‘reindeer’: In Section C, the text refers to ‘patches of ice in Oppland’
and then says, ‘Reindeer once congregated on these icy patches in the later summer months’.
The word ‘congregated’ means came together in groups, so has a similar meaning to gathered.
‘Insects’ is incorrect: The text does not say that the insects were trying to avoid anything.
‘Hunters’ is incorrect: The text does not say that hunters gathered or that they were trying to
avoid anything.
22 The correct answer is ‘insects’: In Section C, the text refers to reindeer congregating on
the mountains of Oppland in summer ‘to escape biting insects’. This means that they went up to
the mountains to avoid being attacked by the insects. ‘Reindeer’ is incorrect: The text says that
the reindeer were trying to avoid the insects, not that the insects were trying to avoid the reindeer.
‘Hunters’ is incorrect: The text does not say that the reindeer were trying to avoid hunters.
23 and 24 The correct answers are B and C: In Section F, the text says, ‘But it turned out that
hunters kept regularly venturing into the mountains even when the climate turned cold’: this has
the same meaning as statement B. In Section E, the text refers to some periods which produced

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lots of artefacts, indicating that people were active at those times and then says, ‘But there were
few or no signs of activity during other periods’: this means that there were few or no artefacts
in these other periods.
A is incorrect: In Section D, the text mentions tools and horse tack (horse equipment) as
examples of artefacts other than skis which were found in high mountain passes. D is incorrect:
Radiocarbon dating is mentioned in Section E, but the text does not say anything about results
being inaccurate. E is incorrect: The text does not compare the number of artefacts found in
Oppland with those found in other sites.
25 and 26 The correct answers are A and C: In Section G, the text refers to ‘a booming demand
for hides to fight off the cold, as well as antlers to make useful things like combs. Business must
have been good for hunters.’ The phrase ‘a booming demand’ has the same meaning as an
increased demand. This section also says, ‘Although we usually think of ships when we think of
Scandinavian expansion, these recent discoveries show that plenty of goods travelled on
overland routes, like the mountain passes of Oppland.’ This means that not all Viking goods
were transported by ship: some were transported by land.
B is incorrect: The text does not say when the greatest growth in the wealth of the Vikings
occurred. D is incorrect: The text does not say where traders of this time came from. E is
incorrect: The text does not say which area the Vikings were interested in with regard to trading
links.
Reading Passage 3:

Questions 27–40
27 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: In Section A, the text refers to the Cambridge
scientists’ discovery and the publication of their findings, but does not mention other scientists’
reaction to this.
28 The correct answer is TRUE: In Section D, Dr Philip Wigge refers to the target for 2050
and then says, ‘but climate change is a major threat to achieving this.’ If there is a major threat
to achieving something, this means that it might not be achieved.
29 The correct answer is TRUE: In Section D, the text says, ‘Key crops such as wheat and
rice are sensitive to high temperatures. Thermal stress reduces crop yields by around 10% for
every one degree increase in temperature’. If crop yields are reduced, this means that the crops
suffer when temperatures increase.
30 The correct answer is NOT GIVEN: There is no mention of the possibility of developing
crops that require less water.
31 The correct answer is FALSE: In Section E, the text says, ‘During the day, sunlight
activates the molecules, slowing down growth. If a plant finds itself in shade, phytochromes are
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quickly inactivated – enabling it to grow faster to find sunlight again.’ This means that plants
grow more slowly in sunlight than in shade.
32 The correct answer is FALSE: In Section E, the text says, ‘At night, however, it’s a
different story. Instead of a rapid deactivation following sundown, the molecules gradually
change from their active to inactive state.’ This means that phytochromes change their state at
different speeds day and night: in the daytime, they become active or deactivated quickly,
depending on light levels; by night, they change slowly, depending on temperature.
33 The correct answer is H: The text quotes Wigge saying, ‘we have outstanding collaborators
nearby who work on more applied aspects of plant biology, and can help us transfer this new
knowledge into the field’. This means that the collaborators’ specialised knowledge of plant
biology can help the researchers take their findings out of the lab, so that they can be used in ‘the
field’ – a wider, real-world context.
34 The correct answer is D: The text quotes Wigge saying, ‘‘Discovering the molecules that
allow plants to sense temperature has the potential to accelerate the breeding of crops resilient
to thermal stress and climate change.’ If the researchers’ discovery can speed up the development
of crops that don’t suffer in rising temperatures, this would be a potential benefit.
35 The correct answer is G: The text quotes the well-known rhyme, ‘oak before ash we’ll have
a splash, ash before oak we’re in for a soak’, followed by Wigge’s explanation about why this
traditional saying has a scientific basis.
36 The correct answer is C: The text says, ‘Farmers and gardeners have known for hundreds
of years how responsive plants are to temperature: warm winters cause many trees and flowers
to bud early, something humans have long used to predict weather and harvest times for the
coming year.’ This sentence mentions trees and flowers budding early as an example of plant
behaviour, and says that people have long used this as an indication of future conditions: for
example, in helping farmers to plan when their crops will need to be harvested. If something has
been known for hundreds of years or if people have ‘long’ done something, this means that it
has been done ‘traditionally’.
37 The correct answer is A: The text refers to ‘The new findings, published in the journal
Science’. If researchers publish their findings in a journal, this where their research is reported.
38 The correct answer is ‘warm (winter)’: In Section G, the text says that ‘species, such as
daffodils, have considerable temperature sensitivity, and can flower months in advance during a
warm winter’.
39 The correct answer is ‘summer’: In Section G, the text says, ‘A warmer spring, and
consequently a higher likeliness of a hot summer, will result in oak leafing before ash. A cold
spring will see the opposite. As the British know only too well, a colder summer is likely to be
a rain-soaked one.’ The phrase ‘a cold spring will see the opposite’ means that a cold spring will

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result in ash trees coming into leaf before oak trees, and that there will also be a higher chance
of a cold and ‘rain-soaked’ (wet) summer.
40 The correct answer is ‘mustard plant(s)’ or ‘mustard’: In Section H, the text says, ‘The
work was done in a model system, using a mustard plant called Arabidopsis.’

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