Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

4. For the given circuit, the potential difference between

Physics C and D is:

1. Match List-I with List-II (the symbols carry their usual

meaning).
List-I List-II
Ampere-
A. ∮ E→ ⋅ dA→ =
Q
I.
ε 0
Maxwell's law
→ →
B. ∮ B ⋅ dA = 0 II. Faraday's law
−d(ϕ) Gauss's law of
C. ∮ E→ ⋅ d→l = III.
dt
electrostatics
→ ⋅ d→l = μ Gauss's law of
d (ϕE ) 1. 0
D. ∮ B 0 ic + μ 0 ε0 IV. 2. 5 V
dt
magnetism
Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. 10 V
below: 4. 15 V
1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
5. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 JT is −1

3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The
magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential
energy is:
2. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by 1. 0.064 J
the monochromatic light of wavelength λ and . If the 2. −0.064 J
λ

maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons 3. zero

in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the 4. −0.082 J
work function of the surface of the mineral is:
[h = Plank’s constant, c = speed of light] 6. The dark and colourful patterns observed on thin soap
hc films are a result of:
1.
2λ 1. interference of light
2.
hc
2. diffraction of light
λ
3. dispersion of light
2hc
3. 4. polarization of light
λ
hc
4.
3λ
7. Three charged particles having charges equal to
3. The density (d) of a nucleus varies according to the +1 C, −2 C and +3 C are placed on the x-axis at
x = 1 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm respectively. Consider a sphere
number of nucleons (A) as:
1
of radius 10 cm centred at the origin. The magnitude of
1. d ∝ A 2. d ∝ the flux of the electric field of these charges through the
A

3. d ∝ A 1/3
4. d = constant sphere is, numerically:
2
1. slightly greater than
ε0

2
2. slightly less than
ε0

2
3. exactly equal to
ε0

2
4. exactly equal to −
ε0

Page: 1
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

8. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 11. The network shown in the figure is part of a
1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be: complete circuit. If the current flowing in the circuit is
1. 1 : 3 I = (10t + 5) A, the potential difference (V − V ) at B A

2. 3 : 1 t = 0 is:

3. (3) : 1
1/3

4. 1 : 1

9. A plane mirror (M ) is placed with its surface inclined

1. 15 V 2. 5 V
at 45 with the x-axis, and passing through the origin O.
∘

A thin convex lens (L) of focal length 40 cm is placed at 3. −5 V 4. −15 V

x = −20 cm, with its principal axis coinciding with the

x-axis.
12. The magnetic moment and moment of inertia of a
magnetic needle as shown are, respectively,
−6

kg m . If it completes 10
−2 2 10 2
1.0 × 10 A m and
2
π

oscillations in 10 s, the magnitude of the magnetic field

is:

If a parallel beam is incident onto the lens from the left,

travelling parallel to the x-axis, then the emerging beam
from the mirror,
1. will converge on the y-axis at y = 20 cm
will appear to diverge from the point on the y-axis at
2.
y = 40 cm

3. will converge on the y-axis at y = −20 cm 1. 0.4 T

will appear to diverge from the point on the y-axis at 2. 4 T
4.
y = −40 cm 3. 0.4 mT
4. 4 mT

10. Match List I with List II. 13. Figure shows a square loop of side 0.5 m and
List I List II resistance 10 Ω. The magnetic field has a magnitude
B = 1.0 T. The work done in pulling the loop out of the

(A) AC generator (I)

detects the presence of current
field uniformly in 2.0 s is:
in the circuit
(B) Galvanometer (II)
converts mechanical energy
into electrical energy
(C) Transformer (III)
works on the principle of
resonance in AC circuits
(D)
Metal (IV)
changes an alternating voltage
detector for a smaller or greater value
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: 1. 3.125 × 10 J 2. 6.25 × 10 J
−3 −4

1. (A) − (II), B − (I), (C) − (IV), (D) − (III) 3. 1.25 × 10 J 4. 5.0 × 10 J

−2 −4

2. (A) − (II), B − (I), (C) − (III), (D) − (IV)

3. (A) − (III), B − (IV), (C) − (II), (D) − (I)
4. (A) − (III), B − (I), (C) − (II), (D) − (IV)

Page: 2
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

14. Which of the following situation(s), can cause the 18. Which of the following particles, is unstable?
radiation of an electromagnetic wave? 1. Proton
a varying sinusoidal current flowing through a 2. Neutron
(A) 3. Electron
capacitor
an electric dipole, whose size (and magnitude) is 4. Antineutrino
(B)
oscillating with time
19. The total energy of an electron in the orbit of an
(C) a steady current flowing through a toroid
atom is −3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are,
respectively:
Choose the correct option from the given ones:
1. 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
1. only (A)
2. −3.4 eV, − 3.4 eV
2. only (B)
3. −3.4 eV, − 6.8 eV
3. only (A) & (B)
4. (A), (B), (C) 4. 3.4 eV, − 6.8 eV

15. The given circuit is equivalent to: 20. A monochromatic source of light emits 50 W at a
wavelength of 400 nm. The number of photons emitted
per second is approximately (take hc = 1240 eV-nm):
1. 1020

2. 1025

1.
3. 1030

4. 1040

2.
21. The equivalent resistance of the circuit between O

3. and A is:

4.

16. A cell of EMF 2 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, is

connected across a resistor of resistance 3 Ω. The
voltage across the terminals of the cell will be:
1. 1.5 V
2. 2.0 V
3. 1.39 V
4. 1.79 V
12R R
1. 2.
17. A dipole, with a charge of magnitude 0.01 C and a 13 13

separation distance of 0.4 mm, is positioned within an 5R 15R

3. 4.
electric field that has a strength of 10 dyne/C. The 13 13

maximum torque exerted on the dipole in this field is:

1. 4 × 10 N-m
−9

2. 2 × 10−10
N-m

3. 4 × 10−10
N-m

4. 2 × 10 N-m
−9

Page: 3
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

22. Which of the following statements correctly 26. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is
describes the photoelectric effect? incident normally onto the double-slit in a standard
The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons Young's double-slit experiment. The 4 bright fringe is
th

1.
depends on the intensity of light. formed exactly behind the slit S . The wavelength, λ,
1

The stopping potential depends only on the work equals:

2.
function of the metal.
The photoelectric effect can be explained using the
3.
wave nature of light.
The photoelectric effect is best explained by the
4.
particle nature of light.

23. The angular momentum of an electron moving in an

orbit of a hydrogen atom is 1.5 (
h

π
). The energy in the
2 2
d d
same orbit is nearly: 1. 2.
2D 4D
1. −1.5 eV 2. −1.6 eV 2 2
d 4d
3. −1.3 eV 4. −1.4 eV 3. 4.
8D D

24. The refractive index of a material of a plano-concave 27. The self-inductance of a long solenoid of cross-
5
lens is , and the radius of curvature is 0.3 m. The focal section A, total length L and total number of turns N , is
3
(approximately):
length of the lens in air is:
μ A μ A
1. −0.45 m 1. ⋅ N
0
2. ⋅ N
0
2

2. −0.6 m L L

3. −0.75 m μ L
3
μ L
3

3. ⋅ N
0
4. ⋅ N
0
2

4. −1.0 m A A

25. For very high frequencies, the effective impedance

of the circuit (shown in the figure) will be: 28. Correctly match the two lists.
List-I List-II
→ ⋅ dA→ = 0
(a) Gauss's law (electrostatics) (P) B
(b) Ampere's circuital law → d→l = μ i
(Q) B. 0 enclosed

(R) E→ ⋅ dA→ =
q

(c) Gauss's law (magnetism) enclosed

ε0

dϕ
(d) Faraday's law of induction (S) ε = −
B

dt

1. (a) → (R), (b) → (Q), (c) → (S), (d) → (P)

1. 4 Ω 2. 6 Ω
2. (a) → (R), (b) → (Q), (c) → (P), (d) → (S)
3. 1 Ω 4. 3 Ω
3. (a) → (R), (b) → (S), (c) → (Q), (d) → (P)
4. (a) → (R), (b) → (S), (c) → (P), (d) → (Q)

Page: 4
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

29. Identical charges q each are placed at 8 corners of a 34. Given below are two statements:
cube, each with side of length L. What is the In a purely inductive circuit, the average
electrostatic potential energy of a charge −3q placed at Statement I: power consumed is very high.
the centre of the cube? In a purely inductive circuit only,
Statement II:
resonance can be achieved.
2 2
−28q √3 −48q
1. 2.
πε0 L πε0 L√3

−12q
2
−12√3q
2 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. 4. 2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
√3πε0 L πε0 L
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
30. The phase difference between the waves, arriving
from the two slits at the minimum of Young's double-slit
interference pattern, is: 35. The shape of the magnetic field lines due to an
1. integral multiple of π infinite long, straight current carrying conductor is:
1. a straight line
2. integral multiple of 2π
2. circular
3. odd integer multiple of 2π 3. elliptical
4. odd integer multiple of π 4. a plane

31. The lateral magnification of the objective lens of a

compound microscope is 100, and the angular
magnification of its eyepiece is 20. The magnifying
power of the compound microscope is:
1. 120 2. 5
3. 2000 4. 1000

32. α-particle consists of:

1. 2 protons only.
2. 2 protons and 2 neutrons only.
3. 2 electrons, 2 protons, and 2 neutrons.
4. 2 electrons and 4 protons only.

33. In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance

between terminal A and terminal B is:

1. 1 μF
2. 0.5 μF
3. 4 μF
4. 2 μF

Page: 5
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

36. An infinite plane charged sheet A (uniform charge 37. A dielectric slab with a dielectric constant K has the
density-σ ) lies at distance x from the centre (O) of a same cross-sectional area as the plates of a parallel plate
1

spherical surface of radius R. The surface is also capacitor and a thickness of 3 d, where d is the
uniformly charged with a charge density-σ (x < R). 2
4

separation between the plates. What will be the

capacitance of the capacitor when the slab is inserted
between the plates? (where C ​ is the capacitance of the0

capacitor with air as the medium between the plates)

4KC0 3KC0
1. 2.
3 + K 3 + K

3 + K K
3. 4.
4KC0 4 + K

38. The magnetic field at the centre of a semicircular arc

of radius R, carrying current i is:
μ0 i
1.
2πR
The surface area (S) of a sphere of radius R, intercepted μ0 i

between two parallel planes separated by a distance d, is 2. 4πR

given by, S = (2πR)d μ0 i
3.
4R
μ0 i
4.
2R

39. A steel bar magnet has a magnetic moment of

2.5 A-m and a mass of 6.6 × 10 kg. If the density of
2 −2

the material is 6.6 × 10 kg-m , the intensity of 3 −3

magnetisation of the magnet is:

1. 2.5 × 10 A-m 5 −1

2. 2.5 × 10 A-m −5 −1

The force, exerted on the plane sheet (A) by the electric 3. 1.25 × 10 A-m
5 −1

field of the spherical charge (σ ), is 4. 1.25 × 10 A-m −5 −1

2
σ σ 4πR σ σ 4πRx
1. 1 2
2.
1 2
40. A closely packed coil having 1000 turns has an
2ε0 2ε0 average radius of 62.8 cm. If the current carried by the
2 2 2 2 2 wire of the coil is 1 A, the value of the magnetic field
σ σ 4πx σ σ 4π R (R − x )
3. 1 2
4. 1 2
produced at the centre of the coil will be nearly:
2ε0 4πε0 x
2
(permeability of free space = 4π × 10 H/m) −7

1. 10 T −1
2. 10 T −2

3. 10 T 2
4. 10 T −3

Page: 6
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

41. Two point charges −q and +q are placed at a 44. Given below are two statements:
distance of L, as shown in the figure. When emf is induced in a circuit due to
a changing magnetic field, it is essential
that the field is produced by another
Assertion (A):
circuit - i.e. the field produced by the
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance current in the same circuit cannot induce
R (R ≫ L) varies as:
an emf in itself.
1 1
Faraday's Law of electromagnetic
1. 2. induction requires that the rate of
6 2 Reason (R):
R R change of magnetic flux through the
3.
1
4.
1
circuit equals the emf.
3 4
R R

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
42. A capacitor is charged up to a voltage V . Thereafter,
0
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
50% of the charge is taken from the positive plate and
2.
explanation of (A).
placed on the negative plate, slowly. If the initial energy
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
stored in the capacitor was E , the magnitude of work
0

done during the removal of 50% of the charge, is: 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
E0
1.
2
E0
45. The effective resistance in the following circuit
2. across terminal A and B is equal to:
4
3E0
3.
4
3E0
4.
8

43. If a semiconductor photodiode can detect a photon

with a maximum wavelength of 400 nm, then the energy 1. 5 Ω 2. 10 Ω
of its band gap is: 3. 20 Ω 4. 40 Ω
(take Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10 J-s and speed
−34

of light c = 3 × 10 m/s)
8

1. 3.1 eV
2. 1.1 eV Chemistry
3. 2.0 eV 46. 0.2 M aqueous solution of glucose has osmotic
4. 1.5 eV pressure 4.9 atm at 300 k. What is the concentration of
glucose if it has osmotic pressure 1.5 atm at the same
temperature?
1. 0.09 M
2. 0.04 M
3. 0.01 M
4. 0.06 M

Page: 7
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

47. Which product is generated when cyclohexanone 51. The feasible reaction among the following is:
undergoes aldol condensation and is subsequently
heated? 1.

1. 2.
2.

3. 4.
3.

48. Identify the structural features common to 4.

[Mn₂(CO)₁₀] and [Co₂(CO)₈]:
A. Presence of a metal-metal bond
B. Presence of terminal carbonyl groups
C. Presence of bridging carbonyl groups 52. Which of the following compounds can form a stable
D. Metals in the zero oxidation state Grignard reagent?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1. Only A, B and C 2. Only B, C and D
3. Only A, C and D 4. Only A, B and D
a. b.

49. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride,

the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas
using a current of 3 amperes is:
1. 55 minutes
2. 110 minutes
3. 220 minutes
4. 330 minutes
c. d.
50. The water-soluble vitamin is:
1. A
2. C
3. D 1. a, b, d
4. E 2. b, c, a
3. b, d, c
4. None of the above

53. A non-reducing sugar among the following is:

1. Lactose
2. Glucose
3. Sucrose
4. Maltose

Page: 8
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

54. When one mole ethyl methyl ketone is oxidised with 58. Which of the following reagents can be used to
acidic K2Cr2O7 then the product formed is: oxidize primary alcohols to aldehydes?
1. Two moles of CH3COOH I. CrO in anhydrous medium
3

II. KMnO in acidic medium

2. One mole of C2H5COOH and one mole of HCOOH 4

III. Pyridinium chlorochromate

3. One mole of C2H5COOH and one mole of CO2 IV. Heat in the presence of Cu at 573K
4. One mole of CH3COOH and 2 mole of HCOOH Choose the correct option:
1. (I, II, III)
55. Hydrolysis 2. (II, III, IV)
A
( C4 H8 Cl2 )
−− −−−
373
→
K
B
( C4 H 8 O )
3. (I, III, IV)
B reacts with hydroxylamine but does not give Tollen's 4. (I, II, IV)
test. A and B are respectively:
1. 1,1-Dichlorobutane and 2-Butanone 59. Which of the following compounds will give a
2. 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butanal racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH −

3. 1,1-Dichlorobutane and Butanal ion?

4. 2,2-Dichlorobutane and 2-butanone

56. The correct statement among the following about the (i)
structural isomers of C5H11Br is:
It has a total of 8 structural isomers, 4 are primary
1. alkyl bromide isomers and 2 are tertiary alkyl
bromide isomers.
It has a total of 7 structural isomers, 4 are (ii)
2. primary alkyl bromide isomers and 2 are
tertiary alkyl bromide isomers.
It has a total of 8 structural isomers, 4 are
3. primary alkyl bromide isomers and 3 are secondary
alkyl bromide isomers.
It has a total of 7 structural isomers, 3 are secondary (iii)
4. alkyl bromide isomers and 1 is a tertiary alkyl
bromide isomer.
1. (i)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
57. Consider the following graph: 3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (i) and (iii)

60. The sum of coordination number and oxidation

number of the metal M in the complex M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl
(where, en is ethylenediamine) is :
1. 9
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8

The point that represents the most probable kinetic

energy is:
1. C 2. A
3. B 4. None of the above

Page: 9
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

61. The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated 65. Consider the following acid-catalyzed hydration
solution containing 3.56 X 10-2 g of ethane is 3 bar. If reaction:
the solution contains 9.00 X 10-2 g of ethane, then what
will be the partial pressure of the gas?
1. 0.76 bar 2. 0.16 bar
3. 7.82 bar 4. 3.12 bar Which of the following ion(s) is/are intermediates in the
accepted mechanism for this process?

62. A pair of ions that have the same electronic

configuration among their constituent species is:
1. Sr , Cr
3+ 3+

2. F e , M n
3+ 2+

3. F e , Co
3+ 3+

1. I, II and III
4. Cr , F e
3+ 3+
2. I and II
3. Only IV
63. The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature 4. None of the above.
changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of
activation. 66. Consider the following compounds:
Given R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1, log 4 = 0.6021 A. Cl CHCOOH
2

1. 380.4 kJ/mol 2. 3.80 kJ/mol B. ClCH COOH 2

3. 3804 kJ/mol 4. 38.04 kJ/mol C. ClCH CH COOH 2 2

D. C H CH COOH
6 5 2

64. The increasing order of pKa values of the compound (A

Assertion Solubility of a gas in water decreases with
to D) follows the order:
(A): an increase in temperature.
Dissolution of a gas in water is an 1. D < C < B < A 2. B < C < D < A
Reason (R):
exothermic process.
3. C < B < D < A 4. A < B < C < D
In light of the above statements choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
67. The pair of compounds that can exist together is:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 1. FeCl3, SnCl2
explanation of (A).
2. HgCl2, SnCl2
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. 3. FeCl2, SnCl2
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 4. FeCl3, Kl
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Page: 10
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

68. The stepwise formation of [Cu(NH ) ]2+ is given 71. Select the correct statement by considering the
3 4
following reaction:
below
K1
2+ 2+
Cu + NH3 ⇄ [Cu (NH3 )]

K2
2+ 2+
[Cu (NH3 )] + NH3 ⇌ [Cu (NH3 ) ]
3

2+
K3
2+
1. Hydroxide ion is a base.
[Cu (NH3 ) ]
2
+ NH3 ⇌ [Cu (NH3 ) ]
3 2. Hydroxide ion is a nucleophile.
2+
K4
2+
3. It is a nucleophilic addition reaction.
[Cu (NH3 ) ]
3
+ NH 3 ⇌[Cu (NH3 ) ]
4 4. It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4
4 3
are 10 , 1.58 × 10 , 5 × 10 and 10 respectively. The 72. Given below are half-cell reactions:
2 2

− + 2+
−
overall equilibrium constants for the dissociation of MnO + 8H + 5e → Mn + 4H O, 4 2
∘ −

[Cu (NH ) ]
2+ is x × 10–12. The value of x is E /MnO
Mn
= −1.510 V
2+ 4
3 4
1 +
________. O + 2H
2
+ 2e2 → H O,
−
2

(Rounded off to the nearest integer) E

∘
= +1.223 V
O2 /H2 O

1. 2 2. 4 Will the permanganate ion, MnO , liberate O from −

2
4

3. 3 4. 1 water in the presence of an acid?

1. No, because E = −2.733 V
∘

cell

2. Yes, because E = +0.287 V

∘
cell
69. Match the statement given in Column I with the 3. No, because E = −0.287 V
∘
cell
corresponding element given in Column II and mark the 4. Yes, because E = +2.733 V
∘

appropriate choice. cell

Column I Column II 73. The reaction of propanamide with ethanolic sodium

An element that can show +8 hydroxide and bromine will give:
(A) (i) Ce
oxidation state
An element with +7 as the most 1. Ethylamine 2. Methylamine
(B) (ii) Pm
stable oxidation state in its oxides 3. Propylamine 4. Aniline
(C) Radioactive lanthanoid (iii) Os
Lanthanoid which shows +4
(D) (iv) Mn 74. Given the following reaction:
oxidation state
1. (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
2. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
3. (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
4. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
The compound A in the above reaction is:
′ ′

70. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04

mol l–1 s–1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l–1 s–1 at
20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life 1. 2.
period of the reaction is:
1. 44.1 s
2. 54.1 s
3. 24.1 s
4. 34.1 s 3. 4.

Page: 11
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

75. Identify Z in the following reaction: 80. The conductivity of 0.0024 mol/L solution of
CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 −−−−−−−−−−→ Z
B 2 H6
methanoic acid is 110 × 10 S cm . The degree of−6 −1

H2 O, H2 O2 , OH
− dissociation of a weak acid is:
CH3 CH2 C H CH3
{Given:
o 2 −1 o 2 −1
1. CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH 2. | Λ
H
+
= 350Scm mol ;Λ
H COO
−
= 55Scm mol }

OH 1. 0.981 2. 0.792
3. CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH O 4. CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH3 3. 0.113 4. 0.501

76. What is the freezing point of an aqueous solution 81. Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound,
that boils at 101°C? which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with
(Given : K = 1.86 C/m and K = 0.51 C/m)
f
∘
b sodium hydroxide in the presence of calcium oxide is:
∘

1. 3.647 C ∘
2. −3.647 C ∘
1. 18
3. −0.364 C 4. −5.647 C
∘ ∘ 2. 16
3. 32
4. 30
77. Mark the correct reaction among the following to
convert acetamide to methenamine: 82.
1. Hoffmann bromamide reaction Order is applicable only for elementary
2. Stephens reaction reactions whereas molecularity is
Statement I:
3. Gabriels phthalimide synthesis applicable for both elementary as well as
4. Carbylamine reaction complex reactions.
Order of a reaction is an experimental
Statement II:
78. If one coulomb of electric charge is passed through a quantity.
solution of silver nitrate (AgNO ) during electrolysis,
3

what is the mass of silver (in milligrams) deposited at In the light of the above statements, identify the correct
the electrode? option:
(Given: Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol) 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
1. 1.12 mg 2. 3.26 mg 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. 2.54 mg 4. 4.02 mg 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

79. Match the following ions from List-I with their

corresponding electron configuration from List-II and
select the correct option.
List-I (Ion) List-II (electron configuration)
a. Mn 2+
(i) 3d 4s
3 1

b. V +
(ii) 3d 4s
5 0

c. Cr +
(iii) 3d 4s
6 0

d. Fe 2+

1. a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(iii)

2. a→(iv), b→(ii), c→(ii), d→(i)
3. a→(ii), b→(i), c→(ii), d→(iii)
4. a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iii), d→(iii)

Page: 12
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

83. 'A' and 'B' in the following reactions are: 86. Choose the correct statement among the following.
Monosaccharides are held together by peptide
1.
linkages to form disaccharides or polysaccharides.
Disaccharides are held together by peptide linkages
2.
to form monosaccharide or polysaccharides.
Monosaccharides are held together by phosphodiester
3.
A B A B linkages to form disaccharides or polysaccharides.
Monosaccharides are held together by glycosidic
4.
linkages to form disaccharides or polysaccharides.

1. 2.
87. Arrange the following compounds in increasing
order of their boiling points:

I. II.
3. 4.

84. Zwitter ion is formed when aniline is treated with: III. IV.
1. Acetic anhydride in pyridine.
A mixture of nitric acid and sulphuric acid at low
2.
temperatures.
3. Conc. sulphuric acid followed by heating at 200°C.
4. Conc. nitric acid at high temperature. 1. II<III<IV<I 2. I<IV<III<II
3. I<IV<II<III 4. III<I<II<IV

85. Match the metals Column-I with the coordination

compound(s)/enzyme(s) Column-II and mark the 88.
correct option: A reaction of 2-Bromo-2-methyl
Column- Column-II Assertion (A): propane with sodium methoxide gives
I (Coordination 2-Methylpropene.
(Metal) compound/enzyme) Reason (R): Alkoxides are nucleophiles.
(A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst Choose the correct answer from the options given
(B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll below:
(C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
12

(D) M g (iv) Carbonic anhydrase explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
1. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii) explanation of (A).
2. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv) 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii) 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

Page: 13
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

89. When glucose is reduced with red phosphorous and 94. Which of the following is not inherited as an
HI, then n-hexane is formed. This reaction shows that autosomal recessive mendelian disorder?
glucose has: 1. Colour blindness
1. A ring structure 2. Sickle cell anaemia
2. A linear chain of six carbon atoms 3. Phenylketonuria
3. Five -OH groups 4. Cystic fibrosis
4. −CH O group
95. Which of the following animals called evolved into
90. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the first amphibians that lived on both land and water?
the genetic information flows from: 1. Lobe fish
1. amino acid - proteins - DNA [Link]
2. DNA - carbohydrates - proteins 3. Seymouria
3. DNA - RNA - proteins 4. Megalodon
4. DNA - RNA - Carbohydrates
96. The lower most vertical stratum of a forest is
occupied by:
Biology 1. Trees
91. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ 2. Tree dwellers
conservation of biodiversity? 3. Shrubs
1. Sacred Grove 4. Herbs and grasses.
2. Biosphere Reserve
3. Wildlife Sanctuary 97. To get pollinated by a bee, the Mediterranean
4. Botanical Garden Orchid, Ophrys, employs:
1. Sexual deceit
92. Which of the following correctly identifies the 2. Pseudo-copulation
components of a transcription unit in a prokaryotic 3. Reward in the form of nectar
genome? 4. Place for laying eggs
1. Promoter, RNA polymerase, and enhancer.
98. All the following are stop codons except:
2. Promoter, structural gene, and terminator.
1. UAA 2. UGA
3. Operator, structural gene, and enhancer.
3. UAG 4. UAC
4. Promoter, structural gene, and spliceosome.

99. Which of the following cells will have two sets of

93. These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity
chromosomes?
loss:
a. Primary spermatocyte
A: Over exploitation
b. Spermatogonia
B: Co-extinction
c. First polar body
C: Mutation
d. Second polar body
D: Habitat loss and fragmentation
1. Only a and b
E: Migration
2. Only c and d
Choose the correct option:
3. Only a and c
1. A, B, C and D only
4. Only b and d
2. A, B and E only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, C and D only

Page: 14
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

100. In primary treatment of sewage, what is the primary 105. There are 250 snails in a pond and within a year
purpose of sedimentation? their number increases to 2500 by reproduction. What
1. To remove floating debris and small grit. should be their birth rate (in per snail per year)?
2. To oxidize organic matter in the effluent. 1. 10
2. 9
3. To allow bacterial flocs to form.
3. 25
To reduce the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of 4. 15
4.
the effluent.
106. The requirement of primers in a polymerase chain
reaction (PCR) is because they:
101. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding 1. Provide the starting point for DNA synthesis.
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
2. Help in cutting the DNA into smaller fragments.
sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
1. AGGUAUCGCAU 2. UGGTUTCGCAT 3. Join the DNA fragments after amplification.
3. ACCUAUGCGAU 4. UCCAUAGCGUA 4. Act as selectable markers.

102. Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections in humans: 107. Which of the following represents the female
gametophyte?
1. are acute fatal infections
1. Ovule
2. are easily cured if detected early 2. Embryo sac
3. can be transmitted by a mosquito vector 3. Nucellus
can be transmitted through sexual contact or infected 4. Endosperm
4.
blood
108. If two organisms with genotype AaBb [assume
independent assortment and complete dominance] are
103. All the following statements regarding the primary crossed, what percent of offspring are expected to be
treatment of sewage water in a STP are true except: homozygous dominant for A gene?
Initially, floating debris is removed by sequential 1. 56.25% 2. 25%
1.
filtration. 3. 18.75% 4. 12.5%
Then the grit (soil and small pebbles) are removed by
2.
sedimentation.
All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the 109. If two persons with' AB' blood group marry and
3. have the sufficiently large number of children, these
supernatant forms the effluent.
The effluent from the primary settling tank is children could be classified as 'A' blood group: 'AB'
4. blood group: 'B' blood group in 1: 2: 1 ratio. The modern
discharged in rivers.
technique of protein electrophoresis reveals the presence
of both' A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group
individuals. This is an example of:
104. About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared
1. Incomplete dominance
from the earth. The reason for their sudden
2. Partial dominance
disappearance may be:
3. Complete dominance
(a) Climatic changes killed them. 4. Codominance
(b) Most of them evolved into birds.

1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. The truth may live in between (a) and (b).
4. Neither (a) nor (b).

Page: 15
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

110. Which of the following statements about restriction 115. ELISA works on the principle of:
enzymes is incorrect?
Restriction enzymes are also called molecular 1. antigen-antibody interaction
1. scissors because they cleave DNA at specific 2. radioactive probe tagging
sequences. 3. culture of microbe in an artificial medium
They are naturally found in eukaryotic cells to protect 4. histopathology
2.
against viral DNA.
EcoRI is a restriction enzyme that recognizes the
3.
sequence GAATTC. 116. Match List-I with List- II
Restriction enzymes often create sticky ends, List-I List-II
4.
facilitating ligation. (a) In lac operon i gene codes for (i) transacetylase
(b) In lac operon z gene codes for (ii) permease
111. When compared to DNA, in RNA: (c) In lac operon y gene codes for (iii) β−galactosidase
every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH (d) In lac operon a gene codes for (iv) Repressor
I: Choose the correct answer from the options given
group present at 3'-position in the ribose.
II: 5-methyl uracil is found instead of thymine. below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Only I is correct 1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
2. Only II is correct 2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. Both I and II are correct 3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
4. Both I and II are incorrect 4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
112. In RNAi, silencing of a gene is achieved by:
1. Prevention of the transcription 117. In a pond, there were 20 lotus plants last year. If
2. Prevention of the translation of the transcript through reproduction 4 new lotus plants are added, the
3. Post translational cleaving of protein number of offspring per lotus per year would be:
4. Methylation of DNA 1. 0.2 2. 0.4
3. 2.0 4. 4.0

113. Which of the following is correct regarding mode

of transmission for diseases? 118. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child
1. Diseases cannot be transmitted through water. through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this
Airborne transmission is exclusive to non-infectious technique is?
2. 1. Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
diseases.
Vector-borne transmission involves the spread of 2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
3. 3. Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
diseases by organisms such as mosquitoes and ticks.
4. Germ Cell Internal Transfer
Direct contact is not a significant mode of
4.
transmission for infectious diseases.
119. Which of the following is not an example of
mutualism?
1. Lichens
114. Which of the following microbes does not 2. Mycorrhizae
contribute to the fermentation of traditional food or 3. An orchid on a branch of mango plant
drink? 4. The wasp pollinating fig inflorescence
1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 2. Lactobacillus species
3. penicillium roqueforti 4. Penicillium notatum

Page: 16
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

120. A high value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen 126. Which of the following, if present in a vector, helps
Demand) indicates that: in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and
1. water is pure selectively permitting the growth of the transformants?
2. water is highly polluted 1. ROP
2. Selectable marker
3. water is less polluted
3. MCS
consumption of organic matter in the water is higher 4. Enhancers and repressors
4.
by the microbes
127. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
121. Biodiversity hotspots are not characterised by: Agar gel electrophoresis is employed to
1. Having a large number of species Assertion (A): check the progression of a restriction
2. Abundance of endemic species enzyme digestion.
3. Being mostly located in the tropics Restriction enzyme digestion is
4. Being mostly located in the polar regions performed by incubating purified DNA
Reason (R): molecules with the restriction enzymes,
at the optimal conditions for that
122. Which of the following features characterizes specific enzyme.
humus? In the light of the above statements, choose the most
1. Easily broken down by microbes appropriate answer from the options given below :
2. Rapid decomposition 1. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. Acts as a reservoir of nutrients Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4. Forms very rapidly 2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
123. The committee, established to oversee the
4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
development, testing, and commercial release of
genetically modified organisms, is:
1. Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee (RDAC)
128. Primary productivity in most ecosystems is directly
2. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) the result of:
Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation 1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration
3.
(RCGM)
3. Herbivory 4. Carnivory
4. Institutional Biosafety Committee (IBSC)

129. Which of the following hormones is NOT directly

124. Which of the following sexually transmitted involved in maintaining pregnancy?
infections (STIs) can be transmitted through non-sexual 1. Estrogen
means such as sharing injection needles or transfusion of
infected blood? 2. Progesterone
1. Gonorrhoea and syphilis 3. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
2. Genital herpes and chlamydiasis 4. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
3. HIV and hepatitis-B
4. Trichomoniasis and genital warts

125. RNA interference involves silencing of a specific

mRNA by a complementary:
1. ssRNA 2. dsRNA
3. ssDNA 4. dsDNA

Page: 17
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

130. The process of leaching in decomposition primarily 135. ‘Restriction’ in restriction enzyme refers to
involves: cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the
1.
Transformation of detritus into humus by microbial enzyme
1.
action. 2. cutting of DNA at specific position only
Direct nutrient release from detritus to plant roots prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by
2. 3.
through bacterial activity. the host bacteria
Release of inorganic nutrients through water flow, 4. All of the above
3.
causing them to precipitate as unavailable salts.
Breakdown of large detritus particles into smaller
4.
fragments by detritivores. 136. Which of the following is not a natural/traditional
contraceptive method?
1. Periodic abstinence 2. Lactational amenorrhea
131. In the Indian context, Lantana camara and 3. Vaults 4. Coitus interruptus
Eichhornia crassipes are:
1. Critical link species
2. Keystone species 137. The number of correct statements from the given
3. Cash crops statements is:
4. Invasive species
Ramapithecus was more man-like, while
I:
Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
132. Activated sludge produced in waste water treatment
can be treated by: Homo habilis had a brain capacity between 650-
II:
1. anaerobic digesters 2. floc 800cc.
3. chemicals 4. oxidation pond III: Homo erectus probably did not eat meat.
Agriculture came around 10,000 years ago, and
IV:
human settlements started.
133. Which of the following occurs due to the presence 1. 1
of autosome linked dominant trait? 2. 2
1. Thalessemia 2. Sickle cell anaemia 3. 3
4. 4
3. Myotonic dystrophy 4. Haemophilia
138. Match each disease in Column-I with its primary
symptom in Column-II:
134. Which of the following correctly differentiates
Column-I Column-II
genetic diversity from species diversity?
A. Pneumonia P. Stools with blood clots
Genetic diversity measures the number of different
1. species in a region, while species diversity measures B. Typhoid Q. Sustained high fever
the genetic variation within a species. C. Amoebiasis R. Dry, scaly skin lesions
Genetic diversity is determined by the number of D. Ringworm S. Fluid-filled alveoli
2. organisms in an ecosystem, whereas species diversity
depends on the total genetic content of a species. Options A B C D
Genetic diversity and species diversity both refer to 1. R S Q P
3. the same concept and are interchangeable terms in 2. Q P S R
biodiversity studies.
3. S Q P R
Genetic diversity refers to variation within a species
4. P S R Q
4. at the genetic level, whereas species diversity refers
to the variety of species present in a given ecosystem

Page: 18
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

139. The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from: 146. The frequency of recombination between two genes
1. Maternal pituitary is:
2. Maternal hypothalamus Inversely proportional to the distance between them
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta 1.
on the chromosome
4. Fetal pituitary Directly proportional to the distance between them on
2.
the chromosome
140. What is the dihybrid test cross-ratio?
3. Independent of their location on the chromosome
1. 1 : 1 2. 3 : 1
4. Always equal to 50%
3. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 4. 1 : 1 : 1: 1

147. It is usually possible to make bacterial cells more

141. What is brood parasitism? permeable to take up plasmid by treatment with:
1. A parasite feeds on the blood of its host for survival. 1. alkali
A bird lays its eggs in the nest of another bird, relying 2. ultrasound
2.
on the host to incubate and raise its young. 3. divalent calcium ions
A bird removes the host’s eggs and replaces them 4. trivalent phosphate ions
3.
with its own eggs for incubation.
A predator bird steals eggs from the nest of another148. The seminiferous tubules open into which of the
4. following structures before entering the epididymis?
bird for consumption.
1. Vas deferens
2. Ejaculatory duct
142. Which Assisted Reproductive Technology involves 3. Rete testis
the direct injecting of a sperm into ovum to overcome 4. Seminal vesicle
infertility?
149. The genetic code is:
1. GIFT 2. ZIFT
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in a
3. ICSI 4. ET 1.
contiguous fashion
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in an
2.
overlapping fashion
143. Maximum global diversity amongst the following is
exhibited by: doublet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in a
3.
contiguous fashion
1. Mollusks 2. Echinoderms
triplet, ambiguous, totally universal and read in a
3. Annelids 4. Crustaceans 4.
contiguous fashion

144. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:

1. dsRNA 2. ssDNA
3. ssRNA 4. dsDNA

145. Select the genotype amongst the given genotypes

which will result in lightest skin colour in humans:
1. AAbbCC 2. AABBCc
3. aaBBCC 4. AaBbCc

Page: 19
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

150. Given below are two statements: 153. Which of the following statements about Saheli, the
Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion oral contraceptive pill, is true?
Principle' states that two closely related It is a once-a-week pill containing high doses of
1.
species competing for the same resources estrogen.
Statement I:
cannot co-exist indefinitely and It is a daily pill that works by suppressing ovulation
competitively inferior one will be 2.
through the administration of progesterone only.
eliminated eventually. It is a non-steroidal pill, taken once a week, known
In general, carnivores are more adversely 3.
Statement II: for its fewer side and high contraceptive value.
affected by competition than herbivores. It functions primarily by altering the cervical mucus,
4.
making it impermeable to sperm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 154. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. equilibrium if:
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. individuals mate selectively
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 2. there are no mutations
3. there is no migration
151. Consider the given two statements: 4. the population is large
Smoking is associated with increased
Assertion (A): incidence of cancers of lung, urinary 155. The common restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes
bladder and throat. the palindromic sequence:
Nicotine, present in tobacco, stimulates 1. GAATTC
Reason (R): adrenal gland to release adrenaline and 2. CCCGGG
nor-adrenaline into blood circulation 3. AAGCTT
4. TGGCCA
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1. 156. Consider the given two statements:
(A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False Periodic abstinence, in which the couples
3. (A) is False; (R) is True avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10
Assertion(A):
to 17 of the menstrual cycle, is regarded
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly as a natural method of contraception.
4.
explain (A).
Natural methods work on the principle of
Reason(R): avoiding chances of ovum and sperms
meeting.
152. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
urinary system in the human male is:
1. Urethra 1. (A) is true; (R) is false
2. Ureter Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains
2.
3. Vas deferens (A)
4. Vasa efferentia 3. (A) is false; (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly
4.
explain (A)

157. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by

the three regions in the DNA which include all the
following except:
1. A promoter
2. An operator
3. Structural gene
4. A terminator

Page: 20
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

158. Which of the following is not true regarding 164. An organism used as a bio-fertilizer for raising
spleen? soybean crop is:
1. It is a primary lymphoid organ. 1. Azospirillum 2. Rhizobium
2. It has a large reservoir of erythrocytes. 3. Nostoc 4. Azotobacter
3. It mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
It is a large bean shaped organ in the left upper
4. 165. Match List - I with List - II
quadrant of the abdomen.
List-I List-II
Separation of DNA
(A) Gene therapy (I)
159. Typically, the Level 2 in a food chain in an fragments
ecosystem will be occupied by: (B) RNA interference (II) Diagnostic test for AIDS
1. Primary producer (C) ELISA (III) Cellular defense
2. Herbivore
Gel Allows correction of a gene
3. Carnivore (D) (IV)
Electrophoresis defect
4. Apex predator

160. If both male and female flowers are present on the Choose the correct answer from the options given
same plant such as castor and maize: below:
I: the plants are called as monoecious Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
II: it prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy 1. IV I II III
2. IV II III I
1. Only I is correct 3. IV III II I
2. Only II is correct 4. IV III I II
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
166. Consider the given two statements:
161. During gametogenesis, which of the following are Forelimbs in mammals have varying
formed after Meiosis II? Assertion (A):
functions but are all homologous.
I: Spermatids The forelimbs of vertebrates are
II: Ovum Reason (R):
homologous.
III: First polar body
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
3. Only II and III explanation of (A).
4. I, II and III Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
162. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
a fruit without fertilisation is called: 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
1. Parthenocarpy 2. Apomixis
3. Asexual reproduction 4. Sexual reproduction
167. Malignant malaria is caused by:
1. Plasmodium vivax
163. The trophic level of an organism is the number of 2. Plasmodium ovale
steps it is from the start of the food chain. The Level 2 3. Plasmodium falciparum
typically will be occupied by: 4. Plasmodium malariae
1. Primary producer 2. Herbivore
3. Carnivore 4. Apex predator

Page: 21
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

168. If you want to generate virus-free plant through 174. Which of the following statements accurately
micropropagation [plant tissue culture], the explant you reflects a concept of Darwinism?
should use is: Variation among individuals of a species is due to use
1. Meristem 1.
and disuse of organs.
2. Embryo Inheritance of acquired characteristics is the basis of
3. Anther 2.
evolution.
4. Ovule
Natural selection is the mechanism by which the
3. fittest individuals survive and reproduce, passing on
169. Which of the following animals pollinate a fig tree?
their traits to the next generation.
1. Honeybee
2. Wasp All species on Earth are unchanging and have
4.
3. Bird remained so since their creation.
4. Moth

170. A dramatic increase in the secretion of which of the 175. In an ecosystem, a sparrow can function at multiple
following hormones is most essential for the process of trophic levels. As a primary consumer, it eats seeds,
ovulation? while as a secondary consumer, it eats:
1. Progesterone 1. Fruits
2. FSH 2. Peas
3. Oxytocin 3. Insects and worms
4. LH 4. Tree bark

171. Which of the following yields citric acid? 176. Which of the following correctly describes the role
1. Penicillium citricum 2. Aspergillus niger of the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) in flowering
plants?
3. Saccharomyces 4. Azospirilium
1. It fuses with the zygote to form the embryo.
2. It provides genetic material for embryo formation.
172. Which technique involves removing anthers from a 3. It gives rise to the triploid endosperm that nourishes
flower bud before they dehisce to prevent unwanted the developing embryo.
pollination in a controlled breeding experiment? It protects the embryo from desiccation during seed
4.
1. Bagging development.
2. Cross-pollination
3. Emasculation
4. Cleistogamy 177. Cirrhosis is a chronic liver condition related to
excessive consumption of:
173. According to the species-area relationship, what 1. Barbiturates
happens to species richness as the area increases? 2. Tobacco
1. It decreases exponentially. 3. Alcohol
2. It increases exponentially. 4. Cannabinoids
3. It increases at a decreasing rate.
4. It remains constant.

Page: 22
 Custom Practice Test - 14-Nov Contact Number: 8527521718

178. Consider the given two statements:

Natural selection is the process by which
organisms with favorable traits survive
Fill OMR Sheet*
Statement I:
and reproduce more successfully in a
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
given environment.
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
Natural selection leads to the formation
Statement II: of entirely new genes within a population
to adapt to environmental changes.

Options:
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct. CLICK HERE to get
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct. FREE ACCESS for 2
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.
days of ANY NEETprep
179. A significant reduction in the count of which of the
course
following cells by HIV leads to typical signs and
symptoms of AIDS?
1. B lymphocytes. 2. T cytotoxic cells
3. T helper cells 4. Natural Killer cells

180. Consider the given two statements:

Each cell of the sporogenous tissue in a
Assertion(A): microsporangium is a potential pollen or
microspore mother cell.
Each cell of the sporogenous tissue in a
Reason(R): microsporangium is capable of giving
rise to a microspore tetrad.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

Page: 23