Final Part 2, Pediatrics
MCQ Time Allowed: 1 Hr 30 Min
1. Followings are true regarding the pattern of growth
a. rate of growth is maximum in utero
b. growth of nervous system is most rapid between 6 to 10 years
c. tonsils of a child of 10 years old is smaller than that of an adult
d. rapid genital growth is seen at the onset of puberty
e. upper segment and lower segment ratio is highest in the newborn period
2. Following factors influence the physical growth and development of children
a. height of both parents
b. maternal smoking during pregnancy
c. birth asphyxia
d. emotional deprivation
e. bronchial Asthma
3. Following milestones are present in a 9 months old child:
a. stands without support
b. says "mama – baba"
c. waves bye-bye
d. points with index finger
e. drinks from cup
4. Causes of short stature include
a. hypothyroidism
b. Down syndrome
c. congenital heart disease
d. rickets
e. marasmus
5. The causes of neonatal jaundice in first 24 hours are
a. G-6PD deficiency
b. breast milk jaundice
c. ABO incompatibility
d. hypothyroidism
e. congenital infection
6. Initial steps for simple resuscitation include
a. opening the airway
b. endotracheal intubation
c. epinephrine
d. initiation of breathing
e. preventing heat loss
7. Asymmetrical Moro’s reflex can be seen in:
a. post-asphyxial encephalopathy
b. hypoglycaemia
c. Erb’s palsy
d. fractured humerus
e. hemiplegia
8. Poor prognostic factors for neonatal tetanus are
a. short incubation period (less than 7 days)
b. hypothermia
c. generalized tonic-clonic seizures
d. period of onset shorter than 48 hours
e. jaundice
9. Cardinal criteria for diagnosis of kwashiorkor include
a. generalized pitting oedema
b. psychological changes
c. liver enlargement
d. crazy pavement dermatosis
e. growth retardation
10. Early signs of rickets include
a. knock knee
b. abdominal distension (Pot belly)
c. Harrison's groove
d. generalized muscular hypotonia
e. rachitic rosary
11. Clinical features of infantile beriberi included
a. age under 1 month
b. oliguria
c. aphonia
d. convulsions
e. cyanosis
12. Value of weight chart
a. early detection of malnutrition
b. record the immunization status
c. identification of high risk neonates
d. early detection of chronic illness
e. record the mothers' weight
13. The following conditions are inherited as autosomal recessive
a. thalassaemia
b. G-6PD deficiency
c. vitamin D resistant rickets
d. cystic fibrosis
e. Marfan's síndrome
14. Antenatal diagnosis of a genetic disorder can be obtained by
a. chorionic villous sampling
b. amniocentesis
c. Gutherie test
d. fetal blood sampling
e. achondroplasia
15. Health issues during adolescence
a. obesity
b. hirsutism
c. gynaecomastia
d. anxiety disorders
e. juvenile delinquency
16. Leading causes of under 5 mortality in Myanmar are
a. ARI
b. Diarrhoea
c. Primary complex
d. Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever
e. Malnutrition
17. Advantages of breastfeeding are:
a. convenience for mother
b. contraception (lactation amenorrhoea)
c. economical
d. protection against ARI
e. increased risk of eczema
18. Scabies:
a. does not involve wrist and of elbow
b. affect axillary folds
c. is characterized by presence of burrows
d. organism can be demonstrated by skin scraping
e. can be treated with 10% benzoate
19. Important measures in prevention of diarrhea includes:
a. exclusive breastfeeding
b. growth monitoring
c. safe water supply
d. birth spacing
e. sanitary latrines
20. Complications of corticosteroid therapy include
a. moon face
b. tall stature
c. hypoglycaemia
d. hypertension
e. cataract
21. Following drugs are used in ascariasis
a. albendazole
b. metronidazole
c. mebendazole
d. tinidazole
e. fluconazole
22. Features of lead poisoning include
a. abdominal pain
b. seizures
c. anaemia
d. macrocytic blood film
e. eosinophilia
23. Measures in the general management of poisoning include
a. establishment of airway and ventilation
b. removal of poison
c. identification of poison
d. administration of antidotes
e. promote excretion of toxin
24. Rashes can be seen in the following infections
a. chicken pox
b. whooping cough
c. measles
d. rubella
e. dengue haemorrhagic fever
25. Complications of chicken pox are
a. Guillain-Barrè syndrome
b. cerebellar ataxia
c. pneumonitis
d. appendicitis
e. flaring up of primary complex
26. In congenital syphilis
a. infant can present with hepatosplenomegaly
b. early manifestations include saddle nose and saber shin
c. it may present with congenital heart disease
d. X-ray long bone may show periosteitis
e. penicillin is no longer used in treatment
27. Complications of falciparum malaria include
a. hypoglycaemia
b. severe anaemia
c. nephritic syndrome
d. convulsion and coma
e. abnormal bleeding tendency
28. The following are live attenuated vaccines:
a. poliomyelitis
b. measles
c. pertussis
d. BCG
e. hepatitis B
29. Complications of Amoebiasis include
a. perforation
b. skin rashes
c. haemorrhagic manifestation
d. liver abscess
e. UTI
30. Early signs and symptoms of Dengue shock syndrome
rd th
a. may develop on the 3 to 7 day of fever
b. drowsiness /restlessness
c. abdominal pain
d. wide pulse pressure
e. bounding pulse
31. Complications of VSD include
a. repeated chest infection
b. Eisenmenger syndrome
c. heart failure
d. infective endocarditis
e. growth retardation
32. Management of hypercyanotic spell in Tetralogy of Fallot include
a. left lateral position
b. i.m. digoxin
c. s.c./i.m. morphine
d. i.v. propranolol injection
e. oxygen inhalation
33. Common causes of heart failure in infancy are
a. beri beri
b. as a complication of pneumonia
c. tetralogy of fallot
d. large ventricular septal defect
e. cardiomyopathies
34. Regarding rheumatic carditis
a. tachycardia may occur
b. pericardial rub may be present
c. it is the only major criteria in rheumatic fever which leaves sequelae
d. Carey-Coomb's murmur may be heard in mitral area may be
e. chest pain is a feature
35. Bacterial (infective) endocarditis:
a. occurs only in structurally damaged heart
b. usually caused by Streptococcus viridans group
c. a single blood culture is adequate for the diagnosis in most cases
d. empirical treatment with antibiotics should be started as early as possible
e. embolization may occur
36. Characteristic features of febrile seizures:
a. usually occur in 5 to 10 year age group
b. more girls than boys are affected
c. partial seizures lasting more than 15 minutes
d. usually associated with acute pyogenic meningitis
e. no permanent neurological damage occur in the majority
37. The following are features of cerebral palsy
a. hand preference at 8 months of age
b. persistent Moro’s reflex at 9 months of age
c. walks at 16 months
d. can not reach the object at 3 month
e. scissoring of legs
38. Causes of coma in childhood are
a. cerebral palsy
b. cerebral malaria
c. head injury
d. hypoglycaemia
e. febrile convulsions
39. Complications of Tuberculous meningitis include
a. hydrocephalus
b. motor paralysis
c. cranial nerve palsies
d. involuntary movements
e. epilepsy
40. Causes of hydrocephalus
a. pyogenic meningitis
b. posterior fossa tumor
c. encephalitis
d. cerebral malaria
e. aqueductal stenosis
41. Common causal organisms for pneumonia in under 2 months of age are:
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Group B Streptococcus
c. Proteus species
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Candida albicans
42. Common complications of Staphylococcal pneumonia include
a. pulmonary arterial hypertension
b. pyopneumothorax
c. empyema
d. lung abscess
e. serous pleural effusion
43. Acute stridor in a child can be due to:
a. laryngomalacia
b. ALTB
c. laryngeal diphtheria
d. acute eoiglottitis
e. foreign body
44. Typical clinical findings of large pleural effusion are
a. normal chest wall movements
b. stony dull on percussion
c. absent or reduced breath sounds
d. decreased vocal resonance
e. Pleural friction rub
45. Signs of life threatening asthma are:
a. silent chest
b. pulsus paradoxus
c. cyanosis
d. fatigue or exhaustion
e. severe chest indrawing
46. Complications of acute watery diarrhea:
a. malnutrition
b. hyperkalaemia
c. hypotonic dehydration
d. hypovolaemic shock
e. metabolic acidosis
47. Clinical features of dysentery include
a. passing of visible blood in the diarrhea stool
b. fever
c. cold and clammy extremities
d. abdominal cramps
e. haemolytic uraemic syndrome as a serious complication
48. Antimicrobial agents may be indicated in diarrhoea due to
a. giardiasis
b. amoebiasis
c. shigellosis
d. cholera
e. rota virus
49. Hepatitis may be seen in infections with:
a. hepatitis viruses (A, B, C, D, E)
b. dengue viruses
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Epstein-Barr virus
e. Leptospira species
50. Signs and symptoms of hepatocellular failure are
a. deepening jaundice
b. changes in sleep rhythm
c. bleeding tendency
d. hepatoma
e. excessive salivation
51. Causes of iron deficiency anaemia include
a. low iron stores in preterm infants
b. babies on exclusive breastfeeding
c. enterobiasis
d. hiatus hernia
e. cow’s milk allergy
52. Features of severe hypoplastic anaemia are
a. granulocyte count less than 1,000/cumm
b. platelet count less than 20,000/cumm
c. reticulocyte count less than 1%
d. cutaneous bleeding
e. bone marrow is left with <25% of haemopoietic cells
53. Clinical features of beta thalassaemia major include
a. anaemia at birth
b. failure to thrive
c. hepatosplenomegaly
d. pathological fractures
e. prominent malleolus
54. The following are components of the intrinsic coagulation pathway:
a. Prothrombin
b. Factor XII
c. Factor IX
d. Fibrinogen
e. Factor VI I
55. Presenting features of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia include:
a. fever without a focus
b. disproportionate pallor
c. gum bleeding
d. Limb pains
e. Lymphadenopathy
56. Diagnostic criteria of Nephrotic syndrome are
a. massive proteinuria
b. generalized oedema
c. smoky urine
d. hypertension
e. hypoalbuminaemia
57. Complications of Acute Glomerulonephritis include:
a. chronic renal failure
b. anaemic heart failure
c. hypertensive encephalopathy
d. haemolytic uraemic syndrome
e. epilepsy
58. The common causal organisms of urinary tract infection are
a. Escherichia coli
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Listeria monocytogenes
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
59. Features of congenital hypothyroidism (cretinism) include
a. prolonged neonatal jaundice
b. single palmar crease
c. feeding difficulties
d. shrill cerebral cry
e. hypotonia
60. Characteristic features of Duchene muscular dystrophy
a. pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles
b. strong girdle muscles
c. sex linked recessive inheritance
d. girls are more commonly affected
e. positive Gower's sign