Annual examination preparation 2024-25 Biology XII/Chapter 02/Support and movement//30-10-2024

Q 1: The layer that covers the outer surface of bones, providing attachment for muscles and ligaments, is called:
(a) Endosteum (b) Trabeculae (c) Periosteum (d) Epiphysis
Q 2: The part of a long bone that houses yellow bone marrow is the:
(a) Epiphysis (b) Diaphysis (c) Metaphysis (d) Periosteum
Q 3: Cancellous or spongy bone is primarily found in the:
(a) Diaphysis (b) Metaphysis (c) Epiphysis (d) Endosteum
Q 4: Osteoblasts are bone cells responsible for:
(a) Breaking down bone (b) Forming new bone (c) Forming cartilage (d) Absorbing calcium
Q 5: The part of a bone that provides structural strength and consists mainly of osteons is:
(a) Cortical bone (b) Trabeculae (c) Epiphysis (d) Endosteum
Q 6: The membrane lining the inner surface of bones, including the marrow cavity, is the:
(a) Periosteum (b) Endosteum (c) Epiphysis (d) Diaphysis
Q 7: Trabeculae are found in which part of bone?
(a) Cortical bone (b) Spongy bone (c) Periosteum (d) Endosteum
Q 8: Osteons, which contain lamellae and a central canal, are primarily found in:
(a) Epiphyseal spongy bone (b) Diaphyseal cortical bone (c) Periosteum (d) Trabecular matrix
Q 9: Cortical bone makes up approximately what percentage of the human skeleton?
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80%
Q 10: The part of a long bone that primarily consists of spongy bone and contributes to blood cell formation:
(a) Diaphysis (b) Epiphysis (c) Metaphysis (d) Endosteum
Q 11: The area between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing bone, which is also a site of bone growth:
(a) Cortical bone (b) Osteon (c) Metaphysis (d) Trabeculae
Q 12: The structure providing a hard outer layer to bones:
(a) Cancellous bone (b) Cortical bone (c) Spongy bone (d) Epiphysis
Q 13: Which doesn’t belong to others:
(a) Cancellous bone (b) Cortical bone (c) Spongy bone (d) Epiphysis
Q 14: Osteogenic cells are present in:
(a) Periosteum (b) Endosteum (c) Osteon (d) Trabeculae
Q 15: The cortical bone consists of small cylinders known as:
(a) Osteocytes (b) Osteons (c) Lacunae (d) Trabeculae
Q 16: What is the function of periosteum in bone structure?
(a) Production of blood cells (b) Attachment of muscle connective tissue to bones
(c) Formation of osteoblasts (d) Blood supply to osteocytes
Q 17: Which type of bone cell is responsible for breaking down the composite material in bones?
(a) Osteoblasts (b) Osteocytes (c) Osteoclasts (d) Osteogenic cells
Q 18: Which part of the human skeleton is responsible for making blood cells through red bone marrow?
(a) Periosteum (b) Epiphysis (c) Diaphysis (d) Endosteum
Q 19: All of the following are correct about osteocytes except:
(a) Secrete bone matrix (b) Phagocytize the bony matrix
(c) Form compact bone (d) Direct osteoblasts to repair damaged bone
Q 20: Compared to cartilage, bones are generally:
(a) More flexible and less mineralized (b) Stronger and heavily calcified
(c) Less dense and highly vascular (d) Higher in water content and non-calcified
Q 21: The tough, fibrous covering that surrounds cartilage (except at joint surfaces) is called:
(a) Periosteum (b) Perichondrium (c) Epiphyseal plate (d) Endosteum
Q 22: Cartilage that provides flexibility and is found in structures like the ear and epiglottis is:
(a) Fibrocartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage (c) Elastic cartilage (d) Articular cartilage
Q 23: Hyaline cartilage, known for its smooth, glass-like appearance, is commonly found in:
(a) Intervertebral discs (b) Nose & ends of long bones (c) The ear (d) Tendon & ligament
Q 24: The toughest type of cartilage, which resists compression and is found in intervertebral discs and the menisci of
the knee, is:
(a) Hyaline cartilage (b) Elastic cartilage (c) Fibrocartilage (d) Articular cartilage
Q 25: Unlike bone, cartilage has a higher content of:
(a) Calcium (b) Collagen fibers (c) Blood vessels (d) Water
Q 26: Cartilage does not regenerate as easily as bone because it:
(a) Lacks blood vessels and has limited nutrient supply (b) Is surrounded by periosteum
(c) Is less flexible and highly calcified (d) Contains high numbers of osteocytes
Q 27: The ethmoid bone, which forms part of the nasal cavity and eye orbits, is classified as:
(a) Facial bone (b) Cranial bone (c) Axial bone (d) Appendicular bone
Q 28: The phalanges in each foot are organized as:
(a) 2 in the big toe and 3 in each other toe (b) 3 in all toes
(c) 4 in the big toe and 2 in each other toe (d) 5 in all toes
Q 29: The clavicle and scapula together form the:
(a) Pelvic girdle (b) Pectoral girdle (c) Axial skeleton (d) Thoracic cage
Q 30: The bone at the back of the skull, forming the base and protecting the cerebellum, is the:
(a) Frontal bone (b) Temporal bone (c) Occipital bone (d) Parietal bone
Q 31: The pelvic girdle is made up of the:
(a) Clavicle and scapula (b) Ilium, ischium, and pubis (c) Femur and tibia (d) Humerus and radius
Q 32: The group of bones in the palm of the hand are called:
(a) Carpals (b) Metacarpals (c) Tarsals (d) Phalanges
Q 33: The ankle contains how many tarsal bones?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Q 34: The breastbone, located in the center of the chest, is known as the:
(a) Scapula (b) Clavicle (c) Sternum (d) Xiphoid process
Q 35: The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the:
(a) Skull and rib cage (b) Upper and lower limbs (c) Vertebral column (d) Skull only
Q 36: The sacrum and coccyx respectively is typically composed of how many fused bones?
(a) 2, 5 (b) 3, 5 (c) 4, 5 (d) 5, 4
Q 36: The cranial bone that forms part of the nasal cavity and the eye orbits is the:
(a) Ethmoid bone (b) Occipital bone (c) Sphenoid bone (d) Parietal bone
Q 37: The number of bones in both the pectoral and pelvic girdles together is:
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
Q 38: The total number of bones in both hands (carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges) is:
(a) 48 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 56
Q 39: In the human skull, the combined count of parietal, temporal, and occipital bones is:
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Q 40: The human thoracic cage includes how many ribs and the breastbone (sternum)?
(a) 10 ribs, 1 breastbone (b) 12 ribs, 1 breastbone (c) 14 ribs, 1 breastbone (d) 16 ribs, 1 breastbone
Q 41: Joints between the ribs and sternum are examples of:
(a) Cartilaginous joints (b) Fibrous joints (c) Synovial joints (d) Saddle joints
Q 42: The wrist joint, which allows for flexion, extension, and limited rotation, is classified as a:
(a) Ball and socket joint (b) Hinge joint (c) Condyloid joint (d) Saddle joint
Q 43: The type of joint that exists in the pubic symphysis, where limited movement occurs, is a:
(a) Synovial joint (b) Cartilaginous joint (c) Fibrous joint (d) Pivot joint
Q 44: The type of joint allowing rotation around a central axis, such as in the forearm (radius and ulna), is a:
(a) Ball and socket joint (b) Hinge joint (c) Pivot joint (d) Saddle joint
Q 45: The immovable joints between the teeth and the jawbone are examples of:
(a) Synovial joints (b) Cartilaginous joints (c) Fibrous joints (d) Saddle joints
Q 46: The type of joint that allows for the widest range of movement, including rotation, is the:
(a) Hinge joint (b) Pivot joint (c) Ball and socket joint (d) Saddle joint
Q 47: The combined number of bones in the femur, tibia, and fibula of both legs is:
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
Q 48: Which of the following pairs of ribs are directly attached to the sternum and are called true ribs?
(a) 10th and 11th (b) 8th and 12th (c) 1st and 7th (d) 11th and 12th
Q 49: Which type of arthritis involves the immune system attacking synovial membranes in the joints?
(a) Osteoarthritis (b) Rheumatoid arthritis (c) Ankylosing spondylitis (d) Spondylosis
Q 50: Gout is the inflammation of joints due to accumulation of:
(a) Urea crystal (b) NH3 (c) Uric acid crystal (d) CaCO3 crystals