03-08-2025

9610WMD802259250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three very large plates are given charges as shown in the figure. If the cross-sectional area of
each plate is the same, the final charge distribution on plate C is :-

(1) +5Q on the inner surface, +5Q on the outer surface

(2) +6Q on the inner surface, +4Q on the outer surface
(3) +7Q on the inner surface, +3Q on the outer surface
(4) +8Q on the inner surface, +2Q on the outer surface

2) Inside a hollow charged spherical conductor, the potential

(1) is constant
(2) varies directly as the distance from the centre
(3) varies inversely as the distance from the centre
(4) varies inversely as the square of the distance from the centre

3) In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges
each of magnitude q are placed at (n – 1) corners. The magnitude of electric field at centre :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force (EFL) follow the path

as shown in figure as :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Charge distribution on a ring in x-y plane is shown in the figure. Then electric field at origin is :

(1)
along – y – axis

(2)
along – x – axis

(3)
along – y – axis

(4)
along + x – axis

6) Twelve negative charges are placed at the circumference of the dial of a clock as shown in figure.
The clock has only hour hand which points in the direction of net electric field at O. The clock will

show time as :-

(1) 3:30
(2) 7:30
(3) 9:30
(4) 4:30

7) Potential difference between the two concentric spherical shells shown in figure is V. If the
charge density on the outer shell is doubled, then the new potential difference will be :-
(1) V
(2) V/2
(3) 2V

(4)

8) Two charges are placed as shown at the centre and corner of a cube. Flux associated with shaded

part will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Four equal charges q0 each, are kept fixed on the vertices of a square of side 'a'. Charge q1 is kept
at the center of the square as shown in the figure. Then which statement is correct. (here charge q1
is restricted to move perpendicular to XY plane i.e. along z-axis)

(1) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium.

(2) charge q1 is in unstable equilibrium.
(3) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have different (opposite) signs.
(4) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have same signs.

10) The density of charge at point P on the conductor is σ C/m2. The resultant electric field near P
(just outside) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C

12) List I gives certain situations in which electric field is represented by electric lines of forces in x-
y plane. List II gives corresponding representation of equipotential lines in x-y plane. Match the
figures in List I with the figures in List II and indicate your answer.
(1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(2) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(3) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

13) In figure, when an ideal voltmeter is connected across 4000 Ω resistance, it reads 30 V. If the
voltmeter is connected across 3000 Ω resistance, it will read :-

(1) 20 V
(2) 22.5 V
(3) 35 V
(4) 40 V

14) Five identical resistor are initially arranged as shown in diagram. If two similar resistances are
added as shown by the dashed lines then change in resistance in final and initial arrangement is :-

(1) 2Ω
(2) 1Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 4Ω

15) A galvanometer of resistance 20 ohm suffers full scale deflection for a current of 20 mA. It can
be converted into a voltmeter of range 200 V by :-

(1) connecting in series a resistance of 9980 Ω

(2) connecting in series a resistance of 19980 Ω
(3) using a shunt of resistance 20 mΩ
(4) using a shunt of resistance 9980 mΩ

16) Find the value of R for which no current will flow through 5 V battery :-

(1) 4 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

17) In the figure shown, the total resistance between A and B is :-

(1) 12 Ω
(2) 4 Ω
(3) 6 Ω
(4) 8 Ω

18) Voltmeter shown reads 18 V. The resistance of voltmeter is :-

(1) 75 Ω
(2) 120 Ω
(3)

(4)

19) A 5A fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1W in circuit. Resistance of the fuse wire is:-

(1) 0.2Ω
(2) 5Ω
(3) 0.4Ω
(4) 0.04Ω

20) Consider the four circuits shown in the figure below. In which circuit power dissipated maximum
(Neglect the internal resistance of the power supply)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) 25 W, 200 V and 100 W, 200 V bulbs are connected in series to a source of 400 volts. Which bulb
will fuse ?

(1) 25 W
(2) 100 W
(3) Both will fuse at the same time
(4) None of the bulbs will fuse

22) For different values of resistance, R power consumptions in R are given. Then which of the
following values are not possible ? (a) 2W (b) 5W (c) 8W (d) 4W

(1) Only c
(2) b and c
(3) a, b, c
(4) All

23) If k = 1000 N/m and 12 kg block is in equilibrium, then elongation in spring from normal

position is : -

(1) 3 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

24) Maximum value of applied force F, so that system will not move, will be : -

(1) 10 N
(2) 140 N
(3) 70 N
(4) 20 N

25) A mass M is hung with a light inextensible string. Tension in horizontal part of string is : -

Here

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

26) A block of weight W is suspended by a string of fixed length. The ends of the string are held at
various positions as shown in the figures below. In which case, if any, is the magnitude of the tension
along the string largest?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Figure shows the position-time (x-t) graph of one dimensional motion of a body of mass 500 g.
What is the time interval between two consecutive impulses received by the body?

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 6 s
(4) 8 s

28) A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms–1. The man holding it can exert
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

29) A rocket of mass 4000 kg is set for vertical firing. How much gas must be ejected per second so
that the rocket may have initial upward acceleration of magnitude 19.6 m/s2? (Exhaust speed of fuel
= 980 m/s) : -

(1) 240 kg s–1

(2) 60 kg s–1
(3) 120 kg s–1
(4) none

30) Normal reaction at A, B and C will be : -

(1) 10 N, 30 N, 60 N
(2) 15 N, 45 N, 90 N
(3) 15 N, 30 N, 45 N
(4) None

31) With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide down a rope whose breaking strength is
th of his weight?

(1) g
(2) 0.4 g
(3) 0.6 g
(4) 0.8 g

32) A light string fixed at one end to clamp on ground passes over a fixed pulley and hangs at the
other side. It makes an angle of 30° with the ground. A monkey of mass 5 kg climbs up the rope. The
clamp can tolerate a vertical force of 40 N only. The maximum acceleration in upwards direction
with which the monkey can climb safely is : (Neglect friction and take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

33) Mark the correct statements about the friction between two bodies.
1. Static friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
2. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
3. Limiting friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
4. Limiting friction is never less than static friction.

(1) 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2, 3
(3) 1, 3, 4
(4) 1, 2, 4

34) A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in
10s. Then the coefficient of friction is : -

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.06

35) A truck is moving on a road with an acceleration a = 15 m/s2 as shown. The coefficient of friction

between block and truck so that block will not fall down is : -

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.67
(4) 0.75

36) What will be the maximum value of mass M, so that system will not move?

(1) 2.5 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) 25 kg

37) A uniform metal chain is placed on a rough table such that one end of chain hangs down over the
edge of the table. When one-third of its length hangs over the edge, then chain just starts sliding.
Then, the coefficient of static friction is : -

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/4
(3) 2/3
(4) 1/2

38) Assertion : Pseudo force is an imaginary force which is recognised only by a non-internal
observer to explain the physical situation according to Newton's laws.
Reason : Pseudo force has no physical origin, i.e., it is not caused by one of the basic interactions in
nature. It does not exist in the action-reaction pair.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

39) Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with displacement d as shown in the figure.
The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is : -

(1) 13J
(2) 18J
(3) 21J
(4) 26K

40) A body of mass 2 kg travels in straight line with velocity v = x3. Work done by net force during
its displacement from x = 1 m to x = 2 m will be : -

(1) 64 J
(2) 63 J
(3) 32 J
(4) None of these

41) The potential energy function of a particle in a region of space is given as :

U = (2x2 + 3y3 + 2z) J
Here x, y and z are in metres. Find the force acting on the particle at point P (1m, 2m, 3m).
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A body of mass 2 kg is released from rest from the top of a tower which acquires a velocity of 5
ms–1 after falling through the distance of 5m. Calculate the work done by the drag force of the air on
the body? (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 75 J
(2) –25 J
(3) –75 J
(4) 25 J

43) Velocity-time graph for a body of mass 10 kg is shown in figure. Work-done on the body in first

two seconds of the motion is : -

(1) –9300 J
(2) 12000 J
(3) –4500 J
(4) –12000 J

44) For a particle U = x2 – 4x where U in joule and x is in meter. If mass of particle is 2 kg and its
mechanical energy is 12 J then find the maximum speed of particle.

(1) 4 m/sec
(2) 16 m/sec
(3) m/sec
(4) none of these

45) A ball of mass 1 kg is released at point A at a height h = 8 m as shown, then velocity of ball at

point C will be : -
(1) 5 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec
(3) 25 m/sec
(4) ball will never reach at C

CHEMISTRY

1) Which is more stable than

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which is true statement

(1) –OH > –OR (–I Order)

(2) (Stability order)

(3)
are +M groups
(4) Among all halogens only –F have –I > +M

3) Correct stability order of

(1) III > II > I > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) III > IV > II > I

4) Which are not resonating structures

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All

5) Which is minimum stable anion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diasteromers
(3) Identical
(4) Geometrical isomers

7) Which is minimum acidic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which compound have no resonance of lone pair

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Assertion :- Staggard form of n-Butane is maximum stable.

Reason :- In staggard form of n-Butane Bulky groups are opposite side & it has minimum torsional
& Steric strain.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

10) Dihedral angle of most stable conformer of ethylene glycol is

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 180°
(4) 0°

11) Statement-I : Bond angle and bond length remain same in the different conformers of the
ethane
Statement-II : Dihedral angle changes in the different conformers of the ethane

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

12) Which cyclic compound does not shows geometrical isomerism

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) Which is more stable than

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Meso tartaric acid & d-tartaric acid are-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Geometrical isomers

15) Configuration of following chiral-C is

(1) 2R
(2) 3R
(3) 2S
(4) 3S

16)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Chain isomers

17) Which is correct statement-

(1) If there is chiral carbon then it is optically active always.

(2) If there is no plane of symmetry then compound will be optically active.
(3) In Fischer projection, vertical line represents group towards observer
(4) 2-Chlorobutane shows optical isomerism

18) Which is (+)vely electrophile

(1) CH3—NC
(2) PCl3

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following compound can exist in meso form –

(1) 1, 2–Dichlorobutane
(2) 2, 3–Dichloropentane
(3) 2, 3–Dichloro butane
(4) 1, 2–Dichloropentane

20) Which one of the following is correct for 1, 2–Dibromocyclobutane?

(1) It can show geometrical isomerism.
(2) One of its stereoisomer is meso compound.
(3) It has only 3 optically isomers.
(4) All is correct

21) Assertion : can exist in meso.

Reason : It can have plane of symmetry.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

22) Which of the following compound show L-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which can show enantiomerism ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 2 and 3 both

24) Compound 'A' and Compound 'B' have same structure and configuration of compound 'A' and
compound 'B' is 2R, 3S and 2S, 3S respectively. Correct statement about compound 'A' and
compound 'B' is

(1) 'A' and 'B' are diastereomers.

(2) 'A' and 'B' are enantiomers if both are active.
(3) 'A' and 'B' are identical if both are inactive.
(4) 'A' and 'B' are functional isomers.

25) Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

(1) CH3CH(CH3)COOH
(2) CH3CHOHCOOH
(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH

(4)

26) Number of chiral center in and number of optical isomers

in the sum of x + y is

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

27) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

 (Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

28)

(1) Identical
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) Position isomers

29) Configuration of following chiral-C is

(1) R
(2) S
(3) d
(4) l

30) Statement-I :- Enantiomers are optically active compounds.

Statement-II :- Racemic mixture is obtained from equal mixture of enantiomers and is optically
inactive.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

31) Assertion :- Compound of which mirror image is non superimposable, is called optically active.
Reason :- Condition for a compound to be an optically active is that there should be chiral carbon.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) Both A and R are not correct.

32) Statement-I : Essential condition for a compound to be an optically active is presence of chiral
carbon.
Statement-II : If there is one chiral carbon then molecule have no symmetry.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

33) Which is maximum stable cation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Which cation have no resonance ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

35) Which is maximum basic

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Statement-I : cis-trans isomerism is a type of geometrical isomerism.

Statement-II : For cis-trans isomerism both of the double bonded carbon must have one common
group.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

37) Match the following

Column- I Column- II
(Conformer) (Dihedral angle)

(A) (P) 60°

(B) (Q) 0°

(C) (R) 120°

(D) (S) 180°

(1) (a-q) (B-p) (c-r) (d-s)

(2) (a-q) (B-p) (c-s) (d-r)
(3) (a-s) (B-r) (c-p) (d-q)
(4) (a-p) (B-q) (c-s) (d-r)

38) Which compound shows geometrical isomerism

(1) Ph—CH=CH—Ph
(2)

(3)

(4) All

39) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Geometrical isomers

(B) (Q) Position isomers

(C) (R) Metamers

(1) A → Q ; B → P ; C → R
(2) A → P ; B → R ; C → Q
(3) A → Q ; B → R ; C → P
(4) A → P ; B → Q ; C → R

40) Which is optically active ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41) If angle of rotation of PPL by is +52° then angle of rotation of PPL by

is -----

(1) +60°
(2) –60°
(3) 0°
(4) +120°

42)

Structure Number of chiral carbon

(A) (P) 0
 (B) (Q) 1

(C) (R) 3

(D) (S) 2

Correct match is
(1) A→P ; B→S ; C→Q ; D→R
(2) A→Q ; B→S ; C→R ; D→P
(3) A→Q ; B→P ; C→S ; D→R
(4) A→Q ; B→P ; C→R ; D→S

43) Which is/are ambident nucleophile

(a) (b) NH2–OH

(c) NH2–CH3 (d) CH3–NO2

(e) SO3 (f)

(1) a, b, c, f
(2) b and d
(3) b, d, e
(4) b, c, f

44) Assertion : and are identical.

Reason : Both have same configuration and same structure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

45) In which compound carbon act as electrophile and nucleophile both

(1) CH3–CH2–Cl
(2) CH3–C ≡ N
(3) CH3–NC
(4) CH ≡ CH

BIOLOGY

1) Rhizome is found in :-

(1) Fragaria
(2) Pistia
(3) Onion
(4) Ginger

2) Which of the following is subaerial stem modification with long internodes ?

(1) Rhizome
(2) Runner
(3) Tuber
(4) Corm

3) Which statement is not true about pneumatophores:-

(1) They are negatively geotropic

(2) They meant for O2/CO2 exchange
(3) They are present in Rhizophora
(4) They are photosynthetic

4) Identify the types of placentation in the given diagrams (A to E) :-

(1) A-Marginal, B-Axile, C-Parietal, D-Free central, E-Basal

(2) A-Marginal, B-Basal, C-Parietal, D-Free central, E-Axile
(3) A-Parietal, B-Basal, C-Marginal, D-Free central, E-Axile
(4) A-Parietal, B-Axile, C-Marginal, D-Free central, E-Basal

5) The following figure represents the root system of

(1) Triticum
(2) Mango
(3) Banyan
(4) Brassica

6) Recognise the figure and find out the correct option :-

(1) a–Standard, b–wings, c–keel

(2) a–Wings, b–standard, c–keel
(3) a–Keel, b–standard, c–wings
(4) a–Keel, b–wings, c–standard

7) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure showing L.S. of a monocot seed and select the correct
option.

A B C D

(1) Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Radicle

(2) Endosperm Scutellum Radicle Plumule

(3) Scutellum Endosperm Radicle Plumule

(4) Plumule Radicle Scutellum Endosperm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two-chambered due to the formation of false septum in :-

(1) Tomato and Lemon

(2) Mustard and Argemone
(3) Dianthus and Primrose
(4) Sunflower and Marigold

9) Identify the different types of aestivation (A, B, C and D) and select the correct option.

A B C D

(1) Valvate Twisted Imbricate Vexillary

(2) Imbricate Twisted Valvate Vexillary

(3) Twisted Imbricate Vexillary Vexillary

(4) Twisted Imbricate Valvate Vexillary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Roots which are modified to provide support are found in -

(1) Banyan tree & Orchids

(2) Sugarcane & Rhizophora
(3) Maize & Banyan tree
(4) Bryophyllum & Carrot

11) Assertion :- Cotton have twisted aestivation.

Reason :- In Gulmohur, margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular
direction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion & reason are incorrect.

12)

Rhizome of ginger is a modification of stem because -

(1) It bears Adventitious roots
(2) It bears nodes and internodes
(3) It is underground
(4) It stores food material

13)

Parallel venation occurs in :-

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Malvaceae
(4) Papilionaceae

14) Opposite phyllotaxy, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in -

(1) Nerium
(2) China rose
(3) Calotropis
(4) Neem

15) Assertion :- Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy.

Reason :- In Alstonia more than two leaves arise on each node.

(1) A and R both are incorrect

(2) A is correct while R is incorrect
(3) A and R both are correct and R is explanation of A
(4) A and R both are correct but R does not explain A

16) In some _______, the leaf base may become swollen and is called as ________ .

(1) monocots, sheathing leaf base

(2) legumes, pulvinus
(3) legumes, sheathing leaf base
(4) monocots, pulvinus

17) Thorns are developed from

(1) Floral buds

(2) Axillary buds
(3) Epidermis
(4) All of the above

18) Which of the following is correct about venation:

a. Parallel venation is generally found in monocot
b. Parallel venation is generally found in dicot
c. Reticulate venation is generally found in monocot
d. Reticulate venation is generally found in dicot

(1) a and d only

(2) b and c only
(3) b and d only
(4) a and c only

19) In some fleshy fruits endocarp is hard and stony due to the presence of brachysclereids. This
type of fruits found in which plant :-

(1) Mango and Banana

(2) Mango and Trapa
(3) Mango and Coconut
(4) Coconut and Tomato

20) Vegetative propagation in Eichhornia occurs by :-

(1) Offset
(2) Runner
(3) Sucker
(4) Stolon

21) In which of the following plants, stem perform the function of storage and perennation :-

(1) Sweet potato

(2) Dahlia
(3) Onion
(4) Turmeric

22) Which of the following is an example for insectivorous plants ?

(1) Pitcher plant

(2) Venus fly trap
(3) Bladder wort
(4) All of the above

23) A fruit develops from :-

(1) Ovary
(2) Thalamus
(3) Petals
(4) Receptacle

24) List some of plants is given below :-

Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Canna, Colocasia, Onion, Zaminkand.
How many above plants have underground stem-corm?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Two

25) Assertion: Actinomorphic flowers show radial symmetry.

Reason: Zygomorphic flowers have bilateral symmetry.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

26) Assertion (A) :- In cymose inflorescence the main axis terminates in flower.
Reason (R) :- In cymose inflorescence, growth is unlimited.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) in incorrect
(4) (A) & (R) both are incorrect

27) Assertion : Superior ovary is found in mustard and china rose.

Reason : In mustard and china rose gynoecium occupies the highest position while the other parts
are situated below it.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Match the Column – Group and Main Pigment

Column A Column B
(Algal Group) (Pigment)

A. Green algae i. Chlorophyll a and b

B. Brown algae ii. Chlorophyll a and c

C. Red algae iii. Chlorophyll a and d

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii

29) Assertion :- In chinarose, alternate phyllotaxy is present.

Reason :- In chinarose, single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Assertion: Bud is present in axil of petiole in simple leaf, but not in the axil of leaflets of
compound leaf.
Reason: Buds do not arise in the axil of leaflets of compound leaves.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Statement-I: Binomial nomenclature is accepted globally because it provides a unique and
universal name to each organism.
Statement-II: In binomial nomenclature, the genus name is always written after the species name.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

32) Assertion (A): Genus includes one or more species that are closely related.
Reason (R): All species within a genus have exactly the same characteristics.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

33) Which of the following represents the correct format for writing a biological name according to
binomial nomenclature?

(1) Mangifera Indica Linn.

(2) Mangifera indica
(3) Mangifera Indica
(4) mangifera indica

34) Match Column A with Column B:

Column A
Column B (Example)
(Taxonomic Rank)

A. Species i. Sapiens
 B. Genus ii. Homo

C. Order iii. Primata

D. Family iv. Hominidae

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

35) Assertion (A): Taxonomy involves identification, nomenclature, and classification.

Reason (R): Taxonomy is restricted only to naming organisms.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

36) In the hierarchy of classification, which of the following is the most specific category?

(1) Genus
(2) Order
(3) Species
(4) Family

37) The scientific name of lion is __________.

(1) Felis domestica

(2) Panthera leo
(3) Canis lupus
(4) Panthera tigris

38) Statement-I: The scientific name of organisms is written with the genus starting in capital and
the species in lowercase.
Statement-II: The name of the author is written before the genus name.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

39) Which of the following taxonomic categories correctly matches the ascending order of
hierarchy?

(1) Species < Genus < Family < Order < Class < Phylum < Kingdom
(2) Kingdom < Phylum < Class < Order < Family < Genus < Species
(3) Genus < Species < Family < Order < Class < Kingdom < Phylum
(4) Species < Order < Genus < Class < Family < Kingdom < Phylum

40) Assertion (A): All living organisms have a scientific name assigned by international codes.
Reason (R): Scientific names are often based on local language and traditions.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

41) Assertion (A): Cyanobacteria are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Reason (R): Cyanobacteria have specialized cells called heterocysts for nitrogen fixation.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

42) Assertion (A): Euglenoids are placed in both plant and animal kingdoms by different scientists
in earlier system of classification.
Reason (R): Euglenoids show both photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

43) Assertion (A): Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.

Reason (R): Mycoplasma are the largest known living cells.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

44) Statement 1: Fungi are heterotrophic organisms.

Statement 2: Fungi store food material in the form of starch.

(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

45) Statement 1: Dinoflagellates cause red tides in marine environments.

Statement 2: Red tides are caused due to the rapid multiplication of red algae.

(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

46) Statement 1: Ascomycetes reproduce asexually by conidia.

Statement 2: Conidia are produced endogenously inside ascus.

(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

47) How many of the following statements are correct?

i. Bacteria reproduce asexually by fission.
ii. Mycoplasma have no cell wall.
iii. Euglenoids have chloroplasts with pigments identical to higher plants.
iv. Plasmodium is a fungus that causes malaria.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

48) How many of the following are true?

i. Slime moulds move by pseudopodia.
ii. Ascomycetes include both unicellular and multicellular fungi.
iii. Basidiomycetes produce basidiospores inside asci.
iv. Phycomycetes include fungi like Rhizopus and Mucor.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

49) Choose the number of correct statements:

i. Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness.
ii. Lichens are associations between fungi and bacteria.
iii. Dinoflagellates have two flagella.
iv. Deuteromycetes are fungi with only known asexual stages.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

50) Match the Column – Plant Group and Spore/Gamete Type :

 Column A Column B
(Group) (Type)

A. Bryophyte i. Chlamydomonas

B. Pteridophyte ii. Prothallus

C. Algae iii. Sciophytes

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i

51) Identify the bacterial shape shown in the diagram labeled "cocci".

(1) Rod-shaped
(2) Spiral
(3) Spherical
(4) Comma-shaped

52) What unique cell type does it have for nitrogen fixation?

(1) Mycelium
(2) Rhizoid
(3) Heterocyst
(4) Hypha

53) How diatom’s cell wall structured?

(1) Coenocytic tubes

(2) Overlapping silica shells like a soapbox
(3) Septate branches
(4) Gelatinous sheaths

54) Name the layer that gives flexibility to Euglenoids instead of a cell wall.

(1) Cellulose
(2) Pellicle
(3) Cuticle
(4) Chitin

55) What is the name of the infectious RNA agent smaller than a virus?

(1) Plasmid
(2) Viroid
(3) Prion
(4) Capsid

56) Which organism causes red tides in oceans?

(1) Nostoc
(2) Gonyaulax
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Plasmodium

57) What is the fungal partner in a lichen called?

(1) Phycobiont
(2) Cyanobiont
(3) Mycobiont
(4) Endophyte

58) Assertion (A): In ascomycetes, sexual spores called ascospores are produced inside sac-like
structures called asci.
Reason (R): Ascospores are exogenously produced on conidiophores.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

59) Statement 1: Basidiomycetes commonly reproduce asexually through basidiospores.

Statement 2: Basidiospores are produced on a structure called basidium.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

60) How many of the following statements are correct?

i. Mycelium of phycomycetes is usually aseptate and coenocytic.
ii. Conidia are sexual spores produced by ascomycetes.
iii. Deuteromycetes are fungi in which only the asexual stage is known.
iv. Basidiocarps are the fruiting bodies found in basidiomycetes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

61) Which of the following organisms shown in this figure is a member of Phycomycetes and

commonly known as pin mould?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Mucor
(3) Agaricus
(4) Puccinia

62) Assertion (A): In gymnosperms, the endosperm is haploid.

Reason (R): The endosperm develops before fertilisation from the female gametophyte.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

63) Statement 1: Gymnosperms are usually perennial and woody.

Statement 2: They produce flowers and fruits for reproduction.

(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

64) How many of the following statements are true for gymnosperms?
i. Gymnosperms have vascular tissues for conduction of water and food.
ii. Gymnosperms exhibit double fertilisation.
iii. Male gametophyte is pollen grain.
iv. Their seeds are not enclosed within fruit.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

65) Match the gymnosperm feature with its correct description:

Column A Column B
(Structure) (Function/Feature)

A. Microsporangiate cone i. Produces female gametophyte

B. Megasporangiate cone ii. Carries male gametes

C. Pollen grain iii. Produces microspores

D. Ovule iv. Contains egg cell

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

66) What is the name of the structure in gymnosperms where the female gametophyte develops?

(1) Archegonium
(2) Ovule
(3) Anther
(4) Microspore

67) What is the function of the microsporangiate cone (also called the male cone) in Pinus?

(1) It produces ovules that develop into seeds.

(2) It contains archegonia with egg cells.
(3) It produces microspores that develop into pollen grains.
(4) It supports the female cone during fertilization.

68) Statement I: Red algae store food in the form of mannitol.

Statement II: Rhodophyceae contain the pigment r-phycoerythrin.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

69) Assertion (A): Volvox exhibits oogamous sexual reproduction.

Reason (R): Oogamy involves fusion of morphologically distinct gametes.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

70) How many of the following statements are correct?

i. Funaria is a moss.
ii. Rhizoids in liverworts are multicellular.
iii. Protonema is the first stage in moss gametophyte.
iv. Liverworts reproduce by gemmae.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

71) Identify the correct statements:

i. Pteridophytes are the first vascular land plants.
ii. All pteridophytes show seed habit.
iii. Pteridophyte spores germinate into gametophytes called prothallus.
iv. Selaginella is heterosporous.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

72) Statement I: Mosses show an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal.

Statement II: Protonema stage is the dominant stage of moss.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

73) Statement I: All pteridophytes produce two types of spores.

Statement II: Salvinia is a heterosporous pteridophyte.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

74) Assertion (A): Bryophytes require water for fertilisation.

Reason (R): The male gametes are carried by air to the archegonium.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

75) Assertion (A): Gymnosperms are called naked seeded plants.

Reason (R): The ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

76) Which of these are examples of brown algae?

i. Sargassum
ii. Polysiphonia
iii. Fucus
iv. Dictyota

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

77) Select correct statements:

i. Angiosperms bear flowers.
ii. Seeds in gymnosperms are enclosed in fruits.
iii. Ovules in gymnosperms are naked.
iv. Angiosperms produce pollen inside anthers.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

78) How many are true?

i. Algin is obtained from brown algae
ii. Chlorophyceae store floridean starch
iii. Rhodophyceae have no motile reproductive stages
iv. Mannitol is a reserve food in red algae

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

79) Assertion (A): Some mosses help prevent soil erosion.

Reason (R): Mosses form dense mats that bind the soil particles.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

80) Assertion (A): Chara is a multicellular alga.

Reason (R): Chara is a brown alga with fucoxanthin.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

81) Match the algae with their pigment.

Column A Column B

A. Chlorophyceae i. Fucoxanthin

B. Phaeophyceae ii. r-Phycoerythrin

C. Rhodophyceae iii. Chlorophyll b

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i

82) Match the column.

Column A Column B
(Plant) (Reproduction Type)

A. Marchantia i. Macrophylls

B. Funaria ii. Spore dispersal

C. Fern iii. Gemmae

D. Volvox iv. Oogamy

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

83) In this typical Marchantia diagram showing gemma cups. What is the main function of gemmae?
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Spore dispersal
(3) Vegetative propagation
(4) Transport of water

84) What are sori, in fern leaf.

(1) Male gametophyte

(2) Female gametophyte
(3) Sporangia clusters
(4) Root nodules

85) Identify this diagram ?

(1) Selaginella
(2) Equisetum
(3) Fern
(4) Salvinia

86) Identify the mark labelling in this diagram?

(1) A–Capsule, B–Seta, C–Root
(2) A–Capsule, B–Seta, C–Foot
(3) A–Foot, B–Seta, C–Capsule
(4) A–Capsule, B–Seta, C–Rhizoids

87) In Phaeophyceae cellulosic wall usually covered on the outside by ?

(1) Pectin
(2) Lignin
(3) Arachnoid
(4) Algin

88) If a flower has reduced leaf like structure at the base of pedicle and having four petals then it is
known as by:-

(1) Ebracteate, Trimerous

(2) Bracteate, Trimerous
(3) Ebracteate, Tetramerous
(4) Bracteate, Tetramerous

89) Among them which is not class of peteridophyta.

(1) Lycopsida
(2) Sphenopsida
(3) Pteropsida
(4) Hepaticopsida

90) Match the class with example:

Column-I Column-II

A. Chlorophyceae i. Ectocarpus

B. Phaeophyceae ii. Volvox

C. Rhodophyceae iii. Polysiphonia

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 1 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 3 4 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 1 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 2 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 3 2 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explanation: When multiple conductors are brought close, induced charges distribute on
the inner and outer surfaces based on conservation of charge and electrostatic equilibrium.
Concept:
• Inner surface responds to neighboring plate's field
• Total charge on plate remains conserved Charges rearrange to maintain electrostatic
conditions (E inside the conductor is zero)
Solution:

Given net charge on plates, C = +6Q Due to nearby interactions and induced fields, charge
gets split as:
Outer surface of plate A and B: QNet/2=+3Q
Inner surface on plate C: 10Q –3Q=7Q→ Ensures internal electrostatics condition and
conservation of charge
Final Answer: (3)

2) Explanation: In a conductor, charge resides on the surface, and inside, the electric field is
zero. Hence, the potential is the same throughout.
Concept: For a spherical conductor:
• Einside = 0
• V = constant

Solution: Potential inside = (constant)

Final Answer: (1)

3) Explanation: Electric field vectors from (n–1) symmetrically placed charges partially
cancel. Use the symmetry principle.
Concept: In a regular polygon, total cancellation occurs only when all corners are filled. With
one missing, a net field arises.
Solution: Place +q at each of (n–1) corners. Imagine a –q at the nth corner to complete
symmetry → results in equivalent field of a +q at nth vertex being absent ⇒ net field = field
due to +q at that location.
Final Answer: (4)

4) Explanation: Field lines bend near a conductor such that they meet it perpendicularly,
ensuring no tangential component.
Concept:
• EFLs must enter and leave conductors at 90°
• Field gets distorted around metallic sphere
Solution: Correct diagram shows symmetric field bending with lines hitting the surface at
90°. Diagram 4 matches this.

Final Answer: (4)

5) Explanation: Use symmetry and net vector addition. Electric field contributions from
opposite elements cancel partially.
Concept: Reduction method: Integrate contributions from continuous charge distribution.
Solution: Asymmetrical charge distribution along x-axis → net field will lie along negative x-
direction

Final Answer: (2)

6) Explanation: Use symmetry and net vector addition.

Concept: Electric field intensities is a vector quantity, therefore net electric field is a vector
addition of all:
Solution:
Final Answer: (3)

7) Explanation: The potential difference between two concentric spherical shells depends on
the charge on the inner shell.
Concept: Potential difference due to two concentric spherical shells. The outer shell’s charge
doesn't affect the potential difference between them if changed symmetrically.
Solution: Since we’re only changing the charge on the outer shell, the potential difference
remains unchanged.
Final Answer: (1)

8) Explanation: Electric flux is calculated using Gauss’s Law, and is only due to the net
enclosed charge.
Concept:

• Flux associated with shaded part due to point charge at center of cube:

• Flux associated with shaded part due to charge at corner (shared by 8 cubes):

Solution: Total flux through the shaded portion:

Final Answer: (2)

9) Explanation: The center charge is in equilibrium due to symmetric placement of

surrounding charges.
Concept:
• Same sign → unstable (force increases with displacement).
• Opposite sign → stable (restoring force acts).
• Stable only when center and vertex charges are of opposite signs.
Solution:
q1 is in unstable equilibrium if q0 & q1 have same signs.

As charge moves toward the (+) ve z-axis or –ve z-axis, then net force on charge will be along
the displace direction& would not come ever.
q1 is in stable equlibrium if q1 & q0 have difference signes
In this case as charge moves away from centre then net force on the charge opposite to
displace direction.
 Final Answer: (3)

10) Explanation: Electric field just outside a conductor is proportional to the surface charge
density.

Concept:

Solution: Electric field =

Final Answer: (3)

11) Explanation: Gauss's Law: Electric flux =

Concept: qin = total charge inside the closed surface and

Solution:
Final Answer: (2)

12) Explanation: We have to find out the suitable potential difference diagrams for given
electric field line patterns.
Concept:
(i) Electric field line moves from higher potential to lower potential
(ii) Equipotential surface are perpendicular to electrical field lines.
Formula: Not required
Visual diagram:

Correct diagram of equipotential

Electric field lines
surface

(P) (4)

(Q) (3)
 (R) (2)

(S) (1)

Calculation: In all these four diagram of electric field line, we saw the direction of electric field. It
is always from higher potential to low potential with this equipotential surfaces (line) are
perpendicular to electric field lines.

13) Explanation: Voltage is directly proportional to resistance in series.

Concept: V = IR, and I is current in circuit.
Solution:
Let I be the current in the circuit, then I × 4000 = V.
If voltmeter is put across 3000Ω resistance, then reading of voltmeter is

I × 3000 = × 3000 = 22.5 V

Final Answer: (2)

14) Explanation: Adding resistors in parallel reduces overall resistance.

Concept: Effective resistance in parallel is

Solution

Req = 5Ω

⇒
Req’ = 3Ω
Req – Req’ = 2Ω
Final Answer: (1)

15) Explanation: Voltmeter is made by adding high resistance in series with a galvanometer.

Concept:

Solution:
Final Answer: (1)

16) Explanation: If no current flows through the battery, potential at both ends must be
same.
Concept: Apply Ohm’s Law and loop rule.
Solution:

Final Answer: (2)

17) Explanation: Identify unused resistors and simplify using parallel & series combinations.
Concept: Parallel formula and series formula.
Solution: The last two resistance are out of circuit.
Two branches of 8Ω in parallel = 4Ω
Then total = 4 + 2 + 2 = 8Ω
Final Answer: (4)

18) Explanation: Use current division to find current through voltmeter, then apply Ohm’s
Law.

Concept:
Solution:
Final Answer: (4)

19) Explanation: Use power formula.

Concept:

Solution:
Final Answer: (4)Final Answer: (4)

20) Explanation: More power is dissipated when net resistance is minimum.

Concept:
Solution:

(i) , (ii) Reff = 2R

(iii) (iv)
Final Answer: (1)

21) Explanation: Bulb with lower power rating dissipates more power in series.
Concept: P = I2R
Solution:

∴ 25W bulb will fuse.

Final Answer: (1)

22) Explanation: Max power in a resistor occurs when R = r

Concept:
Solution:

∴ Power cannot be more than 4W.

Final Answer: (2)

23) Explaining : Find elongation in spring from natural length.

Concept : This question is based on, spring force.

Solution :
mg = 4kx
120 = 4 (1000)x
x = 3 cm
Final Answer : (1)

24) Explaining : Find maximum value of applied force.

Concept : This question is based on, movable pulley.
Solution : F + 2F + 4F = 140 N
7F = 140 N ⇒ F = 20N
Final Answer : (4)

25)

Explaining : Find tension in horizontal string.

Concept : This question is based on, equilibrium.
Solution :

Here, T1 = T2 cos 30°= T2

T2 = T1

Also Mg = T2 sin30° =

i.e.,
Final Answer : (1)

26) Explaining : Find the arrangement in which tension is maximum.

Concept : This question is based on, equilibrium.
Solution :

2T cos θ = W
For Tmax value of cosθ should be minimum & θ will be large.
Final Answer : (1)

27) Explaining : Find the time gap between two successive impulse.
Concept : This question is based on, impulse.
Solution : Figure shows that slope of x-t graph changes from positive to negative at t = 2s,
and it change from negative to positive at t = 4s and so on. Thus, direction of velocity is
reversed after every two seconds. Hence, the body must be receiving consecutive impulses
after every two seconds.
Final Answer : (1)

28) Explaining : Find number of bullets fired per second.

Concept : This question is based on, average force.

Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

29) Explaining : Find rate of fuel consumption.

Concept : This question is based on, rocket propulsion.

Solution :

980 × – 4000 × 9.8 = 4000 × 19.6

= 120 kg/sec.
Final Answer : (3)

30) Explaining : Find normal reaction at given points.

Concept : This question is based on, calculation of normal reaction between blocks placed in
moving lift.

Solution :
NA – 10 = 5 × 1
⇒ NA = 15N

NB – 20 – NA = 5 × 2
NB = 10 + 20 + 15 = 45 N

NC – 30 – NB = 5 × 3
NC = 15 + 30 + 45
⇒ NC = 90 N
Final Answer : (2)

31)

Explaining : Find minimum acceleration of fireman.

Concept : This question is based on, motion of connected bodies involving tension force.
Solution : Fnet = ma
mg – T = ma

mg – mg = ma

a = 6 m/s2
Final Answer : (3)

32)

Explaining : Find maximum safe acceleration of monkey.

Concept : This question is based on, bodies hanged vertically with string.
Solution : T – 5g = 5a
and T sin 30° = 40 ⇒ T = 80 N
80 – 50 = 5a
⇒ a = 6 m/s2
Final Answer : (3)

33) Explaining : Mark correct statements.

Concept : This question is based on, types of friction and their values.
Solution :

so
and 0 ≤ fs ≤
Final Answer : (1)

34)

Explaining : Find coefficient of friction.

Concept : This question is based on, motion of body on horizontal rough surface under the
action of friction force only.
Solution : v = u – at ⇒ u – μgt = 0
∴
Final Answer : (4)

35)

Explaining : Find coefficient of friction between truck and block.

Concept : This question is based on, application of friction force on vertical surface.

Solution :
fr = mg
μma = mg

μ = 0.67
Final Answer : (3)

36)

Explaining : Find value of mass M so that system remains at rest.

Concept : This question is based on, equilibrium.

Solution :

fr = T ... (1)
Mg = T ... (2)
From (1) & (2)
Mg = fr
0.5 (2 + 8)g = Mg
M = 5 kg
Final Answer : (3)

37)

Explaining : Find coefficient of static friction.

Concept : This question is based on, application of friction force.

Solution :
Final Answer : (4)
38)

Explaining : Mark the correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on, concept of pseudo force.
Solution : Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

39)

Explaining : Find work done.

Concept : This question is based on, calculation of work using force-displacement graph.
Solution : Work = Area under (F-d) graph
= 8 + 5 = 13 J
Final Answer : (1)

40)

Explaining : Find work done.

Concept : This question is based on, work-energy theorem.
Solution : Given v = x3
at x = 1m
vi = (1)3 = 1 m/s
at x = 2m
vf = (2)3 = 8 m/s

W = 63 J
Final Answer : (2)

41)

Explaining : Find force at given coordinates.

Concept : This question is based on, F = –

Solution : U = (2x2 + 3y3 + 2z)

Final Answer : (1)

42)

Explaining : Find work done of drag force of air.

Concept : This question is based on, work-energy theorem.
Solution :

(2) (10) (5) + ⇒

Final Answer : (3)

43)

Explaining : Find work done in given time interval.

Concept : This question is based on, work energy theorem.

Solution :

Speed of the body at t = 2s

v = u + at
= 50 + (–5) × 2
= 40 ms–1
Using work energy theorem,
Work done on the body = Change in kinetic energy of the body

= –4500 J
Final Answer : (3)

44)

Explaining : Find maximum speed of particle.

Concept : This question is based on, mechanical energy and F = – .

Solution : Potential energy U will be minimum at mean position

As we know
For equilibrium, F = 0 ⇒ –2x + 4 = 0
Mean position x = 2m
At x = 2,
Umin = –4J. At mean position potential energy = min and K.E. = maximum.
Hence, KE = TE – PE = 12 – (–4) = 16J

⇒ v = 4 m/sec
Final Answer : (1)
 45)

Explaining : Velocity of ball at point C.

Concept : This question is based on, conservation of mechanical energy.
Solution : Ball don't have sufficient energy to cross potential barrier B.
Hence, ball will never reach at C.
Final Answer : (4)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : Most stable carbanion than .

Concept : This question is based on Inductive effect.
Solution :

–NO2 have more –I than –F so is more stable than .

Final Answer : (4)

47)

Explaining : Correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on Mesomeric effect is more dominating then Inductive
effect.
Solution :

All halogens have –I > +M and all halogens are +M groups have resonance
with lone pair.
Final Answer : (3)

48)

Explaining : Correct stability order of Carbocation.

Concept : This question is based on Stability of Carbocation ∝ Resonance.
Solution :

(+) ve on more EN, less stable.

more resonance more stable.

Final Answer : (1)

49)

Explaining : Identify which is not resonating structure.

Concept : This question is based on Resonance.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

50)

Explaining : Minimum stable carbanion.

Concept : This question is based on stability of carbanion.
Solution :
Stability of carbanion ∝ –I effect
Order of stability = 1° > 2° > 3°
Final Answer : (4)

51)

Explaining : Relation between both compound.

Concept : This question is based on chiral centre and mirror image.
Solution : Both are optically active and are opposite so are enantiomers.
Final Answer : (1)

52)

Explaining : Identify minimum acidic.

Concept : This question is based on Acidic strength ∝ –I effect.
Solution : +I of –CH3 decreases acidic strength.
Final Answer : (2)

53)

Explaining : Identify compound which have no resonance.

Concept : This question is based on Resonance.
Solution : In option (3) localised lone pair, not take part in resonance.
Final Answer : (3)

54)

Explaining : Assertion-Reason type question.

Concept : This question is based on Stability of conformation.
Solution :
Final Answer : (4)

55)

Explaining : Dihedral angle of most stale conformer.

Concept : This question is based on Intramolecular H-bonding.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

56)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on conformer of ethane.
Solution :
The only difference between conformers is the dihedral angle, which is the angle of rotation
around the C–C single bond.
Final Answer : (2)

57)

Explaining : Which can not show geometrical isomerism.

Concept : This question is based on Minimum two different sp3 carbon corrected with group.
Solution :

No. G.I.
In cyclic ring minimum two sp3 Carbon corrected with different group.
Final Answer : (4)
58)

Explaining : Stable Carbanion.

Concept : This question is based on Stability of Carbanion ∝ –I effect.
Solution :
(3) more -I of two –Cl, so more stable than given
In (1) and (4) less –I due to more distance so less stable.
Final Answer : (3)

59)

Explaining : Relation between two compound.

Concept : This question is based on POS and mirror image.
Solution :
Meso means optically inactive & d means optically active so both are not mirror images of
each other.
Final Answer : (2)

60)

Explaining : Configuration of chiral-carbon.

Concept : This question is based on R and S configuration.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

61)

Explaining : Relation between compound.

Concept : This question is based on R and S configuration.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

62)
Explaining : Statement based question.
Concept : This question is based on compound which have chiral carbon show optical
isomerism.
Solution :

Chiral carbon, show optical isomerism

Final Answer : (4)

63)

Explaining : Identify positive charge electrophile.

Concept : This question is based on Electron deficient species.
Solution : Electrophile are electron deficient species that can accept a pair of electron to
form a new bond.

. 6 e⊝ [electron deficient]
Final Answer : (4)

64)

Explaining : Identify meso compound.

Concept : This question is based on POS with minimum, two chiral carbon.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : Identify correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on POS with minimum, two chiral carbon.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

66)
Explaining : Assertion-Reason type question.
Concept : This question is based on POS with minimum, two chiral carbon.
Solution :

No P.O.S. , No C.O.S. (Asymmetric molecule)

Final Answer : (4)

67)

Explaining : Which can show L-Configuration.

Concept : This question is based on (D) and (L) Configuration.
Solution :
See configuration of last chiral carbon

Final Answer : (2)

68)

Explaining : Identify compound which can show Enantiomer.

Concept : This question is based on Mirror image, which are not superimposible.
Solution : It have chiral carbon then can show enantiomerism (may be active)
Final Answer : (4)

69)

Explaining : Correct statement about (A).

Concept : This question is based on Not mirror image.
Solution : 'A' and 'B' are diastereomers.
Final Answer : (1)

70)

Explaining : Which can show optical isomerism.

Concept : This question is based on chiral carbon, with absence of symmetry.
Solution :
Optically active
Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Sum of x + y.
Concept : This question is based on chiral centre and optical isomer.
Solution :

Symmetrical [n = 2]
Total O.I. =
=
= 2 + 1 =3
x+y=3+3=6
Final Answer : (3)

72)

Explaining : Match the column I with II

Concept : This question is based on Relation of compound.
Solution :
(P) → Optically inactive.
(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Mirror images are super imposable, so meso compound.
Final Answer : (3)

73)

Explaining : Relation between compound.

Concept : This question is based on R and S configuration based.
Solution :
 Both are identical
Final Answer : (1)

74)

Explaining : Configuration of chiral carbon.

Concept : This question is based on R and S configuration based.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on definition based.
Solution :
Optically active isomer of compound which are non superimposable images to each other.
A racemic mixture is on equimolar mixture of two enantiomers that is optically inactive.
Final Answer : (4)

76)

Explaining : Assertion-Reason type question.

Concept : This question is based on Non superimposable mirror image called Enantiomer.
Solution :
Enantiomers are optically active isomer of compound which are Non-superimposable image of
each other.
Condition for a compound to be an optically active is that there should be chiral carbon and
absence of symmetry.
Final Answer : (3)

77)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on symmetry and chiral carbon.
Solution :
For a compound to be optically active, asymmetry must be present. So statement-I is false.
Final Answer : (4)

78)

Explaining : Identify maximum stable cation.

Concept : This question is based on stability of carbocation ∝ +I effect.
Solution :
In (2) option more +I of –CH3 than in (4) option.
So, (2) option is maximum stable.
Final Answer : (2)

79)

Explaining : Cation have no resonance.

Concept : This question is based on Resonance.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

80)

Explaining : Identify maximum basic.

Concept : This question is based on Basic strength ∝ Tendency to donate Lone pair.
Solution :

have more +I so is maximum basic.

Final Answer : (2)

81)

Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on Type of geometrical isomerism-Cis-Trans.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

82)

Explaining : Match column-I with II.

Concept : This question is based on dihedral angle.
Solution :
Dihedral angle is the angle between two bonds.
Originating from different atoms in a Newman project.
Final Answer : (1)

83)

Explaining : Compound which can show geometrical isomerism.

Concept : This question is based on different group or atom corrected to double bon show G.I.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

84)

Explaining : Match column-I with II.

Concept : This question is based on definition based.
Solution :

→ Position isomers

→ Geometrical isomers

→ Metamers
Final Answer : (1)

85)

Explaining : Optically active molecule.

Concept : This question is based on Plane of symmetry.
Solution :
(1)

(3)

(4)
Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining : Angle of rotation of given compound.

Concept : This question is based on Meso compound.
Solution :

is inactive so 0°
Final Answer : (3)

87)

Explaining : Match given structure with No. of chiral carbon.

Concept : This question is based on chiral carbon.
Solution :

(A) = 1 chiral carbon

(B) = No chiral carbon due to POS

(D) = 2 chiral carbon

Final Answer : (4)
 88)

Explaining : Identify ambident nucleophile.

Concept : This question is based on Nucleophile which have two different donor site.
Solution :
Nucleophile which attack through two different site called ambident nucleophile.
NH2OH and CH3–NO2 in which both N and O can donate electron pair.
Final Answer : (2)

89)

Explaining : Assertion-Reason type question.

Concept : This question is based on R and S configuration.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

90)

Explaining : Identify compound which act as a electrophile and Nucleophile both.

Concept : This question is based on definition of electrophile and nucleophile.
Solution :
In ground state configuration of carbon is 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
So,

Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Concept :
Solution : Rhizome is found in ginger.
Final Answer : (4)

92) Concept :
Solution : Runner is subaerial stem modification with long internodes.
Final Answer : (2)
93) Concept :
Solution : Pneumatophores are not meant for photosynthesis.
Final Answer : (4)

94) Solution : A-Marginal, B-Axile, C-Parietal, D-Free central, E-Basal.

Final Answer : (1)

95) Concept :
Solution : This is fibrous root system found in wheat (Triticum aestivum).
Final Answer : (1)

96) Concept :
Solution : a–Wings, b–standard, c–keel.
Final Answer : (2)

97) Concept :
Solution : A - Endosperm; B - Scutellum; C - Plumule; D - Radicle.
Final Answer : (1)

98) Concept :
Solution : In mustard and Argemone the ovary is one chambered, but it became two
chambered due to formation of false septum.
Final Answer : (2)

99) Concept :
Solution : A - Twisted; B - Imbricate; C - Valvate; D - Vexillary.
Final Answer : (4)

100) Concept :
Solution : Stilt root of maize and prop root of banyan tree are modified for support..
Final Answer : (3)

101) Concept :
Solution : Cotton has twisted aestivation and Gulmohur have imbricated aestivation so
reason is Not correct explanation of assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

102) Concept :
Solution : Rhizome of ginger is a modification of stem because It bears nodes and internodes.
Final Answer : (2)

103) Concept :
Solution : Liliaceae is a monocot family and in monocots parallel venation occurs.
Final Answer : (1)

104) Concept :
Solution : Opposite phyllotaxy, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present
in Calotropis.
Final Answer : (3)

105) Concept :
Solution : In Alstonia more than two leaves arises from node they are present in whorl
(circular) form hence it is called whorled phyllotaxy.
Final Answer : (3)

106) Concept :
Solution : In some legumes, the leaf base may become swollen and is called as pulvinus.
Final Answer : (2)

107) Concept :
Solution : Thorns are developed from axillary buds.
Final Answer : (2)

108) Solution : Parallel venation is generally found in monocots and reticulate venation is
found in dicots generally.
Final Answer : (1)

109) Concept :
Solution : Mango and coconut have hard endocarp due to brachysclereids.
Final Answer : (3)

110) Concept :
Solution : Vegetative propagation in Eichhornia occurs by offset.
Final Answer : (1)

111) Concept :
Solution : In turmeric stem perform the function of storage and perennation.
Final Answer : (4)

112) Concept :
Solution : All are examples of insectivorous plants.
Final Answer : (4)

113) Concept :
Solution : Ovary changes into fruit generally after fertilization.
Final Answer : (1)
114) Concept :
Solution : Colocasia and zaminkand have corm.
Final Answer : (4)

115) Concept :
Solution : Assertion: Actinomorphic flowers show radial symmetry. This is true. Reason:
Zygomorphic flowers have bilateral symmetry. This is also true.
Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

116) Concept :
Solution : In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminate into flower hence it has limited
growth not unlimited.
Final Answer : (3)

117) Concept :
Solution : Superior ovary is found in mustard and china rose because in mustard and china
rose gynoecium occupies the highest position while the other parts are situated below it.
Final Answer : (1)

118) Explaining : A-i, B-ii, C-iii

• Green algae: Chlorophyll a & b
• Brown algae: Chlorophyll a & c, and fucoxanthin
• Red algae: Chlorophyll a & d, and r-phycoerythrin
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

119) Concept :
Solution : In chinarose, alternate phyllotaxy is present because in chinarose, single leaf arises
at each node in alternate manner.
Final Answer : (1)

120) Solution : Bud arises at the axial of both petiole of simple and compound leaf but not at
the axial leaflets of compound leaf hence it is not present there.
Final Answer : (1)

121) Concept :
Solution : The genus name is written first, followed by the species name.
Final Answer : (2)

122) Concept :
Solution : Species within a genus are similar but not identical.
Final Answer : (3)
123) Concept :
Solution : Genus capitalized, species lowercase, both italicized or underlined (When hand
written).
Final Answer : (2)

124) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Species — Sapiens, Genus — Homo,
Order — Primata, Family — Hominidae
Final Answer : (1)

125) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Taxonomy includes more than just naming.
Final Answer : (3)

126) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Species is the basic and most specific unit of classification.
Final Answer : (3)

127) Explaining : The scientific name of lion is Panthera leo.

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

128) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Author’s name is written after the species.
Final Answer : (2)

129) Explaining : This is the correct ascending order of classification.

Species < Genus < Family < Order < Class < Phylum < Kingdom.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

130) Explaining : Scientific names are not based on local languages but are Latinised and
follow international codes (ICBN or ICZN). Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

131) Explaining : Cyanobacteria like Nostoc and Anabaena fix nitrogen in

heterocysts—specialized, thick-walled, anaerobic cells. Thus, both statements are correct, and
R explains A.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

132) Explaining : Euglenoids behave like plants in sunlight (photosynthesis) and like animals
in the dark (heterotrophic nutrition). Hence, both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

133) Explaining : Mycoplasma are the smallest known cells, not the largest. They can survive
without oxygen, so A is true but R is false.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

134) Explaining : Fungi are heterotrophs, but they store glycogen—not starch (starch is
stored by plants).
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

135) Explaining : Red tides are caused by the sudden multiplication of red-colored
dinoflagellates like Gonyaulax, not red algae.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

136) Explaining : Conidia are asexual spores formed exogenously on conidiophores. Sexual
spores (ascospores) are formed endogenously in asci.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

137) Explaining : i, ii, and iii are correct. Plasmodium is a protozoan, not a fungus
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

138) Explaining : Only ii and iv are correct.

• i is incorrect: Slime moulds form a creeping plasmodium, not pseudopodia.
• iii is incorrect: Basidiospores are produced on basidia, not inside asci.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

139) Explaining : i, iii, iv are correct.

• ii is incorrect: Lichens are symbiotic associations between fungi and algae, not bacteria.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

140) Explaining : Bryophyte - Sciophytes

Pteridophyte - Prothallus
Algae - Chlamydomonas
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

141) Explaining : "Coccus" means spherical—e.g., Streptococcus

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

142) Explaining : Cyanobacteria like Nostoc have heterocysts that fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

143) Explaining : Diatom cell walls are made of silica and resemble a soap box with
overlapping halves.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

144) Explaining : Euglenoids lack a cell wall and instead have a flexible protein-rich layer
called a pellicle, which gives them shape and flexibility.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

145) Explaining : Viroids are plant pathogens composed of only a short strand of circular
RNA without a protein coat, making them smaller than viruses.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

146) Explaining : The red dinoflagellate Gonyaulax multiplies rapidly in oceans, releasing
toxins and turning the water red – a phenomenon called red tide.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

147) Explaining : In lichens, the mycobiont is the fungal partner that provides structure,
water, and minerals, while the algal partner (phycobiont) photosynthesizes.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

148) Explaining : Ascospores are produced endogenously in asci during sexual reproduction.
Conidia (asexual spores) are exogenously produced on conidiophores, not ascospores.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

149) Explaining : Asexual reproduction is rare or absent in most basidiomycetes. They

reproduce sexually by forming basidiospores on basidia. So Statement 2 is correct; Statement
1 is not.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

150) Explaining :
(i) True – Phycomycetes have coenocytic, aseptate mycelium.
(ii) False – Conidia are asexual spores, not sexual.
(iii) True – Deuteromycetes are “imperfect fungi” with only asexual stage known.
(iv) True – Basidiocarps are the fruiting bodies in basidiomycetes.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

151) Explaining : Mucor is a member of Phycomycetes, shown in this figure and is commonly
known as pin mould. It grows on decaying organic matter and has coenocytic mycelium.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

152) Explaining : In gymnosperms, the endosperm is formed before fertilisation, from the
haploid female gametophyte, so both the assertion and the reason are true and R explains A.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

153) Explaining : Gymnosperms are mostly perennial and woody, but they do not produce
flowers or fruits. Their seeds are naked and not enclosed within fruits.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

154) Explaining :
i True – Gymnosperms have well-developed xylem and phloem.
ii False – Double fertilisation occurs only in angiosperms.
iii True – Pollen grain represents the male gametophyte.
iv True – Gymnosperms have naked seeds
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

155) Explaining : A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

A. Microsporangiate cone → produces microspores (iii)
B. Megasporangiate cone → produces female gametophyte (i)
C. Pollen grain → carries male gametes (ii)
D. Ovule → contains egg cell (iv)
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

156) Explaining : In gymnosperms, the ovule is the structure in which the female
gametophyte develops and later gives rise to the egg cell.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

157) Explaining : The microsporangiate cone in gymnosperms like Pinus produces

microspores, which later develop into pollen grains (the male gametophyte). These are carried
by wind to fertilize the ovule in the megasporangiate cone.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

158) Explaining : Red algae (Rhodophyceae) store floridean starch, not mannitol. r-
phycoerythrin is the red pigment present in them.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

159) Explaining : Volvox produces a large non-motile egg and a small motile sperm — this is
oogamy, and the reason explains the assertion correctly.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

160) Explaining : Statement ii is incorrect – liverworts have unicellular rhizoids

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

161) Explaining : Statement ii is incorrect – only heterosporous pteridophytes like Selaginella

show seed-like development.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

162) Explaining : Moss has a two-stage gametophyte – protonema and leafy stage, but the
leafy stage is dominant, not protonema.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

163) Explaining : Only some pteridophytes are heterosporous, like Salvinia. Most are
homosporous
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

164) Explaining : A is true — water is essential for bryophyte fertilisation. But R is false —
male gametes swim through water, not air.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

165) Explaining : In gymnosperms, the ovules are exposed (not enclosed in ovaries), which is
why they are called naked-seeded.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

166) Explaining : Polysiphonia is a red alga. Rest are brown algae.

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

167) Explaining : Statement ii is false – seeds of gymnosperms are naked.

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

168) Explaining : Statement ii is false – Chlorophyceae store starch, not floridean starch.
Mannitol is a reserve food in brown algae.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

169) Explaining : Moss mats help bind soil and reduce erosion — both A and R are true and
related.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

170) Explaining : Chara is multicellular and belongs to green algae, not brown algae. It lacks
fucoxanthin.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

171) Explaining : A-iii, B-i, C-ii

Chlorophyceae — Chlorophyll b
Phaeophyceae — Fucoxanthin
Rhodophyceae — r-Phycoerythrin
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

172) Explaining : A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

• Marchantia reproduces by gemmae (asexual).
• Funaria (moss) disperses spores.
• Ferns have large leaves (Macrophylls)
• Volvox undergoes oogamous reproduction (fusion of dissimilar gametes).
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

173) Explaining : Gemmae are asexual reproductive bodies involved in vegetative

propagation.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)
174) Explaining : Sori are clusters of sporangia found on the underside of fern leaves, where
spores are formed.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

175) Explaining : This diagram is of Salvinia.

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

176) Explaining : A–Capsule, B–Seta, C–Rhizoids

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

177) Explaining : Phaeophyceae vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the
outside by a gelatinous coating of algin.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

178) Explaining : Bract is reduced leaf like structure present at the pedicel of flower and
such flowers are bracteate. And when the floral whorl is in multiple of four then this condition
is called tetramerous.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

179) Explaining : Hepaticopsida is a class of bryophyta.

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

180) Explaining : A-ii, B-i, C-iii

Chlorophyceae — Volvox
Phaeophyceae — Ectocarpus
Rhodophyceae — Polysiphonia
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)