Part I: 50 More GED Life Science Practice Questions

I. Critical Thinking in Biology (10 Questions)

Question 1. A study is investigating the effect of caffeine on short-term memory. Researchers give Group
A a caffeine pill and Group B a placebo pill. Both groups are asked to memorize a list of 20 words. After
one hour, Group A recalls an average of 15 words, while Group B recalls an average of 10 words. Before
concluding that caffeine improves memory, the researchers should first review the variable of sleep, as
the study was advertised as a paid trial and many participants in Group A reported staying up all night
before the test to prepare.

Which statement represents the most logical next step to validate the hypothesis, considering the sleep
variable?

A. The researchers should increase the number of words to 50 to make the memory test more
challenging.

B. The researchers must add a third group (Group C) where participants are given caffeine and are
confirmed to have received 8 hours of sleep.

C. The researchers must ensure that all participants in both Group A and Group B are required to have
the same amount of sleep the night before the test.

D. The researchers should switch Group A to the placebo and Group B to the caffeine to see if the results
are reversible.

Question 2. An ecologist is studying how fertilizer runoff affects a lake. She takes water samples from
two sites: Site A (near a farm) and Site B (isolated wetland). Site A shows an excess of nitrogen and a
sharp decline in fish population. Site B shows low nitrogen and a stable fish population. She concludes
that excess nitrogen directly kills fish. A colleague notes that the excess nitrogen at Site A caused a
massive algal bloom which suffocated the fish by depleting dissolved oxygen.

The colleague’s observation provides an alternative explanation that challenges the conclusion by
introducing what element into the causal chain?

A. A non-biological factor, such as water temperature, was the true cause.

B. The excess nitrogen did not directly kill the fish but caused an intermediate biological event (algal
bloom) that led to the fish death.

C. The sampling technique at Site A was flawed because the nitrogen levels were unstable.

D. Site B should have been treated with excess nitrogen to see if the fish died.
Question 3. A food processing company is trying to prove that its new preservative, Compound Z, is
more effective than the industry standard, Compound S. They test both compounds on identical batches
of meat. After five days, the meat with Compound Z has 10 colonies of bacteria, and the meat with
Compound S has 50 colonies. The company concludes Compound Z is five times more effective. A
competitor points out that the meat with Compound Z was stored at 4

C while the meat with Compound S was stored at 8

C.

The competitor’s concern identifies a flaw in the experimental setup related to which aspect?

A. The accuracy of the bacteria counting method.

B. The failure to maintain a controlled, constant temperature across all experimental groups.

C. The use of a non-standard compound as a control.

D. The conclusion should have been stated in percentage, not absolute numbers.

Question 4. A biologist is observing the growth rate of a bacterial species. She takes a culture sample
and calculates the population density to be 10,000 cells/mL at time zero. After one hour, she calculates
the density to be 20,000 cells/mL. Based on this single doubling, she predicts the population will be
160,000 cells/mL after four hours.

What essential biological assumption is the biologist making that may invalidate her prediction after four
hours?

A. The cells will stop growing after two hours due to lack of space.

B. The rate of cell division (doubling) will continue to be constant despite limited food or waste buildup.

C. The initial measurement of 10,000 cells/mL was too low.

D. The bacteria will switch from asexual to sexual reproduction.

Question 5. A physician is testing a new drug that is supposed to lower blood pressure. She enrolls 50
patients who receive the drug for six weeks. All patients' blood pressure drops by an average of
10mmHg. She concludes the drug works. A skeptic notes that the study did not include a control group
(patients who received no treatment or a placebo).

Why is the absence of a control group the most severe flaw in the study?
A. Without a control, the study cannot measure the effect of the drug's side effects.

B. The study fails to account for the possibility that the patients' blood pressure may have naturally
dropped or dropped due to unrelated changes in diet/stress.

C. The sample size of 50 patients is too small to be statistically relevant.

D. The drug was likely contaminated during the six-week trial period.

Question 6. Scientists discover a fossil that exhibits characteristics of both ancient reptiles (heavy scales,
cold-blooded) and modern birds (hollow bones, complex hip structure). They sequence DNA from
surrounding material and confirm the fossil is related to the ancestry of birds.

Which evolutionary concept is best supported by the discovery of this "transitional" fossil?

A. The theory of genetic drift.

B. The concept of gradual change between ancestral and descendant groups.

C. The principle of vestigial structures.

D. The concept that all organisms evolved from a single-celled ancestor.

Question 7. A marine conservation group claims that excessive motorboat use is stressing local dolphin
populations. They launch a study that tracks dolphin heart rates. When a motorboat passes, the average
heart rate of nearby dolphins spikes by 20bpm. The group releases a report concluding the motorboats
are causing severe, long-term harm.

What critical piece of data is missing from the study that prevents the conclusion of "severe, long-term
harm"?

A. Data on the average speed of the motorboats.

B. Data confirming that the 20bpm spike actually translates to a measure of long-term negative health
or decreased reproduction.

C. A control group of dolphins that have never seen a motorboat.

D. The water temperature when the heart rate was measured.

Question 8. A scientist is investigating the effect of low gravity on plant cells. She grows a control group
of cells on Earth (normal gravity) and an experimental group of cells on a space station (low gravity).
After one month, the space-grown cells show a significant decrease in cell wall thickness. She concludes
that low gravity inhibits cell wall synthesis.
What is the independent variable (the manipulated factor) and the dependent variable (the measured
outcome) in this experiment?

A. Independent variable: Cell wall thickness; Dependent variable: Time.

B. Independent variable: Plant cell type; Dependent variable: Gravity.

C. Independent variable: Level of gravity; Dependent variable: Cell wall thickness.

D. Independent variable: Time; Dependent variable: Nutrient supply.

Question 9. A geneticist is using a computer model to simulate how a population of insects responds to a
new pesticide. The model predicts that the insects will evolve resistance within 50 generations. The
model's key assumption is that the pesticide concentration remains constant. In a real-world field test,
resistance appears in only 10 generations.

The real-world result most strongly suggests what about the actual concentration of the pesticide being
used in the field?

A. The pesticide concentration was significantly lower than the model assumed.

B. The pesticide concentration was likely higher or more frequently applied than the model assumed,
creating a stronger selective pressure.

C. The initial insect population in the field was much larger than in the model.

D. The computer model was fundamentally flawed and should be discarded.

Question 10. A laboratory is trying to confirm that a newly isolated bacteria species is a prokaryote. They
first observe the cell under a microscope.

Which observation from the microscope provides the strongest initial evidence to support the
classification of the organism as a prokaryote?

A. The cell is small in size.

B. The cell has a rigid outer cell wall.

C. The cell lacks a membrane-bound nucleus.

D. The cell reproduces asexually.

II. Characteristics of Life & Classification (5 Questions)

Question 11. A baby bird is born weighing 5 grams. Over the course of three weeks, it consumes large
quantities of food, using the energy to rapidly increase its total cell number and overall mass to 150
grams.

Which characteristic of life is best demonstrated by the increase in cell number and total mass?

A. Homeostasis.

B. Adaptation.

C. Growth.

D. Reproduction.

Question 12. A population of bacteria is exposed to an antibiotic. The majority of the bacteria die, but a
few individuals possess a gene that allows them to neutralize the drug. These survivors reproduce, and
within a few months, the entire population is resistant to the antibiotic.

The change in the heritable traits of the population over time is an example of:

A. Development.

B. Metabolism.

C. Homeostasis.

D. Evolution.

Question 13. A scientist is classifying an organism. The organism is multicellular, immobile, has a
nucleus, and its cell walls are made of chitin. It obtains nutrients by secreting digestive enzymes onto a
dead log and absorbing the resulting sugars.

This organism belongs to which Kingdom?

A. Plantae.

B. Protista.

C. Animalia.

D. Fungi.
Question 14. In the classification system, which taxonomic rank is a broader grouping than Family but a
narrower grouping than Phylum?

A. Genus.

B. Species.

C. Class.

D. Kingdom.

Question 15. The binomial name for the common house cat is Felis catus, and the binomial name for the
African lion is Panthera leo.

Which is the highest shared taxonomic rank between the two species?

A. Species.

B. Genus.

C. Family.

D. Class.

III. Cell Structure and Function (10 Questions)

Question 16. A cell's primary function is to synthesize and secrete massive quantities of digestive
enzymes (proteins) into the bloodstream.

This highly active cell must have an unusually high number of which two organelles working in
coordination?

A. Nucleus and lysosome.

B. Mitochondrion and vacuole.

C. Ribosome (for synthesis) and Golgi apparatus (for packaging/secretion).

D. Chloroplast and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 17. A small, uncharged molecule of oxygen (O

2
) moves from the high concentration in the lungs to the low concentration in the blood across the cell
membranes of the alveolar cells.

This movement of O

across a membrane without the use of energy is an example of:

A. Active transport.

B. Simple diffusion.

C. Endocytosis.

D. Osmosis.

Question 18. A eukaryotic cell is subjected to a poison that completely paralyzes the cell's mitochondria.

Which immediate function of the cell will be most severely impaired?

A. The transcription of DNA into mRNA.

B. The passive diffusion of water (osmosis).

C. The synthesis of new DNA.

D. The active transport of ions and the use of energy for movement.

Question 19. The endoplasmic reticulum forms a network of membranes throughout the eukaryotic cell.

Which two crucial processes occur on or in this network?

A. DNA replication and osmosis.

B. Photosynthesis and ATP synthesis.

C. Protein synthesis (rough ER) and lipid synthesis (smooth ER).

D. Waste breakdown and detoxification.

Question 20. A cell’s membrane-bound organelle contains powerful hydrolytic enzymes that are used to
break down old, damaged organelles and invading bacteria.

This "cleanup" organelle is the:

A. Vacuole.

B. Nucleolus.

C. Lysosome.

D. Golgi apparatus.

Question 21. Plant cells contain large, central structures that store water, nutrients, and waste, and play
a key role in maintaining turgor pressure (cell rigidity).

This structure is the:

A. Cell wall.

B. Central vacuole.

C. Chloroplast.

D. Golgi apparatus.

Question 22. Which two structures are found in plant cells but are absent from all animal cells?

A. Mitochondria and ribosomes.

B. Cell membrane and cytoplasm.

C. Nucleus and lysosomes.

D. Cell wall and chloroplasts.

Question 23. A cell takes in a large, needed glucose molecule. The molecule attaches to a specific carrier
protein in the membrane, which helps it move down its concentration gradient without using cellular
energy (ATP).

This process is called:

A. Osmosis.

B. Pinocytosis.
C. Facilitated diffusion.

D. Active transport.

Question 24. The fluid-filled interior of a cell where most of the metabolic reactions and organelle
suspension takes place is called the:

A. Nucleus.

B. Extracellular space.

C. Cytoplasm (or cytosol).

D. Cell membrane.

Question 25. A red blood cell is placed in a beaker of pure (distilled) water. The cell's internal
environment has a higher solute concentration than the pure water.

What will be the immediate, visible effect on the red blood cell?

A. The cell will shrivel as water leaves.

B. The cell will immediately stop using ATP.

C. The cell will swell and likely burst as water moves in rapidly.

D. The cell will begin photosynthesis.

IV. Mitosis and Meiosis (5 Questions)

Question 26. A student observes a human cell dividing. The goal is to produce two daughter cells that
are genetically identical to the parent cell.

This process is best described as:

A. Mitosis (for growth and repair).

B. Meiosis (for sexual reproduction).

C. Fertilization (for combining gametes).

D. Transcription (for making mRNA).

Question 27. In human cells, the number of chromosomes is 2n=46. A cell is undergoing Meiosis I, and
the homologous chromosomes are lining up.

If Meiosis I proceeds normally, what is the chromosome number in each of the two cells formed at the
end of Meiosis I?

A. 46 duplicated chromosomes.

B. 23 duplicated chromosomes.

C. 23 single chromatids.

D. 46 single chromatids.

Question 28. A failure in the cell cycle occurs in a cell that causes the sister chromatids to begin
separating before they have properly aligned at the center of the cell.

This failure would prevent a cell from passing which crucial checkpoint?

A. G1 checkpoint (cell size).

B. G2 checkpoint (DNA integrity).

C. M checkpoint (spindle fiber attachment/alignment).

D. S phase checkpoint (DNA replication).

Question 29. The random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs during Metaphase I of Meiosis
leads to a large number of possible chromosome combinations in the gametes.

This phenomenon is called:

A. Crossing over.

B. Segregation.

C. Independent assortment.

D. Linkage.

Question 30. Which statement accurately describes the main purpose of mitosis in a multicellular
animal?
A. To produce egg and sperm cells.

B. To reduce the chromosome number.

C. To replace worn-out cells and increase the size of the organism.

D. To shuffle alleles between homologous chromosomes.

V. The Human Body/Physiology (10 Questions)

Question 31. When food is swallowed, the epiglottis covers the trachea, preventing food from entering
the lungs.

This mechanism ensures that the digestive system and which other organ system remain separate and
function correctly?

A. Circulatory system.

B. Nervous system.

C. Endocrine system.

D. Respiratory system.

Question 32. During a bacterial infection, the body releases chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate
and become more permeable, increasing blood flow and allowing more white blood cells to move into
the infected tissue.

This localized, non-specific response to injury or infection is called:

A. Inflammation.

B. Homeostasis.

C. Antibody production.

D. Hormonal regulation.

Question 33. Hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells, is essential for which function of the
circulatory system?

A. Fighting infection.

B. Clotting blood.
C. Transporting oxygen.

D. Producing antibodies.

Question 34. The brainstem controls involuntary actions vital for survival, such as breathing, heart rate,
and digestion.

These involuntary controls are a crucial function of which two organ systems?

A. Skeletal and Muscular.

B. Endocrine and Immune.

C. Nervous and Cardiovascular/Respiratory.

D. Integumentary and Excretory.

Question 35. When the body's water level drops, the pituitary gland releases a hormone that signals the
kidneys to reabsorb more water back into the blood.

This mechanism is an example of the interaction between which two organ systems?

A. Digestive and Muscular.

B. Endocrine and Excretory.

C. Immune and Circulatory.

D. Nervous and Skeletal.

Question 36. The primary function of ligaments is to connect one bone to another bone, providing joint
stability.

This function belongs to which structural system?

A. Muscular system.

B. Nervous system.

C. Skeletal system.

D. Integumentary system.
Question 37. Enzymes are specialized proteins that speed up chemical reactions, such as the breakdown
of food molecules.

The primary enzyme-based chemical breakdown of fats and carbohydrates occurs mostly in which organ
of the digestive tract?

A. Stomach.

B. Large intestine.

C. Small intestine.

D. Esophagus.

Question 38. The axon is the long, slender projection of a neuron that conducts electrical impulses away
from the cell body.

This is the fundamental unit of communication for which body system?

A. Endocrine system.

B. Immune system.

C. Muscular system.

D. Nervous system.

Question 39. A person's body temperature rises. The brain detects the change and signals the sweat
glands to increase activity and the blood vessels near the skin to dilate (expand).

The overall effect of this negative feedback loop is to:

A. Lower blood glucose levels.

B. Decrease the body's core temperature.

C. Increase the heart rate and blood pressure.

D. Promote bone growth.

Question 40. The immune system includes two main types of defense: specific (like antibodies targeting
a known virus) and non-specific (like skin acting as a barrier).
Which component provides the body's non-specific, first line of defense against pathogens?

A. T-cells.

B. Skin (Integumentary system).

C. Antibodies.

D. Lymph nodes.

VI. Genetics, DNA/RNA, & Evolution (10 Questions - Lower Difficulty)

Question 41. In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant over the allele for white fur (b). A
guinea pig with a black phenotype is crossed with a white guinea pig. Half of the offspring are black, and
half are white.

What are the genotypes of the black-furred parent and the white-furred parent?

A. Black: BB; White: bb.

B. Black: BB; White: Bb.

C. Black: Bb; White: BB.

D. Black: Bb; White: bb.

Question 42. The process of DNA replication is often described as semi-conservative.

What does the term "semi-conservative" mean in this context?

A. The new DNA molecule is half RNA.

B. The new DNA molecule is only replicated half of the time.

C. Each new DNA molecule consists of one old (parental) strand and one newly synthesized strand.

D. The entire DNA molecule is copied all at once.

Question 43. A segment of a gene has the DNA sequence: T−A−C−G−A−T.

The messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence that is transcribed from this segment will be:
A. A−T−G−C−T−A.

B. T−A−C−G−A−T.

C. A−U−G−C−U−A.

D. A−U−G−C−T−A.

Question 44. A breeder is selecting cows that produce the highest milk yield to breed the next
generation. This process continues for many years, leading to cows with consistently higher milk yields.

This practice is a form of artificial selection known as:

A. Genetic drift.

B. Gene flow.

C. Selective breeding.

D. Natural selection.

Question 45. A mutation in a human gene leads to the early termination of mRNA translation, meaning
the protein is cut short and is non-functional.

Which cellular organelle will fail to complete the synthesis of the correct protein structure?

A. Nucleus.

B. Mitochondrion.

C. Ribosome.

D. Golgi apparatus.

Question 46. The evolution of long necks in giraffes, where individuals with slightly longer necks could
reach more food and thus survived and reproduced more successfully, is a classic example of:

A. Genetic engineering.

B. Natural selection.

C. Genetic drift.

D. Artificial selection.
Question 47. The molecule that is responsible for carrying the genetic code from the DNA in the nucleus
to the ribosome in the cytoplasm is:

A. Transfer RNA (tRNA).

B. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

C. Messenger RNA (mRNA).

D. DNA polymerase.

Question 48. In a population of birds, the allele for a short beak is dominant (S), and the allele for a long
beak is recessive (s). A parent bird has the genotype SS.

What is the only type of allele this parent can pass on to its offspring for this trait?

A. s.

B. Ss.

C. ss.

D. S.

Question 49. A point mutation occurs in a gene where the DNA sequence T−G−A is changed to T−G−C.
The resulting amino acid coded for remains the same.

This type of mutation, where the DNA sequence changes but the protein sequence does not, is known as
a:

A. Frameshift mutation.

B. Silent mutation.

C. Nonsense mutation.

D. Deletion mutation.

Question 50. The primary source of new alleles (new versions of genes) within a population that acts as
the raw material for evolution is:

A. Natural selection.

B. Sexual reproduction.
C. Mutation.

D. Independent assortment.