MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES

Objective Type Questions

1. Which sector includes manufacturing industries?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
2. Which of the following is a manufacturing industry?
a) Agriculture
b) Banking
c) Iron and steel
d) Fishing
3. Manufacturing adds value by:
a) Extracting minerals
b) Processing raw materials
c) Growing crops
d) Transporting goods
4. Which is known as the “Backbone of Indian development”?
a) IT industry
b) Manufacturing industries
c) Agriculture
d) Tourism
5. Agro-based industries use raw materials from:
a) Minerals
b) Oceans
c) Plants and animals
d) Forests only
6. Which of the following is NOT an agro-based industry?
a) Cotton textile
b) Sugar
c) Jute
d) Cement
7. Which city is known as the “Manchester of India”?
a) Mumbai
b) Kanpur
c) Ahmedabad
d) Chennai
8. The first cotton textile mill in India was set up in:
a) Surat
b) Kolkata
 c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
9. Which state is the largest producer of sugarcane?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) Gujarat
d) Haryana
10. Which of the following is a mineral-based industry?
a) Paper
b) Leather
c) Iron and steel
d) Vegetable oil
11. The basic or key industry is:
a) Sugar
b) Paper
c) Iron and steel
d) Cotton textile
12. Which industry is called the “Sunrise Industry”?
a) Iron and steel
b) IT
c) Jute
d) Cement
13. Which industry is the largest organized industry in India?
a) Textiles
b) Sugar
c) Cement
d) Fertilizers
14. The main raw material for cement is:
a) Limestone
b) Cotton
c) Jute
d) Iron ore
15. Which is the largest producer of cement in India?
a) Rajasthan
b) Punjab
c) Karnataka
d) Tamil Nadu
16. Which city is a major centre for automobile manufacturing?
a) Pune
b) Patna
 c) Jaipur
d) Lucknow
17. Which gas causes acid rain from industries?
a) Oxygen
b) CO₂
c) SO₂
d) Nitrogen
18. Which industry is highly polluting?
a) IT
b) Food processing
c) Iron and steel
d) Handicrafts
19. Which of the following is an IT hub?
a) Lucknow
b) Bengaluru
c) Bhopal
d) Patiala
20. Which factor does NOT affect industrial location?
a) Raw materials
b) Climate
c) Market
d) Capital
21. Chhotanagpur plateau is famous for:
a) Petroleum
b) Minerals
c) Cotton
d) Timber
22. Which port is closest to the Mumbai industrial belt?
a) Kandla
b) Kochi
c) Paradeep
d) Chennai
23. Which fibre is obtained from jute industry?
a) Synthetic
b) Natural
c) Metallic
d) Plastic
24. Which state leads in jute production?
a) West Bengal
b) Bihar
 c) Karnataka
d) Punjab
25. Which industry produces consumer goods?
a) Steel
b) Cement
c) Textile
d) Oil refinery
26. Which industry provides raw material to engineering and construction?
a) Paper
b) Iron and steel
c) Leather
d) Food processing
27. Which of the following is an effect of industrial pollution?
a) Soil fertility increases
b) Biodiversity loss
c) Ozone formation
d) Reduced noise levels
28. Which process reduces industrial water pollution?
a) Dumping waste in rivers
b) Rainwater harvesting
c) Effluent treatment plants
d) Burning waste
29. “Golden Fibre” refers to:
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Silk
d) Rayon
30. The cotton textile industry flourished in Mumbai because:
a) Cheap labour
b) Humid climate
c) Port for export
d) All of the above
31. India’s first successful iron and steel plant was at:
a) Bhilai
b) Rourkela
c) Jamshedpur
d) Durgapur
32. Which is a public sector steel plant?
a) TISCO
b) IISCO
 c) Jindal Steel
d) Tata Steel
33. Which energy source is best for sustainable industries?
a) Coal
b) Diesel
c) Solar
d) Petrol
34. Which industry uses bauxite as raw material?
a) Steel
b) Aluminium
c) Cement
d) Leather
35. The biggest advantage of industrial clusters is:
a) More pollution
b) Cost efficiency
c) Isolation
d) Less market access
36. Which industry’s waste is non-biodegradable?
a) Food
b) Textile
c) Plastic
d) Paper
37. Which one is an agro-based raw material?
a) Mica
b) Coal
c) Cotton
d) Copper
38. The main centre for silk textile industry is:
a) Kanpur
b) Bengaluru
c) Surat
d) Ranchi
39. Which is a labour-intensive industry?
a) IT
b) Textile
c) Oil refinery
d) Petrochemical
40. “Weight-gaining industry” examples include:
a) Bread making
b) Cement
 c) Sugar
d) Steel
Case Studies
Case Study 1
A sugar mill in Uttar Pradesh receives sugarcane from nearby fields. It requires large
quantities of water and labour. The market for jaggery and sugar is also nearby.
41. What type of industry is this? Agro-based industry
42. Which factor mainly influences its location? Raw material (sugarcane)
43. Why is transport cost low? Mills are close to farms → short distance
44. Which raw material is used? Sugarcane
45. Why are sugar mills shifting to southern states? (Choose the most suitable
factor) Higher sucrose + longer crushing season in South India
Case Study 2
A steel plant in Jharkhand is located near coal mines and iron ore mines. It uses heavy
machinery and produces steel for construction and engineering industries.
46. Which type of industry is this? Heavy industry / Basic industry
47. Why was the plant set up near mines? To reduce transport cost of bulky raw
materials
48. Steel is an example of which industry category? Basic industry
49. What type of pollution is most likely? Air pollution
50. Which state houses large iron and steel plants? Jharkhand / Odisha / West
Bengal (any one)
Assertion and Reason
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
1. Assertion (A): Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture.
Reason (R): Industries supply fertilisers, machines, and irrigation equipment
to farms. A
2. Assertion (A): The iron and steel industry is called the basic industry.
Reason (R): All other industries depend directly or indirectly on steel for
machinery and tools. A
3. Assertion (A): Cotton textile industries are mostly located in Maharashtra and
Gujarat.
Reason (R): These regions have a humid climate and access to raw cotton. A
4. Assertion (A): Jute industries in India are declining.
Reason (R): Synthetic fibre products are cheaper and more durable than jute.
A
 5. Assertion (A): Sugar mills are shifting from North India to South India.
Reason (R): Sugarcane in South India has a higher sucrose content and the
crushing season is longer. A
6. Assertion (A): The IT industry is known as a “sunrise industry.”
Reason (R): It is an old, slow-growing industry. B
7. Assertion (A): Chhotanagpur plateau is ideal for heavy industries.
Reason (R): The region has rich mineral resources like coal and iron ore. A
8. Assertion (A): Cement industries are located near limestone deposits.
Reason (R): Limestone is bulky, expensive to transport, and forms the main
raw material. A
9. Assertion (A): Industrial pollution leads to acid rain.
Reason (R): Industries release sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides which
react with atmospheric moisture. A
10. Assertion (A): Small-scale industries generate more employment than large-
scale industries.
Reason (R): They use labour-intensive methods. A
11. Assertion (A): The automobile industry is market-oriented.
Reason (R): Cars and vehicles are bulky and expensive to transport over long
distances. A
12. Assertion (A): Textile industries are the largest industrial employer in India.
Reason (R): They require both skilled and unskilled labour in large numbers. A
13. Assertion (A): Aluminium smelting plants are located near cheap
hydroelectricity sources.
Reason (R): Aluminium production requires large amounts of electricity. A
14. Assertion (A): Industrial clusters reduce production cost.
Reason (R): Shared facilities, transport, and labour reduce operational
expenses. A
15. Assertion (A): Industrialisation leads to urbanisation.
Reason (R): Industries create job opportunities that attract people from rural
areas. A
Map Pointing
Features are marked by numbers in the given political map of India. Identify these
features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the
lines marked in the map.
1. Cotton textile industry
2. Woolen industry
3. Silk industry
Locate and label the following items on the given map with appropriate symbols.
1. Jamshedpur
2. Raurkela
3. Salem
4. Bokaro
POLITICAL PARTIES
Objective Type Questions
1. Which one of the following is the most visible institution in a democracy?
a) Army
b) Courts
c) Political parties
d) Police
2. A political party is a group of people who come together to:
a) Contest elections and hold power
b) Form pressure groups
c) Prepare government budgets
d) Conduct surveys
3. Which of these is NOT a component of a political party?
a) Leaders
b) Active members
c) Followers
d) Army officers
4. How many parties are required in a multi-party system?
a) Two
b) One
c) More than two
d) Only regional parties
5. India has which type of party system?
a) One-party
b) Two-party
c) Multi-party
d) No party
6. Which of the following is a national party?
a) DMK
b) AIADMK
c) CPI-M
d) BJD
7. The Election Commission recognizes a national party based on:
a) The party's age
b) Its performance in national and state elections
c) Donations it receives
d) Number of members
8. Which of the following is a challenge to political parties?
 a) Lack of staff
b) Attracting foreign investors
c) Dynastic succession
d) Conducting rallies
9. The party system in India is shaped by:
a) Federalism
b) Diversity of the country
c) Social divisions
d) All of the above
10. Which of the following is NOT a way to reform political parties?
a) Law to regulate internal affairs
b) Pressure from citizens
c) Encouraging more women’s participation
d) Banning elections
11. Which of the following is an alliance?
a) NDA
b) BJP
c) INC
d) CPI
12. Which party was formed in 1885?
a) BJP
b) BSP
c) Congress
d) NCP
13. Which of these parties advocates for the upliftment of Dalits?
a) NCP
b) BSP
c) CPM
d) DMK
14. Which one of the following is a regional party?
a) BJP
b) Trinamool Congress (TMC)
c) CPI
d) Congress
15. Which party rule was referred to as ‘Hindu-Muslim Unity’?
a) Congress
b) BJP
c) AITC
d) CPI(M)
16. Which of the following is an advantage of multi-party system?
 a) Stable governments
b) Provides various choice to voters
c) Only two choices to voters
d) No coalition governments
17. Who gives recognition to political parties in India?
a) Supreme Court
b) Central government
c) Election Commission of India
d) Parliament
18. Which of the following is a feature of a political party?
a) It promotes collective good
b) It encourages litigation
c) It works only at village level
d) It controls judiciary
19. One-party system is found in:
a) USA
b) China
c) India
d) UK
20. A coalition government is formed when:
a) One party wins majority
b) No party gets clear majority
c) Election Commission announces it
d) President orders it
Case Studies
Case Study 1
Many political parties in India do not hold regular organizational meetings or maintain
membership registers. Decisions are often made by top leaders and the rest of the
members are expected to follow. New leadership rarely emerges because positions are
controlled by influential families. This weakens the internal democracy of political
parties.
Q1. What problem is highlighted in the passage?
a) Lack of ideology
b) Lack of internal democracy
c) Shortage of candidates
d) Scarcity of funds
Q2. Which of the following is a result of this problem?
a) Emergence of fresh leadership
b) More transparency in working
c) Concentration of power in top leaders
d) Increased political participation
 Q3. Which challenge of political parties does this passage describe?
a) Money and muscle power
b) Dynastic succession
c) Lack of meaningful choice
d) Federalism
Case Study 2
India has a multi-party system because of its large social and geographical diversity.
Several regional parties have become powerful in states. No single party often gets a
majority at the national level, leading to coalition governments. Alliances like the NDA
and UPA have been formed to ensure stable governance.
Q4. What type of party system does India follow?
a) One-party system
b) Two-party system
c) Multi-party system
d) No-party system
Q5. What is the main reason for the multi-party system in India?
a) High literacy
b) Social and cultural diversity
c) International influence
d) Large number of elections
Q6. Coalition governments are formed when:
a) One party wins majority
b) No party gets majority
c) The Election Commission orders it
d) Opposition boycotts elections
Case Study 3
Political parties put forward candidates for elections, play a major role in making laws,
shape public opinion through campaigns, and form and run governments. They provide
people with choices and act as a link between government and citizens.
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a function of political parties?
a) Contesting elections
b) Making laws
c) Teaching in schools
d) Forming governments
Q8. How do parties help shape public opinion?
a) Through campaigns and discussions
b) Through Supreme Court orders
c) Through police action
d) Through business advertisements
Q9. Political parties act as a link between:
 a) Legislature and judiciary
b) People and the government
c) Foreign nations
d) Media and private companies
Case Study 4
The Election Commission of India decides whether a party is a national or state party
based on its performance in elections. National parties must secure at least 6% of valid
votes in four or more states and win four Lok Sabha seats, or be recognized as a state
party in four states.
Q10. Who recognizes parties as national or state parties?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Election Commission
d) Parliament
Q11. Which of the following is a national party?
a) DMK
b) BSP
c) BJD
d) TMC
Q12. A party can become a national party by:
a) Winning school elections
b) Getting 6% votes in four states and winning 4 Lok Sabha seats
c) Holding massive rallies
d) Sponsoring social events
Assertion and Reason
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
1. Assertion (A): Political parties are necessary for a democratic government.
Reason (R): Political parties form and run governments, represent different opinions,
and provide choices to voters. A
2. Assertion (A): Most political parties in India face the problem of dynastic succession.
Reason (R): Party leadership is often controlled by families who do not allow new
members to rise. A
3. Assertion (A): One-party system is considered good for democracy.
Reason (R): Voters do not get a real choice in a one-party system. D
4. Assertion (A): India follows a multi-party system.
Reason (R): India is a socially and geographically diverse country. A
 5. Assertion (A): The Election Commission of India recognizes a party as a national party
based on strict criteria.
Reason (R): A party must secure 6% of valid votes in any four states and win at least
four Lok Sabha seats to be recognized nationally. A
6. Assertion (A): Political parties face the challenge of lack of internal democracy.
Reason (R): Ordinary members have little role in decision-making, and top leaders
make most decisions. A
7. Assertion (A): Coalition governments are common in India.
Reason (R): No single party often wins a clear majority in Lok Sabha elections.
8. Assertion (A): Regional parties have become very important in Indian politics. A
Reason (R): They represent local interests and have strong support in particular states.
9. Assertion (A): Money power is not a challenge for political parties. A
Reason (R): Political parties require large funds for campaigning and advertisements.
C
10. Assertion (A): Political parties help in the formation of public opinion.
Reason (R): They use rallies, speeches, media, and campaigns to influence people. A

MAKING OF THE GLOBAL WORLD

Objective Type Questions
1. The ancient ‘Silk Routes’ mainly connected Asia with which region?
A. Africa
B. Europe
C. Australia
D. South America
2. Which product was most famously traded along the Silk Route?
A. Cotton
B. Silk
C. Tea
D. Wheat
3. Which disease was carried to the Americas by European conquerors?
A. Polio
B. Smallpox
C. Malaria
D. Cholera
4. Which crop from the Americas changed the European diet?
A. Rice
B. Maize
C. Potato
D. Wheat
5. Which century saw the beginning of global transfers of food and population?
A. 10th century
B. 15th century
 C. 5th century
D. 20th century
6. Rinderpest first entered Africa through:
A. Indian workers
B. European tourists
C. Asian cattle
D. American traders
7. Indentured labourers were mainly recruited for work on:
A. Railways
B. Plantations
C. Construction sites
D. Mines
8. The term ‘Indenture’ literally means:
A. Compulsory labour
B. Work contract
C. Free migration
D. Slave trade
9. Which country witnessed the arrival of Indian indentured workers in large numbers?
A. Fiji
B. USA
C. Germany
D. Japan
10. The Industrial Revolution began in:
A. France
B. Germany
C. Britain
D. Italy
11. The invention that helped in transporting perishable foods was:
A. Steam engine
B. Refrigerated ship
C. Typewriter
D. Telephone
12. Which law restricted the import of food grains into Britain?
A. Salt Laws
B. Corn Laws
C. Iron Laws
D. Land Laws
13. The Great Depression began in:
A. 1901
B. 1929
 C. 1939
D. 1950
14. The Bretton Woods Conference took place in:
A. Germany
B. France
C. USA
D. Japan
15. The main institution created under Bretton Woods was:
A. WHO
B. IMF
C. NATO
D. UNESCO
16. The Second World War ended in the year:
A. 1940
B. 1945
C. 1950
D. 1939
17. Which country became the strongest economic power after WWII?
A. Japan
B. USA
C. Britain
D. Russia
18. Globalisation in the modern sense strengthened after:
A. 1950s
B. 1970s
C. 1990s
D. 1960s
19. The G-7 is a group of:
A. Developing nations
B. Rich, industrial nations
C. Asian countries
D. African countries
20. The European powers scrambled for colonies in the:
A. 16th century
B. 18th century
C. 19th century
D. 20th century
21. Which region was most affected by the spread of rinderpest?
A. Asia
B. Africa
 C. Europe
D. America
22. Which term refers to the free movement of capital, goods, and labour?
A. Isolation
B. Colonialism
C. Globalisation
D. Agriculture
23. Which continent was known as the ‘New World’?
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. America
24. Europeans transported which crop from their colonies to Europe?
A. Wool
B. Sugarcane
C. Barley
D. Peanuts
25. Which country introduced opium in China?
A. Britain
B. France
C. India
D. Japan
26. The First World War was fought during:
A. 1914–1918
B. 1910–1914
C. 1939–1945
D. 1900–1910
27. Which country financed Britain’s war expenses during WWI?
A. India
B. USA
C. Japan
D. France
28. Which group benefited most from the Corn Laws?
A. Industrialists
B. Workers
C. Landowners
D. Farmers
29. What was a major cause of the Great Depression?
A. Low agricultural output
B. Overproduction of goods
 C. Rise in wages
D. Low investment
30. Which of the following was a result of the Great Depression?
A. Fall in unemployment
B. Rise in prices
C. Collapse of banks
D. Industrial development
31. Which region became a major destination for Indian labourers?
A. Africa
B. Europe
C. Australia
D. Antarctica
32. Which term refers to labourers who worked on fixed contracts?
A. Slaves
B. Indentured workers
C. Sharecroppers
D. Tenants
33. Who were the first Europeans to discover the sea route to India?
A. British
B. Portuguese
C. Dutch
D. French
34. What did Europeans bring to Africa along with trade goods?
A. Television
B. Schools
C. Diseases
D. Computers
35. Which event led to the mass migration from Europe to America in the 19th century?
A. Potato famine
B. World War
C. Earthquakes
D. Drought
36. Which staple crop became important in Africa after its introduction from the Americas?
A. Millet
B. Cassava
C. Rice
D. Barley
37. Which of the following was a consequence of rinderpest in Africa?
A. Growth of cattle population
B. Famine
 C. Rise in employment
D. Industrialisation
38. Which factor attracted Europeans to America?
A. Free land
B. Water scarcity
C. High population
D. Poor climate
39. Which technology transformed the meat industry?
A. Refrigerated ships
B. Electric motor
C. Telegraph
D. Steam trains
40. Which financial institution gives short-term loans to countries?
A. WHO
B. IMF
C. FAO
D. UNESCO
41. Which institution gives long-term development loans?
A. World Bank
B. WTO
C. IMF
D. UNICEF
42. Tariffs refer to:
A. Import taxes
B. Insurance fees
C. Labour wages
D. Bank interest
43. Which country was NOT a G-7 member originally?
A. Italy
B. France
C. Russia
D. Japan
44. Which policy led to free movement of goods after WWII?
A. Protectionism
B. Colonialism
C. Liberalisation
D. Global isolation
45. The Silk Route also facilitated the spread of:
A. Electricity
B. Religion and culture
 C. Computers
D. Trains
46. Which empire dominated world trade in the 19th century?
A. British
B. Roman
C. Ottoman
D. Chinese
47. Which event ended the age of economic stability after 1945?
A. World War I
B. Oil shocks of 1970s
C. Cold War
D. Asian Tsunami
48. Who controlled most of the world’s wealth post-1945?
A. European Union
B. G-7 nations
C. ASEAN
D. SAARC
49. Which of the following helped create a ‘borderless world’?
A. Wars
B. Migration controls
C. Global communication
D. Trade restrictions
50. The term ‘exchange rate’ refers to:
A. Price of domestic goods
B. Value of one currency in relation to another
C. Tax rate on goods
D. Loan amount
Case Studies
Case Study 1
For centuries before globalisation became a buzzword, long-distance cultural and economic
exchanges existed between regions. The ancient Silk Routes linked vast regions of Asia with
Europe. Along with silk, precious metals, spices, and pottery, ideas, beliefs, and technologies
also moved. Buddhism spread from India to China through these routes. These early
exchanges were not only about trade but also about cultural contact and migration.
1. Which continents were primarily connected through the ancient Silk Routes?
A. Asia and Europe
B. America and Africa
C. Australia and Asia
D. Asia and America
2. Besides goods, what else travelled through the Silk Routes?
A. Coal and iron
 B. Animals and minerals
C. Ideas and beliefs
D. Weapons and armies
3. Which religion spread to China through the Silk Routes?
A. Islam
B. Hinduism
C. Buddhism
D. Christianity
4. The movement of goods and ideas through the Silk Routes is an example of:
A. Regionalisation
B. Early globalisation
C. Westernisation
D. Industrialisation
5. How did the Silk Routes assist in shaping societies?
The Silk Routes shaped societies by enabling trade, migration, and cultural
exchange. Along with goods, religions like Buddhism, new technologies, and ideas
travelled across regions, connecting distant civilizations and promoting early
global interaction.
Case Study 2
In the 1890s, a cattle disease called rinderpest arrived in Africa from Asia. It spread rapidly
and destroyed 90% of the cattle population. Since African communities depended heavily on
cattle for food, labour, and wealth, this outbreak led to widespread famine. The loss of cattle
also made it easier for European colonisers to conquer the region, as local people were
weakened and less able to resist.
1. Rinderpest was a disease affecting:
A. Humans
B. Cattle
C. Birds
D. Crops
2. How much of Africa’s cattle population was destroyed by rinderpest?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 90%
3. Which of the following was a major consequence of rinderpest?
A. Industrial growth
B. Decline in European rule
C. Famines
D. Rise in cattle population
4. Rinderpest indirectly helped European powers because:
A. It increased local wealth
 B. It weakened African resistance
C. It destroyed European crops
D. It caused global migration
5. Explain in 30–40 words how rinderpest changed the socio-economic conditions of
Africa.
Rinderpest destroyed most of Africa’s cattle, causing famine, loss of livelihood,
and social collapse. Communities became economically weak and vulnerable.
This weakened resistance allowed European colonisers to conquer African
regions more easily.

Case Study 3
In the 19th century, many Indians were taken as indentured labourers to work in plantations in
Fiji, Trinidad, Mauritius, and the Caribbean. They signed contracts that promised wages and
return travel, but most of these promises were not fulfilled. Many workers faced harsh working
conditions, long hours, and poor treatment. Yet, over time, these labourers created new
cultural identities, mixing Indian traditions with local customs.
1. Indentured labourers were mainly taken to work on:
A. Factories
B. Shipyards
C. Plantations
D. Mines
2. Which of the following regions received a large number of Indian indentured workers?
A. Europe
B. Australia
C. Caribbean
D. Russia
3. The contracts signed by indentured labourers were often:
A. Fair and clear
B. Very beneficial
C. Exploitative
D. Short and simple
4. Which statement describes a long-term outcome of indenture?
A. Complete loss of Indian culture
B. Creation of mixed cultural identities
C. No impact on society
D. Decline of plantation economies
5. In 20–30 words, describe the hardships faced by indentured labourers.
Indentured labourers faced long working hours, harsh discipline, low wages, and
poor living conditions. Many were cheated by false contracts and suffered
physical and emotional hardship.
Case Study 4
The Great Depression of 1929 affected countries worldwide. It led to a collapse in prices,
unemployment, and bank failures. In agricultural regions, farmers could not sell their produce
because prices had dropped sharply. Many industries shut down. Countries with strong
economic ties to the USA suffered the most. The Depression also led to political instability in
several nations.
1. The Great Depression began in the year:
A. 1914
B. 1929
C. 1945
D. 1900
2. Which group faced severe losses due to falling produce prices?
A. Industrialists
B. Farmers
C. Teachers
D. Doctors
3. Why did many industries shut down during the Depression?
A. Labour shortage
B. High wages
C. Low demand
D. Government orders
4. Which countries suffered the most during the Depression?
A. Those linked economically to the USA
B. Isolated countries
C. Desert nations
D. Oil-producing countries
5. Explain in 30–40 words how the Great Depression affected ordinary people.
Ordinary people faced job losses, wage cuts, hunger, and homelessness. Farmers
could not sell their crops, and many families lost their savings due to bank
failures. Daily life became extremely uncertain and difficult.
Case Study 5
After World War II, global leaders met at Bretton Woods to design a financial system that
would prevent another economic crisis like the Great Depression. They created the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) to maintain exchange rate stability and the World Bank
to finance reconstruction and development. This system brought decades of economic
growth and stability, especially in Western countries.
1. Bretton Woods resulted in the creation of the:
A. WHO
B. IMF and World Bank
C. UNESCO
D. NATO
2. The IMF was established mainly to:
A. Conduct elections
B. Stabilise currency exchange rates
C. Train soldiers
D. Regulate environment
3. The World Bank mainly provides:
A. Short-term loans
B. Defence funds
C. Long-term development loans
D. Agricultural subsidies
4. The Bretton Woods system aimed to prevent:
A. Military conflicts
B. Another economic crisis
C. Spread of diseases
D. Global migration
5. In 25–40 words, explain why the Bretton Woods system was important for world
economic stability.
The Bretton Woods system ensured global financial stability by fixing exchange
rates and supporting reconstruction after World War II. The IMF and World Bank
helped countries maintain economic balance, preventing crises and enabling
long-term growth.
Assertion and Reason
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A): The Silk Routes served as important links between Asia and
Europe for centuries.
Reason (R): These routes carried goods, people, and ideas across continents. A
2. Assertion (A): The introduction of rinderpest in Africa caused major social and
economic disruption.
Reason (R): Rinderpest destroyed a large part of the cattle population, which
was central to African life. A
3. Assertion (A): Potato became a highly popular crop in Europe after it was
introduced from the Americas.
Reason (R): Potato could grow in difficult climates and supported larger
populations. A
4. Assertion (A): The Corn Laws were abolished in Britain in 1846.
Reason (R): Free trade was believed to make food cheaper and improve living
standards. A
5. Assertion (A): Indian indentured labourers were treated fairly in plantation
colonies.
Reason (R): The contracts protected their wages and working conditions.
BOTH FALSE
6. Assertion (A): The Great Depression affected agricultural communities
severely.
Reason (R): Crop prices fell drastically due to overproduction and low demand.
A
7. Assertion (A): The First World War had a significant global impact.
Reason (R): European powers borrowed heavily from the USA, creating
economic links. A
8. Assertion (A): The formation of IMF and World Bank helped stabilise global
financial systems after World War II.
Reason (R): These institutions controlled global oil prices. C
9. Assertion (A): After the 1970s, the Bretton Woods system collapsed.
Reason (R): Countries shifted to floating exchange rates instead of fixed ones.
A
10. Assertion (A): Globalisation increased after the 1990s.
Reason (R): Many countries reduced restrictions on trade and investment. A
11. Assertion (A): Britain emerged as the world’s leading economy in the 19th
century.
Reason (R): It industrialised early and expanded its colonial empire. A
12. Assertion (A): The spread of rinderpest helped European colonisers.
Reason (R): African people became weaker and less capable of resisting
colonial control. A
13. Assertion (A): The USA became the strongest economic power after World War
II.
Reason (R): Its economy was less damaged and it supplied goods and loans to
other nations. A
14. Assertion (A): Indentured labour migration declined after 1920.
Reason (R): Plantation owners no longer needed labour. C
15. Assertion (A): Silk Routes were used for the movement of goods and culture.
Reason (R): They were exclusively controlled by one empire throughout their
history. C
16. Assertion (A): The Industrial Revolution increased demand for raw materials
from colonies.
Reason (R): New industries required constant supply of cotton, sugar, and
minerals. A
 17. Assertion (A): Many Europeans migrated to America in the 19th century.
Reason (R): America offered better job opportunities and cheap land. A
18. Assertion (A): The Great Depression led to political instability.
Reason (R): Economic hardships caused people to lose faith in their
governments. A
19. Assertion (A): The World Bank provides long-term development loans.
Reason (R): These loans help countries rebuild infrastructure and promote
growth. A
20. Assertion (A): Globalisation leads to increased interdependence among
nations.
Reason (R): It involves greater movement of goods, capital, and technology. A
21. Assertion (A): Britain removed the Corn Laws to allow free entry of food grains.
Reason (R): Low import prices benefitted industrial workers by reducing cost of
living. A
22. Assertion (A): The exchange rate system established under Bretton Woods
promoted global stability.
Reason (R): Fixed exchange rates reduced uncertainty in international trade. A
23. Assertion (A): Many indentured labourers settled permanently in plantation
colonies.
Reason (R): Return passages were often denied or unaffordable. A
24. Assertion (A): Industrialisation contributed to urbanisation.
Reason (R): Industries created employment, drawing people from rural to
urban areas. A
25. Assertion (A): The global economy after the 1950s saw rapid growth.
Reason (R): The Bretton Woods institutions supported investment and
reconstruction. A
GLOBALIZATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY
Fill in the blanks
1. Globalization mainly refers to increasing interconnectedness in global
trade/economy.
2. Which organization sets the rules of international trade? WTO (World Trade
Organization)
3. The rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as globalization.
4. Which of the following is a major factor that has enabled globalization? technology
(transport & communication)
5. MNC stands for Multinational Corporation.
6. MNCs usually set up production in places where labour is cheap / costs are low.
7. Which sector has attracted the highest FDI in India in recent years? services / IT
sector
8. Foreign investment means investment made by foreign companies.
 9. Globalization in India started increasing significantly after the reforms of 1991
economic reforms.
10. Which Indian city is known as the hub of the IT sector? Bengaluru
11. Outsourcing refers to getting services from outside the country.
12. SEZ stands for Special Economic Zone.
13. Which of the following is an example of a global product? Coca-Cola / global brand
14. Globalization has led to increased competition among producers / companies.
15. WTO stands for World Trade Organization.
16. Which industry in India benefited most after globalization? IT industry
17. The main motive of MNCs is profit making.
18. FDI stands for Foreign Direct Investment.
19. Which among the following is a negative impact of globalization? loss to small
producers
20. Which of the following is NOT a feature of globalization? government ownership
21. Globalization helps companies to find cheap labour and new markets.
22. Liberalization means reducing government restrictions.
23. The process of removing trade barriers is called liberalization.
24. The entry of MNCs in a country increases competition.
25. A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called a
multinational corporation (MNC).
26. Which of the following is an example of a trade barrier? import duty / tariff
27. The New Economic Policy (NEP) in India was introduced in which year? 1991
28. Which factor has NOT contributed to globalization? high trade barriers
29. Cheap availability of labour in India attracts MNCs.
30. Which of the following is a benefit of globalization for consumers? more choices &
better quality

Case Studies
Case Study 1
In the early 1990s, India opened its markets to foreign companies through liberalization. Many
MNCs started investing in India because of cheap labour, availability of skilled workers, and a
large consumer base. Companies like Hyundai, Samsung, and Nestlé expanded their
production in India. These MNCs brought new technologies and provided employment.
However, small Indian companies faced tough competition due to the entry of global brands.
1. What was the major change that allowed MNCs to enter India in the 1990s?
a) Privatization
b) Globalization
c) Liberalization
d) Nationalization
2. MNCs were attracted to India mainly because of _____.
a) lack of workers
 b) cheap and skilled labour
c) absence of consumers
d) high production cost
3. The entry of MNCs resulted in ______.
a) decline of technology
b) more employment opportunities
c) no impact on small companies
d) fewer goods in the market
4. Which of the following faced problems due to competition from global brands?
a) Large industries
b) Small manufacturers
c) Foreign companies
d) Government
5. The expansion of companies like Hyundai and Nestlé is an example of ______.
a) local trade
b) self-help groups
c) multinational activities
d) domestic banking

Case Study 2
A US-based company decides to outsource its customer service to India because Indian
workers speak good English and salary levels are lower compared to developed countries.
Thousands of young Indians get jobs in call centres and BPOs. Outsourcing helps the US
company reduce costs while India benefits through employment generation. However, long
night shifts and job stress become common issues.
1. Why did the US company choose to outsource services to India?
a) Lack of English-speaking workers
b) High labour cost in India
c) Lower salary levels in India
d) Poor communication skills
2. Outsourcing mainly helps foreign companies to ______.
a) increase cost
b) reduce cost
c) reduce labour
d) increase taxes
3. What benefit did India get from outsourcing?
a) Job losses
b) Employment generation
c) Closure of call centres
d) Reduced trade
 4. A negative side of outsourcing mentioned in the case is ______.
a) Increase in trade barriers
b) More holidays
c) Stress and night shifts
d) Technological backwardness
5. The rise of call centres in India is mainly due to ______.
a) Globalization
b) Nationalization
c) Privatization
d) Industrial sickness
Case Study 3
India is a member of the WTO. Developing countries argue that the rules of WTO often favour
the rich nations. For example, developed nations demand that developing countries remove
trade barriers, but they themselves continue to protect their own farmers through subsidies.
This creates an unequal trading system where poorer countries cannot compete fairly.
1. Which organization is responsible for setting global trade rules?
a) WHO
b) WTO
c) IMF
d) UNESCO
2. According to developing countries, WTO rules mainly favour ______.
a) poor nations
b) rich nations
c) farmers in India
d) call centre workers
3. Developed countries protect their farmers by giving them ______.
a) subsidies
b) penalties
c) loans
d) taxes
4. What do developed nations expect from developing countries?
a) To increase trade barriers
b) To remove trade barriers
c) To avoid global trade
d) To reduce exports
5. The situation described in the case represents ______.
a) fair competition
b) equal opportunities
c) unequal trade practices
d) no globalization
Case Study 4
After globalization, Indian markets were flooded with foreign products such as smartphones,
cosmetics, and packaged foods. Due to competition, companies reduced prices and improved
the quality of goods. Consumers now have more choices and better services. However, over-
dependency on foreign goods has increased.
1. After globalization, Indian consumers get ______.
a) fewer choices
b) more choices
c) only local products
d) expensive goods
2. Competition among companies leads to ______.
a) higher prices
b) poor quality
c) reduced prices and better quality
d) no improvement
3. A disadvantage mentioned in the case is ______.
a) lack of foreign goods
b) over-dependence on foreign products
c) decrease in technology
d) fewer brands
4. Which sector saw improvement in services due to globalization?
a) Transport only
b) Banking and telecom
c) Mining
d) Agriculture
5. Consumers benefit from globalization mainly due to ______.
a) limited choices
b) increased competition
c) higher taxes
d) trade barriers

Assertion and Reason

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
1. Assertion (A): Globalization has increased the availability of goods for
consumers.
Reason (R): Globalization increases competition among companies, which
improves quality and variety. A
2. Assertion (A): MNCs set up production in developing countries.
Reason (R): Developing countries have cheap labour and a large consumer
base. A
3. Assertion (A): Liberalization reduces government control over the economy.
Reason (R): Liberalization helps in removing trade barriers like tariffs and
quotas. A
4. Assertion (A): WTO supports free and fair trade among nations.
Reason (R): All WTO members follow the rules equally without any bias. C
5. Assertion (A): Outsourcing has generated employment opportunities in India.
Reason (R): Many foreign companies have shifted their entire factories to India.
C
6. Assertion (A): Globalization has benefited skilled workers more than unskilled
workers.
Reason (R): Skilled workers are better able to adapt to new technologies
brought by MNCs. A
7. Assertion (A): Small producers in India face difficulty due to globalization.
Reason (R): They cannot compete with the quality and prices of large MNCs. A
8. Assertion (A): India removed trade barriers after 1991.
Reason (R): The New Economic Policy promoted liberalization, privatization,
and globalization. A
9. Assertion (A): Globalization increases foreign investment in a country.
Reason (R): Foreign companies invest only if a country restricts imports. C
10. Assertion (A): Globalization leads to greater interdependence among nations.
Reason (R): Countries specialize in producing only those goods in which they
have an advantage. A