23-06-2024

1015CMD303003240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Swimming is possible on account of :-

(1) Newton's first law of motion

(2) Newton's second law of motion
(3) Newton's third law of motion
(4) Newton's law of gravitation

2)

A body under the action of a force N acquires an acceleration of 5 m/s2. The mass of the
body is.

(1) 2 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) 6 kg

3) A cork of mass 10gm is floating on water net force on the cork is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 10–3 N
(3) 10–2 N
(4) 0

4) Three identical blocks of mass m = 2kg are drawn by a force of 10.2 N on frictionless surface. The

tension (in N) in the string between the blocks B and C is :

(1) 9.2
(2) 8
(3) 3.4
(4) 9.8

5)

In accordance with Newton’s third law of motion

(1) The vector sum of action and reaction is always zero
(2) For appearance of action and reaction, physical contact is not necessary
(3) This law is applicable whether the bodies are at rest or they are in motion
(4) All of these

6) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a speed of 100 m/s hits perpendicular to wall and rebounds with
the same speed. If the contact time is (1/50) s, the force applied on the wall is :-

(1) 104 N
(2) 2 × 104 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 8 N

7) Six forces are applied on a body of mass = 10 kg. Find out acceleration of the body :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 0.5 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

8) The linear momentum P of a body varies with time and is given by the equation P = x + yt2 where
x and y are constants. The net force acting on the body for a one dimensional motion is :-

(1) yt2
(2) constant

(3)

(4) 2yt

9) A rigid ball of mass 'm' strikes a rigid wall at 30° and gets reflected without loss of
speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) A stone of mass 5 kg is lying on the floor of a train which is accelerating with 3 m/s2. The net
force acting on the stone is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 15 N
(4) 20 N

11) A player catches a ball of 100 gm moving with a speed 5 m/s. If the time taken to complete the
catch is 0.125 s. The force exerted on the player's hand is :-

(1) 8 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 0 N

12) A hammer of mass 5 kg is moving with a speed 10 m/s strikes a wall and comes to rest if the
contact time was 0.2 seconds, then force excreted will be :-

(1) 200 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 300 N
(4) 350 N

13) When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with constant ?

(1) Momentum
(2) Velocity
(3) Speed
(4) Acceleration

14) A Body of mass 50 gm is moving with a constant velocity of 2 cm/s on a horizontal frictionless
table. The force on the table by the body is :-

(1) 39200 dyne

(2) 160 dyne
(3) 49000 dyne
(4) 50,000 dyne

15) Action and reaction forces acts on :-

(1) The same body
(2) different bodies
(3) Horizontal surface
(4) Nothing particular can be said

16) For the diagram shown above the normal force acting between 5
kg and 3 kg will be :-

(1) 16 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 32 N

17) Three blocks are placed as shown in figure. Mass of A, B and C are
m1, m2 and m3 respectively. The force exerted by block C on block B is :-

(1) m1g
(2) (m1 + m2)g
(3) m2g
(4) (m1 + m2 + m3)g

18) Momentum-time come for two particles A and B is shown. The ratio of force on A and B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Assertion (A) :- Definite integral of a function is defined as the area under the curve
representing the function. Reason (R) :- Definite integral of a function is always positive.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

20) Find value of logaa :

(1) 0
(2) 10
(3) 1
(4) 2

21) A particle moves on a rectangular path of dimensions 6 m × 8m. The displacement of the particle
when it reaches from one end of diagonal to another end of diagonal :

(1) 14 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 12 m

22) A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 100 m completes one revolution in 4 minutes. What
is his average speed in one full revolution :-

(1) 50π m/sec

(2) 50π m/min
(3) 50 m/min
(4) 100π m/min

23) If displacement of a particle is zero, then the distance covered :

(1) must be zero

(2) may or may not be zero
(3) cannot be zero
(4) depends upon the particle

24) If a particle moves from point P(2, 3, 5) to point Q(3, 4, 5). Its displacement vector be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) An insect starts climbing a conical birthday hat of radius 5 cm at base. It starts from point A and
reaches point B, taking spiral path on the hat. Find out its displacement if height is 12 cm:-
(1) 12 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 25 cm

26) A body covers one-third of the time with a speed v1 the second one-third of the time with a speed
v2, and the last one-third of the time with a speed v3. The average speed is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

Solve :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

28) For y = cosx, the shaded area is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) 0

29) Approximate value of (1.02)4 is :-

(1) 1.02
(2) 1.04
(3) 1.08
(4) 4.08

30) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

31) For a particle of mass m and moving with speed v, its kinetic energy is given as :-

Nature of K vs v graph will be :-

(1) Straight line graph

(2) Parabolic graph
(3) Circular graph
(4) Elliptical graph

32) Statement-1 :- For a moving particle, magnitude of displacement may be greater than the
distance.
Statement-2 :- For a particle moving on a straight line, magnitude of the displacement is always
equal to the distance.

(1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.

(2) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct.
(4) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.

33) A particle is moving along a square path of side 'a', as shown in figure.
Distance of covered by the particle, in motion from A to D, will be :-
(1) a
(2) 2a
(3)
(4) 3a

34) A particle moves 30 m due east, then turns left and moves for another 40 m. Displacement of the
particle is :-

(1) 50 m, 37° North of East

(2) 50 m, 53° North of East
(3) 10 m, 37° North of East
(4) 10 m, 53° North of East

35) A particle covers first half of the total distance with speed 12 m/s and remaining half distance
with speed 8 m/s. Average speed of the particle in complete motion is :-

(1) 9.6 m/s

(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 19.8 m/s

SECTION-B

1) n balls each of mass m strikes each second on a surface with speed v and rebound back with same
speed, then the average force experienced by the surface will be :-

(1) mnv
(2) 2 mnv
(3) 4 mnv
(4) None of these

2) A rocket of initial mass 1500 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 10 kg/s with a relative speed of
5000 m/s. What is the acceleration of the rocket 50 seconds after the blast, neglecting gravity ?

(1) 40 ms–2
(2) 25 ms–2
(3) 50 ms–2
(4) 100 ms–2

3) 5 discs each of mass m are placed one above the other. The force on the first from the bottom
because of the remaining on the top is :

(1) mg
(2) 2 mg
(3) 3 mg
(4) 4 mg

4) A 30 kg body is pulled by a rope of 4m long on a frictionless horizontal surface by 96 N. If mass of

the rope is 2 kg find force exerted by the string on body

(1) 96 N
(2) 92 N
(3) 94 N
(4) 90 N

5) A machine gun is mounted on a car on a horizontal frictionless surface. At some instant the gun
fires bullets of mass 10 gm with a velocity of 500 m/sec with respect to the car. The number of
bullets fired per second is ten. The average thrust on the system is :-

(1) 550 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 250 N
(4) 250 dyne

6) A rope of length 'L' is pulled by a constant force 'F'. What is the tension is the rope at a distance x
from the end where the force is applied.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Find the interaction force between 3 kg and 4 kg.

(1) 20 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 35 N
8) The shaded area is :-

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) can't say anything

9) (1 + x)–n where x << 1 can be written as :-

(1) 1 + nx
(2) 1 – nx
(3) x + n
(4) x – n

10) If velocity of a particle is given by V = (2t + 5)m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 2s
is:-

(1) 7 m/s

(2)

(3) 14 m/s

(4)

11) A moving car possesses average speeds of 5 ms–1, 10 ms–1 and 15 ms–1 in the first, second, and
third seconds respectively. What is the total distance covered by the car in these 3 s?

(1) 15 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 55 m
(4) 45 m

12) A car covers a distance of 5 km in 5 mins, its average speed is equal to :

(1) 1 km/hr
(2) 5 km/hr
(3) 60 km/hr
(4) 120 km/hr
13) is :-

(1) 3
(2) –3
(3) 9
(4) 27

14) For y vs x graph shown in figure, match value of the following

definite integrations :-

Column-I Column-II

(P) (i) 10

(Q) (ii) 50

(R) (iii) 60

(1) P → i, Q → ii, R → iii

(2) P → i, Q → iii, R → ii
(3) P → ii, Q → i, R → iii
(4) P → ii, Q → iii, R → i

15) Value of log216 is :-

(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
1) The first emission line of hydrogen atomic spectrum in the Balmer series appears find wave no.
(R = Rydberg constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Find out ratio of following for photon

(νmax.)Lyman : (νmax)Brackett

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

3) If the de-Broglie wavelength of the fourth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 4Å, the circumference of
the orbit will be:-

(1) 4 Å
(2) 4 nm
(3) 16 Å
(4) 16 nm

4) Spectrum region of Lyman series of H-atom is :-

(1) Infrared
(2) Visible
(3) Ultra violet
(4) None of these

5) What is the maximum wavelength of line in the Lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

6) In H-atom if an e– moves from 5th orbit to ground state in multi steps then find number of spectral
lines without Lyman series :-

(1) 10
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

7) A ball weight 50 g moves with a velocity of 6.6 × 105 m/s then find the de-Broglie wavelength
associated with it :-

(1) 2 × 10–38 m
(2) 5 × 10–37 m
(3) 2 × 10–27 m
(4) 2 × 10–30 m

8) If uncertainty in position of an e– is 1Å then find uncertainty in momentum in kg m/s :-

(1) 0.527 × 10–34

(2) 0.527 × 10–24
(3) 0.527 × 10–11
(4) 0.527 × 10–44

9) Which values of n, ℓ and m are correct for 3dz orbital ?

2

n ℓ m

(1) 3 1 1

(2) 3 3 0

(3) 3 2 0

(4) 3 0 0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) When 3d orbital is completely filled, the new electron enters into :-

(1) 4p orbital
(2) 4f orbital
(3) 4s orbital
(4) 4d orbital

11) Which of the following is the most correct expression for Heisenberg's uncertainty principle ?

Δx.ΔP =
(1)
 Δx.Δv =
(2)

Δx.ΔP ≤
(3)

Δx.ΔP ≥
(4)

12) For a valid Bohr orbit, its circumfrence should be

(1) = n λ
(2) = (n – 1) λ
(3) > n λ
(4) < n λ

13) The number of electrons in the M-shell of the element with atomic number 24 is :-

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 13

14) The orbital diagram in which aufbau principle is violated is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The total spin resulting from a d9 configuration is

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 1

(4)

16) In potassium the order of energy level for 19th electron is :-

(1) 3s > 3d
(2) 4s < 3d
(3) 4s > 4p
(4) 4s = 3d

17) Electronic configuration has violated :-

(1) Hund's rule

(2) Pauli's principle
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) (n + l) rule

18) If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H-atom , the number of spectral lines emitted is equal to -

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

19) Which orbital has two angular nodal planes.

(1) s
(2) p
(3) d
(4) f

20) The angular momentum of electron in d-orbital is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

21) Match list-I with list-II -

List-I (quantum no.) List-II (orbital)

(a) n = 2, l = 1 (i) 2s

(b) n = 3, l = 2 (ii) 3s

(c) n = 3, l = 0 (iii) 2p

(d) n = 2, l = 0 (iv) 3d
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) -iii, (b) -iv, (c) - i, (d) -ii
(2) (a) -iv, (b) -iii, (c) - i, (d) -ii
(3) (a) -iv, (b) -iii, (c) - ii, (d) -i
(4) (a) -iii, (b) -iv, (c) - ii, (d) -i

22) The correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of Zn (Z = 30) is

(1)
3, 2, 0, +

(2)
4, 1, 0, –

(3)
4, 0, 0, +
3, 2, –1, +
(4)

23) Consider the following set of quantum numbers

n ℓ m s

(a) 2 1 0

(b) 3 2 –3

(c) 4 0 1

(d) 1 2 –1

(e) 3 1 1

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not possible?

(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (c), (d) and (e) only

24) Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be .........

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 3

25) In Balmer series of H-atom spectrum, which electronic transition causes third line ?
(1) 5th orbit to 2nd orbit.
(2) 5th orbit to 1st orbit.
(3) 4th orbit to 2nd orbit.
(4) 4th orbit to 1st orbit.

26) Which of the following has the largest de-Broglie wavelength (all have equal velocity).

(1) CO2 molecule

(2) NH3 molecule
(3) Electron
(4) Proton

27) The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass 10–6 kg and a velocity of 10 ms–1 is -

(1) 6.63 × 10–22 m

(2) 6.63 × 10–29 m
(3) 6.63 × 10–31 m
(4) 6.63 × 10–34 m

28) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is valid for :-

(1) Moving electron

(2) Motor car
(3) Stationary particles
(4) Moving aeroplane

29) The four quantum number for the valence shell electron or last electron of sodium (z = 11) is –

(1)
n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = –1, s =

(2)
n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s =

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –2, s =

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 2, s =

30) When an electron of a H-atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state, the number of spectral lines
emitted is –

(1) 15
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 3

31) For azimuthal quantum number ℓ = 2, the maximum number of electrons will be -
(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 0
(4) 10

32) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not valid ?

(1) n = 2, m = 1
(2) n = 1, ℓ = 2
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0
(4) n = 4, ℓ = 2

33) A subshell n = 5, ℓ = 3 can accomodate.

(1) 10 electrons
(2) 14 electrons
(3) 18 electrons
(4) 6 electrons

34) Four electrons in an atom have the sets of quantum numbers as given below. Which electron is
at the highest energy level ?

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s =

(2)
n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s =

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 0, s =

(4)
n = 4, ℓ = 1, m = –1, s =

35) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund rule are violated is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Consider the ground state of Cr atom, the number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum
numbers, ℓ = 1 and 2 are respectively :
(1) 16 and 5
(2) 12 and 5
(3) 16 and 4
(4) 12 and 4

2) Assertion :- Emitted radiations will fall in visible range when an electron jump from n = 4 to n =
2 in H - atom.
Reason :- Lyman series radiation belongs to visible range for H-atom.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) What is the wavelength of 2nd line of Balmer series in H-spectrum ?

(1) 4864 Å
(2) 3648 Å
(3) 8463 Å
(4) 3824 Å

4) If ratio of kinetic energy of two particles A & B having equal mass is 1 : 4 then which relation of
de-Broglie wavelength is correct ?

(1) λA = 2λB

(2)

(3) λB = 2λA
(4) λA = 4λB

5) How many number of e–(s) is/are accomodate with n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, ?

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

6) The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is . What is
the value of n2 ? (R = Rydberg constant)

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
7) Match the Columns -

Column-I Column-II

Energy can be emitted or

(A) |Ψ|2 (p)
absorbed in packets

Significant only for motion

(B) de Broglie (q)
of microscopic objects.

The probability of finding

(C) Heisenberg (r) an electron at a point
within an atom

Every object in motion

(D) Planck's (s)
has a wave character

Correct match will be -

(1) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(2) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(3) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(4) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)

8) Which of the following subshell has maximum energy for multielectron system :-

(1) 3d
(2) 4f
(3) 5s
(4) 5p

9) Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the subshells for which n + ℓ = 4 is

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 18

10) Maximum number of orbitals in a subshell of an atom is given by

(1) 2ℓ
(2) 2ℓ + 1
(3) 4ℓ + 2
(4) 2ℓ + 2

11) The wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the Paschen series of hydrogen atomic
spectrum is (RH = Rydberg constant) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which one is a wrong statement ?

(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated
(2)
by four quantum numbers.
The electronic configuration of N atom is
(3)

(4) The value of m for is zero

13) Assertion (A) : Half-filled and fully filled degenerate set of orbitals acquire extra stability.
Reason (R) : The reason for the above fact is the symmetry of such orbitals.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

14) The graph between and r (radial distance) is shown below. This represents

(1) 1s-orbital
(2) 2p-orbital
(3) 3s-orbital
(4) 2s-orbital

15) The number of unpaired electron in 1s2 2s2 2p4 is -

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 1
 BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) NOR segment containing human chromosomes are :-

(1) 12, 13, 14, 20, 21

(2) 13, 14, 15, 21, 22
(3) 12, 13, 14, 21, 22
(4) 13, 14, 15, 20, 21

2) Histones proteins are

(1) Neutral proteins

(2) Basic proteins
(3) Acidic proteins
(4) Both basic and acidic proteins

3) Statement 1 : Nucleus is called to be controller or direction of cell. Statement 2 : Genetic

material is present in nucleus.

(1) Both statements are incorrect

(2) Only statement 1 is true
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

4) Kinetochores are

(1) terminal ends of the chromosomes

(2) the structures that hold sister chromatids of chromosomes
(3) the parts of chromosomes beyond the secondary constriction
(4) the disc shaped proteinaceous structure on the both sides of centromere

5) Perinuclear space is around

(1) 10 to 20 Å
(2) 10 to 20 nm
(3) 10 to 50 Å
(4) 10 to 50 nm

6) ______ is directly connected to the outer nuclear membrane :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi body
(3) ER
(4) Chloroplasts

7) Nucleus is absent in :-

(1) Mature RBC

(2) Mature sieve tube
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) All mature cells

8) Site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis is :-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Cytoplasm

9) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure :-

A–Nucleoplasm , B–Nucleolus,
(1)
C–Nuclear pore, D–Nuclear membrane
A–Nucleolus, B–Nucleoplasm ,
(2)
C–Nuclear membrane, D–Nuclear pore
A–Nuclear pore, B–Nuclear membrane,
(3)
C–Nucleoplasm, D–Nucleolus
A–Nuclear membrane, B–Nucleoplasm,
(4)
C–Nuclear pore, D–Nucleolus

10) The accompanying diagram shows a chromsome, in which A is :-

(1) Centromere
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Chromosome
(4) Chromocentric

11) The non-sticky chromosomal ends are known as -

(1) Chromatids
(2) Centromeres
(3) Satellites
(4) Telomeres

12) Recognise the figure and find out the corect matching :-

a-Metacentric, b-Acrocentric,
(1)
c-submetacentric, d-Telocentric
a-Acrocentric, b-Metacentric,
(2)
c-submetacentric, d-Telocentric
a-Metacentric, b-sub metacentric,
(3)
c-Acrocentric, d-Telocentric
a-submetacentric, b-Metacentric,
(4)
c-Telocentric, d-Acrocentric

13) Part of chromosome after secondary constriction is called :–

(1) Chromomere
(2) Telomere
(3) Satellite
(4) Nucleolar organiser

14) Kinetochore serve as the site of attachment of :

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Microfilament
(3) Spindle fiber
(4) Spectrin
15) Choose the correct option for the diagram given below :

Number of Number of Number of Number of

Chromosomes Chromatids Centromeres Kinetochores

(1) 4 8 8 8

(2) 4 4 4 8

(3) 4 16 8 4

(4) 4 8 4 8
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(I) S phase (i) Most of organelles duplication
(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin Proteins are synthesised
(III) G0 phase (iii) DNA Replication
(IV) G2 phase (iv) Cells no longer proliferate
(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

17) Which one is correct for G0 stage ?

I. It is a quiescent stage.
II. In this phase cell cycle is stopped
III. G0 cells do not grow or proliferate but metabolically active
IV. G0 cells can divide in response to some stimulus

(1) All are correct

(2) Only I,II,III are correct
(3) Only I,II are correct
(4) Only I and IV are correct

18)

Which of the following is correct regarding the given figure

 Number of Number of Number
centromere kinetochore of arms

(1) 2 1 4

(2) 1 2 4

(3) 2 2 4

(4) 1 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) The gap between two successive M-phase is called

(1) Interkinesis
(2) Interphase
(3) G0 phase
(4) Generation time

20) Shortest phase of mitosis is :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Telophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

21) About 95% time of cell cycle is taken by :-

(1) G1 – phase
(2) S–phase
(3) M–phase
(4) Interphase

22) Structure of chromosome can be best seen at :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2 phase
(4) Telophase

23) Raw material for spindle fiber formation is synthesized in:

(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S phase
(4) G0 phase

24)

G2 phase comes between :-

(1) S and M phase

(2) G1 and S phase
(3) S and interphase
(4) G1 and M phase

25)

In which phase cells remain metabolically active but no longer divide?

(1) S
(2) G2
(3) Prophase
(4) G0

26) Which phase of mitosis is almost the reverse of prophase w.r.t nuclear changes?

(1) Anaphase
(2) S-phase
(3) G2-phase
(4) Telophase

27) Series of changes that occur in a newly formed cell till it grows and divides to form the daughter
cells are called:

(1) Cell cycle

(2) Interphase
(3) Generation cycle
(4) Mitosis

28)

M-phase in humans lasts ________ of the duration of cell cycle

(1) 90%
(2) 60%
(3) 96%
(4) about 5%
29)

Two chromatids are held together at

(1) Spindle fibre

(2) Microtubule
(3) Centromere
(4) Kinetochore

30) Below diagram represent in cell division

(1) Transition to prophase

(2) Transition to metaphase
(3) Transition to anaphase
(4) Transition to telophase

31) Given figure represents :-

(1) Metaphase of animal cell

(2) Anaphase of plant cell
(3) Telophase of animal cell
(4) Anaphase of animal cell

32)
Choose the incorrect option for A to D in given diagram :-
(1) A- Cytoplasmic growth
(2) B- Chromosome number double
(3) C- Tubulin protein synthesis
(4) D- Dramatic phase

33) What is the characteristic feature of given phase?

(1) Centromere is not splitted

(2) Separation of homologous chromosome
(3) Chromatids move to opposite pole
(4) Nuclear envelope reforms

34) Match the following & choose the correct option :-

a Human cell divides in i 90 minutes

b Yeast cell divides in ii 1 hour
c More than 95% of cell cycle iii 24 hours
d Cell division in human last for iv Interphase
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

35) Nuclear envelope reappears at :-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

SECTION-B

1) How many of the following statements are true?

(i) Chromatin contains DNA, RNA, histones and non-histones
(ii) A single chromosome in human has approximately two meter long DNA
(iii) Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction
(iv) Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(v) The outer membrane of nucleus do not bear ribosomes on it

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

2) Read following statements:

(A) Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis.
(B) The content of nucleolus is continous with the rest of the nucleoplasm as it is a membrane
bound structure
(C) Nucleolus is main site for synthesis of ribosomal protein.
(D) Nuclear envelope consists of two parallel membranes with a space between called perinuclear
space.
(E) The centriole form the basal body of cilia or flagella.
Choose the option which have all the correct statements :-

(1) A, B, D
(2) B, D, E
(3) A, D, E
(4) A, C, E

3) Match the following :

(A) Metacentric (i) Terminal position of Centromere

(B) Submetacentric (ii) Centromere very close to its end

Centromere slightly away from

(C) Acrocentric (iii)
middle

(D) Telocentric (iv) Middle centromere

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

4)

(i) Chromosomal decondensation.

(ii) Disappearance of nucleus.
(iii) Spliting of centromere
(iv) Arrangement of chromosome on equator.
Arrange above events in sequence of cell division-

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) iv → ii → i → iii
(3) ii → iv → iii → i
(4) ii → i → iv → iii
5) Label the structure indicated by (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)-

(i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centrosome,
(1)
(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromosome
(i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centrosome,
(2)
(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromatid
(i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centromere,
(3)
(iii)-Centriole, (iv)-Chromosome
(i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centromere,
(4)
(iii) Centrosome, (iv)-Chromatid

6) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a–G1, b-S, c–G2, d–M

(2) a–M, b-G1, c–S, d–G2
(3) a–G1, b-S, c–G2, d–G0
(4) a–G0, b-G1, c–S, d–G0

7) Smallest stage of mitosis is ___ in which chromosome number ___ :-

Choose suitable option for above statement ?

(1) S-phase, remain same

(2) Anaphase, becomes double
(3) S-phase, becomes double
(4) Anaphase, remain same

8) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Division
(I) (i) Interphase
of Nucleus
 Division of
(II) (ii) Cytokinesis
cytoplasm

Phase between
(III) two successive (iii) S-phase
M-phase

Synthesis
(IV) (iv) Karyokinesis
phase
(1) I-ii, II-iv, III-i, IV-iii
(2) I-iv, II-ii, III-i, IV-iii
(3) I-i, II-iii, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-i

9) Select the correct statements regarding s-phase of interphase :-

(I) Occurs between G1 and G2
(II) DNA replication begins in the nucleus
(III) Centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm of animal cell.

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III
(4) I, II and III all

10) Which stage of cell cycle is marked by initiation of condensation of chromatin ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2–phase
(4) S–phase

11) In 'S' phase of the cell cycle :-

(1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.

(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
(3) Chromosome number is increased.
(4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.

12) Study the following figure of cell division carefully and identify the stage shown in figure:
(1) Anaphase of mitosis
(2) Metaphase of mitosis
(3) Anaphase I of meiosis
(4) Metaphase I of Meiosis

13) Assertion : Chromatid separation occurs in anaphase stage

Reason : Centromere splitting occurs in anaphase stage

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

14) Assertion :- Mitosis is called as equational division.

Reason :- During mitosis, the number of chromosomes in parent and progeny cells remains same.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

15) Which is the correct order of cell cycle ?

(1) G1 → S → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis

(2) G2 → G1 → S → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(3) S → G1 → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(4) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis → S → G2 → G1

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

(A) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(B) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(C) The simple epithelium consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function.
(D) The columnar epithelium is made of a single layer of flattened cells with irregular boundries.
How many of the about statements are corrects?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

2) Read the following statements and find out how many of these are related to given figure :-
 a. Multilayered epithelium
b. Limited role in secretion and absorption
c. Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
d. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

3) Which of the following options give the correct categorisation of tissues according to origin &
functions :

Type of
Origin Functions
tissue

Epithelial
(1) Ectodermal Protection
tissue

Muscular
(2) Ectodermal Contractibility
tissue

Connective
(3) Mesodermal Diffusion
tissue

Nervous
(4) Endodermal Irritability
tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Assertion : Compound epithelium has got main role in protection and has little, role in secretion
and absorption.
Reason : Compound epithelium is multilayered.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

6) Assertion :- Squamous epithelium are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
Reason :- Squamous epithelium are involved in function like forming a diffusion boundary.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) True about stratified epithelium is :-

(1) Limited role in secretion and absorption

(2) Provide protection against mechanical stresses
(3) Cover moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx
(4) All of the above

8) Lack of blood supply and presence of the noncellular basement membrane are the characteristics
of the :–

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Fluid connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

9) Which junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Gap junction

(2) Tight junction
(3) Adhering junction
(4) Inter digitation

10) Which structure help in cementing to keep neighbouring cells together ?

(1) Tight junction

(2) Interdigitation
(3) Adhering - junction
(4) Gap junction

11) Study of tissues is known as :

(1) Cytology
(2) Histology
(3) Anatomy
(4) Physiology

12) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Pseudo stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

13) Which epithelium composed of two or more cell layers and has protective functions as it does in
our skin :

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple columnar
(4) Compound epithelium

14) Inner lining of blood vessels and lymph vessels have :-

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

15) Example of unicellular gland is :-

(1) Mucous secreting goblet cell

(2) Oil secreting sebaceous glandular cell
(3) Lysozyme secreting paneth cell
(4) Both (1) & (3)

16) Which type of tissue has maximum power of regeneration ?

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

17) Fibroblast cell is a connective tissue cell, the function of which is :-

(1) Phagocytic
(2) Absorption
(3) Antibody production
(4) Matrix production

18) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement :-
(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption
The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
(3)
epithelium
(4) All of the above

19) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

20) The epithelium of .............. of nephron in the kidney has microvilli :-

(1) PCT
(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Henle's loop
(4) Collecting duct

21) In all connective tissues, except ............, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

22) In columnar epithelium, nucleus is present at which of these positions in each cell of epithelium
?

(1) At the top of cell

(2) Between the boundary of two cells
(3) At the middle of cytoplasm
(4) At the base

23) Which of the following is a type of animal tissue?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) All of these

24) Which of the following is not a property of compound epithelium ?

(1) Multilayered
(2) Found in pharynx
(3) Limited role in providing protection
(4) Limited role in secretion and absorbtion

25) Mast cell secrete :

(1) heparin
(2) histamine
(3) serotonin
(4) All of these

26) Which of the following is not a function of epithelium?

(1) Protection
(2) Connection
(3) Secretion
(4) Absorption

27)

Gall bladder is lined by :-

(1) Simple columnar Brush Border epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal Brush Border epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal flagellated epithelium

28) Which type of epithelium found in lung's alveoli for gaseous diffusion ?

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium

29) Transitional epithelium is found in

(1) Larynx
(2) Vein
(3) Kidney
(4) Ureter and renal pelvis

30) During meiosis how many cycles of nucleus division, DNA replication and division of centromere
takes place respectively :-

(1) Three, Two, One

(2) One, Two, Two
(3) Two, Two, One
(4) Two, One, One

31) Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option :-
(A) Zygotene – Pairing of non homologous chromosomes
(B) Pachytene – Bivalent clearly visible
(C) Diplotene – Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads
(D) Diakinesis – Terminalization of chiasmata takes place

(1) A & C
(2) A & D
(3) A & B
(4) B & D

32) The number of bivalents are 40. What will be the number of chromosomes during anaphase-II at
each pole ?

(1) 40 (each with two chromatids)

(2) 80 (each with single chromatids)
(3) 40 (each with single chromatids)
(4) 80 (each with two chromatids)

33) The nuclear membrane disappears by the end of:

(1) Mitotic prophase

(2) Prophase-II
(3) Prophase-I
(4) All are correct

34) Division of centromere during cell division occour in :-

(1) Anaphase and Anaphase I

(2) Anaphase and Anaphase II
(3) Anaphase I and Anaphase II
(4) Only during Anaphase I

35) Longest phase of meiosis is :-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

SECTION-B

1) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correct identified in the options given along with its correct location and

function ?

Tissue Location Function

Simple
Diffusion
(1) (A) squamous Trachea
Boundary
epithelium

Unicellular Alimentary
(2) (B) Secretion
gland canal

(3) (C) Bone In Larynx Support

Compound
(4) (D) Skin Protection
epithelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cubical epithelium

3) Identify the following diagrams and choose incorrect option :-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) b = Cuboidal epithelium = Linings of distal convulated tubule

(2) c = Columnar epithelium = Linings of pericardial cavity
(3) a = squamous epithelium = endothelium
(4) d = Ciliated columnar epithelium = Fallopian tube

4) General function of gland is to :-

(1) Protect the body

(2) Control the functions of epithelial tissues
(3) Help to maintain blood pressure and nerve actions.
(4) Produce and secrete specialised compounds to control and maintain different body functions.

5) Out of the following, which tissue is originated by ectoderm?

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

6) Given below structures are related with glandular epithelium. Identify correct option for the given

diagram :-

A B

(1) Unicellular Multicellular

(2) Unicellular Unicellular

(3) Multicellular Unicellular

(4) Multicellular Multicellular

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a 1
Junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b Gap Junctions 2 to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

Tight
c 3 communicate with
Junctions
each other
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3,
(4) a-1, b-3, c-2

8) On the basis of structural modification of the cells, simple epithelium is further divided into :-

(1) Two types – ciliated and glandular epithelium

(2) Three types – squamous, cuboidal and columnar epithelium
(3) Four types – squamous, cuboidal, columnar and transitional epithelium
(4) Two types – unicellular and multicellular epithelium

9) Some of columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called :-

(1) Ciliated epithelium do not move mucus in any specific direction

(2) Compound epithelium has secetory function
(3) Simple epithelium has a role in mechanical protection
(4) Glandular epithelium and are of two types-unicellular and multicellular

10) Pleuripotent cells of connective tissue :

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Mast cell
(3) Mesenchymal cell
(4) Lymphocytes

11) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is found in :-

(1) Mouth
(2) Stomach
(3) Kidney
(4) Trachea

12) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence ?

A–Terminalisation of chiasmata
B–Crossing over
C–Synapsis
D–Disjunction of chromosomes
E–Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → E
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

13) Which of the following is called heterotypic division ?

(1) Meiosis–I
(2) Meiosis–II
(3) Mitosis
(4) Amitosis

14) After meiosis four daughter cells are formed from one mother cell. If each daughter cell has 8
chromosomes then what will be the number of bivalent in Prophase–I of the same mother cell?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 32

15) In which phase of meiosis, the chromosomes do undergoes some dispersion, but they do not
reach the extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus ?

(1) Prophase - I
(2) Metaphase - I
(3) Telophase - I
(4) Prophase - II
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 2 3 3 1 1 4 3 2 2 4 4 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 2 3 1 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 1 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 3 1 1 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 2 1 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 3 4 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 4 4 4 4 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 4 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

8) P = x + yt2

F = 2yt

24)

25) displacement

S = 13 cm

26)

27)

28)

Since +ve and –ve area are equal in magnitude, therefore net area is zero.

29)

(1.02)4 = (1 + 0.2)4
≈1 + 4 × 0.02 (∴ For small x, (1 + x)n ≈ 1 + nx)
≈1.08

30)

=2

∴
 31)

Substitute K = y and v = x

So
⇒ y ∝ x2 → Parabolic graph

34)

⇒ θ = 53°, North of East

35)

(For 2 equal distance interval)

46)

= 5 × 1 + 10 × 1 + 15 × 1
= 30 m.

48)

=9

49)
A2 = 4 × 10 = 40

50) log216 = log224

= 4log22 = 4

CHEMISTRY

52)

62)

Module

72)

Hint : Zn (Z = 30): [Ar]3d104s2

Sol. : Outermost electron of Zn is present in 4s orbital hence, n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +

86)

Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

24

Here ℓ = 1 (p subshell)
 ℓ = 2 (d subshell)

94)

Hint : Value of ℓ varies from 0 to (n – 1)

Sol. : For n + ℓ = 4, possible orbitals are 4s and 3p. So, maximum number of electrons
accommodated is 8.

95)

For any subshell, No. of orbitals = 2ℓ +1

97)

BIOLOGY-I

101) Module

102)

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BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT XI Page # 101, 102

152)

NCERT – XI, Pg. # 102

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

156)

NCERT XI, Page # 101

157)

NCERT XI, Pg # 102

158)

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159)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, Last para

160)

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163) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

 164)

NCERT XIth Pg # 101 last para

166) Greater power of regeneration - Epithelial tissues

Least power of regeneration - Nervous tissue

169) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

172)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

174)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

176)

NCERT XIth Pg.#101, 102

180) NCERT pg no.168

181)

NCERT XI Pg. # 168

185)

NCERT Pg. # 168

188)

NCERT-XI Pg# 101, fig-7.1 (a,b,c,d)

189)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

191)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102, Fig- 7.2 (a, b)

193) NCERT Pg 101

194)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, Ist para

 197)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168, 169, para-(10.4.1,10.4.2)

200) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 169