SUBJECT " BIOTECHNOLOGY"

6 sets of 50 questions each, covering the core areas of the discipline:

1. Fundamental Concepts & Tools

2. Genetic Engineering & r-DNA Technology
3. Plant Tissue Culture & Plant Biotechnology
4. Animal & Medical Biotechnology
5. Industrial & Environmental Biotechnology
6. Applied Genomics, Proteomics, & Ethics

1. Fundamental Concepts & Tools (MCQ 1–50)

No. Question Options Answer

Biotechnology is broadly defined as the use of living organisms
or their products to create or modify products for a specific a) Louis Pasteur b) Gregor Mendel c) Karl Ereky d) James
1 c
purpose. Who is often credited as the father of modern Watson
biotechnology?
Which structure in a bacterium is typically used as a vector for
2 a) Chromosome b) Ribosome c) Plasmid d) Cell wall c
gene cloning?
The enzymes that cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences a) DNA Ligases b) Polymerases c) Restriction Endonucleases
3 c
are called: d) Helicases
a) On both strands in the 5' to 3' direction. b) Only on the sense
strand. c) On both strands when read from 5' to 3' direction
4 A palindromic sequence in DNA reads the same: c
and 3' to 5' direction respectively. d) Only on the anti-sense
strand.
Gel Electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA a) Nucleotide sequence b) Size and Charge c) Chemical
5 b
fragments based on their: composition d) Solubility
The process of amplifying a specific segment of DNA is carried a) ELISA b) Western Blotting c) Polymerase Chain Reaction
6 c
out using: (PCR) d) DNA Sequencing
The term "competent cells" in biotechnology refers to
7 a) Proteins b) Antibiotics c) Foreign DNA d) Water c
bacterial cells capable of taking up:
The enzyme used to join the sticky ends of DNA fragments a) Restriction Endonuclease b) DNA Polymerase c) Primase d)
8 d
during gene cloning is: DNA Ligase
Probes used in molecular hybridization techniques are a) Proteins b) Lipids c) Single-stranded DNA or RNA d) Double-
9 c
typically: stranded DNA
The heat-stable DNA Polymerase used in PCR is primarily a) Escherichia coli b) Bacillus subtilis c) Thermus aquaticus d)
10 c
isolated from the bacterium: Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Which of the following is an example of a selectable marker a) Origin of replication b) Antibiotic resistance gene c)
11 b
in a plasmid vector? Restriction site d) Promoter
The study of all the proteins produced by an organism, cell, or
12 a) Genomics b) Metabolomics c) Transcriptomics d) Proteomics d
tissue is called:
cDNA (complementary DNA) is synthesized from mRNA using a) DNA Polymerase I b) DNA Ligase c) Reverse Transcriptase
13 c
the enzyme: d) RNA Polymerase
a) DNA sequencing b) Gel electrophoresis c) Large-scale
14 A bioreactor is essentially a large vessel used for: c
culture of cells or microorganisms d) Protein purification
The basic principle of Southern Blotting is the detection of a) Proteins b) RNA molecules c) DNA sequences d)
15 c
specific: Carbohydrates
RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) a) Protein structure b) RNA size c) DNA fragment sizes after
16 c
analysis is based on variations in: restriction enzyme digestion d) Chromosome number
Which technique is used to measure the amount of mRNA a) Western Blotting b) DNA Fingerprinting c) Real-Time PCR
17 c
transcript present in a cell? (qPCR) d) ELISA
No. Question Options Answer
The process of inserting foreign DNA into an animal cell is a) Transformation b) Transfection c) Transduction d)
18 b
known as: Conjugation
Microinjection is a technique used for the direct delivery of
19 a) Cytoplasm b) Cell wall c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria c
foreign DNA into a cell's:
Bioinformatics is the application of computational tools to a) Protein synthesis rates b) Enzyme kinetics c) DNA and
20 c
analyze large biological datasets, such as: Protein sequences d) Cell wall composition
The technique used to identify specific proteins using a) Southern Blotting b) Northern Blotting c) Western Blotting d)
21 c
antibodies is: Eastern Blotting
A cosmid is a hybrid vector containing sequences from both a
22 a) Virus b) Phage c) Lambda phage d) Yeast c
plasmid and:
The "Ti plasmid" used in plant genetic engineering is naturally a) E. coli b) Bacillus thuringiensis c) Agrobacterium
23 c
found in the bacterium: tumefaciens d) Rhizobium leguminosarum
The enzyme that builds a new DNA strand in the 5' to 3' a) Helicase b) Ligase c) Taq Polymerase d) Reverse
24 c
direction during PCR is: Transcriptase
The process of separating molecules based on their binding a) Electrophoresis b) Centrifugation c) Dialysis d)
25 d
affinity to a stationary phase is known as: Chromatography
26 SDS-PAGE is a common method for separating: a) DNA fragments b) RNA molecules c) Proteins d) Lipids c
The term "primary metabolite" refers to compounds essential a) Defense b) Reproduction c) Normal growth and metabolism
27 c
for: d) Pigmentation
The term "upstream processing" in industrial biotechnology a) Purification b) Formulation c) Cell culture/Fermentation d)
28 c
refers to the steps involving: Waste disposal
Which chemical method is typically used to make bacterial a) Osmotic shock b) Calcium chloride ($CaCl_2$) treatment
29 b
cells competent for transformation? and heat shock c) Sonication d) Exposure to UV light
a) Only the coding sequences of an organism. b) Only the non-
30 A genomic library contains: coding sequences. c) The entire genomic DNA of an c
organism. d) Only the mRNA of an organism.
The term "cryopreservation" refers to the preservation of a) Drying b) Chemical fixation c) Freezing at very low
31 c
cells, tissues, or organs by: temperatures (e.g., in liquid nitrogen) d) Refrigeration
The enzyme Alkaline Phosphatase is often used in cloning to a) Ligation of the insert DNA. b) Re-ligation of the vector (self-
32 b
prevent: ligation). c) Digestion of the plasmid. d) Degradation of the DNA.
The phenomenon where an electric pulse temporarily creates a) Transfection b) Transformation c) Electroporation d) Gene
33 c
pores in the cell membrane to allow DNA uptake is called: gun
The region in a plasmid that facilitates its multiplication inside a) Selectable marker b) Restriction site c) Origin of Replication
34 c
the host cell is the: (ori) d) Promoter
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is used for a) Nucleic acids b) Carbohydrates c) Antigens or Antibodies d)
35 c
the detection and quantification of: Lipids
a) Vaccines b) Recombinant DNA c) Monoclonal Antibodies d)
36 Hybridoma technology is used for the production of: c
Insulin
The technique used to produce multiple identical copies of a
37 a) PCR b) Gene Cloning c) DNA Sequencing d) Gene Therapy b
specific gene in vivo is:
Microarrays (Gene chips) are used to simultaneously a) All proteins b) All metabolites c) Thousands of genes d)
38 c
measure the expression levels of: Single genes
Which factor determines the direction of DNA movement a) pH of the buffer b) Negative charge of the DNA c) Gel
39 b
during gel electrophoresis? concentration d) Temperature
a) The entire DNA template. b) The vector DNA. c) The ends of
40 The sequence of a primer used in PCR is complementary to: c
the target DNA sequence. d) The Taq Polymerase gene.
41 Affinity Chromatography separates proteins based on their: a) Size b) Charge c) Specific binding property (e.g., antibody- c
 No. Question Options Answer
antigen) d) Solubility
a) Amplify the gene of interest. b) Stabilize the vector. c) Identify
42 The use of a Reporter Gene in a vector helps to: cells that have successfully taken up the DNA. d) Cleave the c
DNA.
The main goal of Bioprospecting is to search for biological a) Food crops b) Biofuels c) New drugs, enzymes, or genes d)
43 c
sources for: Timber
The temperature range for the denaturation step in a a) $50-60^\circ C$ b) $37^\circ C$ c) $90-98^\circ C$ d) $4^\circ
44 c
standard PCR cycle is typically around: C$
Which technique is used to purify a large quantity of a) Microinjection b) DNA sequencing c) Downstream
45 c
recombinant protein from a microbial culture? Processing d) Hybridization
The enzyme Klenow fragment is a modified form of DNA a) Polymerase activity b) Ligase activity c) $5' \rightarrow 3'$
46 c
Polymerase I that lacks: exonuclease activity d) Reverse Transcriptase activity
A probe labeled with a radioactive isotope or a fluorescent tag
47 a) Electrophoresis b) Ligation c) Hybridization d) Transformation c
is used for:
The term "biologics" generally refers to medicinal products a) Chemical synthesis b) Non-biological materials c) Living
48 c
derived from: organisms (e.g., vaccines, antibodies) d) Crude plant extracts
The fermentation process used in industrial biotechnology is a) Only chemical catalysts b) High temperature and pressure c)
49 c
characterized by the production of useful products using: Microbial metabolism d) UV light
A phagemid vector is one that can replicate as a plasmid but
50 a) Bacterium b) Yeast c) Single-stranded phage d) Virus c
also be packaged as a:

II. Genetic Engineering & r-DNA Technology (MCQ 51–100)

No. Question Options Answer

The core technique of genetic engineering that combines a) Gene therapy b) Recombinant DNA (r-DNA) technology c)
51 b
DNA fragments from different sources is: Tissue culture d) DNA sequencing
Which protein was the first human hormone produced using a) Growth hormone b) Erythropoietin c) Insulin (Humulin) d)
52 c
recombinant DNA technology in E. coli? Thyroxin
a) Repair damaged DNA. b) Protect the bacterial DNA from its
The function of a restriction modification system in
53 own restriction enzymes. c) Facilitate plasmid replication. d) b
bacteria is to:
Control cell division.
The process of introducing a recombinant DNA molecule
54 a) Transcription b) Translation c) Transformation d) Replication c
into a host cell is called:
a) Amplify a gene. b) Specifically modify, disrupt, or correct a
Gene targeting is a technique that uses homologous
55 gene in a genome. c) Separate DNA fragments. d) Synthesize b
recombination to:
RNA.
The technique used to silence a specific gene by a) Gene editing b) RNA Interference (RNAi) c) Gene therapy d)
56 b
introducing double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) is: Antisense technology
CRISPR-Cas9 is a revolutionary tool for genome editing
57 a) Viruses b) Eukaryotes c) Prokaryotes (Bacteria) d) Plants c
that originated from the defense system of:
a) Multiple copies of its own gene. b) A mutated gene. c) Foreign
58 A Transgenic Organism is one that contains: DNA permanently integrated into its genome. d) Only plasmid c
DNA.
a) Select for transformed cells. b) Differentiate between colonies
In r-DNA technology, the main purpose of using a
with the recombinant plasmid and those with the non-
59 screenable marker (like $\beta$-galactosidase gene, lacZ) b
recombinant plasmid. c) Amplify the gene. d) Increase cell
is to:
viability.
Artificial Chromosomes (YACs or BACs) are used as a) Small DNA fragments. b) RNA sequences. c) Very large DNA
60 c
vectors for cloning: fragments. d) Protein sequences.
No. Question Options Answer
a) Increased gene expression. b) Complete inactivation or
61 The phenomenon of a gene knockout results in: absence of a specific gene function. c) Gene duplication. d) b
Gene translocation.
Zinc-Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) and TALENs were
62 a) PCR b) RNAi c) CRISPR-Cas9 d) Microarray c
precursors to which more efficient genome editing tool?
Homologous recombination is a natural process in the cell a) Random DNA integration b) Vector transformation c) Precise
63 c
that is exploited in genetic engineering for: gene replacement or editing d) DNA amplification
In r-DNA technology, the term "shotgun cloning" refers to a) A specific known gene. b) Random fragments of the entire
64 b
the cloning of: genome. c) Only cDNA. d) Only plasmid DNA.
a) Drug injection b) Surgery c) Introducing functional genes to
65 Gene therapy is a medical technique that involves: c
treat or prevent disease d) Radiation treatment
The bacterial species Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is
66 genetically engineered into plants to provide resistance a) Fungi b) Bacteria c) Insects (pests) d) Viruses c
against:
a) Carries the origin of replication. b) Codes for antibiotic
67 The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid is crucial because it: resistance. c) Is the segment transferred and integrated into the c
plant cell genome. d) Codes for restriction enzymes.
Virus-Mediated Gene Transfer into mammalian cells is a) Transformation b) Transduction c) Conjugation d)
68 b
known as: Electroporation
a) Non-coding introns. b) The entire genome. c) Only the actively
The key advantage of using cDNA libraries over genomic
69 expressed (coding) sequences of an organism. d) More c
libraries is that they contain:
structural genes.
Directed Mutagenesis is a technique used to create a) DNA stability b) Cell division c) Protein structure-function
70 c
specific changes in a gene sequence to study: relationships d) Lipid metabolism
The enzyme T4 DNA Ligase is commonly used in cloning a) Only sticky ends. b) Only blunt ends. c) Both sticky and blunt
71 c
because it can ligate: ends. d) Only RNA fragments.
Site-directed Mutagenesis often employs which molecular
72 a) Northern blotting b) Western blotting c) PCR d) Microarray c
biology technique to introduce the mutation?
a) Increase cell size. b) Overproduce a desired product or
The primary goal of Metabolic Engineering is to modify an
73 eliminate an undesirable one. c) Change its color. d) Increase its b
organism's metabolic pathways to:
motility.
Golden Rice is a genetically modified rice variety
74 a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin D c
engineered to produce $\beta$-carotene, a precursor to:
The use of Promoters and Terminators in a recombinant a) DNA replication b) Protein folding c) Gene expression
75 c
construct is to ensure proper: (Transcription and Translation) d) DNA repair
Which technique is used to create DNA molecules that are a) Microarray b) PCR c) Oligonucleotide synthesis d)
76 c
deletions or insertions of a specific size? Electroporation
a) Inheritable diseases in future generations. b) Diseases that affect
The main therapeutic focus of Somatic Gene Therapy is to
77 only the germline cells. c) Diseases in the body cells (non- c
treat:
reproductive cells) of an individual. d) Viral infections only.
a) Storing DNA. b) Sequencing multiple genes. c) Introducing
78 Gene Stacking in biotechnology refers to: multiple genes for different traits into a single organism. d) c
Amplifying one gene.
a) Guide RNA b) Nuclease (molecular scissors) c) DNA template
79 The Cas9 protein in the CRISPR system functions as the: b
d) Promoter
T-DNA transfer from Agrobacterium to the plant cell is
80 a) Capsule b) Flagella c) Virulence (Vir) genes d) Plasmids c
mediated by the bacterial:
A Shuttle Vector is a plasmid that is designed to replicate a) Only bacteria. b) Only yeast. c) Two different host systems
81 c
in: (e.g., E. coli and yeast). d) Only animal cells.
 No. Question Options Answer
The process of creating a DNA copy of an RNA template a) Transcription b) Translation c) Reverse Transcription d)
82 c
is: Replication
a) Single-stranded DNA b) Genomic DNA c) Recombinant DNA d)
83 Chimeric DNA is another term for: c
Mitochondrial DNA
The enzyme that recognizes a short nucleotide sequence a) DNA Polymerase b) Restriction Endonuclease c) RNA
84 b
and cleaves the DNA at that specific site is a: Polymerase d) DNA Ligase
The term "Molecular Farming" refers to the use of
a) Biofuels b) Basic food crops c) High-value pharmaceutical
85 genetically modified organisms (plants or animals) to c
proteins or industrial compounds. d) Timber
produce:
The use of Liposomes in gene delivery is an example of a
86 a) Microinjection b) Electroporation c) Lipofection d) Gene gun c
non-viral method called:
Safety and ethical guidelines for handling genetically
87 a) Genomics b) Bioinformatics c) Biosafety d) Biopiracy c
modified organisms (GMOs) are often covered under:
The technique used to confirm the presence of a specific a) Southern blotting b) Northern blotting c) Western blotting d)
88 c
protein in a transgenic organism is: PCR
Selectable marker genes provide the host cell with a a) Easy viewing b) Survival under selective conditions (e.g.,
89 b
characteristic that allows for: antibiotic) c) Faster growth d) Increased protein production
The enzyme terminal transferase is sometimes used in
cloning to add a string of identical nucleotides (a a) Linker ligation b) Adaptor ligation c) Homopolymer tailing d)
90 c
homopolymer tail) to the end of a DNA fragment. This is Blunt-end ligation
called:
The gene-editing technique that involves introducing a a) Gene amplification b) Gene correction c) Gene knockout d)
91 b
point mutation or short sequence change is often called: Gene stacking
The enzyme that recognizes the sequence $5' \text{-
92 a) HindIII b) PstI c) EcoRI d) BamHI c
GAATTC-} 3'$ and cuts to produce sticky ends is:
The phenomenon where a foreign gene is spontaneously a) Gene amplification b) Gene silencing c) Gene knockout d) Gene
93 b
turned off after integration into the host genome is called: activation
The Human Genome Project relied heavily on techniques a) Proteomics b) Tissue culture c) DNA sequencing and mapping
94 c
from genetic engineering and: d) Fermentation
The Reporter Gene GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) is a) A bacterium b) A jellyfish (Aequorea victoria) c) A firefly d) A
95 b
derived from: fungus
RNAi relies on the cellular pathway that naturally degrades a) Genomic DNA b) Protein c) Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) d)
96 c
which molecules? Single-stranded DNA
The introduction of genes to improve the nutritional quality a) Gene therapy b) Molecular farming c) Biofortification d)
97 c
of food crops is an application of biotechnology called: Bioremediation
Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) is often used in genetic a) DNA denaturation b) Protein refolding c) Membrane fusion/DNA
98 c
engineering to promote: uptake (protoplast fusion) d) DNA precipitation
a) Lacks the selectable marker. b) Self-ligated without the foreign
In bacterial transformation, a non-recombinant plasmid is
99 DNA insert. c) Failed to enter the cell. d) Has a mutated origin of b
one that:
replication.
The technology used to determine the exact order of
100 a) PCR b) Microarray c) DNA Sequencing d) Electroporation c
nucleotide bases in a DNA molecule is:

III. Plant Tissue Culture & Plant Biotechnology (MCQ 101–150)

No. Question Options Answer

The ability of a plant cell to develop into a whole, a) Dedifferentiation b) Totipotency c) Redifferentiation d)
101 b
complete plant is known as: Organogenesis
No. Question Options Answer
The initial piece of plant material used to start a tissue
102 a) Callus b) Organoid c) Explant d) Zygote c
culture is called the:
Callus is an undifferentiated mass of cells formed in a) Organogenesis b) Dedifferentiation c) Somatic embryogenesis d)
103 b
tissue culture, resulting from: Regeneration
The plant growth hormones critical for controlling the
a) Gibberellins and Abscisic acid b) Auxins and Ethylene c) Auxins
104 transition between callus, shoot, and root development c
and Cytokinins d) Cytokinins and Gibberellins
are:
Micropropagation is a technique used for the rapid,
105 a) In the field b) By seeds c) In in vitro culture d) By grafting c
vegetative propagation of plants:
The use of liquid nitrogen (at $-196^\circ C$) to store a) Freeze-drying b) Lyophilization c) Cryopreservation d) Cold
106 c
plant germplasm is known as: storage
Somaclonal variation refers to genetic or epigenetic a) Grown from seeds. b) Derived from tissue culture (callus
107 b
variability observed in plants: culture). c) Subjected to UV light. d) Grown in hydroponics.
Somatic embryogenesis is the process where embryos
108 a) Zygotes b) Gametes c) Somatic (vegetative) cells d) Pollen c
develop directly from:
109 Protoplasts are plant cells without a: a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Cell wall d) Cell membrane c
The fusion of two distinct protoplasts from different plant a) Micropropagation b) Somatic embryogenesis c) Somatic
110 c
species is called: Hybridization d) Organogenesis
The technique of growing plants in a nutrient solution
111 a) Aeroponics b) Aquaponics c) Hydroponics d) Tissue culture c
without soil is called:
Androgenesis is the process of developing plants from a) Diploid plants b) Polyploid plants c) Haploid plants d) Triploid
112 c
male gametes (pollen or microspores), resulting in: plants
The most widely used method for gene transfer in a) E. coli b) Bacillus thuringiensis c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d)
113 c
dicotyledonous plants is via the bacterium: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A Synthetic Seed (or Synseed) is an encapsulated a) Long-term storage b) Direct planting/delivery c) Microinjection d)
114 b
somatic embryo used for: Protoplast culture
The addition of activated charcoal to the culture medium a) Increase nutrient availability. b) Adsorb toxic/phenolic
115 b
in tissue culture is primarily to: compounds. c) Increase media viscosity. d) Promote cell division.
Hairy Root Culture is a specialized culture method a) Produce timber. b) Biosynthesize secondary metabolites. c)
116 b
utilizing Agrobacterium rhizogenes to: Increase flowering. d) Generate somatic embryos.
a) In the field b) In a test tube/culture dish c) Inside the flower d)
117 In vitro fertilization in plants is the fusion of gametes: b
Through grafting
Aseptic conditions are mandatory for tissue culture a) Desiccation b) Light exposure c) Contamination by
118 c
primarily to prevent: microorganisms d) Temperature fluctuation
Auxin hormones in plant tissue culture media primarily a) Shoot elongation b) Flowering c) Root development and cell
119 c
promote: enlargement d) Dormancy
The method used for direct gene transfer that involves
a) Electroporation b) Lipofection c) Biolistics (Gene Gun) d)
120 shooting DNA-coated gold or tungsten particles into plant c
Microinjection
cells is:
Explant sterilization is a crucial step in tissue culture to a) Endogenous bacteria b) Surface contaminants (fungi, bacteria)
121 b
remove: c) Nutrient residues d) Plant waxes
Cytokinins in plant tissue culture media primarily a) Rooting b) Callus growth only c) Shoot development and cell
122 c
promote: division d) Senescence
The Murashige and Skoog (MS) medium is widely used a) Is cheap to prepare. b) Is rich in macro and micronutrients. c)
123 b
in plant tissue culture because it: Only supports monocots. d) Only supports dicots.
Hardening in micropropagation refers to the process of a) Liquid nitrogen b) Back to callus culture c) Field/Greenhouse
124 c
transferring plantlets from in vitro conditions to: conditions d) A different medium
No. Question Options Answer
The primary goal of developing Herbicide-Tolerant (HT) a) Increased photosynthesis. b) Weed control without harming the
125 b
crops is to allow for: crop. c) Insect resistance. d) Drought resistance.
Chimera formation is a major drawback of which plant a) Micropropagation b) Adventitious shoot formation c) Seed
126 b
propagation technique? propagation d) Somatic embryogenesis
Aneuploidy and Polyploidy are common examples of a) Natural populations b) Somaclonal variants c) Pure lines d)
127 b
variation observed in: Sexual hybrids
The bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens causes the
128 a) Fire blight b) Crown rust c) Crown Gall d) Leaf spot c
plant disease known as:
In Anther Culture, the mature anthers are cultured to
129 a) Callus b) Roots c) Haploid plants d) Somatic embryos c
produce:
The enzyme often used to remove the plant cell wall and
130 a) Amylase b) Protease c) Cellulase d) Lipase c
create protoplasts is:
Cybrids are products of somatic hybridization that a) Both parent species b) The other parent species c) A third
131 b
contain the nucleus of one species and the cytoplasm of: species d) Neither species
The most effective method for generating virus-free
132 a) Root tips b) Stem segments c) Meristem tips d) Whole leaves c
plants is through culturing:
The transfer of genes into a plant using the Gene Gun is a) Agrobacterium-mediated transformation b) Particle Bombardment
133 b
often referred to as: c) Electroporation d) Microinjection
Auxin/Cytokinin ratio in the culture medium determines a) Nutrient uptake b) Morphogenesis (shoot/root formation) c)
134 b
the pathway of: Sterilization d) Contamination
135 Biolistics gene transfer is a method primarily considered: a) Indirect b) Direct c) Chemical d) Natural b
The use of protoplast fusion is a conventional method to
136 overcome sexual incompatibility between two plant a) True b) False c) Sometimes d) Not related a
species.
Double Haploids are produced by chromosome doubling a) Polyploidy b) Aneuploidy c) Instant Homozygosity d)
137 c
of haploid plants and are important for achieving: Heterozygosity
The use of Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) in plant a) Sterilization b) Protoplast fusion c) DNA isolation d) Callus
138 b
biotechnology is primarily for: induction
Secondary Metabolites (e.g., alkaloids, terpenes) are
a) Meristem culture b) Organ culture c) Cell suspension
139 typically produced in large quantities using which type of c
culture/Hairy root culture d) Seed culture
plant culture?
The T-DNA region carries the genes for the biosynthesis a) Gibberellins and Ethylene b) Abscisic acid and Jasmonates c)
140 c
of which growth hormones, leading to gall formation? Auxins and Cytokinins d) Brassinosteroids and Salicylic acid
The major difference between Organogenesis and a) Roots b) Shoots c) A bipolar structure (root and shoot poles) d)
141 c
Somatic Embryogenesis is the presence of: Callus
142 Plantibodies are antibodies produced in: a) Bacteria b) Yeast c) Transgenic plants d) Animal cells c
The Vectorless method of gene transfer into plant cells is a) Agrobacterium-mediated b) Electroporation/Biolistics c) Viral
143 b
exemplified by: vectors d) Phage vectors
The antibiotic resistance gene in the T-DNA region is a) Callus growth b) Shoot formation c) Selection of transformed
144 c
used as a selectable marker to ensure: plant cells d) Root elongation
Encapsulation is a step in synthetic seed technology that
145 a) Agar b) Pectin c) Sodium Alginate d) Cellulose c
uses an external coating like:
a) Prevent contamination. b) Ensure uniform aeration and nutrient
The liquid medium used in a cell suspension culture is
146 supply to all cells. c) Promote shoot formation. d) Slow down cell b
agitated to:
division.
The term "bioreactor" in plant biotechnology often refers a) Meristem culture b) Cell suspension culture c) Protoplast culture
147 b
to a large-scale vessel used for: d) Anther culture
 No. Question Options Answer
The principle of totipotency was first experimentally
148 a) Haberlandt b) F. C. Steward c) Skoog d) Murashige b
demonstrated by:
A Polyembryony technique that utilizes somatic embryos a) Sexual reproduction b) Asexual reproduction c) Hybridization d)
149 b
for mass propagation is a form of: Mutation breeding
Genetic transformation in plants is the process of
150 a) Cell wall b) Cytoplasm c) Plant genome d) Mitochondria c
integrating a gene of interest into the:

IV. Animal & Medical Biotechnology (MCQ 151–200)

No. Question Options Answer

Monoclonal Antibodies (mAbs) are highly specific a) Macrophages b) T-lymphocytes c) Hybridomas d) Plasma
151 c
antibodies produced by a single clone of hybrid cells called: cells
In vitro fertilization (IVF), a key technique in human assisted a) Embryos in the uterus b) Gametes in the body c) Ova by
152 c
reproductive technology, involves the fertilization of: sperm in a petri dish d) Zygotes in the fallopian tube
a) Increase their lifespan. b) Produce therapeutic proteins
153 The primary goal of using Transgenic Animals is to: (Pharmaceutics) or serve as disease models. c) Increase their b
speed. d) Improve their fur quality.
Recombinant Human Insulin (Humulin) is produced a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae b) Bacillus subtilis c) Escherichia
154 c
industrially in which microorganism? coli (E. coli) d) Penicillium notatum
Gene Therapy that involves treating the cells removed from
155 a) In situ b) In vivo c) Ex vivo d) In vitro c
the patient and then reintroducing them is called:
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is widely a) DNA sequencing b) Gene amplification c) Detecting
156 c
used in diagnostics for: antibodies or antigens in serum d) Protein purification
The world's first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell a) IVF b) Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) c)
157 b
was Dolly the sheep, using the technique of: Microinjection d) Embryo splitting
a) Rapid movement. b) Producing only one cell type. c) Self-
158 Stem Cells are undifferentiated cells capable of: renewal and differentiation into multiple cell types. d) c
Photosynthesis.
Embryonic Stem Cells (ESCs) are derived from the inner
159 a) Zygote b) Fetus c) Blastocyst d) Gastrula c
cell mass of the:
Vaccines produced using genetically engineered components a) Live attenuated vaccines b) Killed vaccines c) Recombinant
160 c
(e.g., purified surface proteins) are known as: subunit vaccines d) Toxoid vaccines
The primary application of Tissue Engineering is the creation a) New antibiotics b) Recombinant proteins c) Functional
161 c
of: tissues and organs for replacement d) Gene therapies
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used in medical a) Protein profiling b) Antibody detection c) Rapid detection of
162 c
diagnostics for: pathogens (DNA/RNA) d) Blood typing
The cells used to fuse with B-lymphocytes in Hybridoma a) T-cells b) Myeloma cells (cancerous plasma cells) c)
163 b
Technology are: Macrophages d) Red blood cells
Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs) are somatic cells
a) Adult stem cells b) Cancer cells c) Embryonic stem cells d)
164 that have been genetically reprogrammed to exhibit properties c
Mature neurons
similar to:
a) Enhance recovery from injury. b) Artificially enhance athletic
165 Gene Doping in sports involves the use of gene therapy to: b
performance. c) Treat genetic diseases. d) Detect drug use.
Immunotherapy is a treatment that utilizes the patient's own a) Reduce fever. b) Fight diseases like cancer. c) Treat
166 b
immune system to: bacterial infections. d) Increase blood pressure.
a) One part of the body to another. b) An unrelated human donor.
The term "Xenotransplantation" refers to the transplantation
167 c) One species to another (e.g., pig to human). d) A cadaveric c
of organs or tissues from:
donor.
No. Question Options Answer
Biosensors are devices that combine a biological element a) DNA amplification b) Protein synthesis c) Detection and
168 (like an enzyme or antibody) with a physicochemical measurement of biological or chemical substances d) Cell c
detector for the purpose of: culture
Cell-based assays in drug discovery are primarily used to a) Bind to DNA b) Alter cell function or viability c) Affect light
169 b
screen for compounds that: transmission d) Denature proteins
Vaccines typically work by inducing the production of
170 a) Drug b) Nutrient c) Pathogen (Antigen) d) Hormone c
antibodies and memory cells against a specific:
The primary cause of Grave's disease (an autoimmune
171 disorder) is the production of auto-antibodies, which can be a) DNA sequencing b) ELISA c) PCR d) Microarray b
studied using:
Antisense Technology aims to inhibit gene expression by a) The gene promoter b) The target mRNA c) Ribosomal RNA d)
172 b
introducing a nucleic acid sequence complementary to: Transfer RNA
The technique of Embryo Splitting is used in animal a) Genetic chimeras b) Identical twins c) Haploid embryos d)
173 b
husbandry to produce: Polyploid embryos
Recombinant Erythropoietin (EPO), used to treat anemia, is
174 a) E. coli b) Yeast c) Mammalian cells (CHO cells) d) Plants c
typically produced in:
The CHO (Chinese Hamster Ovary) cell line is widely used a) Small molecules b) Antibiotics c) Complex recombinant
175 c
in industrial medical biotechnology for the production of: proteins (e.g., glycoproteins) d) DNA fragments
RNA interference (RNAi), when applied therapeutically, is a a) Protein replacement b) Gene silencing c) Gene activation d)
176 b
form of: Enzyme therapy
The process of creating an exact genetic copy of an organism
177 a) Embryogenesis b) Hybridization c) Cloning d) Fertilization c
is called:
Transgenic cows can be engineered to produce human
178 a) Urine b) Saliva c) Milk d) Skin c
proteins in their:
The therapeutic use of Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAVs) is a) Antibiotic production b) Gene knockdown c) Gene delivery (as
179 c
primarily for: viral vectors) d) Protein purification
DNA Fingerprinting is a technique that analyzes the unique a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Variable Number Tandem
180 c
pattern of: Repeats (VNTRs) d) Lipids
a) Identical organisms b) Stem cells for research and therapy
181 Therapeutic Cloning is primarily aimed at producing: b
c) Recombinant drugs d) New antibiotics
Diagnostic Kits used to detect viral diseases (like HIV,
a) Microarray and Sequencing b) ELISA and PCR c)
182 COVID-19) often employ which two core biotechnology b
Chromatography and Electrophoresis d) Microinjection and SCNT
techniques?
CRISPR-Cas9 is being rapidly adopted for therapeutic use a) Protein synthesis b) RNA degradation c) Gene editing d)
183 c
due to its ability to perform highly efficient: Antibody production
a) Crude petroleum b) Synthetic chemicals c) Living organisms
184 Biopharmaceuticals are drugs derived from: c
or their products d) Inorganic compounds
The Fluorescent in situ Hybridization (FISH) technique is a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Specific DNA/RNA sequences
185 c
used to visually map the location of: on chromosomes/cells d) Lipids
Bioreactors are essential in medical biotechnology for the
186 a) Fungi b) Mammalian cells c) Plants d) Algae b
large-scale culture of:
Recombinant Factor VIII and Factor IX are produced to treat
187 a) Anemia b) Diabetes c) Hemophilia d) Leukemia c
the blood clotting disorder:
The use of Viral Vectors in gene therapy is an example of a
188 a) Electroporation b) Lipofection c) Transduction d) Biolistics c
viral method called:
Prenatal diagnosis using biotechnology techniques primarily a) Physical defects b) Environmental exposure c) Genetic
189 c
screens for: disorders d) Nutritional deficiencies
190 The term "Pharmacogenomics" refers to the study of how a) Diet b) Exercise routine c) Response to drugs d) Sleep c
 No. Question Options Answer
an individual's genetic makeup affects their: patterns
Adherent cell culture is one where cells grow by attaching to
191 a) Liquid b) Solid substrate c) Gas d) Soft gel b
a:
Mass Spectrometry is a key tool in proteomics used to a) DNA sequences b) RNA structures c) Proteins and their
192 c
identify: modifications d) Cell viability
The Hybridoma cell in monoclonal antibody technology is
193 a) B-lymphocyte b) Myeloma cell c) Macrophage d) T-cell b
immortal because it inherits this trait from the:
Recombinant DNA technology allows the production of
194 a) Antibiotics b) Nutrients c) Human pathogens d) Water c
chemically pure therapeutic proteins that are free from:
The application of stem cells to grow specialized cells or a) Drug screening b) Disease modeling c) Organ culture d)
195 b
tissues in vitro for drug testing is called: Gene therapy
Gene silencing is a therapeutic strategy for diseases caused
196 a) Protein b) Lipid c) Gene d) Carbohydrate c
by the over-expression of a specific:
a) New living organisms only. b) DNA sequences only. c) Novel
197 The biotechnology patent protects the invention of: biological processes, products, and their applications. d) c
Scientific discoveries only.
Autologous transplantation refers to the use of cells or a) From an animal. b) From a relative. c) From one part of a
198 c
tissues transplanted: patient's body to another. d) From an unrelated donor.
Cell culture is essential in the production of viral vaccines a) DNA sequencing b) Antibody production c) Virus replication
199 c
because it provides a medium for: d) Protein purification
The enzyme Reverse Transcriptase is used in medical
200 a) DNA b) Protein c) RNA (e.g., retroviruses) d) Carbohydrate c
diagnostics for viruses that have their genome in the form of:

V. Industrial & Environmental Biotechnology (MCQ 201–250)

No. Question Options Answer

The use of microorganisms to break down and degrade a) Bioaccumulation b) Bioleaching c) Bioremediation d)
201 c
environmental pollutants is called: Biofortification
The production of Ethanol biofuel primarily relies on the a) Candida albicans b) Aspergillus niger c) Saccharomyces
202 c
fermentation of sugars by the yeast: cerevisiae d) Penicillium notatum
Bioleaching is the industrial process of using
203 a) Oils b) Metals (e.g., copper, gold) c) Proteins d) Carbohydrates b
microorganisms to recover valuable:
The enzyme Amylase is widely used in the food industry a) Protein digestion b) Starch hydrolysis (breakdown) c) Lipid
204 b
for: breakdown d) DNA amplification
Bioplastics are polymers produced from renewable a) More expensive than oil-based plastics. b)
205 d
biological sources and are generally: Biodegradable/Compostable. c) Non-toxic. d) All of the above.
Single Cell Protein (SCP) is a protein-rich food source
206 a) Plants b) Animals c) Algae, fungi, or bacteria d) Insects c
produced from the mass culture of:
The main product of anaerobic digestion of organic waste in a) Propane b) Methane ($\text{CH}_4$) c) Carbon monoxide d)
207 b
a biogas plant is: Oxygen
Phytoremediation is a type of bioremediation that uses a) Air pollution b) Noise pollution c) Soil or water contamination d)
208 c
plants to clean up: Radiation
Zymase, a complex of enzymes essential for fermentation,
209 a) Bacteria b) Yeast c) Algae d) Viruses b
is naturally found in:
The enzyme Lipase is extensively used in the detergent
210 a) Starch b) Protein c) Fats and Oils d) Cellulose c
industry for breaking down:
211 The primary goal of Waste Water Treatment using a) pH of the water b) Temperature c) Biological Oxygen Demand c
No. Question Options Answer
activated sludge is to reduce the: (BOD) d) Chlorine content
Biofuels derived from non-food plant material a) First-generation b) Second-generation c) Third-generation d)
212 b
(lignocellulose) are classified as: Fourth-generation
Biopesticides are naturally occurring substances or
213 a) Weeds b) Fertilizers c) Pests and diseases d) Soil erosion c
microorganisms used to control:
Composting is a natural process of decomposition of a) Heat b) Pressure c) Microorganisms (aerobic) d) Chemical
214 c
organic materials by: catalysts
The industrial production of Penicillin is achieved through a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae b) Aspergillus niger c) Penicillium
215 c
the large-scale fermentation of the fungus: chrysogenum d) E. coli
The use of microalgae in biotechnology is often aimed at a) Timber b) Biofuels (e.g., biodiesel) and Omega-3 fatty acids
216 b
producing: c) Biopesticides d) Bioplastics
Bioscrubbers and Biofilters are devices used in
217 a) Water b) Soil c) Gaseous emissions/Air d) Solid waste c
environmental biotechnology for the treatment of:
Microbial Enhanced Oil Recovery (MEOR) uses a) Purify crude oil. b) Increase the amount of oil recovered from
218 b
microorganisms to: a reservoir. c) Refine gasoline. d) Treat oil spills.
Genetically Engineered Microorganisms (GEMs) are a) Longer lifespan b) Enhanced degradation capabilities c)
219 b
used in bioremediation because they have: Faster swimming speed d) Higher protein content
Fermenters (Bioreactors) are designed to provide the a) DNA sequencing b) Protein denaturation c) Microbial growth
220 c
optimal conditions (pH, temperature, oxygen) for: and product formation d) Centrifugation
Anaerobic Digestion is the breakdown of organic matter in
221 a) Light b) Heat c) Oxygen d) Water c
the absence of:
Citric Acid is an industrial product commonly produced a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae b) Penicillium chrysogenum c)
222 c
through the fermentation of sugar by the fungus: Aspergillus niger d) E. coli
Bioaugmentation in bioremediation involves the a) Chemical catalysts b) Nutrients c) Specific, highly efficient
223 c
introduction of: pollutant-degrading microbes d) Plants
224 The enzyme Protease is used in the leather industry for: a) Dye fixation b) Dehairing/Bating c) Tanning d) Polishing b
The Bioleaching process often relies on the ability of which a) Anaerobic b) Chemolithotrophic/Acidophilic c) Photosynthetic
225 b
type of bacteria to oxidize sulfur and iron? d) Pathogenic
Bioethanol is mainly used as a fuel additive to increase a) Viscosity of gasoline b) Octane rating and reduce emissions c)
226 b
the: Density of fuel d) Cost of fuel
a) Bioprospecting b) Bioaugmentation c) Bioleaching d)
227 Biomining is an alternative term for which process? c
Bioremediation
The use of Cyanobacteria to fix atmospheric nitrogen in a) Bioremediation b) Biofertilizer c) Biofuel production d)
228 b
paddy fields is an example of: Biopesticide
Lignocellulosic biomass (e.g., agricultural waste) is
229 a) Starch b) Protein c) Lignin d) Fats c
difficult to use for fermentation due to the presence of:
The enzyme Invertase is used in the food industry to a) Maltose b) Lactose c) Glucose and Fructose (Invert Sugar) d)
230 c
hydrolyze Sucrose into: Starch
Bioremediation is typically more effective than chemical a) Is faster. b) Uses higher temperature. c) Permanently destroys
231 c
cleanup because it: the contaminants (mineralization). d) Is cheaper in all cases.
a) Heavy metals b) Toxic chemicals c) Microorganisms (bacteria
232 Activated Sludge in wastewater treatment is rich in: c
and protozoa) d) Inorganic salts
a) Industrial waste b) Human sewage c) Cattle dung/Agricultural
233 The primary source of biogas production in India is often: c
waste d) Algae
Biofilters remove pollutants from air by passing the a) Water b) Activated charcoal c) Microorganism-coated packing
234 c
contaminated air through a bed of: material d) Sand
 No. Question Options Answer
Biopolymers like Polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs) are a) Structural support b) Defense mechanism c) Energy/Carbon
235 c
synthesized by bacteria as a form of: storage d) Nutrient uptake
Fermented milk products like yogurt and cheese are
236 a) E. coli b) Bacillus subtilis c) Lactobacillus d) Saccharomyces c
produced using lactic acid bacteria such as:
Bio-flocculants are microbial exopolymers used in water a) Kill bacteria. b) Neutralize pH. c) Agglomerate and settle
237 c
treatment to: suspended particles. d) Remove colour.
The main difference between Bioremediation and
238 a) Heat b) Waste c) A useful new product d) Only CO2 c
Bioconversion is that bioconversion produces:
239 The process of adding essential nutrients (like nitrogen and b
a) Bioaugmentation b) Biostimulation c) Bioleaching d)
phosphorus) to a contaminated site to enhance microbial
Bioconversion
activity is called:
White Biotechnology is the term for biotechnology applied a) Agriculture b) Medicine c) Industry (e.g., enzyme production)
240 c
in: d) Environment
241 Enzyme Immobilization in industrial processes is done to: a) Increase enzyme solubility. b) Allow for continuous reuse and b
increase stability. c) Prevent denaturation. d) Decrease reaction
rate.
Acetic acid (vinegar) is produced industrially by the
242 a) Saccharomyces b) Lactobacillus c) Acetobacter d) E. coli c
oxidation of ethanol by the bacterium:
Biocatalysis refers to the use of enzymes or whole cells a) Physical processes b) Chemical reactions c) DNA synthesis d)
243 b
to accelerate: Cell division
Phytodegradation is a phytoremediation technique where a) In the air b) In the root zone c) Within their tissues d) In the
244 c
plants break down organic contaminants: water
The enzyme used in the manufacturing of lactose-free milk
245 a) Amylase b) Protease c) Lactase d) Cellulase c
is:
Biogas produced from anaerobic digestion is primarily used a) Chemical synthesis b) Electricity storage c) Heat and electricity
246 c
for: generation d) Refrigeration
The major goal of Marine Biotechnology (Blue a) Fisheries only b) Novel drugs, enzymes, and materials c) Oil
247 b
Biotechnology) is to explore marine resources for: drilling d) Water purification only
248 Bioprecipitation is an environmental biotechnology a) Soluble compounds b) Insoluble precipitates c) Gases d) Acids b
technique that uses microorganisms to immobilize heavy
metals as:
The fermentation used to produce Yogurt is an example of
249 a) True b) False c) Partially true d) Not applicable a
lactic acid fermentation by bacteria.
The term "zero-valent iron" is sometimes used in a) Biofuel production b) Bioplastics c) Bioremediation of heavy
250 c
conjunction with chemical reduction as an aid to: metals/organics d) Biocatalysis

VI. Applied Genomics, Proteomics, & Ethics (MCQ 251–300)

No. Question Options Answer

Genomics is the study of the entire genome of an organism,
251 a) Proteins b) DNA and genes c) Carbohydrates d) Lipids b
including the complete set of:
Transcriptomics is the study of the complete set of RNA
252 a) Genome b) Proteome c) Transcriptome d) Metabolome c
transcripts produced by an organism, which is also called the:
Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) technologies have a) Protein synthesis b) Cell culture c) DNA sequencing d)
253 c
drastically reduced the time and cost of: Gene amplification
The application of Metabolomics is the study of the complete
254 a) Genome b) Proteome c) Transcriptome d) Metabolome d
set of small-molecule chemicals in a cell, called the:
255 Comparative Genomics is the study that compares the a) Random mutations b) Evolutionary relationships and b
No. Question Options Answer
genomes of different species to identify: functional similarities c) Protein structures d) Cell sizes
Bioinformatics is essential for analyzing large datasets
256 a) PCR b) ELISA c) NGS and Microarrays d) Centrifugation c
generated by high-throughput technologies like:
Functional Genomics aims to understand the roles of genes a) Hybridoma technology b) Gene knockout/RNAi c) Tissue
257 b
and non-coding sequences, often using which technique? culture d) Chromatography
Proteomics studies require the separation of complex protein a) PCR b) Gel electrophoresis (2D-PAGE) c) Mass
258 b
mixtures, often achieved using: Spectrometry d) DNA sequencing
The ethical principle that governs research where a participant is a) Justice b) Beneficence c) Informed Consent d) Non-
259 c
fully informed of the risks and benefits is: maleficence
Biopiracy is the term for the uncompensated appropriation of
a) Other indigenous groups b) Governments c)
260 traditional knowledge and biological resources from c
Commercial/Academic interests d) Local communities
indigenous people by:
Structural Genomics aims to determine the three-dimensional a) RNA molecules b) Lipids c) All proteins encoded by a
261 c
structure of: genome d) Carbohydrates
Personalized Medicine is a medical model that uses an a) Diet and exercise b) Drug treatment and dosage c)
262 b
individual's genomic information to optimize: Surgical procedures d) Sleep patterns
High-Throughput Screening (HTS) is a technique used in drug a) One compound at a time b) Thousands of compounds
263 b
discovery to rapidly test: simultaneously c) Only known drugs d) Only toxic compounds
Metabolomics has significant applications in disease a) DNA sequences b) Protein structures c) Metabolic
264 c
diagnosis by identifying specific: biomarkers d) RNA transcripts
Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) raise ethical a) Cost b) Environmental impact and human health safety
265 b
concerns primarily related to: c) Efficiency d) Speed of production
The use of Molecular Docking in drug design is a
266 computational approach used to predict the optimal fit between a a) DNA target b) RNA target c) Protein target d) Lipid target c
drug and its:
Pharmacogenomics is an important aspect of personalized a) Over-the-counter drug use b) Adverse drug reactions
267 b
medicine that seeks to avoid: (ADRs) c) Generic drugs d) Traditional medicine
Proteomics is essential for understanding cell function because a) Raw sequence b) DNA template c) Post-Translational
268 c
it studies proteins in their active form, including their: Modifications (PTMs) d) RNA precursor
Microarray technology is based on the principle of nucleic acid a) Random DNA fragments b) Known DNA probes on a chip
269 b
hybridization between the sample RNA and: c) Ribosomal RNA d) Transfer RNA
a) Books and papers b) Computer software c) Biological
270 Biobanks are specialized repositories that store and catalog: c
materials (e.g., blood, tissue, DNA) d) Chemical reagents
The ethical issue of "Gene Patenting" is primarily concerned a) Living organisms b) Lab equipment c) Isolated DNA
271 c
with the ownership of: sequences and their uses d) General scientific knowledge
Systems Biology is an approach that integrates data from
a) Individual molecules b) The whole organism or system c)
272 genomics, proteomics, and metabolomics to understand b
Single genes d) Single proteins
biological systems at the level of:
The study of the entire collection of microorganisms (and their a) Genomics b) Proteomics c) Metagenomics d)
273 c
genes) found in a particular environment is called: Transcriptomics
The use of Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs) bypasses a) Adult stem cells b) Embryonic stem cells c) Cancer cells d)
274 b
the ethical controversy associated with the use of: Bacterial cells
The European Nucleotide Archive (ENA) and GenBank are a) Protein databases b) Metabolite databases c) Nucleic acid
275 c
examples of large, publicly available: sequence databases d) Structural biology databases
The main ethical concern regarding germline gene therapy (as a) Temporary b) Heritable (passed to future generations) c)
276 b
opposed to somatic) is that the genetic changes are: Not possible d) Only minor
a) Test tubes b) Live animals c) Computer simulations and
277 In Silico research refers to research conducted using: c
analysis d) In vitro cell culture
No. Question Options Answer
High-Content Screening (HCS) is a drug discovery technique
a) A whole organism b) Purified proteins c) Individual cells d)
278 that measures multiple parameters (e.g., morphology, c
DNA fragments
localization) within:
The ethical debate surrounding CRISPR-Cas9 is intensified by a) DNA sequencing b) Protein synthesis c) Human germline
279 c
its potential for easy and efficient: editing d) Plant tissue culture
DNA Barcoding is a technique used in genomics for the rapid a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Biological species d)
280 c
and accurate identification of: Chemical compounds
Bioethics is the study of the ethical, social, and legal issues a) Traditional farming b) Chemical synthesis c) Advances in
281 c
arising from: biology and medicine/biotechnology d) General engineering
Proteomics studies often involve the use of Antibody Arrays to a) DNA sequences b) RNA transcripts c) Multiple proteins
282 c
detect and quantify: simultaneously d) Small metabolites
Predictive Genomics involves using an individual's genetic a) Environmental exposure b) Developing certain diseases c)
283 b
information to calculate their risk for: Career success d) Financial stability
Reverse Genetics is a strategy that starts with a known gene a) Evolutionary history b) Function c) Cellular location d)
284 b
sequence and then determines its: Protein structure
Bioprospecting without benefit sharing with the source a) Biosafety b) Biopiracy c) Gene patenting d) Informed
285 b
country/community is a major ethical issue related to: consent
The ethical concept of Justice in bioethics primarily addresses a) Research funds b) Benefits, risks, and burdens of
286 b
the fair distribution of: research/technology c) Scientific knowledge d) Lab space
Synthetic Biology is an emerging field that involves the design
a) Chemical molecules b) Physical structures c) Existing
287 and construction of new biological parts, devices, and c
natural biological systems d) Computer circuits
systems, or the redesign of:
Pharmacogenetics is a smaller field within pharmacogenomics
288 a) True b) False c) Sometimes d) Not related a
that focuses on the effect of a single gene on drug response.
The term "orphan drug" refers to a therapeutic agent a) Minor illnesses b) Infectious diseases c) Rare diseases d)
289 c
developed for the treatment of: Very common ailments
Structural Proteomics focuses on the determination of the 3D
290 structure of proteins using techniques like X-ray crystallography a) PCR b) ELISA c) NMR Spectroscopy d) DNA sequencing c
and:
The Precautionary Principle in biosafety suggests that when
291 the potential for harm is high and uncertain, caution should be a) Profit b) Scientific progress c) Risk-taking d) Collaboration c
prioritized over:
The process of assigning biological function to specific genes a) DNA sequencing b) Gene synthesis c) Annotation d) Gene
292 c
based on sequence similarity to known genes is called: editing
a) Only lab protocols b) Only financial data c) Nucleic acid
Bioinformatics databases are crucial for storing and retrieving
293 and protein sequences, structures, and functions d) Only c
information on which type of data?
political records
The Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) guidelines are
a) Research labs b) Computers c) Biopharmaceutical
294 mandatory in medical biotechnology to ensure the quality and c
products d) Academic papers
safety of:
Toxicogenomics is the study of how an organism's genome
295 a) Nutrients b) Exercise c) Toxic substances d) Music c
responds to:
Genomic Fingerprinting is a technique used in epidemiology to a) Air pollution b) Pathogens/Outbreaks c) Climate change d)
296 b
track the spread of: Soil erosion
a) Reduced research funding b) Non-therapeutic
The ethical concern about the "slippery slope" in human
297 "enhancements" c) Increased drug costs d) Faster scientific b
germline editing relates to the fear that it might lead to:
publication
RNA sequencing (RNA-Seq) is the modern technique used for
298 a) Genome b) Proteome c) Transcriptome d) Metabolome c
global analysis of the:
No. Question Options Answer
Predictive markers in proteomics are proteins whose presence a) Research grant b) Disease or treatment c) Political election
299 b
or modification can be used to forecast the outcome of a: d) Weather pattern
The ethical use of biological agents and toxins in warfare or
300 a) Biosecurity b) Bioethics c) Biopiracy d) Biosafety a
terrorism is a major concern addressed under: