Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025

MODEL TEST - 24
GENERAL AND FINANCIAL AWARENESS
SECTION-A (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

r’s
1. A high-level committee, headed by Union Home Minister Amit Shah, approved
disaster mitigation, recovery, and reconstruction projects for 9 states with a
total outlay of Rs 4645.60 crore. Which of the following is the funding pattern for
the Urban Flood Risk Management Programme (UFRMP) Phase-2 under NDMF
for 11 cities?
1) 100% Centre-funded 2) 75% Centre, 25% State

2.
ha
3) 90% Centre, 10% State 4) 50% Centre, 50% State 5) 80% Centre, 20% State
Under the new UPI upgrade, users will be able to set or reset their UPI PIN
directly from their UPI app using Aadhaar-based facial authentication, without
requiring which of the following details?

E
1) Mobile number and OTP verification 2) Debit card details or OTP verification
3) Internet banking login credentials
d
4) A registered email ID and password 5) Account number and IFSC code
3. Which of the following statements regarding SEBI’s latest regulations on
Securitised Debt Instruments (SDIs) is INCORRECT?
1) The minimum investment threshold is Rs 1 crore for RBI-regulated originators
ee

in the primary subscription of SDIs.

2) For non-RBI regulated originators, the minimum ticket size applies at both
initial issue and subsequent transfers.
C
3) SDIs with listed securities as underlying must have a minimum ticket size
equal to the lowest face value among such securities.
4) SDIs must be issued and transferred only in demat form.
Sr

5) Originators must retain at least 10% risk retention for pools with loans of
more than 24 months’ maturity.
4. In the Union Budget 2025–26, the government introduced major initiatives to
improve credit access for entrepreneurs and micro enterprises. Which of the
following statements is correct with respect to these announcements?
1) A Credit Card facility offering Rs.2 lakh will be provided to MSMEs registered
on the Udyam portal with a target of 5 lakh cards in the first year.
2) A new Fund of Funds worth Rs.5,000 crore will support startups over a 10-year
C
period.
3) Under a new scheme, 2 lakh first-time entrepreneurs from the OBC category
will receive term loans up to Rs.1 crore.
4) A new customised Credit Card will offer Rs.5 lakh credit to micro enterprises
with a target of issuing 10 lakh cards in the first year.
5) The revamped Stand-Up India scheme will provide working capital loans of
Rs.1 crore to startups in rural areas only
5. According to the RBI’s July 2025 clarification on loans against pledged gold and
silver, what specific declaration must lenders obtain from the borrower to comply
with regulatory norms?
1) A declaration authorizing the lender to re-pledge the gold or silver to a third
party.
2) A declaration confirming the borrower's intent to repay the loan within a
specified timeframe.
3) A declaration stating the historical purchase price of the gold or silver.
4) A declaration affirming that the borrower is the rightful owner of the pledged
gold or silver.
5) A declaration outlining the borrower’s complete financial assets and liabilities.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

6. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) scheme, which of
the following statements is correct regarding its administration and
implementation?
1) It is implemented jointly by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and State
Governments.
2) It is a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Finance.
3) It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented through LIC and CSC e-Governance
Services India Limited.
4) It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme managed by the Ministry of Rural
Development.
5) It is a State Sector Scheme implemented through RBI and NABARD.

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7. Consider the following statements regarding millionaire households in India,
according to the Mercedes-Benz Hurun India Wealth Report 2025:
I) Maharashtra leads with 1,78,600 millionaire households, followed by Delhi
and Tamil Nadu.
II) India has a total of 8,71,700 millionaire households, marking a 90% increase
since 2021.
ha
III) Chennai is the city with the highest number of millionaire households, followed
by New Delhi and Bengaluru.
Which of the above statements are correct?

8.

E
1) I, II and III 2) II only 3) I only 4) III only 5) I and II only
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Development Bank's (ADB)
recent 5-year urban infrastructure initiative in India:
d
I) ADB has launched a 5-year plan anchored by India's Urban Challenge Fund
(UCF), with an investment target of $10 billion for urban infrastructure.
II) The initiative includes sovereign loans, private sector funding, and capital
ee

from third parties.

III) As part of the initiative, ADB has also committed $30 million in technical
assistance to support project design and capacity building.
C
IV) ADB has previously funded metro and RRTS projects in 8 Indian cities,
including the Delhi-Meerut RRTS and Nagpur Metro.
Sr

Which of the above statements are correct?

1) Only I and IV 2) Only I, III, and IV
3) Only I, II, and III 4) Only I, II, and IV 5) All four statements
9. As per RBI’s Master Circular on Agency Commission, which of the following
activities are NOT eligible for payment of agency commission to agency banks?
I) Banking business of autonomous/statutory bodies, municipalities, companies,
corporations, and local bodies.
C
II) Transactions under the Gold Monetisation Scheme, 2015.
III) Transactions arising from Letters of Credit or Bank Guarantees opened by
banks on behalf of Ministries/Departments.
1) Only I 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) I, II, and III 5) III Only
10. During the PSB Manthan 2025 conclave held in Gurugram, the government outlined
its vision for India’s public sector banks (PSBs) in line with the Viksit Bharat
2047 agenda. Consider the following statements:
I. Currently, State Bank of India (SBI) is the only Indian bank in the world’s top
50 banks by asset size, ranked 43rd.
II. HDFC Bank is ranked 73rd globally by asset size.
III. In FY25, PSBs reported a record collective net profit of Rs.1.78 lakh crore,
with SBI alone contributing over 40%.
IV. The government intends to achieve its 2047 target primarily through further
mergers of PSBs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) I and II only 2) II and III only
3) I, II and III only 4) I, III and IV only 5) All I, II, III and IV

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

SECTION-B (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS)

11. The Government of India has launched the “Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi
Yojana (PMDDKY)” to enhance agricultural productivity and support farmers in
underperforming regions. Under this initiative, how many Aspirational Agriculture
Districts have been identified across India?
1) 200 2) 75 3) 90 4) 100 5) 125
12. As per the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, the Index of Eight Core Industries
(ICI) increased by 6.3% (provisional) in August 2025 compared to August 2024.
Among these, which industry has the highest weightage in the ICI?
1) Electricity generation 2) Coal production
3) Fertilizer production
4) Petroleum refinery products 5) Cement production

r’s
13. Shirish Chandra Murmu has been appointed as Deputy Governor of the Reserve
Bank of India for a three-year term starting October 9, 2025. He succeeds which
outgoing Deputy Governor?
1) M. Rajeshwar Rao 2) T. Rabi Sankar
3) Michael Patra 4) Shaktikanta Das 5) B.P. Kanungo
14. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has launched the Sanchar Mitra
ha
Scheme to promote telecom awareness and digital literacy through student
volunteers as ‘Digital Ambassadors’. What are the three core pillars of this
scheme?

E
1) Train, Secure, Empower
3) Connect, Educate, Innovate
2) Digitalize, Mobilize, Globalize

4) Safety, Access, Awareness 5) Learn, Share, Connect

d
15. As per RBI’s “Guidelines on Regulation of Payment Aggregators and Payment
Gateways,” what is the minimum net worth requirement for a non-bank Payment
Aggregator at the time of application for authorisation?
ee

1) Rs.10 crore 2) Rs.15 crore 3) Rs.20 crore 4) Rs.25 crore 5) Rs.30 crore
16. Which public sector bank signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Telecommunications Consultants India Limited (TCIL) to enhance its IT
C
infrastructure and accelerate digital transformation initiatives?
1) State Bank of India 2) Punjab National Bank
3) Bank of Baroda 4) ICICI Bank 5) HDFC Bank
Sr

17. As per RBI guidelines, which of the following is NOT a mandatory condition for a
Small Finance Bank to transition into a universal bank?
1) Loan portfolio must be 100% retail loans
2) Operation as a scheduled bank for at least 5 years
3) Minimum net worth of Rs.1,000 crore
4) Shares must be listed on a recognized stock exchange
5) Profitability and sound asset quality for 2 consecutive financial years
C
18. The 3rd edition of the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) Star Party was recently
held in which Indian region, known for having some of the darkest skies ideal for
astronomy and astrophotography?
1) Western Arunachal Pradesh 2) Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh
3) Eastern Ladakh
4) Rann of Kutch, Gujarat 5) Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu
19. Which fintech company recently launched a new credit card program, with its
first product being the “IndusInd Bank RuPay” credit card, offering 5% rewards
on online purchases and flexible point redemption across various platforms?
1) Razorpay 2) PhonePe 3) CRED 4) Paytm 5) Amazon Pay
20. To mark 25 years of credit empowerment in India, TransUnion CIBIL launched
“CIBIL Ki Kahaniyan”, a special Tinkle comic created with Amar Chitra Katha. It
features Suppandi, Simran, and MyCIBIL to simplify credit concepts and responsible
behavior. Which tagline accompanies the campaign’s print, social, and multi-city
radio outreach?
1) Sahi CIBIL Score, Badhaaye Khushi Ka Score 2) CIBIL Score Se Jeet Ki Ore
3) CIBIL Score – Aapki Arthik Pehchaan
4) Behtar Credit Score, Behtar Kal 5) Credit Ki Shakti, Har Sapne Mein Bhakti

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

21. As part of the Ministry of Women and Child Development’s initiative to formalize
child care under the Samarthya vertical of Mission Shakti, the Palna Scheme
aims to provide full-day creche services through Anganwadi-cum-Creches (AWCCs).
What is the total number of AWCCs targeted for establishment under the scheme
during the 15th Finance Commission period, i.e., up to FY 2025–26?
1) 10,000 2) 12,500 3) 15,000 4) 17,000 5) 20,000
22. In July 2025, Union Minister of State Jitendra Singh unveiled a book titled “History
That India Ignored”, which highlights lesser-known episodes from India's freedom
struggle such as the Vellore Mutiny and the INA trials. Who is the author of this
book?
1) Ramachandra Guha 2) Vikram Sampath 3) Prem Prakash
4) Rajmohan Gandhi 5) Sanjeev Sanyal

r’s
23. Nepal officially joined the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) on August 24,
2025, by signing its Framework Agreement. The IBCA, launched in April 2023 at
Mysuru, prioritises conservation of seven big cat species. Which one of the following
sets correctly includes all seven species recognised by IBCA?
1) Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Caracal, Cheetah, Jaguar, Ocelot
2) Tiger, Asiatic Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Cougar
ha
3) Tiger, Lion, Clouded Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Lynx
4) Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Serval, Jaguar, Puma
5) Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Puma
24. In July 2025, which company was contracted by the Ministry of Defence to supply

E
Air Defence Fire Control Radars to the Indian Army under a Rs.2,000 crore deal
signed under the ‘Buy (Indian-IDDM)’ category?
1) Larsen & Toubro (L&T) 2) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
d
3) Tata Advanced Systems
4) Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) 5) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
25. In the Union Budget 2025–26, the Government announced the Asset Monetization
ee

Plan 2025–30 with a focus on leveraging public sector assets to fund infrastructure
growth. What is the total capital targeted to be mobilised under this plan over the
five-year period?
1) Rs.1 lakh crore 2) Rs.100 lakh crore
C
3) Rs.10 lakh crore 4) Rs.12.5 lakh crore 5) Rs.15 lakh crore
26. The Government of India has appointed which global investment bank as the
transaction advisor for managing stake divestment in four public sector banks —
Sr

Indian Overseas Bank, Central Bank of India, UCO Bank, and Punjab & Sind Bank?
1) Morgan Stanley 2) Citigroup 3) JP Morgan 4) Goldman Sachs 5) Barclays
27. According to the Union Budget 2025–26, the rebate under Section 87A in the
new income tax regime has been significantly increased to benefit middle-class
taxpayers. By how much has the maximum rebate amount been enhanced under
this provision?
1) Rs.60,000 2) Rs.35,000 3) Rs.50,000 4) Rs.40,000 5) Rs.75,000
28. According to the RBI’s June 2025 Financial Stability Report, the gross Non-
C
Performing Asset (NPA) ratio of Scheduled Commercial Banks has dropped to its
lowest in decades. What was the gross NPA ratio recorded as of March 31, 2025?
1) 3.7% 2) 2.3% 3) 2.9% 4) 1.9% 5) 0.5%
29. In September 2025, which institute signed an MoU with SAI’s National Centre of
Sports Science Research to advance sports science and promote indigenous sports
equipment under Atmanirbhar Bharat and “Garv se Swadeshi,” alongside
inaugurating a state-of-the-art Biomechanics Laboratory for athlete movement
analysis?
1) IIT Bombay 2) IIT Madras 3) IIT Delhi 4) IIT Kanpur 5) IIT Hyderabad
30. The Meri Panchayat mobile app, developed by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and
NIC, won the WSIS Prizes 2025 Champion Award for advancing rural digital
governance. Under which category was this recognition awarded at the WSIS+20
High-Level Event in Geneva?
1) Cultural and Linguistic Diversity and Local Content
2) Innovation in Digital Literacy
3) Access to Information and Knowledge for Rural Citizens
4) Empowerment through Community-Driven Digital Platforms
5) ICT Applications: E-Government Services

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

31. As per the changes announced in the Union Budget 2025–26 under the MSMED
Act, 2006, what is the revised maximum investment limit in plant and machinery
or equipment for classification as a small enterprise?
1) Rs.10 crore 2) Rs.25 crore 3) Rs.50 crore 4) Rs.75 crore 5) Rs.125 crore
32. In its latest report, the Reserve Bank of India stated that remittances from Indians
working abroad rose by 14% in FY 2024–25. What is the total remittance value
recorded for this period—the highest ever received by India in a financial year?
1) USD 120.52 billion 2) USD 129.44 billion
3) USD 135.46 billion 4) USD 140.32 billion 5) USD 132.24 billion
33. The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 updated the decades-old definition of
'substantial interest' held by individuals in banks, which determines eligibility
for directorship. What is the revised monetary threshold now prescribed under

r’s
the new amendment, replacing the outdated Rs.5 lakh limit set in the mid-20th
century?
1) Rs.5 lakh 2) Rs.50 lakh 3) Rs.1 crore 4) Rs.2 crore 5) Rs.5 crore
34. To strengthen India’s data innovation ecosystem, IIM Udaipur signed an MoU
with the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s Data Informatics
& Innovation Division to act as a knowledge partner for an initiative that runs
ha
problem-driven hackathons, workshops, and collaborative research in official
statistics. This MoU designates IIM Udaipur as Knowledge Partner for which
initiative?
1) National Data Centre 2) Bharat AI Mission

35.
3) Data Innovation Lab

E 4) Digital India Lab 5) India Statistical Hub

Which Indian state has become the first to empanel sign language interpreters,
translators, and special educators under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, to support
d
children with speech and hearing impairments?
1) Punjab 2) Maharashtra 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Kerala 5) Gujarat
36. The Integrated Tribal Development Programme (ITDP) is a targeted initiative aimed
ee

at improving the socio-economic status of tribal communities through sustainable

livelihood, capacity building, and rural development. This programme is
implemented by which of the following institutions?
C
1) National Dairy Research Institute
2) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3) Small Industries Development Bank of India
Sr

4) National Small Industries Corporation 5) Reserve Bank of India

37. What is the full form of PRAVAAH, the portal launched by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI)?
1) Platform for Regulatory Approvals, Verification and Automated Application
Handling
2) Platform for Resolution and Validation of Authorization and Applications Hub
3) Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation And Authorization
4) Portal for Risk Assessment and Vigilance in Authorization and Handling
C
5) Platform for Regulatory Assessment, Validation, Authorization, and Handling
38. The RBI’s approval for AU Small Finance Bank to convert into a universal bank
allows it to operate without the restrictions applicable to SFBs. Which of the
following is NOT typically a restriction faced by Small Finance Banks before such
conversion?
1) Higher priority sector lending (PSL) target compared to universal banks
2) Limitation on wholesale banking activities
3) Mandatory focus on underserved and unbanked segments
4) Inability to accept public deposits
5) Geographic expansion subject to inclusion goals
39. Under the revised BIS standard IS 2112:2025 for silver hallmarking, effective
from September 1, 2025, which of the following purity grades have been newly
introduced?
1) 925 and 970 2) 970 and 990 3) 958 and 999 4) 835 and 925 5) 800 and 958
40. Which Indian state has launched the country’s first-ever Mining Tourism Project,
blending operational mine visits with cultural and eco-tourism experiences like
the Rajrappa and Patratu circuits?
1) Odisha 2) Chhattisgarh 3) Maharashtra 4) Jharkhand 5) Madhya Pradesh

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Expectations have grown around Bima Sugam, the unified insurance digital
marketplace inaugurated mid-September this year as the platform promised to
simplify how Indians buy, service and manage insurance policies. With India’s
insurance penetration at about 4% of GDP, Bima Sugam carries the potential to
widen access, boost transparency and build trust. The website shows the portal
is live but not yet open for business. Banners on the home page say marketplace
is ‘coming soon.’ When fully functional, Bima Sugam aims to be a one-stop
destination for all insurance needs — from product discovery and quote generation

r’s
to purchase, renewal, claims and grievance tracking. It is designed to integrate
product information across insurers and categories, allowing customers to make
informed choices. Private aggregator websites offer similar services but the
difference is in what Bima Sugam represents — a regulator-backed, industry-
supported digital public platform aimed at bringing credibility, interoperability
and standardisation. It aligns with the national mission of ‘Insurance for All by
ha
2047’ of the Centre and the IRDAI(Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
of India). If executed well, Bima Sugam could do for insurance what UPI did for
digital payments and ONDC aims to do for e-commerce. Its structure as a not-
for-profit entity jointly promoted by insurers and intermediaries signals a blend

E
of regulatory oversight and industry participation — an encouraging governance
model for digital public infrastructure. We can revisit a few expectations we
outlined in Cover Note in 2022 when the idea was announced. Universal
d
participation: Every insurer should be present and list all products. This will
expand choice while highlighting and addressing a persistent issue — too much
choice. The proliferation of policy variants shows innovation of the industry. But
ee

too much choice can overwhelm and confuse. The Securities and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI) faced a similar challenge with mutual funds and resolved it via
standardisation. IRDAI’s introduction of standardised policies in key segments
was a step in this direction; Bima Sugam can advance it by ensuring comparability
C
of features. Comparability and clarity: Insurance benefits often sound similar
but vary widely in meaning. A transparent comparison framework can help
Sr

customers choose wisely. Simplifying insurance language —coverage,

exclusions, co-pay,/A/ top-up — would also make the /B/process more
accessible and lead to /C/standardise underlying benefits of standard terms./
D/ Renewals and mobility: Auto-renewal and secure auto-debit options can prevent
unintentional policy lapses and benefit clients and insurers. Importantly, a
dedicated mobile app is essential for the smart phone generation that prefers to
transact entirely online. If Bima Sugam ensures clarity, comparability and
confidence, it can redefine how India engages with insurance.
C
41. According to the passage, what is the main objective of Bima Sugam?
1) To replace all private insurance aggregators in India
2) To simplify and standardise access to insurance while building trust
3) To offer only life insurance policies online
4) To generate revenue for the IRDAI
5) To provide insurance exclusively for government employees
42. What does the author imply by comparing Bima Sugam to UPI and ONDC?
1) Bima Sugam will offer financial services beyond insurance
2) The platform has the potential to revolutionise insurance like UPI did for
payments
3) Bima Sugam is a private profit-oriented company
4) ONDC and UPI are regulated by IRDAI
5) UPI and ONDC failed to meet public expectations
43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of Bima Sugam?
1) Product discovery and quote generation
2) Claims and grievance tracking
3) Standardised insurance benefits
4) Investment in mutual funds
5) Auto-renewal and auto-debit options

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

44. Which statement can be inferred about India’s insurance penetration from the
passage?
1) It is significantly low, at around 4% of GDP
2) It is higher than most developed countries
3) It has decreased over the past decade
4) It is sufficient and does not require digital interventions
5) Private insurers dominate with no regulation
45. The phrase “too much choice can overwhelm and confuse” in context means:
1) Customers will buy more policies than needed
2) Excessive options without standardisation can make decision-making difficult
3) Insurers should reduce the number of products offered
4) Government intervention in insurance is unnecessary

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5) Digital platforms always complicate choices
46. Which of the following best captures the tone of the passage?
1) Critical of government initiatives
2) Neutral and descriptive
3) Optimistic about the potential of Bima Sugam
4) Pessimistic about the future of digital insurance 5) Satirical
47.
ha
In the above passage a sentence has been highlighted and divided into parts.
Find the error if any, in any one part of the sentence. If there is no error select
option ‘No error’.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
48.

E
According to the passage, why is a mobile app important for Bima Sugam?
1) To allow insurers to manage policies remotely
2) To cater to the smartphone generation that prefers online transactions
d
3) To replace offline insurance offices
4) To collect user data for marketing purposes
5) To track government expenditure
ee

49. What is the significance of “regulator-backed, industry-supported” in describing

Bima Sugam?
1) It indicates government control over pricing only
2) It limits participation to only government insurers
C
3) It ensures credibility, governance, and standardisation
4) It prevents private insurers from offering policies
5) It guarantees profit for intermediaries
Sr

50. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

1) Bima Sugam is already fully operational
2) Auto-renewals are discouraged under Bima Sugam
3) Private aggregators are likely to be banned
4) Insurance penetration in India is around 50% of GDP
5) It could redefine how India engages with insurance if executed well
Directions (51-52): Read the following sentence and answer the given question.
51. You are a doctor at a government hospital. A poor patient refuses to buy an
C
expensive medicine you prescribed, saying he can’t afford it.
What would you most likely do?
1) Scold him for neglecting his health and refuse to treat him further.
2) Ask him to follow the prescription strictly, since treatment is his responsibility.
3) Tell him to come back only when he has money for proper treatment.
4) Explain the importance of the medicine and suggest affordable or generic
alternatives.
5) Ignore his problem since it’s not your duty to handle financial issues.
52. During a late-night emergency, two critical patients arrive at once — one an
accident victim, another a child with breathing difficulty. You are the only available
doctor.
What would you do first?
1) Treat whichever case appears more dramatic to the attendants.
2) Attend to the child first because children deserve priority.
3) Quickly assess both patients, prioritise based on medical urgency, and call for
support staff.
4) Ask nurses to handle both while you finish paperwork.
5) Leave it to the family members to decide who should be treated first.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Directions (53-55): In this question, there are five sentences. One of these five
sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph. Identify the
sentence that does not contribute and mark your answer accordingly.
53. 1) Climate change is causing glaciers to melt, leading to rising sea levels.
2) Coastal cities are investing in flood defenses to prevent damage.
3) Scientists warn that extreme weather events will become more frequent.
4) Governments have signed international agreements to reduce carbon emissions.
5) The frequency of solar eclipses is also increasing globally.
54. 1) The adoption of electric scooters is rising in urban areas, due to convenience
and low cost.
2) Cities are installing dedicated lanes for these vehicles.
3) Safety concerns have emerged, with reports of accidents and injuries.

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4) Local schools are now teaching students to ride bicycles safely.
5) Manufacturers are introducing helmets and safety gear to reduce risks.
55. 1) Renewable energy generation has increased worldwide, with solar and wind
power leading the way.
2) Energy storage technologies are improving to balance supply and demand.
3) The price of smartphones has dropped significantly in recent years.

targets.
ha
4) Policymakers are encouraging investment in clean technologies to meet climate

5) Fossil fuel dependence is decreasing slowly but steadily.

Direction (56-62): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has

E
been numbered. Find out the appropriate phrase which fits the blank appropriately.
Male trees produce pollen, the fine, powdery substance that triggers _________
(56) in many people. Female trees receive pollen to produce fruits and seeds.
d
City planners have often __________ (57) by choosing male trees to avoid the
mess of fallen fruits on streets. In fact, a 1949 US Department of Agriculture
Yearbook recommended male trees to prevent this “nuisance.”
ee

One unintended consequence of this practice is that pollen levels in urban areas
have __________ (58), causing a rise in seasonal allergies and asthma. With
fewer female trees to capture the pollen, the air becomes saturated with
C
allergens. Some scientists argue that the effects of botanical sexism may be
exaggerated and that factors like pollution also play a role. Yet, the link between
_____________ (59) and rising pollen levels remains clear. Understanding this
Sr

issue helps us see how ___________ (60) on public health. By planting the right
balance of male and female plants, cities can ensure residents _____________
(61). It’s a small step, but it can make a ______________ (62).
56. 1)photosynthesis 2) rainfall 3) fruit growth
4) leaf shedding 5) allergies and sneezing
57. 1) chosen female trees for convenience
2) ignored planting altogether
3) gone for male trees to avoid messy streets
C
4) focused only on flowers
5) increased pollution levels
58. 1) stayed constant 2) decreased naturally 3) skyrocketed
4) moved underground 5) vanished completely
59. 1) excess male trees
2) rainfall and fruit growth
3) traffic and leaf shedding
4) female trees and allergies
5) soil quality and snow
60. 1) limited impact on wildlife 2) no effect on humans 3) only aesthetic value
4) guaranteed financial benefits 5) unintended consequences have effects
61. 1) live comfortably without constant sneezing
2) grow their own food
3) plant more trees themselves
4) avoid outdoor activities entirely
5) develop new allergies
62. 1) temporary mess 2) real difference in people’s lives 3) small garden
4) loud noise 5) huge confusion

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Direction (63-64): Read the given sentences carefully. Then, choose the option
that best combines the sentences into a single, grammatically correct, and
meaningful sentence without changing their original sense.
63. Sentence 1: Urban pollution levels have risen sharply due to increased vehicular
emissions.
Sentence 2: Authorities are planning stricter emission norms and promoting
electric vehicles to tackle the problem.
A. Urban pollution levels have risen sharply due to increased vehicular emissions,
and authorities are planning stricter emission norms and promoting electric
vehicles.
B. Authorities plan stricter emission norms and electric vehicles promotion

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because urban pollution levels have risen sharply.
C. To tackle rising urban pollution from vehicular emissions, authorities plan
stricter norms and encourage electric vehicles.
D. Urban pollution is increasing sharply, so authorities will reduce vehicular
emissions and promote electric vehicles.

1) Only A
ha
E. Rising pollution has prompted authorities to implement stricter emission norms
and encourage electric vehicles to curb vehicular emissions.
2) B and D 3) C and E 4) A,C and E 5) B,D and A
64. Sentence 1: Renewable energy investments have surged globally in the past
decade.

E
Sentence 2: Governments are incentivizing clean energy projects to combat climate
d
change and reduce dependency on fossil fuels.
A. Renewable energy investments have surged globally because governments
incentivize clean energy projects to combat climate change.
ee

B. Governments are incentivizing clean energy projects to combat climate change

and reduce fossil fuel dependence, resulting in a surge in renewable energy
investments.
C
C. In the past decade, renewable energy investments have surged globally, with
governments incentivizing clean energy projects to reduce fossil fuel dependency
and fight climate change.
Sr

D. Clean energy projects have surged globally due to government incentives,

reducing dependency on fossil fuels.
E. Governments promote clean energy, which has caused a global increase in
renewable energy investments over the past decade combating climate change
and reduce dependency on fossil fuels.
1) A,B and D 2) B,C and E 3) C,D and E 4) A,B and C 5) A,D and E
Directions (65-66): Read the following passage and answer the question.
C
65. Passage 1
Space exploration has expanded humanity’s understanding of the universe,
inspiring technological innovations and international collaboration. Yet, critics
argue that exorbitant costs and resource allocation could be better spent on
pressing terrestrial issues such as poverty, education, and healthcare.
Passage 2
Deep-sea exploration reveals ecosystems that are largely unknown, providing
insights into biodiversity, climate change, and potential medical applications.
Still, high operational costs and environmental risks pose challenges, raising
questions about research priorities.
The passages collectively highlight:
1) The tension between scientific discovery and societal priorities
2) Space and sea exploration as essential for national prestige
3) Technological innovation always justifies high costs
4) Environmental risk outweighs the benefits of exploration
5) Collaboration is more important than funding in research

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

66. Passage 1
Artificial intelligence in healthcare promises early diagnosis, personalised
treatment, and reduced human error. Yet, challenges like data privacy, algorithmic
bias, and reliance on automated systems require careful oversight.
Passage 2
Blockchain technology can enhance transparency, security, and traceability in
supply chains. But excessive reliance on decentralized systems and technical
complexity poses implementation hurdles for widespread adoption.
Both passages primarily focus on:
1) Technical issues outweighing societal gains from technology
2) AI as superior to blockchain in healthcare applications
3) How decentralisation is a universal solution to modern problems

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4) The benefits and pitfalls of emerging technologies in critical sectors
5) The inevitability of replacing human roles with machines
Direction (67-68): In each of these questions, a paragraph is given that has a
blank in it. Out of the given options, only one fits in with the context of the
paragraph. Select that as your answer.
67. The revival of traditional crafts in India has been accelerated by e-commerce platforms
ha
connecting artisans to global consumers. Workshops and online storytelling increase
awareness of local heritage. _________ Consumers are encouraged to appreciate
cultural significance while supporting sustainable livelihoods.
1) Artisans now face competition from cheap mass-produced goods.

E
2) Platforms provide market access and training for artisans.
3) Traditional crafts have no relevance in modern society.
4) Consumers ignore heritage while buying handicrafts.
d
5) E-commerce only benefits large corporations.
68. Ayurveda and indigenous medicine systems are experiencing renewed interest globally.
Research-backed formulations and wellness tourism have increased adoption, while
ee

collaborations with modern medicine provide integrative care. _______ Regulatory

oversight ensures that claims are validated and treatments are safe for public use.
1) Ancient medicine has been entirely discarded in India.
2) Wellness tourism harms local communities.
C
3) Ayurveda has no scientific backing or modern relevance.
4) Patients reject traditional medicine due to superstition.
5) Quality control and evidence-based validation have enhanced credibility.
Sr

Direction (69-70): In the question below, there are three statements. Each
statement consists of a blank. You have to choose the option which provides the
appropriate word that fit the blank in the given statements appropriately to make
them meaningful and grammatically correct.
69. 1. The diplomat tried to ______ peace between the two nations.
2. Counselors aim to ______ conflicts within families.
3. The mediator helped to ______ tensions among coworkers.
1) resolve 2) reduce 3) remove 4) manage 5) ignore
C
70. 1. The scientist wanted to ______ the theory with further experiments.
2. Editors ______ the manuscript before publication.
3. The government had to ______ the law to include new provisions.
1) amend 2) review 3) revise 4) edit 5) correct
Directions (71-75): Read the following paragraphs carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
Paragraph 1
Small Savings Schemes, also known as Post Office Savings Schemes, have
long served as a conduit for channelising citizen savings. The interest rates are
set quarterly by the government and, for the current quarter, remain unchanged,
making them enticing for investors. These rates are pegged to Government Security
(G-Sec) yields with an additional markup, but oftentimes, the government adds a
“generosity component” or Z, effectively offering rates above formulaic requirements.
For instance, the Public Provident Fund (PPF) rate, which should have been 6.83%
based on the benchmark, is currently 7.1%, while the Senior Citizens Savings
Scheme (SCSS) enjoys a yield of 8.2%, exceeding the formula by 1.08%. Clearly,
the Z factor enhances returns, reflecting a deliberate attempt to incentivise small
investors and retirees, akin to giving them a carrot before the stick.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Paragraph 2
While the allure of higher yields is undeniable, liquidity remains a key
consideration. Instruments such as National Savings Certificate VIII Issue or
Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) are largely illiquid, forbidding premature closure except
under exceptional circumstances, whereas Post Office term deposits allow early
withdrawal at lower rates. Compared with high-grade bank deposits, Small Savings
Schemes provide not only competitive returns but also sovereign security. Investors
must therefore weigh the trade-off between accessibility and superior interest,
remembering the old adage, “a bird in hand is worth two in the bush”—guaranteed
returns may outweigh the temptation of more liquid but lower-yielding alternatives.
Paragraph 3
Recent market movements provide further context. Despite the Reserve

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Bank of India cutting the repo rate from 6.5% to 5.5%, G-Sec yields inched up
over the past few months, reflecting market anticipation of the end of the current
rate cut cycle. This implies that Small Savings rates are unlikely to decline
substantially in the near term. The “generosity component” persists, safeguarding
investors against abrupt reductions, and the government-backed schemes arguably
offer a safer harbor than private bank deposits. Thus, a strategic investor may
ha
find these instruments doubly attractive: they combine yield resilience with
sovereign security, providing a rare combination of safety and profitability in
today’s volatile interest rate environment.
71. Which paragraph primarily explains the rationale behind the “Z” component in
Small Savings Schemes?
4) Paragraphs 2 and 3

E
1) Paragraph 1 2) Paragraph 2 3) Paragraph 3
5) Paragraphs 1 and 2
d
72. Which paragraph focuses on liquidity and practical constraints for investors?
1) Paragraph 1 2) Paragraph 2 3) Paragraph 3
4) Paragraphs 1 and 2 5) Paragraphs 2 and 3
ee

73. Which paragraph links market movements and G-Sec yields to the future outlook
of Small Savings rates?
1) Paragraph 1 2) Paragraph 2 3) Paragraph 3
4) Paragraphs 1 and 3 5) Paragraphs 2 and 3
C
74. Which of the following best captures the contrast between return and liquidity
discussed in the text?
1) High returns and high liquidity 2) Low returns and low liquidity
Sr

3) High returns with low liquidity versus moderate returns with high liquidity
4) Uniform returns and uniform liquidity 5) None of the above
75. If an investor prioritises safety over accessibility, which paragraph would provide
the most guidance?
1) Paragraph 1 2) Paragraph 2 and 1 3) Paragraph 3
4) Paragraphs 1 and 3 5) None
Directions (76): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
C
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
/A/ Artificial intelligence (AI) is transforming multiple industries, including
healthcare, finance, and manufacturing. /B/ AI algorithms are capable to analyze
massive datasets and make predictions. /C/ Experts warn that automation could
replace certain jobs, requiring workforce reskilling. /D/ Many companies are
investing in AI research to gain competitive advantage. /E/ The technology is
expected to become mainstream in the coming decade.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (77-79): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
77. (A) The recent rise in cyberattacks / (B) underline the urgent need / (C) for
governments to invest in digital literacy / (D) and stronger cybersecurity
frameworks./(E) No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

78. (A) Despite several warnings from meteorologists, / (B) the coastal residents
were reluctant / (C) to evacuate until the cyclone / (D) have already reached the
shore./(E) No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
79. (A) The committee has proposed new regulations / (B) that aims to reduce pollution
levels / (C) by encouraging the use of electric vehicles / (D) and renewable
energy sources./ (E) No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Direction (80): In the following question a statement is given. From the given
options identify the statement that doesn’t logically fit with the overall theme.
1) NEP 2020 seeks to enhance vocational education and digital learning skills.
2) Universities are implementing AI-based proctoring to prevent cheating.

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3) The monsoon in Kerala has caused serious disruption to the IT sector.
4) Teacher upskilling programs include experiential learning and critical thinking
modules.
5) Scholarships aim at enabling economically weaker students access higher
education.
REASONING ABILITY
haSECTION-A (20 x 2 = 40 MARKS)
Direction (81-85): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:

E
Eight people are living in twelve houses. All the houses are arranged in a
line facing north direction. Only one person lives in one house. Four houses are
vacant. No two adjacent houses are vacant. (Note: Two people are living between
d
the houses of A and B means two or more than two houses are between the
houses of A and B. Two houses are between A and B means two or less than two
people are living between the houses of A and B).
ee

Only one person lives between the houses of W and Q. V’s house is third to
the right of P’s house. No vacant house places at extreme ends. As many people
lives to the right of R as left of T. No person lives between P and R. Only two
C
houses are between S’s house and R’s house and one of them lives at extreme
ends of the line. P lives to the left of S. The position of Q’s house with respect to
Sr

T’s hoses is same as the position of P’s house with respect to R’s house. U’s house
and Q’s houses are adjacent to each other. W’s house is second to the right of T’s
house.
81. As many houses to the left of W as right of ___.
1) Vacant house 2) T 3) R
4) P 5) Immediate left of V’s house
82. The position of V’s house with respect to the S’s house is same as ___’s house
C
with respect to the ___’s house respectively.
1) P, Q 2) U, T 3) W, R 4) P, R 5) W, V
83. Which of the following houses are vacant as per the given arrangement (counting
from left end)?
1) 3rd, 5th, 9th, 11th 2) 3rd, 6th, 8th, 11th 3) 3rd, 5th, 8th, 11th
rd th th th rd th th th
4) 3 , 5 , 7 , 11 5) 3 , 5 , 8 , 10
84. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) W – U 2) S – P 3) T – R 4) Q – P 5) Q – W
85. Which of the following statement is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) U and S live at extreme end houses which are adjacent to a vacant house
2) Only three people live between R’s house and T’s house.
3) P’s house is adjacent to W’s house.
4) Only five houses are between R and Q.
5) All the statements are true

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Direction (86-89): A number arrangement machine when given an input line of

numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following
is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 724619 268534 614275 819527 574168 682451 392653
491587
Step I: 276491 625843 162457 185972 751486 864215 936235 945178
Step II: 76491 25843 62456 85971 51481 64213 36234 45171
Step III: 9741 2283 1646 8891 8541 4623 9324 8411
Step IV: 634 424 624 649 404 246 278 321
Step V: 77 32 60 91 12 30 73 24
Step VI: 0 1 6 8 1 3 4 2

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Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the
give input.
Input: 752315 349261 581274 273689 438465 763154 821396
693471
86.
ha
What is the difference of the numbers which are 3rd from the left and 4th from
the right end in step IV?
1) 372 2) 544 3) 423 4) 100 5) 393
87.

1) 51 2) 40

E
Which number will be added to the number which is third from the right in step
III to get the perfect square number?
3) 29 4) 34 5) 30
d
88. What is the total of the digits of highest number in Step II?
1) 21 2) 16 3) 25 4) 19 5) 23
89. How many numbers are divisible by ‘3’ in step V?
ee

1) One 2) Four 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than four

Direction (90-91): In this question, the symbols #, @, $, % and & are used with
meanings as
C
Illustrated below:
'P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
Sr

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P & O’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
90. If the given expression ‘G % M $ K @ T & R; N # B % T & S; H $ V % B @ X’ is
definitely true then which of the following conclusions definitely holds true?
1) R % H 2) X # R 3) V % K 4) M @ N 5) H % S
C
91. In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘P # E’ definitely holds
true?
1) X % R $ T @ E, G & M # S % R; N & Y # P # S
2) T # D $ W % E @ X; K @ D & R $ P % U
3) Q & V $ P % G; R # X & B @ V; T $ N % E # R
4) K % A $ J & E & T; W @ P $ C % G # J
5) H & K # E & D $ Y; R % Y & K $ T @ P
92. Study the following information and answer the given question:
Following are the excerpt of a conversation between two employees of ‘Aapka
Mishthaan Bhandar’, a sweet shop in city X:
“If we start customising our sweets as per customer’s taste then our revenue
will definitely increase and we will be able to surpass the sales of All About
Sweets’ to become the number one sweet shop in the city” – Rohan
“Customising sweets as per individual’s taste will not be feasible as we
make sweets in bulk which are generally sold on the same day. Customisation
will increase the processing time which will turn reduce the quantity produced
in a single day” – Ajay.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

What can be inferred from the conversation between Rohan and Ajay about the
feasibility of customizing sweets at ‘Aapka Mishthaan Bhandar’?
1) Rohan’s idea of customization could increase revenue, but Ajay’s concern about
production limitations makes it impractical.
2) Customizing sweets according to individual tastes is the only way to compete
with other sweet shops in the city.
3) Increasing production time will allow the shop to improve its quality but will
reduce the quantity of sweets made.
4) Rohan is ignoring the operational challenges while Ajay is focusing too much
on the current production model.
5) Customizing sweets will lead to a decrease in revenue because it will make
the production process slower and less efficient.

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Direction (93-97): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
questions:
Twenty-one people A to U are working in a software company at six different
posts. The posts are in decreasing order - Chairman, GM (General Manager),
Manager, AM (Assistant Manager), PO (Probationary officer) and Clerk. It is also
known that in any post the number of people posted were one more than the
ha
number of people posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 people
work as a PO that implies 5 people work as a Clerk.
Conditions: 1. No two people are working in the same designation according to
the alphabetical order.

E
2. No two people, whose names are vowels are working in a same designation.
C work as a Assistant Manager and is just junior to H. R and E work at same
d
post. K is senior to M but junior to U. J, B and Q work at the same post. N and G
work at same post and are junior to C. I is just senior to D. S and F work at the
same post. L is senior to T but junior to K. H is junior to I. A is just senior to K. P
ee

does not work with H.

93. Which of the following is at the same post with J?
1) D 2) G 3) O 4) F 5) A
94. How many people were at the same post with R?
C
1) Five 2) Three 3) Two 4) One 5) Four
95. How many people are senior to S?
1) Three 2) Seven 3) Six 4) Ten 5) Eight
Sr

96. P works at which amongst the following posts?

1) Chairman 2) Probationary officer 3) General Manager
4) Clerk 5) Manager
97. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) Assistant Manager – K 2) Clerk – B 3) Chairman – U
C
4) Manager – T 5) General Manager – I
98. Study the following information and answer the given question:
“I have been to the annual mega shopping festival of country X and I must
say they have many attractive deals. I saved Rs. 10,000 on the laptop I purchased
from there.” - Rahul
“But the amount you paid as the custom duty will almost negate the discount you
got. Even though it still saved you Rs. 5,000 it we compare the domestic prices,
but considering the extra amount you will have to pay to get the same warranty
period as in our country, it will save you nothing”. - Aditi
Which of the following can be concluded from the given conversation?
(A) Rahul had to pay Rs. 5,000 as the custom duty.
(B) The warranty period of the laptop bought by Rahul in the home country of
Aditi is more than country X.
(C) Rahul may not get the equivalent discount on the laptop in his home country.
(D) The annual mega shopping festival of country X is best known for its deals in
laptops.
1) Only A 2) Both A and C 3) Both C and D
4) Only A, B and C 5) Both A and B

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Direction (99-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
P % Q means P is Sister of Q.
P ^ Q means P is Mother of Q.
P * Q means Q is Son of P.
P $ Q means P is Daughter-in-law of Q.
P @ Q means Q is the Brother of P
P & Q means P is the Spouse of Q
P # Q means P is the Brother-in-law of Q
P ~ Q means P is the Father of Q.
99. How is R related to A in the given expression ‘X~V%A&J^B@S&R’?
1) Father-in-law 2) Son 3) Son-in-law

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4) Nephew 5) Daughter-in-law
100. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to make the statement ‘H is
the sister-in-law of T’ definitely true in the expression?
T $ A & D ^ H (?) M # X ~ V
1) @ 2) % 3) Either % or & 4) & 5) Either ^ or *
SECTION-B (20 x 1 = 20 MARKS)
ha
101. In the following question contains five options each option contains four words
and numbers given at end of each option and the first number related to first
word, second number related to second number, third number related to third
number and fourth number related to fourth word respectively, the numbers are

E
assigned from left to right of each word (e.g.: SIT, BUN, TRY, DON – 2,1,3,1 then
taken IBYD) then which of the following word forms atleast two meaning full four
letter word with each letter using only once based on the numbers assigned to
d
it?
1) HOPE, RAIN, GOAL, WEAR – 3, 2, 1, 4
2) CARD, MORE, KING, DEAF – 3, 4, 2, 4
ee

3) TUNE, DOVE, SIGN, LAZY – 3, 4, 1, 3

4) POLE, YARK, DUET, SAND – 1, 4, 3, 2
5) HAND, TENT, MEAL, GANG – 1, 3, 1, 2
Direction (102): The given question consists of a question and two statements
C
numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the three statements
and mark the appropriate option.
Sr

102. Seven people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were born in seven different months viz.
January, March, May, June, August, September and December of the same year.
Only one person was born in each month. No other person was born in the given
year. Each person likes different Fruits viz. Avocado, Apple, Guava, Kiwi, Papaya,
Grape and Banana. S likes which fruit?
Statement I: U was born in a month having only 30 days. Only two people were
born between U and the one who likes Grape. S was born immediately before the
one who likes Avocado. Only one person was born between T and the one who
C
likes Guava. S likes neither Grape nor Kiwi.
Statement II: As many people were born after T as before Q. The one who likes
Grape was born immediately before T. Only two people were born between the
one who likes Apple and the one who likes Papaya. T doesn’t like Papaya.
Statement III: The one who likes Banana was born in a month having only 30
days. Only three people were born between the one who likes Banana and S. T
was born after S. The one who likes Kiwi was born immediately before R. Only
one person was born between R and the one who likes Apple. U likes neither
Apple nor kiwi.
1) Either the data in statement I & II together is sufficient or I & III together is
sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in all statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the
question
3) The data in both statements I and III together are necessary to answer the question
4) Either the data in statement I & II together or II & III together is sufficient to
answer the question
5) The data in all statements I, II and III together are sufficient to answer the
question

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

103. Read the given information and answer the question:

It was found out recently that College A - an engineering college- was running
its classes without a certification from the government. “Although the institute
has been running for the past one and a half year only. We have recently found
out that the institute does not have any valid certification from the government.”
an official added. Which of the following course of action can be taken by the
government to deal with this situation?
1) The students who are currently studying in the college A should be allowed to
continue and should be awarded a degree and thereafter the college should be
shut down.
2) The college A should be asked to pay a fine as penalty and should be legalised

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with immediate effect to avoid any kind of controversy.
3) The college should be shut down and should also be asked to refund the fees
collected from the students.
4) The teaching methods and the calibre of students studying in the college
should be scrutinised and if it is up to the mark the college should be legalised.
ha
5) The entire staff of the institute should be penalised and should be asked to
provide a written apology letter to the government.
Direction (104-107): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:

E
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born in eight different years
viz. 1962, 1973, 1979, 1984, 1992, 1998, 2004 and 2011. Each of the given people
d
is born on 15 th January of their respective years of birth. All calculations are
done with respect to the present year – 2025. It is assumed that no person was
born in any of the given years or any other year. F was born in the leap year. The
ee

age difference between H and D is 25 years. Only one person was born between
G and F. E is elder than G but younger than H. The sum of the ages of C and D is
equal to the age of A. F is elder than D.
C
104. If F’s Brother is 7 years elder than F, then F’s Brother was born in which year?
1) 1983 2) 1986 3) 1985 4) 1981 5) 1987
105. Whose age difference is equal to that of H and E?
Sr

1) A – F 2) G – C 3) B – A 4) F – D 5) B – H
106. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
1) E was born on an even numbered year.
2) More than two people were born between C and F.
3) The age difference between A and G is less than fifteen.
4) The sum of the ages of E and G is a prime number.
C
5) All the statements are true
107. What is the sum of the ages of C, A and B?
1) 125 years 2) 107 years 3) 104 years 4) 116 years 5) 118 years
Direction (108-110): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
“Network Super Actual Frequent” is coded as “F@13 L$25 V&26 K%37”
“Ideal Desktop Judges Turnover” is coded as “E&38 G$20 V%21 T@29”
“Modeling Strange Clean Although” is coded as “V%17 F&9 R&20 M$24”
“Corner Meant Design Excited” is coded as “Z%33 G$9 M@21 R@18”
108. What is the code for the word “Freedom”?
1) W@31 2) V$19 3) L%33 4) W$19 5) V@31
109. What is the code for the word “Human Educator Recent”?
1) G&23 X@32 N&22 2) M@21 V@38 G&23
3) V@38 N%22 G&23 4) F&23 N%22 M@36
5) N%22 G$21 V%36
110. “E$22” is the code for which of the following word?
1) Favour 2) Water 3) Forever 4) Junction 5) Deliver

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111. This question consists of a statement and two inferences numbered I and II given
below it. An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred
from the given facts. You have to decide which of the given inference/s logically
follow/s from the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statement: It has been observed in schools that many students engage in bullying
those who are either younger to them or vulnerable, despite being punished
repeatedly. However, research suggests that, bullying behaviour reduces in
students who are sent for counselling as compared to those who are only punished
for the same.
I. No student who is sent for counselling engages in bullying behaviour.
II. Counselling is more effective in modifying behaviour of students as compared

r’s
to punishment.
1) Both I and II can be inferred from the given information
2) Only I can be inferred from the given information
3) Either I or II can be inferred from the given information
4) Only II can be inferred from the given information
5) Neither I nor II can be inferred from the given information
ha
Direction (112-113): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
In the given questions, two rows are given and to find out the resultant of a
particular row following rules are given.

E
Step 1 – If an even number is followed by an odd (not prime) number then the
resultant will be the difference between the two numbers.
d
Step 2 - If an odd number is followed by a perfect square number then the resultant
will be the sum of the two numbers.
Step 3 - If an even number is followed by a prime then subtract 4 from the
ee

highest number in both.

Step 4 - If an odd number is followed by an odd (not square) number then the
resultant will be the difference between the two numbers.
Step 5 - If an odd number is followed by even number( not square) then add 3 to
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the resultant of difference between the two numbers.
Step 6 - If an Even number is followed by even number then subtract 3 from the
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resultant of sum of the two numbers.

112. Find the sum of the resultant of the two rows, if X is the resultant of the second
row?
7 25 X
12 17 6
1) 48 2) 37 3) 41 4) 49 5) 36
113. What is the product of resultant of the two rows?
13 27 8
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4 15 24
1) 314 2) 334 3) 304 4) 354 5) 324
114. Given below are three combinations (i), (ii) and (iii) of five letters. In each
combination you have to arrange all the letters as per English alphabetical order.
Then, in each combination the first letter from the left end will be numbered I,
the second letter from the left end will be numbered II, the third letter from the
left end will be numbered III and so on. Hence in each combination I, II, III, IV
and V will denote the position of the letter from left end.
(i) I E W N H
(ii) V K C M R
(iii) P G X A T
From each of the given words, the letters that are at the same position are
clubbed together. The letters at which of the position/s (I, II, III, IV and/or V) will
appear alphabetically if taken in order of combination (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively
?
1) Only IV 2) Only II
3) Both III and IV 4) Both III and V 5) Only III, IV and V

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

115. Study the given information and answer the given question:
Information: Given below are the statements by Directors of public and central
libraries of state A.
We have been offering persistent programming opportunities for youth to increase
their ability to express themselves using technology and to engage in connected
learning with their peers. With the newly formed Tech Squad” we plan to provide
opportunities for older teenagers to increase their leadership and problem solving
skills to make them more employable. – Director of public Library
We have created a safe space for teenagers called Teen Central’ that reflects the
needs and interests of teens including a gaming zone, a media room and a lab
which helps them to create, learn and collaborate. It is in addition to the facilities

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provided in the schools currently. – Director of Central Library
(A) The role of the librarians has shifted to include more management and
supervisory tasks while the job classification has not evolved at the same pace.
(B) Trying to connect to the organisations and schools that are willing to work
with school and college dropouts.
ha
(C) The importance of programme cannot be overstated because it not only helps
find better career prospects but also advances the nation’s economy.
(D) Participants and teen leaders alike create original digital and artistic content
and innovate in supportive and flexible programming after school.

E
(E) This programme intersects with the importance of connected learning, and
opportunities to learn in different ways. However, it reports that resonates most
d
with this project has to do with how we shift our mindset to grow.
What is over view of the statements given by the Directors of public and central
libraries of state A?
ee

1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) & (B)

3) Only (B) & (E) 4) Only (D) 5) Only (A) & (C)
Direction (116-119): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
question:
Seven boxes viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept one above the other in a
stack. Each box contains different items.
Sr

Only three boxes are kept between box P and the box which contains Bottle.
The box which contains Books is kept above box O. Only one box is kept between
box N and the box which contains Watches. Box S is kept immediately below the
box which contains Mobiles. As many boxes are kept between box R and the box
which contains Books as between box M and the box which contains Bottles. Only
two boxes are kept between the box which contains Erasers and the box which
contains Cups. The box which contains Watches is kept immediately above the
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box which contains Bottles. Box S is kept above box N. Box S doesn’t contain
Watches. Only two boxes are kept between box S and box Q. As many boxes are
kept above box Q as below the box which contains Mobiles. One of the boxes
contains laptops. Neither box M nor box N contains Erasers. Box N is kept below
box P.
116. Which of the following box contains Watches?
1) Box M 2) Box R 3) Box O 4) Box N 5) Box Q
117. How many boxes are kept between the box which is immediately above box P and
the box which is immediately below the box which contains Cups?
1) Two 2) None 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three
118. Box P contains which of the following items?
1) Erasers 2) Laptops 3) Cups 4) Books 5) Mobiles
119. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) S – Erasers 2) N – Watches3) R – Books 4) Q – Cups 5) S – Bottles

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

120. Study the following information and answer the given question:
Information: A company called ‘Pureei’ has been an established brand for hand-
made organic soaps. They have decided to start producing organic shampoo and
conditioner bars designed specifically for people experiencing problems like hair
fall, dandruff or premature greying of hair. The bars can be personalised according
to the user’s hair texture, scalp and severity of the problem. The CEO of ‘Pureei’
has decided to not choose any already established film actress as a brand
ambassador and go for unconventional choice. The following three options were
shortlisted by the marketing team:
• Candidate A: A young and upcoming male actor whose first film is due to release
next year.
• Candidate B: A female athlete who has won a medal in the world championship.

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• Candidate C: A young girl who is famous for her YouTube channel (A social
media platform where you can upload videos for everyone to see)
Though the first choice of the CEO was candidate A, the company ultimately
chose candidate C as their brand ambassador.
Which of the following may have been an assumption made by the company to
arrive at the given decision?
ha
1) Most of the people are attracted by the posts on Youtube channel.
2) Whatever the CEO’s choice is, it is always opposed by the company.
3) The videos uploaded by the young girl are not attracted by the viewers.
4) The young girl attitude is not condusive to the company.

E
5) The young girl failed in promoting sales in her previous records or Companies.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
SECTION-A (15 x 2 = 30 MARKS)
d
Direction (121-122): One term is wrong in series I, II & III. What is the pattern
and answer the question given below.
Series I: 243 244 249 257 273 305
ee

Series II: 135 292 587 1179 2365 4741

Series III: 289 339 393 451 513 574
121. If the correct term of series II and series I is the fourth and third term, respectively,
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of another series whose first term is 445 and fifth term is 45, then what is the
sixth term of the series?
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1) 55 2) -55 3) -45 4) 40 5) -65

122. The difference between the all the correct term together and all the wrong term
together in the given series is Z. Find the value of Z .
1) 9 2) 8 3) 5 4) 3 5) 4
Direction (123-124): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions:
In Family A, Rajesh is 14 years older than Meena. The ratio of Meena's age
to Anika's age is 5 : 2. Aarav is 3 years older than Anika. After four years, the
C
ratio of Aarav's age to Meena's age will become 7 : 13. In Family B, Rakesh, Neha,
Diya, and Kunal are respectively 3 years, 4 years, 6 years, and 8 years older
than Rajesh, Meena, Anika, and Aarav of Family A.
123. What is the difference between the average age of the family A and average age
of family B?
1) 5.75 2) 8.75 3) 5.25 4) 3.75 5) 4.25
124. What is the ratio of the Neha age after 7 years to the Aarav age before 9 years?
1) 4:5 2) 23:4 3) 1:2 4) 4:23 5) 5:4
125. A four-digit odd number 1043, when divided by M leaves remainder 3 and when
divided by N leaves remainder 7. N is even and four more than M. Which of the
following is/are correct about M and N? [3 < M < 12]
I. N + M = 24
II. N  M = 140
III. 3M - N = 16
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) All are true
4) Only I and III 5) Only III

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

126. Bag A contains 4 green and 6 white balls and bag B contains 6 green and 4 white
balls. One ball is drawn at random from bag A and placed in bag B. Then one ball
is transferred at random from bag B to bag A. If one ball is now drawn at random
from bag A, What is the probability that it is green.
33 23 27 13 23
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
25 25 25 25 55
127. A car leaves town A for town B at a speed of 40 km/h. After 3 hours, the speed of
the car increases to 70 km/h. It reaches town B in 8 hours from the start. 4
hours after the car had started from town A, a bus leaves town B for town A.

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What should be the speed of the bus so that the bus meets the car at a distance
of 350 km from A?
1) 45 2) 51.5 3) 65 4) 60.5 5) 52.5
128. A shopkeeper bought P articles. The total selling price of all P articles equals the
total cost price of 84 articles. He marked each article at Q% above its cost price
ha
and then allowed a 25% discount on the marked price. The per-article selling
price and cost price are in the ratio 3 : 2. Had he given an additional 30%
discount on the marked price (i.e., total discount 55%), then he would have sold

information?
I) P

E
one article at Rs. R. Which of the following can be determined from the above
d
II) Q
III) Profit percentage
ee

IV) Ratio of marked price to cost price

1) Only I 2) Only I , II and IV 3) All are determined
4) Only I, III and IV 5) Only IV
C
Direction (129-133): Refer the table and answer the following questions.
There are five departments in a company: A, B, C, D, and E. The table below
shows the total number of employees in each department, the percentage of
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absent employees among the total employees on Friday and the percentage of
absent employees among the total employees on Saturday.
The percentage of absent The percentage of absent
Total
Departments employees among the employees among the total
employees
total employees on Friday employees on Saturday
C
A 720 ------- 12 %
B -------- 30% 40%
C 600 20% -------
D 1200 ------- 30%
E -------- 40% -------
129. If the total absent employees in department in D on Friday are 130 less than on
Saturday, then what percentage of the total employees in department D are
present on Friday? (Approximately)
1) 75 2) 80 3) 90 4) 70 5) 60
130. Average number employees present in department A, C and D together on Saturday
is 600, then what is the total number of absent employees in department C on
Saturday?
1) 330 2) 240 3) 260 4) 350 5) 270

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

131. The ratio of number of present employees in department A on Friday to that

Saturday is 8 : 9, then what is the average of total number of absent employees
in department A and C on Friday?
1) 130 2) 140 3) 150 4) 125 5) 160
132. If the ratio of present to absent employees in department E on Saturday is 2 : 1,
then what is the ratio of number of present employees in department E on Friday
to that on Saturday?
1) 9 : 10 2) 8 : 9 3) 7 : 9 4) 1 : 2 5) 3 : 5
133. If the total employees in department B are 200 less than that in department D,
then what is the difference between number of present employees in department

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B on Friday and Saturday.
1) 1300 2) 500 3) 100 4) 300 5) 200
134. A person invested Rs.3600 at R% per annum simple interest and Rs.4800 at (R +
3)% per annum simple interest. If total interest received by him at the end of 3
years is Rs.4968. What is the compound interest earned on Rs.13230 at (R+3)%
ha
per annum compounded annually in 2 years? (in Rs.)
1) 6140.043 2) 6240.053 3) 6350.456 4) 7506 5) 7106
135. In a singing competition, there are three teams X, Y and Z performing against

E
each other. Team X has 5 girls and 7 boys. Team Y has two more boys and one
more girl than team X. Team Z has two boys and one girl less than team X. If one
d
of the participants is randomly selected and is found injured, What is the probability
that the injured participant is not a girl from team Y?
3 5 1 1 3
ee

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
4 6 6 2 4
SECTION-B (20 x 1 = 20 MARKS)
C
136. The ratio of the ages between Ravi and Sohan is 7 : 4. The difference between
the ages of Tarun and Ravi is more than 6 years. The age of Meena is a prime
number between the ages of Ravi and Tarun. The ratio of the ages of Sohan and
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Tarun is 4 : 5. If the ages of all four are integers, what is the minimum possible
difference between the ages of Tarun and Meena?
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4 5) 0
137. Anil invests 24,000 for 5 years in a scheme offering 20% p.a. compounded annually.
After 3 years, he withdraws only the total interest earned on the sum deposited,
then the scheme changes to simple interest at the rate of interest 25% for the
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remaining time period. How much the total interest he receives from the scheme?
(in Rs.)
1) 24500 2) 21500 3) 25022 4) 24672 5) 29472
138. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 3 : 1 and the average age
of whole class is ‘x’ years, and the average age of girls is (x + 15) years,then what
is average age of boy in the class? (in years)
1) x+5 2) Can’t be determined 3) x-5
4) x-15 5) x-3
139. The area of a rectangle decreases by 96 cm² if the length of the rectangle is
1
decreased by 3 cm and the breadth of the rectangle is decreased by 33 %. The
3
original area of the rectangle is 240 cm². What is the perimeter of a square
whose side is 2 cm more than the original length of the rectangle? (in cm)
1) 130 2) 112 3) 144 4) 128 5) 120

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Direction (140-144) : Read the following bar graph, table chart and answer the
following questions.
There are two organizations P , Q in Hyderabad and the bar graph shows
the total revenue generated in different years i.e 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023 and
2024 and table shows the ratio of two organizations generated revenue in that
particular year.

Total revenue generated by two

organization (in Crores)
900

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720

540

360
ha
180

E
d
2020 2021 2022 2023 2024
ee

Years The ratio of revenue generated by two organizations P : Q

2020 11 : 7
C
2021 19 : 5
2022 13 : 5
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2023 31 :14
2024 23 : 31
Note:
Profit = Revenue - Expenses
140. If the profit for Organization P and Q are 20% and 30% of their revenue respectively
C
for every year, then which year the difference between their profits was the
highest. (in Crores).
1) 2020 2) 2022 3) 2021 4) 2023 5) 2024
141. The revenue of organization P in 2024 is approximately what percentage of the
total revenue of organization Q over the years 2020 and 2021 together?
1) 185 2) 192 3) 122 4) 175 5) 154
142. If in 2025 total revenue is 20% more than the total revenue of 2023, and the
revenue sharing ratio for P and Q is to be 5 : 1, then what is the difference
between Q's revenue in 2024 and 2025? (in crores)
1) 239 2) 160 3) 190 4) 170 5) 339
143. What is the difference (in Rs. Crores) between the total revenue of organization
P over the five years and the total revenue of organization Q over the five-years?
1) 488 2) 588 3) 368 4) 450 5) 320
144. In which year did organization Q contribute the third-lowest percentage to the
total annual revenue?
1) 2020 2) 2023 3) 2024 4) 2022 5) 2021

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

Direction (145-149): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
4
145. ( of 3
10648.01 × 8) + 39.85% of 848.8 = ?
44.15
1) 420 2) 250 3) 320 4) 356 5) 380
146. (672.01 ÷ 6.73 ÷ 7.65) + 144.01% of 179.8 = ?
1) 426 2) 250 3) 322 4) 273 5) 385
18.85 1.99 2.88 1 6.99
147.    ? 
19.89 4.89 9.63 3.99 19.90

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7 3 9 11 17
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
20 20 20 20 20
148. 32.014 ÷ 7.64 ÷ 16.02 = ?² - 15.73 × 7.68
1) 11 2) 12 3) 13 4) 22 5) 23

2) 138
ha
149. 5.01% of 1599.89 - 6.02% of 899.98 + 12.89 × 7.99 = ?
1) 140 3) 130 4) 150 5) 110
Direction (150-151): Study the information carefully and answer the following
questions.

E
Data is about the number of cakes and pastries ordered by three families P,
d
Q and R in a month.
7
Total number of cakes ordered by families P and Q together is 27 % more
9
ee

than that ordered by family R. Number of pastries ordered by families P and R

are respectively 70% and 50% of that ordered by family Q.
C
150. If the number of cakes ordered by families Q and R are 20 and 36 more than that
ordered by family P respectively, then the number of cakes ordered by family Q is
what percent more/less than that ordered by family R? (approximately)
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1) 20 2) 22 3) 40 4) 12 5) 15
151. If average of number of pastries ordered by families P and R is 48, then what is
the value of number of pastries ordered by all the three families is divided by 11?
1) 16 2) 20 3) 17 4) 6 5) 11
152. Anil, Kiran, and Vijay started a business with investments of Rs. 4800, Rs. 9600,
and Rs. 14400 respectively. After 8 months from the start of the business, Anil
and Kiran invested additional amounts in the ratio 1: 2 respectively. If the total
profit at the end of a year is Rs. 24000, Anil's share out of the total profit is Rs.
C
4400, then what is the additional amount invested by Kiran? (in Rs.)
1) 3200 2) 6400 3) 2400 4) 3600 5) 2000
Direction (153-155): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II.
You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question.
153. The cost price of one notebook, two pens and three markers is Rs. 41. What is the
cost price of 2 notebooks and 1 marker? (in Rs.)
Statement I: The difference between the cost price of one notebook and one pen
is Rs. 7.
Statement II: The sum of the cost prices of pen and one marker is Rs. 11.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS (CSA) CLERKS MAINS-2025 MT - 24

154. Anil, Bharat and Charan started a business together with different investments.
What is Bharat's share in the annual profit? (in Rs.)
Statement I: The ratio of Anil's, Bharat's and Charan's investments is 3:5:7 and
Charan's investment is Rs. 42,000.
Statement II: Bharat invested for 6 months, while Anil and Charan invested for
a full year, and the total annual profit is Rs. 22,800.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.

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2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
ha
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
155. A piece of work can be completed by A, B and C working together. In how many

E
days can B alone complete the work?
Statement I: A and B together can complete the work in 12 days, while B and C
d
together can complete it in 15 days.
Statement II: A, B and C together can complete the work in 10 days.
ee

1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
C
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
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3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.

4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.

KEY
C
1.3 2.2 3.3 4.4 5.4 6.3 7.5 8.4 9.4 10.3
11.4 12.4 13.1 14.3 15.2 16.2 17.1 18.3 19.3 20.1
21.4 22.3 23.5 24.2 25.3 26.4 27.1 28.2 29.3 30.1
31.2 32.3 33.4 34.3 35.1 36.2 37.3 38.4 39.3 40.4 SCAN QR FOR
41.1 42.2 43.4 44.1 45.2 46.3 47.4 48.2 49.3 50.5 OUR RESULTS
51.4 52.3 53.5 54.4 55.3 56.5 57.3 58.3 59.1 60.5
61.1 62.2 63.4 64.2 65.1 66.4 67.2 68.5 69.1 70.3
71.1 72.2 73.3 74.3 75.4 76.2 77.2 78.4 79.2 80.3
81.4 82.4 83.3 84.5 85.3 86.3 87.5 88.3 89.2 90.4
91.5 92.2 93.3 94.5 95.3 96.3 97.4 98.1 99.5 100.3
101.2 102.4 103.2 104.3 105.4 106.4 107.5 108.4 109.3 110.5
111.4 112.4 113.3 114.3 115.4 116.3 117.4 118.5 119.5 120.1
121.2 122.5 123.3 124.2 125.3 126.5 127.5 128.3 129.2 130.5
131.2 132.1 133.3 134.1 135.2 136.2 137.5 138.3 139.4 140.5
141.2 142.5 143.2 144.2 145.4 146.4 147.1 148.2 149.3 150.2
151.1 152.2 153.4 154.3 155.3

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