29-10-2025

7101CMD303051250007 MD

PHYSICS

1) Four equal charges q0 each, are kept fixed on the vertices of a square of side 'a'. Charge q1 is kept
at the center of the square as shown in the figure. Then which statement is correct. (here charge q1
is restricted to move perpendicular to XY plane i.e. along z-axis)

(1) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium.

(2) charge q1 is in unstable equilibrium.
(3) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have different (opposite) signs.
(4) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have same signs.

2) A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released.
The kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is -

(1) qEy2
(2) qEy
(3) qE2y
(4) q2Ey

3) The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of
mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2 >R1) is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two pith balls with mass m are suspended from insulating threads. When the pith balls are given
equal positive charge Q, they hang in equilibrium as shown in figure. We now
increase the charge on the left pith ball from Q to 2Q while leaving its mass essentially unchanged.
Which of the following diagrams best represents the new equilibrium configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2g and a charge of 5.0 µC. It is at rest in a uniform
horizontal electric field of intensity 2000 V/m. At equilibrium, the angle that the pendulum makes
with the vertical is : (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) tan–1(5.0)
(2) tan–1(2.0)
(3) tan–1(0.5)
(4) tan–1(0.2)

6) Two identical charged balls each of mass m are suspended from a common point. Length of each
string is ℓ. In equilibrium distance between balls is r then what will be tension force in string :-

(1)
(2)

(3) mg

(4)

7) A and B are two small, identical and conducting spheres. Their separation is 'r'. They have
unequal amount of charge q and 2q respectively. They repel each other with force F. If they are
brought in contact and again separated to distance '2r' then they will repel each other with force :-

(1)
F

(2)
F

(3)
F
(4) 9F

8) A ring of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge +Q. A point charge –q is placed on the
axis of the ring at a distance 2R from the centre of the ring and released from rest. The particle:-

(1) Executes a SHM along the axis of the ring.

(2) Moves to the centre of the ring and remains at rest there.
(3) Executes oscillatory motion but not SHM.
(4) Moves through the centre of the ring to infinity along the axis.

9) A disc of radius R is charged on its surface with surface charged density σ = σ0r3. Here σ0 is a
constant and r is distance from its centre. Total charge on the disc is -

(1)

(2) 2πσ0R
5

(3)

(4)

10) A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q1 and Q2 fixed at two different points on
their axis are shown in the figure. With the figure what information about charges and electric field
is incorrect.
(1) |Q1| > |Q2|
(2) Q1 → +ve, Q2 → –ve
(3) At a finite distance to the left of Q1 the electric field is zero
(4) At a finite distance to the right of Q2 the electric field is zero

11) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : If a charge is released from rest in an electric field, it will always start to move
along an electric field line.
Reason (R) : Force on a charged particle is always in the direction of electric field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

12) Assertion : Kepler's law of areal velocity states that line joining planet and the sun sweeps
eqaul area in equa time interval.
Reason : Torque of gravitational force acing on planet due to the sun is zero, therefore its angular
momentum and hence areal velocity remain constant.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

13) The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2λ, – λ, λ and–2λ respectively. The

electric field at the centre is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14) A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in circular orbit around the earth. An object of mass
m is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the Earth. At
the time of ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is

(1) 2mv2
(2) mv2
(3) 1/2 mv2
(4) 3/2 mv2

15) A small planet is revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
period of revolution T. If the gravitational force between the planet and the start were proportional
to R–5/2, then T would be proportional to

(1) R3/2
(2) R3/5
(3) R7/2
(4) R7/4

16) A charge Q is placed at geometric centre of an imaginary cone as in figure. If flux from circular

face is ϕ them flux from curved surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ϕ

17) Two solid spherical planets of equal radii R having masses 4M and 9M their centre are separated
by a distance 6R. A projectile of mass m is sent from the planet of mass 4 M towards the heavier
planet. What is the distance r of the point from the lighter planet where the gravitational force on
the projectile is zero?

(1) 1.4 R
(2) 1.8 R
(3) 1.5 R
(4) 2.4 R
18) Electric field at point P due to uniformly charged sheets will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A long string with a charge of per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a. The
maximum flux of the electric field through the cube may be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A and B are two concentric conducting shells. If A is given a charge Q while B is earthed as
shown in figure:

(1) The field inside A and outside B is zero, but the field between A and B is not zero.
(2) The field inside A and outside B is not zero, but the field between A and B is zero.
(3) The field inside A is zero but the field outside B as well as between A and B is not zero.
(4) The field inside A and the field between A and B is non zero, but outside B is zero.

21) Two spheres of radii r1 and r2 are at the same potentials. If their surface densities of charges be
s1 and s2 respectively, then s1/s2 :-

(1) r1/r2
(2) r2/r1
 2
(3) (r1/r2)
2
(4) (r2/r1)

22) Eight mercury droplets having a radius of 1 mm and a charge of 0.066 pC each merge to form
one droplet. Its potential is :

(1) 2.4 V
(2) 1.2 V
(3) 3.6 V
(4) 4.8 V

23) For the given semicircular arc find the potential at centre :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The potential of electrostatic field is given by ϕ = xy, where x & y are coordinate. Which of the
following is correct :-

(1) Electric field at all points on positive x-axis is in positive y-direction.

(2) Electric field at all point of positive y-axis is in negative x-direction.
(3) Electric field at (2, 2) is

(4)
Electric field at x, y makes an angle with x-axis.

25)

A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed u. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q is shot with speed 2u, the closest
distance of approach would be :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2r
(4) r
26) Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges 2q and 2q are placed in a uniform electric field
E and allowed to move for the same time. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be

(1) 8 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

27) Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 , are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the
mass of S2. Which one of the following statemetns is true?

(1) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal.

(2) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2
(3) The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal.
(4) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed.

28) Work done in placing the charges at the corner of a square of side a will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

29) Fig. shows two concentric spherical shells of masses M1 and M2 and of radii R1 and R2,
respectively. Gravitational potential at a point at a distance x from centre such that R1 < x < R2 will

be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) In which of the following states is the potential energy of electric dipole maximum ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Find the magnitude of the electric field at the point P in the configuration shown in figure for d
>> a. Take 2qa = p.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) When charge is given to the conductor having cavity inside as shown then
(1) At all the points O, A, B, C electric field is zero
(2) Electric field is zero only at O
(3) Potential at O, A, B, C all are same but not equal to zero
(4) Potential at O, A, B, C all are same but equal to zero

33) Shown in the figure is a spherical shell with inner radius 'a' and outer radius 'b' which is made of
conducting material. A point charge +Q is placed at the centre of the shell and a total charge –q is

placed on the shell :-

(1) –Q on the inner surface, –q on the outer surface

(2) –Q on the inner surface, –q+Q on the outer surface
(3) +Q on the inner surface, –q–Q on the outer surface
(4) The charge –q is spread uniformly between the inner and outer surfaces.

34) Assertion :- Electric field lines are always perpendicular to the surface of conductor.
Reason :- Electric field is always perpendicular to equipotential surface.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
35) Charge on both surfaces of middle metal plate:-

(1) x = – 2Q, x' = 0

(2) x = + 2Q, x' = 0
(3) x = – 2Q, x' = + 4 Q
(4) x = – 4Q, x' = + 2Q

36) Charge q on a small conducting sphere S1 is placed inside a large hollow metallic spheres S2
having a charge Q as shown in figure. The sphere is connected to shell by a conducting wire. The
charge on S1 will then be :-

(1) Q – q

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

37) Figure shows a charged conductor of irregular shape. If σA, σB and σC are the surface charge

densities at A, B and C respectively, then :-

(1) σA = σB = σC
(2) σA < σB < σC
(3) σA > σB > σC
(4) σA = σB < σC

38) Which of the following statements are true about acceleration due to gravity?
(a) 'g' decreases when moving away from the centre if r > R
(b) 'g' decreases when moving away from the centre if r < R
(c) 'g' is zero at the centre of earth
(d) 'g' decreases if earth stops rotating about its axis

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (a), (b) (c) & (d)

39) Read the following statements :

S1 : An object shall weigh more at pole than at equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S2 : It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S3 : It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a spring balance.
S4 : It shall weigh more at the pole than at equator when weighed using a spring balance.
Which of the above statements is /are correct ?

(1) S1 and S2
(2) S1 and S4
(3) S2 and S3
(4) S2 and S4

40) The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become times the value at the
surface is (R = Radius of earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The radius of the earth is R, its angular velocity is ω and value of g at poles is gp. The effective
value of g at latiude λ = 60° will be equal to-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A very small tunnel passing through earth is made in the earth and a particle of mass m is placed

at distance from the centre, escape speed of the particle from that place is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at

a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively. Then the ratio is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The escape velocity for a planet is ve. A particle starts from rest at a large distance from the
planet, reaches the planet only under gravitational attraction, and passes through a smooth tunnel
through its centre. Its speed at the centre of the planet will be.

(1) ve
(2)

(3)

(4) 2ve

45) Escape velocity from a planet is 10 km/s. If this planet shrink such that radius becomes 25% of
initial. The change in escape velocity is:

(1) 10 km/s
(2) 20 km/s
(3) 5 km/s
(4) 0

CHEMISTRY

1) Oxidation state of Cr in K3Cr(C2O4)3 are, respectively :

(1) + 6
(2) 0
(3) +3
(4) +2

2) Which reaction does not represent auto redox or disproportionation :

– – –
(1) Cl2 + 6OH → Cl + ClO3 + 3H2O
(2) 2H2O2 → H2O + O2
(3) 2Cu+ → 2Cu2+ + Cu
(4) (NH4)2 Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

3) Which of the following statements are not true for the reaction : 4Fe + 3O2 → 4Fe+3 + 6O–2
(a) It is a redox reaction
(b) Metallic iron is a reductant
(c) Fe+3 is a reductant
(d) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe+3

(1) c, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, d

4) Which of the following is true about oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6 ?

(1) All S-atoms are in +2.5 state

(2) All S-atoms are in +2 state
(3) Two S-atoms are in 0 state and other two, in +5 state
(4) Two S-atoms are in –1 state and other two, in +6 state

5) KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation :

2MnO4– + 5C2O4–2 + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
Here 20 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to :

(1) 20 ml of 0.5M C2H2O4

(2) 50 ml of 0.1M C2H2O4
(3) 50 ml of 0.5M C2H2O4
(4) 20 ml of 0.1M C2H2O4

6) Which of the following is not a redox reaction :-

– –2 +2
(1) MnO4 + C2O4 → Mn + CO2
(2) H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 →CaSO4 + 2H2O
– +2 +
(3) Zn + NO3 → Zn + NH4
(4) VO + Fe2O3 → V2O5+ FeO
7) Which combination is odd with respect to oxidation number of underline element :-

(1) H2SO5 , H2S2O8 , K2Cr2O7 ,

(2) K2Cr2O7 , K2CrO4 , CrO5 , CrO2Cl2
(3)
(4) CaH2 , NaH , LiH , MgH2

8) For the ionic reaction :

X BrO3– +Y Cr+3+Z H2O → Br2+HCrO4– + H+

(1) X = 6, Y = 10, Z = 20
(2) X = 6, Y = 10, Z = 11
(3) X = 6, Y = 10, Z = 22
(4) X = 6, Y = 8, Z = 22

9) Assertion A : does not disproportionate.

Reason : In chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state that is +7.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

10) Find out the balanced form of this reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) 2 mole of N2H4 loses 20 mole of electrons determine final O.N of Nitrogen

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +5
(4) –3

12) Which of the following solution has highest equivalent conductance :-

(1) 0.01 M NaCl

(2) 0.05 M NaCl
(3) 0.005 M NaCl
(4) 0.02 M NaCl

13) In which of the following equations hydrogen peroxide acts as a reductant ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) Which of the following is not a disproportionation reaction ?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)
(iv)

(1) i, ii
(2) i, iii, iv
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, iii

15) Calculate the current (in milli ampere) required to obtain 0.195 gm of platinum metal in 5 hours
from a solution of PtCl6–2 ? (At. wt. of Pt = 195)

(1) 310.42
(2) 31.30
(3) 21.44
(4) None of these

16) In the balanced redox reaction,

The ratio of number of Cr3+ ion and H+ ion will be :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

17)

Consider the following reaction :

The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively :-
(1) 2, 5 and 16
(2) 5, 2 and 8
(3) 5, 2 and 16
(4) 2, 5 and 8

18) How many ml of 0.1M oxalic acid solution

is required to reduce 0.01 mol of KMnO4 to MnO2 :-

(1) 250
(2) 150
(3) 100
(4) 500

19) In the reaction

Br2 + Na2CO3 → NaBr + NaBrO3 + CO2
The equivalent weight of NaBrO3 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) What is the potential of the cell containing two hydrogen electrodes are represented below?

(1) –0.295 V
(2) –0.0591 V
(3) 0.295 V

(4)
0.0591 V

21) The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphide ions in
Acidic solution is :

(1) 2/5
(2) 3/5
(3) 4/5
(4) 1/5

22) Find the equivalent mass of Br2 in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode at pH = 10, 1 atm and 25°C is :-

(1) 0.59 volt

(2) 0.0591 volt
(3) –0.059 volt
(4) None

24) 0.5 gm oxalate dissolved in 100 ml of aqueous solution. 10 ml of this solution titrated by 15 ml of
N/20 KMnO4. The percentage of oxalate in sample is

(1) 66
(2) 34
(3) 44
(4) 56

25) The molar conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution is 390.7 and for 0.1 M acetic acid
solution is 5.2 mho cm2 mol–1. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH solution is:

(1) 13.3%
(2) 0.0133%
(3) 1.33%
(4) 133%

26) The molar conductance of a 0.01 M solution of an electrolyte is 'x' ohm–1 cm2 mole–1. What is its
specific conductance :-

(1) x. 10–5
(2) x. 105
(3) x. 0.01
(4) None

27) The specific conductance of solution of HCl in a cell at 25ºC is 0.002765 mho cm–1. If the
resistance of a cell containing this solution is 400 Ω the cell constant is :-

(1) 11.06 cm–1

(2) 1.106 cm–1
(3) 3.106 cm–1
(4) None of these

28) In the electrolysis of silver nitrate, the mass of silver deposited is plotted against the charge

(coulomb):- Slope of the line gives :-

(1) The equivalent mass of silver

(2) Electrochemical equivalent of silver
(3) The value of faraday
(4) The current passed through the cell

29) Resistance of 0.1 M KCl solution in a conductance cell is 300 ohm and conductivity is 0.013
Scm–1. The value of cell constant is –

(1) 3.9 cm–1

(2) 39 m–1
(3) 3.9 m–1
(4) None of these

30) Cu2+ + 2e —→ Cu; log[Cu2+]vs. Ered graph is of the type as shown in figure where OA = 0.34 V,
then electrode potential of the half cell of Cu|Cu2+ (0.1 M) will be :-

(1)
V
(2) 0.34 + 0.0591 V
(3) 0.34 V
(4) None of these

31) The resistnace of 1N solution of CH3COOH is 250Ω, when measured in a cell of cell constant is
1.15 cm–1. The equivalent conductance will be

(1) 4.6 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1

(2) 9.2 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1
(3) 18.4 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1
(4) 0.023 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1

32) How many Coulombs are required in order to reduce 12.3 g of nitrobenzene to aniline?
(1) 579 C
(2) 5790 C
(3) 57900 C
(4) 579000 C

33)

Using the standard electrode potential values given below, decide which of the statements, I, II, III
and IV are correct. Choose the right answer from (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Fe2+(aq) + 2e– Fe(s) ; E° = –0.44 V

Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s) ; E° = +0.34 V

Ag+(aq) + e– Ag(s) ; E° = +0.80 V

I. Copper can displace iron from FeSO4 solution.
II. Iron can displace copper from CuSO4 solution.
III. Silver can displace copper from CuSO4 solution.
IV. Iron can displace silver from AgNO3 solution.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) II and IV
(4) I and IV

34) Value of cell constant depends on :-

(1) Temperature
(2) Nature of solvent
(3) Nature of electrolyte
(4) None of above

35) The variation of molar conductance of a weak electrolyte with concentration is shown in :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The conductance of one cm3 of a solution is called conductivity.
Statement-II : The limiting equivalent conductivity of a weak electrolyte cannot be determined by
extrapolation of the plot of LΛm against .
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

37) The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for electrolyte BA and CA are 140 and 120
S cm eq . The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for BX is 198 S cm2 eq–1 The
2 –1
(in units
2 –1
of S cm eq ) of CX is :-

(1) 178
(2) 198
(3) 218
(4) 130

38)

The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneous if :

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

39) EMF diagram for some ions is given as :-

Determine the value of E° for is :

(1) 1.84 V
(2) 1.6 V
(3) 2.52 V
(4) 7.36 V

40) Same quantity of current is passed through molten NaCl and molten Al2O3. If 4.6 g of Na was
deposited in one cell, the mass of Al deposited in other cell is

(1) 0.9 g
(2) 1.8 g
(3) 2.7 g
(4) 3.6 g

41) In the galvanic cell Cu | Cu2+ (1 M) | | Ag+ (1M) | Ag, the electrons will travel in the external
circuit-

(1) From Ag to Cu
(2) From Cu to Ag
(3) Electrons do not travel in the external circuit
(4) None of these

42)

Given the data at 25°C,

What is the value of log Ksp for Agl ?

(1) -8.12
(2) +8.612
(3) -37.83
(4) -16.13

43) Select the appropriate statement for Daniell cell containing Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions.

2+ 2+
(1) Ecell does not depend on the concentration of Cu and cell Zn ions
Ecell decreases with increase in the
(2)
concentration of Cu2+ ions
Ecell increases with decrease in the
(3)
concentration of Zn2+ ions
(4) All of the above

44) The standard electrode potential (Eo) values of Al3+|Al, Ag+| Ag, K+| K and Cr3+| Cr are -1.66 V,
0.80V, -2.93 V and -0.74 V respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metal
is:

(1) Ag > Cr > Al > K

(2) K > Al > Cr > Ag
(3) K > Al > Ag > Cr
(4) Al > K > Ag > Cr

45) Consider the following half-cell reactions.

I.
II.
III.
IV.
What combination of two half-cells would result in a cell with the largest potential?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) I and IV
(4) II and IV

BIOLOGY

1) Select false statement from followings for root ?

(1) Roots have lateral branches that arises endogenously

(2) Roots may give rise to leaves
(3) Roots provide anchorage to plant
(4) Roots do not have node & internode

2) Select the correct match from followings ?

(1) Mustard-Fibrous root
(2) Wheat-Butress root
(3) Mustard-Tap root
(4) Monstera-Fibrous root

3) The thick roots that hang down from the banyan tree are called :-

(1) Butteress roots

(2) Pneumatophores
(3) Prop roots
(4) Stilt roots

4) Pneumatophores are characteristic feature of :-

(1) Halophytes
(2) Mesophytes
(3) Epiphytes
(4) Xerophytes

5) Adventitious Root is found in

(1) Dicot only

(2) Monocot only
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Wheat

6)

Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column
Column II Column III
I

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone absorption of water

 (iv) D Root cap Protection
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

7) Ray florets of sunflower have

(1) Superior ovary

(2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Inferior ovary
(4) Half inferior ovary

8) Read the following 4 statement A-D and select the option which includes correct ones :-
(A) Stipules are small leaf like structure present at the base of petiole.
(B) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called pulvinus.
(C) The veins are parallel in parallel venation. (D) Leaf orginates from root apical meristem.

(1) Statement A, B, C
(2) Statement B, C, D
(3) Statement C, D
(4) Statement A, C, D

9) Perianth and diadelphous conditions are found in:-

(1) Fabaceae & liliaceae, respectively

(2) Solanaceae & liliaceae, respectively
(3) Liliaceae & solanaceae, respectively
(4) Liliaceae & fabaceae, respectively

10) Correctly identify the diagram given below and its correctly match example :-

(1) Marginal - gram

(2) Axile - citrus
(3) Basal - wheat
(4) Parietal - cucumber

11) Petaloid bract is a character of which plant :-

(1) Citrus
(2) Bougainvillea
(3) Banana
(4) Maize

12) In which of the following flower petals, sepal and stamen are situated above the ovary :-

(1) Cucumber
(2) Guava
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Brinjal

13) Identify the diagram given below :-

(1) Simple leaf

(2) Pinnately compound leaf
(3) Palmately compound leaf
(4) Bipinnately compound leaf

14) The function of stem is :-

(1) To bear leaves and branches

(2) Conduction of water and minerals
(3) Conduction and storage of food
(4) All of these

15) Identify the family from the given floral diagram :-

(1) Lilliaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Cruciferae

16) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Australia Acacia - Palmately compound leaf

(2) Alstonia - Phyllode
(3) Spine - pea
(4) Garlic - store food in fleshy leaves

17) The placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of ovary and the ovules are born on this
ridge forming two rows. This type of placentation is found in

(1) Dianthus
(2) Pea
(3) Mustard
(4) Sunflower

18) In which plants stem is modified into a fleshy flat and fleshy cylindrical respectively :-

(1) Watermelon and Causarina

(2) Opuntia and Ruscus
(3) Opuntia and Euphorbia
(4) Euphorbia and causarina

19)

List some of the plants is given below :-

Dianthus, Argemone, Lemon, Pea, Mustard, China-rose, Marigold, Onion

How many above plants have axile placentation ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

20) Select the incorrect match from the following

(1) Whorled phyllotaxy – Alstonia

(2) Inferior ovary – Guava
(3) Zygomorphic symmetry – Gulmohar
(4) Racemose inflorescence – Basipetal succession

21) Maximum number of leaves per node can be observed in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Guava
(3) Alstonia
(4) Ocimum

22) Which of the following structure would be absent in palmately compound leaf?

(1) Leaflet
(2) Petiole
(3) Rachis
(4) Vein

23)

Consider the following statements a-d and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) A leaf is said to be simple when its lamina is entire or when incised, the incision do not touch mid
rib.
(b) A leaf is said to be compound when the incisions of lamina reach up to the midrib breaking into
number of leaflets.
(c) When the veins runs parallel to each other within a lamina, the venation is parallel.

(d) Leaves in all dicotyledonous plant posses parallel vanation.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement b, c, d
(3) Statement c, d
(4) Statement a, c, d

24) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Apocarpous – Rose

(2) Syncarpous - Tomato
(3) Apocarpous – Lotus
(4) Syncarpous – Michelia

25) Which pair is not wrong ?

(1) Axile – Argemone

(2) Free central – Dianthus
(3) Marginal – Sunflower
(4) Parietal – Pea

26) Monoadelphous stamens are the features of:

(1) Cruciferae
(2) Asteraceae
(3) Malvaceae
(4) Poaceae

27) Perigynous flowers are found in

(1) Guava, Cucumber & Sunflower

(2) Plum, Rose & Peach
(3) Mustard, Chinarose & Brinjal
(4) Plum, Mustard & Guava
28) Aestivation in which members of a whorl lie close to each other but do not overlap

(1) Vexillary
(2) Valvate
(3) Imbricate
(4) Twisted

29)
Given placentation is found in

(1) Mustard
(2) Chinarose
(3) Sunflower
(4) Brinjal

30) Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figure and select the correct option for A and B.

(1) A – Cymose, B – Racemose

(2) A – Racemose, B – Cymose
(3) A – Racemose, B – Racemose
(4) A – Cymose, B – Cymose

31) Name the petals A, B and C in vexillary aestivation shown in the below figure.

(1) A-Standards, B-Wing, C-Perianth

(2) A-Standard, B-Keel, C-Wing
(3) A-Wing, B-Keel, C-Wing
(4) A-Standard, B-wing, C-Keel

32) Mango fruit develops form :

(1) Monocarpellary, Inferior overy
(2) Monocarpellary, superior overy
(3) Multicarpellary, superior overy
(4) Multicarpelary, inferior overy

33) Assertion : In opposite phyllotaxy two leaves are borne on the opposite sides of a single node.
Reason : Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in China rose a Oleander.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

34) In which of the families the stamens are in two whorls and epiphyllous :-

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Fabaceae

35) Parthenocarpy is :-

(1) Formation of seed without fertilization

(2) Formation of endosperm without fertilization
(3) Formation of fruit without fertilization
(4) Formation of seed coat without fertilization

36) Syncarpous condition is found in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Lotus
(3) Rose
(4) Michelia

37) Apocarpous condition is found in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Lotus
(3) Papaver
(4) Tomato

38) In which plants ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of
false septum :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Primrose
(3) Tomato
(4) Pea

39) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

(1) (i) only

(2) All of the above
(3) (i) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)

40) Statement-I :- Root and stem bears nodes and internodes.

Statement-II :- Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

41) If the margin of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction is :

(1) Valvate aestivation

(2) Twisted aestivation
(3) Imbricate aestivation
(4) Vexillary aestivation

42) Which of the following figure represent a typical placentation as seen in mustard :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Twisted type aestivation is found in which plant ?

(1) Trifolium
(2) Cassia
(3) Cotton
(4) Gulmohur

44) Floral formula of Cruciferae is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-i, e-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-ii

46) Select the option with the correct identification of the structures labelled by alphates (A-F) in the
given diagram of human skull :-

(1) A - Temporal bone, B - Parietal bone, C - Occipetal condyle

(2) C - Occipital condyle, D = Zygomatic bone, E - Mandible
(3) A - Parietal bone, D - Vomer bone, F - Mandible
(4) B - Temporal bone, C - Hyoid bone, E - Mandible

47) Human ribs are bicephalic because :-

(1) It has two articulation surfaces on dorsal surface

(2) It has two articulation surfaces on ventral surface
(3) It has two articulation surfaces on both sides
(4) It has two pairs of articulation surfaces

48) Which of the following option gives the correct catagorisation of functioning of channels and
pump according to the stage?

A B C
Depolarisation Polarisation Repolarisation

Na+ – K+ pump, ion Na+–K+ pump,

(1) Na+ VGC, K+ VGC
channel Na+ VGC

Na+–K+ pump, ion K+ VGC, Na+ –

(2) ion channel, Na+ VGC
channel K+pump
 Na+–K+ pump, Na+–K+ pump, Na+ VGC, ion
(3)
Na+ VGC Na+ VGC channel

(4) Na+ VGC, K+ VGC ion Channel, K+ VGC Na+ VGC, K+ VGC
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Consider the following processes (A – D)

Na+–K
Passive Inside
Process + Na+VGC K+ VGC
diffusion Charge
pump

A. Polarisation × × – Ve

B. Depolarisation × neutral

C. Repolarisation × × – Ve

D. Hyperpolarisation × × – Ve
→ open / working × → closed
Which of the above A, B, C, D are correctly represented?
(1) A, B, C
(2) Only A
(3) A, C, D
(4) A, B

50) Study the following flowchart and fill up the blanks by selecting the correct option.

A B C D

(1) Thoracic skeleton Limbs Skull Ribs

(2) Appendicular skeleton Skull Ribs Limbs

(3) Appendicular skeleton Limbs Ribs Skull

(4) Lumbar skeleton Limbs Skull Ribs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Joint between incus and stapes is

(1) Ball and socket joint

(2) Hinge joint
(3) Pivot joint
(4) Glinding joint

52) Which vertebra has the odontoid process?

(1) 7th vertebra of frog

(2) Second vertebra of frog
(3) Second cervical vertebra of mammal
(4) Second thoracic vertebra of mammal

53) Match the columns and pick out the correct answer

Colum - A Column - B

i. Atlas/axis A Saddle joint

ii Carpal/metacarpal of thumb B Hinge joint

iii Between phalanges C Fibrous joint

iv Femur/accetabulum D Ball and socket joint

v Between cranial bones E Pivot joint

(1) i-E ii-A iii-B iv-C v-D

(2) i-E ii-A iii-B iv-D v-C

(3) i-E ii-A iii-D iv-D v-C

(4) i-E ii-A iii-D iv-C v-B

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human
skeleton?

(1) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(2) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
(3) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thingh bone articulates
(4) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by the fibrous joint

55) What are the causes of hyperpolarisation?

(1) Due to influx of Cl– ions

(2) Due to excess of K+ outflux
(3) After releasing of GABA
(4) All of the above

56) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

Column-I Column - II

Attached to vertebral column dorsally and to

a. True ribs 1.
seventh rib ventrally

b. False ribs 2. Do not connected ventrally

Attached to vertebral column dorsally and to

c. Floating Ribs 3.
sternum ventrally
(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-3, b-1, c-2
(3) a-1, b-3, c-2
(4) a-3, b-2, c-1

57) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column - I Column - II

a. Cup-shaped bone 1. Clavicle

b. U-shaped bone 2. Patella

c. Long slender bone 3. Rib

d. Thin flat bone 4. Hyoid

(1) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(2) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(3) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(4) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

58) Consider the following four statement (A-D) and select the option which includes the correct one
only.
(A) The gap in between two unmyelinated sheath is called nodes of Ranvier
(B) Myelinated nerve fibres and present in spinal and cranial nerve only
(C) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
around the axon. It is commonly found in autonomous and somatic neural system
(D) Each branch of axon terminates into a bulb like structure called synaptic knob which possesses
synaptic vesicles, which contain a chemical called neurotransmitter.

(1) Statement (C), (D)

(2) Statement (B), (C) and (D)
(3) Statement (A), (B)
(4) Statement (A), (C) and (D)

59) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

A Dendron a Myelinogenesis i Transduction

B Cell body b Receptor ii P.N.S.

Information
C Myelinated Axon c Grey matter iii
co-ordination

D Schwann cell d White matter iv Fast conduction

(1) A-a-i, B-d-iv, C-c-iii, D-b-ii
(2) A-b-i, B-c-iii, C-d-ii, D-a-iv
(3) A-b-i, B-c-iii, C-d-iv, D-a-ii
(4) B-a-i, A-d-iv, C-c-ii, D-b-iii

60) The figure below show three stes X, Y, Z of conduction of a nerve impulse. Select the option
given correct identification together with what represent.

Z-The current flows in inner surface from site A to B and outer surface flows from site B to A to
(1) complete circuit of current flow. Hence polarity is reversed and action potential is generated at
site 'B'.
X-It shows that stimulus is applied at site A thus leads to repaid influx of Na+ followed by
(2)
reversal of polarity
Y-Ionic gradient across the resting membrane maintained by active transportation of ion by
(3) sodium-potassium pump as result outer surface of axonal mambrane posses positive charge
white inner surface becomesnegatively charged there for called polarized state at site A
(4) Z-shows axonal membrane of neuron is polarized state at site A is responsible for excitability

61) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation according to A, B, C

A B C
Polarized Depolarized Excitable cell
 (1) Resting stage Excitable stage Neuron

(2) Repolarization Excited stage Nissl's granule

(3) Resting stage Excited stage Neurons

(4) Na+ high in axoplasm Na+ low in axopolasm Effector organ

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) In the following list, how many properties are present in the neural system? Transmission,
elasticity, contractability, detection, chemical co-ordination, and receive

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

63) Which of the following is true about vertebral column?

Each vertebra in vertebral column has a cetral hollow cavity (neural canal) through which spinal
(1)
cord pass.
(2) The first vertebra in vertebral column is atlas and it articulates with the occipital condyle.
Vertebral column protects the spinal cord and serves as a point of attachement for the ribs and
(3)
musculature of the back
(4) All the above

64) Which part is indicated as A, B, C, D and E in the given figure?

(1) A : Clavicle, B : Scapula, C : Humerus, D : Radius, E: Ulna.

(2) A : Humerus, B : Clavicle, C : Ulna, D : Scapula, E : Radius
(3) A : Ulna, B : Humerus, C : Clavicle, D : Radius, E : Scapula.
(4) A : Radius, B : Ulna, C : Scapula, D : Clavicle, E : Humerus.
65) Patella, the sesamoid bone is also known as

(1) Pisiform
(2) Replacing bone
(3) Knee cap
(4) None of these

66) Innominate or hip bone is formed by the fusion of how many bones?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

67) Find out the correct order of number of bones in the human skull (i.e. cranial bone, facial bone,
hyoid bone and middle ear bone, respectively),

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 6, 8, 14 and 1
(3) 14, 8, 3 and 1
(4) 8, 14, 1 and 6

68) Examine the figure of vertebral column (right lateral view) and identify A, B, C, D, E and F.

A B C D E F

Lumbar Thoracic Cervical Isterverebral

(1) Sacrum Coccyx
Vertebrae vertebrac vertebrae disc

Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Intervertebral

(2) Sacrum Coccyx
vertebrae vertebrae verterae disc

Thoracic Cervical Intervertebral Lumbar

(3) Coccyx Sacrum
vertebrae vertebrae disc vertebrae

Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Interveretebral

(4) Coccyx Sacrum
vertebrae vertebrae vertebrae disc
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Joint pain, stiffness and swelling are the most common symptoms of

(1) Gout
(2) Tetany
(3) Arthritis
(4) Osteoporosis

70) Consider the statements as True/False regarding when a neuron is at rest and no impulse is
conducting.
I. The axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins.
II. The axoplasm inside the axon contains low concentration of Na+
III. The fluid outside the axon contains a low concentration of K+
IV. The fluid outside the axon contains a low concentration of Na+ and negatively charged proteins.
The correct option is

I II III IV

(1) True False False True

(2) True True False False

(3) True True True False

(4) False True False False

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
I. Nearly 50% of all brain cells are neuroglia
II. Astrocyte plays a role in the maintenance of blood brain barrier
III. Microglia engulf microbes and cellular debris.
IV. Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and microglia, are three different types of neuroglial cells.

(1) I and IV are correct

(2) II and IV are correct
(3) All are correct
(4) All are incorrect

72) Potential difference across resting membrane is negatively charged. This is due to differential
distribution of the following ions.

(1) Na+ and K+ ions

 2+ –
(2) CO3 and Cl
(3) Ca2+ and Mg2+ions
(4) Ca2+ and Cl– ions

73) Nissl's bodies are mainly composed of

(1) Nucleic acid and SER

(2) DNA and RNA
(3) Proteins and lipids
(4) Free ribosomes and RER

74) Myelin sheath is produced by

(1) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes

(2) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(3) Oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts
(4) Osteoclasts and astrocytes

75) In resting stage, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable and nearly
impermeable to

(1) Sodium; potassium, respectively

(2) Sodium; calcium, respectively
(3) Potassium; sodium, respectively
(4) Potassium; calcium, respectively

76) In resting stage, the axonal membrane for negatively charged proteins found in axoplasm is

(1) Permeable
(2) Partially permeable
(3) Impermeable
(4) Selectively permeable

77) For the maintenance of ionic gradients across the resting membrane, the sodium-potassium
pump transports.

(1) 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell

(2) 2Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
(3) 3Na+ inwards for 2K+ out the cell
(4) 2Na+ inwards for 2K+ out the cell

78) Nissl's granules are found in all except

(1) Cyton
(2) Dendrites
(3) Axon
(4) Cell body

79) Dendrites transmit impulse _________ cell body and axon transmits impulse _______ cell body.
Select the correct option that fills the blank.

(1) Towards, away from

(2) Away, towards
(3) Towards, towards
(4) Away, away

80) Bipolar neurons are found in

(1) Retina of eye

(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Mesencephalon
(4) Embryonic stage

81) Unipolar neurons are found in

(1) Respiratory epithelium

(2) Retina
(3) Embryo
(4) Cerebral cortex

82) Schwann cell is absent in

(1) Myelinated neuron

(2) Non-myelinated neuron
(3) CNS
(4) PNS

83) Ion channels present on neural membrane are

(1) Fully permeable

(2) Selectively permeable
(3) Impermeable
(4) None of these

84) Axoplasm compared to ECF shows the presence of

(1) High K+ ion

(2) Low Na+ ion
(3) Negatively charged proteins
(4) All of these

85) The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as the
(1) Spike potential
(2) Action potential
(3) Resting potential
(4) All of these

86) Depolarization occurs due to

(1) Influx of Na+

(2) Efflux of Na+
(3) Influx of K+
(4) Efflux of K+

87) Choose the correct sequence for depolarization and repolarization.

(A) Stimulus applied at a site on polarized membrane.
(B) Increased permeability for Na+
(C) Generation of action potential.
(D) Increase permeability for K+
(E) Restoration of membrnae potential

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) B → A → C → D → E
(3) A → D → C → B → E
(4) A → B → D → C → E

88) Which of the following structure of region is incorrectly paired with its function?

Production of
releasing hormones
(1) Hypothalamus and regulation of
temperature,
hunger and thirst

Consists of fibre
tracts that
interconnect
(2) Limbic system
different regions of
brain; controls
movement

Controls
Medulla respiration and
(3)
oblongata cardiovascular
reflexes

Band of fibres
connecting left and
(4) Corpus callosum
right cerebral
hemispheres
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) The major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling is

(1) Thalamus
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons

90) Which of the following is false about hindbrain?

(1) Pons part of it consists of fibres that interconnect dfferent regions of brain.
(2) Cerebellum part of it has very convoluted surface to accommodate many neurons.
(3) Medulla of this part is connected to spinal cord.
(4) Hindbrain is mainly responsible for regular excitement, pleasure, rage and fear
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 4 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 2 1 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) q1 is in unstable eqilibrium if q0 & q1 have same signs.

As charge moves toward the (+) ve z-axis or –ve z-axis, then net force on charge will be along
the displace direction& would not come ever.
q1 is in stable equlibrium if q1 & q0 have difference signes
In this case as charge moves away from centre then net force on the charge opposite to
displace direction.

2)

3)

4)

Fe increases hence angle increases.

5)

⇒ θ = tan–1 (0.5)

6)
At equilibrium T cosθ = mg

7) F

8) Question Explanation:
A charged ring with charge +Q lies in a plane. A negative charge –q is placed on the axis at
distance 2R. We analyze the motion of –q.

Concept Based:
The electric field due to a charged ring on its axis.

Formula Used:
Electric field on axis of a charged ring:

Force;

Calculation:
At z = 2R, –q experiences an attractive force toward the center.
As it moves, the force varies non-linearly with z, since the denominator contains (z2 + R2)3/2, not
just z.
Therefore, force is not proportional to displacement → not SHM
However, since force always pulls toward the center and reverses direction as the particle
crosses it, the motion is oscillatory, but not simple harmonic.
Final Answer: option (3) – Executes oscillatory motion but not SHM

9)

For intermediate ring

 dq = σdA = σ(2πr)dr

10) |q| ∝ No. of ELF

Neutral point of system of two unlike charges is outside the line joining the two charges near
to & near the charge of smaller magnitude.

11) Direction of force depends on nature of charge.

12)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

13)

14)

mv2

15) R7/4

16)
Question Explanation :
Question is asking about

Electric flux (ϕE) is being culculate due to charge "Q". If (ϕE)Circulate = ϕ then (ϕE)curved = ?

Concept :
This question is based on application of Gauss' Law to determine electric flux.

Solution:
By Gauss' Law

Final Answer :
Option (1)

17)

2.4 R

18)

19)
20)

q=–Q

21)

r2/r1

22)

For bigger drop R = n1/3 r ⇒ R = 2r = 2mm

Q = 8q ⇒ Q = 8 × 0.066 × 10–12

⇒
= 2.37V

23)

Since potential is scalar

∴ (1)st option.

24)

25)

Concept Based:

Conservation & mechanical energy

Formula Used:

MEinitial = MEinfal

Visual Diagram:
Case(i) :

Case(ii) :

Calculation:

For Case (i)

...(1)
For Case (ii)

....(2)
eq (2) / eq (1)

r' =

26)

2:1

27)

S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed.

28)

29)

30) 1. Question Explain:

The question asks in which state the potential energy of an electric dipole is maximum when
placed in an external electric field.
 2. Concept Based:
Potential Energy of an Electric Dipole in an Electric Field

A. The potential energy of an electric dipole in a uniform electric field is given by:

U = -P.E = -P.E cos θ

where:

A. P is the dipole moment.

B. E is the magnitude of the electric field,
C. θ is the angle between the dipole moment and the electric field.

3. Formula Used:
U = - P.E cos θ
The potential energy is at a maximum when cos theta is at its minimum, which happens when θ
= 180∘

4. Calculation:

A. At θ = 0∘ (dipole aligned with the field), the potential energy is at a minimum:

U = -P.E

A. At theta = 90∘ (dipole perpendicular to the field), the potential energy is zero:

U=0

A. At θ = 180∘ (dipole opposite to the field), the potential energy is maximum:

U = PE
Thus, the potential energy is maximum when the dipole is opposite to the direction of the electric
field.

5. Answer:
The potential energy of the electric dipole is maximum when the dipole is opposite to the direction of
the electric field.
Final Answer: Option A (aligned opposite to the electric field direction).

31)

32)

Potential at O, A, B, C all are same but not equal to zero

33)

–Q on the inner surface, –q+Q on the outer surface

34)
 Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

35)

for EP to be zero
3Q + x = – Q – x
x = – 2Q
x' = 0

36) The whole charge remains on outer surface

37) Question Explain:

The question asks about the relationship between the surface charge densities σ. σg, and σc at
different points (A, B, and C) on a conductor of irregular shape.
Concept:
This question belongs to the topic of Electrostatics and Surface Charge Density on Conductors.
Calculation:
For a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium, the surface charge density varies depending on
the geometry of the surface. At points of sharp curvature (e.g., at a point or edge), the surface
charge density is higher due to the tendency of charge to accumulate more at locations with
higher curvature. On a flat or smoother region, the surface charge density is lower.

A. At sharp points or edges (with higher curvature), the charge density σ will be greater.
B. At flatter regions (with lower curvature), the charge density σ will be lower.

Thus, for an irregularly shaped conductor, the surface charge density will be highest at points with
the sharpest curvature, and lowest at points with smoother curvature.
Hence, without seeing the specific figure, the general trend will often be:

where A could represent a point with the highest curvature. B a moderately curved point and C a
flatter region.
The correct answer is most likely:
Option 3:

38)

(a) & (c)

39) S2 is correct because whatever be the g, the same force is acting on both the pans. Using a
spring balance, the value of g is greater at the pole. Therefore mg at the pole is greater. S4 is
correct. S2 and S4 are correct.

40)

41)

g' = gp – ω2 R cos2λ
λ = 60°

g' = gp – Rω2

42)

43)

L 1 = L2
mv1r1 = mv2r2

44)

We know ve =
COME
 45)

10 km/s

CHEMISTRY

46)

6 and +3

47)

(NH4)2 Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

48)

49)

A → 12 g MgSO4 =
B → 0.2 × NA × 3 = 0.6 NA

C→

D→

50)
meq KMnO4 = meq H2C2O4
20 × 0.1 × 5 = 10 meq

51)

FeC2O4 → Fe+3 + CO2

52)

53)

↓ ↓ ↓
z x y
x = 6, y = 10, z = 22

54) Three (cis, trans and two optical isomers of cis).

55)

56) 2 mole N2H4 → 20 mole e–

1 mole N2 H4 → 10 mole e–
2 N atom → 10 mole e–
1 N atom → 5 mole e–
N–2 → N+3 + 5e–

57)

Question Explanation:
To determine the solution whose equivalent conductance is maximum.

Concept:
This question is based on Effect of concentration on equivalent conductance.

Solution:
0.005m NaCl solution is least concentrated solution among all options
So, have highest equivalent conductance

Hence,
Correct option: (3)

58)

59)

i, iii, iv

60)

21.44

61) NCERT-XI, part-1, Pg.#247

62)

2, 5 and 16

63)

150

64)
65)

0.295 V

66)

1/5

67)

68)

0.0591 volt

69)

66

70) 1.33%

71)

x. 10–5
 72)

73) W = ZQ (same as y = mx)

74) Explain Question : Find the cell constant of a conductance cell given resistance and
conductivity of KCl solution.
Concept : This question is based on Cell constant (G*) , conductivity (κ), resistance (R)
Solution : Cell constant, G* = κ × R
Resistance, R = 300 Ω
Conductivity, κ = 0.013 S cm–1
G* = κ × R
G* = 0.013 × 300
G* = 3.9 cm–1
Final answer : 1

75) V

76)

1. Calculate the Conductivity (κ)

Conductivity (κ) is related to resistance (R) and the cell constant (G*) by the following
equation:

κ = G* / R

Given:

A. R = 250 Ω
B. G* = 1.15 cm⁻¹

κ = 1.15 cm⁻¹ / 250 Ω = 0.0046 Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹ or 0.0046 S cm⁻¹ (Siemens per centimeter)

2. Calculate the Equivalent Conductance (Λeq)

Equivalent conductance (Λeq) is related to conductivity (κ) and normality (N) by the following
equation:

Λeq = (κ × 1000) / N

Given:

A. κ = 0.0046 S cm⁻¹
B. N = 1 N

Λeq = (0.0046 S cm⁻¹ * 1000) / 1 N = 4.6 S cm² eq⁻¹ or 4.6 Ω⁻¹ cm² eq⁻¹
 Therefore, the equivalent conductance of the CH3COOH solution is 4.6 Ω⁻¹ cm² eq⁻¹, which
corresponds to option (1).

Λeq =
K=G×G

Λeq =

77)

A: Question Explanation
Find charge (in Coulombs) to reduce 12.3 g of nitrobenzene to aniline.

B: Concept
Faraday's 1st Law of Electrolysis

C: SOLUTION

Reaction: C₆H₅NO₂ → C₆H₅NH₂ (6 e⁻ required per mole)

Molar mass of nitrobenzene ≈ 123 g/mol

Moles of nitrobenzene =mass/molarmass= 12.3 / 123 = 0.1 mol

No of electrons required = 0.1×6 mol e⁻ = 0.6 mol e⁻

(charge of 1 mole electron=96500 C)

Charge = 0.6 mol × 96500 C/mol = 57900 C

D: Final Answer
Option 3

78)

Question Explanation: To determine correct statement.

Concept : Application of Electrochemical Series.
Solution :
Given

and
Metal having lesser value of SRP can displace metal ion having greater value of SRP. So iron
can displace Cu2+ and Ag+ ions From their solution to from Cu and Ag. Therefore statement II
and IV are correct.
Final Answer : option (3)

79)
80)

81)

Statement-I : k = G. G*

If G* = =
For 1cm3 solution K = G
Statement- II :

82) Question Explanation

The question asks to find the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for the electrolyte CX,
given the equivalent conductances of three other electrolytes: , and BX .

Concept
Kohlrausch's Law

Solution

Final Answer: option (1) .

83)

Ecell =
when P1 < P2 then Ecell = +ve
and ΔG = –ve (spontaneous)
84)

(1)

Fe+6 + 3e– → Fe+3 (1)

Fe+3 + 1e– → Fe+2 (2)

Add equation (1) & (2)
Fe+6 + 4e– → Fe+2

Now
–4 × E° × F = – 3 × 2.20 × F – 1 × 0.76 × F
–E° = –6.6 – 0.76

85)

1.8 g

86)

From Cu to Ag

87)

-16.13

88)

Ecell increases with decrease in the concentration of Zn2+ ions

89)

K > Al > Cr > Ag

 90)

I and IV

BIOLOGY

91)

Roots may give rise to leaves

92) NCERT XIth Pg # 66

93) The correct answer is:

Prop roots
Explanation:
The thick roots that hang down from the banyan tree are called prop roots. These roots grow
from the branches and extend downward, providing extra support and stability to the tree,
helping it grow sturdily even in challenging environments. Prop roots are a type of aerial root
commonly seen in trees like banyans.
• Buttress roots: Large, spreading roots found at the base of some trees for stability, not
typically hanging from branches.
• Pneumatophores: Aerial roots found in mangrove plants that help in respiration in
waterlogged conditions.
• Stilt roots: Similar to prop roots, they also provide support but are typically seen in certain
monocots like maize and sugarcane.

94) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 67

95) NCERT XI Pg. # 66

96) NCERT XI # 59

97) Question Explanation :

The question asks about the position of the ovary in the ray florets of a sunflower.

Concept :
This question is based on The Inflorescence.

Solution :
"The ovary is inferior in members of Asteraceae (e.g., sunflower), where the floral parts are
epigynous."

Final Answer :
Option (3)

98) Question Explanation : The question asking select correct statements about leaf.
Concept:
This question is based on THE LEAF.

Solution:
(A) Stipules are small, leaf-like structures at the base of the petiole - Correct
(B) In some leguminous plants, the leaf base becomes swollen and is called a pulvinus -
Correct
(C) "The veins are parallel in reticulate venation" - Incorrect
(D) Leaf originates from the shoot apical meristem - Correct
The leaf originates from shoot apical meristem.

Final answer: 1. Statement A, B, D

99) NCERT XI Page # 79, 81

100)

Parietal - cucumber

101)

Bougainvillea

102)

Both (1) and (2)

103)

Pinnately compound leaf

104)

All of these
105) NCERT [XII] pg. 80

106)

Garlic - store food in fleshy leaves

107)

Pea

108) NCERT XI Pg.# 68

109)

Three

110) NCERT-XI Pg. #71,72,73,, para 5.3.3, 5.4, 5.5

111) NCERT XI Pg # 71

112)

Rachis

113) NCERT Pg. # 60, 61

114)

Syncarpous – Michelia

115)

Free central – Dianthus

116)

Malvaceae

117)

Plum, Rose & Peach

118)

Valvate

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65 (E), 64 (H)

120)

A – Racemose, B – Cymose

121)

A-Standard, B-wing, C-Keel

122)

Monocarpellary, superior overy

123)

A is correct, but R is incorrect.

124)

Liliaceae

125)
Formation of fruit without fertilization

126)

Mustard

127)

Lotus

128)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

129)

(i) (ii) and (iv)

130) NCERT Pg. # 59

131) NCERT Pg. # 74

132) NCERT Pg. # 65

133) NCERT Pg. # 76

134)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 67

135)

a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-ii

136)

C - Occipietal condyle, D = Zygomatic bone, E - Mandible

137)
It has two articulation surfaces on dorsal surface.

138)

SOLUTION 2

139)

Only A

140)

141)

Ball and socket joint

142)

Second cervical vertebra of mammal

143)

144)

Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by the fibrous joint.
145)

All of the above

146)

a-3, b-1, c-2

147)

a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

148)

Statement (A), (C) and (D)

149)

A-b-i, B-c-iii, C-d-iv, D-a-ii

150)

Z-The current flows in inner surface from site A to B and outer surface flows from site B to A
to complete circuit of current flow. Hence polarity is reversed and action potential is
generated at site 'B'.

151)

152)

Three

153)

All the above

154)

A : Clavicle, B : Scapula, C : Humerus, D : Radius, E: Ulna.

155)

Knee cap

156)

157)

8, 14, 1 and 6

158)

159)

arthritis

160)

161)

All are correct

162)

Na+ and K+ ions

163)
free ribosomes and RER

164)

Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes

165)

potassium; sodium, respectively

166)

impermeable

167)

3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell

168)

Axon

169)

Towards, away from

170)

Retina of eye

171)

Embryo

172)

CNS
173)

Selectively permeable

174)

All of these

175)

Resting potential

176)

Influx of Na+

177)

A→B→C→D→E

178)

179)

Thalamus

180)

Hindbrain is mainly responsible for regular excitement, pleasure, rage and fear.