13-08-2025

7101CMD303053250002 MD

PHYSICS

1)

sin2233° = ?

(1) 4/5
(2) – 4/5
(3) – 16/25
(4) 16/25

2) Value of

(1) 0.995
(2) 0.955
(3) 0.33
(4) 0.033

3) If y = , then value of y will reduce to :-

(1)
tan

(2)
cot

(3)
sec

(4)
cot

4)

The position of a particle moving along x-axis varies with time t according as
x= where ω is a constant

Find the region in which the particle is confined.

(1) –2 ≤ x ≤ 2
(2) – 3 ≤ x ≤ 3
(3)
(4) –1 ≤ x ≤ 1

5) A certain mountain road is inclined 3° with respect to the horizontal. The change in height of the
car as a result of its traveling 3 km along the road is nearly :-
(1) 157 m
(2) 181 m
(3) 116 m
(4) 203 m

6) Two particles A and B are moving in x-y plane. Their positions vary with time t according to
relation :
xA(t) = 3t, xB(t) = 6 and yA(t) = t, yB(t) = 2 + 3t2.
The distance between these particles at t = 1 is :-

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4)

7) The following curve represents a function y = f(x). Find average value of y when x changes from 0

to 6.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Find out value of

(1) 3 ℓn(3x + 4) + C

(2)
ℓn(3x + 4) + C
(3) 4 ℓn(3x + 4) + C

(4)
ℓn(3x + 4) + C

9) The integral dx is equal to :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Find the sum of given arithmetic progression :

2 + 4 + 6 + ................ + 60

(1) 930
(2) 900
(3) 100
(4) 960

11) Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitude P and Q are in
the ratio 3 : 1 which of the following relation is true ?

(1) P = 2Q
(2) P = Q
(3) PQ = 1
(4) None of these

12) If =1 and v2 is finite, then :-

(1) is parallel to

(2) =

(3) and are mutually perpendicular

(4) is antiparallel to

13) If vectors have magnitudes. 6, 8 and 10 units and , the angle between
and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14) Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the

y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is

(1)

(2)
(3) 0.5 N
(4) 1.5 N

15) If and are non-collinear unit vectors and if , then the value of
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Figure shows three vectors , and . If , which of the following relation is correct :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) Two vectors and are inclined to each other at an angle θ. Which of the following is the unit
vector perpendicular to both and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) If . The angle between a and b and b and c are 150° and 120°, respectively. Then,
the magnitude of vectors a,b and c are in ratio of

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
[Link]
(2)

(3) :2:1
(4) 2 : :1

19) Find the component of in the direction of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The angle which the vector makes with the coordinate axis are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of the above

21) The greatest and the least resultant of two forces acting at a point is 10N and 6N, respectively.
If each forces is increased by 3N, find the resultant of new forces when acting at a point at an angle
of 90° with each other :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Find the resultant of three vectors and shown in the following figure. Radius of the
circle is R :-

(1) 2R

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle moves in space according to equation .

Find time 't' when position vector and acceleration vector are perpendicular to each other :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3) always
(4) never

24) Six forces are acting on a particle. Angle between adjacent forces is 60°. Five of the forces have
magnitude F1 each and sixth has F2. Then resultant of all the forces will have magnitude :-

(1) 0
(2) F1 + F2
(3) |F1 – F2|
(4) F2

25) Two vectors in the x–y plane of magnitude 3 unit each make angle of 60° between them, where
one is along x-axis. If the vectors are rotated by 30° each in anti-clockwise direction the x-component
of their resultant will be

(1) units

(2)
units
(3) units
(4) 6 units

26) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) In the figure shown ABCD is a rectangular smooth tube kept fixed in a vertical plane. A particle
is projected from point A to reach point C with some speed. At the corners B and D velocity changes
its direction by 90° without any change of its magnitude at that corner. If time taken on paths ABC

and ADC are t1 and t2 respectively, then: (given ℓ > b)

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) none of these

28) A balloon is rising vertically up with a velocity of 29 m/s. A stone is dropped from it & it reaches
the ground in 10 sec. Find height of balloon when the stone was dropped, (g = 10 m/s2):

(1) 210m
(2) 440 m
(3) 180 m
(4) 325 m

29) The equation of a projectile is . Find the speed of projection at the maximum
height position of path.

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

30) The figure shows the position-time graph of a particle moving on a straight line path. What is the

magnitude of average velocity of the particle over 6 seconds?

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 8.33 m/s
(4) 6.33 m/s

31) The engine of a motorcycle can produce a maximum acceleration of 5 m/s2. Its brakes can
produce a maximum retardation of 10 m/s2. what is the minimum time in which the motorcycle can
cover a distance of 1.5 km ?

(1) 30 s
(2) 15 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 5 s

32) A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels

24 cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes Then it further
penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the
block. The total length of the block is :

(1) 24 cm
(2) 28 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 27 cm

33) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 4 m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10 m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 12 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin
will strike the lift is–

(1) 2 sec
(2) sec
(3) sec
(4) sec

34) An object starts from rest, accelerated uniformly with 2 m/s2 on straight road for 10 second, then
moves with uniform speed for next 5 second and finally retard uniformly with 4 m/s2. What is the
distance covered during whole journey?

(1) 150 m
(2) 225 m
(3) 250 m
(4) 300 m

35) If a particle moves in a straight line according to the equation x= t3 – 6t2 – 15t, the time interval
during which velocity is negative and acceleration is positive, is

(1) t < 2 and t > 5

(2) 2 < t < 5
(3) –1 < t < 5
(4) –1 < t < 2

36) A particle is projected in a vertical plane such that its velocity with time varies according to the
relation (m/s). Take horizontal ground as the x-y plane and vertical along
z-axis. If the particle was projected from origin. Find the time after which the particle again strikes
the ground :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

37) A body moves for a total of nine second starting from rest with uniform acceleration and then
with uniform retardation, which is twice the value of acceleration and then stops. The duration of
uniform acceleration :-

(1) 3 s
(2) 4.5 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 6 s

38) If position vectors of particle A and particle B are and then

velocity of particle B as seen by particle A at t = 1 sec. is.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) A person is running on a horizontal road in vertically falling rain with a speed of 6 km/hr. He
observes that the rain is falling on him at an angle of 30º with the vertical. The velocity of the rain
will be :-

(1) 6 km/hr
(2) km/hr
(3) km/hr
(4) 2 km/hr

40) A man takes 30 sec to reach at top to escalator when it is at rest and man walks on it, now he
takes 60 sec to reach at top when he is at rest and escalator is moving now time taken by man to
reach at top when both are moving in same direction :-

(1) 90 sec
(2) 20 sec
(3) 40 sec
(4) 50 sec

41) A body covers one-third of the distance with a velocity v1, the second one-third of the distance
with a velocity v2 and and the remaining distance with a velocity v3. The average velocity is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The position of a particle as a function of time t is given by x = at + bt2 – ct3 (where a, b and c
are constants) when the particle attains zero acceleration, then its velocity will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A car travels half distance with speed (v) and remaining half distance with speed (2v). It's
average speed in complete journey is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A particle moves in a straight line with an acceleration a m/s2 at time t seconds where a = . At
time t = 1 second, the particle has a velocity of 3 m/s then the velocity at t = 4 sec. is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) For a particle undergoing rectilinear motion with uniform acceleration. The magnitude of
displacement is 1/3rd the distance covered in some time interval. The magnitude of final velocity is
less than magnitude of initial velocity for this time interval. Then the ratio of initial speed to the final
speed for this time interval is-

(1)
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 3

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion (A) : Boundary surface diagrams for 2p orbital have two section on either side of the
nodal plane called as lobes.
Reason (R) : Nodal Plane is the area where electron finding probability is maximum.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2) Assertion : Bohr model is not suitable in case of multielectron species.

Reason :- It does not consider electron-electron interaction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

3) Which of the following statement is true :-

(a) Molarity is the no. of moles of solute dissolved per litre of solvent.
(b) The molarity and normality of a solution of sodium carbonate are same.
(c) Molality (m) of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 gm of
solution
(d) The ratio of mole fraction of solute and solvent is in the ratio of their respective moles.

(1) a & c
(2) a & d
(3) b & c
(4) Only d

4) Two bottles of A and B contains 1M and 1m aqueous solution of sulphuric acid respectively

(1) A is more concentrated than B

(2) B is more concentrated than A
(3) Concentration of A = concentration of B
(4) It is not possible to compare the concentration

5) Which of the following gas does not obey Henry's law ?

(1) NH3
(2) H2
(3) O2
(4) He

6) The lowering of vapour pressure of a solvent by addition of a non-volatile solute to it. is directly
proportional to :

(1) Mole fraction of solute

(2) The nature of the solute in the solution
(3) The atmospheric pressure
(4) All

7) Calculate normality of 2.1% (w/V) H2SO4 solution?

(1) 2.14 N
(2) 4.28 N
(3) 0.428 N
(4) 0.214 N

8) In comparison to a 0.01 m solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of 0.01 m K2SO4
solution is :-

(1) the same

(2) about thrice
(3) exactly three times
(4) about seven times

9) The molal elevation constant of water is 0.52K molality–1. The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous
KCl solution (assuming complete dissociation of KCl), should be :

0
(1) 100.52 C
0
(2) 101.04 C
0
(3) 99.48 C
0
(4) 98.96 C

10) Henry's law constant for a gas at 298 K in water is 100 k bar. Calculate millimoles of this gas
dissolved in 1 L water at 1 bar pressure :-

(1) 0.555
(2) 5.55 × 10–2
(3) 5.55 × 10–3
(4) 5.55 × 10–4

11) A solution of acetone in ethanol :

(1) obeys Raoult’s law

(2) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) behaves like a near ideal solution

12) The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is lowered by 5% on dissolving a non-volatile
solute in it. Molality of the solution is

(1) 2.0
(2) 1.4
(3) 2.78
(4) 2.92

13) Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest osmotic pressure ?

(1) 0.011 M AlCl3 at 50°C

(2) 0.03 M NaCl at 25°C
(3) 0.012 M (NH4)2SO4 at 25°C
(4) 0.03 M NaCl at 50°C

14) The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :

(1) 0.60 K
(2) 0.20 K
(3) 0.80 K
(4) 0.40 K

15) The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane
in molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal
gas]

(1) 160 mm of Hg
(2) 168 mm of Hg
(3) 336 mm of Hg
(4) 350 mm of Hg

16) Assertion : Isotonic solutions don't show net phenomenon of osmosis.

Reason : Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure at constant temp.
(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

17) A solution containing 500 g of a protein per litre is isotonic with a solution containing 3.42 g of
sucrose per litre. The molecular mass of protein is

(1) 5
(2) 146
(3) 34200
(4) 50000

18) Mole fraction of a non-electrolyte in aqueous solution is 0.07. If Kf (H2O) is 1.86° molal–1,
depression in f.p., ΔTf is :

(1) 0.26°
(2) 1.86°
(3) 0.13°
(4) 7.78°

19) A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in 250 g water is cooled to . If for water is
, the amount of water (in g) separated as ice is :

(1) 48
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 16

20) Which one represents ground state configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) The quantum number of 20th electron of Fe (Z = 26) would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of radiation ?

(1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiple of quantum.
(2) Radiation is associated with energy.
Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in the form of small packets called
(3)
quanta.
(4) This magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency.

23) The graph representing two nodes is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) Ionisation energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. The ionisation energy for He+ ion will be :

(1) 3.4 eV
(2) 54.4 eV
(3) 27.2 eV
(4) None

25) The maximum number of electrons in p- orbital with n = 5, m = 1 is:-

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 14
(4) 10

26) The energy corresponding to second line of Balmer series for hydrogen atom will be :-

(1) 12.1 eV
(2) 1.89 eV
(3) 2.55 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

27) Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a
photon?

(1) 3s
(2) 2p
(3) 2s
(4) 1s

28) A photon of energy 12.75 eV is completely absorbed by a hydrogen atom initially in ground state.
The principle quantum number of the excited state is

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) ∞

29) Calculate the energy of one mole of photon's of radiation whose frequency is 5 × 1014 Hz in kJ.

(1) 89 kJ
(2) 415 kJ
(3) 199.5 kJ
(4) 153.7 kJ

30) Acetic acid exists in benzene solution in dimeric form. In an actual experiment the Van't Hoff
factor was found to be 0.52. The degree of association of acetic acid is
(1) 0.48
(2) 0.88
(3) 0.96
(4) 0.52

31) 0.1M NaCl and 0.1M CH3COOH are found to have osmotic pressure of P1 and P2 respectively
than what is the correct statement

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 = P2
(3) P1 < P2
(4) P1 = P2 = 0

32)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Which of the colligative properties is most suitable to determine molecular mass of proteins ?

(1) Elevation in boiling point

(2) Depression in freezing point
(3) Osmotic pressure
(4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

34) Assertion : There are two spherical nodes in 3s-orbital.

Reason : There is no angular node in 3s-orbital.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are false.
 0
35) The vapour pressure of a pure liquid 'A' is 70 torr at 27 C. It forms an ideal solution with another
0
liquid B. The mole fraction of B is 0.2 and total vapour pressure of the solution is 84 torr at 27 C.
0
The vapour pressure of pure liquid B at 27 C is -

(1) 14
(2) 56
(3) 140
(4) 70

36) Consider separate solution of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and
0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at 25°C. Which statement is true about these solutions, assuming all salts to be
strong electrolytes ?

(1) 0.125 M Na3PO4 (aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.

(2) 0.500 M C2H5OH (aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(3) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
(4) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2 (aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.

37) The vapour pressure of a solvent decreases by 10 mm. of Hg when a non volatile solute was
added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole
fraction of the solvent if the decrease in vapour pressure is to be 20 mm of Hg :-

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.8

38) The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water
(P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water
(P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :

(1) P2 > P1 > P3

(2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P2 > P3 > P1
(4) P3 > P1 > P2

39) A solution is prepared by dissolving a 2.5 g sample of an unknown compound in 34 g of benzene,

C6H6, boils at 1.38°C higher than pure benzene. Which expression gives the molar mass of the
unknown compound ?
Compound Kb
C6H6 2.53°C m–1

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) Statement-I :- 0.1 m aqueous solution of glucose has same increment in boiling point as in 0.1
m aqueous solution of urea.
Statement-II :- Kb for both has different values.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

41) Drinking water contains some salt impurities dissolved in it. When this solution is heated in an
open container vapours are formed and separated slowly. In this process freezing point and osmotic
pressure of remaining solution will continuously :

(1) Increase, Decrease

(2) Increase, Increase
(3) Decrease, Decrease
(4) Decrease, Increase

42) Which of the following orbitals has two spherical nodes ?

(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3) 3d
(4) 6f

43) Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted, producing a line in Lyman series, when an
electron falls from fourth stationary state in hydrogen atom.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV.
The energy of the level corresponding to n = 5 is :

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –5.40 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –2.72 eV

45) Assertion :- In H–atom, the energy of 3d–level is smaller than 4s–level.

Reason :- An orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than the orbital with larger
value of (n + ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

BIOLOGY

1) Which phase of the cell cycle corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA
replication?

(1) Synthesis phase

(2) Gap 1 phase
(3) Quiescent phase
(4) Gap 2 phase

2) Initially if a triploid cell of G1 phase undergoes cell division with 40pg DNA content then what will
be the amount of DNA and number of chromatids during metaphase in that cell? [Given, 3n = 36]

(1) 40pg and 36

(2) 80pg and 36
(3) 40pg and 72
(4) 80pg and 72

3) In quiescent stage of cell cycle

(1) Cells are metabolically active

(2) Cells exit from G2 phase
(3) Cells proliferate frequently
(4) Centrioles get duplicated

4) During prophase

(1) Centrosome undergoes duplication

(2) Untangling of chromosomal material occurs
(3) All cell organelles are clearly visible under microscope at the end of the phase
(4) No mitotic apparatus is formed

5) The two sister chromatids of the chromosome are held together by

(1) Centriole
(2) Centrosome
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centromere

6) Condensation of chromosomes is completed in which phase of M phase?

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Prophase

7) In an organism when karyokinesis is not followedby cytokinesis then, it will result in

(1) Increase in cytoplasmic content

(2) Multinucleate condition
(3) Reduction in the ploidy level
(4) No karyon formation

8) Cytokinesis in animal cell involves

(1) Cell plate formation

(2) Wall formation which starts in the centre of thecell
(3) Appearance of furrow at periphery of plasma membrane
(4) Formation of middle lamella

9) Recombination involves crossing over between

(1) Non sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosome

(2) Sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosome
(3) Non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
Sister chromatids of homologous
(4)
chromosomes

10) During which phase of the meiosis I the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic
spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation?

(1) The phase which last for months

(2) Final stage of the meiotic prophase-I
(3) The stage involving formation of synaptonemal complex
(4) During recombination nodule formation

11) Select the incorrect feature of interkinesis

(1) Short lived

(2) Stage between two mitotic divisions
(3) Followed by prophase II
(4) No DNA replication occur

12) Assertion: Ultrastructure of Cilia & flagella shows nine evenly spaced peripheral microtubules
of tubulin protein.
Reason: Centriole forms basal body of Cilia &flagella.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

13) Match the following organelles with their associated functions:

Organelle Function

A. ER i. Digestion of biomolecules

B. Golgi Apparatus ii. Involved in synthesis of lipids

Transport of ions against concentration

C. Lysosomes iii.
gradient

D. Vacuoles iv. Packaging of biomolecules

(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
(3) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii

14) Select the incorrect combination w.r.t following organelles:

(1) Nucleolus - Not bound by membrane

(2) Centrosome - Surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials
(3) Microbodies - Only present in animal cells
(4) Cilia - Core is called as axoneme

15) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t plasma membrane.

(1) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of phospho glycerides
Hydrophobic part of lipid in the membrane is made up of nonpolar unsaturated hydrocarbons
(2)
only
(3) The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the bilayer
(4) The fluid nature of membrane is important for the formation of intercellular junction

16) Mitochondrial ribosome differs from cytoplasmic ribosome, in terms of

(1) Size
(2) Nature
(3) Efficiency
(4) Function
17) In chloroplast, which one is correct.

(1) Flat membranous sacs called stroma lamellaeconnects the thylakoids of different grana
(2) Protein synthesizing enzymes are found in stroma
(3) Inner membrane is relatively more permeable than outer membrane
(4) Chlorophyll is present in stroma

18) Cell wall of algae is composed of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin and protein

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose and mannans only
(3) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
(4) Cellulose, pectin and minerals only

19) Which of the following cellular structure does not aid in locomotion?

(1) Cilia
(2) Pseudopodia
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Flagella

20) Which of the following cellular structures is non-membrane bound and only found in the
animalcell?

(1) Centrosome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Inclusion bodies

21) The centromere holding the two chromatids split sand allow its separation during meiosis

(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase I
(3) Metaphase II
(4) Anaphase II

22) Which among the following is not the significance of mitosis?

(1) Growth of multicellular organism

(2) Helps in cell repair
(3) Conservation of specific chromosome number in sexually reproducing organisms
(4) Helps to restore the nucleo cytoplasmic ratio

23) Select the incorrect feature of meiosis.

(1) Meiosis is initiated only after parental chromosome is replicated

(2) Meiosis involves only single cycle of DNA replication as well as karyokinesis
(3) At the end of meiosis II four haploid cells are formed
(4) Reduces the chromosome number by half

24) Mitosis results in the production of daughter cells with

(1) Double number of chromosomes than parent cell

(2) Identical genetic complement to parent cell
(3) Half number of chromosomes than parent cell
Less number of cell organelles & DNA than
(4)
parent cell

25) Select the incorrect about G0 phase

(1) Inactive stage of the cell cycle

(2) Cells in this stage are metabolically inactive
(3) Cells do not proliferate unless called on to do so
(4) Cells exit G1 phase to enter this phase

26) A bivalent formed in zygotene has

(1) Two chromatids of two chromosomes

(2) Two pairs of homologous chromosomes
(3) Four chromatids of two chromosomes
(4) Four centromeres of four chromosomes

27) Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of a phase that is
longer than zygotene. This phase is

(1) Diakinesis
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

28) Largest isolated single cell is

(1) Egg of an ostrich

(2) RBC
(3) Neuron
(4) PPLO

29) Which of the following is not true about SER?

(1) Helps in lipid synthesis

(2) Is a part of endomembrane system
(3) Helps in drug detoxification
(4) Involved in synthesis of proteins

30) The term glycocalyx is used for

(1) A layer surrounding plant cell.

(2) Cell wall of bacteria.
(3) A layer surrounding bacterial cell wall.
(4) Outermost layer of animal cell

31) The interphase lasts for more than 95% of the total duration of cell cycle. In a cell if 20 hours is
average duration of cell cycle then for how much time does the cell division proper lasts for?

(1) 19 hours
(2) 10 hours
(3) 60 min.
(4) 180 min.

32) Consider the following events of cell cycle and arrange them in the correct sequence of
occurrence and choose the option accordingly.
A - Separation of chromatids
B - Centrosomes become doubles
C - Chromatid of chromosome gets connected
to spindle fibre by kinetochore
D - Nuclear envelope surrounds the chromosome
clusters at each pole

(1) B → A → D → C
(2) A → C → D → B
(3) C → A → B → D
(4) B → C → A → D

33) Consider the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: In sexually reproducing organism meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in
their life cycle but fertilisation restores diploid phase.
Statement B: A bivalent has only two chromatids and a tetrad has four chromatids during zygotene
stage

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

34) The formation and dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place in A&B respectively.
Complete the above sentence by choosing right words for A & B.

A B

(1) Leptotene Diplotene

 (2) Zygotene Diplotene

(3) Diplotene Diakinesis

(4) Zygotene Diakinesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Who proposed that ‘presence of cell wall is a unique character of plants’?

(1) Antonie Van Leewenhoek

(2) Matthias Schleiden
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Theodor Schwann

36) 70S ribosomes have all the following rRNA, except

(1) 18S rRNA

(2) 16S rRNA
(3) 23S rRNA
(4) 5S rRNA

37) Total number of microtubules sub-fibres present in a centriole is

(1) 9
(2) 27
(3) 11
(4) 18

38) Select the wrong statement about chromatin

(1) They are nucleoprotein fibres

(2) Named by Flemming
(3) Composed of DNA and histone proteins
(4) Does not get stained with any dye

39) In a cell, if 2n = 48, then how many tetrads are formed after zygotene stage?

(1) 36
(2) 96
(3) 12
(4) 24

40) Match the following columns and select the correct option.
 Column I Column II

A. Zygotene (i) Homologous chromosomes

separate except at the site
of crossing over

B. Pachytene (ii) Synapsis of chromosome

C. Diplotene (iii) Terminalisation of

chiasmata

D. Diakinesis (iv) Chromatids of each

bivalent become distinct

A B C D

(1) iii i ii iv

(2) ii iv i iii

(3) iv iii i ii

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

(1) Polysome
(2) Polyhedral bodies
(3) Plastidome
(4) Nucleosome

42) Statement A: Fission is the mode of mitochondrial division.

Statement B: Mitochondria possess only one aqueous compartment.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

43) Which of the following modes of transport is employed for the transport of neutral solutes along
the concentration gradient?

(1) Passive transport

(2) Active transport
(3) Osmosis
(4) Na+/K+ pump
44) Which of the following options represent the correct composition of RBCs membrane?

(1) 40% protein & 52% lipids

(2) 80% protein & 20% lipids
(3) 52% protein & 40% lipids
(4) 20% protein & 80% lipids

45) All of the following represent inclusion bodies, except

(1) Gas vacuole

(2) Elaioplast
(3) Cyanophycean granules
(4) Glycogen granules

46) Match the column & choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Triploblastic (i) Ctenophora

(B) Radial symmetry (ii) Chordates

(C) Cell Aggrigation (iii) Sponges

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

47) Identify the animals that belong to phylum mollusca, given below :-

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) A and D
(4) A and B

48) How many of the following chordates possess 'Flame cells' as the excretory organ ?
Sycon, Ctenoplana, Taenia, Amphioxus, Cyclops, Betta, Scoliodon

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

49) Assertion : Obelia show metagenesis.

Reason : Both polyp and medusa form present in life cycle of Obelia.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

50) Select the correct statement about the given figure :

(1) A – Male ascaris – Straight tail

(2) B – Female ascaris – Curved tail
(3) A – Female ascaris – Curved tail
(4) B – Female ascaris – Longer body

51) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: In Cartilaginous fish, gill slits are present (without operculum) and notochord is
persistent throughout life.
Statement 2: In bony fish, air bladder is present which help in respiration and skin is covered with
placoid scales.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

52) Statement-I :- In Amphibia, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a
common chamber called cloaca.
Statement-II :- In Amphibia sexes are separate and fertilisation is external.

(1) Statement I correct and statement II incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

53) Assertion : The unique features of mammals are the presence of mammary glands and hair on
the skin.
Reason : Mammals commonly exhibit viviparity.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

54) What is common to earthworm, Nereis and leech :

(1) Nephridia
(2) Metamerism
(3) Coelomate
(4) All of above

55) Statement-I :- Members of Ctenophora are bisexual.

Statement-II :- In Ctenoplana fertilization is external.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

56) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Cucumaria i. Sea lilly

B. Echinus ii. Sea cucumber

C. Antedon iii. Brittle star

D. Ophiura iv. Sea urchin

(1) A-ii B-iv C-i D-iii
(2) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(3) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
(4) A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i

57) Choose the correct pathway of water flow in water transport system :-

(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia

(2) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum
(3) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum
(4) None of the above

58) In the given diagram identify the coelomic condition in the animals :-
(1) (A) Tapeworm (B) Ascaris (C) Earthworm
(2) (A) Cockroach (B) Ascaris (C) Tapeworm
(3) (A) Ascaris (B) Tapeworm (C) Earthworm
(4) (A) Earthworm (B) Cockroach (C) Ascaris

59) The diagrams are labelled with alphabets. Identify and choose correct answer ?

(1) A = Columnar epithelium, B = Multicellular gland, C = Compound epithelium

(2) A = Unicellular gland, B = Multicellular gland, C = Compound epithelium
(3) A = Multicellular gland, B = Unicellular gland, C = Compound epithelium
(4) A = Compound epithelium, B = Unicellular gland, C = Multicellular gland

60) Assertion : Bones have hard and pliable ground substance

Reason : Bones are rich in calcium salts and collagen fibers

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Cuboidal epithelium is found in :-

(1) Ducts of glands

(2) Tubular parts of nephrons
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) All of these

62) Give below the list of the organs.

Buccal cavity, Renal pelvis, ureter, Urinary Bladder and Pharynx.
How many organ consist of Non-Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

63)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II : Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

64) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C

and D and select the right option about them?

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Haversian Haversian
(1) Osteocyte Matrix
canal system

Haversian Haversian
(2) Matrix Osteocyte
system canal

Haversian Haversian
(3) Matrix Osteocyte
canal system

Haversian Haversian
(4) Osteocyte matrix
canal system
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Match the following column correct :-

 A. i. Stomach

B. ii. Wall of blood vessels

C. iii. DCT of nephron

D. iv. Fallopian tube

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

66) Identify the following structure

(1) Areolar connective tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

67) Match the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Fibroblast (a) Serotonin (1) Scavenger cells

(ii) Plasma cell (b) Largest cell (2) Clone of lymphocyte

(iii) Mast cell (c) Cart wheel cell (3) Vaso constrictor
 Kidney shaped Matrix producing
(iv) Macrophages (d) (4)
nucleus cells
(1) (i)–b–4, (ii)–c–2, (iii)–a–3, (iv)–d–1
(2) (i)–b–4, (ii)–a–3, (iii)–c–2, (iv)–d–1
(3) (i)–a–2, (ii)–b–1, (iii)–d–4, (iv)–c–3
(4) (i)–a–2, (ii)–c–3, (iii)–d–4, (iv)–b–1

68) Match the column-I with column-II and choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Perform cementing to keep neighbouring

(A) Adipose tissue (i)
cell together

Have a hard and non-pliable ground

Dense regular
(B) (ii) substance rich in calcium salts and
connective tissue
collagen fibres

(C) Bone (iii) Located mainly beneath the skin

(D) Adhering junction (iv) Tendon and ligaments

(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

69) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.

(1) The squamous epithlium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption.
(3) The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particle or mucus in a specific direction.
(4) Compound epithelium play main role in secretion & absorption.

70) Read the following statements and find out how many of these are related to given figure :-

a. Multilayered epithelium
b. Limited role in secretion and absorption
c. Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
d. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
71) Study the following diagram and choose the correct option

(1) It has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a fluid ground substance
(2) It is present above the skin
(3) It serves as a support framework for neural tissue
(4) It contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells

72) Assertion : Body of Pleurobrachia bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates.
Reason : Pleurobrachia is included in phylum ctenophora.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

73) Out of these how many structures are made up of hyaline cartilage.
Tip of nose, nasal septum, ear pinna, sternal part of ribs, epiglottis, larynx, wall of eustachian tube
Options :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

74) What type of tissue lines the urinary bladder ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Brush border epithelium

75) Select the incorrect option for the following given figure.

(1) Circulation closed type

(2) Anadromous migration
(3) Scales and paired fins present
(4) Ectoparasite
76) Which of the following statement is incorrect about the given diagram :-

(1) Fresh water animal

(2) External fertilization
(3) Comb plate help in locomotion
(4) Indirect development

77) Carefully observe the given diagram of arthropod and choose the correct answer from the
options:-

Pair
Excretory
Class of
matter
legs
(1) Insecta 3 Urea
(2) Insecta 3 Uric acid
(3) Arachnida 4 Guanine
(4) Crustacea 5 Ammonia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Identify the type of epithelial tissue and their function :-

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium = absorption

(2) Simple columnar epithelium = secretion
(3) Simple squamous epithelium = diffusion
(4) Pseudo stratified epithelium = Filtration
79) Fill in the blank :
The __A__ epithelium is made up of a __B__ thin layer of flattened cells with __C__ boundaries. They
are found in the __D__ and air sacs of lungs :

(1) (A)-Cuboidal, (B)-Squamous, (C)-Regular, (D)-Fallopian tubes

(2) (A)-Squamous, (B)-Single, (C)-Irregular, (D)-Wall of blood vessels
(3) (A)-Columnar, (B)-Double, (C)-Flattened, (D)-Bronchioles
(4) (A)-Squamous, (B)-Single, (C)-Regular, (D)-Liver

80) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

(A) It is composed of single layer of tall and slender cells
(B) Their nuclei are located at the base
(C) Free surface may have microvilli
(D) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sac of lungs
How many of the above statements are incorrect for simple columnar epithelium :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

81) Most abundant and widely distributed tissues in the body of complex animals are :

(1) Epithelial tissues

(2) Connective tissues
(3) Neural tissues
(4) Muscular tissues

82) In the following diagram (A) and (B) parts are made up of following composition :-

A = Glycoprotein
(1)
B = Mucopolysaccharide
A = Hyaluronic acid
(2)
B = Keratin protein
A = Scleroprotein
(3)
B = Hyaluronic acid
A = Collagen fibres
(4)
B = Glycoprotein

83) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : In hemichordates the body cavity is lined by mesoderm.
Reason R : In aschelminthes the mesoderm is split into scattered pouches.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

84) In the given four statements (a-d), select the options which includes all the correct ones ?
(a) Epithelium is covering and protective tissue
(b) Maximum power of regeneration found in muscular tissue
(c) During embryonic development epithelium originates first
(d) Simple squamous epithelium is also called pavement epithelium, due to its tile like appearance

(1) Statement (a), (b), (c)

(2) Statement (a), (c), (d)
(3) Statement (b), (c)
(4) All statements are correct

85) Observe the diagram carefully and pick out the wrong statement from the options given below :-

Structural and functional unit of 'F' is nephron in which simple cuboidal and simple squamous
(1)
epithelium is present.
(2) 'F' is surrounded by dense regular connective tissue.
(3) 'C' is lined by transitional epithelium.
(4) 'D' is lined by stretchable epithelium

86) Claspers are :-

(1) Respiratory and present in reptilia

(2) Present on pelvic fins in cartilaginous male fishes
(3) Olfactory and present in amphibia
(4) Respiratory and present in amphibia

87) Find out incorrect statement :-

(1) Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as Protochordates

(2) Urochordata are exclusively marine
(3) In Urochordata and Cephalochordata notochord is persistent throughout the life
(4) Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum are Urochordates
88) Which of the following pair of animals are referred as 'Jawless fishes' ?

(1) Magur & flying fish

(2) Lamprey & Eel
(3) Rohu & Dog fish
(4) Hag fish & Lamprey

89) A group of animals that exhibits following properties :-

(a) Represent to Agnatha
(b) Ancient chordates
(c) Animals are ectoparasite on fishes
On the basis of above features name out the correct group of animals and select the correct option ?

(1) Urochordata
(2) Cyclostomata
(3) Cephalochordata
(4) Vertebrata

90) ___(A)___ junction faciliate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the
___(B)___of adjoining cells. Fill the blanks (A and B) with suitable options :-

(1) A : Tight, B : Cell wall

(2) A : Gap, B : Cytoplasm
(3) A : Adhering, B : Plasma membrane
(4) A : Desmosomes, B : Cell wall
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 2 3 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 4 1 2 4 1 2 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 4 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

y = sin2233°

= sin(233°) = sin (180° + 53°) = (– sin 53°) = –

so

2) =

= 0.995

3)

4)

5)

h=

6) At t = 1, xA= 3, xB = 6, yA = 1, yB = 5

distance = =5

7)
 8)

9)

10) a = 2, d = 2, n = 30

(1st term + Last term)

= (30) (31) = 930

11)
P + Q = 3P – 3Q
4Q = 2P
P = 2Q

12)
=

0
θ = 90

13)

⇒ Q = sin–1

14)

According to given problem there should be

ΣFx = 0
In the given figure net force along X-axis.
F = 1 cos 60° + 2 sin 30° – 4 sin 30°
=

⇒ F=–

15)

=
1 + 1 + 2 cosq = 3
2 cosθ = 1
θ = 60°
then

⇒
⇒
⇒

⇒1–

16)

.....(1)

......(2)
Given

17) as well as all are perpendicular to but only in case of (2) the
magnitude is equal to 1.

18) According to Lami's theorem,

or
 19)

20) |A| =

cosα = α = cos–1

cosβ = β = cos–1

cosγ = γ = cos–1

21)

Let A and B be two forces

Greatest resultant = A + B = 10 .....(1)
Least resultant = A – B = 6 .... (2)
Solving (1) & (2) we get A = 8N and B = 2N when each force is increased by 3N
A' = A + 3 = 8 + 3 = 11 N
B' = B + 3 = 2 + 3 = 5 N

As the forces are acting at an angle of 90° So R' = =

22)
Resultant of & is towards
So, =

23)

According to question

⇒ –sin2t – cos2t = 0
⇒ 1 = 0 which is not possible
24)
(1) & (4); (2) & (5) cancel each other

⇒ = |F1 – F2|

25)

x- component of resultant will be 3 cos 30°

26) Average speed =

27)

t1 =

t2 =
Average velocity for AB & CD are same
= v1(say)
Average velocity for CB = v2
Average velocit for AD = v3
Where v2 > v3

So t1 < t2

28)
–h = 290 – 500
h = 210 m

29) y = x tan θ –
tanθ = ⇒ θ = 60º

⇒ u cosθ = 1
⇒ u cos 60º = 1

30)

Average velocity

31) s = ,

= 30 s

32)

By v2 = u2 + 2as

= u2 – 2ax

2ax = u2 –

...(1)
Similarly from starting
v2 = u2 + 2ax
0 = u2 – 2ax2

....(2)
By (1) / (2)

x2 = 27 cm
33)

6 = 0 + (2)t2
t= sec

34)

Velocity at point A
VA = 0 + 2 × 10 = 20 m/s

From B to C :
0 = 20 – 4 × t1
t1 = 5 sec.

distance covered = (20 + 5) × 20 = 250 m

35)

⇒ required interval 2 < t < 5

36) Time of flight, T = =2

37)

Let acceleration is a and retardation is –2a

Then for accelerating motion

....(i)
 For retarding motion

...(ii)

Given t1 + t2 = 9 ⇒

Hence, duration of acceleration, sec

38)

at t = 1 sec

39) w.r.t. man

= tan30º
vrain = km/hr

40) t' = ⇒ t' = = 20 sec

41)

42)

x = at + bt2 – ct3
∴ V = a + 2bt – 3ct2

∴ acceleration f = = 2b – 6ct

when f = 0 ∴ t =

∴ V = a + 2b – 3c

∴V=a+

∴V=a+
 43)

44) a =

⇒ V–3=

⇒ V=3– m/s

45)
O2 = U2 – 2a × 2S (A → B)
and V2 = O2 + 2as (B → C)

V=

CHEMISTRY

46)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

47)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

48)

As per theory

49)

wsolvent < Vsolution (dwater = 1g/ml)

n 1 > n2
A is more concentrated than B
50)

NH3 reacts with water

51)

Mole fraction of solute

52)

0.428 N

53)

about thrice

54)
0
101.04 C

55)

P = KH . X
1 = 100 × 103 . X
X = 10–5

[∴ >> ngas]

= 10–5
⇒ moles of gas dissolved = 55.5 × 10–5 = 0.555 millimoles

56)

Solution of acetone and ethanol shows positive deviation as acetone-ethanol interactions are
weaker than ethanol-ethanol interactions which exhibits H-bonding.

57)

2.92

58) π ∝ iCT ; iCT is maximum for 0.03 M NaCl at 50°C.

59)

ΔTf = Kf × m
= 5.12 × 0.078
 ΔTf = 0.40 K

60)
nB = 3, nO = 2
nTotal = 3 + 2 = 5

= 336 mm of Hg

61) Explanation :-
Assertion : Isotonic solutions have the same solute concentration, so there's no net water
movement (osmosis) across a semi-permeable membrane.
Reason :- Osmotic pressure is the required pressure to prevent osmosis. Isotonic solutions
have equal osmotic pressure, meaning there's no pressure difference to drive water
movement.
Concept :- Osmosis is the movement of solvent (usually water) across a semi permeable
membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute
concentration. isotonic solutions have equal solute concentrations, hence equal osmotic
pressures, and no net osmosis occurs.
Answer option 1 (Assertion and reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion).

62) A. Question Explanation:

The problem states that a protein solution and a sucrose solution are isotonic. Isotonic
solutions have the same osmotic pressure. We need to find the molecular mass of the protein.
B. Given Data:

A. Protein concentration: 500 g/L

B. Sucrose concentration: 3.42 g/L
C. Molecular mass of sucrose (C12H22O11): 342 g/mol (approximately)

C. Concept:

A. Osmotic pressure:

Solution:
1. Calculate the molarity of the sucrose solution: Molarity of sucrose =

=
2. Since the solutions are isotonic, their molarities are equal (assuming i = 1 for both): Molarity of
protein = 0.01 mol/L
3. Calculate the molecular mass of the protein: Molarity of protein =

= = =
50000 g/mol
E. Final Answer:
The molecular mass of the protein is 50000 g/mol. The correct option is 4.

63) ΔTf = = 7.78 K

64)

Ans. (64)

65)

66)

67)

The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiple of quantum.

68) Node is the point on the axis at which the value of ψ changes from +ve to –ve and from –ve
to +ve.

69)

I2 = 54.4 eV

70)

Ans. (2)

71)

2.55 eV

72)

Ans. (1s)

73)
Ans.(4)

74)

199.5 kJ

75)

0.96

76)

P1 > P2

77)

Ans. (4)

78)

Osmotic pressure

79)

Conceptual

80)
84 = 70(0.8) +
84 = 56 + 0.2
28 = 0.2
= 140

81)

They all have the same osmotic pressure.

82)

0.6

83) π = iCRT

P1 = 1 × (For Glucose)
 P2 = 1 × (For Urea)

P3 = 1 × (For Sucrose)
∴ P2 > P1 > P3

84)

85) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

86) As vapours are removed remaining solution becomes more concentrated so colligative
properties increases.

87) No. of spherical nodes = n – l –1;

for s, p, d, f values of l = 0, 1, 2, 3 respectively

88)

λ=

89)

90) For Hydrogen atom energy depends on principal quantum no. ‘n’.

BIOLOGY

91)

Gap 1 phase

92)

80pg and 72

93)
Cells are metabolically active

94)

Untangling of chromosomal material occurs

95)

Centromere

96)

Metaphase

97)

Multinucleate condition

98)

Appearance of furrow at periphery of plasma membrane

99)

Non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

100)

Final stage of the meiotic prophase-I

101)

Stage between two mitotic divisions

102)

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

103)

A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii

104)

Microbodies - Only present in animal cells

105)

Hydrophobic part of lipid in the membrane is made up of nonpolar unsaturated hydrocarbons

only

106)

Size

107)

Protein synthesizing enzymes are found in stroma

108)

Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals

109)

Fimbriae

110)

Centrosome

111)

Anaphase II

112)

Conservation of specific chromosome number in sexually reproducing organisms

113)

Meiosis involves only single cycle of DNA replication as well as karyokinesis

114)

Identical genetic complement to parent cell

115)

Cells in this stage are metabolically inactive

116)

Four chromatids of two chromosomes

117)

Pachytene

118)

Egg of an ostrich

119)

Involved in synthesis of proteins

120)

A layer surrounding bacterial cell wall.

121)

60 min.

122)

B→C→A→D

123)

Only statement A is correct

124)

Ans. (2)

125)

Theodor Schwann

126)

18S rRNA

127)
Ans. (27)

128)

Does not get stained with any dye

129)

Ans. (24)

130)

Ans. (2)

131)

Polysome

132)

Only statement A is correct

133)

Passive transport

134)

52% protein & 40% lipids

135)

Elaioplast

136) NCERT-XII, Pg # 37, 38

137) NCERT Pg. # 53

138) NCERT (XIth), Pg. # 55

139) NCERT Pg # 50

140) NCERT, Pg # 43
141) NCERT Pg.# 56,57
In Fighting fish, Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy and Skin is covered with
cycloid/ctenoid scales.

142) NCERT, Pg # 48

143) NCERT Pg. # 61

144) NCERT-XI, Pg # 52, IInd Para.

145) NCERT-XII, Pg # 42

146) NCERT Pg. # 54

147) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

148) NCERT XI Page No. 48 : Fig. 4.3a,b,c

149)

NCERT - XI. Pg # 102 Fig 7.2

150) NCERT Pg # 104

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

152) NCERT XI Pg. # 102

Buccal cavity and Pharynx have non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

153) NCERT XI Pg # 103 & 104

154) NCERT XI Pg. # 104 (E) & (H)

155) NCERT Pg # 101,102

156) NCERT PAGE : 103

157) Module, Pg. # 98,99,100

158) NCERT-XI, Pg # 102, 103, 104

159) NCERT (XI), Pg. # 101

160) NCERT-XI, Page#102

161)

NCERT PAGE : 103

162) NCERT Pg # 51

163)

164)

165) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 56 (Fig. 4.18)

166) NCERT-XI, Page#51

167) NCERT XIth Pg.#53

168) NCERT Pg# 101

169) Module

170) NCERT Pg. # 101

171) NCERT-XI, Pg # 102, Para.-7.1.2

172)

NCERT-XI, Module No. 2

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 43, 45

174) Module Pg. # 92

175) NCERT XIth Pg.#101,292,293

176)

Pg. No. 57 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

177) Old NCERT – XI – Page no. 55

178) NCERT Pg. # 47

179) NCERT XI (H) Pg. # 61, Para iv

180) NCERT Pg # 102, Para 9