02-11-2025

1803CMD303029250067 MD

PHYSICS

1) If E = 200Volt, R = 25Ω, L=2H and C=2µF and the frequency is variable then the current at f = 0

and f = ∞ will be respectively -

(1) 0A, 8A
(2) 8A, 0A
(3) 8A, 8A
(4) 0A, 0A

2)

In a series R-L-C circuit, the frequency of the source is half of the resonance frequency. The nature
of the circuit will be :-

(1) capacitive
(2) inductive
(3) purely resistive
(4) data insufficient

3) In the circuit shown switch S is connected to position 2 for a long time and then joined to position

1. The total heat produced in resistance R1 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) A sinusoidal AC current passes through a resistor of resistance R in LCR series circuit. If phase
difference between supplied voltage and supplied current is θ and peak value of supplied current is
I0, then average power dissipated in the circuit is :-

(1) R cosθ

(2)

(3) R

(4)
cosθ

5) The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2A. If the wattless current be , what is the power factor

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

What will be the impedance of the circuit shown below

(1) 5Ω
(2) 10Ω
(3) 25Ω
(4) 75Ω

7) The power factor of an A.C. circuit having resistance R and inductance L connected in series and
angular frequency ω will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f (E) and the current (I) at any instant are given respectively by E = E
sin ωt I = I0 sin (ωt + ϕ), the average power in the circuit over one cycle of a.c. is :-

(1)

(2) E0I0

(3)

(4)

9) In ac circuit an alternating voltage sin 200t volt is connected to a capacitor of capacity

1mF. The r.m.s value of the current in the circuit is :-

(1) 10mA
(2) 100mA
(3) 200mA
(4) 20mA

10)

In the circuit shown the potential difference across R, L and C are as given then the voltage of the
source will be

(1) 190V
(2) 70V
(3) 100V
(4) 40V

11) In a certain circuit E = 200 cos (314)t and

I = sin(314t + π/4), their vector representation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) Suppose that the electric field part of an EMW in vaccum is E = 3.1 cos(1.8y + 5.4×106t) , than
what is the magnetic field part of wave ?

(1) 1.03 × 10–8 cos(1.8y + 5.4 × 106t)

(2) 1.03 × 10–8 cos(1.8y + 5.4 × 106t)

(3)
1.03 × 10–8 cos(1.8y + 5.4 × 106t)

(4)
1.03 × 10–8 cos(1.8y + 5.4 × 106t)

13) A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average power output of 800 W. The
maximum value of electric field at a distance of 4.0 m from the source is (approximately) :

(1) 65 V/m
(2) 75 V/m
(3) 85 V/m
(4) 55 V/m

14) An conductor of 10mH and a capacitor of 16 μF are connected in the circuit as shown in figure.
The frequency of the power supply is equal to the resonant frequency of the circuit. Which ammeter

will read zero ampere?

(1) A1
(2) A2
(3) A3
(4) none of these

15) If a current I given by I0 sin (ωt – π/2) flows in an ac circuit across which an ac potential of E0 sin
(ωt) has been applied, then the power consumption P in the circuit will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) zero

16) The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A. If the wattless current be what is the power
factor :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) When an AC source of e.m.f. e = E0 sin (100t) is connected across a circuit, the phase difference
between the e.m.f. e and the current i in the circuit is observed to be π/4, as shown in the diagram. If
the circuit consists possibly only of RC or RL in series, find the relationship between the two
elements :-

(1) R = 1kΩ, C = 10 μF
(2) R = 1kΩ, C = 1 μF
(3) R = 1kΩ, L = 10 H
(4) R = 1kΩ, L = 1 H

18) If a current I = I0 sin (ωt – 90°) flows in circuit across which an alternating potential E = E0 sin
wt has been applied, then the power consumed in the circuit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

19) If electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by . The

peak value of magnetic field in the region is

(1) 20 T
(2) 2 T
(3) 0.2 T
(4) 0.02 T

20) The correct match between the entries in column I and column II are :

Column-I Column-II
Radiation Wavelength

(a) Microwave (i) 100m

(b) Gamma rays (ii) 10–15 m

(c) A.M. radio waves (iii) 10–10 m

(d) X-rays (iv) 10–3 m

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

21) All electromagnetic wave is transporting energy in the negative z direction. At a certain point
and certain time the direction of electric field of the wave is along positive y direction. What will be
the direction of the magnetic field of the wave at that point and instant ?

(1) Positive direction of x

(2) Positive direction of z
(3) Negative direction of x
(4) Negative direction of y

22) Which of the following Maxwell’s equations is valid for time varying conditions but not valid for
static conditions :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic field.
Statement II : The amplitude of electric field and the magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are

related to each other as

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

24) Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : EM waves used for optical communication have longer wavelengths than that of
microwave, employed in Radar technology.
Reason R : Infrared EM waves are more energetic than microwaves, (used in Radar)
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A

25) The ratio of contributions made by the electric and magnetic field components to the intensity of
an EM wave is

(1) c : 1
(2) c2 :1
(3) 1 : 1
(4)

26) The voltage supplied to a circuit is given by V = V0t3/2, where t is time in second. Find the RMS
value of voltage for the period t = 0 to t = 1s :-

(1)

(2) V0

(3)

(4) 2V0

27) Maxwell's equations

and
are the statements of :

(1) Gauss law of magnetism and Faraday's law of Electro magnetic induction
(2) Gauss law of electricity and Faraday's law of Electro magnetic induction
(3) Faraday's law of Electro magnetic induction and Gauss law of magnetism
(4) Gauss law of magnetism and modified Ampere's circuital law

28) Part of a circuit is shown. When current in circuit is 3A, rate of increase of current is 2 A/s. The
potential difference between points P and Q at this instant is :
(1) 9.6V
(2) 10.6V
(3) 17.6V
(4) 13.6V

29)

An electron beam is moving with uniform speed near to a conducting loop then the induced current
in the loop :-

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anti clockwise
(3) Both
(4) No current

30) The current flows from A to B as shown in the figure. The direction of the induced current in the

loop (When current decreases with time) is :-

(1) clockwise
(2) anticlockwise
(3) straight line
(4) none of these

31) The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation : ϕ = 5t3 – 100t +
300 The magnitude of emf induced in the coil after 3s is :

(1) 10V
(2) 20V
(3) 35V
(4) 70V

32) The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil, containing a condenser,

with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then

(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive
(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
(3) Both the plates will be positive
(4) Both the plates will be negative

33) For given arrangement (in horizontal plane) the possible direction of magnetic field :-

(1) towards right

(2) towards left
(3) Vertically upward
(4) vertically downward

34) The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount Δϕ in a time Δt. The
total quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time Δt is
represented by :-

(1)
Q=

(2)
Q=

(3)
Q=R

(4) Q =

35) Assertion : Coefficient of self-induction of an inductor depends upon the rate of change of
current passing through it.

Reason : Self induced e.m.f. in an inductor is So,

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

36) A metallic ring is dropped down, keeping its plane perpendicular to a constant and horizontal
magnetic field. The ring enters the region of magnetic field at t = 0 and completely emerges out at t
= T sec. The current in the ring varies as :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two identical conductors P and Q are placed on two frictionless rails R and S in a uniform
magnetic field directed into the plane. If P is moved in the direction shown in figure with a constant

speed then rod Q :-

(1) will be attracted towards P

(2) will be attracted towards Q
(3) will be attracted towards R
(4) will be attracted towards S

38) An A.C source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true ?

(1) Current leads the voltage and both are in same phase
(2) Current lags behind the voltage and both are in same phase
(3) Current and voltage are in same phase
(4) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance

39) A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic induction as shown in Fig. At the position MNQ, the speed of the ring is v. The potential
difference developed across the ring is :-

(1) Zero

(2)
BvR2 and M is at higher potential
(3) πRBv and Q is at higher potential
(4) 2RBv and Q is at higher potential

40) An electric potential difference will be induced between the ends of the conductor shown in the

diagram, when the conductor moves in the direction :-

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) L
(4) M

41) For the shown conductor LN moving with a constant velocity 'V', end L
of the conductor is at higher potential. The direction of current in source wire PQ will be :-

(1) from Q to P
(2) from P to Q
(3) Both P to Q and Q to P are possible
(4) Can't be predicted

42) Phase difference between emf and flux for a coil rotating in magnetic field is :-

(1) 0
(2) π/2
(3) π
(4) 2π

43) A coil of area 0.1 m2 has 500 turns. After placing the coil in a magnetic field of strength 4 × 10–4
Wb/m2, it is rotated through 90º in 0.1 second. The average e.m.f. induced in the coil is :

(1) 0.2 volt

(2) 0.1 volt
(3) 0.05 volt
(4) 0.012 volt

44) A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD

are :-

(1) B to A and D to C
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D

45) A conducting loop of radius R is present in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular the plane of
the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time ‘t’, as R = R0 + t. The e.m.f induced in the loop is :-

(1) 2π(R0 + t)B clockwise

(2) π(R0 + t)B clockwise
(3) 2π(R0 + t)B anticlockwise
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g); ΔH = –74.8 kJ mol–1

Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?
[R → reactants; P → products]
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If the half-life (t1/2) for a first order reaction is 1 minutes, then the time required for 99.9%
completion of the reaction is closest to:

(1) 2 minutes
(2) 4 minutes
(3) 5 minutes
(4) 10 minutes

3) The rate constant of a reaction at 500 K and 700 К are 0.02 s-1 and 0.07s-1. The value of E is

(1) 20835 J
(2) 18231 J
(3) 82311 J
(4) 21183 J

4) For a first order reaction the ratio of t90% and t10%, is approximately
(1) 5
(2) 11
(3) 10
(4) 22

5) Components ‘A’ and ‘B’ react according to the following chemical equation.
Concentration of either ‘A’ or ‘B’ were changed keeping the concentrations of one of the reactants
constant and rates were measured as a function of initial concentration. Following results were
obtained. Choose the correct option for the rate equations for this reaction

(1) Rate = k[A]2[B]

(2) Rate = k[A] [B]2
(3) Rate = k[A] [B]
0
(4) Rate = k[A]2[B]

6) For a reaction A → 2B + C the half-lives are 100 s and 50 s when the concentration of reactant A
is 0.5 and 1.0 mol L-1 respectively. The order of the reaction is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) For an elementary reaction 2A + B → A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to half of its
original volume then rate or reaction will

(1) remain unchanged

(2) increase four times
(3) increase eight times
(4) decrease eight times
8) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(฀) CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq). What type of reaction
is this?

(1) Unimolecular elementary

(2) Pseudo first order
(3) Zero order
(4) Second order

9) The units of rate of reaction and rate constant are same for a :

(1) zero order reaction

(2) first order reaction
(3) second order reaction
(4) third order reaction

10) The molecularity of a complex reaction given below is :

2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) has no meaning

11) The rate constant of nth order has units :

(1) litre1–n mol1–n sec–1

(2) Mol1–n litre1–n sec
(3)
(4) Mol1–n litre1–n sec–1

12) When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not
affected. The order of the reaction is :

(1) zero
(2) first
(3) second
(4) more than zero but less than first

13) For a first order gas phase reaction,

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) Assertion (A):– Ea of the forward reaction is higher than that of the backward reaction in a
reversible endothermic reaction.
Reason (R):– Threshold energy of the forward reaction is more than that of backward reaction.

(1) Both A and R are correct and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect, R is correct

15) Identify (i), (ii) and (iii) in the following diagram

(1) (i)-Solution, (ii)-Frozen solvent, (iii)-Liquid solvent

(2) (i)-Frozen solvent, (ii)-Solution, (iii)-Liquid solvent
(3) (i)-Frozen solvent, (ii)-Liquid solvent, (iii)-Solution
(4) (i)-Solution, (ii)-Liquid solvent, (iii)-Frozen solvent

16) In the phenomenon of osmosis through the semipermeable membrane

(1) Solvent molecules pass from solution to solvent

(2) Solvent molecules pass from solvent to solution
(3) Solute molecules pass from solution to solvent
(4) Both 1 and 2

17) The rate law for the reaction Product (P) is. . What will be the
order of reaction if A is taken in excess.

(1) 2
(2) 2.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 0.5

18) Decomposition off X exhibits a rate constant of 0.5 μg/year. How many year are required for the
decomposition of 5 μg of X into 2.5 μg ?

(1) 50
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 40

19) Dimethyl, ether decomposes to give CH4(g), H2(g) and CO(g)

CH3—O—CH3(g) → CH4(g) + CO(g) + H2(g).
Its rate law is given as :
Rate = k[CH3OCH3]3/2
If pressure is measured in bar and time in min, then unit of rate constant will be :

(1) bar3/2 min–1

(2) bar1/2 min–1
(3) bar–1/2 min–1
(4) bar–3/2 min–1

20) Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction :

X2 + Y2 —→ 2XY is given below :
(i) X2 ⇌ X + X (fast)
(ii) X + Y2 → XY + Y (slow)
(iii) X + Y ⇌ XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be :

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 1.5
(4) 1

21) Observe the following reaction:

A(g) + 3B(g) —→ 2C(g)

The rate of this reaction is 3 × 10–3 mol litre–1 min–1.

What is the value of in mol litre–1 min–1?

(1) 3 × 10–3
(2) 9 × 10–3
(3) 10–3
(4) 1.5 × 10–3

22) Which of the following statements is incorrect about the collison theory of chemical reaction?
 It considers reacting molecules or atoms to be hard spheres and ignores their structural
(1)
features.
(2) Number of effective collisions determines the rate of reaction.
Collision of atoms or molecules possessing sufficient threshold energy results in the product
(3)
formation.
Molecules should collide with sufficient threshold energy and proper orientation for the collision
(4)
to be effective.

23) Identify the order of reaction whose rate constant is

k = 2.3 × 10–5 L mol–1 s–1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

24) For a reaction Ea = 0 and k = 3.2 × 104 s–1 at 300 K.

The value of k at 310 K would be:

(1) 6.4 × 104 s–1

(2) 3.2 × 104 s–1
(3) 3.2 × 108 s–1
(4) 3.2 × 105 s–1

25) What will be the osmotic pressure of decimolar solution of glucose at 30°C

(1) 2.48 atm

(2) 8.24 atm
(3) 3.48 atm
(4) 0.241 atm

26) The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose (π1), 10 g urea (π2) and
10 g sucrose (π3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water, is

(1) π1 > π2 > π3

(2) π3 > π1 > π2
(3) π2 > π1 > π3
(4) π2 > π3 > π1

27) The process of getting fresh water from sea water is known as-

(1) osmosis
(2) filtration
(3) pressure distillation
(4) reverse osmosis
28) The vapour pressure of a solution of non-volatile solute is

(1) less than that of solvent.

(2) equal to that of solvent.
(3) more than that of solvent.
(4) equal to or more than that of solvent.

29) The van’t Hoff factor for a dilute solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] is

(1) 4.0
(2) 0.25
(3) 5.0
(4) 3.0

30) 2 g of benzoic acid dissolved in 25 g of benzene shows for benzene is 4.9 K kg mol-1 and
molar mass of benzoic acid (normal) is 122, what is the degree of association of benzoic acid in
solution?

(1) 0.892
(2) 0.992
(3) 0.792
(4) 0.690

31) A 1.0 g sample of Co(NH2CH2CH2NH2)3Cl3 is dissolved in 25.0 g of water and the freezing point of
the solution is –0.87°C. How many ions are produced per mole of compound? The Kf of water is
1.86°C/molal

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

32) The van’t Hoff factor i for an electrolyte which undergoes dissociation and association in solvent
are respectively:

(1) greater than one and less than one

(2) less than one and greater than one
(3) less than one and less than one
(4) greater than one and greater than one

33) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total vapour pressure of the solution is given as:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
34) Based on information given below mark the correct option :
Information :
(A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A-A and B-B type are
nearly same as A-B type interactions.
(B) In ethanol and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A-B
type interactions.
(C) in chloroform and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type intermolecular interaction are weaker than A-
B type interactions.

(1) Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult's law.

(2) Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.
(3) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult's law.
(4) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult's law.

35) Depression in freezing point of water when 62 g ethylene glycol is dissolved in 1000 g water will
be:
(kf = l.86 k kg mol–1)

(1) 1.86
(2) 3.72
(3) 5.58
(4) 2.86

36) The value of Henry's constant KH is :

(1) greater for gases with higher solubility

(2) greater for gases with lower solubility
(3) constant for all gases
(4) not related to the solubility of gases

37) Which among the following is not correct lor ideal solution?

(1) ΔSmixing = 0
(2) ΔVmixing = 0
(3) ΔHmixing = 0
(4) It obeys Raoult's law

38) The osmotic pressure of equimolar solution of BaCl2, NaCl and glucose will be in the order :

(1) Glucose > NaCl > BaCl2

(2) BaCl2 > NaCl > Glucose
(3) NaCl > BaCl2 > Glucose
(4) NaCl > Glucose > BaCl2

39) The concentration of pollutant in ppm (w/w), that has been measured at 450 mg per 150 kg of
sample is:
(1) 3 ppm
(2) 6 ppm
(3) 3000 ppm
(4) 330 ppm

40) Vapour pressure of pure A = 100 mm Hg

Vapour pressure of pure B = 150 mm Hg

2 mole of liquid A and 3 mole of liquid B are mixed to form an ideal solution. The vapour pressure of
solution will be:

(1) 135 mm
(2) 130 mm
(3) 140 mm
(4) 145 mm

41) How many of the below mentioned statements are correct

Statement – I : Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex reactions
Statement – II : molecularity is applicable to elementary as well as complex reactions
Statement – III : For complex reaction, order is given by the slowest step and molecularity of the
slowest step is same as the order of the overall reaction
Statement – IV : A catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy, ΔG of a reaction
Statement – V : Threshold energy = Activation Energy - energy possessed by reacting species

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

42) Assertion (A): 0.1 M solution of NaCl has greater osmotic pressure. than 0.1 M solution of
glucose at same temperature.
Reason (R): In solution, NaCl dissociates to produce more number of particles.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

43) Azeotropic mixtures are:

(1) mixture of two solids

(2) those which boil at different temperatures
(3) those which can be fractionally distilled
(4) constant boiling mixtures

44) The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. Therefore, the freezing point of
0.1 M NaCl solution in water is expected to be:
(1) –1.86°C
(2) –0.372°C
(3) –0.372°C
(4) +0.372°C

45) An isotonic solution produce an osmotic pressure of 10 atm measured against pure water at
37∘C. How many grams of NaCl must be dissolved in one litre of water to produce isotonic solution.

(1) 11.46 g
(2) 0.196 g
(3) 9.01 g
(4) 10 g

BIOLOGY

1) In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a
vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about
which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors.
Statements
(A) A bacterium (B) Plasmid
(C) Plasmodium (D) Bacteriophage
Options :-

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

2) If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme galactosidase, which of the following will
occur in case of non-recombinants:-

(1) Insertional inactivation

(2) Colonies do not produce any colour
(3) Chromogenic substrate gives blue colour
(4) Inactivation of enzyme galactosidase

3) What is the function of T-DNA of Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?

(1) It transform normal plant cell into a tumourous cell

(2) It transform normal animal cell into cancerous cells
(3) It is used to deliver gene of interest into human.
(4) Replication of Ti plasmid

4) In genetic engineering, Agrobacterium and retro virus are used as a vector for cloning genes in
plants and animals, because :-
(1) They can deliver genes even after making them non-pathogenic
(2) They are easily available
(3) They infect all plant and animal cells
(4) They are pathogen

5) Which of the following is not a part of biotechnology:-

(1) Gene therapy

(2) Invitro fretilization leading to a test tube baby
(3) Developing of DNA vaccine
(4) Biomagnification of pesticide

6) Which of the following DNA sequences can be a recognition site of a restriction endonuclease
enzyme ?

AAGG
(1)
TTCC
AATTCCGG
(2)
TTAAGGCC
CTCGAG
(3)
GAGCTC
GGTTGG
(4)
CCAACC

7) A suitable vector must have

(1) more than one ori for replication

(2) many restriction sites of a restriction endonuclease
(3) selectable marker genes for identification
(4) all of the above

8) Genes for which of the following can serve as selectable marker?

(1) β-Galactosidase
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Ampicillin
(4) All of the above

9) Boliver and Rodriguez developed :-

(1) Shuttle vector

(2) pBR322
(3) PUC19
(4) Both (1) & (2)

10) Approximately how many restriction enzymes have been isolated from different (over
230) bacteria ?
(1) 300
(2) 600
(3) 750
(4) 900

11) Competent host cell is required for transformation with rDNA. Following processes are used to
make the host cell competent except :-

(1) Treating them with specific concentration of divalent ion like Ca++
By incubating the cells with rDNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42ºC & then
(2)
putting back on ice
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

12) The restriction endonuclease enzyme binds to the DNA and cut -

(1) any one strand of the double helix

(2) each of the two strands at specific points in their base - sugar bonds.
(3) each of the two strands at specific points in their base - phosphate bonds.
(4) each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar - phosphate, back bones

13) In gel electrophoresis :-

(1) DNA fragments are arranged according to length on gel by applying electric field
(2) DNA fragments are arranged according to charge
(3) DNA fragments are treated by alcoholic solution
(4) DNA fragments are destroyed

14) About gene gun method.

I. This method is also known as biolistic technique.
II. In this method cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated
with DNA in plants.
III. Imoportant crop plants like maize, rice and wheat have now been transformed by this method.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II and III

15) Statement–1: Biolistics method of gene transfer is an example of direct gene transfer.
Statement–2: In biolistics method pBR322 is used.

Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is not the correct explanation of

(1)
Statement1.
(2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true.
(3) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false.
(4) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.

16) Downstream processing does not include :-

(1) Separation & purification of product

(2) Synthesis / formation of product in bioreactor
(3) Addition of preservatives
(4) Clinical trials, if required

17) Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organisms and its cell wall degrading
enzymes?

(1) Plant cells – Cellulase

(2) Algae – Methylase
(3) Fungi – Chitinase
(4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

18) During isolation of DNA, addition of which of the following causes precipitation of purified DNA?

(1) Chilled ethanol

(2) Ribonuclease enzyme
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Proteases

19) In rDNA technology or genetic engineering, elution means :-

(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after centrifugation

(2) Separation of the recombinant protein from recombinant cell.
(3) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cell.
(4) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece.

20) Which of the following is not true about pBR322 vector :-

(1) It was constructed by using DNA derived from naturally occuring plasmids of [Link]
(2) It is a tool of genetics engineering
(3) It was developed by Boliver and Rodriguez
Selectable markers present in it can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the
(4)
basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate.

21) Which of the following steps should be performed by a person in order to visualize the bands of
DNA fragments by using gel electrophoresis ?

(1) Exposure of unstained DNA fragments to UV radiations

(2) Staining with bromophenol blue followed by exposure to UV radiations
(3) Staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiations
(4) Person can see the bands without staining
22) Restriction enzymes which cut the DNA a little away from the centre of palindrome site will
produce :-

(1) Sticky ends

(2) Blunt ends
(3) Either sticky or blunt ends
(4) Unequal fragments

23) In following figure of gel electrophoresis which lane is showing undigested set of DNA sample?

(1) lane - 1
(2) lane - 2
(3) lane - 3
(4) lane - 4

24) Which of the following is related to vector less gene transfer :-

(1) Electroporation
(2) Microinjection
(3) Particle gun
(4) All of the above

25)

Arrange the steps of rDNA technology in correct order:-

I. Extraction of the desired gene product.
II. Amplification of gene of interest.
III. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
IV. Ligation of DNA fragment into vector.

V. Insertion of rDNA into host.

(1) I, II, III, IV, V
(2) V, IV, III, II, I
(3) III, II, IV, V, I
(4) III, IV, II, I, V

26) The process collectively referred to as downstream processing include :-

(1) Separation and purification

(2) Maintaining optimum pH in a bioreactor
(3) Periodic check on the oxygen supply in the culture medium
(4) All of the above

27) The optimum growth conditions provided by a bioreactor includes conditions related to :-

(1) Temperature
(2) Salts
(3) Vitamins
(4) All of the above

28) The first letter of the name of restriction endonuclease came from the :-

(1) genus of organism

(2) species of organism
(3) family of organism
(4) class of organism

29) Transformation is a procedure through which –

(1) A piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium

(2) A piece of DNA is introduced in a vector
(3) A piece of DNA is introduced from protein
(4) All

30) Restriction enzymes are also called :-

(1) Molecular markers

(2) Vectors
(3) Carriers
(4) Molecular scissors

31) The term 'competent' for a bacterium host cell denotes :-

(1) a transformed bacterium cell

(2) a bacterial cell ready to uptake foreign DNA
(3) a bacterium infected with bacteriophage
(4) product of a desired gene inside a host bacterium

32) The construction of the first recombinant DNA by linking antibiotic resistance gene with a native
plasmid of Salmonella typhmurium was done by :

(1) Arber and Nathans

(2) Kary Mullis
(3) Herbert Boyer and Stanley Cohen
(4) Smith and Wilcox
33) Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Molecular scissor (i) Large scale production of products

(b) Plasmid (ii) Recombinant protein

(c) Bioreactors (iii) pBR 322

(d) Heterologous host (iv) Eco RI

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

34) Assertion : A plasmid can be used as vector to deliver an alien piece of DNA into the host
organism.
Reason : Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extra chromosomal DNA.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

35) If foreign DNA is ligated at BamHI, in pBR322 vector, then recombinant plasmid will lose
resistance towards

(1) Ampicillin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Chloramphenicol

36) A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form
a recombinant plasmid using

(1) Eco RI
(2) Taq polymerase
(3) Polymerase III
(4) Ligase

37) What is the criterion for DNA fragments movements on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?

(1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

(2) The smaller the fragments size, the farther it moves
(3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move

38) For transformation, microparticles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
up of.

(1) Silver or platinum

(2) Platinum or zinc
(3) Silicon or platinum
(4) Gold or tungsten

39) Identify the correct statements.

I. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by using a piece of DNA from plasmid
carrying antibiotic- resistance gene in the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium.
II. When cut by the same restriction enzyme,the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind
of sticky ends and these can be joined together using DNA ligases.
III. The presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate
several fragments, which will complicate the gene cloning.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I and II
(3) Only I
(4) II and III

40) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Heterologous host - Recombinant protein

(2) Bioreactors - Large scale production of products.
(3) Lag phase - Physiologically most active phase.
(4) Down stream processing - Include separation and purification process.

41) Large scale production involves use of–

(1) Bioreactors which use sparge air bubbles

(2) Simple-stirred tank reactor
(3) Continuous culture systems
(4) All the above

42) What is used to make DNA competent–

(1) Treat with ice only

(2) Treat with heat shock and ice only
(3) Treat with divalent cation, heat shock and ice
(4) More than one option

43) How many recognition sites of Pst 1, Hind III and Bam H1 in pBR322 ?

(1) 2, 1, 2
(2) 1, 1, 2
(3) 2, 2, 2
(4) 1, 1, 1

44) 'Restriction' in restriction endonuclease refers to?

(1) Restriction of Host

(2) Stopping ligation of host genes
(3) Stopping virus growth in bacteria
(4) Stopping viral growth in GM plant

45) Introducing desirable genes only without including undesirable genes is made possible by ?

(1) Gene transfer

(2) Traditional hybridization
(3) Traditional breeding
(4) Genetic engineering

46) Which hormone attains two peaks during menstrual cycle ?

(1) Inhibin
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen

47) Lateral end of fallopian tube, closer to the ovary is Funnel shaped and called :-

(1) Intramural part

(2) Ampulla
(3) Isthmus
(4) Infundibulum

48) When the ovum penetrate by the sperm which one of the following activity done first.

(1) First meiosis complete

(2) Formation of first polar body
(3) Meiosis IInd complete
(4) Formation of second polar body

49) Which of the following structure is essential for maintenance of the endometrium ?

(1) Graafian follicle

(2) Corpus albicans
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Granulosa cells

50) After the infant is delivered, which of the following is expelled out of the uterus?
(1) Myometrium
(2) Entire Endometrium
(3) Placenta
(4) All of these

51) Which membrane block the entry of additional sperms during fertilisation ?

(1) Corona radiata

(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Zona pellucida
(4) Perivitelline membrane

52) In humans, during ovulation :

(1) The Graafian follicle ruptures to release the primary oocyte

(2) The Graafian follicle do not rupture
(3) Sharp decline in the level of LH and FSH occurs
(4) The Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte

53) The Leydig cells found in the human body are the secretory source of:

(1) Inhibin
(2) Androgens
(3) Progesterone
(4) Both (1) and (2)

54) The enlarged end of penis is covered by a loose fold of skin is called.

(1) Glans penis

(2) Foreskin
(3) Hymen
(4) Urethral meatus

55) Select the correct set of hormones primarily involved in complex neuroendocrine mechanism to
induce parturition.

(1) Cortisol, estrogen and oxytocin

(2) Estrogen, progesterone and oxytocin
(3) Prolactin, cortisol and estrogen
(4) Relaxin, progesterone and estrogen

56) Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called :-

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Insemination

57) Which method of contraception has highest failure rate ?

(1) Barrier method

(2) IUD
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Natural method

58) An emergency contraceptive pill is given to the female who is 2 weeks pregnant. This will lead to

(1) Termination of pregnancy

(2) Deformity and teratogenicity of foetus
(3) Rather it will support pregnancy
(4) Degeneration of corpus luteum due to negative feedback LH.

59) Match the column–I with column–II :-

Column-I Column-II
Copper releasing
(A) (i) Inhibit ovulation
IUDs
Suppress sperms
(B) Oral pills (ii)
motility
Make the uterus
Sterilisation
(C) (iii) u n s u i t a b l e for
methods
implantation
Hormonal releasing Block gametes
(D) (iv)
IUDs transport
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

60)

In which of the following Induced Abortion is not necessary ?

(1) There is substantial risk of child being born with serious handicaps.
(2) Where the foetus is diagnosed with genetically disorder.
(3) When the foetus is not of desired sex.
(4) Unwanted pregnancy

61) Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD ?

(1) Lippes loop

(2) Multiload 375
(3) LNG-20
(4) Progestasert
62) In ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer), the fertilisation occurs

(1) inside fallopian tube

(2) outside female body
(3) inside uterus
(4) None of the above

63) An ideal contraceptive should not be :

(1) User-friendly
(2) Easily available
(3) Effective & reversible with no or least side-effects
(4) Interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of the user

64) How many factors are related to infertility-

(A) Psychological
(B) Immunological
(C) Physical
(D) Congenital
(E) Drugs
(F) Diseases

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) All

65) How many disorders can be generated as a result of undetected STDs in a female
(A) Pelvic inflammatory diseases
(B) Abortions
(C) Birth of dead child
(D) Implantation of embryo in oviduct
(E) Infertility
(F) Cancer of vagina

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) All

66) A contraceptive pill contains :-

(1) Progesterone and estrogen

(2) spermicidal agents
(3) chemicals that cause abortion
(4) Chemicals that prevent fertilization of ovum
67) The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for :

(1) Detecting any genetic abnormality

(2) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother

68)

In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur ?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm & ovum
(4) Formation of grafian follicle

69) Assertion : Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female could
be corrected by artificial insemination technique.
Reason : In artificial insemination technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a
healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus of the female.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

70) Match the following column :

Column-A Column-B

Copper releasing
(A) Barrier methods (i) (CuT, Cu7,
Multiload 375)

Diaphragm,
IUDs (Intra uterine
(B) (ii) Cervical caps,
devices)
Vaults

Non-medicated
(C) Natural method (iii)
(Lippes loop)

Progesteron-estrogen Periodic
(D) (iv)
combination abstinence

Hormone releasing
(v) (Progestasert,
LNG-20)

Mala 'D', Mala 'N'

(vi)
pills
(1) A-ii ; B-i,iii,v ; C-iv ; D-vi
(2) A-iv ; B-i,iii ; C-v,ii ; D-vi
(3) A-iv ; B-i,v ; C-ii,iii ; D-vi
(4) A-ii ; B-i,iii,v ; C-vi ; D-iv

71) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

a. Labia majora (i) Embryo formation

b. Secondary oocyte (ii) Sperm

c. Inner cell mass (iii) Female external genitalia

d. Acrosome (iv) Graafian follicle

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

72) Pick up the correct match

Embryo transfer done inside uterus after in vitro

(A) I.U.T. (1)
fertilisation

Taking semen from donor and transferred into female

(B) GIFT (2)
genital tract

(C) AI (3) One sperm transferred into ovum

(D) ZIFT (4) Collect gamete and putting in female fallopian tube

(E) I.C.S.I. (5) Zygote put into fallopian tube

(1) A→1, B→2, C→5, D→3, E→4
(2) A→1, B→3, C→5, D→4, E→2
(3) A→1, B→4, C→3, D→5, E→2
(4) A→1, B→4, C→2, D→5, E→3

73) Assertion (A): The secondary oocyte formed after the first meiotic division retains most of the
nutrient-rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte.
Reason (R): The unequal division during the first meiotic division results in a large haploid
secondary oocyte and a smaller first polar body.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

74) Assertion A: The follicular phase is characterized by the growth of primary follicles into mature
Graafian follicles and regeneration of the endometrium.
Reason R: Increased levels of gonadotropins during the follicular phase stimulate follicular
development and estrogen secretion.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true'

75) Assertion : Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
experience.
Reason : In some women the hymen persists even after coitus.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

76) In the given figure identify the parts labelled as A, B and C and choose the correct option :-

A B C

Inner cell
(1) Trophoblast Blastocoel
mass

Inner cell
(2) Trophoblast Blastocoel
mass

Inner cell
(3) Blastomere Trophoblast
mass

Inner cell
(4) Trophoblast Blastocoel
mass
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77)

The figure below show three stage (A, B, C) of human development. Select the option giving correct
identification :
 A = Morula, B = Blastula,
(1)
C = Zygote
A = Blastocyst, B = Morula,
(2)
C = Zygote
A = Ovum, B = Blastocyst,
(3)
C = Zygote
A = Blastocyst, B = Secondary oocyte,
(4)
C = Morula

78) In the given figure identify the parts labelling as A,B,C and D and select correct option :-

A B C D

(1) Cervix Infundibulum Isthmus Fundus

(2) Ovary Ampulla Isthmus Fimbriae

(3) Ovary Infundibulum Ampulla Fundus

(4) Cervix Isthmus Ampulla Fimbriae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79)

Match the column :

(a) Vasectomy (i)

(b) Tubectomy (ii)

 (c) Implant (iii)

(d) Copper-T (iv)

(e) Condom (v)

(1) a = iv, b = v, c = i, d = iii, e = ii

(2) a = iv, b = i, c = v, d = iii, e = ii
(3) a = iv, b = v, c = i, d = ii, e = iii
(4) a = iv, b = v, c = iii, d = i, e = ii

80) Statement-I : Government of India ligalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid
misuse.
Statement-II : MTP is considered safe up to Eighteen weeks of pregnancy.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

81) Match following column I and II for STDs and its carrier and select correct option

Column I Column II

(P) Gonorrhoea (i) Herpes simplex

(Q) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria gonorrhoea

(R) Genital herpes (iii) Trichomonas vaginalis

(S) Trichomoniasis (iv) Treponema pallidum

(1) (P - ii) (Q - i) (R - iii) (S - iv)
(2) (P - iii) (Q - iv) (R - ii) (S - i)
(3) (P - ii) (Q - iii) (R - i) (S - iv)
(4) (P - ii) (Q - iv) (R - i) (S - iii)

82) Match following column A and B.

 Column A Column B

Human heart is During 5th month

a i
formed of gestation

Development of At the end of 1st

b first limbs and ii trimester of
digits pregnancy

Major organ By the end of 2nd

c systems are iii month of
formed pregnancy

First movement of After one month

d iv
foetus is observed of pregnancy
Choose the option containing all correct match.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

83) Match the following and choose the correct options:

Column I Column II

Embedding of blastocyst in the

(A) Trophoblast (i)
endometrium

Group of cells that

(B) Cleavage (ii)
would differentiate as embryo

Inner cell Outer layer of blastocyst

(C) (iii)
mass attached to the endometrium

(D) Implantation (iv) Mitotic division of zygote

(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i

84) Zygote undergoes A to increase number of cells and B helps groups of cells to undergo certain
modifications to form specialized tissues. Choose the correct option.

A B

(1) Cell division Cell migration

(2) Cleavage Cell differentiation

(3) Meiosis Morphogenesis

(4) Amitosis Organogenesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis.

Identify A to E correctly.

(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty

(1)
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) Childhood
(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood
(2)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
(3)
(C) Puberty (D) Childhood (E) Foetal life
(A) Birth (B) Childhood (C) Foetal life
(4)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life

86) Read the following events of menstrual cycle and arrange them in correct order
A. Rapid secretion of LH (LH surge)
B. Breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus
C. Secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually
D. Secretion of large amounts of progesterone
E. Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum
Choose the correct option

(1) A, C, D, E, B
(2) B, C, A, E, D
(3) B, E, C, A, D
(4) B, C, D, E, A

87) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Proliferative Corpus luteum

(A) (a) 14th day (i)
phase remains active

Secretory Endometrial
(B) (b) 1st-4th day (ii)
phase growth
 Menstruation Shedding of
(C) (c) 15tn-28th day (iii)
phase endometrium

Rupture of
Ovulatory mature
(D) (d) 5th-13tnday (iv)
phase graafian
follicle
(1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i,D → d → iv
(3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a → ii, D → c → i

88) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Zona pellucida (i) Secondary egg membrane

(b) Erectile tissue (ii) Menopause

(c) Menstrual cycle ceases (iii) Penis

(d) Corona radiata (iv) Primary egg membrane

Codes
a b c d

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) iv ii iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Hormones secreted by the corpus luteum are:

(1) hCG, hPL, Progesterone, Prolactin

(2) hCG, hPL, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin
(3) Progesterone, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin
(4) LH, Progesterone, Estrogen, Glucocorticoids

90) How many of the following cells related to spermatogenesis are diploid in nature ?
Spermatogonia, Primary Spermatocyte, Secondary Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Sperm.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 1 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 4 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 2 2 1 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 1 4 3 1 4 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 4 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 4 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) at f = 0, Z = ∞ (XC = ∞)
at = f = ∞, z = ∞ (XL = ∞)
so current in both situation will be zero.

2)

f=

capacitive nature

3)

When the key is at position (2) for a long time; the energy stored in the inductor is :

0
2
UB = Li = .L .=

This whole energy will be dissipated in the form of heat when the inductor is connected to R1 and
no source is connected.

4)

Average power dissipated in L & C is zero.

So average power dissipated = average power dissipated across R.

5) Irms = 2A, Irms sin ϕ =

Irms cos ϕ =
Power factor = cos ϕ =

6)

iL = 5A iC = 2A
iLC = IL – IC = 3A

XLC =

7) cos ϕ =

8)

P = V·I
<P> = E0 sin wt [i0(sin w + cos ϕ + cos wt sin ϕ)]

9)

Vrms

Irms = 20 mA

10)

11) E = 200 sin (314t + )

I = sin (314t + )

12) Amplitude of B = Bm =
Bm = 1.03 × 10–8
So, B = 1.03 × 10–8 cos(1.8y + 5.4 × 106t)
Direction of B depends on direction of propagation & direction of E.
B = 1.03 × 10–8 cos(1.8y + 5.4 × 106t)

13) Intensity of electromagnetic wave is ,

or

=
= 54.77 V/m. ≈ 55 V/m

14) As at resonance
⇒ iL = iC

⇒ i3 = =0

15) As ϕ = phase diff

P=0

16) iWL = irms sin ϕ ⇒

⇒ ϕ = 60º so p.f. = cos ϕ = cos 60º =

17) As the current i lead the voltage by , it is an RC circuit, hence

⇒ ωCR = 1 as ω = 100 rad/sec

⇒ CR =
From all the given options only option (1) is correct.

18) ϕ = 90°, power factor cos ϕ = 0, P = 0

19)

20)

Energes of given Radiation can have

The following relation
Eγ-Rays > EX-Rays > Emicrowave > EAM Radiowaves
∴ λγ-Rays < λX-Rays < λmicrowave < λAM Radiowaves
According To tres.
(a) Microwave → 10–3m (iv)
(b) Gamma Rays → 10–15m (ii)
(c) AM Radio wave → 100 m (i)
(d) X-Rays → 10–10m (iii)

21) As, pointing vector

Given energy transport = negative z direction

Electric field = positive y direction

Hence according to vector cross product magnetic field should be positive x direction.

22) Based on equations of Maxwell

23)

Statement-I is correct as EMW are neutral.

Statement-II is wrong.

24)

Optical communication is performed in the frequency range of 1THz to 1000 THz.

(Microwave to UV)
So, EM waves used for optical communication have shorter wavelength than that of
microwaves used in RADAR.
Also,
∴ Infrared EM waves are more energetic than microwave

25)

Explaining the Question : To find ratio of I utensity of and emw

Concept : This question is based on energy of emw

Solution : In enw intensity is equaly shaned by and . so ratio = 1 : 1

Final answer : Optionn (3) 1 : 1

26) Vrms = ⇒
 ∴

therefore, Vrms =

27)

Gauss law of magnetism

modified Ampere's circuital law

28)

I = 3A

vP – 3 × 2 + 3 – 3 × 1 – 0.8 × 2 – 3 × 2 = vQ
vP – vQ = 13.6 V

29)

Due to electron beam no change in flux so induced current in loop = 0

30) Question Explanation -

The question asks to determine the direction of the included current in a loop when the
current flowing from point A to B decreases with time. The setup involves electromagnetic
induction, and we need to apply Lenz's Law to find the direction of the induced current.

Concept -

This question pertains to Electromagnetic Induction. According to Lenz's Law, the induced
current will always oppose the change in the magnetic flux. When the current decreases in the
wire, the magnetic flux created by the current will decrese, and the loop will induce a current
in such a direction as to try to oppose that decrease.

Formula Used -

A. Induced EMF (Faraday's Law) :

 Where is the magnetic flux. and is the rate of change of flux.

A. Lenz's Law : The direction of the induced current opposes the changes in magnetic flux.

Explanation -

A. When the current from A to B decreases, the magnetic field produced by the current also
weakens.
B. To oppose the decrease in the magnetic field, the induced current in the loop will flow in such
a direction as to create a magnetic field that strengthens the original magnetic field.
C. The induced current will flow in the clockwise direction in the loop to oppose the reduction
in the magnetic flux.

Level - Easy

31)

ϕ = 5t3 – 100t + 300

E(at t = 3s) = – [15(3)2 – 100]

= –35 Volt
Magnitude of emf at t = 3s
= 35 V

32)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what will be the charge polarity on the two plates of a
parallel plate condenser placed inside a coil when two identical magnets, one with a north pole
and the other with a south pole, approach the coil from opposite sides at equal speeds.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is electromagnetic induction. When a

magnet moves near a coil, it changes the magnetic flux through the coil, inducing an electric
current according to Faraday's law of induction. Lenz's law states that the direction of the
induced current opposes the change in magnetic flux. This induced current causes a potential
difference across the condenser plates inside the coil.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that an anticlockwise induced current (when viewed from one
side) implies a specific polarity on the plates of the condenser. Using the right-hand rule for
coils can help determine this polarity quickly.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the plates will have the same charge or ignoring the effect of
Lenz's law to find the direction of the induced current are common errors.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices stating both plates are positive or both
negative are incorrect because the induced current creates opposite charges on the two
plates. The option with plate 1 negative and plate 2 positive is incorrect based on the current's
direction set by Lenz's law and the right-hand rule.

33)

According to Fleming Right hand rule.

direction of magnetic field vertical downward.

34) Question Explanation: Magnetic flux through a circuit with resistance R changes by Δϕ
in time At; we are asked to find the total charge that flows.

Concept: A changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the circuit, which drives a current; the
total charge is obtained by integrating current over the time of flux change.

Formula used: =
Calculation:

Final Answer: Option (1). Q =

35)

L depends on size shape and geometry of coil.

36)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how the current induced in a metallic ring changes as
it moves through a region with a constant horizontal magnetic field. The ring starts outside the
field, then enters it at time t=0, stays inside for some time, and finally leaves the field at time
t=T seconds. We want to understand the pattern of induced current during this process.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is electromagnetic induction, specifically

Faraday's law of induction and Lenz's law. When the magnetic flux through a closed loop
changes over time, an emf (electromotive force) is induced, which causes a current to flow in
the loop. Lenz's law tells us that the direction of this induced current always opposes the
change in flux.

Relevant Formulas: \[ \mathcal{E} = -\frac{d\Phi}{dt} \] where is the induced emf and

is the magnetic flux through the ring.
Tips and Tricks: Remember that a constant flux means no induced current, and that the
current direction flips depending on whether flux is increasing or decreasing.

Common Mistakes: Students often assume the induced current flows continuously inside the
magnetic field even when the flux is constant, which is incorrect. Another mistake is forgetting
that the current reverses direction when the ring exits the field.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Wrong options may show current pulses of the same
direction during entry and exit, but according to Lenz's law, the current must reverse as the
flux decreases upon exit. Also, some wrong answers might depict a constant current inside the
field, but since flux is constant there, the induced current should be zero.

37) due to motion of 'p' induced current will be produced and these current also flow in
conductor 'Q', then due to ext. magnetic field force on 'Q' is towards 'P'.

38) Asking about:

phase difference b/w current and voltage in a purely resistive AC circuit.

Concept:
Purely resistance AC ckt

Solution:

in purely resistance circuit

∵ phase diff. ϕ = 0

⇒ current and voltage are in same phase

Correct option: (3)

39) Asking about:

Potential difference developed across the ring

Formula:
ε = BUleff
C MF is uniform

Solution:

EMF developed across the ring

ε = BUlMQ = Bv (ZR)
ε = 2 buR
Note: positive charge with accumulate at the end Q.
It with be at higher potential
Correct option: (4)

40)

By theory

41) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
Conductor move with velocity v and upper end is at higher potential. We find current direction
PQ.
Concept:
Motional Emf.
Formula:
as rod is at upper and having higher potential, direction of current will be P to
Q.
Visual diagram:

Calculation:
Not needed:
Final Answer: Option 2.
From P to Q

42) ϕ = B.A,
It ϕ = BA cos θ, ε = BA sin θ

Phase difference between ϕ & ε is

43)

44)

Generated by Allie
 Problem Statement: The problem asks to find the directions of the induced current in two
segments (wires AB and CD) of a conducting wire frame that is placed in a magnetic field
pointing into the paper. The magnetic field's strength is increasing at a constant rate, causing
an induced current in the wire frame. We need to determine which way the current flows
along AB and CD.

Underlying Concept: This problem is based on electromagnetic induction and Lenz's law.
When a magnetic field through a circuit changes, an induced emf (electromotive force) and
hence an induced current appears in the circuit. Lenz's law states that the direction of this
induced current is such that it opposes the change in the magnetic flux. The right-hand rule
helps us determine the direction of the magnetic field created by the induced current.

Relevant Formulas: Induced emf, , where is magnetic flux, is the area

of the loop, and is the magnetic field.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Lenz's law always gives a current direction opposing the
change in flux. Also, curling the fingers of your right hand in the current direction shows the
magnetic field direction via the thumb.

Common Mistakes: Students sometimes forget that the induced current is always in a
direction to oppose the increase in flux and may pick a clockwise current instead of
anticlockwise in this case. Also, mixing the direction of magnetic field lines with the induced
current direction is common.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options suggesting current flows from A to B or C to D
fail to produce the opposing magnetic field direction and thus violate Lenz's law. The correct
induced current produces an anticlockwise loop, giving current from B to A in wire AB and D
to C in wire CD.

45) Induced e.m.f. =

CHEMISTRY

46) For Exothermic reaction

⇒ DH = HP – HR = –ve
∴ HR > HP
47) For 1st order reactions : t99.9% = 10 × t1/2
t99.9% = 10 × 1
= 10 minute

48) 18231 J

49) 22

50) Rate = k[A] [B]2

51) 2

52)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : r1 = k[A]2[B]; r2 = k[2A]2[2B] = 8 r1
Final Answer : (3)

53)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Conc. of water (solvent (฀)) remains constant so rate is independent from conc. of
H2O.
Final Answer : (2)

54)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
0
Solution : Rate = k[conc.] = k ; for zero order reaction.
Final Answer : (1)

55)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Reaction mechanism required.
Final Answer : (4)

56)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Rate of reaction = K[conc.]n

K= = mol1–n Ln–1 s–1

Final Answer : (4)

57)

Explaining : For which order of the reaction, half life is not affected.
Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :
For first order reaction, half-life is independent of initial concentration.

Final Answer : (2)

58)

59) A is correct R is incorrect

60) (i)-Frozen solvent, (ii)-Liquid solvent, (iii)-Solution

61)

Explain Question : This question tests the fundamental understanding of osmosis and the
direction of solvent flow across a semipermeable membrane.

Concept : In osmosis, solvent molecules move from the solvent (or dilute solution) to the
concentrated solution through a semipermeable membrane.

Solution :
Osmosis involves the movement of solvent molecules to balance solute concentration. A
semipermeable membrane allows only solvent particles to pass, not solute. Hence, the net
movement is from the side with higher solvent concentration (pure solvent or dilute solution)
to the side with lower solvent concentration (more concentrated solution). This helps equalize
chemical potential across the membrane. Thus, solvent always moves from solvent to solution.

Final Answer : option (2)

62) 1

63) According to unit of rate constant is a zero reaction, then half life of zero order reaction.

t1/2 = = = 50 years

64)
Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Rate law lor the given reaction is :
Rate = k[CH3OCH3]3/2

Order =

Unit of

=
= bar–1/2min–1
Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Slowest step is rate determining
∴ Rate = [X] [Y2] ... (i)
Above rate law contains unwanted [X]; it should be eliminated using fast reversible
step (i).

∴ …(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
Rate =
=

Order =
Here, k' =

Final Answer : (3)

66)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

∴
= 9 × 10–3 mol litre–1 min–1
Final Answer : (2)

67) According to collison theory, molecules should collide with sufficient threshold energy and
proper orientation for the collision to be effective.
68) unit of
Comparing the power of litre we get
n–l=1
n=2
i. e., 2nd order reaction.

69)
When Ea = 9, k = A = constant
∴ k310 = k300 = 3.2 × 104s–1

70)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
π = CRT = 0.1 × 0.0821 × 303 = 2.487 ATM
Final Answer : (1)

71)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

72)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Informative
Final Answer : (4)

73)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Theory based.
Final Answer : (1)

74)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

75) 0.992

76)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : ΔTf = Kf.m.i;

0.87 = 1.86 × i × ;
i=4
Final Answer : (3)

77)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : For dissociation i = 1 +(n – 1)α > 1

For dissociation i = 1 +
Final Answer : (1)

78)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

79)

Explaining : Mark the correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on Ideal and non ideal solutions.
Solution :
Mixture of bromoethane and chloroethane follows Raoult’s law.
(A – A) = (B – B) = (A–B) Ideal solution.
(Interaction are same)
Final Answer : (2)

80)
Explaining : Calculate the Depression in freezing point of water when 62 g ethylene glycol is
dissolved in 1000 g water.
Concept : This question is based on Depression in freezing point.
Solution :
ΔT = kf × m

=
Final Answer : (1)

81)

The value of Henry’s law constant 'KH' is greater for the gases with lower solubility.
p = KH × x

where x = mole fraction of gas in the solution

82) ΔSmixing = 0, is not the crlteria of ideal solution.

83) If conc. is same then, π ∝ i.

84) 150 × 103 → 450 × 10–3

⇒ 106 → × 106 = 3 ppm

85)

86) Correct answer is (D)

87) 0.1 M solution of NaCl has greater osmotic pressure. than 0.1 M solution of glucose at
same temperature because In solution, NaCl dissociates to produce more number of particles.

88) Theory Based

89)
= 2 × 1.86 × 0.1
= 0.372
Freezing point of solution = –0.372°C
 90)

wB = = 11.5 g

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 168

92)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 170

93) Question Explanation :

Identify the function of T-DNA in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Concept:
This question is based on Plasmid vector.

Solution :
T-DNA → integrates into plant genome → transforms normal plant cell into tumor cell.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

94) NCERT-XII Pg # 200

95) Concept:
Biotechnology refers to use of biological process organisms or system to manufacture product
for human use.
Solution:
From the given list Biomagnification of pesticides is not part of biotechnology.
Hence option 4 is correct.
Biomagnification refers to increasing concentration of pesticides in food chain.

96)

Question Explanation:

Identifying a restriction site.

Concept:

Palindrome in DNA.

Solution:

Restriction enzymes recognize and cut DNA at specific sequences known as recognition sites.
These sites are typically palindromic, meaning the sequence reads the same on the
complementary strand when read in the 5' to 3' direction. In option 3, the sequence CTCGAG
is a palindrome because its complementary strand, GAGCTC, reads the same when read from
5' to 3'.

Final Answer:

CTCGAG

GAGCTC

97) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 199

98) NCERT Page # 199

99)

Bolivar and Rodriguez developed the plasmid pBR322, which is one of the most widely used
cloning vectors in genetic engineering.

100)

NCERT XII, Page # 195

101) NCERT Pg. # 200

102) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 196

103) NCERT XII Pg. # 168

104) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 201

105) NCERT XII Pg. # 201

106) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 204, 205

107) NCERT-XII Pg. # 171

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

109)

NCERT XII Pg # 168

110) pBR322 does not have a chromogenic substrate-based system for distinguishing
recombinants from non-recombinants. Instead, it uses antibiotic resistance markers (e.g.,
ampicillin and tetracycline resistance) to identify recombinants.

111)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 168

112)

Question Explanation: Function of restriction enzymes.

Concept: Restriction enzyme cleavage

Solution: When a restriction enzyme cuts DNA away from the center of a palindrome, it
creates an overhang on each strand. These unpaired, single-stranded ends are called sticky
ends because they can easily pair with complementary sticky ends from other DNA fragments.

Final Answer: Sticky ends

113) NCERT XII, Pg. # 190, Fig - 11.3

114)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 171

115)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 171

116) NCERT XII Pg. # 174

117) NCERT XII Pg. # 204

118)

Question Explanation: Naming convention for restriction enzymes.

Concept: Nomenclature of restriction enzymes.

Solution: Restriction enzymes are named based on the organism from which they are isolated.
The first letter of the name comes from the genus of the organism, and the next two letters
come from the species. For example, in EcoRI, 'E' stands for the genus Escherichia, and 'co'
stands for the species coli.

Final Answer: Genus of organism

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

120)

Question Explanation: Another name for restriction enzymes.

Concept: Molecular scissors

Solution: Restriction enzymes are precisely called molecular scissors because they can cut
DNA at specific, pre-determined sites, which is a crucial step in genetic engineering.

Final Answer: Molecular scissors

121) Explaining the Question :- The question is asking about what does the term
'competent' mean when referring to a bacterial host cells?
Concept:- Competent Bacterial Cells
Solution :-A 'competent' bacterial cell is one that is ready to uptake foreign DNA during
[Link] refers to the ability of bacteria to take up foreign DNA from their
environment.
Final Answer :- (2) a bacterial cell ready to uptake foreign DNA

122) NCERT Pg. # 164

123)

(a) Molecular scissor - (iv) Eco RI

(b) Plasmid - (iii) pBR 322
(c) Bioreactors - (i) Large scale production of products
(d) Heterologous host - (ii) Recombinant protein

124) Question Explanation :

The question is asking about a question based on your assertion-reason format:

Concept :
This question is based on Plasmids

Solution :
Assertion: Plasmids can be used as vectors to deliver alien DNA into host organisms because
they carry genetic material that can be introduced into cells.
Reason: Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extrachromosomal DNA, meaning they
replicate independently of the host’s chromosomal DNA, ensuring the alien DNA is maintained
and expressed in the host.
Since both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion, option (1) is
the correct answer.
Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion because
plasmids replicate independently, making them ideal vectors for DNA [Link] option:
(1)

Final Answer :
Option (1)

125)

Explaining the Question : Which antibiotic resistance will be lost if foreign DNA is inserted
at the banth I restriction site in PBR 322 plasuids.

Concept : Cloning vectors.

Solution : Tetracycline If foreign DNA is ligated at the bamHI site, it will disrupts the tetra
cyclin resistance gene causing the recombinant plasmid to lose resistance to tetracycline
antibiotic.

Final answer : The correct ans is (2)

126) Restriction Enzyme, Page No. 167

127) Gel Electrophoresis, Page No.-168

128) Competent Host, Page No. 170

129) Cloning Vectors, Page No. 170

130) NCERT Pg. # 173 &174

131) NCERT Pg # 204

132) NCERT Pg # 201

133) NCERT Pg # 199

134) NCERT Pg # 195

 135) NCERT Pg # 194

136) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 50

137) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 45, Ist para

138) NCERT Pg. # 52

139) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 51 (E), 55 (H)

140)

Question Explanation : The question asks what is expelled from the uterus after the birth of
a baby.

Concept : Parturition

Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. After the baby is delivered, the placenta and the remnants of the umbilical cord are expelled
from the uterus.
B. This final stage of labor is called the "afterbirth.

Final Answer : Option (3)

141) NCERT Pg. # 51

142) NCERT pg no.49

143)

NCERT pg no.43

144) NCERT page- 28

145) NCERT page- 38

146)

Explain Question : To identify the term used for Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells.

Concept : This question is based on Spermatogenesis

Solution : Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called Spermiation.

Final Answer : option (2)

147) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 44

148)

Emergency contraceptive pill have progesterone mainly and they prevent ovulation.
These are not useful if implantation already occurred.

149) NCERT (XI) Page # 60, 61

150)

151)

152)

153) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 43

154) Hints - Pg. 63 - Last 2 lines

155) Hints - Pg. 63 - 2nd Para of STDs

156)

NCERT XII Page # 45

157) Explanation:
The question asks about the permissible (allowed) use of amniocentesis a medical technique.
We need to identify the correct purpose form the given options.

Concept:
Amniocentesis

Solution:
• Option 1 (Detecting any genetic abnormality) : Correct, as amniocentesis is primarily used
to diagnose genetic conditions like down syndrome.
• Option 2: (Detecting sex of the unborn fetus): While possible this is not the primary
permissible use ans is ethically restricted in many countries to prevent sex-selective abortions.
• Options3: (Artificial insemination): Incorrect as this involves sperm injection not
anmiocentesis.
 Option4: (Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother): Incorrect as this is part of
IVF (In Vitro Fertilization), not amniocentesis.
Correct option: (1)

158)

Explanation:
Tubectomy is a surgical procedure for female sterilization, where a portion of the fallopian
tubes is removed or blocked.

The correct answer is : Option (3) Fusion of sperm & ovum.

159) NCERT Pg#64

160)

Question Asking About :

The question requires matching contraceptive methods (Column A) with their respective
examples or characteristics (Column B). It tests the understanding of different types of birth
control and their classifications.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

A. Barrier Methods (A):

Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are classic examples.
A. Therefore, A matches with (ii).
B. IUDs (Intrauterine Devices) (B):
Hormone-releasing (Progestasert, LNG-20) - (v)
A. Non-medicated (Lippes loop) - (iii)
B. Copper-releasing (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) - (i)
C. Therefre, B matches with (i), (iii), and (v).
C. Natural Method (C):
A. Peridic abstinence is a primary example.
B. Therefre, C matches with (iv).
D. Progesterone-Estrogen Combination (D):
A. Mala 'D' and Mala 'N' pills are examples.
B. Therefre, D matches with (vi).

Therefore, the correct answer is option (1) : A-ii; B-i,iii,v; C-iv; D-vi.

161) NCERT Pg. # 29

162)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Let's match the terms with the correct definitions:

A. (A) I.U.T. (Intrauterine Transfer) – (1) Embryo transfer done inside uterus after in vitro
 fertilization.

B. (B) GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer) – (4) Collect gametes and put them in the
female fallopian tube.

C. (C) AI (Artificial Insemination) – (2) Taking semen from a donor and transferring it into
the female genital tract.

D. (D) ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer) – (5) Zygote put into the fallopian tube.

E. (E) I.C.S.I. (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) – (3) One sperm transferred into the
ovum.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (4) is correct.

163) The assertion is true as the secondary oocyte does retain most of the nutrient-rich
cytoplasm after the first meiotic division, which is an unequal division resulting in a larger
secondary oocyte and a smaller first polar body. This is to ensure that the secondary oocyte
has sufficient nutrients to support the early stages of embryonic development should
fertilization occur. Therefore, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

164) The assertion is true as the follicular phase involves the growth of primary follicles into
mature Graafian follicles and the regeneration of the endometrium. The reason is also true and
is the correct explanation for the assertion because it is during the follicular phase that the
levels of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increase, which in turn stimulates the development of
follicles and the secretion of estrogens by these growing follicles.

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 28

Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience
because in some women the hymen persists even after coitus.

166) NCERT XII Pg.# 52

167) NCRT-XII, Page#52

168) NCERT Pg. # 45

169)

NCERT Pg. No. 44

170) NCERT-XII Pg. # 46

171) Module

172) NCERT Page No. 54

173) Ncert application based question.

174) NCERT Page No. 52

175) Explanation Question:

TO Identify A to E correctly in schematic representation of oogenesis

Concept: This question is based on Oogenesis.

Explanation:

Final Answer: Option (2)

176) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 34,35

177)
 The correct answer is (3) A → d → ii; B → c → i; C → b → iii; D → a → iv.
Proliferative phase (5th-13th day) → Endometrial growth.
Secretory phase (15th-28th day) → Corpus luteum remains active
Menstruation phase (1st-4th day) → Shedding of endometrium
Ovulatory phase (14th day) → Rupture of mature Graafian follicle

178) NCERT Pg. 44 to 51

179)

The correct answer is 3. Progesterone, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin.

A. The corpus luteum mainly pumps out progesterone to prep the uterus for pregnancy. It also
releases smaller amounts of estrogen, relaxin and inhibin. So, the answer is 3.

180)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#33, fig.2.8