Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
1. Answer : PV = 4RT
Solution :
PV = nRT, for 8 g of hydrogen gas
𝑚 8
𝑛= = =4
𝑀 2
\ PV = 4RT
2. Answer :
𝑢 3
𝑉
= 2𝑃
Solution :
According to kinetic theory of an ideal gas
2
𝑃𝑉 = 𝑢
3
𝑢 3
∴ 𝑉
= 2𝑃
3. Answer :
it will bend towards the left
Solution : When the bimetallic strip is kept in a cold bath, the length
of X decreases faster and therefore the strip bends towards the left.
Page 1
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
4. Answer :
continuously increases
Solution :
Since volume increases throughout so the work done is positive throughout.
5. Answer : will not be valid since the ions would experience forces other than
due to collisions with the walls.
Solution :
The usual expression for pressure on the basis of kinetic theory will not be
valid as ions would also experience forces other than the forces due to
collision with the walls of container.
6. Answer :
128
Solution :
PV g = P¢V g
γ γ
𝑚γ 𝑚′ 𝑃′ 𝑑′
𝑃 𝑑γ = 𝑃′ 𝑑′𝛾 ⇒ 𝑃
= (𝑑) = 327 / 5 = 128
Page 2
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
7. Answer :
2P
Solution :
1 𝑚𝑁 2
As 𝑃= 𝑣
3 𝑉 rms
...(i)
where m is the mass of each molecule, N is the total number of
molecules, V is the volume of the gas. When mass of all the molecules
is halved and their speed is doubled, then the pressure will be
1 𝑚 𝑁 2 2 𝑚𝑁 2
𝑃′ = ( ) × × ( 2𝑣rms ) = 𝑣 = 2𝑃 (Using (i))
3 2 𝑉 3 𝑉 rms
8. Answer : 574.6°
Solution :
𝑇𝐹 = 𝑇𝐾 = 𝜃
𝑇𝐶 − 32 𝑇 − 273.15 𝜃 − 32 𝜃 − 273.15 ∘
180
= 𝐾 100 ∴ 180
= 100
∴𝜃 = 574.6
9. Answer :
42 K
Solution :
In cylinder A, gas is heated at constant pressure and in cylinder B, gas is
heated at constant volume. Amount of heat supplied is same. Therefore, Q =
mCP × 30 = mCV × DT
𝐶 (7 / 2)𝑅
𝑇 = 30 ( 𝐶𝑃 ) = 30 = 42K
𝑉 (5 / 2)𝑅
Page 3
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
10. Answer :
125 K
Solution :
Here, volume is constant
0.8
T2 = T1 + 1 and 𝑃2 = 𝑃1 + 100 𝑃1
𝑃2 𝑇2
As 𝑃1
=
𝑇1
8 𝑇1 + 1 1
∴(1 + 1000
) = 𝑇1
=1+𝑇
1
1000
𝑇1 = 8
= 125K
Page 4
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
11. Answer : nRT(1 – ln2)
Solution :
Work done by external agent is positive, because Fext and displacement are in
the same direction. Since walls are conducting therefore temperature
remains constant.
Applying equilibrium condition when pressure of the gas is P
Fext = Patm A – PA
𝑑 𝑑 𝑑 𝑑 2𝑉 𝑛𝑅𝑇
𝑊ext = ∫0 𝐹ext 𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 𝑃atm 𝐴𝑑𝑥 − ∫0 𝑃𝐴𝑑𝑥 = 𝑃atm 𝐴 ∫0 𝑑𝑥 − ∫𝑉 𝑉
𝑑𝑉
= Patm Ad – nRT ln2 = Patm V0 – nRT ln2 = nRT(1 – ln2)
Page 5
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
12. Answer :
300Rln3
Solution :
Work done in an isothermal process
𝑉
𝑊 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇ln( 𝑉2 )
1
Here, n = 1 mol, T = 300 K, V1 = V and V2 = 3V
3𝑉
∴ 𝑊 = 1 × 𝑅 × 300ln( 𝑉
) = 300𝑅ln3
13. Answer :
Conduction
Solution : Convection currents are set up due to effect of gravity. In
weightlessness g = 0, liquid can be heated by conduction.
14. Answer :
A
Solution :
C F−32 5 20
= ⇒ C = ( )F− .
5 9 9 3
Hence graph between °C and °F will be a straight line with positive slope and
negative intercept.
Page 6
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
15. Answer :
(vrms)C > (vrms)B > (vrms)A
Solution :
Here, mA > mB > mC
We know,
3𝑘 𝐵 𝑇
𝑣rms = √ 𝑚
1
𝑣rms ∝
√𝑚
(vrms)C > (vrms)B > (vrms)A
16. Answer :
the work done by the gas is equal to the change in its internal energy
Solution :
In an isothermal expansion
T = constant,
DU = 0, W = DQ
The work done by the gas is equal to the heat supplied to the gas.
Page 7
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
17. Answer :
π
4
( 𝑃 2 − 𝑃 1 ) ( 𝑉2 − 𝑉1 )
Solution :
W = area of ellipse p × pressure radius × volume radius
𝑃2 − 𝑃1 𝑉2 − 𝑉1 π
𝑊 = π( )( ) = ( 𝑃 2 − 𝑃 1 ) ( 𝑉2 − 𝑉1 )
2 2 4
18. Answer : v(11)1/2
Solution :
1/2
=(Sv2/N)1/2 = [
𝑣2 + 4𝑣3 + 9𝑣2 + 16𝑣2 + 25𝑣2
Vrms ] = v(11)1/2.
5
19. Answer :
– 40°C
Solution :
Let the readings of two thermometers coincide at C = F = x.
𝐶 𝐹 − 32 𝑥 𝑥 − 32
As = ∴ = or 9𝑥 = 5𝑥 − 160
5 9 5 9
or 4x = – 160 or x = – 40°C
Page 8
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
20. Answer :
93.33°C
Solution :
Here, F = 220°F
21. Answer :
bend with B on outer side
Solution :
As a > a , therefore strip B will appear on outer side.
B A
22. Answer :
System
Solution :
A thermodynamic system is a body of matter confirmed in space by walls,
which separate it from its surroundings.
Page 9
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
23. Answer :
Assertion is true but reason is false.
Solution :
The relation between F and C scale is,
9
F = 5 C + 32.
For F = C, 5C = 9C + 160 or, – 4C = 160,
or, C = – 40° i.e., at – 40° the Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers read the
same.
24. Answer : 400 J
Solution :
Isobaric compression is represented by curve DA.
Work done = area under DA
= 2 × 102 × (3 – 1) = 4 × 102 = 400 J
25. Answer : faster in gases than liquids and solids.
Solution :
The rate of diffusion is faster in gases as compared to solids and liquids.
Page 10
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
26. Answer : Slope of gas (1) is more than gas (2)
Solution :
According to ideal gas equation
𝑛𝑅
PV = nRT or 𝑃 = ( 𝑉
)𝑇
(
𝑛𝑅
𝑉
) represents slope of the graph.
As the no. of moles are the same for the two gases
1
\ Slope ∝ 𝑉 ∵ V2 > V1 (Given)
\ (Slope)2 < (Slope)1 or (Slope)1 > (Slope)2
Page 11
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
27. Answer : 0.947
Solution :
𝑃1 3
Let us denote neon gas by 1 and oxygen gas by 2. We are given 𝑃2
= 2
As partial pressure of a gas in a mixture is the pressure it would exert for the
same volume and temperature, if it alone occupied the vessel, therefore, for
common V and T.
P1V = m1RT and P2V = m2 RT
𝑃1 3
\ =
𝑃2 2
If r1, r2 are mass densities of the two gases then
ρ1 𝑚1 / 𝑉 𝑚1 μ 1 × 𝑀1 3 20.2
ρ2
= 𝑚2 / 𝑉
= 𝑚2
= μ 2 × 𝑀2
= 2 × 32.0 = 0.947
28. Answer : Wa > Wb > Wc
Solution :
Work done is positive in all the three processes since gas expands in going
from state 1 to 2.
Work done = Area under P-V graph So, Wa > Wb > Wc
Hence work done in process a is maximum.
Page 12
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
29. Answer : net work done by the system
Solution :
In a cyclic process, the amount of heat given to system is equal to the net
work done by the system.
30. Answer : 225 hrs
Solution :
Here, v = 150 km h–1
N = 10,
V = 20 × 20 × 1.5 km3
Diameter of plane, d = 2 R = 2 × 10 = 20 m
= 20 × 10–3 km
𝑁 10
𝑛= 𝑉
= 20 × 20 × 1.5
= 0.0167km−3
Mean free path of a plane
1
𝜆= 2
√2 π𝑑 𝑛
Time elapse before collision of two planes randomly,
λ 1
𝑡= 𝑣
= 2
√2 π𝑑 𝑛𝑣
1
= −6
1.414 × 3.14 × ( 20 ) 2 × 10 × ( 0.0167 ) × ( 150 )
106
= 4449.5
= 224.74h ≈ 225 hrs
Page 13
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
31. Answer : Work done in the complete cycle ABCA is (1/2 P0V0).
Solution :
Work done in cyclic process is equal to the area of the cycle. In this case it is
1
the area of the triangle i.e., 2 𝑃0 𝑉0 . As work done is non zero, so heat change
will also be non zero.
32. Answer :
310.2 K
Solution :
Let TK be temperature on Kelvin scale corresponding to 98.6°F on
Fahrenheit scale. Then
98.6 − 32 𝑇K − 273.15
=
212 − 32 373.15 − 273.15
66.6 𝑇K − 273.15
or 180 = 100
66.6
or𝑇K = 180 × 100 + 273.15 = 310.2K
Page 14
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
33. Answer : 1.0%
Solution :
As,𝑉 = 𝐿3
Δ𝑉 × 100 Δ𝐿 × 100
∴ 𝑉 =3 𝐿 = 3 × 0.5% = 1.0%
34. Answer :
𝑁𝐴
22.4
×𝑉
Solution :
𝑁𝐴
Number of molecules in V litre of a gas at NTP is ×𝑉
22.4
35. Answer :
Infinity
Solution :
For isochoric change, volume remains constant.
dV = 0.
𝑑𝑃 𝑑𝑃 × 𝑉 𝑑𝑃 × 𝑉
Modulus of elasticity = − 𝑑𝑉 / 𝑉 = 𝑑𝑉
= zero
= Infinity
Page 15
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
36. Answer :
82.22°C
Solution :
For centigrade and Fahrenheit scale
𝐹 − 32 𝐶−0
212 − 32
= 100 − 0
100
⇒ 𝐶= × ( 180 − 32 ) = 82.22∘ C
180
37. Answer :
– 56.45°C, –69.61°F
Solution :
As TC = (T – 273)°C
= 216.55 – 273 = – 56.45
Also, Tf=9/5 TC+32=9/5×(-56.45)+32
= – 101.61 + 32 = – 69.61°F
38. Answer : heat is released by the gas.
Solution :
In isothermal process, heat is released by the gas to maintain the constant
temperature.
Page 16
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
39. Answer : 8.4 kJ
Solution :
As DQ = DU + DW and DW = 0 (ignoring expansion of water)
DQ = DU = mcDT
= (0.1 kg) (4184 J/kg) (50 – 30) K = 8368 J = 8.368 kJ » 8.4 kJ
40. Answer : 8.28 × 10–21 J and 1.61 × 103 m/s
Solution :
Here, T = 127°C = (127 + 273) K = 400 K,
k = 1.38 × 10–23 J molecule–1 K–1,
m = 6.4 × 10–27 kg
3 3
KE per molecule = 𝑘𝑇 = × 1.38 × 10−23 × 400
2 2
= 8.28 × 10–21 J
1
As KE = 2 𝑚𝑐2 ,
−21
2KE 2 × 8.28 × 10
\𝑐=√ 𝑚
=√ −27
6.4 × 10
= 1.61 × 103 m/s
Page 17
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
41. Answer :
+12°
Solution :
Let at temperature T both the scales A and B have the same reading.
𝑇 − 42 𝑇 − 72
∴ 110
= 220
or 2T – 84 = T – 72 or T = + 12°
42. Answer :
𝑌𝐴𝛼𝑇
( 1 + 𝛼𝑇 )
Solution :
The change in length DL = aLT
𝐿𝑇 = 𝐿[1 + 𝛼 ( 𝑇2 − 𝑇1 ) ]
𝐿𝑇 = 𝐿[1 + 𝛼𝑇]
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod
𝐹 𝐿𝑇
𝑌=
𝐴 Δ𝐿
𝑌𝐴Δ𝐿 𝑌𝐴𝛼𝐿𝑇 𝑌𝐴𝛼𝑇
𝐹= 𝐿𝑇
= 𝐿[1 + 𝛼𝑇]
or 𝐹 = ( 1 + 𝛼𝑇 )
Page 18
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
43. Answer :
775.00 K
Solution :
Kelvin scale = Celsius scale + 273.15
= (501.85 + 273.15) K = 775 K.
44. Answer : perfectly elastic rigid spheres
Solution : According to kinetic theory of gases, gas molecules behave as a
perfectly elastic rigid spheres.
45. Answer : (T – 4) K
Solution :
𝑛𝑅 ( 𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )
𝑊adiabatic = = 6𝑅
γ−1
1 × 𝑅 ( 𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )
= 6𝑅 ⇒ 𝑇2 = ( 𝑇 − 4 ) K
5/3−1
46. Answer : All of these.
Solution :
SO3, SnCl4 and NO2+, all act as electrophiles.
47. Answer :
(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
Solution : (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)
Page 19
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
48. Answer :
distillation
Solution :
Two miscible liquids with different boiling points can be separated by
distillation through selective evaporation and condensation.
49. Answer :
2,3-dimethylpentane
Solution :
Organic compounds exhibit the property of enantiomerism (optical
isomerism) only when their molecules are chiral. Most chiral compounds
have a chiral centre, which is an atom bonded to four different atoms or
groups.
2,3-Dimethylpentane has one chiral C-atom and does not have any
symmetric element.
50. Answer :
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Solution : Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Page 20
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
51. Answer :
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Solution :
In toluene, the hyperconjugation effect of the methyl group increases the
electron density at o– and p– positions of benzene ring. Thus, toluence is o-,
p-directing.
52. Answer :
(III) and (IV) only
Solution :
cis-trans isomerism is not possible if one of the C atoms of the double bond
bears identical atoms or groups.
53. Answer :
(NH4)3PO4·12MoO3
Solution :
The canary yellow precipitate is of (NH4)3PO4·12MoO3
Page 21
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
54. Answer :
trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
Solution :
trans-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2 pentene
Priority is given to double bond. It is a trans-configuration as heavier atoms
(i.e., Cl, I) on both sides are trans to each other.
55. Answer :
If assertion is true but reason is false.
Solution :
Estimation of sulphur is done by Carius method. S is oxidised to H2SO4,
which is precipitated as BaSO4 by adding BaCl2.
56. Answer :
D>B>C>A
Solution :
As +I effect and hyperconjugative effect increases, stability of carbanion
decreases.
Page 22
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
57. Answer :
heating the compound with cupric oxide
Solution :
Compound when heated with CuO reduces CuO to Cu and oxidises C to
CO2 which turns lime water milky.
C + 2CuO → 2Cu + CO2
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2 O
( Milky )
58. Answer :
NH2 — NH2×HCl
Solution :
Lassaigne’s test is given by those nitrogenous compounds in which carbon
is also present along with nitrogen. In NH2 — NH2×HCl, carbon is absent, so
it does not give Lassaigne’s test.
Page 23
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
59. Answer :
18.52%
Solution :
By Carius method
32 × 𝑀1 × 100
% of sulphur = 233 × 𝑀
M1 ® Mass of barium sulphate formed (0.35 g).
M ® Mass of organic compound taken (0.2595 g).
32 × 0.35 × 100 1120
% of sulphur = 233 × 0.2595
= 60.4635
= 18.52%
60. Answer :
34.04%
Solution :
Percentage of bromine in the compound
80 Mass of AgBr formed 80 0.12
= × × 100 = × × 100 = 34.04%
188 Mass of substance taken 188 0.15
61. Answer :
0.84%
Solution :
1.4 × 𝑁1 × 𝑉 1.4 × 0.1 × 30
Percentage of nitrogen = 𝑤
= 5
= 0.84%
62. Answer : 2
Solution :
H3C – CH = CH2 ;
Page 24
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
63. Answer :
3
Solution : Symmetrical molecule, has plane of symmetry.
Number of chiral carbon atoms = 2 (even)
64. Answer :
Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
Solution :
Sodium extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 to remove NaCN and Na2S which
interfere during presence of halide ions tests in the solution.
Chlorine gives white ppt. with AgNO3.
Page 25
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
65. Answer :
1, 2-Propadiene
Solution :
Page 26
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
66. Answer :
(A)–(q); (B)–(r); (C)–(p) ; (D)–(s)
Solution :
(A) – (q); (B) – (r); (C) – (p); (D) – (s)
67. Answer :
neither has electron pair available for donation nor can accommodate
electron since all shells of nitrogen are fully occupied
Solution :
has no electron pair available for donation to act as nucleophile.
Valence shell of nitrogen is completely filled and has no scope for
acceptance of extra electrons to act as electrophile.
Page 27
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
68. Answer :
hydrazine
Solution :
Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen fails if the nitrogen containing compound does
not contain carbon.
69. Answer :
5
Solution :
Sixth member of alkane homologous series is hexane (C6H14).
Page 28
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
70. Answer :
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
Solution :
Fe2+ ions are oxidized to Fe3+ which reacts with sodium ferrocyanide to give
ferric ferrocyanide which is Prussian blue in colour.
+
4Fe3++3Na4[Fe(CN)6] → Fe4 [Fe ( CN ) 6 ] 3 + 12Na
Prussian blue
71. Answer :
3-carboxy-3-hydroxypentane-1,5-dioic acid
Solution :
72. Answer :
Resonating structures
Solution :
These structures involve only movement of electrons but not of atoms and
hence are resonating structures.
Page 29
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
73. Answer :
3
Solution :
74. Answer : 1.32 Å
Solution :
The carbon atom is sp2 hybridised only when it forms a double bond. So the
carbon-carbon double bond length is 1.32 Å.
75. Answer :
2
Solution :
Page 30
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
76. Answer :
56
Solution :
Vol. of 1 M H2SO4 taken = 50 × 0.5 = 25 mL
Vol. of 1 M NaOH used for neutralisation of the residual acid
= 60 × 0.5 = 30 mL
Since one mole of H2SO4 neutralises 2 moles of NaOH.
∴ Vol. of 1 M H2SO4 left unused = 30/2 = 15 mL
Vol. of 1 M H2SO4 used = (25 – 15) 1 = 10 mL
Normality = n × M = 2 × 1 = 2 N
So,
77. Answer :
Covalent bond
Solution :
Electronic configuration of C is 1s22s22p2 hence it can neither donate nor
accept 4 electrons hence it prefer to share the electrons so it is likely to form
covalent bonds.
Page 31
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
78. Answer :
82.7
Solution :
Percentage of H
∴ Percentage of C = 100 – Percentage of H
= 100 – 17.24 = 82.7%
79. Answer :
NH3
Solution :
In Kjeldahl’s method nitrogen is estimated as ammonia.
80. Answer :
CH3CH(OH)CH3
Solution :
has no chiral carbon, thus it will not exhibit optical
isomerism.
Page 32
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
81. Answer :
Both (a) and (b)
Solution :
The given statements in options (a) and (b) are correct with respect to
structure of methane.
82. Answer :
Propionaldehyde and acetone
Solution :
C2H5CHO and CH3COCH3 both have same molecular formula i.e., C3H6O.
83. Answer : alums
Solution : Alum is added to muddy water to coagulate the suspended impurities.
84. Answer :
only I and II are chiral compounds
Solution : I and II have one chiral atom each. III has plane of symmetry.
85. Answer :
54.4%, 9.1%
Solution :
Weight of C in compound = 12 × moles of CO2 = 12 × 8.45
44
12 × 8.45 100
Mass percentage of C = 44
× 4.24 = 54.4%
2 × 3.46 100
Similarly, mass percentage of H = 18
× 4.24 = 9.1%
Page 33
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
86. Answer :
one sigma bond and two pi bonds
Solution :
87. Answer :
3-Methylhexane
Solution :
3-Methylhexane exists as a pair of enantiomers.
88. Answer :
Fe(CNS)3
Solution :
If organic compound contains sulphur in addition with nitrogen then on
fusion with sodium metal it will give Na(CNS).
3NaCNS + FeCl3 → Fe ( CNS ) + 3NaCl
3
Ferric sulphocyanide (Blood Red Colour)
89. Answer : If both assertion and reason are false.
Solution : In the Lassaigne’s test for sulphur, sodium extract is made acidic
before the addition of lead acetate, because the black precipitate of lead
sulphide is insoluble in acidic medium.
Page 34
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
90. Answer :
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
Solution :
3Na4 [Fe ( CN ) 6 ] + 2Fe2 ( SO4 ) 3 → Fe4 [Fe ( CN ) 6 ] 3 + 6Na2 SO4
Sodium ferrocyanide
Ferricferrocyanide ( Prussian blue )
91. Answer : Equal meiotic division
Solution : unequal meiotic divisions include meiosis I and meiosis II.
92. Answer :
Jaundice
Solution :
Amniocentesis is a fetal sex determination test in which amniotic fluid
containing fetal cells which surround the developing embryo is extracted
and cells are tested for chromosomal pattern to identify genetic disorders, if
any. Jaundice is not a chromosomal disorder thus, cannot be tested by
amniocentesis.
Page 35
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
93. Answer : water
Solution : Vallisneria, is a submerged dioecious freshwater hydrophyte,
i.e., the male flowers borne on male plants and female flowers are borne
on female plants. Mature male flowers float on the surface of water. The
mature female flowers also float on the water surface, but remain attached to
the female plants with the help of long stalks. They have large sticky trifid
stigmas. While floating, the male flowers come close to female flowers
where anthers burst to release the pollens. Pollination occurs on the female
flowers and are pulled down inside the water by the coiling of the flower
stalks.
94. Answer :
A - III ; B - V ; C - I ; D - II ; E - IV
Solution :
Fertilisation is the fusion of male and female gametes and takes place in the
ampullary region of fallopian tube. Implantation is embedding of the
blastocyst in the endometrium. Cleavage is the mitotic cell division which
takes place in fertilised egg. Morula is the embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres.
Blastocyst is formed as a result of continuous division of morula.
Page 36
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
95. Answer :
Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Solution :
The four layers of the microsporangial wall are the epidermis, endothecium,
middle layers, and tapetum. These layers provide protection and support for
the developing pollen grains. The endothecium, a layer within the anther
wall, develops characteristic fibrous thickenings that facilitate anther
dehiscence. When the anther matures, the endothecium loses water, causing
these fibrous bands to contract and create tension, leading to the splitting of
the anther and release of pollen.
96. Answer :
Secretory phase : Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of
progesterone
Solution :
Menstrual phase is followed by follicular phase or proliferative phase in
which the FSH secretion and estrogen’s secretion increases
and endometrium of the uterine wall becomes thicker by rapid cell
multiplication. Menstruation occurs due to the degeneration of the
endometrium. Ovulation (the release of secondary oocyte from the
Graafian follicle) takes place at the end of proliferative phase of menstrual
cycle. During this phase, the follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) secreted by
the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland stimulates the ovarian follicle to
secrete estrogen.
Page 37
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
97. Answer :
combination of estrogen and progesterone
Solution :
Menstrual cycle is controlled by FSH, LH, estrogen and progesterone. Cycle
starts with the increase in level of FSH and maturation of ovarian follicles,
then rise in the level of LH followed by rupture of Graafian follicles and
ovulation occurs at 14th day of the cycle. The last 14 days of cycle is
controlled by progesterone and estrogen. By rising progesterone and
estrogen level, menstrual cycle can be delayed due to decrease in level of
FSH and LH. Most of the oral contraceptive pills are designed on the basis
of later.
98. Answer :
Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Solution :
External agencies are required for pollen transfer in most plants because the
male reproductive parts lack the mechanisms to directly deliver pollen to the
female parts.
99. Answer :
Endometrium regenerates – 5th-13th day
Solution :
Release of egg – About 14th day; FSH level at its peak – About 14th day; Rise
in Progesterone level – 23rd- 25th day
Page 38
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] : 5
Solution : Majority of insect pollinated flowers are large, colourful,
fragrant and rich in nectar. The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles
secrete foul odours to attract these animals. Among the animals, insects,
particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents. Plant Yucca
and moth Pronuba cannot complete their life cycle without each other. In
majority of angiosperms, the pollen grains are likely to come in contact with
stigma of the same flower.
[Link] :
8 nucleate – 7 celled
Solution : Fully developed common type (anatropous) of female gametophyte or embryo sac
is 8-nucleated and 7-celled structure, i.e., egg apparatus at micropylar end is having 3 cells (2
synergids + 1 egg cell), 3 antipodal cells at chalazal end and 1 central cell having two polar
nuclei in center.
[Link] :
Citrus
Solution :
Presence of more than one embryo inside the seed is called polyembryony.
It is more common in gymnosperms than angiosperms. In angiosperms, it is
generally present as an unusual feature in few cases like Citrus, mango, etc.
Page 39
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
Removal of unfertilised ovum → in vitro fusion of sperm and ovum →
development of embryo more than 8 blastomeres → Embryo transfer into
the uterus of mother
Solution :
In test tube baby programme, ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms
from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote
under simulated conditions in the laboratory. The zygote or early embryos
(with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the fallopian tube
(ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian transfer) and embryos with more than 8
blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete its
further development.
[Link] :
only during pregnancy
Solution : During pregnancy, placenta acts as an endocrine gland and
secretes some hormones such as estrogen, progesterone, human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), and relaxin.
[Link] :
tapetum
Solution : Tapetum is the innermost layer of microsporangium that provides nourishment
to the developing pollen grains.
[Link] :
High birth rate
Solution : High population in a country is a result of high birth rate.
Page 40
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
Solution :
Ovary – Relaxin
Sertoli cell – Nutrition
Cowper’s gland – Seminal plasma
Female accessory duct – Uterus
[Link] :
(i) and (ii)
Solution :
Female gametophyte is present inside the nucellus and egg apparatus is
situated at the micropylar end.
[Link] :
1-FSH, 2-LH
Solution :
In the given graph, 1 and 2 are FSH and LH respectively. The secretion of
both LH and FSH attain peak level during the ovulation (14th day of the
cycle).
Page 41
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
(i), (iii) and (iv)
Solution :
To avoid transmission of STDs, one should avoid sex with
multiple/unknown partners, always have protected sex, use condoms during
coitus and avoid sharing of needles.
[Link] :
ZIFT or IUT
Solution :
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) or IUT(Intra Uterine Transfer) are
involved in assisted reproductive technology after IVF.
[Link] :
13th-14th Day: FSH - High, LH - High, Progesterone - Low
21st – 23rd Day: FSH - Low, LH - Low, Progesterone - High
Solution :
13th - 14th Day: FSH - High, LH - High, Progesterone - Low
21st - 23rd Day: FSH - Low, LH - Low, Progesterone - High
[Link] :
3n
Solution : Endosperm nucleus is triploid, i.e., 3n.
Page 42
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] : 7 cells and 8 nuclei
Solution : Fully developed embryo sac of angiosperm is 8-nucleated and 7-celled
structure, i.e., egg apparatus at micropylar end is having 3 cells (2 synergids + 1 egg cell), 3
antipodal cells at chalazal end and 1 central cell having two polar nuclei at center.
[Link] :
It is one of the technique known as assisted reproductive technologies.
Solution :
The couples could be assisted to have children through certain special
techniques commonly known as assisted reproductive technologies
(ART). The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) formed by
IVF are transferred into the fallopian tube in ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian
transfer.
[Link] : all of these.
Solution : Seed viability is lost due to various factors such as damage to
embryo, enzyme denaturation and exhaustion of food around embryo.
[Link] :
progestogens
Solution : Oral contraceptive pills contain either progestogensonly or a
combination of progestogens and estrogen.
[Link] : Both (a) and (b)
Solution : In protandry, anthers mature earlier than stigma of the same
flower. E.g., sunflower, Salvia.
Page 43
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
lactation
Solution : The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation
during pregnancy and starts producing milk towards the end of pregnancy
by the process called lactation. This helps the mother in feeding the
newborn.
[Link] :
A-(i), B-(ii); (iv); (ix), C-(iii); (vi),
D-(vii); (viii), E-(v)
Solution :
Natural methods – Coitus interruptus
IUDS – LNG-20, Multiload 375, CuT
Barrier methods – Diaphragms, Nirodh
Surgical methods – Sterilisation, Vasectomy
Oral contraceptives – Saheli
[Link] : dehiscence of anther
Solution : The endothecium, a layer in the microsporangium wall, primarily functions
in protection and dehiscence (opening) of the anther. It provides structural support and,
through specialised cells with fibrous thickenings, facilitates the release of pollen grains.
Page 44
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
By the end of the fifth month of pregnancy, the fetus develops limbs and
digits.
Solution : By the end of second month of pregnancy, the fetus develops
limbs and digits.
[Link] :
it is formed by the Sertoli cells
Solution :
Testosterone is the primary male sex steroid. It is an androgenic steroid
synthesised by Leydig’s cells in the testes. It plays a key role in
spermatogenesis by supporting the function of Sertoli cells. It is also
essential for the development of male secondary characteristics like facial
hair, deep voice and muscle growth.
[Link] :
causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
Solution : In human adult females, oxytocin is a hormone released by the
pituitary gland (neurohypophysis), that causes contraction of the uterine
muscles during labour.
[Link] :
menopause
Solution : Stoppage or cessation of menstrual cycle in a woman is called
menopause.
Page 45
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
Each testes has highly coiled 250 compartments called seminiferous
tubules.
Solution :
Each testes has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules. Each
lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules.
[Link] :
Egg cell and synergids
Solution :
Fully developed angiosperm embryo sac is 8-nucleated and 7-celled structure, i.e.,
egg apparatus at micropylar end have 3 cells (2 synergids + 1 egg cell), 3 antipodal
cells at chalazal end and 1 central cell having two polar nuclei at center.
[Link] : High levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted by the corpus
luteum or placenta during pregnancy, inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins
and prevent ovulation.
Solution :
A woman cannot get pregnant again during pregnancy because high levels
of estrogen and progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum or placenta
during pregnancy, inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent
ovulation.
[Link] : multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of Papaver.
Solution : The given figure represents multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of Papaver.
Page 46
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
Solution :
The male accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and
vas deferens. These ducts store and transport the sperms from the testis to
the outside through urethra.
[Link] :
None of these
Solution :
Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world
which accounts to 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a
year.
Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to
avoid its misuse. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first
trimester, i.e., upto12 weeks of pregnancy. Second trimester abortions are
much more riskier. One disturbing trend observed is that a majority of the
MTPs are performed illegally by unqualified quacks which are not only
unsafe but could be fatal too.
[Link] :
castor
Solution : Maize and onion are endospermic monocotyledonous seed. Bean
is a non-endospermic dicotyledonous seed.
Page 47
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] : Citrus
Solution :
Presence of more than one embryo inside the seed is called polyembryony.
It is more common in gymnosperms than angiosperms. In angiosperms, it is
generally present as an unusual feature in few cases like Citrus, mango,
etc. In Citrus many embryos are formed from the structures outside the
embryo (like nucellus). This is commonly called adventive polyembryony.
Upto 10 nucellar embryos are formed.
[Link] : fertilisation
Solution :
In human beings, ovum is released from the ovary in the secondary oocyte
stage. The maturation of secondary oocyte is completed in the mother’s
oviduct (Fallopian tube) usually after the sperm has entered the secondary
oocyte for fertilisation. Completion of meiosis II converts the secondary
oocyte into a fertilised ovum (egg) or zygote (and also a second polar body).
[Link] : Both (b) and (c)
Solution :
The zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) is transferred into
the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian transfer).
Page 48
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
It attains peak level during luteal phase.
Solution :
Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day)
i.e., just before the end of the follicular phase. LH surge leads to the
ovulatory phase and that is followed by luteal phase.
[Link] :
for female use only
Solution : Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are for female use only.
[Link] :
blastomere
Solution : Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic cell divisions that occur in
a fertilised egg (zygote) without an increase in overall size. A cell formed
from cleavage is called blastomere.
[Link] : The microsporangia develop further and become male gamete.
Solution : The microsporangia develops further and become pollen sac.
[Link] :
Medical Termination of Pregnancy
Solution :
MTP stands for Medical Termination of Pregnancy .
Page 49
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] : vegetative cell is not damaged
Solution :
A normal pollen tube can still form even if the generative cell is destroyed
by a laser because the pollen tube is formed by the vegetative cell, not the
generative cell.
[Link] :
copper
Solution :
Multiload (Multiload 375), is one of the examples of copper releasing
IUDs. These devices contain Cu ions which suppress sperm motility
and fertilising capacity of sperms.
[Link] : When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilisation does not takes
place.
Solution : In over 60% of flowering plants, the pollen grains are shed at two-celled stage
(tube cell + generative cell). Further, development of male gametophyte (pollen grain) occurs
on stigma. Pollen grain gives rise to pollen tube which absorbs nourishment from the cells of
style for its growth. Generative cell divides to give rise to two male gametes. Out of these, one
fuses with the egg to form diploid zygote (generative fertilisation or syngamy) whereas the
second male gamete fuses with the two haploid polar nuclei or diploid secondary nucleus of the
central cell to form primary endosperm nucleus (vegetative fertilisation or triple fusion). These
two acts of fertilisation occur in the same embryo sac and are referred to as double
fertilisation.
[Link] : Favours evolution
Solution : Self pollination does not favour the variations and evolution process.
Page 50
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
Lippes loop is an example of hormone releasing IUD.
Solution : Lippes loop is an example of non-medicated IUD.
[Link] :
formation of seeds without syngamy and meiosis
Solution : Apomixis (Gk. apo-without, mixis-mixing) is a mode of
reproduction which does not involve formation of zygote through gametic
fusion. It is, therefore, akin to asexual reproduction. In plants apomixis
commonly mimics sexual reproduction but produces seeds without
fertilisation, e.g., some species of Asteraceae and grasses.
[Link] :
head
Solution :
The head of the sperm contains the nucleus having chromosomes.
[Link] :
A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
Solution :
Male gametophyte – Pollen grain
Female gametophyte – Embryo sac
Megasporangium – Ovule
Ovarian cavity – Locule
Page 51
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
(ii) and (iii)
Solution : During the development of dicot embryo, initially the dicot
embryo is globular and undifferentiated. Early embryo with radial
symmetry is called proembryo. It is transformed into embryo with the
development of radicle, plumule and cotyledons. Two cotyledons
differentiate from the sides with a faint plumule in the centre. At this
time the embryo becomes heart-shaped. Part of embryo axis between the
plumule and cotyledonary node is epicotyl (above the level of
cotyledons) while the part between radicle and cotyledonary node is called
hypocotyl (below the level of cotyledons). The single cotyledon of
monocotyledonous seed (e.g. maize grain) is called scutellum. It occupies
the major portion of the embryo regions of grain.
[Link] : None of these
Solution :
Given figure is the three dimensional cut section of an anther. A typical angiosperm
anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca i.e., they are dithecous. Here, P, Q
and R represent pollen sacs, pollen grains and filament respectively.
[Link] :
(ii) and (iii)
Solution : Egg is larger in size as compared to the sperm, therefore, it
contributes most of the cytoplasm during fertilisation besides only sperm
head containing nucleus enters egg during fertilisation. Haploid nucleus is
contributed by both sperm and egg.
Page 52
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.
Solution :
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients (protein - 7-26%, carbohydrates - 24-48%, fats - 0.9-
14.5%). They are taken as tablets or syrups to improve health, enhance performance of
athletes and race horses.
[Link] : Coitus interruptus
Solution :
Coitus interruptus or withdrawal is a natural method of contraception in
which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before
ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
[Link] :
gametes transport
Solution : In sterilisation, vas deferens in male or fallopian tube in female is
cut and tied which block the transport of gametes.
[Link] :
(i), (ii) and (iii)
Solution :
Leydig cells secrete androgens, i.e., testosterone. Testosterone inhibits the
secretion of LH by negative feedback control. Sertoli cells line the
seminiferous tubule and support developing germ cells and provide them
with nutrition. Germ cells undergo mitosis to form spermatogonia that
further develops into sperms.
Page 53
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] : I, III and IV
Solution :
While most angiosperms have monosporic embryo sacs, there are some
exceptions where they can be bisporic. Additionally, the term "endosporic"
refers to the location of the embryo sac within the ovule, not a universal
characteristic of all angiosperms.
[Link] :
B and D only
Solution : Transfer of sperm in female genital tract (vagina) is called
insemination. Sperm formation continues even in old men, but formation of
ovum ceases in women around the age of 50 years.
[Link] :
2
Solution : Spermatogonia are diploid cells which mature into primary
spermatocyte (2n) by growth. It then produces two haploid secondary
spermatocytes by meiosis I. Each secondary spermatocyte (n) completes the
meiosis II and produces two spermatids (n). Each spermatid (n) develops
into a spermatozoan or sperm (n).
[Link] :
Introduction of semen directly into the fallopian tube
Solution : Assisted Reproductive Technology does not include introduction
of semen directly into the fallopian tube.
Page 54
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
Fifth month
Solution : The first movements of the fetus and appearance of hair on the
head are usually observed during the fifth month.
[Link] :
A-3, B-5, C-2
Solution :
ZIFT - Zygote intra fallopian transfer
ICSI - Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
GIFT - Gamete intra fallopian transfer
[Link] :
Absence of menstruation
Solution :
Lactational amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) method is based on the
fact that ovulation and therefore the menstrual cycle do not occur during the
period of intense lactation following parturition.
[Link] :
A, B and C
Solution : The male sex accessory glands include prostate gland,
bulbourethral gland or Cowper’s gland and seminal vesicle.
Page 55
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] : Intra-uterine insemination
Solution :
Intra-uterine insemination (IUI) is a method of artificial insemination (AI),
in which sperms collected either from the husband or a healthy donor are
artificially introduced into the uterus of female. Since, wife can provide
suitable environment for the growth of the embryo, there is no need for
techniques such as IUT in which embryos with more than 8 blastomeres is
transferred into the uterus and ZIFT in which the zygote or early embryos
(with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the fallopian
tube. Also, wife can produce viable ovum, since technique like GIFT will
also not be used in which ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian
tube of another female who cannot produce ovum.
[Link] :
Both (b) and (c)
Solution :
Some important assisted reproductive technologies (ART) are : IVF, AI,
GIFT, ICSI, ZIFT, etc.
Page 56
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
The centres with the facility of assisted reproductive technologies are
prevalent in India.
Solution :
The centres with the facility of assisted reproductive technologies are not
very much prevalent in India as all these techniques require extremely
high precision handling by specialised professionals and
expensive instrumentation. Therefore, these facilities are presently available
only in very few centres in the country.
[Link] :
A, B, C and D
Solution :
Surgical methods of contraception block gamete transfer and hence prevent
fertilisation or conception. Except HIV infection, Hepatitis-B and genital
herpes, all other STDs are completely curable. Oral contraceptive pills (oral
pills) are used in the form of tablets. They are used by women residing in
both rural and urban areas. During ET techniques, early embryo up to 8
celled is transferred into the fallopian tube and if the embryo is with more
than 8 blastomeres it is transferred into the uterus.
[Link] : AIDS is a sexual transmitted disease.
Solution : Trichomoniasis is a STI. Gonorrhea is primarily transmitted
through sexual contact. Hepatitis B is incurable STI.
Page 57
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
endosperm
Solution : Seed with endosperm is called albuminous seed and in such
seeds food is stored in endosperm. e.g., castor seed, maize seed.
[Link] : Acrosome
Solution : Acrosome is a part of mammalian spermatozoon which contains
proteolytic enzymes used to penetrate egg at the time of fertilisation.
[Link] : C and D alone are correct
Solution : A pollen grain represents the male gametophyte. It has two cells,
the generative cell and vegetative cell. The generative cell divides mitotically
and gives rise to two male gametes before pollen grains are shed. Egg cell
present in embryo sac is the female gamete that fuses with one male gamete
to form zygote.
[Link] :
ICSI-Sperm injected directly into the ovum
Solution : In IUI – intra-uterine insemination, the semen collected either
from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the
vagina or into the uterus. Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into
the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can
provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development is
GIFT – gamete intra fallopian transfer. The zygote or early embryos (with
upto 8 blastomeres) transferred into the fallopian tube is ZIFT–zygote intra
fallopian transfer and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus
is IUT – intra uterine transfer.
Page 58
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
Medical termination of pregnancy
Solution : MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e.,
upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
[Link] :
(i) T
(ii) F
(iii) T
(iv) T
Solution :
Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in either
male or female or both the partners.
[Link] :
B–Cells of corona radiata, A–Zona pellucida, C–Perivitelline space
Solution : A–Zona pellucida, B–Cells of corona radiata, C–Perivitelline
space
[Link] :
In vitro fertilisation and transfer of embryo into mother’s uterus.
Solution :
In test tube baby development, the egg and sperms are collected,
fertilisation is allowed to occur outside of female body in specific condition.
8 celled stage embryo is transferred to fallopian tube i.e., ZIFT- zygote intra
fallopian transfer. If embryo is more than 8 celled, it is transferred to uterus
(IUT- intra uterine transfer).
Page 59
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
avoiding chances of sperm and ovum meeting
Solution :
Natural contraceptive methods are used to prevent meeting of sperm and
egg.
[Link] : Block to polyspermy ensures that one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
Solution :
When a sperm contacts the zona pellucida ,it triggers changes in egg's
membrane to block the entry of additional sperms. Thus, it ensures that only
one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
[Link] :
P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i
Solution :
Perisperm – Black pepper
Thalamus – Strawberry
Pericarp – Mango
Endosperm – Maize
Page 60
Center Name :
Exam Name :PART TEST 05
Paper Set No :Mock test 5/PART TEST 05[1]/RndQstAns/A
Answer Detail
[Link] :
GIFT
Solution :
GIFT (gamete intra fallopian transfer) is transfer of an ovum collected from
a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one,
but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further
development.
Page 61