15-04-2025

6901CMD30334625MN001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

An object placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The position of
the image produced by the convex mirror will be:-

(1) -5 cm
(2) +10 cm
(3) - 10 cm
(4) +5 cm

2) A concave mirror is used to focus the image of a flower on a nearby wall 120 cm from the flower.
If a lateral magnification of 16 is desired, the distance of the flower from the mirror should be

(1) 8 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 120 cm

3) Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2 where m is the magnification
produced by the mirror.

Column 1 Column 2

(A) m = -2 (p) Convex mirror

(B) (q) Concave mirror

(C) (r) Real image

(D) (s) Virtual image

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) A man of height 1.6 m wishes to see his full image in a plane mirror placed at a distance of 2 m.
The minimum length of the mirror should be:

(1) 0.4 m
(2) 0.8 m
(3) 1.6 m
(4) 2.4 m

5) If the speed of light in vacuum is C m/sec, then the velocity of light in a medium of refractive
index 1.5 is:

(1)
(2) C

(3)

(4) Can have any velocity

6) A rectangular tank of depth 8 meter is full of water , the bottom is seen at the depth:

(1) 6 m
(2) 8/3 m
(3) 8 cm
(4) 10 cm

7) A glass slab of thickness 6 cm is placed over a news paper. What is the shift in the
letters?

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 1 cm
(4) None of these

8) Assertion: The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.

Reason: The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to,

If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

9) An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The
image produced is:

(1) Real, inverted and smaller in size

(2) Real, inverted and of same size
(3) Real and erect
(4) Virtual and inverted

10) A convex mirror is used to form the image of a real object. Then which of the following
statements is wrong?
(1) The image lies between the pole and the focus
(2) The image is diminished in size
(3) The image is erect
(4) The image is real

11) Monochromatic light of frequency travelling in vacuum enters a medium of

refractive index 1.5. Its wavelength in the medium is:

4000
(1)

5000
(2)

6000
(3)

5500
(4)

12) In the shown figure what is the value of deviation?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

13) A ray of light travels in air and strikes a transparent rectangular slab of refractive
index at an angle of incidence of . The angle between the reflected and refracted rays is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) For a concave mirror, if real image is formed the graph between and is of the form
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) For plane mirror choose the correct option.

The perpendicular distance of the point object from plane mirror is equal to that of its point
(1)
image from the plane mirror.
The perpendicular distance of the point object from plane mirror is greater than that of its point
(2)
image from the plane mirror.
The perpendicular distance of the point object from plane mirror is less than that of its point
(3)
image from the plane mirror.
(4) None of these

16) A light of wavelength 6000 in air, enters in a medium of refractive index 1.5. What will be the
wavelength of light in that medium:-
 9000
(1)

6000
(2)

4000
(3)

2000
(4)

17) A bubble in glass slab when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from other
side then thickness of slab is:

(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 23 cm
(3) 10.5 cm
(4) 1.5 cm

18) If a real object is placed on the principal axis at a distance of 10cm, in front of a concave mirror
of focal length 20 cm, then the image will be:-

(1) Diminished, upright, virtual

(2) Enlarged, upright, virtual
(3) Diminished, inverted, real
(4) Enlarged, upright real

19) A boys is 2m tall and can see his image in a plane mirror fixed on a wall his head is 0.02 m from
his eyes. What will be minimum length of the mirror to see his full image:-

(1) 1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.8 m
(4) can't be determined

20) An object approaches a convex mirror of focal length 25 cm with speed 20 cm/s what will be
velocity of image when object is 25 cm from the mirror:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Which of the following mirrors can form real image?

(1) Plane mirror

(2) Convex mirror
(3) Concave mirror
(4) All of these

22) An object is kept at 8 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 24 cm. The
magnification of the image is

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.8

23) On a glass slab of thickness t and material refractive index a ray of light is incident on angle i.
If the angle of refraction is r then lateral shift of the ray is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) For a real erect object if the magnification value is , then it means that image is

(1) Real and diminished

(2) Real and enlarged
(3) Virtual and diminished
(4) Virtual and enlarged

25) Light of wavelength 6000 enters from air into water of refractive index 4/3. Find the speed of

light in a medium

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) An object is placed at a distance of 40cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. If the
object is displaced through a distance of 20cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image
will be

(1) 30 cm away from the mirror

(2) 36 cm away from the mirror
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror
27) A travelling microscope is focussed on to a scratch on the bottom of a beaker. Water of refractive

index is poured in it. Then the microscope is to be lifted through 2 cm focus it again. Find the
depth of water in the beaker.

(1) 4 cm
(2) 8 cm

(3)

(4)

28) The plane of a mirror makes an angle of with horizontal. If a vertical ray is incident on a
mirror, then what is the angle between mirror and reflected ray?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Light from a sodium lamp passes through a tank of glycerin (refractive index 1.47)
20m long in a time If it takes a time to traverse the same tank when filled with carbon
disulphide (index 1.63), then the difference is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) There is a convex mirror of radius 50cm. The image of a point at a distance 50 cm from the pole
of mirror on its axis will be formed at :

(1) Infinity
(2) Pole
(3) Focus
(4) 16.67 cm behind the mirror

31)

If the distance of an object from a spherical mirror is equal to the focal length of the mirror then the
image:-

(1) Must be at infinity

(2) May be at infinity
(3) May be at the focus
(4) None

32) A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a convave mirror of focal length f at a
distance u from the pole of the mirror. Find the apporoximate size of the image.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A ray incident at an angle of incidence at interface of two medium and refracted at angle of
refraction . Then angle of deviation is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) An object of height 1 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length
10 cm. The nature and size of the image are

(1) Real, inverted, 1.0 cm

(2) Real, inverted, 2.0 cm
(3) Virtual, erect, 0.5 cm
(4) Virtual, erect, 1.0 cm

35) A ray incident from at angle of incidence enters into a medium of refractive
index Then angle of refraction is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) If speed of light in a medium is then refractive index of that medium is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1.5
(4) 2.5

37) A concave mirror is used to form the image of an Real object. Which of the following statements
is wrong?

(1) The image lies between the pole and the focus
(2) The image is diminished in size
(3) The image is erect
(4) The image is real

38) An object is placed at depth of 15 cm of transparent liquid of refractive index . As shown

in figure. Then apparent depth of object. (Assume normal incidence)

(1) 10 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 22.5 cm
(4) 12.5 cm

39) For real object in a plane mirror, the image formed is:

(1) Always real

(2) Always virtual
(3) Always enlarge
(4) Always diminished

40) An object is moving along normal of plane mirror with speed 'u' towards it as shown in figure
keeping mirror fixed. Then velocity of approach between image and object is:

(1) u
(2) 2u
(3) 3u
(4) Zero

41) The image of a real object placed infront of a concave mirror between 'F' and 'C' is

(1) Diminished
(2) Enlarge
(3) Of same size
(4) Virtual

42) The separation between object & image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm of real
point object placed at distance 10 cm from convex mirror is:

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4)

43) An object of length 2 mm is placed along principal axis of concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
at distance 15 cm. If length of object is along principal axis then length of image formed is

(1) 4 mm
(2) 8 mm
(3) 2 mm
(4) 16 mm

44) A concave mirror gives an image three times as large as the object at a distance of 20 cm from
it. For the image to be real, the focal length should be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) The distance of real image and the object from the focus of a concave mirror are 8 cm and 18
cm. Then the magnitude of focal length of the concave mirror is

(1) 10 cm
(2) 16 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 12 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) The amount of acetic acid present in 500 mL of 0.2 M solution is :-

(1) 0.60 g
(2) 6 g
(3) 60 g
(4) 3 g

2) Which solution is the most concentrated ? (assume same solvent and solute in each case)

(1) 2.4 g solute in 2mL solution

(2) 2.4 g solute in 5mL solution
(3) 20 g solute in 50mL solution
(4) 30 g solute in 150mL solution

3) Molality(m) of 725 g water will be :-

(1) 18.2 m
(2) 55.5 m
(3) 42.1 m
(4) 30 m

4) If 18 g of glucose is present in 1000 g of solvent, the solution is said to be :

(1) 1 molar
(2) 0.1 molar
(3) 0.5 molar
(4) 0.1 molal

5)

Temperature dependent concentration unit is :

(1) Molality
(2) Molarity
(3) Mass fraction
(4) Mole fraction

6) What will be molarity of 49% H2SO4 w/w having density = 1.2 g/ml :-

(1) 3 M
(2) 6 M
(3) M
(4) 12 M

7)

The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.6 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29 % H2SO4 (molar mass =
98g/mol–1) by mass will be :
(1) 1.45
(2) 1.64
(3) 1.88
(4) 1.22

8) The molarity of an aqueous solution of NaOH containing 8 gm in 2 lit of solution is :-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.25 M
(4) 0.15 M

9)

The molarity of pure water is

(1) 55.6
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 18

10)

The vapour pressure of water depends upon :

(1) Surface area of container

(2) Volume of container
(3) Temperature
(4) All of these

11)

In a solution of 7.8 g benzene (C6H6) and 46.0g toluene (C6H5CH3), the mole fraction of benzene is:-

(1) 1/6
(2) 1/5
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/3

12) Mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution is 0.2. The molality of the solution will be

(1) 13.88
(2) 1.388
(3) 0.138
(4) 0.0138

13) Assertion (A) : A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more chemically non-reacting
substances.
Reason (R) : Solutions can be made between any two physical states of matter.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

14) In a mixture of A and B, solution shows positive deviation when :-

(1) A - B interaction is stronger than A - A and B - B interaction

(2) A - B Interaction is weaker than A - A and B - B interaction
(3)
(4)

15) The solubility of gases in liquids:

(1) increases with increase in pressure and temperature

(2) decreases with increase in pressure and temperature
(3) increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
(4) decreases with increase in pressure and increase in temperature

16) Which pair shows a contraction in volume on mixing along with evolution of heat :

(1) CHCl3 + C6H6

(2) H2O + HCl
(3) H2O + HNO3
(4) All of these

17) Which of the gas will not follow Henry’s law?

(1) HCl
(2) He
(3) O2
(4) H2

18) Mole fraction of A vapours above solution in mixture of A and B (XA = 0.4) will be (PA° = 100 mm
Hg, PB° = 200 mm Hg)

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.75

19) What will be molality of ethanol in water if mole fraction of ethanol is 0.4 ?
(1) 3.70 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 21 m
(4) 37 m

20) A molal solution is one that contains one mole of solute in

(1) 1000g of solution

(2) one litre of solvent
(3) One litre of solution
(4) None of the above

21) 120 gm acetic acid is dissolved in 78 gm benzene. Find mole fraction of benzene.

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.33
(3) 0.66
(4) none

22) The percent weight of NaOH in 1.25 molar sodium hydroxide solution is

(1) 5
(2) 12.5
(3) 4.76
(4) 1.25

23) Which will form maximum boiling azeotrope ?

(1) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution

(2) HNO3 + H2O solution
(3) C2H5OH + H2O solution
(4) n-hexane and n-heptane

24) Volume of water added to 100 ml of 0.5 M HCl solution to get decimolar solution is:

(1) 500 ml
(2) 400 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 300 ml

25) What is the volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution?

(1) 4.8
(2) 8.4
(3) 3.0
(4) 8.0

26) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4 , 7.8 × 10–4
and 6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at same
partial pressure ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

28) According to Henry's law, the partial pressure of gas (Pg) is directly proportional to mole fraction
of gas in liquid solution, Pgas = KH, Xgas, where KH is Henry's constant. Which is incorrect ?

(1) KH is characteristic constant for a given gas-solvent system

(2) Higher is the value of KH, lower is solubility of gas for a given partial pressure of gas
(3) KH has temperature dependence
(4) KH decreases with increase of temperature

29) If Raoult's law is obeyed, the vapour pressure of the solvent in a solution is directly proportional
to :

(1) Mole fraction of the solvent

(2) Mole fraction of the solute
(3) Mole fraction of the solvent and solute
(4) The volume of the solution

30) For an ideal solution, the correct option is : –

(1) Δmix S = 0 at constant T and P

(2) Δmix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
(3) Δmix H = 0 at constant T and P
(4) Δmix G = 0 at constant T and P

31) Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl are mixed. The concentration of NO3– ions in the
mixture will be-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.05 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 0.15 M

32) For an ideal binary solution of component A & B if B is more volatile than A than which relation
between XA & XB (mole fraction of A & B in liquid phase respectively) and YA & YB (mole fraction of A
& B in vapour phase respectively is correct)

(1) YA < YB
(2) XA > XB

(3)

(4)

33) Chloroform mixed with nitrogen gas is an example of

(1) Gas in Gas solution

(2) Liquid in Gas solution
(3) Solid in Gas solution
(4) Liquid in Liquid solution

34) Moles of N2 = 0.4 and moles of O2 = 0.1 find (Partial pressure) = ? at atmospheric pressure

(1) 0.2 atm

(2) 0.8 atm
(3) 0.6 atm
(4) 0.4 atm

35) Henry's law constant of oxygen is at 298K. How much of oxygen is

dissolved in 100 mL at 298K when the partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm?

(1) 1.4 g
(2) 3.2 g
(3) 22.4 mg
(4) 2.24 mg

36) For a solution if Xa represents the mole fraction of the solute and Xb represents the mole fraction
of the solvent, then :-

(1) Xa + Xb = 1
(2) Xa . Xb = 1
–1
(3) Xa . Xb = 1
(4) Xa – Xb = 1

37) 10% glucose in water by mass, means a solution of:

(1) 10 g glucose + 100 g water
(2) 10 g glucose + 90 g water
(3) 10 g glucose + 100 nL water
(4) 10 g glucose + 110 g water

38) What is the mole fraction CH4 in the mixture of equal moles of CH4 and SO2 :-

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 1

39) Which of the following gas does not obey Henry's law?

(1) NH3
(2) H2
(3) O2
(4) He

40) Which condition is true for both ideal and non ideal solution :-

(1) ΔHmixing = 0
(2) ΔSmixing > 0
(3) ΔGmixing < 0
(4) Both 2 & 3

41) V1 c.c. of solution having molarity M1 is diluted have molarity M2. The volume of water required
to be added will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A solution formed by mixing only two substances is called as

(1) Binary solution

(2) Unified solution
(3) Colloidal solution
(4) Saturated solution

43) Mole fraction of glucose in 18% [wt/wt] aqueous solution of glucose is :-

(1) 0.18
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.017
(4) 0.021

44) 4g NaOH is present in 1 L of solution, its molarity will be :-

(1) 1
(2) 10
(3) 0.1
(4) 100

45) Molality of 'a' gram solution is 'b'. If the mass of solute is 'c' gram then molar mass of solute is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

1) All living organisms need ____A____ for carrying out daily life activities and is obtained by
____B____ of macromolecules.

(1) A-oxygen; B-reduction

(2) A-energy; B-reduction
(3) A-energy; B-oxidation
(4) A-oxygen; B-oxidation

2) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(1) Green plants and cyanobacteria can synthesise their own food by the process of photosynthesis.
(2) Green parts of the plant perform photosynthesis and they do not show cellular respiration.
(3) Ultimately all the food that is respired for life process comes from photosynthesis.
(4) The breaking of c-c bonds of complex compounds through reduction within the cells leading to
the release of considerable amount of energy is called respiration.

(1) Only 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) All

3)
Respiration is defined as -

(1) Formation of C - C bonds of complex compound

(2) Breaking of C - C bonds of complex compound
(3) Breaking of C - N bonds of complex compound
(4) All of the above

4) In respiration, the respiratory substrates used is/are

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Fats
(4) All of the these

5) Assertion :- ATP act as energy currency of the cell.

Reason :- Energy released through respiration is trapped as bio-chemical energy in the form of
ATP.

(1) Only Assertion is correct

(2) Only Reason is correct
(3) Both Assertion and Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason is wrong

6) The complete combustion of glucose in respiration is represented by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The main purpose of respiration is to

(1) Convert potential energy to light energy

(2) Convert kinetic energy to potential energy
(3) Convert light energy into chemical energy
Catabolise the glucose molecule in such a way that most of the liberated energy can be coupled
(4)
for ATP synthesis

8) Respiration results finally in the formation and release of which among the following ?

(1) NADPH + H+
(2) Glucose
(3) ATP
(4) Both (1) and (3)

9) Which among the following is wrong ?

(i) Only carbohydrates are oxidised to release energy in the process of respiration.
(ii) Energy produced in respiration is not released in a single step.
(iii) ATP can be broken down, as and when energy needs to be utilised.

(1) Only ii
(2) Only iii
(3) Only i
(4) None of the above

10) Respiration organs for plants are

(1) Lenticels
(2) Stomata
(3) Woody Bark
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) Which among the following is wrong ?

(1) Roots, Leaves and Stem respire at rates far lower than animals do
For plants to respire, availability of O2 is a problem as O2 is not released within the cell during
(2)
photosynthesis
(3) There is very little transport of gases from one plant part to another
(4) Most of the internal part of tree is dead

12) Assertion : The breaking of the C-C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the
cells leading to the release of considerable amount of energy is called cellular respiration.
Reason : All the food that is respired for life process comes from photosynthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) The word 'glycolysis' is

(1) Latin word

(2) French word
(3) Italian word
(4) Greek word

14) Glycolysis is also known as _________ pathway.

(1) ETS
(2) EMP
(3) ENP
(4) ELP

15) Glycolysis occurs in

(1) Aerobic organism
(2) Anaerobic organism
(3) Eukaryotes
(4) All of the above

16) Sucrose is converted to ____ (i) ____ and ____ (ii) ____ using enzyme ____ (iii) ____

(1) (i) Glucose; (ii) Glucose; (iii) Hexokinase

(2) (i) Glucose; (ii) Fructose; (iii) Hexokinase
(3) (i) Glucose; (ii) Glucose; (iii) Invertase
(4) (i) Glucose; (ii) Fructose; (iii) Invertase

17) Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalysed by

(1) Phosphoglucomutase
(2) Phosphoglucoisomerase
(3) Hexokinase
(4) Phosphorylase

18) Which of the following is not associated with glycolysis ?

(1) It occurs in cytoplasm

(2) Partial oxidation of glucose takes place
(3) Utilisation of oxygen
(4) Breakdown of ATP molecules

19) During glycolysis two redox- equivalents are removed from PGAL and transferred to

(1) 1,3-BPGA
(2) NAD+
(3) 3-PGA
(4) NADH + H+

20) Assertion : Plants can get along without respiratory organs.

Reason : Plants do not present great demands for gas exchange.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion an Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

21) What does PGAL stands for ?

(1) 3 - Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(2) 5 - Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(3) 3 - Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) 5 - Phosphoglyceric acid

22) End product of glycolysis is :

(1) Pyruvate
(2) Phenol
(3) Prusic acid
(4) Phosphoenolpyruvate

23) How many molecules of oxygen are utilised for one molecule of glucose in the glycolysis during
aerobic respiration ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

24) During the breakdown of glucose molecule(in glycolysis). How many CO2 molecules are released

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

25)

What is the isomerised product of glucose - 6 - phosphate in the steps of glycolysis ?

(1) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate

(2) Fructose - 6 - phosphate
(3) Fructose - 1, 3, 6 - triphosphate
(4) Fructose - 3 - phosphate

26) Glycolysis is a _________ step reaction.

(1) Single
(2) Nine
(3) Ten
(4) Eleven

27) One molecule of sucrose is converted into how many molecules of pyruvic acid ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
28) PGAL get ______ and get converted to BPGA.

(1) Reduced
(2) Hydrolysed
(3) Oxidized
(4) All of these

29) When PGAL is converted into BPGA in process of respiration there is formation of -

(1) 1 molecule of ATP

(2) 1 molecule of H2O
(3) 1 molecule of NADH + H+
(4) 1 molecule of ADP

30) ATP is utilised in which of the following steps of glycolysis ?

(i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA
(ii) Conversion of glucose into glucose - 6 - phosphate
(iii) Conversion of fructose 6 - phosphate to fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
(iv) Conversion of PEP to pyruvate

(1) Only i
(2) Only iii
(3) Both ii and iii
(4) Only ii, iii, iv

31) Conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate leads to the formation of ?

(1) ATP
(2) NADH + H+
(3) H2O
(4) ADP

32) Which of the following steps in glycolysis yields energy ?

(i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA
(ii) Conversion of fructose - 6 - phosphate to fructose 1, 6 - bisphopshate
(iii) Conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid
(iv) Conversion of glucose - 6 - phosphate to fructose - 6 - phosphate

(1) Both ii and iv

(2) i, ii, iii
(3) Both i and iii
(4) All of the above

33) In glycolysis, is formed from NAD+, when

(1) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPGA)

(2) Triose phosphate is converted to 2 - Phosphoglycerate
(3) 2-phosphoglycerate is converted to 2-phosphopyruvate
(4) 2-phosphopyruvate is converted to 2-pyruvic acid

34) What is the net gain of ATP from one molecule of glucose in one complete glycolysis ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 2

35) Identify the intermediates marked as a and b in the following pathway.

(1) A - Dihydroxy acetone phosphate; B - 2-phosphoglyceric acid

(2) A - Dihydroxy acetone phosphate; B - 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) A - Glucose-6-phosphate; B - Pyruvic acid
(4) A - 3-phosphoglyceric acid; B - Phosphoenolpyruvate

36) How many molecules of NADH + H+ are produced in one complete process of glycolysis of one
glucose molecule ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) How many molecules of ATP are directly produced in one complete glycolysis of one sucrose
molecule ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 4

38) Fermentation occurs when there is

(1) Complete supply of oxygen

(2) No supply of oxygen
(3) Complete supply of water
(4) No supply of water

39) Fate of pyruvic acid depends on :

(1) Availability of Oxygen

(2) Availability of Carbon dioxide
(3) Cellular need
(4) Both (1) and (3)

40) Enzymes for the glycolysis is present

(1) On the outer wall of mitochondria

(2) On the inner wall of mitochondria
(3) In the cytoplasm
(4) Both in the mitochondria and cytoplasm

41) Which of the following process is responsible for the synthesis of ATP during glycolysis ?

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Photo phosphorylation
(3) Substrate level phosphorylation
(4) Both (1) and (3)

42) Respiration does not involve -

(1) Breaking up of C - C bond

(2) Formation of water molecule
(3) Release of energy in the form of ATP
(4) Oxidation of water

43) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The complete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic respiration

(2) Anaerobic respiration releases more amount of energy as compared to aerobic respiration
(3) When fructose enter glycolysis only 1 ATP is utilized to convert it into triosephosphate
(4) Aerobic respiration is appropriately termed as amphibolic pathway

44) Aerobic respiration is how many times more useful than anaerobic respiration ?

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 19
(4) 38
45) During the respiration of one sucrose molecule, how many CO2 molecules will be evolved ?

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 38
(4) 76

ZOOLOGY

1) The following diagram is human respiratory system with the parts labelled from a to d. Identify

the parts and choose the correct option :-

(1) a-Bronchiole, b-Alveoli, c-Pleural membranes, d-Bronchus

(2) a-Pleural membranes, b-Alveoli, c-Bronchiole, d-Bronchus
(3) a-Lung, b-Alveoli, c-Bronchiole, d-Bronchus
(4) a-Alveoli, b-Pleural membranes, c-Lung, d-Bronchus

2) Amphibians like frogs can respire through their moist skin this is known as -

(1) Cutaneous respiration

(2) Branchial respiration
(3) Pulmonary respiration
(4) Tracheal respiration

3) Shape of diaphragm at the time of inspiration is :-

(1) Dome shaped

(2) Flat
(3) Inverted bowl shaped
(4) Cup shaped

4) How many statements are Correct ?

(A) Nasal chamber opens into pharynx.
(B) Epiglottis is a bony, flap like structure which cover glottis
(C) Pharynx is a common path of food and air
(D) Larynx is a cartilagenous box which produces sound

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs. Its
effect could be :

(1) Reduced breathing rate

(2) Cessation of breathing
(3) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(4) No change in respiration

6) During swallowing, glottis can be covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap called ....A..... to
prevent the entry of food into larynx. Trachea is a straight tube extending upto ....B.... cavity, which
divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra into right and the left primary...C... .
Choose the correct option for A, B and C from the given four option to complete the above
statement with reference to textbook.

(1) A-epiglottis, B-bronchi, C- bronchioles

(2) A-epiglottis, B-mid thoracic, C- bronchi
(3) A-epiglottis, B-hind thoracic, C -bronchi
(4) A-epiglottis, B-Pre thoracic, C- bronchi

7) The part starting with the external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles constitute the

(1) Respiratory part of respiratory system

(2) Exchange part of respiratory system
(3) Expiratory part
(4) Conducting part of respiratory system

8) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic
cavity will be reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity. Such an arrangement is essential for
breathing because

(1) We cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume

(2) We breath through positive pressure ventilation
(3) We contains muscles in our lungs
(4) We can directly alter the pulmonary volume

9) In which one of the following options Column I is incorrectly matched with Column II w.r.t.
organisms and their respiratory organs?

Column I Column II
(1) Flatworms Body surface
(2) Earthworms Moist cuticle
(3) Fishes Gills
(4) Amphibia Only lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Find the incorrect regarding function of respiratory system ?

(1) Humidifies the air

(2) Drying of air
(3) Warm up the air
(4) Diffusion of gases

11) The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cell is called :

(1) Respiration
(2) Breathing
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Metabolism

12) Arrange the given steps of expiration in correct order.

(a) Relaxation of diaphragm & EICM
(b) Reduction of the pulmonary volume
(c) Expulsion of air from the lungs
(d) Increase in Intrapulmonary pressure

(1) a → b → c → d
(2) a → b → d → c
(3) d → c → b → a
(4) d → b → c → a

13) Structure which does not contribute to the breathing movement in mammals is:

(1) Larynx
(2) Ribs
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Intercostal muscle

14) External & internal intercostal muscles are present in

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Pharynx
(3) Lungs
(4) Between the ribs
15) When you exhale, the diaphragm

(1) Relaxes & become dome shape

(2) Contract & become dome shape
(3) Relaxes & become flat
(4) Contact & become flat

16) Match the following and mark correct option.

Animals Respiratory organ

(A) Earthworm (i) Moist cuticle

(B) Cockroach (ii) Gills

(C) Fishes (iii) Lungs

(D) Humans (iv) Tracheal tubes

A B C D

(1) ii i iv iii

(2) i iv ii iii

(3) i iii ii iv

(4) i ii iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Statement I :- Oxygen is utilised by the organism to directly breakdown simple molecules like
glucose
Statement II :- Mechanism of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly
on their habitats and level of organisation.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

18) Statement I :- Inspiration can occur if intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric
pressure
Statement II :- Expiration occurs if intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric
pressure.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

19) By the contraction of diaphragm the volume of thoracic chamber increase in the

(1) Dorso-Ventral Axis

(2) Antero-Posterior Axis
(3) Antero-Ventral Axis
(4) Dorso-Posterior Axis

20) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire
through lungs.
Reason (R): Amphibians like frogs respire only through their moist skin.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

21) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion : The movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure
gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere.
Reason : The diaphragm and a specialised set of muscles-external and internal intercostals between
the ribs, help in generation of such gradients.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

22) Incomplete cartilagenous rings in human respiratory tract are found ?

(1) From trachea upto end of bronchioles

(2) From trachea upto alveoli
(3) Only in trachea and primary bronchi
(4) From trachea to initial bronchioles

23) Match the following columns.

Respiratory Structure Type of Respiration

(A) Gills (1) Pulmonary

(B) Lungs (2) Cutaneous

(C) Skin (3) Branchial

(1) A-3, B-2, C-1
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3

24) How many features given below are related to pleura.

(I) Double layered
(II) Fluid contained in it reduces the friction on the lung surface
(III) Its outer layer is in contact with thoracic wall
(IV) Its inner layer is in contact with lungs.

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only
(3) III and IV only
(4) All of these

25) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing.

(1) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is active

(2) Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is passive
(3) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(4) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes

26) Which of the following structure is not supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings?

(1) Trachea
(2) Secondary bronchi
(3) Terminal bronchioles
(4) Primary bronchi

27) Animals which have a network of tracheal tubes to transport atmospheric air within the body are

(1) Flatworms
(2) Insects
(3) Coelenterates
(4) Sponges

28) Statement-I :- During expiration, volume of thoracic chamber decreases and air is expelled out.
Statement-II :- During inspiration the diaphragm and EICM contracts simultaneously.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

29) Given below is the diagrammatic representation, explaining mechanism of breathing.

 Choose the correct option w.r.t. given diagram.

Diaphragm becomes dome shaped due to contraction of its muscles and decreases the volume of
(1)
thoracic cavity
(2) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases due to contraction of external intercostal muscles
(3) Diaphragm is relaxed and arched upwards which decreases the volume of thoracic cavity
(4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles shifts the ribs inwards and downwards

30) Fill in the blank.

_________ is the site of actual diffusion of O2 & CO2 between blood & atmospheric air.

(1) Exchange part

(2) Conducting part
(3) Nasal chamber
(4) Bronchi & bronchioles

31) Normal inspiration involves contraction of which of the given muscles ?

(a) Diaphragm
(b) External intercostals
(c) Internal intercostals
(d) Abdominal

(1) a, c
(2) a, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, b

32) Find out the incorrect match ?

(1) Molluscs – Gills

(2) Birds – Lungs
(3) Frog – General body surface
(4) Sponges – General body surface

33) Which of the following statement is correct about respiratory organs ?

(1) Higher vertebrates exchange atmospheric O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion

(2) Earthworm have network of tubules for exchange of gases
(3) Gills are used by most of the aquatic arthropods for exchange of gases
(4) Among vertebrates fishes and reptiles, use gills for breathing

34) Which structure gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular-walled and vascularised bag-like
structures called alveoli ?

(1) Primary bronchi

(2) Initial bronchiole
(3) Terminal bronchiole
(4) Secondary bronchi

35) The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the ____(A)____, ventrally by the ____(B)____, laterally
by the ___(C)___, and on lower side by the dome-shaped ____(D)____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Vertebral column Sternum Diaphragm Ribs

(2) Sternum Vertebral column Ribs Diaphragm

(3) Vertebral column Sternum Ribs Diaphragm

(4) Vertebral column Ribs Sternum Diaphragm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Lungs are comprised of -

(1) Branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli

(2) Trachea and pharynx
(3) Bronchi and Trachea
(4) Trachea, pharynx and larynx

37) Alveoli and their ducts form the -

(1) Conducting part of the respiratory system.

(2) Exchange part of the respiratory system.
(3) Breathing part of the respiratory system.
(4) Both(1) and (2) are correct.

38) Which set of muscles is required for forceful expiration ?

(1) EICM & Abdominal muscles

(2) IICM & EICM
(3) IICM & Abdominal muscles
(4) EICM and Diaphragm
39) Respiration involves all these steps except -

Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
(1)
out.
(2) Utilisation of CO2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of O2.
(3) Transport of gases by the blood.
(4) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.

40) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion : Inspiration can occur if the pressure within the lungs is less than the atmospheric
pressure.
Reason : Movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure gradient
between the lungs and the atmosphere.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

41) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) O2 is utilised by the organisms to indirectly break down nutrient molecules.
(b) Process of exchange of CO2 from the atmosphere with O2 produced by the cells is called
breathing.
(c) Normal breathing rate in humans is 72 times per minute
(d) We have a pair of external nostrils, which opens out side above the upper lips.

(1) Only one

(2) Only two
(3) Three
(4) All are correct

42) Lungs are situated in -

(1) Abdominal cavity

(2) Thoracic cavity
(3) Pelvic cavity
(4) All of these

43) The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by____.

(1) Spirometer
(2) Stethoscope
(3) Sphygmomanometer
(4) Thermometer

44) In humans (and other mammals), air passes from atmosphere into lungs in which sequence?
(1) Alveoli → Bronchiole → Bronchi → Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavities
(2) Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Bronchi → Bronchiole → Alveoli → Nasal cavities
(3) Nasal cavities → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(4) Nasal cavities → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

45) Which of the following structures close the glottis during swallowing to prevent the entry of food
into windpipe?

(1) Tongue
(2) Epiglottis
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Larynx
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 1 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 3 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 4 3 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 4 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 4 3 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 1 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 4 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

By (1) & (2) we get

3) Real Image
virtual image
Can be convex mirror as well as concave mirror
Concave mirror
Concave are plane mirror

4)

The minimum length of the mirror required for the purpose is half the height of the person.

5)

6)

7)

8)

for mirror f is independent of refractive index

9)
When object is placed at centre of curvature its image is also formed at centre of curvature
Image characteristics Real, Inverted, Same size and same position

10) Convex mirror never formed real image of real object.

11)

12)

13)

15)

Characteristic of image formed by plane mirror

virtual, erect, same size and same position

16)

17)

18)
image formed is virtual, erect & enlarged

19)

The minimum length of the mirror required for the purpose is half the height of the person.

20)

21)

Plane mirror and convex mirror form real image when object is virtual while concave mirror
can form real image when object lies between to focus.

22)
23)

By (1) (2)

24) erect virtual

Inverted, Real
enlarged
diminished

In ques,
Virtual & Diminished

25)

26)
Disp of image

away from the mirror.

28)

29)

similarly,

30)

31)

32)
differentiating the above equation

By (1) & (2) we get

33)

35) ______By snell's law

36)

37)

for real object, convex mirror always forms virtual image

38)

39)

In plane mirror
 Real object Virtual image
Virtual image Real object

40)

Relative vel b/w image and object is

42)

Dist b/w object image

=15 cm

43)

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) Question explanation

Calculate amount of acetic acid in 500 ml of 0.2m Solution
Given Data
Molarity = 0.2M
Volume of Solution = 500ml
Concept

Calculation

w = 6g
Answer = option 2

48) Wt of water = 725 gm Molality = = 55.5 m

49)

Molality is defined as no. of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 g of solvent

50)

Since M = and volume increases with increase in temperature.

66)

(XA)
XA = 0.5

69) M1V1 = M2V2

(0.5) (100) = (0.1) (V2)
V2 = 500 ml
Vwater added = 500 – 100
= 400 ml

71)

72) KH is inversely proportional to solubility.

73)

77) B is more volatile →

83)

Equal moles of CH4 and SO2

86)

89) ∵ M =

∴M=

= = 0.1 M
 90) Molality =

m=

b=

MM =

BOTANY

91) NCERT PG NO : 154

92) NCERT Pg No : 153

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109) NCERT Pg No : 156

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113) Fact based

114)

fact Based

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127) Fact based

128) NCERT Pg No : 157

129) Fact based

130) NCERT Pg No : 155

131) Fact based

132) Fact based

133) Fact based

134) Fact based

135)

Fact based

ZOOLOGY

137)

NCERT Pg No : 183

139) NCERT Pg No : 184

140) NCERT XI Pg. # 275

141)

NCERT Pg No : 184
142)

NCERT Pg No : 185

143) NCERT Pg. # 185

144) NCERT Pg. # 183

145)

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153)

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164) NCERT Pg No : 186, figure - 14.2(B)

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170) NCERT-XI, Pg. No : 185

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