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10th Grade Physics Workbook: Harmonic Motion

The document is a workbook for 10th-grade physics students at Nasir Higher Secondary School for the academic year 2023-2024. It contains various questions related to simple harmonic motion, sound waves, and their properties, including multiple-choice questions and constructed response questions. The workbook is designed to assess students' understanding of wave mechanics and related concepts.

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hifsa bushra
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
52 views193 pages

10th Grade Physics Workbook: Harmonic Motion

The document is a workbook for 10th-grade physics students at Nasir Higher Secondary School for the academic year 2023-2024. It contains various questions related to simple harmonic motion, sound waves, and their properties, including multiple-choice questions and constructed response questions. The workbook is designed to assess students' understanding of wave mechanics and related concepts.

Uploaded by

hifsa bushra
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

NASIR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL

PHYSICS 10TH
WORKBOOK 2023-2024

NAME___________________________
ROLL NUMBER____________________
CLASS___________________________
SECTION_______________________

PREPARED BY: RAZIULLAH


UNIT 10 (Simple harmonic motion)
1. If a radio station broadcasts its transmission at 600 kHz, with a speed of radio waves at
3 × 108 m/s, then the wave length is
A. 300 m B. 400 m C. 500 m D. 600 m

2. If a stone is dropped in a tank of water, then the waves formed on the surface of the water are
called
A. travelling waves. B. stationary waves. C. transverse waves D. longitudinal waves.

3. Waves transmit
A. force. B. inertia. C. energy D. momentum.

4. In the cross section of a bowl, a metallic ball executed simple harmonic motion. If the ball starts
its motion from point A, then at which point will it have the maximum kinetic energy?

5. Which of the following produces longitudinal waves in the particles of a medium?


A. Vibration in a rope
B. To and fro motion in a spring
C. Vibration on the surface of water
D. To and fro motion of a bob in a simple pendulum

6. Which of the following pendulums has the least time period?

7. In the given figure of a wave the arrow is indicating


A. trough. B. amplitude. C. wave length. D. displacement

8. Which of the following depicts the appropriate change in wave length and speed of water
waves, when they pass from deep to shallow water?

Page 1 of 182
9. In the given figure the frequency of the wave source is 3 Hz. The velocity of the wave will be

A. 0.5 cm/s B. 12 cm/s C. 20 cm/s D. 45 cm/s

10. The given diagram shows two persons holding the opposite ends of a rope.
If one person gives an up and down jerk to the rope, then which of the following types of wave is
produced in the rope?

A. Periodic wave B. Transverse wave


C. Longitudinal wave D. Electromagnetic wave

11. If a pendulum makes 22 complete cycles of vibration in 11 seconds, then its frequency will be
A. 0.5 Hz B. 1.0 Hz C. 2.0 Hz D. 4.0 Hz
12. Which of the following will happen when water waves enter the shallow part of a ripple tank?

13. All of the following means are used to transfer energy from one place to another
EXCEPT
A. matter. B. charges. C. mechanical waves .D. electromagnetic waves.

14. Wars on Earth are very noisy affairs but a war in space will be very quiet because
A. space is very far from the Earth.
B. sound waves cannot travel through a vacuum.
C. sound waves lose energy as they reach the Earth.
D. sound waves are blocked by the planets in space.

15. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, then the time period of the wave will
A. become double. B. decrease to half.
C. remain the same. D. decrease to a quarter.
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16. If the velocity of a sound wave is 340 m/s and its frequency is 200 Hz, then the wavelength of
this sound wave will be
A. 0.6 m B. 1.7 m C. 140 m D. 540 m

17. A sound wave is a mechanical wave. This means that


A. sound wave transports energy through vacuum.
B. particles of the medium move with the speed of light.
C. a medium is required for sound wave to transport energy.
D. particles of the medium move perpendicular to the direction of motion.

18. Which of the following depicts the appropriate change in wavelength and speed of water
waves, when they pass from deep to shallow water?

19. In the given figure, the frequency of the wave source is 3 Hz. The velocity of the wave will be

A. 0.5 cm/s B. 12 cm/s C. 20 cm/s D. 45 cm/s

20. A sound wave is a mechanical wave. This means that it CANNOT transport energy through
A. solids. B. liquids. C. plasma. D. vacuum.

21. If the particles of a medium move back and forth along the direction of propagation of a wave,
then this type of wave is known as
A. surface wave. B. transverse wave.
C. longitudinal wave. D. electromagnetic wave.

22. If a mechanical wave moves from a lighter to a denser medium, then which of the following
factors will change during refraction?
I. Wavelength
II. Speed of wave
III. Frequency of wave
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III
23. In a transverse wave, the individual particles of the medium move
A. in a circle.
B. in an ellipse.

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C. parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
D. perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.

24. In a ripple tank, the factor(s) which change during refraction of water waves is/ are
I. wavelength
II. speed of wave
III. frequency of wave
A. I only. B. III only. C. I and II. D. II and III.

25. If the particles of a medium vibrate in the direction of propagation of wave, then it is called a/ an
A. surface wave. B. transverse wave. C. longitudinal wave. D. electromagnetic wave.

26. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, then the time period of the wave will
A. become double. B. decrease to half.
C. remain the same. D. decrease to a quarter.

27. If the time period of a simple pendulum is 2 s on the surface of the Earth, then the time period of the same
pendulum on the surface of the Moon will be
A. greater than 2 s. B. equal to 2 s. C. less than 2 s. D. equal to 0 s.

28. If a mechanical wave moves from a rare to the denser medium, then which of the following factors will
change during refraction?
I. Wavelength II. Speed of wave III. Frequency of wave
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III

29. In the given figure, the frequency of the wave source is 3 Hz.

The velocity of the wave will be


A. 0.5 cm/s. B. 12 cm/s. C. 20 cm/s. D. 45 cm/s.

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q1. Reflection, refraction, interference and diffraction are the properties of waves. With the help of a
ripple tank, discuss any TWO of them and draw any ONE diagram.

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Q.2. (Total 4 Marks)


Name the property of the wave which is shown in the figures below and describe briefly what is
happening in each figure.

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Q3. Two types of wave are shown in the figures given below. Identify and define each type of wave
and explain any ONE of them.

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Q.4. (Total 4 Marks)


What type of motion is exhibited in the given figure? Write any THREE characteristics of this type of
motion.

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Q5. A transverse wave is shown in the given diagram.

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What is the value of amplitude and wavelength of the wave in the above figure? If the frequency
of the wave is 10 Hz, then find its velocity in m/sec and time period.
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Q.6. (Total 4 Marks)


A, B, C and D in the given figure represent particles in a medium through which waves are passing
continuously in the direction indicated by the arrows.

Describe how these particles will move through the following types of waves.
i. Transverse waves
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ii. Longitudinal waves
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Q.7. (Total 5 Marks)


a. How are mechanical and electromagnetic waves different from each other? Describe in FIVE
points. OR
Describe any FIVE differences between mechanical and electromagnetic waves. (5 Marks)
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Q.8. (Total 4 Marks)
The given diagram shows a wave travelling along a slinky spring. Identify and define the type of wave
travelling in the spring. Also name the regions in the given spaces.

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Q.9. (Total 5 Marks)


a. How can the waves in a ripple tank be made to travel more slowly and when this happens, what
will be its effect on frequency and wavelength of the waves?
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Q10. Name the given instrument. Reflection, refraction and diffraction are properties of waves. With
the help of the given instrument, describe any TWO of them.

Page 8 of 182
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Q.11. (Total 4 Marks)
A graph of displacement versus time for an oscillatory system is shown below.

a. State the type of oscillatory system shown in the graph. (1 Mark)


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b. What does the graph suggest? (1 Mark)
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c. Write the reason of the phenomenon shown in the graph by mentioning TWO points. (2 Marks)
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Q.12. (Total 4 Marks)

Page 9 of 182
A pendulum of length 1.00 m has a period of 2.01 s, when it is allowed to swing at a height of
8954.0 m on Mount Everest.
i. Calculate the gravitational acceleration of the pendulum. (2 Marks)
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ii. Explain the difference, if the same pendulum is allowed to swing at sea level. (1 Mark)
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iii. Give a scientific reason for the difference noted in part (ii). (1 Mark)
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Q13.
i. Write formula for the speed of a wave. (1 Mark)
ii. ‘Waves are only the means of energy transfer, without the transfer of matter.’ (4 Marks)
Describe any FOUR examples in the light of the above statement.
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Q.14. (Total 4 Marks)

Page 10 of 182
The given diagram shows three waves covering the same distance from points (A) to (B) in 2
seconds.

a. Write the frequency of any TWO waves. (2 Marks)


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b. Which of the labelled waves, (1), (2) or (3), has the greatest speed and why? (2 Marks)
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Q.15. (Total 4 Marks)
You are given an assignment to operate a radio station broadcasting your school news and activities. If your
school allocated a radio wave frequency of FM 80 Hz, then calculate the wavelength and time period of the
signal of your school’s radio station.
8
(Note: The speed of light in vacuum is v = 3 × 10 m/s.)
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Q16. A simple pendulum is attached with 4 m long string.
i. Find the time period of the simple pendulum if it is placed in an elevator moving upwards with an acceleration
of 8 m/s2. (3 Marks)
ii. If the elevator is moving downwards with an acceleration of 8 m/s2, then what will be its time period? (2
Marks)
(Note: The value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ is 9.8 m/s2.)
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Page 12 of 182
Unit 11 ( Sound )
1. We can distinguish between two sounds of the same loudness and pitch by
A. the audible range. B. the quality of sound.
C. different instruments. D. the sensitivity of the ear.

2. Loudness of sound does NOT depend upon


A. area of vibrating body. B. amplitude of vibrating body.
C. distance from vibrating body. D. time period of vibrating body.

3. Ultrasound is used for different purposes. Which of the following is NOT a current use of
ultrasound?
A. Detection of fault in engine B. Measure the depth of an ocean
C. Diagnosis of different diseases D. Ranging and detection of aeroplanes

4. Four vibrating objects are producing sounds. Which of the following objects will produce
the loudest sound?

5. Sonar system is used for searching for hidden treasures under sea water. Which of the
following is used in the sonar system?
A. E.E.G B. X-rays C. C.T scan D. Ultrasound

6. Which of the following is the fourth factor upon which the loudness of sound depends?

A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Time period D. Wave length

7. Which of the following options represents the range of frequencies of sound that can be
heard by a normal human ear?

Page 13 of 182
8. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish between normal sound and faint
sound is its
A. pitch. B. quality. C. intensity. D. frequency.

9. Which of the following is CORRECT about the speed of sound with respect to its medium?

10. Which of the following is used to determine the pitch of the sound?
A. Speed B. Direction C. Frequency D. Number of beats

11. When sound travels through air, the air particles vibrate A. in
random direction.
B. along the direction of wave propagation.
C. perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
D. parallel and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

12. Which of the following characteristics of musical sound depends upon the frequency?
A. Pitch B. Quality C. Loudness D. Amplitude

13. The characteristic of sound by which two sound waves of same loudness and pitch can be
distinguished from each other is called the
A. speed of sound. B. quality of sound.
C. pressure of sound. D. intensity of sound.

14. The amount of sound energy transmitted per second through unit area which is held
perpendicularly in the direction of sound waves is called the
A. pitch of sound. B. intensity of sound.
C. loudness of sound. D. frequency of sound.

15. Hamid is playing a guitar. As he stops playing, the vibration of its strings gradually
decreases as the I. frequency decreases
II. amplitude decreases III. phase
changes
A. I only .B. II only. C. I and II. D. I and III.

Page 14 of 182
16. Four vibrating objects X1, X2, X3 and X4 are producing sounds. The object that produces the
loudest sound is

17. Sound energy passing per second through a unit area held perpendicular to the direction of propagation of
sound waves is called the
A. pitch of sound. B. quality of sound.
C. intensity of sound. D. loudness of sound.
18. When sound is incident on the surface of a medium, it bounces back into the first medium. This phenomenon
is called
A. an echo. B. the acoustic.
C. the loudness of sound. D. the amplitude of sound.
19. Which of the following characteristics of a musical sound depends upon the frequency?
A. Pitch B. Quality C. Loudness D. Amplitude

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q1. In the same diagram, draw another transverse wave travelling through the same medium with
twice the amplitude and frequency. (2 Marks)

Page 15 of 182
Q2. The depth of an ocean is measured by using ultrasonic. Explain how it works.
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Q3Describe any FIVE uses of ultrasound in our daily life.
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Q4. Unwanted noise can be a source of stress and irritation for many people. It also affects reading
ability and concentration of school going children.

Discuss that noise pollution has become a threat for our global living environment. Support your answer by
mentioning some major sources of noise pollution.
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Q5. Unwanted noise can be a source of stress and irritation for many people. It also affects reading
ability and concentration in school-going children

Discuss noise pollution with reference to the amplitude, frequency and wavelength of sound.
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Q6. Acoustics is the study of waves, vibrations and sound. Acoustic protection is the application of
soft and porous material to protect individuals against undesirable sounds and noises.
Describe any FIVE points to highlight the significance of acoustic protection.
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Q7. Zain is a social worker who wants to create awareness regarding the use of acoustic protection in
the major cities of Pakistan. He is planning to publish a brochure to explain the advantages of
acoustic protection to the general public.
As a physics student, suggest FIVE advantages of acoustic protection which should be published
in this brochure. (5 Marks)
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i. Define the term ‘echo’. (1 Mark)
ii. ‘When an empty room starts to get filled with people, the echo in the room decreases.’
Elaborate the given statement. (4 Marks)
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Q8. Ali produces a sound in a big empty hall. He hears a recurring sound resembling to his original sound.
i. Name the phenomenon of the sound wave that Ali observed. (1 Mark)
ii. Explain how it is produced in FOUR points. (4 Marks)
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Unit 12 ( Geometrical optics)
1. Which ray of light makes a critical angle?

2. A defect of a human eye is shown in the diagram. Which optical media will be used to correct this
defect?

A. Convex lens. B. Concave lens. C. Convex mirror. D. Concave mirror.

3. Which is the correct representation of rays shown in the diagram?

Page 20 of 182
4. An object of 3 cm height is lying at a distance of 9 cm from a concave mirror. If the image is
formed at a distance of 12 cm from the pole of the concave mirror, then the size of the image is
A. 4 cm B. 9 cm C. 15 cm D. 36 cm
5. Where should an object be placed to get an erect and virtual image by a concave mirror?
A. At F B. Beyond C
C. Between F and P D. Between C and F

6. The focal length of a concave mirror is 10 cm. An object of height 5 cm is lying at its focus. What
is the image distance of the object?

A. 0 B. 5 cm C. 10 cm D. Can not be defined

7. In the given ray diagram, which pair of angles states angle of incidence and angle of refraction
respectively?

A. ∠ 1 and ∠ 3 B. ∠ 1 and ∠ 4
C. ∠ 2 and ∠ 3 D. ∠ 2 and ∠ 4

8. The phenomenon due to which a pool of water appears less deep than actual is called
A. reflection. B. refraction. C. diffraction. D. interference.
Page 21 of 182
9. If a light ray strikes the smooth surface of the given plane mirror, then the angle of incidence will
be

A. ∠1 B. ∠2 C. ∠3 D. ∠4

10. If the angle of incidence (∠i) in the given figure is 40°, then the angle of refraction ( ∠r)
will be

A. less than 40° B. 40° C. more than 40° D. 50°

11. Where will an image form in the given diagram if the magnification is 1?

A. At F B. Between F and 2F C. At 2F D. Beyond 2F

12. The given diagram shows the position of an image of a very distant object produced by an
eye. Which of the following correctly indicates the defect of vision and its cure?

Page 22 of 182
13. When an object is placed between the principal focus and the centre of curvature of a
convex lens, then the image will be
A. real. B. erect. C. virtual. D. small in size.

14. The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to


A. the radius of curvature. B. half of the radius of curvature.
C. one third of the radius of curvature. D. one fourth of the radius of curvature.

15. If the real depth of a swimming pool is 2 m and the refractive index of water is 1.33, then the
apparent depth of the pool will be
A. 1.0 m B. 1.5 m C. 2.5 m D. 3.0 m
16. In the given diagram, a light ray is passing through a prism. Which of the following angles
represents the angle of deviation?

A. ∠ 1 B. ∠ 2 C. ∠ 3 D. ∠ 4

17. Light bends towards normal when it enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium then its
A. speed decreases. B. intensity increases.
C. frequency decreases. D. wavelength increases.

18. The occurrence of total internal reflection will be possible when I. angle of
incidence is less than the critical angle.
II. angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
III. light enters from a denser medium to a rarer medium.
Which of the following is CORRECT about the given situation?
A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. II and III
19. A long sighted person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearer objects
distinctly. In this defect, rays from nearby objects are focused
A. at the blind spot. B. in front of retina.
C. behind the retina. D. at the centre of retina.

Page 23 of 182
20. Where should an object be placed to get an erect and virtual image using a concave mirror?

A. At F B. Beyond C C. Between F and P D. Between C and F

21. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature in front of a converging lens, then the image
of the object will be formed
A. at the principle focus.
B. at the centre of curvature.
C. beyond the centre of curvature.
D. between the principle focus and the centre of curvature.

22. Which of the following phenomena of light occurs in optical fibre?


A. Refraction B. Diffraction C. Interference D. Total internal reflection

23. The nature of the image formed at objective and eye piece by the given optical instrument will
be

24. According to the given ray diagram which of the following is/ are TRUE?
I. ∠AOD = ∠BOD
II. ∠AOD = ∠COB
III. ∠AOD is greater than ∠COE

Page 24 of 182
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III only
25. If an object is placed at 8 cm in front of a concave mirror and the focal length of the mirror is 4
cm, then the image will be formed at
A. 2 cm B. 4 cm C. 8 cm D. 12 cm
26. Where will an image form in the given diagram if the magnification is 1?

A. At F B. Between F and 2F C. At 2F D. Beyond 2F

27. In the given diagram, the refractive index of the denser medium with respect to the rarer
medium can be calculated by

Page 25 of 182
28. An eye and a camera are similar in function because image formed by both are
A. virtual, erect and larger in size.
B. real, inverted and larger in size.
C. virtual, erect and smaller in size.
D. real, inverted and smaller in size.

29. The purpose of using convex lenses in an astronomical telescope is to


A. reflect light rays from distant objects.
B. absorb light rays from distant objects.
C. diverge light rays from distant objects.
D. converge light rays from distant objects.

30. Which of the following defect(s) in vision occurs when the aperture of an eye ball
increases?
I. Astigmatism
II. Long-sightedness
III. Short-sightedness
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II
31. In the given ray diagram, a defect and its correction in a human eye is shown.

Page 26 of 182
The optical media X used to correct this defect is a
A. convex lens. B. concave lens. C. convex mirror. D. concave mirror.

32. In the given diagram, the angle X is called the

A. right angle. B. critical angle. C. angle of reflection. D. angle of deviation.

33. In the given figure, if the angle of incidence (∠i) is 40°, then the angle of refraction ( ∠r )
will be (Note: The refractive index of glass is 1.5)

I. less than 40°


II. equal to 40°
III. more than 40°
A. I only. B. II only. C. I and III. D. II and III.

34. When a white light passes through a prism it bends into seven different colours. This bending of
colours increases as the
A. intensity of light increases. B. amplitude of light increases.
C. frequency of light decreases. D. wavelength of light decreases.

35. In the given ray diagram, if an object is placed at (2F) in front of a converging lens, then what
will be the distance between the optical centre (O) and image of the object?

Page 27 of 182
A. 8 cm B. 12 cm C. 20 cm D. 36 cm
36. The given diagram shows the position of an image produced by an eye of a very distant
object.

Which of the following correctly indicates the defect of vision and its correction measure as shown
in the diagram?

37. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a spherical mirror. As a result, the


image formed behind the mirror is at a distance of 6 cm. The focal length of the mirror is
A. 4 cm. B. 6 cm. C. 12 cm. D. 18 cm.

38. When a ray of light enters from a rare medium to a denser medium, it bends in the direction
A. towards the normal. B. parallel to the normal.
C. away from the normal. D. perpendicular to the normal.

39. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis is refracted by a convex lens. After refraction it
passes through the
I. optical centre
II. principal focus
III. centre of curvature
A. I only. B. II only. C. I and III. D. II and III.

40. Double convex lens is used as a simple microscope when the object is placed A. on
principal focus (F).
B. on centre of curvature (2F).
C. between principal focus (F) and optical centre (O).
D. between principal focus (F) and centre of curvature (2F).

41. Which of the following optical media is used for the correction of short-sightedness?

Page 28 of 182
A. Convex lens B. Concave lens C. Convex mirror D. Concave mirror

42. All of the following are the uses of a compound microscope EXCEPT it

A. is used for observing microorganisms.

B. helps human beings in the field of medical testing.

C. helps to find the heavenly bodies in the outer space.

D. is used in the forensics to examine evidences from a crime scene.

43. An object is placed between the principal focus (F) and the centre of curvature (2F).
An image will be formed on the other side of the convex lens
A. at F. B. at 2F. C. beyond 2F. D. between F and 2F.

44. Which of the following is/ are the condition(s) necessary for the total internal reflection?

I. Angle of incidence is always greater than the critical angle.

II. Angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of refraction.

III. Light rays should always travel from a rare medium to the denser medium.
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III

45. An image is formed at a distance of 32 cm from a concave mirror which has a focal length of 12 cm. The
object distance is
A. – 0.052 cm. B. – 19.2 cm. C. 20.0 cm. D. 32.0 cm.

46. The floor of a water tank appears at a depth of 3 m. If the refractive index of water is 1.33, then the actual
depth of water is
A. 0.44 m. B. 1.67 m. C. 2.25 m. D. 3.99 m.

47. Compared to the eye piece of a compound microscope, the focal length of the objective lens of an
astronomical telescope is
A. larger. B. smaller. C. infinite. D. negative.

48. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the image formed by a convex mirror?
A. It is real. B. It is inverted.
C. It is smaller than the object. D. It is always formed at the principal focus.

49. In a compound microscope, the focal length of the objective lens as compared to the eye piece is always
A. larger. B. smaller. C. infinite. D. of same size.

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q.1.

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a. Which of the above diagrams shows total internal reflection? (1 Mark)
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b. What are the TWO conditions that are necessary for total internal reflection? (2 Marks)
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c. Find the refractive index of water if its critical angle is 45o. (1 Mark)
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Q2. A student finds that in order to read white board, he/she has to move closer to the board although
he/she can read books very easily. Write the name and cause of the defect with ray diagram and
how it can be removed. Draw a ray diagram related to the removing of this defect.
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Q3. Complete the given ray diagram and calculate the value of p, q and f, if p + q = 50 cm.

Page 30 of 182
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Q.4. (Total 5 Marks)


A convex lens is placed between an object and the screen to get a real image which is magnified
3 times. If the distance between the object and the screen is 60 cm, find the value of p and q.
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Q5. Complete the given ray diagram of a compound microscope.

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Q6. Where should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm, so as to get
its real image magnified 4 times?
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Q.7. (Total 5 Marks)


Complete the given ray diagram.

Find the position and nature of image by using the information in the above ray diagram.
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Q.8. (Total 5 Marks)


EITHER
a. Describe the long and short sightedness of the human eye with the help of diagrams. Also
mention a way to correct short sightedness.
OR
b. Determine the magnifying power of a compound microscope.
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Q.9. (Total 5 Marks)


a. State the laws of refraction. (2 Marks)
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b. Find the values of refractive index for the given diagrams and also calculate their average.

Q.10. (Total 5 Marks)


EITHER
a. Complete the given table, when an object is placed before a concave mirror at different position.

b. The given diagrams show defects of a human eye.

Identify the defects in the above diagrams. Why are the rays not converging on the retina in both
cases? Explain how these defects can be corrected.
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Q.11. (Total 5 Marks)
a. Briefly describe the working of an optical fibre with the help of the given diagram. (3 Marks)

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b. Describe the relation between critical angle and refractive index of a substance. (2 Marks)
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Q.12. (Total 5 Marks)
EITHER
a. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope.
OR
b. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a telescope OR
a. Telescope is an optical instrument that uses two different lenses named as objective and eyepiece.
To obtain clear and brighter image of the distant astronomical objects, a bigger objective lens as compared to the
eyepiece is used in the telescope. Draw a labelled ray diagram of this type of working telescope. (5 Marks)

Page 35 of 182
Q.2.
(Total 3 Marks)
Q13- Categorise the following as True OR False and give a reason to justify any ONE of your answers.
i. Light travels slower through glass than empty space. ____________
ii. When light travels from glass to air, its path bends towards the normal. ____________
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Q.14. (Total 2 Marks)

Page 36 of 182
The below diagram shows the phenomenon of total internal reflection.

Write TWO conditions for the occurrence of total internal reflection.


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Q.15. (Total 5 Marks)
a. An image placed under a glass slab appears to be raised by 8 mm.
If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, find the actual thickness of the glass slab.

b. If the focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm and an object is placed at the distance of 10.5 cm from it,
then find the distance of the image formed.
(Note: Extract and write data from the given question.)

Page 37 of 182
Q.16. (Total 2 Marks)
State laws of refraction.
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Q.17. (Total 3 Marks)
Label the given diagram by putting (normal, angle of incidence and refracted ray) in appropriate
Positions

Q.18. (Total 5 Marks)


EITHER
Page 38 of 182
a. The given diagram shows a glass slab PQRS. A ray of light incident on the side PQ of the glass
o
slab is making an angle of 60 .

o
If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5 and value of sin60 is 0.866, then calculate the
angle of refraction and sine of critical angle ( sin∠C ) for the given glass slab.
–1 o
(Where sin (0.577) = 35.2 )
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Q19. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. Find the
position and state the nature of image.
(Note: Extract data from the given question and provide your answer in SI unit.)
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Q.20. (Total 2 Marks)
i. Define power of a lens. (1 Mark)
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ii. Write its S.I. unit. (1 Mark)
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Page 39 of 182
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Q.21. (Total 3 Marks)
If the real depth of a swimming pool is 5.50 m, then calculate the apparent depth of the swimming
pool.
(Note: The refractive index n of water is 1.33.)
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Q22. The given diagram shows an incident ray PQ is reaching a glass prism. Complete the ray diagram
illustrating the following.
i. Normal (1 Mark)
ii. Refracted ray (1 Mark)
iii. Emergent ray (1 Mark)
iv. Angle of deviation (1 Mark)
v. Angle of emergent (1 Mark)

b. An astronomer uses a telescope to observe stars at night.


Complete the following ray diagram to show the refraction of light which allows him to see the
stars through the telescope. (5 Marks)

Q.23. (Total 3 Marks)


Identify the following as ‘True’ OR ‘False’ and give a reason to justify any ONE of your answers.
a. Light travels slower through glass than empty space. ____________ (1 Mark)

Page 40 of 182
b. When light travels from glass to air, its path bends towards the normal. ____________ (1 Mark)
Justification: (1 Mark)
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Q.24. (Total 2 Marks)
Mention TWO conditions for the occurrence of total internal reflection.
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Q25. Draw a well labelled ray diagram to illustrate the formation of an enlarged and virtual image
through a converging mirror.

b. Consider the given ray diagram.

Page 41 of 182
Calculate the value of focal length (f), if (q = 4p).
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Q.26. (Total 3 Marks)
a. Why does a ray of light bend when it crosses the boundary of two media? (1 Mark)
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b. In what direction with respect to normal, does a ray of light bend when it travels through the following media?
(2 Marks)
i. From air to water
ii. From glass to water
i.
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ii.
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Q.27.
Write any TWO uses of total internal reflection in light propagation. (Total 2 Marks)
1. _________________________________________________________________________________

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Page 42 of 182
2.
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Q28. An old man who can read sign boards on roads struggle to read a newspaper or a book.
i. Identify the defect in his vision and write its cause. Also, show this defect with the help of a ray diagram. (3
Marks)
ii. Name the lens that can correct this defect. Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.
(2 Marks)
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Page 43 of 182
Unit 13 ( Electrostatics )
1. A capacitor is a device used to
A. store charge .B. convert A.C to D.C.
C. stop the flow of current. D. stop the function in the electric supply.

2. All of the following are properties of electric lines of force EXCEPT


A. they all cross each other.
B. they are vector quantities.
C. they define the intensity of electric fields.
D. they start from positive charge and terminate at negative charge.

3. A hair comb becomes positively charged because


A. hair has extra positive charge.
B. neutrons were created in the comb.
C. the comb loses electrons to the hair.
D. hair acquires extra protons from the comb.

4. Which of the following properties of electric field lines is FALSE?


A. They are vector quantities.
B. They never intersect each other.
C. They try to follow the longest path.
D. They start from positive and terminate at negative charge.

5. A negatively charged metallic rod is brought close to a neutral object. Which figure is
correct about electrostatic induction?

6. How much charge will be deposited when two parallel plate capacitors, each of 3 μF are
connected with a battery of 50 V in a series?

Page 44 of 182
A. 7.5 × 10–5 coulombs B. 1.50 × 10–4 coulombs
C. 3.00 × 10–4 coulombs D. 4.50 × 10–4 coulombs

7. Which of the following is the correct representation of the electric field lines?

8. When two capacitors of the capacitance 4μF and 6μF are connected in series, then the
equivalent capacitance will be
A. 2.4μF B. 3.4μF C. 4.4μF D. 5.4μF

9. The equivalent capacitance of the given circuit is

A. 11/3 μ F B. 1/2 μ F C. 2 μ F D. 6 μ F

10. A hair comb becomes positively charged in use because


A. hairs have extra positive charge.
B. neutrons are created in the comb.
C. the comb loses electrons to the hair.
D. hairs gain extra protons from the comb.

Page 45 of 182
11. Which of the following is/ are TRUE for the given circuit?
I. Q1 = Q2
II. V = V2 −V1
III. C1 = C2

A. I only B. II only C. III only D. II and III


12. Which of the following is TRUE about type and magnitude of charges for the given figure?

13. The force per unit charge is known as


A. electric flux. B. electric current.
C. electric potential. D. electric field intensity.

14. When three capacitors of different capacitance are connected in a parallel combination, then
the total capacitance of the combination will be
A. lesser than the individual capacitance.
B. greater than the individual capacitance.
C. the sum of the capacitance of any two capacitors.
D. the product of the capacitance of all the three capacitors.

15. If two capacitors of 8 μF each are connected in parallel with one another, then their effective
capacitance will be
A. 0.12 μF B. 0.25 μF C. 8 μF D. 16 μF

16. Which of the following statements is FALSE about electric field lines?
A. They cross each other. B. They are imaginary lines.
C. They are vector quantities. D. They move towards negative charge.

17. A capacitor is a device which

Page 46 of 182
A. stores electric charges. B. allows flow of direct current.
C. blocks flow of alternating current. D. converts alternating current to direct current.

18. When a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk cloth, then the charge distribution on them
will Be

19. The Coulomb’s force between two identical charges is 80 N. If the distance
between the charges is doubled, then the force will be
A. 20 N. B. 40 N. C. 160 N. D. 320 N.

20. Two capacitors of capacitance 6 μF and 3 μF are connected in series across a cell of 18 V.
The equivalent capacitance will be
A. 2 μF. B. 3 μF. C. 6 μF. D. 9 μF.

21. All of the following are the precautions which should be taken during installation of any electrical equipment
EXCEPT
A. turn off any attached peripherals.
B. attach the electrical equipment to AC power.
C. wear shoes with non-conductive rubber soles.
D. disconnect any telecommunication lines from the system.

22. Photocopier and inkjet printers are the applications of


A. electricity. B. electronics. C. electrostatics. D. electromagnetism.

23. The direction of electric intensity to an electric field can be indicated by drawing lines. These lines are known
as
A. electric field lines. B. magnetic field lines.
C. magnetic field intensity. D. electromagnetic field intensity.

24. The electric force of repulsion between two electrons at a distance of 1 m is


9 2 2
(Note: The value of the constant of proportionality is 9 × 10 Nm /C and the charge on electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C.)
-1 -9 -28
A. 1.29 × 10 N. B. 1.44 × 10 N. C. 2.30 × 10 N. D. 2.30 × 10-30 N.

25. The equivalent capacitance of the given combination of the capacitors will be

A. 0.067 μF. B. 0.6 μF. C. 5 μF. D. 15 μF.

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S

Page 47 of 182
Q1. We often hear that during a thunder-storm, buildings are struck by lightning; this is a hazard of
electrostatic induction. Explain how this risk can be reduced. Write the names of any TWO
applications of this phenomenon.
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Q.2. (Total 6 Marks)


a. A positively charged balloon is brought near a neutral sphere as shown in the given figure. While
the balloon is near the sphere, it is touched to the ground.

i. Name the phenomenon which is shown in the above figure. (1 Mark)


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ii. Show distribution of charges on the figure B. (1 Mark)
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iii. In which direction do the charges flow in the figure C? (1 Mark)
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iv. Define parallel plate capacitor. (1 Mark)
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b. Find the equivalent capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel. (2 Marks)

Page 48 of 182
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Q3. Draw an electric field pattern in each of the following diagram.


i. Two negatively charged brass spheres are mounted on insulation rods

ii. Two oppositely charged ebonite plates

Q4-Plastics and clothes are insulators but when they are rubbed with each other, static electricity is
produced. How does this happens?
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Page 49 of 182
Q.5. (Total 6 Marks)
The diagram shows two charges placed near each other.

Write the formula of force:


i. between these two charges.
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ii. when distance between the charges is halved.
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iii. when magnitude of each charge is doubled.
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iv. when both charges are doubled and their distance becomes half.
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v. when magnitude of both charges and distance are doubled. Write its simplest form.
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Q6. Examine the given circuit diagram and identify the combination of the capacitors. Also derive an
expression for the effective capacitance.

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Page 50 of 182
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Q.7. (Total 6 Marks)


a. State and explain Coulomb’s law. (3 Marks)
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–6 –6
b. Find the force between the two electrostatic charges of 200 × 10 coulomb and 300 × 10
coulomb respectively placed in air, 0.003 m apart from each other. (3 Marks)

Q.8. (Total 5 Marks)


EITHER
a. In the given diagram, two metal spheres ‘A’ and ‘B’ are fixed on wooden stands and they are in
contact with each other

Explain how the metal spheres ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be charged, using a negatively charged ebonite
rod without touching them. Also provide diagrammatic illustration of the procedure.
OR
b. Name the type of circuit given below and describe all the components used in the circuit.

Page 51 of 182
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Q.9. (Total 6 Marks)
a. In the given figure, write the charges on the rod and describe why region B shows fewer charges.
Name the phenomenon involved in it. (3 Marks)

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Q.10. (Total 5 Marks)
a. Complete the given diagram of electric field surrounded by charges and describe how a glass rod
is charged if rubbed with a silk cloth.

Page 52 of 182
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Q.11. (Total 3 Marks)


a. Rubbing a balloon against hair causes the balloon and hair to become charged.
TRUE OR FALSE? (1 Mark)
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b. How will the total amount of charges present on the balloon and the hair change, if at all, after
the balloon is rubbed against the hair? Justify your answer. (2 Marks)

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Q.12 (Total 5 Marks)


a. Define electric field and electric field intensity. Write THREE points that can be concluded about
the electric field lines from the given diagram.

Page 53 of 182
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Q.13. (Total 3 Marks)
Two different capacitors of capacitance 6 μF and 12 μF are connected in series combination. If a
battery of 12 V is connected with the circuit, then find the equivalent capacitance of the combination.
Also draw a circuit diagram of this combination.
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Q14. Describe in any FIVE points, how electrostatic induction is used in spray painting and in the
extracting of dust from dirty carpets and from the chimneys of industrial machinery.
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Page 54 of 182
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Q.15. (Total 3 Marks)
i. Identify the given phenomenon in the given diagram. (1 Mark)

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ii. Mention any TWO hazards of the phenomenon identified in part (i). (2 Marks)
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Q16-The given two coins carry identical charge and experience a repulsive force of 5 N.

Calculate the value of charge on each coin. (5 Marks)


9 2 2
(Note: The value of the constant of proportionality ‘k’ is 9 × 10 Nm /C .)
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Q.17. (Total 3 Marks)
Define the following:
a. Electric field (1 Mark)

Page 55 of 182
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b. Electric field intensity (1 Mark)
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c. Electrostatic potential (1 Mark)
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Q18. Three capacitors of capacitance (C1), (C2) and (C3) are shown in the given figures.

i. Draw a circuit diagram to show the parallel combination of the given capacitors with a
power source. (3 Marks)
ii. Calculate the effective (equivalent) capacitance of the given capacitors in series
combination. (2 Marks)
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Q.19. (Total 3 Marks)
Name any THREE devices that work on the basis of electrostatic phenomena.
1. _________________________________________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________________________________________
3. _________________________________________________________________________________
Q20 -i. Why large electrostatic charges can be dangerous? Give ONE example of it from daily life.
(2 Marks)
ii. Long vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have a metallic chain touching the ground during
motion. Describe this statement using the phenomenon of electrostatic charges and friction. (3 Marks)
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Page 56 of 182
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Page 57 of 182
Unit 14 (Current Electricity)
1. Materials with a high resistance to the flow of current and capable of being polarized by an
electrical field are
A. insulators. B. dielectrics. C. conductors. D. semiconductors.

2. A device which maintains current and voltage for different components in an electric circuit is
known as
A. a battery. B. a voltmeter. C. an ammeter. D. a transistors.
3. Which of the following fuses would be the most suitable for a circuit in which a 2000 W kettle is
connected to a 240 V supply?
A. 3 A B. 6 A C. 8 A D. 12 A
4. Which of the following combinations of resistors is equivalent to the highest resistance

produced in a circuit i.e. ( R1 = R2 = R3 = 2Ω ) ?

5. An electric circuit is shown below. Which of the two electrical devices is connected in series and
in parallel?

6. Which of the following options correctly shows Ohm‟s law?

7. What will be the effect of increasing temperature of thermistor on its resistance?


I. Resistance increases if temperature increases
II. Resistance decreases if temperature increases
III. Resistance increases if temperature decreases
IV. No change in resistance

Page 58 of 182
A. I and II B. II only C. III only D. III and IV

8. A circuit diagram is shown below. The potential difference between point X and point Y will be.

A. 3 volt B. 6 volt C. 8 volt D. 12 volt


9. Which of the following should be done to increase a circuit‟s resistance with an existing
resistor?

10. Which of the following statements are CORRECT when there is no short circuit?
I Current flows through the earth wire.
II Current does not flow through the earth wire.
III All the currents from the neutral wire flow to the live wire.
IV All the currents from the live wire flow to the neutral wire.
A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV
11. Which of the following is NOT representing volt?
A. electrostatic potential. C. potential difference.
B. electromotive force. D. potential energy.

12. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?

13. If the electric current through a resistor is 2 A and potential difference across the
resistor is 6 V, then the value of power dissipated in the resistor will be
A. 3 W B. 4 W C. 8 W D. 12 W
14. In the given circuit diagram, a 100 W bulb is operated with 220 V source, the current passing
through the bulb is

Page 59 of 182
A. (100 × 220) A B. (220 / 100) A C. (100 / 220) A D. (220 + 100) A

15. If three resistors of 6 Ω each are connected in series combination, then the value of effective
resistance will be equal to
A. – 6 Ω B. 0 Ω C. 0.5 Ω D. 18 Ω

16. If current of 20 A flows through the live wire, then the current in the neutral wire will be
A. 0 A B. 10 A C. 20 A D. 40 A
17. If a 200 Watt bulb glows for 1,000 hours, then the energy consumed by it will be
A. 200 kWh B. 800 kWh C. 1,200 kWh D. 8,00,000 kWh

[Link] of the following options gives the equivalent resistance of 2 Ω?

19. The quantity that remains the same in parallel combination of resistance is
A. voltage. B. conductance. C. electric power. D. electric current

20. The cost of energy is Rs 12/kWh. If 100 watt light bulb glows for 8 hours a day, then the cost of
energy consumed per day will be
A. Rs 6.6 B. Rs 9.6 C. Rs 66 D. Rs 96
21. The earth wire in an electrical appliance is connected to a
A. fuse. B. metal case. C. switch button. D. plastic handle.

22. All electrical appliances are connected parallel to each other between the live and neutral wires.
In light of the given statement, which of the following options is TRUE for electric current and potential
difference?

23. If three resistors of 5 Ω each are connected to form a triangle, then the resistance between any two vertices
(terminals) will be
A. 0.3 Ω. B. 3.333 Ω. C. 5 Ω. D. 15 Ω.

24. If the length and diametre of a solid cylindrical shape conductor is doubled, then the resistance will
A. reduce to half. B. reduce to quarter.
C. increase two times. D. increase four times.

Page 60 of 182
25. If three equal resistors and a battery are given, then how many different combinations of workable circuits
can be made?
A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six

26. Consider two metallic conductors A and B. Suppose, the length of a metallic conductor A is increased and the
cross-sectional area of the metallic conductor B is also increased.
What will be the effect on the resistance of both conductors?

27. The energy dissipated by a 100 W bulb in 60 s is


A. 1600 J. B. 3200 J. C. 3600 J. D. 6000 J.

28. Which of the following points (1 to 4) in the given circuit will receive the lowest magnitude of current?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S

Q.1. (Total 4 Marks)


Two resistors of 18 ohms and 36 ohms are connected in parallel with a 24 volt battery. An ammeter is also
placed in series to read the total current passing through the circuit.
a. Draw a diagram of this circuit. (1 Mark)

b. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the circuit. (3 Marks)


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[Link] the total resistance and the amount of current passing through the given circuit.

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b. The given diagrams show the readings of an electric current through a resistor and the potential
difference across it.

Calculate the power dissipated in the resistor and the energy used in units when 3 kW room
heater is turn on for 4 hours.
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Q3. In the given circuit diagram, what is the potential difference across:

i. 3Ω resistor
ii. 6Ω resistor
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b. State Ohm’s law and write the value of R in the given table. (3 Marks)

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Q4. In the given circuit diagram, bulbs are joined in series. Re-draw the diagram to show parallel
combination of the bulbs. Calculate the effective resistance of both circuits by using information
given in the diagram.

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Q.5. (Total 3 Marks)


Describe and draw the current-voltage (I-V) characteristics graph for a metallic conductor, a filament lamp
and a thermistor.

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b. Identify the given electrical instruments used in household circuits and describe their working

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Q.6. (Total 3 Marks)


According to the safety measures, arrange the given points so that a fuse can protect an electrical
circuit.
• fuse wire heats up
• circuit is broken so current stops

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• current becomes too high
1. _________________________________________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________________________________________
3. ______________________________________________________________________________
b. Describe any FIVE safety measures that should be taken in connection with the household
circuit.
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Q.7. (Total 3 Marks)
The given figure shows a power plug.

i. How is the safety of an electrical appliance secured by using a fuse in the power plug? (1 Mark)
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ii. If the rating of the fuse shown in the given figure is 12 ampere and it is working at 240 volt, then
calculate the power of the fuse. (2 Marks)
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b. Assume a charged particle of 80 C is to be transferred through a potential difference of 40 V in time 20
s. Calculate the following:
i. Work done (3 Marks)
ii. Power (2 Marks)
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Page 66 of 182
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Q.8. (Total 3 Marks)
The given figure shows a power plug.

a. State the function of the earth wire shown in the given figure. (1 Mark)
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b. Describe the working of a fuse in the power plug. (1 Mark)
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c. What would happen when one touches a power plug with wet hands or when one is barefoot?
(1 Mark)
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Q9. The given circuit diagram shows the connection of two different resistors with a battery.

Calculate the following:


i. Effective (equivalent) resistance (3 Marks)
ii. Amount of current (2 Marks)
(Note: Provide your answers in S.I. units.)
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Q.10. (Total 3 Marks)
Is it possible that small bends in a current carrying wire affect its electrical resistance? Justify your answer
keeping in view the factors affecting electrical resistance.
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b. Does the resistance of a metallic conductor rise with an increase in temperature? Explain your answer with
suitable reasons. (5 Marks)
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Page 68 of 182
Unit 15 (Electromagnetism)
1. An electric motor converts one form of energy to another. Which of the following conversions of
energy is applicable to the above statement?
A. Electrical to heat. B. Electrical to solar.
C. Electrical to mechanical. D. Electrical to geo-thermal.

2. Using the information in the given figure, the secondary voltage will be

A. 180 V B. 240 V C. 320 V D. 4500 V

4. In the given diagram, a rectangular current carrying coil is lying between the poles of a magnet.
The direction of motion in the coil will be

A. vertically upward. C. vertically downward.


B. clockwise rotation. D. anticlockwise rotation.

5. A DC motor works on the principle of


A. heating effect. B. magnetic effect. C. Compton’s effect. D. photoelectric effect.

6. Which of the following devices is an example of electromagnetic induction?


A. DC motor B. Electric bell C. Galvanometer D. AC generator

7. According to Fleming‟s left hand rule, the position of thumb shows the
A. force. B. torque. C. magnetic field. D. electric current.

8. All of the following are the factors affecting the magnitude of an induced emf EXCEPT
A. resistance in electric circuit.
B. current passing through the conductor.
C. speed of the conductor through the field.
D. length of the conductor moving through the field.

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9. The purpose of the iron core in a transformer is to
A. make it more electromagnetic.
B. separate primary winding from secondary winding.
C. conduct current from primary to secondary winding.
D. conduct magnetic flux from one set of windings to the other.

10. Which of the following devices is shown in the given diagram at position 3?

A. A resistor B. A capacitor C. A generator D. A transformer

11. The given diagram shows that current is flowing through a wire.

Which of the following options represents the magnetic field produced by the current in the wire?

12. Which of the following transformers is used for decreasing output voltage?

13. Which of the following devices is used to increase or decrease Alternating Current?
A. Ammeter B. Generator C. Ohmmeter D. Transformer

14. The diagram below shows a transformer. Which of the following statements is correct about the
transformer?

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A. It is used to generate electricity.
B. It is used in a direct current circuit.
C. The input voltage is less than the output voltage.
D. The input voltage is greater than the output voltage.

15. Which of the following instruments is NOT common in AC generators and DC motors?
A. Slip rings B. Armature C. Magnetic poles D. Carbon brushes

16. Which of the following devices is used to change the value of alternating voltage?
A. DC motor B. Transformer C. AC generator D. Loud speaker

17. On which of the following principles does a transformer work?


A. Force induction B. Strong induction
C. Mutual induction D. Electrostatic induction

18. If the number of turns of secondary coil is doubled then the alternating voltage of an AC
generator will become
A. half. B. double. C. quarter. D. four times.

19. All of the following depend upon the electromotive force (e.m.f) induced in the secondary coil of
a transformer EXCEPT for the

A. power in primary coil. B. voltage applied to the primary coil.


C. number of turns of the primary coil. D. number of turns of the secondary coil.

20. All of the following decrease the force on a wire in a magnetic field by decreasing their values
EXCEPT for the
A. current in the wire. B. strength of magnetic field.
C. distance between the wire and the magnet. D. length of the wire inside the magnetic field.

21. All of the following decrease the total force acting on the armature of a DC motor EXCEPT a
decrease in
A. area of the coil. B. shape of the coil.
C. current in the coil. D. number of turns of the coil.

22. Which of the following devices is shown in the given diagram at position 3?

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A. A resistor B. A capacitor C. A generator D. A transformer

23. The working of an AC generator is an example of


A. inductor. B. impedance. C. mutual induction. D. electromagnetic induction.

24. If a piece of copper wire is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field and the current in the wire
increases, then the force applied by the magnetic field on the wire will
A. increase. B. decrease. C. become zero. D. remain the same.

25. In the given figure, which of the following combinations correctly represents Fleming‟s left
hand rule?

26. If the speed of a conductor through a magnetic field increases, then the induced
electromotive force (e.m.f.) in the conductor
A. increases. B. decreases. C. becomes zero. D. remains constant.

27. If a conductor is placed in a stationary and non-varying magnetic field, then the induced
electromotive force (e.m.f.) will be
A. low. B. high. C. zero. D. variable.

28. If the current through a coil of an electromagnet reverses, then the


A. magnetic field increases. B. magnetic field decreases.
C. direction of the magnetic field reverses. D. direction of the magnetic field remains the same.

29. An alternating current (AC) generator is an example of


A. inductor. B. impedance. C. mutual induction. D. electromagnetic induction.

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30. In the given diagram of the current carrying conductor, the labelled points (P) and (Q)
represent

31. A transformer is an electrical device that works on the principle of


A. self-induction. B. Coulomb’s law.
C. mutual induction. D. Fleming’s left hand rule.

32. The energy conversion that takes place in the alternating current generator is from
A. electrical to kinetic. B. mechanical to potential.
C. mechanical to electrical. D. electrical to mechanical.

33. The magnitude of an induced electromotive force is NOT affected by the


A. resistance in the coil.
B. number of turns in the coil.
C. amount of current passing through the coil.
D. speed of relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

34. The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor


A. is weaker near the conductor.
B. is stronger near the conductor.
C. is negligible near the conductor.
D. varies unpredictably near the conductor.

35. The magnetic force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
will be zero, when the direction of current in the conductor is
A. parallel to the magnetic field.
B. perpendicular to the magnetic field.
C. at an angle of 30o to the magnetic field.
D. at an angle of 60o to the magnetic field.

36. In electromagnetism, according to Fleming’s left hand rule, the thumb indicates the
direction of
A. flux. B. force. C. current. D. magnetic field.

37. When a steady current passes through a conductor, as shown in the given figure, the direction
of the magnetic field lines will be

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A. upward. B. clockwise. C. downward. D. anticlockwise.

38. The purpose of using a transformer in an electric circuit is to


A. alter the electrical power. B. adjust the electrical energy.
C. fluctuate the magnetic field. D. change the voltage or current.

39. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field can be determined by
A. Joule’s law. B. Coulomb’s law. C. Head to tail rule. D. Fleming’s left-hand rule.

40. If a conductor passes through a magnetic field twice with different speeds, then which of the following
option is CORRECT with respect to speed and induced electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

41. If the current through a coil of an electromagnet reverses, then the


A. magnetic field increases. B. magnetic field decreases.
C. direction of the magnetic field reverses. D. direction of the magnetic field remains the same.

42. Electromagnets are commonly used in all of the following electrical instruments EXCEPT
A. iron. B. toaster. C. motors. D. generator.

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q.1.

a. Recognize and label the above diagram in the given spaces. (5 Marks)
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Page 74 of 182
b. Briefly describe its working principle. (3 Marks)
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________________________________________________________________________________ Q.4.
Q2-(Total 3 Marks)
Electromagnets are the devices consisting of a solenoid. An electric current passed through the coil
induces a magnetic field. When the iron core is placed in this field, microscopic domains that can be
considered small permanent magnets in the iron align themselves in the direction of the field, thus
increasing greatly the strength of the magnetic field produced by the solenoid. The magnetization of
the core reaches saturation once all the domains are completely aligned. When the current is switched
off, the core retains only a week residual magnetism.
i. Define electromagnetism. (1 Mark)
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ii. Why is iron core placed in the solenoid? (1 Mark)
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iii. If all domains align themselves, then what state will be attained? (1 Mark)
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Q.3. (Total 3 Marks)


A current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field.

i. What is the direction of motion in the wire?

Page 75 of 182
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ii. Determine the direction of force on the wire.
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iii. What happens when current flows in the opposite direction to the wire?
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Q.4. (Total 3 Marks)


The given diagram shows a simple transformer. What type of transformer is it and what changes can be
made so that voltage may be reduced to a low output?

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Q.5. (Total 3 Marks)


i. State the rule used to find the direction of current in a DC motor.
ii. What is the purpose of using a split ring commutator?
iii. Mention any ONE way for increasing the speed of a DC motor.

Page 76 of 182
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Q.6. (Total 3 Marks)


The given figure shows the direction of the magnetic field, the current and the force on a conductor
according to Fleming’s left hand rule.

Page 77 of 182
Q.7. (Total 3 Marks)
State TWO conditions that must be fulfilled for a charge to experience magnetic force when it is placed in a
magnetic field and state how the magnetic force could be varied.
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Q.8. (Total 3 Marks)
Write THREE uses of transformers in our electric power system.
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a. Name and define the principle of a transformer on which it works. (2 Marks)
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b. Write ONE use of a transformer. (1 Mark)
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Page 78 of 182
UNIT 16 ( Introductory Electronics)
1. A diode is a two terminal device which allows current to flow in
A. one direction. B. two directions. C. many directions. D. reverse direction.

2. The name of the given electronic gate is

A. OR B. NOT C. AND D. NAND

3. Carbon semi-conductor diode is NOT used in electronics because


A. it is an insulator. B. it has low potential.
C. it has high potential. D. it converts AC into DC.

4. CRO has many uses in the medical field. Which of the following is NOT a correct use of it?
A. Use as a voltmeter
B. Use in studying the information of waves.
C. Use in studying the effect of electric field on moving charges.
D. Use in studying the effect of background radiation on living things.

5. The name of the gate represented in the given truth table is

A. OR B. AND C. NOR D. NAND

6. In the given circuit diagram, four identical lamps L1, L2, L3 and L4 are connected and controlled
by switches S1, S2 and S3.

Which of the following lamps will light when the switches S1 and S2 are closed?
A. Lamp L1 and L2 B. Lamp L2 and L3
C. Lamp L2, L3 and L4 D. Lamp L1, L2 and L4

7. In thermionic emission, when a filament is heated a beam of tiny particles emits from it. These
particles are known as
A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. alpha particles.

8. A beam of cathode rays passes through an electric field between two parallel plates.

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Which of the following changes will take place after the beam has passed through the plates?
A. It will bounce back.
B. It will pass un-deflected.
C. It will bend towards the positive plate.
D. It will bend towards the negative plate.

9. If a magnetic field changes in a conductor, then it produces


A. induced voltage. B. capacitance. C. inductance. D. resistance.

10. Which of the following is used to carry electric charge across the space in a bulb?
A. Beta emission B. Self induction C. Mutual induction D. Thermionic emission

11. Which of the following options CORRECTLY identifies the input value of the given NOR gate?

12. The given symbol represents the working of a/ an

A. NOT gate. B. AND gate. C. NOR gate. D. NAND gate.

13. Which of the following is NOT the part of a cathode rays oscilloscope?
A. An armature B. An electron gun
C. A deflecting plate D. A fluorescent screen

14. In a logic gate, the total number of truth table entries for a two-inputs circuit are
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
15. Which of the following logic gates is used to invert the output?
A. OR gate B. NOT gate C. NOR gate D. NAND gate

16. In electronics, the characteristics of an analogue quantity is that it


A. randomly selects sets of quantities.
B. can be represented by discrete levels.
C. has a continuous set of values over a given range.
D. can be described with a finite number of mathematical steps.

Page 80 of 182
17. In thermionic emission, when a filament is heated, a beam of tiny particles is emitted from it.
These particles are known as
A. protons. B. electrons. C. beta particles. D. alpha particles.

18. The symbol that represents NAND gate is

19. All of the following are the basic operations of Boolean algebra EXCEPT
A. OR B. NOT C. AND D. NAND

20. Which of the following is NOT the part of a cathode rays oscilloscope?
A. An armature B. An electron gun
C. A deflecting plate D. A fluorescent screen

21. Which of the following is the symbol of a NAND gate?

22. Cathode Rays Oscilloscope (CRO) is NOT used


A. as a voltmeter.
B. to measure alternating and direct current.
C. to measure the effect of background radiation.
D. to study the effect of electric field on moving charges.

23. All of the following are the fundamental gates EXCEPT


A. OR. B. NOT. C. NOR. D. AND.

24. In thermionic emission, when a filament is heated, a beam of tiny particles is emitted from it. These particles
are known as
A. protons. B. electrons. C. beta particles. D. alpha particles.

25. In electronics, the characteristics of an analogue quantity is that it


A. randomly selects sets of quantities.
B. can be represented by discrete levels.
C. has a continuous set of values over a given range.
D. can be described with a finite number of mathematical steps.

CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S

Q.1. (Total 3 Marks)


Write a truth table for the following combination of gates.

Page 81 of 182
Q.2. (Total 3 Marks)
Draw the symbol of NOT, OR and AND gates.

Q.3. (Total 3 Marks)


An electron gun is shown in the given diagram. Label the missing parts and write any ONE use of the
electron gun.

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Page 82 of 182
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Q.4 (Total 3 Marks)


The given diagram shows a cathode rays oscilloscope (CRO).

Summarize the basic principle of a cathode rays oscilloscope in THREE points.


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Q.5. (Total 3 Marks)
The given diagram shows a logic gate connected in a circuit

a. Make a truth table for the above logic gate. (2 Marks)

b. How would the switches S1 and S2 light the lamp? (1 Mark)

Page 83 of 182
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Q.6. (Total 3 Marks)
A truth table of a logic gate is given below.

i. Identify the given logic gate. (1 Mark)


___________________________________________________________________________________
ii. Draw the symbol of the logic gate. (1 Mark)

iii. Write its mathematical operation. (1 Mark)


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Q.7. (Total 3 Marks)
The picture that appears on the screen of a television, that uses cathode rays tube, becomes distorted when a
powerful magnet is brought near the screen. Justify the given statement.
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Page 84 of 182
UNIT 17 ( Information and communication technology)
1. Which of the following is NOT used to send information in the form of digital signals in optical
fibres?
A. Photon B. Neutron C. Pulse of light D. Quanta of light

2. On which of the following principles of light does an optical fibre work?


A. Reflection B. Refraction C. Diffraction D. Total internal reflection

3. When a radio wave is intercepted by an antenna, the antenna converts the wave into
A. a digital signal. B. an analog signal.
C. an electrical signal. D. an electromagnetic signal.

4. All of the following are the components of information and communication technology
EXCEPT
A. data. B. software. C. hardware. D. power supply.

5. All of the following are information storage devices EXCEPT


A. battery. B. hard disc. C. flash drive. D. audio cassette.

6. Light is confined within the core of a simple optical fibre by


A. reflection. B. refraction. C. diffraction. D. total internal reflection.

7. Which of the following electronic devices stores the largest amount of information?
A. Hard disc B. Flash drive C. Compact disc D. Audio cassette

8. Which of the following quantities maintains a constant rate of change in a particular span of
time?
A. Digital quantities B. Scalar quantities C. Vector quantities D. Analogue quantities

9. Which of the following electronic machines gives information after analyzing and arranging
data in a very short interval of time?
A. Radio B. Computer C. Telephone D. Fax machine

10. Which of the following is NOT a telecommunication device?


A. Telescope B. Computer C. Fax machine D. Mobile phone

11. Which of the following is NOT the use of internet?


A. Transporting goods B. Making telephone calls
C. Accessing world wide web D. Sending and receiving electronic mails

12. When a radio wave is intercepted by an antenna. The antenna converts the wave into a/ an
A. digital signal. B. analog signal. C. electrical signal. D. electromagnetic signal.

13. To collect information for a special purpose, store it in a computer and retrieve when needed is
called
A. data managing. B. word processing.
C. communication technology. D. monitoring and controlling data

14. Which of the following is/ are the basic operation(s) performed by a computer?
I. Word processing
II. Non-arithmetic operations
III. Monitoring and controlling data
A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. I, II and III

15. To collect information for a special purpose, store it in a computer and retrieve when needed is

Page 85 of 182
called
A. data managing. B. word processing.
C. communication technology. D. monitoring and controlling data.

16. Which of the following is the main use of word processing?


A. Typing B. Monitoring C. Controlling D. Data managing
.
17. When radiowaves are received by an antenna, the antenna converts the waves into
I. electrical signals. II. electronic signals. III. electromagnetic signals.
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III

18. If a call is made from mobile/ cell phone (A) to mobile/ cell phone (B), then radio signals of a
particular frequency are first sent to the
A. mobile/ cell phone (B). B. mobile switching centre.
C. base station of the caller. D. base station of the receiver.

19. Technology is improving day by day. Now light in weight, small in size and less power
consuming laptop models are available in the market.
All of the following components of information technology (IT) are used to make this possible
EXCEPT
A. Hard Drive. B. World Wide Web. C. Read Only Memory. D. Random Access Memory.

20. All of the following are the names of search engine on the internet EXCEPT
A. Bing. B. Yahoo. C. Google. D. Chrome.
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S

Q.1. (Total 3 Marks)


Write any THREE advantages of transmitting light signals through optical fibre.
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________________________________________________________________________________
Q.2. (Total 3 Marks)
Mention any THREE benefits of transmitting information and data through optical fibre.
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Page 86 of 182
UNIT 18 (Atomic and Nuclear Physics)
1. The nucleus of an element consists of 90 protons and 144 neutrons. After emitting two beta
particles followed by an alpha particle, the nucleus will have
A. 86 protons and 140 neutrons. B. 88 protons and 142 neutrons.
C. 90 protons and 140 neutrons. D. 90 protons and 142 neutrons.

2. Atomic number of an atom is 56 and its mass number is 138. Which of the following is the
correct number of electrons, protons and neutrons of this atom?

3. Which of the following boxes is used to keep radioactive material?

4. Which of the following radiations bends in a magnetic field with largest radius?
A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Gamma rays D. X-rays

5. In the figure different sheets are placed in front of nuclear radiations. Which of the ray/s can be
identified as gamma radiation?

A. P B. Q C. R D. P and Q

6. Which of the following elements is called a radioactive element?


A. Cesium B. Uranium C. Magnesium D. Germanium

7. Which of the following diagrams represents the emission of gamma rays?

Page 87 of 182
8.

9. What will be the values of x and y in the given equation?

10. Which of the following isotopes has equal number of protons and neutrons?

11. In the given diagram of a radioactive decay, β-particles are deflected more than α-particles
because they have

Page 88 of 182
A. small mass. B. high velocity. C. high kinetic energy. D. more penetrating power.
226 222
12. The given equation shows the disintegration of Ra into Rn when a radioactive emission
occurs. The radioactive emission is represented by X. What do you infer about X?

A. A beta particle is emitted.


B. An alpha particle is emitted.
C. Only gamma radiation is emitted.
D. 4 protons and 2 neutrons are emitted from the nucleus.

13. Which of the following charges is carried by a beta particle?


A. Single positive B. Single negative C. Double positive D. Double negative

14. Which of the following is NOT affected by electric and magnetic fields?
A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Cathode rays D. Gamma rays

15. If half life of an element is 24 days, then how much mass of its 0.64 gm will remain unchanged
after 48 days?
A. 0.08 gm B. 0.16 gm C. 0.32 gm D. 0.64 gm

16. Which of the following represents ‘X’ in the given nuclear reaction?

A. Proton B. Neutron C. Beta particle D. Alpha particle

17. Carbon dating of an ancient object determines


A. how long it lived. B. its average life time.
C. the age when the object died. D. how many years before it died.

18. Which of the following boxes is used to store radioactive material?

19. In the figure below different sheets are placed in front of nuclear radiation. Which of the
following ray/s can be identified as gamma rays?

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A. P B. Q C. R D. P and Q

20. The reaction which occurs on the surface of the sun is


A. fusion. B. fission. C. annihilation. D. pair production.

21. Which of the following is TRUE about the ionization power of α ,β andγ radiations?

22. Stable elements can be changed into radioactive elements by bombarding them with
I. neutrons. II. electrons. III. alpha particles.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. I and III

23. Which of the following affects the process of radioactivity?


A. Mass B. Pressure C. Temperature D. Electric field

24. Which of the following particles is positively charged?


A. Beta B. Alpha C. Neutron D. Electron

25. All of the following could be uses of radio-isotopes EXCEPT


A. sterilizing the surgical instruments.
B. detecting the presence of a baby in the womb.
C. testing the leakage in pipelines and aircraft parts.
D. making smoke detectors for homes and businesses.

26. The process of splitting U-235 by the bombardment of neutron into Ba-141 and Kr-92 is known
as
A. fusion reaction. B. fission reaction. C. physical change. D. chemical reaction.

27. If the half-life of an isotope is 1 day, then the quantity of that isotope in proportion to its initial
quantity after 2 days will be

28. The ionizing power of gamma rays is


A. greater than beta particles. B. greater than alpha particles.
C. less than both alpha and beta particles. D. less than alpha but greater than beta particles.
Page 90 of 182
29. Which of the following reactions is shown in the given diagram?

A. Nuclear fission B. Nuclear fusion C. Capturing reaction D. Rearrangement reaction

30. Which of the following presents the harmful effect on human beings due to the prolonged
exposure to nuclear radiations?
A. Heart attack B. Throat infection C. Genetic mutation D. Brain haemorrhage

31. The ionising power of gamma rays is


A. greater than beta particles. B. greater than alpha particles.
C. less than both alpha and beta particles. D. less than alpha but greater than beta particles.
226 222
32.. The given equation shows the disintegration of Ra into Rn when a radioactive emission
occurs. The radioactive emission is represented by X. What do you infer about X ?

A. A beta particle is emitted.


B. An alpha particle is emitted.
C. Only gamma radiation is emitted.
D. 4 protons and 2 neutrons are emitted from the nucleus.

33. If a nucleus of an element has atomic mass 24, then it will have
A. 11 protons and 13 neutrons. B. 11 protons and 13 electrons.
C. 11 electrons, 14 protons and 10 neutrons. D. 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons.

34. A reaction which occurs on the surface of the Sun is


A. fusion. B. fission. C. annihilation. D. pair production.

35. Large amount of energy in controlled form is released in


A. fusion reaction. B. fission reaction. C. physical reaction. D. endothermic reaction.

36. Which of the following is a negatively charged particle?


A. Beta B. Alpha C. Proton D. Neutron

37.. Which of the following has the highest ionising and penetrating power?

38. Carbon dating is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material.

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Which of the following carbon isotopes is used for this purpose?
A. Carbon-12 B. Carbon-13 C. Carbon-14 D. Carbon-15

39. During nuclear fusion reaction, when the hydrogen nuclei are converted into helium atom
A. less amount of energy is released.
B. huge amount of energy is absorbed.
C. amount of reactants decrease due to the energy released.
D. amount of reactants increase due to the energy absorbed.

40. All of the following are harmful effects of nuclear radiations on human beings EXCEPT that it
causes
A. enlargement of the liver. B. cancer of the blood cells.
C. redness and sores on the skin. D. formation of cataract in the eye.

41. According to the Rutherford model, the positive charge in an atom is


A. concentrated at its nucleus. B. at the circular orbits of the atom.
C. uniformly spread throughout atom. D. at a certain distance from its nucleus.

42. Isotopes of an element can be identified by their


I. mass number (A) II. charge number (Z) III. neutron number (N)
A. I only. B. I and II. C. I and III. D. II and III.

43. Gamma rays have penetration power that is


A. less than alpha and beta particles. B. more than alpha and beta particles.
C. less than alpha but more than beta particles. D. more than alpha but less than beta particles.

44. If a radioactive element has a half-life of 60 seconds, then the quantity of the isotope after 120
seconds will be
A. one-half. B. one-sixth. C. one-fourth. D. one-eighth.

45. Nuclear fission reaction can be produced in 92U238 by the bombardment of


I. fast neutron II. slow neutron III. thermal neutron
A. I only. B. II only. C. I and III. D. II and III.
CRQ‟S+ ERQ‟S
Q.1. (Total 4 Marks)
Write any FOUR points of difference among α − particles, β − particles and γ − rays.

Q.2. (Total 4 Marks)

Page 92 of 182
Some radioactive sources are placed in a strong magnetic field where three types of radiation are being
emitted as shown in the given diagram.

Label alpha and beta particles and gamma rays in the above diagram. Write any ONE property of each

Q.3. (Total 4 Marks)


The given table provides some information about a radioactive element.

Calculate the value of ‘X’.


___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________

Page 93 of 182
________________________________________________________________________________

Q.4. (Total 4 Marks)


a. Name the reaction shown in the given diagram. (2 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
b. Complete the given equation for the above reaction. (2 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

Q.5. (Total 4 Marks)


a. Complete the given statement:
Alpha (α ) decay is the emission of helium _______________. (1 Mark)
b. Determine whether the given decay process is possible or not? (3 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
Q.8. (Total 4 Marks)
If the half-life of Krypton is 3.16 minutes, then how many grams of Krypton out of 100 grams will
remain disintegrated after 9.48 minutes.
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________

Page 94 of 182
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
Q.6. (Total 4 Marks)
i. Complete the given statement: (1 Mark)
Alpha (α ) decay is the emission of helium __________.
ii. Determine whether the given decay process is possible or not and show your working. (3 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
Q.7. (Total 4 Marks)

a. Which type of nuclear radiation causes the following changes? (2 Marks)


i. Conversion of polonium into lead in reaction # 1
ii. Conversion of lead into bismuth in reaction # 2
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
b. Give a reason to support your answer for (ii) of part (a). (2 Marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
Q.8. (Total 4 Marks)
The given diagram shows a nuclear reaction.

Page 95 of 182
a. Name and define the reaction shown in the diagram. (2 Marks)
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
b. How can we get energy from the given process? (1 Mark)
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
c. What is the role of neutrons in the given process? (1 Mark)
___________________________________________________________________________________

Page 96 of 182
___________________________________________________________________________________
NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
1ST TERM EXAMINATION 2019-20
CLASS: X PHYSICS I TIME:45MIN MARKS: 30
NOTE:MAKE YOUR RESPONSE ON THE GIVEN SHEET.

1. If 100 waves pass through a medium in 20 seconds and their wavelength is 6cm then velocity is
(A) 0.5ms-1 (B) 0.3ms-1 (C) 1ms-1 (D) 2.5ms-1
2. If potential energies and kinetic energies are equal then displacement of an object in SHM is
(A) ¼ lines of wavelength (B) 0
(C) ½ lines of wavelength (D) 1/6 lines of wavelength
3. If time period of simple pendulum is 2 s then it's length is
(A) 1.02m (B) 1.2m (C) 1.4m (D) 1.5m
4. If mass of bob is increased 3 times then it's time period
(A) Increases (B) decreases 2 times (C) remains same (D) increases 4 times
5. If temperature increases, speed of sound
(A) also increases (B) decreases (C) remains same (D) may increase or decrease
6. Which line in the table correctly shows examples of transverse and longitudinal waves?

7. A sound wave travels from a point X to another point Y.


Which diagram represents the movement of the air molecules, due to the sound wave, in the region between X
and Y?

(A)diagram A (B)diagram B (C)diagram C (D)diagram D

8. The diagram shows waves travelling on the sea.

Which points are one wavelength apart?


(A)Q and S (B)S and T (C)P and R (D)Q and T

9. Three rays of light are incident on the boundary between a glass block and air.
The angles of incidence are different.

Page 97 of 182
What is a possible critical angle for light in the glass?
(A)15˚ (B)30˚ (C)45˚ (D)60˚
10. What happens to light as it passes from glass into air?
(A) Its frequency decreases because its speed decreases.
(B) Its frequency increases because its speed increases
(C) Its wavelength decreases because its speed decreases.
(D) Its wavelength increases because its speed increases.

11. Two sounds X and Y are produced by loudspeakers.


The amplitude and frequency of each sound wave is given below.
X : amplitude = 1.3 mm; frequency = 475 Hz
Y : amplitude = 2.0 mm; frequency = 235 Hz
How does sound Y compare with sound X?
Select one of the following:
(A) Y is quieter and has a lower pitch. (B) Y is louder and has a lower pitch.
(C)Y is louder and has a higher pitch. (D) Y is quieter and has a higher pitch
12. Which row applies to a short-sighted eye viewing a distant object?
POSITION OF THE IMAGE LENS NEEDED FOR CORRECTION
A. Behind the retina Converging lens
B. Behind the retina Diverging lens
C. In front of the retina Converging lens
D. In front of the retina Diverging lens
13. Which factors will both increase the resistance of a wire in a circuit?
SIZE OF WIRE TEMPERATURE OF WIRE
A Longer Lower
B Shorter Lower
C Thicker Higher
D Thinner Higher
14. The cable to an electric fan becomes so worn that the live wire makes electrical contact with the metal case.
The case is earthed. The plug to the fan contains a 5 A fuse. There is a current of 4 A when the fan works normally.
What will happen?
[Link] will melt and switch off the circuit. B. The metal case will become live and
dangerous.
[Link] metal case will become very hot. D. The current will run to earth and fuse will not be
affected.

15. Four processes are used to charge an isolated metal sphere.


P: The sphere is earthed by touching it.
Q: The earth connection is removed from the sphere.
R: A charged rod is brought close to the sphere.
S: The charged rod is removed.

Page 98 of 182
(A)P→Q→R→S (B) P→R→S→Q (C) R→P→Q→S (D)R→P→S→Q
16 A 1.0Ω resistor and a 2.0Ω resistor are connected in series across a 12V D.C. supply.
What is the current in the circuit?
(A) 12 A (B) 0.25 A (C) 6.0 A (D) 4.0 A
17. Internal total reflection takes place when light enters from denser to rarer medium and
(A) Angle of refraction becomes 90o (B) Angle of incidence becomes 90o
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to critical angle. (D) Angle of incidence is great than critical
angle.

18. The diagram shows an object O placed 3 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 6 cm.

What type of image is produced?


(A) Real, upright and diminished
(B) Real, inverted and magnified
(C) Virtual, upright and magnified
(D) Virtual, inverted and diminished

19. A student uses a converging lens to produce an enlarged virtual image of a scale she wishes to read
accurately. The focal length of the lens is 10 cm. What is a suitable distance between the scale and the
lens
(A) 8 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm

[Link] statement is true for all electromagnetic waves


(A) They are longitudinal.
(B) They can be seen.
(C) They have the same frequency in air.
(D) They travel at the same speed in a vacuum.
21. If F is force acting on test charge qo, electric field intensity E would be given by
(A) E = F - qo (B) E = F/qo (C) E = F + qo (D) E = qo/F
22. In electrostatic air cleaner, air mixed with dust and pollen enters device across
(A) Positively charged mesh (B) Negatively charged mesh
(C) Neutral mesh (D) Dual charged mesh

23. Amount of work done in bringing unit positive charge from infinity to a point in electric field is called
(A) coulomb's force
(B) electrostatic force
(C) electric potential
(D) resistance

Page 99 of 182
24. Calculate the current across the 20 ohm resistor.

(A) 10A (B) 20A (C) 6.67A (D) 36.67A


25. Which of the following is true about resistivity?
(A) It is resistance of a conductor at a specific condition
(B) It does depend upon temperature
(C) It does not change when the conductor is resized
(D) It depends upon mass of conductor

26. A cell is connected to a resistor. What is the e.m.f of the cell equal to
(A) The potential difference across the resistor for each unit of current.
(B) The power produced in the circuit for each unit of charge that passes.
(C) The work done in the circuit for each unit of charge that passes.
(D) The work done in the circuit for each unit of current.
27. Energy is represented by the letter E, current by I , power by P, charge by Q, p.d. by V and time by t. Which
pair of equations is correct
(A) E=It and P=VIt
(B) E=VQ/t and P=VI
(C) E=VIt and P=VI
(D) E=VQ and P=VI/t
28. If distance between the two point charges become half then force between them becomes.
(A) Double
(B) Half
(C) Four times
(D) Remains same
29. Two oppositely charged balls A and B attract third conducting ball C when placed near them turn by turn.
Then ball C must be
(A) Positively charged
(B) Electrically neutral
(C) Negatively charged
(D) Positively and negatively charged
30. Lens with a long focal length is
(A) Thick
(B) Thin
(C) not strongly curved
(D) both B and C

Page 100 of 182


NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
1st TERM EXAMINATION 2019-20
CLASS: X PHYSICS II TIME:02:15 MARKS:35
NAME______________________________ROLL NO_________ SECTION
________

Q.1 The given diagram shows four waves covering the same distance in 6 seconds.

a) Write the frequency of any TWO waves. Also mention which wave have greatest frequency
from above diagram?
(3 marks)

b) Which of the labeled waves, A,B,C or D, has the greatest speed and why? (2
Marks)

Page 101 of 182


CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
c) A teacher attaches a slinky to the wall and begins introducing pulses with different amplitudes.
Which of the two pulses (A or B) below will travel from the hand to the wall in the least
amount of time? Justify your answer.
( 1 mark)

Q.2.

(a) Define the critical angle when referring to total internal reflection? Include a ray diagram to
explain the concept.
(2 Marks)

(b) A rectangular glass block 12 cm thick is placed over an ink mark sheet of paper. Find the
distance the ink mark is apparently raised if the refractive index of the glass is 1.50.
(2
Marks)

(c) The focal point is located 20.0 cm from a double concave lens. An object is placed 12 cm from the lens.
Determine the image distance. ( 3 Marks)

Page 102 of 182


CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
Q3.
i. It is observed that Balloon A is charged negatively. Balloon B exerts a repulsive effect upon balloon A
Would the electric field vector created by balloon B be directed towards B or away from B?Explain
your reasoning. ( 2 Marks)

ii. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk both acquire charges. What is the source of their electrification?
( 1 marks)

iii. Two balloons are charged with an identical quantity and type of charge: -6.25 nC. They are held apart
at a separation distance of 61.7 cm. Determine the magnitude of the electrical force of repulsion
between them. (3 Marks)

Page 103 of 182


CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
Q.4 Determine the following quantities for the given circuit. (4 marks)

(i) The equiralent resistance /1


(ii) The total current from power supply /1
(iii) The current through each resistor /2

125 20Ω 100 50Ω


- V Ω
-

Page 104 of 182


Q.5 Draw the I-V characteristics graph for a filament lamp and a thermistor (2 marks)

Q.6 ( Total 5 Marks)

EITHER
a. Three resistors are connected in parallel. If placed in a circuit with a 12-volt power supply.
Determine the equivalent resistance, the total circuit current, and the voltage drop across and
current in each resistor.

OR
b. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of capacitances C1 = 2µF, C2 =4µF and C3 =6µF are
connected in series combination.
i. Draw a labeled circuit diagram of the given capacitors, when they are connected in parallel
along with a battery of 12V.
(2 MARKS)
ii. Calculate the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel and in series
combination.
(3 marks)

Page 105 of 182


Page 106 of 182
Q7. (Total 5
Marks)
EITHER

a. How can the waves in a ripple tank be made to travel more slowly and when
this happens, what will be its effect on frequency and wavelength of waves?

OR
b. (i) What image is produced by placing on object 6 cm away from a convex lens of focal
length 12 cm. What is nature of image?
/3

(ii) Show this image formation by ray diagram.


/2

Page 107 of 182


END OF PAPER II

Page 108 of 182


NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
1ST TERM EXAMINATION 2019-20
PHYSICS CLASS 10TH KEY PAPER 1
1 B 6 A 11 B 16 D 21 B 26 C
2 B 7 D 12 D 17 D 22 A 27 C
3 A 8 D 13 D 18 C 23 C 28 C
4 C 9 C 14 B 19 A 24 A 29 B
5 A 10 D 15 C 20 D 25 C 30 D

NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL


1ST TERM EXAMINATION 2019-20
PHYSICS CLASS 10TH KEY PAPER 2
Q.1.
The given diagram shows four waves covering the same distance in 6 seconds.

d) Write the frequency of any TWO waves. (3 Marks)

ANS. 1 MARK For correct value of frequency. Two required.


1 mark for identification of highest frequency.
e) Which of the labeled waves, A,B,C or D, has the greatest speed and why? (2 Marks)

Ans . All the waves have the same speed because all the waves cover same distance in 6 seconds.
f) A teacher attaches a slinky to the wall and begins introducing pulses with different amplitudes.
Which of the two pulses (A or B) below will travel from the hand to the wall in the least amount of
time? Justify your answer. ( 1 mark)

Page 109 of 182


Ans . 1 mark for
They reach the wall at the same time . The amplitude of a wave does not affect the speed at which the wave travels.
Both Wave A and Wave B travel at the same speed. The speed of a wave is only altered by alterations in the properties
of the medium through which it travels.

Q.2.
1) Define what is meant by the critical angle when referring to total internal reflection? Include a ray
diagram to explain the concept. ( 2 Marks)

1 MARK for definition


1 mark for correct diagram
The critical angle occurs when the angle of incidence where the angle of refraction is 90°. The
light must travel from an optically denser medium to an optically less dense medium.
2) A rectangular glass block 12 cm thick is placed over an ink mark sheet of paper. Find the distance
the ink mark is apparently raised if the refractive index of the glass is 1.50.
(2 Marks)
Ans. 1 mark for correct formula

Refractive index = real depth/apparent depth

Apparent depth =real depth/refractive index


Apparent depth= 12cm/1.50
Apparent depth = 8cm 1 mark for correct answer

3) State laws of refraction. 2 Marks


1 mark for each
a. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same
plan.
b. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence i to the sin of angle of r is always equal to a constant
i.e. sin i/sin r= constant
4) The focal point is located 20.0 cm from a double concave lens. An object is placed 12 cm from the lens.
Determine the image distance. 3 marks
1 mark for equation
1 mark for negative focal length
1 mark for correct answer

Answer: di = ˗7.5cm
Given: f = -20.0 cm and do = +12.0 cm
(Careful: double concave lens have focal lengths which are negative.)
Use the equation 1 / f = 1 / do + 1 / di
Substitute and solve for di.

Page 110 of 182


1 / (-20.0) = 1 / (12.0) + 1 / di
1 / (-20.0) - 1 / (12.0) = 1 / di
-0.1333 cm-1 = 1 / di
di = 1 / (-0.1233 cm-1)
di = ˗7.5cm
Q.3. ( 2 Marks)
i. It is observed that Balloon A is charged negatively. Balloon B exerts a repulsive effect upon balloon
A Would the electric field vector created by balloon B be directed towards B or away from B?
___________ Explain your reasoning.
1 MARK for correct identification
1 mark for reasoning
Answer: TOWARDS B.
If balloon B repels balloon A then balloon B must be negatively charged. The electric field vectors are always
directed towards negatively charged objects. As such, the E vectors must be towards balloon B.
ii. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk both acquire charges. What is the source of their electrification
Two marks for the given statement
Ans . For the electrification of a body , only electrons are responsible. During rubbing electrons are
transferred from glass rod to silk. The glass rod acquires positive charge and rod acquires an equal negative
charge.
iii. Two balloons are charged with an identical quantity and type of charge: -6.25 nC. They are held apart
at a separation distance of 61.7 cm. Determine the magnitude of the electrical force of repulsion
between them. 3 Marks
Answer .
Q1 = -6.25 nC = -6.25 x 10-9 C Find
Q2 = -6.25 nC = -6.25 x 10-9 C
Felect = ???
d = 61.7 cm = 0.617 m
The final step of the strategy involves substituting known values into the Coulomb's law equation and using
proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This substitution and algebra is shown below.
Felect = k • Q1 • Q2 / d2
Felect = (9.0 x 109 N•m2/C2) • (6.25 x 10-9 C) • (6.25 x 10-9 C) / (0.617 m)2
Felect = 9.23×10-7N
1 MARK FOR Formula
1 mark for unit conversion
1 mark for correct answer

Q.4. ( 4 Marks)
Use the Ohm's law equation to determine the missing values in the following circuits.

1 mark for each correct calculation /4


Q5. 1 mark for each correct curve /2

Q.6. ( Total 5 Marks)

Page 111 of 182


EITHER
c. Three resistors are connected in parallel. If placed in a circuit with a 12-volt power supply.
Determine the equivalent resistance, the total circuit current, and the voltage drop across and current
in each resistor.

d. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of capacitances C1 = 2µF, C2 =4µF and C3 =6µF are connected in
series combination.
iii. Draw a labeled circuit diagram of the given capacitors, when they are connected in parallel along
with a battery of 12V. (2 MARKS)
iv. Calculate the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel and in series combination.
(3 marks)
2 marks for correct labeled circuit diagram.
1.5 marks for calculating the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel
combination
1.5 marks for calculating the equivalent capacitance of series combination.

(a).
1 mark for equivalent resistance
1 mark for current
1 mark for each correct value of potential difference
Total 3 values are required

Q.7. EITHER

c. How can the waves in a ripple tank be made to travel more slowly and when
this happens, what will be its effect on frequency and wavelength of waves?

OR
d. Acoustics is the study of waves, vibration and sound. Acoustic protection is application of soft
and porous material to protect individuals against undesirable sounds and noises.
Describe any FIVE points to highlight the significance of acoustic protection.

 Water waves travel more slowly if they enter from deeper to shallow water.
 They can be refracted in a ripple tank by placing a piece of flat plastic in the bottom of
the tray to reduce the depth.
 When the water enters the shallower water there is no change in the frequency of the
wave.
 The wavelength of the waves decreases when they reach the shallow part.
 The reduction in wave speed does cause a reduction in wavelength.
1 mark for each point ( 5 required)
 Acoustics protection is employed not only for physical health, but for
psychological well-being as well.
 A students performance, employees, productivity and an individual’s sleep/rest
are all affected.
 Animals and birds also express discomfort due to higher noise and sound levels.
 Acoustic protection is also necessary to minimize stress levels generated due to
high level of noise.
Page 112 of 182
 Acoustic may also be required to protect structures against vibrations generated
by objects such as trains /and noise generated during construction and
development activities.

(b)
(i) 1 mark for correct formula
1 mark for answer
1 mark for nature

(ii) 1 mark for drawing correct rays


1 mark for correct position of image.

Page 113 of 182


NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION 2019-20
CLASS: X PHYSICS I TIME:45MIN MARKS: 30
NOTE:MAKE YOUR RESPONSE ON THE GIVEN SHEET.

A D
1. At what points acceleration is maximum?
a) At A and B b) At A and C
c) At A and D d) At B and C
2. The correct relation of bel and decibel is
a) lobel = 1db b) lbel = 1db
c) lbel = 10db d) bel = 100db C
3. The product of frequency and time period is equal to
a) 1 b) v c) F d) S
4. Which one of them is different? B
a) Sound waveb) Light Wave c) radio wave d) Electromagnetic Wave
5. If a doctor counts 100 heart beats in 10 sec then its time period is
a) 100 Sec b) 10 Sec c) 1 Sec d) 0.1 Sec
6. If an object is placed 10cm infront of concave mirror whose focal length is 10cm, the image will be
at the distance of.
a) 1cm b) 10cm c) 100cm d) No image
7. There is 200 cm focal length of a special lens,its power will be.
a) 0.1 D b) 0.5 D c) 1 D d) 10D
8. If distance from the lens,of an object,and distance from the image is equal, then magnification is
a) Smaller Than 1 b) Greater Than 1 c) equal to 1 d) no magnification
9. When light enters from one medium to another medium,which of them do not changed during
Refraction
a) Speed of light, wavelength b) Wave length
c) Frequency d) colour of light and speed of light

10. Where should be an object placed,infront of convex lens, to get real image with same
height?
a) on 2F b) behind 2F c) between f and 2F d) at F
11. If the real depth of pool with water is 20, then apparent depth will be

a) 105 m b) 10.2 m c) 15.0 m d) 26.6 m

12. One of them is not true for electric field lines


a) These lines originate from positive charge
b) These lines ends to negative charge
c) These lines cross each other
d) These are imaginary lines.
C1
13. If C1=2F
C2=4F
V=6v
Then equivalent capacitance according to the given figure will be C2
a) 2F b) 4F c) 6F d) 12F
14. Due to 10V P.D. of the battery 2A current passes through the conductor which has 5ohm,
Resistance, then Electric Power Developed by the battery is
a) 1watt b) 10watt c) 20watt d) 100 watt
15. When 1.5A current passes through the ohmic conductor, connected with 2V battery if voltage
increases to 8v then current is

Page 114 of 182


a) 1.5A b) 2A c) 6A d) 8A

16. When 2000w motor runs for 2 hours then electric energy consumed in 2hour in Kw/h is
a) 4 b) 1000 c) 4000 d) 8000

17. Which of the following give highest equivalent resistance


a) 2Ω 2Ω 2Ω b) 2Ω

2Ω

2Ω

c) 2Ω d) 2Ω
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
2Ω

18. If 220A current flows through the live wire then current in neutral wire will be
a) O A b) 220A c) 110A d) 440A
19. One of the following is the unit of electromotive force?
a) Joule b) Ampare c) Volt d) Newton/C

20. Which of the following is not true for transformer


i) it is used to increase the voltage ii) it is used to decrease the voltage
iii) Power does not remain the same iv) D.C current is used in primary coil
a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) I, ii, iii d) iv only
21. If a stationary coil is placed in strong magnetic field,induced emf must be
a) zero b) high c) Low d) variable

22. If current is produced in one coil, then current is induced in nearby coil, this phenomenon is
known as.
a) self-induction b) mutual induction c) Total internal reflection d) Flemings Law
23. NOR gate gives result only when
a) both inputs A and B are 0 b) both inputs A and B1
c) A = 0 , B = 1 d) A = 1 , B = 0

24. AND gate can also be formed by using two


a) NOT gates b) NOR gates c) NAND gates d) OR gates
25. To send information from Earth to satellite we use ______________ signals
a) Radio waves b) Sound waves c) Light wave d) Micro waves
26. To collect information for a special purpose and store it in a computer in a file form which
may help at times when need call
a) Word processing b) Date managing c) Typing d) Electronic Mail
27. During Beta decay,atomic number of element
a) increases by 1 b) increased by 2 c) remain same d) decreasing by 1
28. What happens to the atomic number of an element which emits one alpha particle followed
by two Beta particles.
a) increases by 1 b) increases by 2 c) decreases by 1 d)no change
29. Which equation shows a nuclear fusion reaction?
a) b) neutron

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c) gamma ray d) 2minutes

30. Ionization Power of α,β,γ.Which statement is true about it.


a) α>β>γ b) α<β<γ c) α=β=γ d) α < γ<β
END OF
PAPER I

Page 116 of 182


NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION 2019-20
CLASS: X PHYSICS II TIME:02:15 MARKS:35
NAME______________________________ROLL NO_________ SECTION
________

Q.1 (a) Explain the following relation in two points.


a -x
(2 marks)
(i)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
(ii)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) As a water wave enters from deeper to shallow region, what is the effect on the followings. (2
marks)
(i) Speed (ii) Wavelength
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

Q.2 Write two applications/uses of total internal reflection. (2 marks)


(i)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
(ii)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Q.3(a) Define long sightedness of human eye with the help of diagram. (2 marks)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
(b) Describe the relation between refractive index and critical angle. (1)

_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

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C
Q.4 (a) Three Capacitor each having capacitance 1
2 and connected to a battery of 10V.
C
2

C
3
(i) Calculate its equivalent capacitance. (2 marks)

+ -
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Also write the value of potential difference across C2. (1 mark)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

b) Write formula to calculate the electrical energy consumption. (1


mark)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

Q.5(a) Draw symbolic diagram of the following (2 marks)


AND gate NAND gate

(B) Complete the truth table for the following combination of gate if A=0 , B=1 , and A = 1 , B=1

(2 marks)

A c
E
D
B

A B C D E
0 1

1 1

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Q.6 According to Fleming‟s left hand rule the following indicates correctly. (3 marks)

Thumb
Middle Finger
Fore Finger

Q.7 Define fission [Link] its complete balanced equation (2 marks)


_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Q.8 (3 marks)

Half life Total Time for decay Initial mass Remaining mass
1500 years ? 500 grams 31.25 grms.

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_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

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Q.9 Attempt either part “a” or part “b” (5 marks)
a) Noise pollution has become a major issue of concern in big cities.
Define noise pollution and write 2 major sources of noise pollution in big cities.
What is the effect of wave length and amplitude of waves on noise pollution.
(1+2+2)
OR
b) (i) Define frequency of Pendulum. (1 mark)
(ii) If 60 waves are passing through a point of a medium in 2 minutes,what is the time period and
frequency of the wave. If its wave length is 10cm, then calculate the speed of waves.

(4 Marks)
Option: _______

_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Q10. Attempt either part a or b (5 marks)

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a) Show by diagram with explanation how can we develop opposite charges on two different
metallic spheres?
OR
b) If two resistors 6 and 12 are connected in series, and a 18v battery provides P.D. to
resistors calculate.
i) Equivalent resistance (1 mark)
ii) current through each resistor (2 marks)
iii) Potential difference across each resistors (2 marks)

Option:_________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
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END OF PAPER II

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KEY PRE-BOARD PAPER PHYSICS 10 (2020)

Q. a) i) acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement.


ii) acceleration is always directed towards means position.
b) (i) its speed decrease (ii) wavelength decrease.
Q.2(i) opticle fibre used in medule field.
(ii) beneuler, [Link]
Q. 3 (a)A person can see far away objects clearly but cannot see near objects clearly called long
Sightedness person. (1)
It is due to eye ball being too thick.

Diagram from book (1)


(I mark for each correct answer)
Q. 4 (a)
1 mark for Formula
1 mark for correct Answer
(b)
V = 10v
V remains same in parallel combinations

(b) 1 unit =

OR 1 KWH =

Q. 5 a)

One mark for each correct diagram

b) A B C D E

0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 0 0

Q. 6 Thumb Force
Middle Finger Current
Fore Finger Magnetic Field

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Q. 7 Fission Reaction
Large nucleus split into small the process is called fission reaction. 1 mark

Q. 8 After First half life = 1x1500 = 1500 yr = 5000/2 = 2500g


After 2nd half-life = 2x1500 = 3000yr = 2500/2 = 1250g
After 3rd half-life = 3/1300 = 4500yr = 1250/2 = 625g
After 4th half-life = 4/1500 = 6000yr = 625/2 = 312.5 g
Ans = (6000 yrs)
Q. 9 a) sound which have sound level more than 90db for long time, produce sound pollution
major sources 1 mark
Heavy machinery
Industrial area or any relevant answer
Wavelength increases noise pollution decreases
Amplitude increases noise pollution increase
b) 1 mark for definition 1 mark
ii) Number of Waves = 60
Time = 2mint = 120 sec (1)
T = ? F = ?
1 = 10cm = 0.1 m v = ?

V= f (1)
0.5 x 0.1
0.05 m/s

F = no of waves in 1 sec
60
 0.5 H3 (1)
120

1
T=  2sec (1)
0.5

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Q. 10

One mark for each diagram with explanation 1. Two spheres A and B initially neutral
1x5=5 2. Brough near a charged rod to spheres A due to
electrostatic induction two poles are created
3. on A and B touch externally both spheres A and
B negative charge move on A while positive charge
shift on B
Blightly separate the spheres
Remove the road, charge is uniformly distributed
permanently on spheres

B. One mark for changing kilo

ii) One mark for R=18KΩ

iii) One mark for finding current

Ix) One mark for accurate value of voltage

Page 124 of 182


PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONS 2020-21
PHYSICS CLASS: X TIME: 60 Minutes MARKS: 40

Note: Make your responses on the provided answer sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil.
1-Water waves and sound waves are the examples of.
(A)transverse waves (B)longitudinal waves (C)mechanical waves
(D)electromagnetic waves
2)Which of the following characteristics of wave is independent of others?
(A)frequency (B)amplitude (C)speed (D)wavelength
3)By what factor should the length of simple pendulum is changed if the period of vibrating body
were to be tripled?
(A)3 (B)1/3 (C)9 (D)27
4)A radio station broadcasts at frequency of 150MHz .The speed of the radio waves is [Link]
is its wavelength?
(A) 2m (B) 3.4m (C) 5m (D)3.6m
5) If the time period of a simple pendulum is 2s then its length is
(A)1.02m (B)1.2m (C)1.4m (D) 1.5m
6-Intensity level of 1db is equal to:
(A)0.1 bel (B)10 bel (C) 100 bel (D)0.01 bel

7)Here are the frequencies of four sounds .Which sound has highest pitch?
I)400 Hz II)150Hz III)500Hz IV)200Hz
(A) I only (B) III only (C)II and III (D)I and II
8)If the intensity of a source of sound is 10-9 W/m2 and the intensity of faintest audible sound is 10-12
W/m2,then the sound level of the source is:
(A)1dB (B)3dB (C)10Db (D)30Db
9)Double convex lens is used as a simple microscope when the object is placed
(A)on principal focus (F) (C)between principal focus and optical centre
(B)on centre of curvature (2F) (D)between F and 2F
10)If radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 26cm, its focal length will be:
(A)26cm (B)56cm (C)13cm (D) 2.6cm
11)Light going from denser to less denser medium speeds up, and the light rays bends ……………..
from the normal.
(A)towards (B)parallel (C)away (D)anti-parallel

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12)When angle of incidence is equal to critical angle ,angle of refraction is :
(A)30° (B)45° (C)60° (D)90°
13) A small air bubble in a glass slab appears to be 2.4 cm from the surface. Calculate the real depth
of the bubble if the RI of glass = 1.5
(A)3.6 cm (B)2.5 cm (C)1.6 cm (D)2.6 cm
14)Where will be the image formed when magnification is 1?
(A)At F (B) between F and 2F (C)At 2F (D)Beyond 2F
15)The power of convex lens is 5D .At what distance the object should be placed from the lens so that
its real and 2 times larger image is formed.
(A)30cm (B)35cm (C)25cm (D)40cm
[Link] the wrong statement .
(A)Power of concave lens is negative
(B)Focal length of convex lens is negative
(C)Focal length of convex mirror is negative
(D)A normal eye can not see clearly closer than the distance of 25cm from eye.
17)An object is placed at a distance of 12cm infront of a spherical mirror. As a result ,the image
formed behind the mirror is at a distance of 6cm.
The focal length of the mirror is
(A)4cm (B)6cm (C)12cm (D)18cm
18) The instrument used for testing and detecting the charge is
(A)endoscope (C) electroscope
(B) telescope (D) cystoscope
19)When three capacitors of different capacitance are connected in a parallel combination, then the
total capacitance of the combination will be:
(A) lesser than individual capacitance
(B) greater than the individual capacitance
(C) the sum of capacitance of any two capacitors
(D) the product of the capacitance of all the three capacitors
20)Five joules of work is needed to shift 10C of charge from one place to another. The potential
difference between the places is:
(A)0.5 V (B) 2 V (C)5V (D)10V
21) A capacitor holds 0.03 coulombs of charged by a 9 volt battery. What is the capacitance of the
capacitor?
(A) 0.27F (B) 3 x 102F (C)3.3 x10-3 F (D) 0.03 µF
22) The Coulomb‟s force between two identical charges is 80 N. if the distance between the charges is
doubled, then the force will be
(A) 20N (B) 40N (C) 160N (D) 320N

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23) When two capacitors of the capacitance 4µF and 6µF are connected in series, then the equivalent
capacitance will be?
(A) 2.4µF (B)3.4µF (C)4.4µF (D)5.4µF

24) A metal wire is used to connect the two spheres together. In a time of 2.0x10-3 s, a charge of
1.8x10-13C passes through the wire.
What is the current in a wire?
(A) 9x10-11 A (B) 9x1011A (C) 6.8x10-4 A (D) 4.3x10-12A
25) The earth wire in electrical appliance is connected to?
(A)fuse (B) metal case (C)switch button (D)plastic handle
26) Fleming‟s left hand rule is used to determine the direction of rotation of coil in given figure

N S

+ -

(A) upward (B) downward (C) clockwise (D) anticlockwise


27)Why should household appliances be connected in parallel arrangement?
(A)to increase the resistance of the circuit
(B) to decrease the resistance of the circuit.
(C) to provide each appliance the different voltage from power source.
(D)to provide each appliance the same current as the power source.
28) Two resistors of 6Ω and 12Ω are arranged in parallel. A p.d is across the terminals X and Y.
The current through the 6Ω resistor is 4A. 6
What is the current in the ammeter? Ω
2 A

x y

(A) 4 A (B)8A (C) 16A (D) 12A


29)An electric iron is marked 240 V,2500W.
Four fuses are available with values of 5A ,10A,13A,30A
Which fuse should be used?
(A) 5 A (B) 10 A (C) 13 A (D) 30 A
30) A lamp rated 6V , 2A is switched on for 60s .
How much energy is used?
(A) 0.2 J (B) 20 J (C) 180 J (D)720 J
31) The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor
(A) is weaker near the conductor.

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(B) is stronger near the conductor.
(C) is negligible near the conductor
(D) varies inpredictably near the conductor.
32-In electromagnetism ,according to Fleming‟s left hand rule ,the thumb indicates the direction of:
(A) Flux (B) force (C) current (D) magnetic
field

33-Device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is called.


(A)dc motor (B) generator (C) battery (D) thermo
couple
34-If magnetic flux through a coil or solenoid is changed, then:
(A) It will rotate
(B) e.m.f is induced
(C) coil oscillates
(D) coil becomes stationary

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35-A transformer is needed to convert a mains 240V supply into a 12V supply.
If there are 2000 turns on the primary coil ,then find the number of turns on secondary coil .
(A) 100 (B)200 (C) 150 (D) 300
36-The particles emitted from a hot cathode surface are:
(A) positive ions (B)negative ions (C) protons (D) electrons
37-One of the following is NOT the part of a cathode rays oscilloscope?
(A) An armature (B) An electron gun
(C)A deflecting plate (D) A fluorescent screen
38-Which of the following characterizes analogue quantity.
(A) It can be described by a finite number of sets
(B) Discrete levels represent changes in a quantity
(C) Its values follow a logarithmic response curve
(D) It has continuous set of values over a given range
39-Which of the following logic gate is used to invert the output.
(A) OR gate (B)NOT gate (C) NOR Gate (D) NAND
gate
40- The inputs of a NAND gate are A and [Link] output would be O when
(A)A = 1, B = 1 (B) A = 0, B = 0 (C) A = 1, B = 0 (D) A = 0,
B=1

Page 129 of 182


PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONS 2020-21
PHYSICS (PAPER KEY) CLASS: X

1- c 11- c 21- c 31- b


2- b 12- d 22- a 32- b
3- c 13- a 23- a 33- b
4- a 14- c 24- a 34- b
5- a 15- a 25- b 35- a
6- d 16- a 26- d 36- d
7- b 17- a 27- b 37- a
8- d 18- c 28- c 38- d
9- c 19- b 29- c 39- b
10- c 20- a 30- d 40- a

Page 130 of 182


1ST TERM EXAMINATIONS 2021-22
Physics Class: X Total Time: 1Hour20Minutes Total Marks: 50
(Paper I and ATP) Paper1:40
ATP:10
Note: Make your responses on the provided. sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil

1- Which of the following pendulums has the maximum time period?


Pendulum Length Mass
A 50 cm 50 gm
B 60 cm 40 gm
C 70 cm 30 gm
D 80 cm 10 gm

2- In a ripple tank, the factor(s) which change during refraction of water is/are
1- wavelength
2- speed of wave
3- frequency of wave
(A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

3- If the time taken by a pendulum to swing from its position „X‟ to its maximum displacement „Y‟ is
1.5 seconds, then the period of pendulum will be

(A) 0.75 sec (B) 1.5 sec (C) 3.0 sec (D) 6.0 sec
4. A transverse wave is transporting energy from east to west. The particles of the medium of the
transverse wave will move
(A) from east to west only (C) both eastward and westward
(B) from north to south only (D) both northward and southward
5. Which of the following types of waves is an example of longitudinal wave?
(A)radio waves (B) sound waves (C) water waves (D) micro waves
6. Highest and lowest points on transverse waves are called
(A) Trough, crest (B) crest, trough
(C) amplitude, time period (D) wavelength, time period
(7) The diagram shows the cross section of a water wave. Which distance is the amplitude of the
wave?

Page 131 of 182


I. from B to F
II. from C to E
III. downword distance D
(A) only I (B) only II (C) I, and II only (D) III only
8. If a sound is travelling through a solid at a speed of 2280m/s and has a frequency of 19Hz, what
will be the wave length of the sound?
(A) 60 m (B) 80 m (C) 100 m (D) 120 m

9. If a tuning fork vibrates 50 times in 2 seconds, then its frequency will be

(A) 25 Hz (B) 48 Hz (C) 52 Hz (D)100 Hz


10- Which of the following figures represents the loudest sound with the highest frequency?

-9
11- If the intensity of a source of sound is 10 W/m2 and the intensity of faintest audible sound is 10-12
W/m2, then the sound level of the source is
(A) 1 dB (B) 3 dB (C) 10 dB (D) 30 dB
12- At which point should an object be placed to get its image beyond 2F?

(A) at F (B) at 2F (C) beyond 2F (D)Between F and 2F


13. The real depth of a swimming pool is 2.5m.A boy looks down in the pool and he observes the depth
of the pool to be less than the real depth.

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How much the bottom of the pool appears to be raised from it‟s actual position.

(A) 1.87 m (B) 0.63 m (C) 0.53 m (D) 2.37 m


14- The given ray diagram shows an image formed by an optical [Link] instrument is a

(A) telescope (B) simple microscope (C) refracting telescope (D) compound microscope
15- In the given ray diagram, one of the defects of a human eye is shown. This defect of a human eye
can be corrected by using

(A) convex lens (B) concave lens (C) convex mirror (D)concave mirror
16. If the focal length of a convex lens is 10cm, then the power of that lens will be
(A) 0.01 diopter (B) 0.1 diopter (C) 1 diopter (D) 10 diopter
17. When a ray of light enters from a denser medium to a rare medium, it bends in the direction
(A) towards the normal (B) parallel to the normal
(C) away from the normal (D) perpendicular to the normal
18. Which ray of light makes a critical angle?

19. An object of 5 cm height is lying at a distance of 10 cm from a concave mirror. If the image is formed at a
distance of 12 cm from the pole of the concave mirror, then the size of the image is
(A) 4 cm (B) 9 cm (C) 50 cm (D) 6 cm
20. The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to
(A) the radius of curvature. (B) half of the radius of curvature.
(C) one third of the radius of curvature. (D) one fourth of the radius of curvature.
21. An object 5.0 cm high is placed 2.0 cm from a converging lens which is being used as a magnifying
glass. The image produced is 6.0 cm from the lens and is 15 cm high.

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What is the focal length of the lens?
(A) 2.0 cm (B) 3.0 cm (C) 4.0 cm (D) 6.0 cm
22. The human eye has a converging lens system that produces an image at the back of the eye. If the
eye views a distant object, which type of image is produced?
(A) real, erect, same size (B) real, inverted, diminished
(C) virtual, erect, diminished (D) virtual, inverted, magnified

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE


23. A lens forms a blurred image of an object on a screen.

How can the image be made sharp and in focus on the screen?
(A) By moving the object away from the lens and screen
(B) By moving the screen away from the lens and object
(C) By using a brighter abject at the same position
(D) By using a lens of longer focal length at the same position
24. Which instrument is used for observing distant objects
(A) Simple microscope (B) compound microscope (C) Endoscope (D) Telescope
25- All of the following are the uses of the electroscope EXCEPT it
(A) Detects the heat of the atmosphere
(B) Distinguishes between metals and non metals
(C) Detects the presence of charges in the atmosphere
(D) Detects the kind of charges present in the charged body
26- Which one of the options is correct for the given spheres

(A) Both are positively charged


(B) Both are negatively charged
(C) P is positively and Q is negatively charged
(D) Q is positively and P is negatively charged
27. The Coulomb‟s force between two identical charges is 80 N. If the distance between the charges is
doubled, then the force will be

Page 134 of 182


(A) 20 N. (B) 40 N. (C) 160 N. (D) 320 N.
28. A negatively charged balloon is brought towards a wall. Which statement explains what happens?
(A) Negative charges on the balloon attract the negative charges in the wall.
(B) Negative charges on the balloon have no effect on the charges in the wall.
(C) Negative charges on the balloon repel the negative charges in the wall.
(D) Negative charges on the balloon repel the positive charges in the wall.
29. One volt can also be written as
(A) One coulomb per ampere (B) one coulomb per joule
(C) One joule per ampere (D) one joule per coulomb
30. Example of fixed capacitor is/are
I. Paper capacitor
II. Mica capacitor
III. Tuning capacitor
(A) I and III only (B) II and III only (C) I only (D) I and II only
31. The current in an electric heater is 10 A. It is switched on for five minutes. How much charge
flows through the heater?
(A) 0.5 C (B) 2 C (C) 50 C (D)3000C
32. Energy is represented by the letter E, and power by P,Which pair of equations is correct?
(A) E = It and P =VIt (B) E = VQ/t and P = VI
(C) E = VIt and P = VI (D) E= VQ and P = VI/t
33. The earth wire in electrical appliance is connected to a
(A) Metal case (B) fuse (C) metal button (D) plastic handle
34. Power and voltage of different appliances is given. In which of the following appliances is a fuse of
rating 12 Ampere suitable?
Appliance Power Voltage
A. Iron 1000 240
B. Heater 1500 260
C. Electric motor 2500 110
D. Air Conditioner 3000 260

35. what is the reading on the voltmeter in the given circuit diagram?

(A) 4 volts (B) 8 volts (C) 12 volts (D) 16 volts

36. Which of the given diagrams shows I-V graph of a filament lamp?

Page 135 of 182


37. Which of the following is the unit of electromotive force?
(A) Newton (B) Ampere (C) Joule (D) Volt

38. What is the effective resistance of three resistors?

(A) 0.67 ohms (B) 1.50 ohms (C) 6.70 ohm (D) 15.0 ohm

39. The cost of energy is Rs 12/kWh. If 50 watt light bulb glows for 8 hours a day, then the cost of energy
consumed per day will be
(A) Rs 6.6 (B) Rs 9.6 (C) Rs 4.8 (D) Rs 96

40- In the given circuit diagram , the potential difference between point X and point Z is

(A)3 volt (B)4 volt (C)6 volt (D)12 volt

END OF PAPER

Page 136 of 182


NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
1ST TERM EXAMINATION 2021-22
CLASS: X PHYSICS ANSWER KEY

1: D 6: B 11: D 16: D 21: B 26: C 31: D 36: C


2: C 7: D 12: D 17: C 22: B 27: A 32: C 37: D
3: D 8: D 13:A 18: C 23: D 28: C 33: A 38: B
4: D 9: A 14: B 19: D 24: D 29: D 34: D 39: C
5: B 10: D 15: B 20: B 25: A 30: D 35: D 40: D

Page 137 of 182


PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONS 2021-22
PHYSICS CLASS: 10TH TIME: 1 HOUR 40 MINUTES
MARKS: 50
(PAPER 1 and ATP) (PAPER 1=40 Marks, ATP=10Marks)
Note: i. The marks obtained on the first 40 MCQs will be equated to the total marks of 65 for the theory examination
results.
ii. Make your responses on the provided sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil

1. Acceleration is maximum in ball and bowl system At


A. Extreme point B. Mean point
C. Between mean to extreme point D. Between extreme to mean point
2. When water waves in ripple tank moves from deep to shallow part which properties remain
same, during refraction
i) frequency ii) wave length iii) speed
A. iii only B. i only C. ii and iii D. i,ii,iii
3. A vibrator of frequency 3 Hz produces water waves in a ripple tank. Which of the following values
of wavelength and speed are possible?
Wavelength Speed cm/s
A 3 1
B 15 5
C 3 6
D 4 12
4. Which statement is true about waves.
A. All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves
B. All transverse waves move with speed of light
C. water waves are longitudinal waves.
D. Sounds are electromagnetic in nature
5. wavelength of a wave is denoted as lambda and amplitude is denoted as ‘A’, then the shortest
horizontal distance between crest and the next trough is equal to
A. ½ of lambda C. ½ of A
B. Lambda D. A
6. A doctor counts 180 heartbeats in 3 minutes then time period is
A. 60 sec B. 540 sec C. 1 sec D. 0.5 sec
7. Why does the amplitude of a sound wave decreases when it moves away from its source?
A. Because the frequency of the sound wave decreases.
B. Because the speed of the sound wave decreases.
C. Because the wavelength of the sound wave decreases.
D. Because the energy of the wave is spread over a larger area.
8. Which statement about sound wave is TRUE?
A. Sound waves can propagate as longitudinal or transverse waves, depending on the
transmission medium.

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B. Sound waves are transverse waves and they propagate perpendicular to the transmission
medium.
C. Sound waves are longitudinal waves and they propagate parallel to the transmission
medium.
D. Sound waves can propagate as longitudinal or transverse waves, depending on the
temperature of the medium.
9. A concave mirror have focal length 15cm and object placed 15cm front of mirror, then image
formed at.
A. 15cm B. 30cm C. 1cm D. Never formed

10. If magnification is 2 then which option is true for object and image distance
Q P
A 1 2
B 20 10
C 10 20
D 10 0.5

11. In simple microscope, object must be placed to get virtual image


A. on F B. Between F and 2 F C. Between F and O D. On 2F
12. If light enters from air to glass. If refracted angle is 24 then incident angle is
A. Less than 24 B. Grater than 24 C. Equal to 24 D. Equal to 90
13. Mirage is a phenomenon which occurs due to
A. Refraction of light. C. Total internal reflection of light.
B. Reflection of light. D. Diffraction of light.
14. Which of the following is true for all lenses.
A. All magnified images are inverted. C. All real images are inverted.
B. All virtual images are inverted. D. All diminished images are inverted.
15. Find the focal length of the mirror that forms an image 26 cm behind the mirror of an object
placed at 6.2 cm infront of the mirror.
A. 6.58 cm C. 7.80 cm
B. 8.14 cm D. 9.60 cm
16. The floor of a water tank appears at a depth of 3 [Link] the refractive index of water is 1.33 then
the actual depth of water is
A.0.44 m C. 2.25 m
B. 1.67 m D. 3.99 m
17. A convex lens with focal length 8.0 cm has power equal to
A. 2.05 D C. 12.5 D
B. 4.00 D D. 16.0 D
18. Initially sphere A has a charge of -50C and sphere B has a charge of +[Link] spheres are made of
conducting materials and are identical in size . If the spheres touch each other, what is the resulting
charge on sphere A?
A. +15C C. +35C
B. -15C D. -35C
19. An additional capacitor is added to a group of capacitors already connected in series, the
equivalent capacitance of the combination will
A. increase C. Decrease
B. Stay the same D. Become zero

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20. A metal sphere is connected to earth. A positively charged rod approaches the sphere and stops
before touching it.

What is the movement of charge on the sphere and what is the final charge on the sphere?
Movement of the charge Final charge on sphere
A. Negative charges move from Negative
earth to the sphere
B. Negative charges move from Neutral
earth to the sphere
C. Positive charges move from Negative
the sphere to earth
D. Positive charges move from Neutral
the sphere to earth.

21 .The Coulomb’s law between two identical charges is 100 N, if distance between bodies increases 5
times, then coulomb’s force becomes
A. 4N B. 5N C. 20N D. 500N.

[Link] get maximum capacitance, three capacitors each having 6F capacitance can be connected in such a
way that
A. All capacitors in series B. All capacitors in parallel
C. Two in series and third in parallel to both D. First two in parallel and third in series
with both

[Link] will be the effect on Coulomb’s force, if distance between the charges is halved?
A. Decreased two times B. Increased four times
C. Decreased four times D. Increased two times
[Link] graph between voltage and current is in straight line in
A. Ohmic conductors B. Filament Lamp
C. Thermistors D. Diode
25. If 3 bulbs connected in series, if first bulb burn out then?
[Link] increases for next two B. Brightness decreases for next two
C. Brightness remains same D. Brightness becomes zero
26. Which one of these is better conductor of electricity? Specific resistance of some materials is given
below.
A. Sliver 1.6x10-8 B. Copper 1.7x10-8
C. Graphite 3000x10-8 D. iron 9.8x10-8

27.For1.5kW electric kettle, which is connected with 250V source, which fuse is the best for kettle
A. 1.5A B. 5A C. 6A D. 7 A
28. Which costs the most when operated from the same mains supply?
A.a 5000 W electric cooker used for 1 minute. B. a 1000 W electric fire used for 10 minutes

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C. a 5000 W electric iron used for 1 hour. D. a 100 W lamp used for 1 day.

29. The diagram shows a standard mains plug.

What are the correct colours for the wires.?


Neutral Earth Live
A Blue Brown Green and yellow
B Blue Green and yellow Brown
C Brown Green and yellow Blue
D Green and yellow Brown Blue

30. Which changes both cause a decrease in the resistance of a copper wire?
Size of wire Temperature of wire
A Decrease in length Lower
B Increase in length Lower
C Decrease in thickness Higher
D Increase in thickness Higher
31. The diagram shows part of an a.c generator when its coil is in a hotizontal position.

The graph shows the voltage output plotted against [Link] point on the graph shows when the
coil is in a vertical position?

32 . A current carrying wire in which current flow in northward direction is deflected towards the
east by a magnetic force. The direction of the magnetic field is
A. Straight up. C. South
B. Straight down. D. West

33. A transformer consists of two coils which are wound on to a metallic core. Which type of voltage
us supplied to the transformer and which metal is used to make the core.
Supply voltage Metal

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A Alternating Iron
B Alternating Steel
C Direct Iron
D Direct Steel

34. A transformer that work on the principle of


A. Mutual induction B. Self-induction C. Coulomb’s law D. Faraday’s law

35. If a rectangular coil placed in a magnetic field at rest induced current will be
A. Zero B. Maximum
C. Produce half of total amount D. Produce only ¼ of total amount
36. In logic gate the total number of truth table entries for a one input circuit are
A. 1 B. 2. C. 4 D. 8

37. The name of the gate represented in the given truth table is

Inputs Output
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
A. AN B. OR C. NAND D. NOR
38. Two NAND gates combine together to form another gate which is
A. AND B. NAND C. NOR D. NOT
39. One of them is part of C.R.O
A. Split ring B. Slipring C. Grid D. Commutator
40. All of the following are fundamental gates EXCEPT
A. OR
B. NOT
C. NOR
D. AND

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Physics pre board Class 10th
Answer Key

1 A 11 C 21 A 31 B
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 A
3 D 13 C 23 B 33 A
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 A
5 A 15 B 25 D 35 A
6 C 16 D 26 A 36 B
7 D 17 C 27 D 37 C
8 C 18 B 28 D 38 A
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 C
10 B 20 A 30 A 40 C

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1ST TERM EXAMINATIONS 2022-23
PHYSICS (PAPER I) CLASS: 10TH TIME: 1 HOUR 10 MINUTES
MARKS: 40

Note: Make your responses on the provided sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil.

1. The period of a simple pendulum will be doubled if________


A. Its length is increased to four times
B. The acceleration due to gravity is doubled
C. The mass of the bob is doubled
D. The length of the pendulum and mass of the bob are doubled
2. Which of the following characteristic of a wave is independent of the others.
A. speed B. frequency C. amplitude D. wavelength
3. The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 seconds if its length is increased by 4 times
then its period becomes
A. 16 SECONDS B. 12 SECONDS C. 8 SECONDS D. 4 SECONDS
4. The frequency of sound wave is 50 Hz and its wavelength is 4m. What is the distance
travelled by the sound wave in 3s?
A.100m B.600m C.200m D.300m
5. The time taken by the given simple pendulum to swing from its position „Y‟ to „X‟ is„t‟.
If the pendulum is placed in a laboratory and its length does not change, then the time period
of the pendulum will be

A.t B.2t C.4t D.5t


6. The ratio of length of two simple pendulums is 2:3 find the ratio of their frequency
A.√2/3 B.√3/4 C.√3/2 D.√ 2/9
7. A certain pendulum has an iron bob. When the iron bob is replaced by lead bob of same size
and amplitude is double, its time period will be
A. Same B. Decreased C. Increased D. Zero

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8. We can easily distinguish between the sounds of the different singers even without having seen
them. This is all due the different quality or timber of their sounds. On what factor does the quality of
sound depend?

A. Wavelength B. Waveform C. Wave frequency D. Wave amplitude

9. The distance between a compression and rarefaction in a sound wave is 0.15 m. The period of
the sound wave is 0.20 milliseconds. The speed of the sound is ___________.
A.3300 m/s B. 750 m/s C. 1500 m/s D. 330 m/s
10. Two notes are played on a guitar. The second note is louder and has a higher pitch.
The second note is
A. higher in amplitude and lower in frequency
B. lower in amplitude and higher in frequency
C. higher in both amplitude and frequency
D. lower in both amplitude and frequency
11. Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected__________.

A. Radio waves
B. Ultrasonic waves
C. Electromagnetic waves
D. Infrasonic waves
12. Four sound waves are displayed in the figure which sound wave shows loudest sound with
lowest pitch.

13. A flash of lightning and the corresponding thunder clap are detected 6 s apart. It is calculated
that the lightning struck about 1800 m away.
On which assumption is the calculation based?
A. Light reaches us almost instantaneously, but sound travels at 300 ms−1
B. The sound of the thunder was emitted 6 s after the flash
C. Light travels 300 ms−1 faster than sound
D. Sound reaches us almost instantaneously, but light travels at 300 ms−1
14. A fish in a pond looks up at a man standing beside the pond. To the fish, the man appears
_________.

A. Larger and nearer than he actually is.


B. Smaller and further than he actually is.
C. Smaller and nearer than he actually is.
D. Larger and further than he actually is

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CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

15.

16. If a ray is traveling from denser medium to rare medium then increasing the angle of incidence
A. Decreases angle of refraction
B. Equals angle of refraction
C. Increases angle of refraction
D. Increases angle of incidence
17. Focal length of convex mirror with radius of curvature 20cm is
A. +20cm B. +10cm C. -20cm D. -10cm

18. For total internal reflection angle of incidence must be


A. equal to 90o B. equal to critical angle C. greater than 90o D. greater than critical
angle

19. Focal length of lens, having power – 5D, will be:


A. 0.2 m B. 0.5m C. - 0.2m D. - 0.5m

20. A metal coin is at bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid of refractive index = 4/3 to
height of 6 cm. To an observer looking from above the surface of liquid, coin will appear at
a depth of
A. 1.5 cm B. 6.75 cm C. 4.5 cm D. 7.5 cm

21. For a telescope, the larger the diameter of the objective lens

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A. Greater the resolving power
B. Greater the magnifying power
C. Smaller the resolving power
D. Smaller the magnifying power

22. What happens when a positively charged rod is brought near a piece of paper?
A. The rod causes the paper atom to become ionized.
B. The free electrons in the paper move towards the side nearer the rod.
C. The rod causes a distortion of the charge distribution in the paper's atoms.
D. The rod causes a break down of air molecules between the rod and the paper.
23. A positively charged particle is released from rest in a uniform electric field. The
electric potential energy of the charge
A. Remains a constant because the electric field is uniform.
B. Increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
C. Decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
D. Decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.

24. Two insulated metal spheres X and Y are initially in contact. While a positively charged
rod is near X, the spheres are moved apart. After this action X has a negative charge.

The charge on Y will be:


A. Negative and the same size as that on X.
B. Positive and smaller than that on X.
C. Positive and the same size as that on X.
D. Negative and smaller than that on X.

25. Calculate the total capacitance.

A. 10F B. 15F C. 13F D. 20F

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26.

27. Two charges are placed at a certain distance. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled the force
will become
A. 1/4th of its original value B. 1/8th of its original value

C. 4 times of its original value D. 8 times of its original value

28. The cable to an electric cooker contains a live wire, a neutral wire and an earth wire.
When the cooker is working correctly, In which wires are the currents equal?
A. the live, the neutral and the earth
B. the live and the earth only
C. the neutral and the live only
D. the neutral and the earth only
29. In an a.c. electric circuit in a house, the switch for any device is always connected to the
'live' lead. Why is this?
A. The device will always be off if the switch is in the neutral lead.
B. The device will be short circuited if the switch is in the earth lead.
C. No current ever flows in the neutral lead of the device.
D. The device can only be isolated (made safe) if the switch is in the live lead.
30. A 24Ωresistor is to be connected in series with a 12 V battery.
What is the power loss in the resistor?
A. 12 W B. 24 W C. 0.5 W D. 6 W

31. The diagram shows a voltmeter adapted to measure a range from 0 - 100 mV. The
voltmeter is measuring the potential difference in a circuit.

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What is the reading on the voltmeter?
A. 60 mV B. 0.06 mV C. 6 mV D. 0.6 mV
32. When the length of the conductor is doubled and the area of cross-section remains the same then its
resistance
A. Remains the same B. will be doubled C. Will become half D. Will increase by four times

33. The following graph shows current versus voltage values of some unknown conductor.
What is the resistance of this conductor?

A. 2 ohm B. 4 ohm C. 8 ohm D. 1 ohm


34. One joule is equal to one _______
A. Volt-Coulomb B. Joule-Coulomb C. Horsepower D. Ampere-Joule

35. Which one of the following is NOT a web browser?


A. Firefox B. Facebook C. Chrome D. Safari

36. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of Information Technology?


A. Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for processing information
B. Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for distribution of useful
information
C. Information Technology refers to the use of principles of Physical sciences and Social sciences for
processing of information of many kinds.
D. Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for storage, retrieval, processing
and distributing information of many kinds.
37. Internet explorer is a/an
A. Operating system B. Compiler C. Browser D. IP address

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38. RAM is placed on

A. Hard Disk
B. Extension board
C. Motherboard
D. USB
39. The set of instructions and rules to design and use information system are called
A. software
B. data
C. hardware
D. procedures
40. A molded plastic disc on which digital data is stored in the form of microscopic reflecting and non-
reflecting spots is known as
A. audio cassette
B. floppy disk
C. hard disk
D. compact disc

END OF PAPER I

Page 150 of 182


1ST TERM EXAMINATIONS 2022-23
PHYSICS (PAPER II) CLASS: 10TH TIME: 1 HOUR 50 MINUTES
MARKS:25

NAME ________________________________________________________ ROLL NO ____________ SECTION


_____________

Q.1.
3 marks

The diagram given below in figure shows a ray of light AO falling on a surface separating two media.
Draw the refracted ray in each case also write reason of your answer.

________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
Q.2. 3
marks
An eye has a near point distance of 0.75 m. What sort of lens in spectacles would be needed to
reduce the near point distance to 0.25 m? Is this eye long-sightedness or short-sightedness? write
the cause of this defect.
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

Q.3.
3 marks
What is the depth of a pond if a shiny penny lying at the bottom of it appears to be 3 meters
deep to a person looking normally to the water surface?
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________
Q.4. Draw a labeled diagram to show the transmission of light signals through optical fiber.
Also name the phenomenon used in optical fiber.
2 marks
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
Q.5.
What is difference between RAM and ROM.?
2 marks
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

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CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
ERQS
Q.6
6 marks
a. A water wave is generated in a ripple tank by an oscillator that vibrates 50 times in 30
seconds. A given trough of the wave travels 50.0 cm in 15 seconds. What is the wavelength of

the water wave?


OR
b. Ali is a social worker who wants to create awareness regarding the use of acoustic
protection in the major cities of Pakistan. He is planning to publish a brochure to explain the
advantages of protection to the public.
As a physics student, define acoustic protection and suggest advantages of acoustic protection
which should be published in the brochure.
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
Page 153 of 182
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
Q.7 Either 4
marks
I.
a. Three resistors of 3Ω each are connected as shown in the [Link] the current drawn
from the battery

b. In which of the given figure, meter is showing large current?A1 or A2 ? write your answer with
a reason.
All resistors are of same value. 2
marks

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OR
c. Two points charges q1=+9uC and q2=4uC sepreated by a distance r =[Link] is the
magnitude of the electric force?
4 marks

d. If the distance between two charged particles is doubled, then what will be the strength of
electric force between them?
2 marks
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

Page 155 of 182


________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

Page 156 of 182


END OF PAPER II
PHYSICS CLASS 10TH 1ST TERM EXAMS 2022-23
KEY PAPER I
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. B and D
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. A
34. A
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. C
39. D
40. D

Page 157 of 182


Answer key Paper II Physics class 10th 2022-23
Q.1.
The diagram given below in figure shows a ray of light AO falling on a surface separating two media. Draw the
refracted ray in each case

Answer. Solution:

Refracted ray OC is shown in each case

(a) Towards the normal or Angle of refraction < angle of incidence

(b) Away from the normal or Angle of refraction > Angle of incidence

(c) Refracted ray goes undeviated or angle of incidence = 0

Angle of refraction = 0

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1 mark for each correct diagram and correct explanation.

Q.2. 3 MARKS
An eye has a near point distance of 0.75 m. What sort of lens in spectacles would be needed to reduce
the near point distance to 0.25 m ? Also calculate the power of lens required. Is this eye long-sighted or
short-sighted?

Cause: due to eye-ball being too short or aue to low converting power of eye-lens(because of its large focal
length) (1)

The person should use a convex lens. (1)

Q 3.

What is the depth of a pond if a shiny penny lying at the bottom of it appears to be 3 meters deep
to a person looking normally to the water surface? The index of refraction of water is n = 4/3.
Ans

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 Apparent depth of penny at the bottom of the pond, dapp =3 m

 Refractive index of water =4/3

Finding the actual depth (d) of the pond

The apparent depth (of the penny at the bottom of the pond) is given by the expression:

Refractive index = real depth/ apparent depth

refractive index ×apparent depth = real depth

1.33×3m= actual depth

d =4 m

Q4. 1 mark for diagram


1 mark for phenomenous

b. Microsoft Windows is an example of which component of information systems? 1mark for


. It is an operating system, which is a part of the software component
Q5. What is difference between RAM and ROM?

Difference RAM ROM


RAM is a volatile memory which could ROM is a non-volatile memory which could
Data
store the data as long as the power is retain the data even when power is turned
retention
supplied. off.
Data stored in RAM can be retrieved and
Working type Data stored in ROM can only be read.
altered.
Used to store the data that has to be It stores the instructions required during
Use
currently processed by CPU temporarily. bootstrap of the computer.
Speed It is a high-speed memory. It is much slower than the RAM.
CPU The CPU can not access the data stored on
The CPU can access the data stored on it.
Interaction it unless the data is stored in RAM.
Size and
Small size with less capacity. Large size with higher capacity.
Capacity
Used as/in CPU Cache, Primary memory. Firmware, Micro-controllers
Accessibility The data stored is easily accessible The data stored is not as easily accessible

Page 160 of 182


Difference RAM ROM
as in RAM
Cost Costlier cheaper than RAM.
A RAM chip can store only a few A ROM chip can store multiple gigabytes
Storage
megabytes of data. (GB) of data.

ERQS

Q.6.
a.
A water wave is generated in a ripple tank by an oscillator that vibrates 50 times in 30 seconds. A
given trough of the wave travels 50.0 cm in 15 seconds. What is the wavelength of the water wave?
Answer and Explanation: 1

Given:

 The oscillator vibrates 50 times in 30 seconds.

The frequency of oscillation is f=50/30 Hz.

1 mark for finding out the value of correct frequency

 The trough of the wave travels 50.0 cm (0.5 m) in 15 seconds.

1 mark for unit conversion cm to m

The speed of the wave is v=0.5/15 m/s

1 mark for finding out the correct value of speed

From the wave equation, we calculate the wavelength of the wave.

v=fλ

1 Mark for formula of speed

0.5/15=50/30×λ

λ=0.02 m⇒(Answer)

1 mark for putting correct values


Page 161 of 182
1 mark for correct answer
b.
 The techniques/methods we use to absorb undesirable sounds by using soft-porous
surface is called acoustic protection Advantages/Importance.
(i) They are important in reducing noise that may damage a person’s health.
(ii) To transmit sounds clearly and effectively.
(iii) In a work place to reduce noise levels and any background noise.
(iv) To reduce stress levels.
(v) To improve the learning and listening process by using acoustic protention in lecture
rooms and seminar halls.
(vi) To avoid permanent hearing loss due to noise in workplace.

[Link] a.
(i) Two ressitors are inseries to form R1: so R1=3Ω+3Ω=6Ω
R1 and R2 are parallel, so total resistance is:
1 1 1 1 2 3 1
    
Re 6 3 6 6 2
R e  2
(ii)
V  I Re
so 3v  I  2 1 for correct data 1 for answer
3
I   1.5 A
2

[Link] C
Fe=kq1q2/r 2

Fe=8.99×109(9×10−6)(4×10−6) /(0.12)2

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Fe=8.99×109(3.6×10−11)/0.0144

Fe=0.32364/0.0144

Fe = 22.475 N
Q7. Part
b
Q7. Part
d

2. If the distance between two charged particles is doubled, then what will be the strength of
electric force between them? 2 marks

Page 163 of 182


1 mark for
Quartered
1 mark for formula

Page 164 of 182


PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONS 2022-23
PHYSICS (PAPER 1) CLASS: 10TH TIME: 1 HOUR 10 MINUTES MARKS: 40
Note. Make your responses on the provided answer sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil.

1. If time period is 0.3 minutes second, then the frequency is


(A) 400 Hz (B) 3.3Hz
(C) 0.05Hz (D) 0.005Hz
2. Kinetic energy and acceleration at mean position is
Kinetic energy Acceleration
(A) Maximum Minimum
(B) Maximum Zero
(C) Minimum Maximum
(D) Minimum Zero
3. The greater the sound energy, the louder is the sound. The loudness depends upon
(A) frequency (B) amplitude
(C) wavelength (D) time period
4. In Ripple tank, which quantity remains constant?
(A) frequency (B) amplitude
(C) wavelength (D) time period
5. A low pitched note have
Frequency Wavelength
(A) Low Long
(B) Low Short
(C) High Long
(D) High Short
6. A sound that reaches after 0.10 seconds after original sound is known as
(A) reverberation (B) tone
(C) infrasonic (D) echo
7. For range finding in underwater we use
(A) SONAR (B) infrasonic
(C) Acoustics (D) reflection

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CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
8. After the train passed, the pitch of the train whistle became lower. This change in sound
would be represented by what change in the diagram above?

(A) The distance represented by C would increase


(B) The distance represented by C would decrease
(C) The distance represented by D would increase
(D) The distance represented by D would decrease
9. The focal length “f” , is ______________ the radius of curvature.
(A) double (B) one half
(C) one fourth (D) four times

10. If focal length is 20 cm, then power of a lens is


(A) 0.5 D (B) 5 D
(C) 0.05 D (D) 50 D
11. An object O is placed in front of a [Link] ray diagram shows the path of two light rays
that start at the object

Which point P or Q is a principal focus nad what type of image is formed?


principal focus Type of image
formed
(A) Point P Real
(B) Point P Virtual
(C) Point Q Real
(D) Point Q Virtual

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12. If object is at F in convex lens, then the image is formed
(A) at F (B) at 2F
(C) No image (D) Beyond 2F
13. Following is true for Hypermetropia
(A) It can be corrected by using a convex lens
(B) It may arise when focal length of eye lens is loo long
(C) It may arise when eyeball has become too small
(D) all of above
14. In series combination of capacitors, the equivalent capacitance
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) equal (D) have no change
15. In parallel combination of capacitors, which quantity remains same
(A) voltage (B) current
(C) charge (D) capacitance
16. Electric intensity direction is the same as that of the force acting on the
(A) positive test charge (B) negative test charge
(C) neutral test charge (D) positive charge

17. The diagram shows an unchanged ball covered with metallic paint. The ball is suspended
from an insulating thread. It is placed near a positively changed rod.

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the ball?

18. What happens to the brightness of the lamps, as more and more lamps are added in
series?
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) have no change
19. What happens to the specific resistance of a substance if its area of cross-section is
doubled?
(A) becomes half (B) becomes double
(C) remains same (D) becomes four times

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20. In the direction of conventional current, which charges flow
(A) electrons (B) negative charges
(C) positive charges (D) Neutral charges
21. If current is 3A, resistance of wire is 2 ohm and time is 5 second then energy is
(A) 30 J (B) 60 J
(C) 150 J (D) 90 J
22. In right hand rule for solenoid, fingers indicate
(A) South pole (B) north pole
(C) induced current (D) voltage

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

23. A magnet oscillates vertically above a coil of wire

As the lower end of the magnet oscillates between P and R. a varying e.m.f is induced across the
coil.
(A) at R only (B) at Q only
(C) at P or at R (D) at P or at Q
24. Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy in
(A) D. C. motor (B) cell
(C) battery (D) A. C. generator

25. The phenomenon in which the E. M. F is induced in one circuit due to change in current in
another circuit is
(a) Self-induction (B) resistance
(C) Mutual induction (D) capacitance
26. The diagram shows a current- carrying wire placed between two magnetic poles. The
current is in the direction shown. What is the direction of the force on the wire?

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(A) towards the bottom of the page (B) towards the top of the page
(C) towards the left-hand side of the page (D) towards the right-hand side of the
page

27. In Laboratory, cathode ray oscilloscope CAN NOT be used as


(A) to display different types of waveform (B) for showing current
(C) to measure short time interval (D) to measure potential difference
28. In AND gate, the out put is 1 when.
(a) Only one of its inputs is 0 (B) Both of inputs are 1
(C) One of its inputs is 1 (D) No input is 1
29. The quantities whose values vary in non-continuous manner are
(A) analogue quantities (B) digital quantities
(C) logarithmic quantities (D) both (A) and (B)
30. In C. R. O. grid G is used for controlling the flow of
(A) electrons (B) protons
(C) neutrons (D) positrons
31. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is
(A) OR gate (B) AND gate
(C) NOT gate (D) NAND gate
32. Programs on the computer with written commands that tell a computer what task to
perform.
(A) Hardware (B) Network
(C) Modem (D) Software
33. Primary storage device is
(A) R. A. M. (B) Hard disk
(C) optical disk (D) U. S. B.
34. The data stored in CD/DVD-ROM, is stored as a series of?
(A) Pits and Lands (B) Digital media
(C) 1 and 2 (D) Label and Tags
35. Primary memory is based on electronics and consists of
(A) Cathode ray tube (B) integrated circuits
(C) transistors (D) resistors

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36. In radiations, which has most penetrating power
(A) beta particle (B) gamma ray
(C) alpha particle (D) both (A) and (C)

37. In uranium 92U238 , number of neutrons are


(A) 92 (B) 146
(C) 238 (D) 330
38. Which statement of a half life of a radioactive isotopes is correct?
(A) Half-life is the time it takes for the mass of isotopes to decrease to zero

(B) Half-life is the time it takes for the number of the isotope to decrease to zero
(C) Half-life is the time it takes for the nucleon number of the isotope to halve
(D) Half-life is the time takes for the number of nuclei of the isotope to halve
39. 4He2 + 27Al13 → ? + 1n0
(A) 24Na11 (B) 14C6
(C) 30P15 (D) 60 Co27
40. For the diagnosis of brain tumor, which radioisotopes is used
(A) iodine 32 (B) cobalt 60
(C) carbon 14 (D) phosphorus 32

END OF PAPER 1

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PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONS 2022-23
PHYSICS (PAPER 2) CLASS: 10TH TIME: 1 Hour 50 Minutes MARKS: 25

Registration Number: __________________________________________

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Total
Obtained
Marks
Marker
Name

Q. No. 1: If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8
cm, find the position , nature and height of the image.
Total Marks (3)

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Q. No. 2: Total
Marks (3)

In electromagnetic induction, current is induced. What are the three factors which effect magnitude of
induced E. M.F.

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Q. No. 3: Total Marks (2)

Write two differences between analogue and digital electronics.

Q. No. 4: Why do we send data through waves instead of wires for communication? Total Marks (2)

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Q. No. 5: Total Marks (3)

Write examples for alpha, beta and gamma decay with complete equations. (3)

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CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

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[Link].6: EITHER Total Marks (6)
(1+1+2+2)

a) Define simple harmonic motion. A simple pendulum has length of 2m. If the value of “g” on earth is
10m/s2 and on moon 1.6m/s2, then what is the time period of pendulum on earth and on moon.

OR

b) There are three characteristics of sound such as Pitch, Loudness and quality. Write definitions and
factors upon which they depend.
(2+2+2)

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[Link].7: EITHER Total


Marks (6)

a) Define electrostatic induction. In Coulomb’s law the formula is F = kq1q2/r2, what is the change of force
if

i) Magnitude of each charge is doubled

ii) Distance between the charges is double

iii) Both of the charges and the distance between them is doubled

iv) Magnitude of one charge is doubled

v) Distance between the charges is increased three times

OR
(2+2+2)

b) If three resistors R1, R2, R3 are joined together and have two types of combinations such as series and
parallel then derive equations of equivalent resistance of these combinations with circuit diagrams.

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END OF PAPER 2

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CLASS X PHYSICS PAPER I Pre Board 2022-23

1 C
2 B
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 A
9 B
10 B
11 B
12 C
13 D
14 B
15 A
16 A
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 D
22 C
23 B
24 D
25 C
26 A
27 B
28 B
29 B
30 A
31 C
32 D
33 A AND B
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 B
38 D
39 C
40 D

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Class 10th physics pre board exams 2022-23

Q1:

1 1 1
 
f q p
1 1 1
  
8 q 12
1 1 1
 
8 12 q
24cm  q...............................(1)

Real and inverted image…………………..(1)

hi q

ho  p

24
hi   7  14cm..................(1)
12

OR

1 1 1
 
f p q
1 1 1
 
8 12 q
1 1 1 hi q
  
8 12 q ho p 2
12  8 1 24
 hi   7
a q 12
4 1
 invert and real image is formed..............(1)
96 24
q  24cm..................(1)

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Q. No. 3: 1 mark for correct labeling

1 mark for correct output i—e 1

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[Link].4: (i) Because waves travel with the speed of light
(ii) Fast communication
(iii) Less data loss or frictional losses

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Common questions

Powered by AI

If an object is placed at twice the focal length (2F) in front of a converging lens, the image formed is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object. It is located at the same distance (2F) on the opposite side of the lens .

The real depth of the bubble is the perceived depth divided by the refractive index of the glass. If a bubble appears to be at 2.4 cm but is actually deeper due to the refractive index of glass being 1.5, the real depth can be calculated as 3.6 cm (2.4 cm multiplied by 1.5).

For total internal reflection to occur, the light must travel from a denser medium to a rarer medium, and the angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle specific to the pair of media involved .

The bending of light through a prism results in dispersion, where white light is separated into its constituent colors. This bending increases as the frequency of light decreases and the wavelength decreases, causing different colors to spread out at different angles due to their varying refractive indices .

A convex lens is used to correct short-sightedness (myopia) because it converges light rays before they enter the eye, effectively moving the focal point back onto the retina, allowing the person to see distant objects clearly .

A compound microscope uses a system of lenses—specifically, an objective lens with a shorter focal length positioned close to the sample to create a magnified real image, and an eyepiece lens further magnifying this image. This arrangement allows for high magnification by combining the power of multiple lenses .

A telescope uses an objective lens to gather light and focus it to form an image, and an eyepiece lens to magnify this image for viewing. The objective lens has a larger aperture to collect more light from distant objects, while the eyepiece provides the necessary magnification to reveal details .

The frequency of a sound wave is directly related to its pitch; higher frequencies correspond to higher pitches. For example, among given frequencies, a sound with 500 Hz is perceived as having the highest pitch .

In fiber optics, the critical angle is crucial because it determines the minimum angle at which light must hit the core-cladding boundary to be totally internally reflected. This total internal reflection is necessary for light to be transmitted over long distances with minimal loss, making critical angle a key factor in efficient fiber optic design .

Light slows down when passing through glass because the denser medium causes the light waves to interact more frequently with the material's atoms, reducing the speed. In contrast, in empty space, light travels without such interactions, maintaining its maximum speed .

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