10th Grade Physics Workbook: Harmonic Motion
10th Grade Physics Workbook: Harmonic Motion
PHYSICS 10TH
WORKBOOK 2023-2024
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2. If a stone is dropped in a tank of water, then the waves formed on the surface of the water are
called
A. travelling waves. B. stationary waves. C. transverse waves D. longitudinal waves.
3. Waves transmit
A. force. B. inertia. C. energy D. momentum.
4. In the cross section of a bowl, a metallic ball executed simple harmonic motion. If the ball starts
its motion from point A, then at which point will it have the maximum kinetic energy?
8. Which of the following depicts the appropriate change in wave length and speed of water
waves, when they pass from deep to shallow water?
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9. In the given figure the frequency of the wave source is 3 Hz. The velocity of the wave will be
10. The given diagram shows two persons holding the opposite ends of a rope.
If one person gives an up and down jerk to the rope, then which of the following types of wave is
produced in the rope?
11. If a pendulum makes 22 complete cycles of vibration in 11 seconds, then its frequency will be
A. 0.5 Hz B. 1.0 Hz C. 2.0 Hz D. 4.0 Hz
12. Which of the following will happen when water waves enter the shallow part of a ripple tank?
13. All of the following means are used to transfer energy from one place to another
EXCEPT
A. matter. B. charges. C. mechanical waves .D. electromagnetic waves.
14. Wars on Earth are very noisy affairs but a war in space will be very quiet because
A. space is very far from the Earth.
B. sound waves cannot travel through a vacuum.
C. sound waves lose energy as they reach the Earth.
D. sound waves are blocked by the planets in space.
15. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, then the time period of the wave will
A. become double. B. decrease to half.
C. remain the same. D. decrease to a quarter.
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16. If the velocity of a sound wave is 340 m/s and its frequency is 200 Hz, then the wavelength of
this sound wave will be
A. 0.6 m B. 1.7 m C. 140 m D. 540 m
18. Which of the following depicts the appropriate change in wavelength and speed of water
waves, when they pass from deep to shallow water?
19. In the given figure, the frequency of the wave source is 3 Hz. The velocity of the wave will be
20. A sound wave is a mechanical wave. This means that it CANNOT transport energy through
A. solids. B. liquids. C. plasma. D. vacuum.
21. If the particles of a medium move back and forth along the direction of propagation of a wave,
then this type of wave is known as
A. surface wave. B. transverse wave.
C. longitudinal wave. D. electromagnetic wave.
22. If a mechanical wave moves from a lighter to a denser medium, then which of the following
factors will change during refraction?
I. Wavelength
II. Speed of wave
III. Frequency of wave
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III
23. In a transverse wave, the individual particles of the medium move
A. in a circle.
B. in an ellipse.
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C. parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
D. perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
24. In a ripple tank, the factor(s) which change during refraction of water waves is/ are
I. wavelength
II. speed of wave
III. frequency of wave
A. I only. B. III only. C. I and II. D. II and III.
25. If the particles of a medium vibrate in the direction of propagation of wave, then it is called a/ an
A. surface wave. B. transverse wave. C. longitudinal wave. D. electromagnetic wave.
26. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, then the time period of the wave will
A. become double. B. decrease to half.
C. remain the same. D. decrease to a quarter.
27. If the time period of a simple pendulum is 2 s on the surface of the Earth, then the time period of the same
pendulum on the surface of the Moon will be
A. greater than 2 s. B. equal to 2 s. C. less than 2 s. D. equal to 0 s.
28. If a mechanical wave moves from a rare to the denser medium, then which of the following factors will
change during refraction?
I. Wavelength II. Speed of wave III. Frequency of wave
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III
29. In the given figure, the frequency of the wave source is 3 Hz.
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q1. Reflection, refraction, interference and diffraction are the properties of waves. With the help of a
ripple tank, discuss any TWO of them and draw any ONE diagram.
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Q3. Two types of wave are shown in the figures given below. Identify and define each type of wave
and explain any ONE of them.
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Q5. A transverse wave is shown in the given diagram.
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What is the value of amplitude and wavelength of the wave in the above figure? If the frequency
of the wave is 10 Hz, then find its velocity in m/sec and time period.
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Describe how these particles will move through the following types of waves.
i. Transverse waves
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ii. Longitudinal waves
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Q.8. (Total 4 Marks)
The given diagram shows a wave travelling along a slinky spring. Identify and define the type of wave
travelling in the spring. Also name the regions in the given spaces.
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Q.11. (Total 4 Marks)
A graph of displacement versus time for an oscillatory system is shown below.
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A pendulum of length 1.00 m has a period of 2.01 s, when it is allowed to swing at a height of
8954.0 m on Mount Everest.
i. Calculate the gravitational acceleration of the pendulum. (2 Marks)
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ii. Explain the difference, if the same pendulum is allowed to swing at sea level. (1 Mark)
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iii. Give a scientific reason for the difference noted in part (ii). (1 Mark)
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Q13.
i. Write formula for the speed of a wave. (1 Mark)
ii. ‘Waves are only the means of energy transfer, without the transfer of matter.’ (4 Marks)
Describe any FOUR examples in the light of the above statement.
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Q.14. (Total 4 Marks)
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The given diagram shows three waves covering the same distance from points (A) to (B) in 2
seconds.
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Unit 11 ( Sound )
1. We can distinguish between two sounds of the same loudness and pitch by
A. the audible range. B. the quality of sound.
C. different instruments. D. the sensitivity of the ear.
3. Ultrasound is used for different purposes. Which of the following is NOT a current use of
ultrasound?
A. Detection of fault in engine B. Measure the depth of an ocean
C. Diagnosis of different diseases D. Ranging and detection of aeroplanes
4. Four vibrating objects are producing sounds. Which of the following objects will produce
the loudest sound?
5. Sonar system is used for searching for hidden treasures under sea water. Which of the
following is used in the sonar system?
A. E.E.G B. X-rays C. C.T scan D. Ultrasound
6. Which of the following is the fourth factor upon which the loudness of sound depends?
7. Which of the following options represents the range of frequencies of sound that can be
heard by a normal human ear?
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8. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish between normal sound and faint
sound is its
A. pitch. B. quality. C. intensity. D. frequency.
9. Which of the following is CORRECT about the speed of sound with respect to its medium?
10. Which of the following is used to determine the pitch of the sound?
A. Speed B. Direction C. Frequency D. Number of beats
11. When sound travels through air, the air particles vibrate A. in
random direction.
B. along the direction of wave propagation.
C. perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
D. parallel and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
12. Which of the following characteristics of musical sound depends upon the frequency?
A. Pitch B. Quality C. Loudness D. Amplitude
13. The characteristic of sound by which two sound waves of same loudness and pitch can be
distinguished from each other is called the
A. speed of sound. B. quality of sound.
C. pressure of sound. D. intensity of sound.
14. The amount of sound energy transmitted per second through unit area which is held
perpendicularly in the direction of sound waves is called the
A. pitch of sound. B. intensity of sound.
C. loudness of sound. D. frequency of sound.
15. Hamid is playing a guitar. As he stops playing, the vibration of its strings gradually
decreases as the I. frequency decreases
II. amplitude decreases III. phase
changes
A. I only .B. II only. C. I and II. D. I and III.
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16. Four vibrating objects X1, X2, X3 and X4 are producing sounds. The object that produces the
loudest sound is
17. Sound energy passing per second through a unit area held perpendicular to the direction of propagation of
sound waves is called the
A. pitch of sound. B. quality of sound.
C. intensity of sound. D. loudness of sound.
18. When sound is incident on the surface of a medium, it bounces back into the first medium. This phenomenon
is called
A. an echo. B. the acoustic.
C. the loudness of sound. D. the amplitude of sound.
19. Which of the following characteristics of a musical sound depends upon the frequency?
A. Pitch B. Quality C. Loudness D. Amplitude
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q1. In the same diagram, draw another transverse wave travelling through the same medium with
twice the amplitude and frequency. (2 Marks)
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Q2. The depth of an ocean is measured by using ultrasonic. Explain how it works.
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Q3Describe any FIVE uses of ultrasound in our daily life.
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Q4. Unwanted noise can be a source of stress and irritation for many people. It also affects reading
ability and concentration of school going children.
Discuss that noise pollution has become a threat for our global living environment. Support your answer by
mentioning some major sources of noise pollution.
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Q5. Unwanted noise can be a source of stress and irritation for many people. It also affects reading
ability and concentration in school-going children
Discuss noise pollution with reference to the amplitude, frequency and wavelength of sound.
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Q6. Acoustics is the study of waves, vibrations and sound. Acoustic protection is the application of
soft and porous material to protect individuals against undesirable sounds and noises.
Describe any FIVE points to highlight the significance of acoustic protection.
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Q7. Zain is a social worker who wants to create awareness regarding the use of acoustic protection in
the major cities of Pakistan. He is planning to publish a brochure to explain the advantages of
acoustic protection to the general public.
As a physics student, suggest FIVE advantages of acoustic protection which should be published
in this brochure. (5 Marks)
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i. Define the term ‘echo’. (1 Mark)
ii. ‘When an empty room starts to get filled with people, the echo in the room decreases.’
Elaborate the given statement. (4 Marks)
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Q8. Ali produces a sound in a big empty hall. He hears a recurring sound resembling to his original sound.
i. Name the phenomenon of the sound wave that Ali observed. (1 Mark)
ii. Explain how it is produced in FOUR points. (4 Marks)
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Unit 12 ( Geometrical optics)
1. Which ray of light makes a critical angle?
2. A defect of a human eye is shown in the diagram. Which optical media will be used to correct this
defect?
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4. An object of 3 cm height is lying at a distance of 9 cm from a concave mirror. If the image is
formed at a distance of 12 cm from the pole of the concave mirror, then the size of the image is
A. 4 cm B. 9 cm C. 15 cm D. 36 cm
5. Where should an object be placed to get an erect and virtual image by a concave mirror?
A. At F B. Beyond C
C. Between F and P D. Between C and F
6. The focal length of a concave mirror is 10 cm. An object of height 5 cm is lying at its focus. What
is the image distance of the object?
7. In the given ray diagram, which pair of angles states angle of incidence and angle of refraction
respectively?
A. ∠ 1 and ∠ 3 B. ∠ 1 and ∠ 4
C. ∠ 2 and ∠ 3 D. ∠ 2 and ∠ 4
8. The phenomenon due to which a pool of water appears less deep than actual is called
A. reflection. B. refraction. C. diffraction. D. interference.
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9. If a light ray strikes the smooth surface of the given plane mirror, then the angle of incidence will
be
A. ∠1 B. ∠2 C. ∠3 D. ∠4
10. If the angle of incidence (∠i) in the given figure is 40°, then the angle of refraction ( ∠r)
will be
11. Where will an image form in the given diagram if the magnification is 1?
12. The given diagram shows the position of an image of a very distant object produced by an
eye. Which of the following correctly indicates the defect of vision and its cure?
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13. When an object is placed between the principal focus and the centre of curvature of a
convex lens, then the image will be
A. real. B. erect. C. virtual. D. small in size.
15. If the real depth of a swimming pool is 2 m and the refractive index of water is 1.33, then the
apparent depth of the pool will be
A. 1.0 m B. 1.5 m C. 2.5 m D. 3.0 m
16. In the given diagram, a light ray is passing through a prism. Which of the following angles
represents the angle of deviation?
A. ∠ 1 B. ∠ 2 C. ∠ 3 D. ∠ 4
17. Light bends towards normal when it enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium then its
A. speed decreases. B. intensity increases.
C. frequency decreases. D. wavelength increases.
18. The occurrence of total internal reflection will be possible when I. angle of
incidence is less than the critical angle.
II. angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
III. light enters from a denser medium to a rarer medium.
Which of the following is CORRECT about the given situation?
A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. II and III
19. A long sighted person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearer objects
distinctly. In this defect, rays from nearby objects are focused
A. at the blind spot. B. in front of retina.
C. behind the retina. D. at the centre of retina.
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20. Where should an object be placed to get an erect and virtual image using a concave mirror?
21. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature in front of a converging lens, then the image
of the object will be formed
A. at the principle focus.
B. at the centre of curvature.
C. beyond the centre of curvature.
D. between the principle focus and the centre of curvature.
23. The nature of the image formed at objective and eye piece by the given optical instrument will
be
24. According to the given ray diagram which of the following is/ are TRUE?
I. ∠AOD = ∠BOD
II. ∠AOD = ∠COB
III. ∠AOD is greater than ∠COE
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A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III only
25. If an object is placed at 8 cm in front of a concave mirror and the focal length of the mirror is 4
cm, then the image will be formed at
A. 2 cm B. 4 cm C. 8 cm D. 12 cm
26. Where will an image form in the given diagram if the magnification is 1?
27. In the given diagram, the refractive index of the denser medium with respect to the rarer
medium can be calculated by
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28. An eye and a camera are similar in function because image formed by both are
A. virtual, erect and larger in size.
B. real, inverted and larger in size.
C. virtual, erect and smaller in size.
D. real, inverted and smaller in size.
30. Which of the following defect(s) in vision occurs when the aperture of an eye ball
increases?
I. Astigmatism
II. Long-sightedness
III. Short-sightedness
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II
31. In the given ray diagram, a defect and its correction in a human eye is shown.
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The optical media X used to correct this defect is a
A. convex lens. B. concave lens. C. convex mirror. D. concave mirror.
33. In the given figure, if the angle of incidence (∠i) is 40°, then the angle of refraction ( ∠r )
will be (Note: The refractive index of glass is 1.5)
34. When a white light passes through a prism it bends into seven different colours. This bending of
colours increases as the
A. intensity of light increases. B. amplitude of light increases.
C. frequency of light decreases. D. wavelength of light decreases.
35. In the given ray diagram, if an object is placed at (2F) in front of a converging lens, then what
will be the distance between the optical centre (O) and image of the object?
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A. 8 cm B. 12 cm C. 20 cm D. 36 cm
36. The given diagram shows the position of an image produced by an eye of a very distant
object.
Which of the following correctly indicates the defect of vision and its correction measure as shown
in the diagram?
38. When a ray of light enters from a rare medium to a denser medium, it bends in the direction
A. towards the normal. B. parallel to the normal.
C. away from the normal. D. perpendicular to the normal.
39. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis is refracted by a convex lens. After refraction it
passes through the
I. optical centre
II. principal focus
III. centre of curvature
A. I only. B. II only. C. I and III. D. II and III.
40. Double convex lens is used as a simple microscope when the object is placed A. on
principal focus (F).
B. on centre of curvature (2F).
C. between principal focus (F) and optical centre (O).
D. between principal focus (F) and centre of curvature (2F).
41. Which of the following optical media is used for the correction of short-sightedness?
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A. Convex lens B. Concave lens C. Convex mirror D. Concave mirror
42. All of the following are the uses of a compound microscope EXCEPT it
43. An object is placed between the principal focus (F) and the centre of curvature (2F).
An image will be formed on the other side of the convex lens
A. at F. B. at 2F. C. beyond 2F. D. between F and 2F.
44. Which of the following is/ are the condition(s) necessary for the total internal reflection?
III. Light rays should always travel from a rare medium to the denser medium.
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III
45. An image is formed at a distance of 32 cm from a concave mirror which has a focal length of 12 cm. The
object distance is
A. – 0.052 cm. B. – 19.2 cm. C. 20.0 cm. D. 32.0 cm.
46. The floor of a water tank appears at a depth of 3 m. If the refractive index of water is 1.33, then the actual
depth of water is
A. 0.44 m. B. 1.67 m. C. 2.25 m. D. 3.99 m.
47. Compared to the eye piece of a compound microscope, the focal length of the objective lens of an
astronomical telescope is
A. larger. B. smaller. C. infinite. D. negative.
48. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the image formed by a convex mirror?
A. It is real. B. It is inverted.
C. It is smaller than the object. D. It is always formed at the principal focus.
49. In a compound microscope, the focal length of the objective lens as compared to the eye piece is always
A. larger. B. smaller. C. infinite. D. of same size.
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q.1.
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a. Which of the above diagrams shows total internal reflection? (1 Mark)
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b. What are the TWO conditions that are necessary for total internal reflection? (2 Marks)
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c. Find the refractive index of water if its critical angle is 45o. (1 Mark)
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Q2. A student finds that in order to read white board, he/she has to move closer to the board although
he/she can read books very easily. Write the name and cause of the defect with ray diagram and
how it can be removed. Draw a ray diagram related to the removing of this defect.
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Q3. Complete the given ray diagram and calculate the value of p, q and f, if p + q = 50 cm.
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Q6. Where should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm, so as to get
its real image magnified 4 times?
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Find the position and nature of image by using the information in the above ray diagram.
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b. Find the values of refractive index for the given diagrams and also calculate their average.
Identify the defects in the above diagrams. Why are the rays not converging on the retina in both
cases? Explain how these defects can be corrected.
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Q.11. (Total 5 Marks)
a. Briefly describe the working of an optical fibre with the help of the given diagram. (3 Marks)
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b. Describe the relation between critical angle and refractive index of a substance. (2 Marks)
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Q.12. (Total 5 Marks)
EITHER
a. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope.
OR
b. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a telescope OR
a. Telescope is an optical instrument that uses two different lenses named as objective and eyepiece.
To obtain clear and brighter image of the distant astronomical objects, a bigger objective lens as compared to the
eyepiece is used in the telescope. Draw a labelled ray diagram of this type of working telescope. (5 Marks)
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Q.2.
(Total 3 Marks)
Q13- Categorise the following as True OR False and give a reason to justify any ONE of your answers.
i. Light travels slower through glass than empty space. ____________
ii. When light travels from glass to air, its path bends towards the normal. ____________
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Q.14. (Total 2 Marks)
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The below diagram shows the phenomenon of total internal reflection.
b. If the focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm and an object is placed at the distance of 10.5 cm from it,
then find the distance of the image formed.
(Note: Extract and write data from the given question.)
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Q.16. (Total 2 Marks)
State laws of refraction.
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Q.17. (Total 3 Marks)
Label the given diagram by putting (normal, angle of incidence and refracted ray) in appropriate
Positions
o
If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5 and value of sin60 is 0.866, then calculate the
angle of refraction and sine of critical angle ( sin∠C ) for the given glass slab.
–1 o
(Where sin (0.577) = 35.2 )
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Q19. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. Find the
position and state the nature of image.
(Note: Extract data from the given question and provide your answer in SI unit.)
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Q.20. (Total 2 Marks)
i. Define power of a lens. (1 Mark)
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ii. Write its S.I. unit. (1 Mark)
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Q.21. (Total 3 Marks)
If the real depth of a swimming pool is 5.50 m, then calculate the apparent depth of the swimming
pool.
(Note: The refractive index n of water is 1.33.)
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Q22. The given diagram shows an incident ray PQ is reaching a glass prism. Complete the ray diagram
illustrating the following.
i. Normal (1 Mark)
ii. Refracted ray (1 Mark)
iii. Emergent ray (1 Mark)
iv. Angle of deviation (1 Mark)
v. Angle of emergent (1 Mark)
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b. When light travels from glass to air, its path bends towards the normal. ____________ (1 Mark)
Justification: (1 Mark)
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Q.24. (Total 2 Marks)
Mention TWO conditions for the occurrence of total internal reflection.
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Q25. Draw a well labelled ray diagram to illustrate the formation of an enlarged and virtual image
through a converging mirror.
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Calculate the value of focal length (f), if (q = 4p).
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Q.26. (Total 3 Marks)
a. Why does a ray of light bend when it crosses the boundary of two media? (1 Mark)
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b. In what direction with respect to normal, does a ray of light bend when it travels through the following media?
(2 Marks)
i. From air to water
ii. From glass to water
i.
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ii.
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Q.27.
Write any TWO uses of total internal reflection in light propagation. (Total 2 Marks)
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2.
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Q28. An old man who can read sign boards on roads struggle to read a newspaper or a book.
i. Identify the defect in his vision and write its cause. Also, show this defect with the help of a ray diagram. (3
Marks)
ii. Name the lens that can correct this defect. Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.
(2 Marks)
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Unit 13 ( Electrostatics )
1. A capacitor is a device used to
A. store charge .B. convert A.C to D.C.
C. stop the flow of current. D. stop the function in the electric supply.
5. A negatively charged metallic rod is brought close to a neutral object. Which figure is
correct about electrostatic induction?
6. How much charge will be deposited when two parallel plate capacitors, each of 3 μF are
connected with a battery of 50 V in a series?
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A. 7.5 × 10–5 coulombs B. 1.50 × 10–4 coulombs
C. 3.00 × 10–4 coulombs D. 4.50 × 10–4 coulombs
7. Which of the following is the correct representation of the electric field lines?
8. When two capacitors of the capacitance 4μF and 6μF are connected in series, then the
equivalent capacitance will be
A. 2.4μF B. 3.4μF C. 4.4μF D. 5.4μF
A. 11/3 μ F B. 1/2 μ F C. 2 μ F D. 6 μ F
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11. Which of the following is/ are TRUE for the given circuit?
I. Q1 = Q2
II. V = V2 −V1
III. C1 = C2
14. When three capacitors of different capacitance are connected in a parallel combination, then
the total capacitance of the combination will be
A. lesser than the individual capacitance.
B. greater than the individual capacitance.
C. the sum of the capacitance of any two capacitors.
D. the product of the capacitance of all the three capacitors.
15. If two capacitors of 8 μF each are connected in parallel with one another, then their effective
capacitance will be
A. 0.12 μF B. 0.25 μF C. 8 μF D. 16 μF
16. Which of the following statements is FALSE about electric field lines?
A. They cross each other. B. They are imaginary lines.
C. They are vector quantities. D. They move towards negative charge.
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A. stores electric charges. B. allows flow of direct current.
C. blocks flow of alternating current. D. converts alternating current to direct current.
18. When a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk cloth, then the charge distribution on them
will Be
19. The Coulomb’s force between two identical charges is 80 N. If the distance
between the charges is doubled, then the force will be
A. 20 N. B. 40 N. C. 160 N. D. 320 N.
20. Two capacitors of capacitance 6 μF and 3 μF are connected in series across a cell of 18 V.
The equivalent capacitance will be
A. 2 μF. B. 3 μF. C. 6 μF. D. 9 μF.
21. All of the following are the precautions which should be taken during installation of any electrical equipment
EXCEPT
A. turn off any attached peripherals.
B. attach the electrical equipment to AC power.
C. wear shoes with non-conductive rubber soles.
D. disconnect any telecommunication lines from the system.
23. The direction of electric intensity to an electric field can be indicated by drawing lines. These lines are known
as
A. electric field lines. B. magnetic field lines.
C. magnetic field intensity. D. electromagnetic field intensity.
25. The equivalent capacitance of the given combination of the capacitors will be
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
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Q1. We often hear that during a thunder-storm, buildings are struck by lightning; this is a hazard of
electrostatic induction. Explain how this risk can be reduced. Write the names of any TWO
applications of this phenomenon.
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Q4-Plastics and clothes are insulators but when they are rubbed with each other, static electricity is
produced. How does this happens?
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Q.5. (Total 6 Marks)
The diagram shows two charges placed near each other.
Q6. Examine the given circuit diagram and identify the combination of the capacitors. Also derive an
expression for the effective capacitance.
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Explain how the metal spheres ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be charged, using a negatively charged ebonite
rod without touching them. Also provide diagrammatic illustration of the procedure.
OR
b. Name the type of circuit given below and describe all the components used in the circuit.
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Q.9. (Total 6 Marks)
a. In the given figure, write the charges on the rod and describe why region B shows fewer charges.
Name the phenomenon involved in it. (3 Marks)
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Q.10. (Total 5 Marks)
a. Complete the given diagram of electric field surrounded by charges and describe how a glass rod
is charged if rubbed with a silk cloth.
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Q.13. (Total 3 Marks)
Two different capacitors of capacitance 6 μF and 12 μF are connected in series combination. If a
battery of 12 V is connected with the circuit, then find the equivalent capacitance of the combination.
Also draw a circuit diagram of this combination.
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Q14. Describe in any FIVE points, how electrostatic induction is used in spray painting and in the
extracting of dust from dirty carpets and from the chimneys of industrial machinery.
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Q.15. (Total 3 Marks)
i. Identify the given phenomenon in the given diagram. (1 Mark)
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ii. Mention any TWO hazards of the phenomenon identified in part (i). (2 Marks)
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Q16-The given two coins carry identical charge and experience a repulsive force of 5 N.
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b. Electric field intensity (1 Mark)
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c. Electrostatic potential (1 Mark)
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Q18. Three capacitors of capacitance (C1), (C2) and (C3) are shown in the given figures.
i. Draw a circuit diagram to show the parallel combination of the given capacitors with a
power source. (3 Marks)
ii. Calculate the effective (equivalent) capacitance of the given capacitors in series
combination. (2 Marks)
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Q.19. (Total 3 Marks)
Name any THREE devices that work on the basis of electrostatic phenomena.
1. _________________________________________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________________________________________
3. _________________________________________________________________________________
Q20 -i. Why large electrostatic charges can be dangerous? Give ONE example of it from daily life.
(2 Marks)
ii. Long vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have a metallic chain touching the ground during
motion. Describe this statement using the phenomenon of electrostatic charges and friction. (3 Marks)
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Unit 14 (Current Electricity)
1. Materials with a high resistance to the flow of current and capable of being polarized by an
electrical field are
A. insulators. B. dielectrics. C. conductors. D. semiconductors.
2. A device which maintains current and voltage for different components in an electric circuit is
known as
A. a battery. B. a voltmeter. C. an ammeter. D. a transistors.
3. Which of the following fuses would be the most suitable for a circuit in which a 2000 W kettle is
connected to a 240 V supply?
A. 3 A B. 6 A C. 8 A D. 12 A
4. Which of the following combinations of resistors is equivalent to the highest resistance
5. An electric circuit is shown below. Which of the two electrical devices is connected in series and
in parallel?
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A. I and II B. II only C. III only D. III and IV
8. A circuit diagram is shown below. The potential difference between point X and point Y will be.
10. Which of the following statements are CORRECT when there is no short circuit?
I Current flows through the earth wire.
II Current does not flow through the earth wire.
III All the currents from the neutral wire flow to the live wire.
IV All the currents from the live wire flow to the neutral wire.
A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV
11. Which of the following is NOT representing volt?
A. electrostatic potential. C. potential difference.
B. electromotive force. D. potential energy.
13. If the electric current through a resistor is 2 A and potential difference across the
resistor is 6 V, then the value of power dissipated in the resistor will be
A. 3 W B. 4 W C. 8 W D. 12 W
14. In the given circuit diagram, a 100 W bulb is operated with 220 V source, the current passing
through the bulb is
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A. (100 × 220) A B. (220 / 100) A C. (100 / 220) A D. (220 + 100) A
15. If three resistors of 6 Ω each are connected in series combination, then the value of effective
resistance will be equal to
A. – 6 Ω B. 0 Ω C. 0.5 Ω D. 18 Ω
16. If current of 20 A flows through the live wire, then the current in the neutral wire will be
A. 0 A B. 10 A C. 20 A D. 40 A
17. If a 200 Watt bulb glows for 1,000 hours, then the energy consumed by it will be
A. 200 kWh B. 800 kWh C. 1,200 kWh D. 8,00,000 kWh
19. The quantity that remains the same in parallel combination of resistance is
A. voltage. B. conductance. C. electric power. D. electric current
20. The cost of energy is Rs 12/kWh. If 100 watt light bulb glows for 8 hours a day, then the cost of
energy consumed per day will be
A. Rs 6.6 B. Rs 9.6 C. Rs 66 D. Rs 96
21. The earth wire in an electrical appliance is connected to a
A. fuse. B. metal case. C. switch button. D. plastic handle.
22. All electrical appliances are connected parallel to each other between the live and neutral wires.
In light of the given statement, which of the following options is TRUE for electric current and potential
difference?
23. If three resistors of 5 Ω each are connected to form a triangle, then the resistance between any two vertices
(terminals) will be
A. 0.3 Ω. B. 3.333 Ω. C. 5 Ω. D. 15 Ω.
24. If the length and diametre of a solid cylindrical shape conductor is doubled, then the resistance will
A. reduce to half. B. reduce to quarter.
C. increase two times. D. increase four times.
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25. If three equal resistors and a battery are given, then how many different combinations of workable circuits
can be made?
A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six
26. Consider two metallic conductors A and B. Suppose, the length of a metallic conductor A is increased and the
cross-sectional area of the metallic conductor B is also increased.
What will be the effect on the resistance of both conductors?
28. Which of the following points (1 to 4) in the given circuit will receive the lowest magnitude of current?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
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[Link] the total resistance and the amount of current passing through the given circuit.
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b. The given diagrams show the readings of an electric current through a resistor and the potential
difference across it.
Calculate the power dissipated in the resistor and the energy used in units when 3 kW room
heater is turn on for 4 hours.
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Q3. In the given circuit diagram, what is the potential difference across:
i. 3Ω resistor
ii. 6Ω resistor
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b. State Ohm’s law and write the value of R in the given table. (3 Marks)
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Q4. In the given circuit diagram, bulbs are joined in series. Re-draw the diagram to show parallel
combination of the bulbs. Calculate the effective resistance of both circuits by using information
given in the diagram.
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b. Identify the given electrical instruments used in household circuits and describe their working
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• current becomes too high
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2. _________________________________________________________________________________
3. ______________________________________________________________________________
b. Describe any FIVE safety measures that should be taken in connection with the household
circuit.
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Q.7. (Total 3 Marks)
The given figure shows a power plug.
i. How is the safety of an electrical appliance secured by using a fuse in the power plug? (1 Mark)
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ii. If the rating of the fuse shown in the given figure is 12 ampere and it is working at 240 volt, then
calculate the power of the fuse. (2 Marks)
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b. Assume a charged particle of 80 C is to be transferred through a potential difference of 40 V in time 20
s. Calculate the following:
i. Work done (3 Marks)
ii. Power (2 Marks)
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Q.8. (Total 3 Marks)
The given figure shows a power plug.
a. State the function of the earth wire shown in the given figure. (1 Mark)
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b. Describe the working of a fuse in the power plug. (1 Mark)
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c. What would happen when one touches a power plug with wet hands or when one is barefoot?
(1 Mark)
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Q9. The given circuit diagram shows the connection of two different resistors with a battery.
b. Does the resistance of a metallic conductor rise with an increase in temperature? Explain your answer with
suitable reasons. (5 Marks)
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Unit 15 (Electromagnetism)
1. An electric motor converts one form of energy to another. Which of the following conversions of
energy is applicable to the above statement?
A. Electrical to heat. B. Electrical to solar.
C. Electrical to mechanical. D. Electrical to geo-thermal.
2. Using the information in the given figure, the secondary voltage will be
4. In the given diagram, a rectangular current carrying coil is lying between the poles of a magnet.
The direction of motion in the coil will be
7. According to Fleming‟s left hand rule, the position of thumb shows the
A. force. B. torque. C. magnetic field. D. electric current.
8. All of the following are the factors affecting the magnitude of an induced emf EXCEPT
A. resistance in electric circuit.
B. current passing through the conductor.
C. speed of the conductor through the field.
D. length of the conductor moving through the field.
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9. The purpose of the iron core in a transformer is to
A. make it more electromagnetic.
B. separate primary winding from secondary winding.
C. conduct current from primary to secondary winding.
D. conduct magnetic flux from one set of windings to the other.
10. Which of the following devices is shown in the given diagram at position 3?
11. The given diagram shows that current is flowing through a wire.
Which of the following options represents the magnetic field produced by the current in the wire?
12. Which of the following transformers is used for decreasing output voltage?
13. Which of the following devices is used to increase or decrease Alternating Current?
A. Ammeter B. Generator C. Ohmmeter D. Transformer
14. The diagram below shows a transformer. Which of the following statements is correct about the
transformer?
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A. It is used to generate electricity.
B. It is used in a direct current circuit.
C. The input voltage is less than the output voltage.
D. The input voltage is greater than the output voltage.
15. Which of the following instruments is NOT common in AC generators and DC motors?
A. Slip rings B. Armature C. Magnetic poles D. Carbon brushes
16. Which of the following devices is used to change the value of alternating voltage?
A. DC motor B. Transformer C. AC generator D. Loud speaker
18. If the number of turns of secondary coil is doubled then the alternating voltage of an AC
generator will become
A. half. B. double. C. quarter. D. four times.
19. All of the following depend upon the electromotive force (e.m.f) induced in the secondary coil of
a transformer EXCEPT for the
20. All of the following decrease the force on a wire in a magnetic field by decreasing their values
EXCEPT for the
A. current in the wire. B. strength of magnetic field.
C. distance between the wire and the magnet. D. length of the wire inside the magnetic field.
21. All of the following decrease the total force acting on the armature of a DC motor EXCEPT a
decrease in
A. area of the coil. B. shape of the coil.
C. current in the coil. D. number of turns of the coil.
22. Which of the following devices is shown in the given diagram at position 3?
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A. A resistor B. A capacitor C. A generator D. A transformer
24. If a piece of copper wire is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field and the current in the wire
increases, then the force applied by the magnetic field on the wire will
A. increase. B. decrease. C. become zero. D. remain the same.
25. In the given figure, which of the following combinations correctly represents Fleming‟s left
hand rule?
26. If the speed of a conductor through a magnetic field increases, then the induced
electromotive force (e.m.f.) in the conductor
A. increases. B. decreases. C. becomes zero. D. remains constant.
27. If a conductor is placed in a stationary and non-varying magnetic field, then the induced
electromotive force (e.m.f.) will be
A. low. B. high. C. zero. D. variable.
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30. In the given diagram of the current carrying conductor, the labelled points (P) and (Q)
represent
32. The energy conversion that takes place in the alternating current generator is from
A. electrical to kinetic. B. mechanical to potential.
C. mechanical to electrical. D. electrical to mechanical.
35. The magnetic force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
will be zero, when the direction of current in the conductor is
A. parallel to the magnetic field.
B. perpendicular to the magnetic field.
C. at an angle of 30o to the magnetic field.
D. at an angle of 60o to the magnetic field.
36. In electromagnetism, according to Fleming’s left hand rule, the thumb indicates the
direction of
A. flux. B. force. C. current. D. magnetic field.
37. When a steady current passes through a conductor, as shown in the given figure, the direction
of the magnetic field lines will be
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A. upward. B. clockwise. C. downward. D. anticlockwise.
39. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field can be determined by
A. Joule’s law. B. Coulomb’s law. C. Head to tail rule. D. Fleming’s left-hand rule.
40. If a conductor passes through a magnetic field twice with different speeds, then which of the following
option is CORRECT with respect to speed and induced electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
42. Electromagnets are commonly used in all of the following electrical instruments EXCEPT
A. iron. B. toaster. C. motors. D. generator.
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
Q.1.
a. Recognize and label the above diagram in the given spaces. (5 Marks)
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b. Briefly describe its working principle. (3 Marks)
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Q2-(Total 3 Marks)
Electromagnets are the devices consisting of a solenoid. An electric current passed through the coil
induces a magnetic field. When the iron core is placed in this field, microscopic domains that can be
considered small permanent magnets in the iron align themselves in the direction of the field, thus
increasing greatly the strength of the magnetic field produced by the solenoid. The magnetization of
the core reaches saturation once all the domains are completely aligned. When the current is switched
off, the core retains only a week residual magnetism.
i. Define electromagnetism. (1 Mark)
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ii. Why is iron core placed in the solenoid? (1 Mark)
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iii. If all domains align themselves, then what state will be attained? (1 Mark)
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ii. Determine the direction of force on the wire.
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iii. What happens when current flows in the opposite direction to the wire?
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Q.7. (Total 3 Marks)
State TWO conditions that must be fulfilled for a charge to experience magnetic force when it is placed in a
magnetic field and state how the magnetic force could be varied.
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Q.8. (Total 3 Marks)
Write THREE uses of transformers in our electric power system.
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a. Name and define the principle of a transformer on which it works. (2 Marks)
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b. Write ONE use of a transformer. (1 Mark)
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UNIT 16 ( Introductory Electronics)
1. A diode is a two terminal device which allows current to flow in
A. one direction. B. two directions. C. many directions. D. reverse direction.
4. CRO has many uses in the medical field. Which of the following is NOT a correct use of it?
A. Use as a voltmeter
B. Use in studying the information of waves.
C. Use in studying the effect of electric field on moving charges.
D. Use in studying the effect of background radiation on living things.
6. In the given circuit diagram, four identical lamps L1, L2, L3 and L4 are connected and controlled
by switches S1, S2 and S3.
Which of the following lamps will light when the switches S1 and S2 are closed?
A. Lamp L1 and L2 B. Lamp L2 and L3
C. Lamp L2, L3 and L4 D. Lamp L1, L2 and L4
7. In thermionic emission, when a filament is heated a beam of tiny particles emits from it. These
particles are known as
A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. alpha particles.
8. A beam of cathode rays passes through an electric field between two parallel plates.
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Which of the following changes will take place after the beam has passed through the plates?
A. It will bounce back.
B. It will pass un-deflected.
C. It will bend towards the positive plate.
D. It will bend towards the negative plate.
10. Which of the following is used to carry electric charge across the space in a bulb?
A. Beta emission B. Self induction C. Mutual induction D. Thermionic emission
11. Which of the following options CORRECTLY identifies the input value of the given NOR gate?
13. Which of the following is NOT the part of a cathode rays oscilloscope?
A. An armature B. An electron gun
C. A deflecting plate D. A fluorescent screen
14. In a logic gate, the total number of truth table entries for a two-inputs circuit are
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
15. Which of the following logic gates is used to invert the output?
A. OR gate B. NOT gate C. NOR gate D. NAND gate
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17. In thermionic emission, when a filament is heated, a beam of tiny particles is emitted from it.
These particles are known as
A. protons. B. electrons. C. beta particles. D. alpha particles.
19. All of the following are the basic operations of Boolean algebra EXCEPT
A. OR B. NOT C. AND D. NAND
20. Which of the following is NOT the part of a cathode rays oscilloscope?
A. An armature B. An electron gun
C. A deflecting plate D. A fluorescent screen
24. In thermionic emission, when a filament is heated, a beam of tiny particles is emitted from it. These particles
are known as
A. protons. B. electrons. C. beta particles. D. alpha particles.
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
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Q.2. (Total 3 Marks)
Draw the symbol of NOT, OR and AND gates.
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Q.6. (Total 3 Marks)
A truth table of a logic gate is given below.
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UNIT 17 ( Information and communication technology)
1. Which of the following is NOT used to send information in the form of digital signals in optical
fibres?
A. Photon B. Neutron C. Pulse of light D. Quanta of light
3. When a radio wave is intercepted by an antenna, the antenna converts the wave into
A. a digital signal. B. an analog signal.
C. an electrical signal. D. an electromagnetic signal.
4. All of the following are the components of information and communication technology
EXCEPT
A. data. B. software. C. hardware. D. power supply.
7. Which of the following electronic devices stores the largest amount of information?
A. Hard disc B. Flash drive C. Compact disc D. Audio cassette
8. Which of the following quantities maintains a constant rate of change in a particular span of
time?
A. Digital quantities B. Scalar quantities C. Vector quantities D. Analogue quantities
9. Which of the following electronic machines gives information after analyzing and arranging
data in a very short interval of time?
A. Radio B. Computer C. Telephone D. Fax machine
12. When a radio wave is intercepted by an antenna. The antenna converts the wave into a/ an
A. digital signal. B. analog signal. C. electrical signal. D. electromagnetic signal.
13. To collect information for a special purpose, store it in a computer and retrieve when needed is
called
A. data managing. B. word processing.
C. communication technology. D. monitoring and controlling data
14. Which of the following is/ are the basic operation(s) performed by a computer?
I. Word processing
II. Non-arithmetic operations
III. Monitoring and controlling data
A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. I, II and III
15. To collect information for a special purpose, store it in a computer and retrieve when needed is
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called
A. data managing. B. word processing.
C. communication technology. D. monitoring and controlling data.
18. If a call is made from mobile/ cell phone (A) to mobile/ cell phone (B), then radio signals of a
particular frequency are first sent to the
A. mobile/ cell phone (B). B. mobile switching centre.
C. base station of the caller. D. base station of the receiver.
19. Technology is improving day by day. Now light in weight, small in size and less power
consuming laptop models are available in the market.
All of the following components of information technology (IT) are used to make this possible
EXCEPT
A. Hard Drive. B. World Wide Web. C. Read Only Memory. D. Random Access Memory.
20. All of the following are the names of search engine on the internet EXCEPT
A. Bing. B. Yahoo. C. Google. D. Chrome.
CRQ‟S +ERQ‟S
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UNIT 18 (Atomic and Nuclear Physics)
1. The nucleus of an element consists of 90 protons and 144 neutrons. After emitting two beta
particles followed by an alpha particle, the nucleus will have
A. 86 protons and 140 neutrons. B. 88 protons and 142 neutrons.
C. 90 protons and 140 neutrons. D. 90 protons and 142 neutrons.
2. Atomic number of an atom is 56 and its mass number is 138. Which of the following is the
correct number of electrons, protons and neutrons of this atom?
4. Which of the following radiations bends in a magnetic field with largest radius?
A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Gamma rays D. X-rays
5. In the figure different sheets are placed in front of nuclear radiations. Which of the ray/s can be
identified as gamma radiation?
A. P B. Q C. R D. P and Q
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8.
10. Which of the following isotopes has equal number of protons and neutrons?
11. In the given diagram of a radioactive decay, β-particles are deflected more than α-particles
because they have
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A. small mass. B. high velocity. C. high kinetic energy. D. more penetrating power.
226 222
12. The given equation shows the disintegration of Ra into Rn when a radioactive emission
occurs. The radioactive emission is represented by X. What do you infer about X?
14. Which of the following is NOT affected by electric and magnetic fields?
A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Cathode rays D. Gamma rays
15. If half life of an element is 24 days, then how much mass of its 0.64 gm will remain unchanged
after 48 days?
A. 0.08 gm B. 0.16 gm C. 0.32 gm D. 0.64 gm
16. Which of the following represents ‘X’ in the given nuclear reaction?
19. In the figure below different sheets are placed in front of nuclear radiation. Which of the
following ray/s can be identified as gamma rays?
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A. P B. Q C. R D. P and Q
21. Which of the following is TRUE about the ionization power of α ,β andγ radiations?
22. Stable elements can be changed into radioactive elements by bombarding them with
I. neutrons. II. electrons. III. alpha particles.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. I and III
26. The process of splitting U-235 by the bombardment of neutron into Ba-141 and Kr-92 is known
as
A. fusion reaction. B. fission reaction. C. physical change. D. chemical reaction.
27. If the half-life of an isotope is 1 day, then the quantity of that isotope in proportion to its initial
quantity after 2 days will be
30. Which of the following presents the harmful effect on human beings due to the prolonged
exposure to nuclear radiations?
A. Heart attack B. Throat infection C. Genetic mutation D. Brain haemorrhage
33. If a nucleus of an element has atomic mass 24, then it will have
A. 11 protons and 13 neutrons. B. 11 protons and 13 electrons.
C. 11 electrons, 14 protons and 10 neutrons. D. 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons.
37.. Which of the following has the highest ionising and penetrating power?
38. Carbon dating is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material.
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Which of the following carbon isotopes is used for this purpose?
A. Carbon-12 B. Carbon-13 C. Carbon-14 D. Carbon-15
39. During nuclear fusion reaction, when the hydrogen nuclei are converted into helium atom
A. less amount of energy is released.
B. huge amount of energy is absorbed.
C. amount of reactants decrease due to the energy released.
D. amount of reactants increase due to the energy absorbed.
40. All of the following are harmful effects of nuclear radiations on human beings EXCEPT that it
causes
A. enlargement of the liver. B. cancer of the blood cells.
C. redness and sores on the skin. D. formation of cataract in the eye.
44. If a radioactive element has a half-life of 60 seconds, then the quantity of the isotope after 120
seconds will be
A. one-half. B. one-sixth. C. one-fourth. D. one-eighth.
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Some radioactive sources are placed in a strong magnetic field where three types of radiation are being
emitted as shown in the given diagram.
Label alpha and beta particles and gamma rays in the above diagram. Write any ONE property of each
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b. Complete the given equation for the above reaction. (2 Marks)
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Q.8. (Total 4 Marks)
If the half-life of Krypton is 3.16 minutes, then how many grams of Krypton out of 100 grams will
remain disintegrated after 9.48 minutes.
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Q.6. (Total 4 Marks)
i. Complete the given statement: (1 Mark)
Alpha (α ) decay is the emission of helium __________.
ii. Determine whether the given decay process is possible or not and show your working. (3 Marks)
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Q.7. (Total 4 Marks)
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a. Name and define the reaction shown in the diagram. (2 Marks)
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b. How can we get energy from the given process? (1 Mark)
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c. What is the role of neutrons in the given process? (1 Mark)
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NAZARAT TALEEM EXAMINATION CELL
1ST TERM EXAMINATION 2019-20
CLASS: X PHYSICS I TIME:45MIN MARKS: 30
NOTE:MAKE YOUR RESPONSE ON THE GIVEN SHEET.
1. If 100 waves pass through a medium in 20 seconds and their wavelength is 6cm then velocity is
(A) 0.5ms-1 (B) 0.3ms-1 (C) 1ms-1 (D) 2.5ms-1
2. If potential energies and kinetic energies are equal then displacement of an object in SHM is
(A) ¼ lines of wavelength (B) 0
(C) ½ lines of wavelength (D) 1/6 lines of wavelength
3. If time period of simple pendulum is 2 s then it's length is
(A) 1.02m (B) 1.2m (C) 1.4m (D) 1.5m
4. If mass of bob is increased 3 times then it's time period
(A) Increases (B) decreases 2 times (C) remains same (D) increases 4 times
5. If temperature increases, speed of sound
(A) also increases (B) decreases (C) remains same (D) may increase or decrease
6. Which line in the table correctly shows examples of transverse and longitudinal waves?
9. Three rays of light are incident on the boundary between a glass block and air.
The angles of incidence are different.
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What is a possible critical angle for light in the glass?
(A)15˚ (B)30˚ (C)45˚ (D)60˚
10. What happens to light as it passes from glass into air?
(A) Its frequency decreases because its speed decreases.
(B) Its frequency increases because its speed increases
(C) Its wavelength decreases because its speed decreases.
(D) Its wavelength increases because its speed increases.
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(A)P→Q→R→S (B) P→R→S→Q (C) R→P→Q→S (D)R→P→S→Q
16 A 1.0Ω resistor and a 2.0Ω resistor are connected in series across a 12V D.C. supply.
What is the current in the circuit?
(A) 12 A (B) 0.25 A (C) 6.0 A (D) 4.0 A
17. Internal total reflection takes place when light enters from denser to rarer medium and
(A) Angle of refraction becomes 90o (B) Angle of incidence becomes 90o
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to critical angle. (D) Angle of incidence is great than critical
angle.
18. The diagram shows an object O placed 3 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 6 cm.
19. A student uses a converging lens to produce an enlarged virtual image of a scale she wishes to read
accurately. The focal length of the lens is 10 cm. What is a suitable distance between the scale and the
lens
(A) 8 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm
23. Amount of work done in bringing unit positive charge from infinity to a point in electric field is called
(A) coulomb's force
(B) electrostatic force
(C) electric potential
(D) resistance
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24. Calculate the current across the 20 ohm resistor.
26. A cell is connected to a resistor. What is the e.m.f of the cell equal to
(A) The potential difference across the resistor for each unit of current.
(B) The power produced in the circuit for each unit of charge that passes.
(C) The work done in the circuit for each unit of charge that passes.
(D) The work done in the circuit for each unit of current.
27. Energy is represented by the letter E, current by I , power by P, charge by Q, p.d. by V and time by t. Which
pair of equations is correct
(A) E=It and P=VIt
(B) E=VQ/t and P=VI
(C) E=VIt and P=VI
(D) E=VQ and P=VI/t
28. If distance between the two point charges become half then force between them becomes.
(A) Double
(B) Half
(C) Four times
(D) Remains same
29. Two oppositely charged balls A and B attract third conducting ball C when placed near them turn by turn.
Then ball C must be
(A) Positively charged
(B) Electrically neutral
(C) Negatively charged
(D) Positively and negatively charged
30. Lens with a long focal length is
(A) Thick
(B) Thin
(C) not strongly curved
(D) both B and C
Q.1 The given diagram shows four waves covering the same distance in 6 seconds.
a) Write the frequency of any TWO waves. Also mention which wave have greatest frequency
from above diagram?
(3 marks)
b) Which of the labeled waves, A,B,C or D, has the greatest speed and why? (2
Marks)
Q.2.
(a) Define the critical angle when referring to total internal reflection? Include a ray diagram to
explain the concept.
(2 Marks)
(b) A rectangular glass block 12 cm thick is placed over an ink mark sheet of paper. Find the
distance the ink mark is apparently raised if the refractive index of the glass is 1.50.
(2
Marks)
(c) The focal point is located 20.0 cm from a double concave lens. An object is placed 12 cm from the lens.
Determine the image distance. ( 3 Marks)
ii. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk both acquire charges. What is the source of their electrification?
( 1 marks)
iii. Two balloons are charged with an identical quantity and type of charge: -6.25 nC. They are held apart
at a separation distance of 61.7 cm. Determine the magnitude of the electrical force of repulsion
between them. (3 Marks)
EITHER
a. Three resistors are connected in parallel. If placed in a circuit with a 12-volt power supply.
Determine the equivalent resistance, the total circuit current, and the voltage drop across and
current in each resistor.
OR
b. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of capacitances C1 = 2µF, C2 =4µF and C3 =6µF are
connected in series combination.
i. Draw a labeled circuit diagram of the given capacitors, when they are connected in parallel
along with a battery of 12V.
(2 MARKS)
ii. Calculate the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel and in series
combination.
(3 marks)
a. How can the waves in a ripple tank be made to travel more slowly and when
this happens, what will be its effect on frequency and wavelength of waves?
OR
b. (i) What image is produced by placing on object 6 cm away from a convex lens of focal
length 12 cm. What is nature of image?
/3
Ans . All the waves have the same speed because all the waves cover same distance in 6 seconds.
f) A teacher attaches a slinky to the wall and begins introducing pulses with different amplitudes.
Which of the two pulses (A or B) below will travel from the hand to the wall in the least amount of
time? Justify your answer. ( 1 mark)
Q.2.
1) Define what is meant by the critical angle when referring to total internal reflection? Include a ray
diagram to explain the concept. ( 2 Marks)
Answer: di = ˗7.5cm
Given: f = -20.0 cm and do = +12.0 cm
(Careful: double concave lens have focal lengths which are negative.)
Use the equation 1 / f = 1 / do + 1 / di
Substitute and solve for di.
Q.4. ( 4 Marks)
Use the Ohm's law equation to determine the missing values in the following circuits.
d. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of capacitances C1 = 2µF, C2 =4µF and C3 =6µF are connected in
series combination.
iii. Draw a labeled circuit diagram of the given capacitors, when they are connected in parallel along
with a battery of 12V. (2 MARKS)
iv. Calculate the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel and in series combination.
(3 marks)
2 marks for correct labeled circuit diagram.
1.5 marks for calculating the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel
combination
1.5 marks for calculating the equivalent capacitance of series combination.
(a).
1 mark for equivalent resistance
1 mark for current
1 mark for each correct value of potential difference
Total 3 values are required
Q.7. EITHER
c. How can the waves in a ripple tank be made to travel more slowly and when
this happens, what will be its effect on frequency and wavelength of waves?
OR
d. Acoustics is the study of waves, vibration and sound. Acoustic protection is application of soft
and porous material to protect individuals against undesirable sounds and noises.
Describe any FIVE points to highlight the significance of acoustic protection.
Water waves travel more slowly if they enter from deeper to shallow water.
They can be refracted in a ripple tank by placing a piece of flat plastic in the bottom of
the tray to reduce the depth.
When the water enters the shallower water there is no change in the frequency of the
wave.
The wavelength of the waves decreases when they reach the shallow part.
The reduction in wave speed does cause a reduction in wavelength.
1 mark for each point ( 5 required)
Acoustics protection is employed not only for physical health, but for
psychological well-being as well.
A students performance, employees, productivity and an individual’s sleep/rest
are all affected.
Animals and birds also express discomfort due to higher noise and sound levels.
Acoustic protection is also necessary to minimize stress levels generated due to
high level of noise.
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Acoustic may also be required to protect structures against vibrations generated
by objects such as trains /and noise generated during construction and
development activities.
(b)
(i) 1 mark for correct formula
1 mark for answer
1 mark for nature
A D
1. At what points acceleration is maximum?
a) At A and B b) At A and C
c) At A and D d) At B and C
2. The correct relation of bel and decibel is
a) lobel = 1db b) lbel = 1db
c) lbel = 10db d) bel = 100db C
3. The product of frequency and time period is equal to
a) 1 b) v c) F d) S
4. Which one of them is different? B
a) Sound waveb) Light Wave c) radio wave d) Electromagnetic Wave
5. If a doctor counts 100 heart beats in 10 sec then its time period is
a) 100 Sec b) 10 Sec c) 1 Sec d) 0.1 Sec
6. If an object is placed 10cm infront of concave mirror whose focal length is 10cm, the image will be
at the distance of.
a) 1cm b) 10cm c) 100cm d) No image
7. There is 200 cm focal length of a special lens,its power will be.
a) 0.1 D b) 0.5 D c) 1 D d) 10D
8. If distance from the lens,of an object,and distance from the image is equal, then magnification is
a) Smaller Than 1 b) Greater Than 1 c) equal to 1 d) no magnification
9. When light enters from one medium to another medium,which of them do not changed during
Refraction
a) Speed of light, wavelength b) Wave length
c) Frequency d) colour of light and speed of light
10. Where should be an object placed,infront of convex lens, to get real image with same
height?
a) on 2F b) behind 2F c) between f and 2F d) at F
11. If the real depth of pool with water is 20, then apparent depth will be
16. When 2000w motor runs for 2 hours then electric energy consumed in 2hour in Kw/h is
a) 4 b) 1000 c) 4000 d) 8000
2Ω
2Ω
c) 2Ω d) 2Ω
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
2Ω
18. If 220A current flows through the live wire then current in neutral wire will be
a) O A b) 220A c) 110A d) 440A
19. One of the following is the unit of electromotive force?
a) Joule b) Ampare c) Volt d) Newton/C
22. If current is produced in one coil, then current is induced in nearby coil, this phenomenon is
known as.
a) self-induction b) mutual induction c) Total internal reflection d) Flemings Law
23. NOR gate gives result only when
a) both inputs A and B are 0 b) both inputs A and B1
c) A = 0 , B = 1 d) A = 1 , B = 0
(b) As a water wave enters from deeper to shallow region, what is the effect on the followings. (2
marks)
(i) Speed (ii) Wavelength
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C
3
(i) Calculate its equivalent capacitance. (2 marks)
+ -
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(ii) Also write the value of potential difference across C2. (1 mark)
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(B) Complete the truth table for the following combination of gate if A=0 , B=1 , and A = 1 , B=1
(2 marks)
A c
E
D
B
A B C D E
0 1
1 1
Thumb
Middle Finger
Fore Finger
Half life Total Time for decay Initial mass Remaining mass
1500 years ? 500 grams 31.25 grms.
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(4 Marks)
Option: _______
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Q10. Attempt either part a or b (5 marks)
Option:_________
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END OF PAPER II
(b) 1 unit =
OR 1 KWH =
Q. 5 a)
b) A B C D E
0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 0 0
Q. 6 Thumb Force
Middle Finger Current
Fore Finger Magnetic Field
V= f (1)
0.5 x 0.1
0.05 m/s
F = no of waves in 1 sec
60
0.5 H3 (1)
120
1
T= 2sec (1)
0.5
One mark for each diagram with explanation 1. Two spheres A and B initially neutral
1x5=5 2. Brough near a charged rod to spheres A due to
electrostatic induction two poles are created
3. on A and B touch externally both spheres A and
B negative charge move on A while positive charge
shift on B
Blightly separate the spheres
Remove the road, charge is uniformly distributed
permanently on spheres
Note: Make your responses on the provided answer sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil.
1-Water waves and sound waves are the examples of.
(A)transverse waves (B)longitudinal waves (C)mechanical waves
(D)electromagnetic waves
2)Which of the following characteristics of wave is independent of others?
(A)frequency (B)amplitude (C)speed (D)wavelength
3)By what factor should the length of simple pendulum is changed if the period of vibrating body
were to be tripled?
(A)3 (B)1/3 (C)9 (D)27
4)A radio station broadcasts at frequency of 150MHz .The speed of the radio waves is [Link]
is its wavelength?
(A) 2m (B) 3.4m (C) 5m (D)3.6m
5) If the time period of a simple pendulum is 2s then its length is
(A)1.02m (B)1.2m (C)1.4m (D) 1.5m
6-Intensity level of 1db is equal to:
(A)0.1 bel (B)10 bel (C) 100 bel (D)0.01 bel
7)Here are the frequencies of four sounds .Which sound has highest pitch?
I)400 Hz II)150Hz III)500Hz IV)200Hz
(A) I only (B) III only (C)II and III (D)I and II
8)If the intensity of a source of sound is 10-9 W/m2 and the intensity of faintest audible sound is 10-12
W/m2,then the sound level of the source is:
(A)1dB (B)3dB (C)10Db (D)30Db
9)Double convex lens is used as a simple microscope when the object is placed
(A)on principal focus (F) (C)between principal focus and optical centre
(B)on centre of curvature (2F) (D)between F and 2F
10)If radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 26cm, its focal length will be:
(A)26cm (B)56cm (C)13cm (D) 2.6cm
11)Light going from denser to less denser medium speeds up, and the light rays bends ……………..
from the normal.
(A)towards (B)parallel (C)away (D)anti-parallel
24) A metal wire is used to connect the two spheres together. In a time of 2.0x10-3 s, a charge of
1.8x10-13C passes through the wire.
What is the current in a wire?
(A) 9x10-11 A (B) 9x1011A (C) 6.8x10-4 A (D) 4.3x10-12A
25) The earth wire in electrical appliance is connected to?
(A)fuse (B) metal case (C)switch button (D)plastic handle
26) Fleming‟s left hand rule is used to determine the direction of rotation of coil in given figure
N S
+ -
x y
2- In a ripple tank, the factor(s) which change during refraction of water is/are
1- wavelength
2- speed of wave
3- frequency of wave
(A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
3- If the time taken by a pendulum to swing from its position „X‟ to its maximum displacement „Y‟ is
1.5 seconds, then the period of pendulum will be
(A) 0.75 sec (B) 1.5 sec (C) 3.0 sec (D) 6.0 sec
4. A transverse wave is transporting energy from east to west. The particles of the medium of the
transverse wave will move
(A) from east to west only (C) both eastward and westward
(B) from north to south only (D) both northward and southward
5. Which of the following types of waves is an example of longitudinal wave?
(A)radio waves (B) sound waves (C) water waves (D) micro waves
6. Highest and lowest points on transverse waves are called
(A) Trough, crest (B) crest, trough
(C) amplitude, time period (D) wavelength, time period
(7) The diagram shows the cross section of a water wave. Which distance is the amplitude of the
wave?
-9
11- If the intensity of a source of sound is 10 W/m2 and the intensity of faintest audible sound is 10-12
W/m2, then the sound level of the source is
(A) 1 dB (B) 3 dB (C) 10 dB (D) 30 dB
12- At which point should an object be placed to get its image beyond 2F?
(A) telescope (B) simple microscope (C) refracting telescope (D) compound microscope
15- In the given ray diagram, one of the defects of a human eye is shown. This defect of a human eye
can be corrected by using
(A) convex lens (B) concave lens (C) convex mirror (D)concave mirror
16. If the focal length of a convex lens is 10cm, then the power of that lens will be
(A) 0.01 diopter (B) 0.1 diopter (C) 1 diopter (D) 10 diopter
17. When a ray of light enters from a denser medium to a rare medium, it bends in the direction
(A) towards the normal (B) parallel to the normal
(C) away from the normal (D) perpendicular to the normal
18. Which ray of light makes a critical angle?
19. An object of 5 cm height is lying at a distance of 10 cm from a concave mirror. If the image is formed at a
distance of 12 cm from the pole of the concave mirror, then the size of the image is
(A) 4 cm (B) 9 cm (C) 50 cm (D) 6 cm
20. The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to
(A) the radius of curvature. (B) half of the radius of curvature.
(C) one third of the radius of curvature. (D) one fourth of the radius of curvature.
21. An object 5.0 cm high is placed 2.0 cm from a converging lens which is being used as a magnifying
glass. The image produced is 6.0 cm from the lens and is 15 cm high.
How can the image be made sharp and in focus on the screen?
(A) By moving the object away from the lens and screen
(B) By moving the screen away from the lens and object
(C) By using a brighter abject at the same position
(D) By using a lens of longer focal length at the same position
24. Which instrument is used for observing distant objects
(A) Simple microscope (B) compound microscope (C) Endoscope (D) Telescope
25- All of the following are the uses of the electroscope EXCEPT it
(A) Detects the heat of the atmosphere
(B) Distinguishes between metals and non metals
(C) Detects the presence of charges in the atmosphere
(D) Detects the kind of charges present in the charged body
26- Which one of the options is correct for the given spheres
35. what is the reading on the voltmeter in the given circuit diagram?
36. Which of the given diagrams shows I-V graph of a filament lamp?
(A) 0.67 ohms (B) 1.50 ohms (C) 6.70 ohm (D) 15.0 ohm
39. The cost of energy is Rs 12/kWh. If 50 watt light bulb glows for 8 hours a day, then the cost of energy
consumed per day will be
(A) Rs 6.6 (B) Rs 9.6 (C) Rs 4.8 (D) Rs 96
40- In the given circuit diagram , the potential difference between point X and point Z is
END OF PAPER
10. If magnification is 2 then which option is true for object and image distance
Q P
A 1 2
B 20 10
C 10 20
D 10 0.5
What is the movement of charge on the sphere and what is the final charge on the sphere?
Movement of the charge Final charge on sphere
A. Negative charges move from Negative
earth to the sphere
B. Negative charges move from Neutral
earth to the sphere
C. Positive charges move from Negative
the sphere to earth
D. Positive charges move from Neutral
the sphere to earth.
21 .The Coulomb’s law between two identical charges is 100 N, if distance between bodies increases 5
times, then coulomb’s force becomes
A. 4N B. 5N C. 20N D. 500N.
[Link] get maximum capacitance, three capacitors each having 6F capacitance can be connected in such a
way that
A. All capacitors in series B. All capacitors in parallel
C. Two in series and third in parallel to both D. First two in parallel and third in series
with both
[Link] will be the effect on Coulomb’s force, if distance between the charges is halved?
A. Decreased two times B. Increased four times
C. Decreased four times D. Increased two times
[Link] graph between voltage and current is in straight line in
A. Ohmic conductors B. Filament Lamp
C. Thermistors D. Diode
25. If 3 bulbs connected in series, if first bulb burn out then?
[Link] increases for next two B. Brightness decreases for next two
C. Brightness remains same D. Brightness becomes zero
26. Which one of these is better conductor of electricity? Specific resistance of some materials is given
below.
A. Sliver 1.6x10-8 B. Copper 1.7x10-8
C. Graphite 3000x10-8 D. iron 9.8x10-8
27.For1.5kW electric kettle, which is connected with 250V source, which fuse is the best for kettle
A. 1.5A B. 5A C. 6A D. 7 A
28. Which costs the most when operated from the same mains supply?
A.a 5000 W electric cooker used for 1 minute. B. a 1000 W electric fire used for 10 minutes
30. Which changes both cause a decrease in the resistance of a copper wire?
Size of wire Temperature of wire
A Decrease in length Lower
B Increase in length Lower
C Decrease in thickness Higher
D Increase in thickness Higher
31. The diagram shows part of an a.c generator when its coil is in a hotizontal position.
The graph shows the voltage output plotted against [Link] point on the graph shows when the
coil is in a vertical position?
32 . A current carrying wire in which current flow in northward direction is deflected towards the
east by a magnetic force. The direction of the magnetic field is
A. Straight up. C. South
B. Straight down. D. West
33. A transformer consists of two coils which are wound on to a metallic core. Which type of voltage
us supplied to the transformer and which metal is used to make the core.
Supply voltage Metal
35. If a rectangular coil placed in a magnetic field at rest induced current will be
A. Zero B. Maximum
C. Produce half of total amount D. Produce only ¼ of total amount
36. In logic gate the total number of truth table entries for a one input circuit are
A. 1 B. 2. C. 4 D. 8
37. The name of the gate represented in the given truth table is
Inputs Output
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
A. AN B. OR C. NAND D. NOR
38. Two NAND gates combine together to form another gate which is
A. AND B. NAND C. NOR D. NOT
39. One of them is part of C.R.O
A. Split ring B. Slipring C. Grid D. Commutator
40. All of the following are fundamental gates EXCEPT
A. OR
B. NOT
C. NOR
D. AND
1 A 11 C 21 A 31 B
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 A
3 D 13 C 23 B 33 A
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 A
5 A 15 B 25 D 35 A
6 C 16 D 26 A 36 B
7 D 17 C 27 D 37 C
8 C 18 B 28 D 38 A
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 C
10 B 20 A 30 A 40 C
Note: Make your responses on the provided sheet by shading the boxes with lead pencil.
9. The distance between a compression and rarefaction in a sound wave is 0.15 m. The period of
the sound wave is 0.20 milliseconds. The speed of the sound is ___________.
A.3300 m/s B. 750 m/s C. 1500 m/s D. 330 m/s
10. Two notes are played on a guitar. The second note is louder and has a higher pitch.
The second note is
A. higher in amplitude and lower in frequency
B. lower in amplitude and higher in frequency
C. higher in both amplitude and frequency
D. lower in both amplitude and frequency
11. Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected__________.
A. Radio waves
B. Ultrasonic waves
C. Electromagnetic waves
D. Infrasonic waves
12. Four sound waves are displayed in the figure which sound wave shows loudest sound with
lowest pitch.
13. A flash of lightning and the corresponding thunder clap are detected 6 s apart. It is calculated
that the lightning struck about 1800 m away.
On which assumption is the calculation based?
A. Light reaches us almost instantaneously, but sound travels at 300 ms−1
B. The sound of the thunder was emitted 6 s after the flash
C. Light travels 300 ms−1 faster than sound
D. Sound reaches us almost instantaneously, but light travels at 300 ms−1
14. A fish in a pond looks up at a man standing beside the pond. To the fish, the man appears
_________.
15.
16. If a ray is traveling from denser medium to rare medium then increasing the angle of incidence
A. Decreases angle of refraction
B. Equals angle of refraction
C. Increases angle of refraction
D. Increases angle of incidence
17. Focal length of convex mirror with radius of curvature 20cm is
A. +20cm B. +10cm C. -20cm D. -10cm
20. A metal coin is at bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid of refractive index = 4/3 to
height of 6 cm. To an observer looking from above the surface of liquid, coin will appear at
a depth of
A. 1.5 cm B. 6.75 cm C. 4.5 cm D. 7.5 cm
21. For a telescope, the larger the diameter of the objective lens
22. What happens when a positively charged rod is brought near a piece of paper?
A. The rod causes the paper atom to become ionized.
B. The free electrons in the paper move towards the side nearer the rod.
C. The rod causes a distortion of the charge distribution in the paper's atoms.
D. The rod causes a break down of air molecules between the rod and the paper.
23. A positively charged particle is released from rest in a uniform electric field. The
electric potential energy of the charge
A. Remains a constant because the electric field is uniform.
B. Increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
C. Decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
D. Decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.
24. Two insulated metal spheres X and Y are initially in contact. While a positively charged
rod is near X, the spheres are moved apart. After this action X has a negative charge.
27. Two charges are placed at a certain distance. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled the force
will become
A. 1/4th of its original value B. 1/8th of its original value
28. The cable to an electric cooker contains a live wire, a neutral wire and an earth wire.
When the cooker is working correctly, In which wires are the currents equal?
A. the live, the neutral and the earth
B. the live and the earth only
C. the neutral and the live only
D. the neutral and the earth only
29. In an a.c. electric circuit in a house, the switch for any device is always connected to the
'live' lead. Why is this?
A. The device will always be off if the switch is in the neutral lead.
B. The device will be short circuited if the switch is in the earth lead.
C. No current ever flows in the neutral lead of the device.
D. The device can only be isolated (made safe) if the switch is in the live lead.
30. A 24Ωresistor is to be connected in series with a 12 V battery.
What is the power loss in the resistor?
A. 12 W B. 24 W C. 0.5 W D. 6 W
31. The diagram shows a voltmeter adapted to measure a range from 0 - 100 mV. The
voltmeter is measuring the potential difference in a circuit.
33. The following graph shows current versus voltage values of some unknown conductor.
What is the resistance of this conductor?
A. Hard Disk
B. Extension board
C. Motherboard
D. USB
39. The set of instructions and rules to design and use information system are called
A. software
B. data
C. hardware
D. procedures
40. A molded plastic disc on which digital data is stored in the form of microscopic reflecting and non-
reflecting spots is known as
A. audio cassette
B. floppy disk
C. hard disk
D. compact disc
END OF PAPER I
Q.1.
3 marks
The diagram given below in figure shows a ray of light AO falling on a surface separating two media.
Draw the refracted ray in each case also write reason of your answer.
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Q.2. 3
marks
An eye has a near point distance of 0.75 m. What sort of lens in spectacles would be needed to
reduce the near point distance to 0.25 m? Is this eye long-sightedness or short-sightedness? write
the cause of this defect.
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Q.3.
3 marks
What is the depth of a pond if a shiny penny lying at the bottom of it appears to be 3 meters
deep to a person looking normally to the water surface?
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Q.4. Draw a labeled diagram to show the transmission of light signals through optical fiber.
Also name the phenomenon used in optical fiber.
2 marks
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Q.5.
What is difference between RAM and ROM.?
2 marks
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b. In which of the given figure, meter is showing large current?A1 or A2 ? write your answer with
a reason.
All resistors are of same value. 2
marks
d. If the distance between two charged particles is doubled, then what will be the strength of
electric force between them?
2 marks
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Answer. Solution:
(b) Away from the normal or Angle of refraction > Angle of incidence
Angle of refraction = 0
Q.2. 3 MARKS
An eye has a near point distance of 0.75 m. What sort of lens in spectacles would be needed to reduce
the near point distance to 0.25 m ? Also calculate the power of lens required. Is this eye long-sighted or
short-sighted?
Cause: due to eye-ball being too short or aue to low converting power of eye-lens(because of its large focal
length) (1)
Q 3.
What is the depth of a pond if a shiny penny lying at the bottom of it appears to be 3 meters deep
to a person looking normally to the water surface? The index of refraction of water is n = 4/3.
Ans
The apparent depth (of the penny at the bottom of the pond) is given by the expression:
d =4 m
ERQS
Q.6.
a.
A water wave is generated in a ripple tank by an oscillator that vibrates 50 times in 30 seconds. A
given trough of the wave travels 50.0 cm in 15 seconds. What is the wavelength of the water wave?
Answer and Explanation: 1
Given:
v=fλ
0.5/15=50/30×λ
λ=0.02 m⇒(Answer)
[Link] a.
(i) Two ressitors are inseries to form R1: so R1=3Ω+3Ω=6Ω
R1 and R2 are parallel, so total resistance is:
1 1 1 1 2 3 1
Re 6 3 6 6 2
R e 2
(ii)
V I Re
so 3v I 2 1 for correct data 1 for answer
3
I 1.5 A
2
[Link] C
Fe=kq1q2/r 2
Fe=8.99×109(9×10−6)(4×10−6) /(0.12)2
Fe=0.32364/0.0144
Fe = 22.475 N
Q7. Part
b
Q7. Part
d
2. If the distance between two charged particles is doubled, then what will be the strength of
electric force between them? 2 marks
17. The diagram shows an unchanged ball covered with metallic paint. The ball is suspended
from an insulating thread. It is placed near a positively changed rod.
18. What happens to the brightness of the lamps, as more and more lamps are added in
series?
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) have no change
19. What happens to the specific resistance of a substance if its area of cross-section is
doubled?
(A) becomes half (B) becomes double
(C) remains same (D) becomes four times
As the lower end of the magnet oscillates between P and R. a varying e.m.f is induced across the
coil.
(A) at R only (B) at Q only
(C) at P or at R (D) at P or at Q
24. Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy in
(A) D. C. motor (B) cell
(C) battery (D) A. C. generator
25. The phenomenon in which the E. M. F is induced in one circuit due to change in current in
another circuit is
(a) Self-induction (B) resistance
(C) Mutual induction (D) capacitance
26. The diagram shows a current- carrying wire placed between two magnetic poles. The
current is in the direction shown. What is the direction of the force on the wire?
(B) Half-life is the time it takes for the number of the isotope to decrease to zero
(C) Half-life is the time it takes for the nucleon number of the isotope to halve
(D) Half-life is the time takes for the number of nuclei of the isotope to halve
39. 4He2 + 27Al13 → ? + 1n0
(A) 24Na11 (B) 14C6
(C) 30P15 (D) 60 Co27
40. For the diagnosis of brain tumor, which radioisotopes is used
(A) iodine 32 (B) cobalt 60
(C) carbon 14 (D) phosphorus 32
END OF PAPER 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Total
Obtained
Marks
Marker
Name
Q. No. 1: If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8
cm, find the position , nature and height of the image.
Total Marks (3)
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Q. No. 2: Total
Marks (3)
In electromagnetic induction, current is induced. What are the three factors which effect magnitude of
induced E. M.F.
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Q. No. 4: Why do we send data through waves instead of wires for communication? Total Marks (2)
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Q. No. 5: Total Marks (3)
Write examples for alpha, beta and gamma decay with complete equations. (3)
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a) Define simple harmonic motion. A simple pendulum has length of 2m. If the value of “g” on earth is
10m/s2 and on moon 1.6m/s2, then what is the time period of pendulum on earth and on moon.
OR
b) There are three characteristics of sound such as Pitch, Loudness and quality. Write definitions and
factors upon which they depend.
(2+2+2)
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a) Define electrostatic induction. In Coulomb’s law the formula is F = kq1q2/r2, what is the change of force
if
iii) Both of the charges and the distance between them is doubled
OR
(2+2+2)
b) If three resistors R1, R2, R3 are joined together and have two types of combinations such as series and
parallel then derive equations of equivalent resistance of these combinations with circuit diagrams.
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END OF PAPER 2
1 C
2 B
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 A
9 B
10 B
11 B
12 C
13 D
14 B
15 A
16 A
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 D
22 C
23 B
24 D
25 C
26 A
27 B
28 B
29 B
30 A
31 C
32 D
33 A AND B
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 B
38 D
39 C
40 D
Q1:
1 1 1
f q p
1 1 1
8 q 12
1 1 1
8 12 q
24cm q...............................(1)
hi q
ho p
24
hi 7 14cm..................(1)
12
OR
1 1 1
f p q
1 1 1
8 12 q
1 1 1 hi q
8 12 q ho p 2
12 8 1 24
hi 7
a q 12
4 1
invert and real image is formed..............(1)
96 24
q 24cm..................(1)
If an object is placed at twice the focal length (2F) in front of a converging lens, the image formed is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object. It is located at the same distance (2F) on the opposite side of the lens .
The real depth of the bubble is the perceived depth divided by the refractive index of the glass. If a bubble appears to be at 2.4 cm but is actually deeper due to the refractive index of glass being 1.5, the real depth can be calculated as 3.6 cm (2.4 cm multiplied by 1.5).
For total internal reflection to occur, the light must travel from a denser medium to a rarer medium, and the angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle specific to the pair of media involved .
The bending of light through a prism results in dispersion, where white light is separated into its constituent colors. This bending increases as the frequency of light decreases and the wavelength decreases, causing different colors to spread out at different angles due to their varying refractive indices .
A convex lens is used to correct short-sightedness (myopia) because it converges light rays before they enter the eye, effectively moving the focal point back onto the retina, allowing the person to see distant objects clearly .
A compound microscope uses a system of lenses—specifically, an objective lens with a shorter focal length positioned close to the sample to create a magnified real image, and an eyepiece lens further magnifying this image. This arrangement allows for high magnification by combining the power of multiple lenses .
A telescope uses an objective lens to gather light and focus it to form an image, and an eyepiece lens to magnify this image for viewing. The objective lens has a larger aperture to collect more light from distant objects, while the eyepiece provides the necessary magnification to reveal details .
The frequency of a sound wave is directly related to its pitch; higher frequencies correspond to higher pitches. For example, among given frequencies, a sound with 500 Hz is perceived as having the highest pitch .
In fiber optics, the critical angle is crucial because it determines the minimum angle at which light must hit the core-cladding boundary to be totally internally reflected. This total internal reflection is necessary for light to be transmitted over long distances with minimal loss, making critical angle a key factor in efficient fiber optic design .
Light slows down when passing through glass because the denser medium causes the light waves to interact more frequently with the material's atoms, reducing the speed. In contrast, in empty space, light travels without such interactions, maintaining its maximum speed .