INSTITUTIONAL COMPETENCY ASSESSMENT INSTRUMENT

BASIC COMPETENCIES

[Link] IN WORKPLACE COMMUNICATION

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question.

1. Which of the following is an example of verbal communication?

a) A handshake c) A phone call

b) A frown d) Body posture

2. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective workplace communication?

a) Active listening c) Cultural differences

b) Jargon d) Lack of feedback

3. What is the primary goal of active listening?

a) To formulate a response c) To interrupt the speaker

b) To understand the speaker's message d) To appear engaged

4. Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

a) A written report c) Facial expressions

b) A presentation d) An email

5. What is the best way to handle a conflict with a colleague?

a) Ignore the issue c) Discuss the issue calmly and respectfully

b) Talk to your manager immediately d) Yell at your colleague

6. What is the purpose of providing feedback?

a) To criticize someone's work c) To show your authority

b) To help someone improve their d) To make someone feel bad
performance

7. Which of the following is an example of written communication?

a) A meeting c) A report
b) A presentation d) A conversation

8. What does it mean to be concise in workplace communication?

a) To use complex language c) To avoid eye contact

b) To be brief and to the point d) To use jargon

9. Why is it important to be aware of cultural differences in the workplace?

a) To avoid communication altogether

b) To ensure everyone feels comfortable and respected
c) To make fun of cultural practices
d) To only communicate with people from your own culture

10. What is the best way to communicate with a supervisor?

a) By email, even for urgent matters c) By shouting and using informal language
b) In a way that is clear, concise, and d) Only when necessary
respectful

11. Which of the following is an example of effective oral communication?

a) Using technical jargon c) Speaking clearly and confidently

b) Speaking very quickly d) Avoiding eye contact

12. What is the purpose of a meeting agenda?

a) To waste time c) To keep the meeting on track and focused

b) To ensure everyone is present d) To avoid any discussion

13. What is the best way to handle a difficult customer?

a) Argue with them to find a solution

b) Ignore them d) Hang up the phone
c) Stay calm, listen to their concerns, and try

14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective written communication?

a) Clarity c) Ambiguity
b) Conciseness d) Accuracy

15. Which of the following is an example of positive nonverbal communication in a workplace

setting?

a)Frowning and crossing your arms c) Rolling your eyes and sighing
b) Smiling and nodding d) Avoiding eye contact

Answer key

1. c) A phone call
2. a) Active listening
3. b) To understand the speaker's message
4. c) Facial expressions
5. c) Discuss the issue calmly and respectfully
6. b) To help someone improve their performance
7. c) A report
8. b) To be brief and to the point
9. b) To ensure everyone feels comfortable and respected
10. b) In a way that is clear, concise, and respectful
11. c) Speaking clearly and confidently
12. c) To keep the meeting on track and focused
13. c) Stay calm, listen to their concerns, and try to find a solution
14. c) Ambiguity
15. c) Rolling your eyes and sighing

II. WORK IN A TEAM ENVIRONMENT

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective teamwork?

(A) Open communication (C) Individualistic approach

(B) Clear roles and responsibilities (D) Mutual support and encouragement

2. What is the most important benefit of diverse perspectives within a team?

(A) Faster decision-making (C) Reduced conflict

(B) Increased creativity and innovation (D) Simplified communication

3. A team member is consistently late to meetings and deadlines. What is the most appropriate
initial response?

(A) Publicly reprimand the team member

(B) Privately discuss the issue with the team member
(C) Ignore the behavior and hope it improves
(D) Report the issue to a higher authority immediately

4. What is the best way to resolve a conflict within a team?

(A) The team leader makes the final decision

(B) Focus on finding a solution that addresses everyone's needs
(C) Ignore the conflict and hope it goes away
(D) One team member compromises their position to appease the other

5. Which of the following is NOT a good way to show support for a team member?

(A) Offering help with their tasks

(B) Praising their contributions
(C) Taking over their responsibilities
(D) Acknowledging their efforts

6. What is the most important aspect of effective communication within a team?

(A) Using jargon and technical language to sound intelligent

(B) Ensuring everyone understands the message in the same way
(C) Speaking loudly and clearly
(D) Minimizing feedback to avoid unnecessary discussions

7. A team is struggling to meet a deadline. What is the best approach?

(A) Work longer hours without considering team member well-being

(B) Re-evaluate the workload and prioritize tasks
(C) Blame team members for the delay
(D) Ignore the deadline and hope for the best

8. How can a team leader build trust among team members?

(A) By being transparent and honest

(B) By taking credit for team accomplishments
(C) By micromanaging team members
(D) By playing favorites

9. What role do you typically take in a team?

(A) I prefer to work independently, delegating tasks to others
(B) I enjoy taking the lead and directing the team
(C) I am happy to support and collaborate with others
(D) I prefer to observe and let others take charge

10. What is the best way to handle a situation where you disagree with a team member's idea?

(A) Immediately dismiss the idea and express your own

(B) Listen to their reasoning and explain your perspective calmly
(C) Agree with them to avoid conflict
(D) Ignore their idea and move on

Answer key

1. C 6. B
2. B 7. B
3. B 8. A
4. B 9. C
5. C 10. B

III. SOLVE/ADDRESS GENERAL WORKPLACE PROBLEMS

1. Critical thinking skills are a valuable asset for an employee, as employers typically appreciate
candidates who are able to correctly assess a situation and come up with a logical resolution.
a. True b. False

2. Which is a critical thinking skill helps us process information?

a. Communication skills b. Creative thinking
c. Analytical skills

3. Problem-solving is the process of working through details of a problem to reach a solution.

a. True b. False

4. In solving a problem, finding out what caused it is not necessary.

a. True b. False

5. In an office, Daryl noticed that his laptop is not connecting with the internet. Before reporting
it to their IT specialist, he checked first the status of his internet connection with another
device. This scenario is an example of:
a. Evaluating a solution b. Presenting the problem
c. Identifying the problem

6. While Daryl was checking on the internet connection, he also took screenshots on what
happens to his laptop if he tries to connect with the internet. This scenario is an example of:
a. Implementing the solution b. Documenting the problem
c. Reporting the problem

7. Donna is an administrative assistant at a government agency. During their monthly meeting,

she raised to her supervisor that the routine problem in their unit is the late delivery of office
supplies. Because of this, other staff had to go to other units and asked for office supplies.
Donna had to present a flowchart in the meeting showing the processes before supplies are
being delivered. The scenario is an example of understanding a routine problem.
a. True b. False

8. A documentation is a suggestion or proposal as to the best course of action.

a. True b. False

9. In planning and implementing a solution, the manager does not need to consider the
resources needed because she has control over the budget.
a. True b. False

10. Bogart works at the Pearlmont Hotel. He was facing a customer who came to check-in and
said that she booked for three days. However, when Bogart was checking the system, the
customer’s name was not there. Bogart told the customer that her name was not found in the
system and she might have made a mistake on the dates. The customer was now fuming in
anger and insisted she booked in the hotel. In this scenario, what is the best thing to do?
a. Report the irate customer right away to your direct supervisor.
b. Explain to the customer that you need to check the system again and consult the previous
front desk officer who came in for duty before your shift. Offer the customer a drink.
c. Tell the customer the names of other nearby hotels that may have availability.

Answer Key
1. A - True
2. C - Analytical Skills
3. A - True
4. B - False
5. C - Identifying a problem
6. B - Documenting the problem
7. A - True
8. B - False
9. B - Explain to the customer that you need to check the system again and consult the previous
front desk officer who came in for duty before your shift. Offer the customer a drink

IV. DEVELOPE CAREER AND LIFE DECISIONS

1. Thoughts, feelings and behaviors are imagined.

a. True b. False

2. To change the way we feel about a negative situation, we need to

a. React quickly b. Pretend the feelings do not exist
c. See the situation from another perspective d. None of the above

3. This is the result of your actions or behaviors, it may either positive or negative.
a. Thoughts b. Feelings
c. Consequence d. Goal

4. Knowing yourself is not essential to managing your emotions, thoughts and behaviors.
a. True b. False
5. We help ourselves deal with difficult situations in our lives by
a. Ignoring the problem b. Intimidating those around us
c. Using coping mechanisms d. None of the above

6. When you take responsibility of own behavior and well-being and are able to take control of
your emotions that is…
a. Self-assessment b. Anger management
c. Self-management d. Cycle of anger

7. We can get help from others in understanding our limitations if we open and receptive of
feedback
a. True b. False

8. Identifying one’s strengths and weaknesses is a way to improve oneself.

a. True b. False

9. Which of the following is not example of habits of highly effective people?

a. Prioritize activities b. Promote teamwork
c. Identify goals and make a plan d. Be reactive to situations

10. To develop self-regulation abilities one must consider the following, except for one;
a. Align your goals with your values b. Train your mind to be more positive
c. Take responsibility for your actionsd. Set goals that are achievable
e. None of the above

Answer Key
1. B - False
2. C - See the situation from another perspective
3. C - Consequence
4. B - False
5. C - Using coping mechanisms
6. C - Self-management
7. A - True
8. A - True
9. D - Be reactive to situations
10. E - None of the above.

V. CONTRIBUTE TO WORKPLACE INNOVATION

1. It is a tool that is human-centered in nature and helps identify a person who encounters a
problem, what they say about it, how they think, how they feel about it, and what they do
about the problem.
a. Brainstorming b. Empathy Map c. Workplace Document
2. It is a method design teams use to generate ideas to solve clearly defined design problems. It
also involves harnessing synergy – we leverage our collective thinking towards a variety of
potential solutions.
a. Brainstorming b. Empathy Map c. Workplace Documents

3. Why is showing a prototype of your idea a good way to help people understand your
innovation?
a. Nobody likes reading text or listening to long talks
b. People can see and interact with your idea
c. The prototype attracts people who have tendency to like it

4. Which of the following is a good set of criteria for selecting ideas to develop further into
solutions?
a. Exciting and high-tech b. Cheap and Novel c. Impactful and feasible

5. Which of the following is an appropriate format for summarizing feedback to innovative

ideas?
a. Social media posts b. Sticky notes c. Reports

6. Which of the following is a good practice when brainstorming?

a. Set a time limit b. Offer the best ideas c. Diversify to many topics

7. Which of the following is a good practice when talking to people to get feedback for
innovative ideas?
a. Showcase the perfection of your idea
b. Be clear, concise, polite and respectful
c. Interrupt when people give feedback for too long

8. Which of the following is a good practice when pitching your solution in a meeting?
a. Use technical terms to create credibility
b. Prepare a very detailed presentation slide
c. Make it clear how the solution can solve the problem

9. Which of the following is a good practice when conducting a group discussion?

a. Stick to the agenda b. Use formal language c. Everyone can speak

10. Which of the following lists the steps in integrating new ideas in the workplace in the correct
order?
a. Preparation, Discussion, Clarification of Goals, Negotiating Towards a Win-Win Outcome,
Agreement, and Implementation.
b. Preparation, Agreement, Clarification of Goals, Negotiating Towards a Win-Win Outcome,
Discussion, and Implementation.
c. Discussion, Negotiating Towards a Win-Win Outcome, Agreement, Clarification of Goals,
Preparation, and the Implementation

Answer Key
1. B - Empathy Map
2. A - Brainstorming
3. B - Prototype
4. C - Impactful and Feasible
5. C - Reports
6. A - Set a time limit
7. B - Be clear, concise, polite, and respectful
8. C - Make it clear how the solution can solve the problem
9. C - Everyone can speak
10. A - Preparation, Discussion, Clarification of Goals, Negotiating Towards a Win-Win Outcome,
Agreement, and Implementation.

VI. PRESENT RELEVANT INFORMATION

1. What are the advantages of research?
a. Knowledge b. Credibility c. Awareness d. All of the above e. None of the above
2. Responsible researchers collect and maintain identifiable data only when necessary.
a. True b. False
3. Researchers should inform participants of how their information will be used, how it will be
stored and collective, and who will have access to it:
a. True b. False

4. Qualitative data usually involves data that can be counted and quantified, such as
percentages, numbers, and statistics
a. True b. False

5. In quantitative data, the mean refers to the following:

a. The most common number score or value for a variable b. The maximum value
c. The minimum value d. The numerical average of scores for a variable

6. When designing a presentation, more (more graphics, more data, more text) is always more
and improves the quality.
a. True b. False

7. When creating a PowerPoint slide, it is a good idea to combine red and blue or red and green.
a. True b. False

8. Identify the in-text citation written in MLA style.

a. (Poole, 2010)
b. (Poole 22)
c. Poole, G.A. (2010). PacMan: Behind the scenes with Manny Pacquiao, the greatest pound-for-
pound fighter in the world. Da Capo Press.
d. Poole, Gary Andrew. PacMan: Behind the scenes with Manny Pacquiao, the Greatest Pound-
for-Pound Fighter in the world. Cambridge, Da Capo Press, 2010.
e. None of the above

9. If a data source is not a written book, then there is no need to cite it.
a. True b. False

10. Plagiarism, or failing to properly attribute a research source, carries serious ethical and
disciplinary consequences.
a. True b. False

Answer Key
1. D – All of the above 6. B – False
2. A – True 7. B – False
3. A – True 8. B – (Poole 22)
4. B – False 9. B – False
5. D – The numerical average of scores for a 10. A – True
variable

VII. PRACTICE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY PROCEDURES

1. What is the primary goal of Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) programs?
a) Increase productivity environment
b) Reduce costs d) Improve employee morale
c) Create a safe and healthy work

2. What is a hazard in the context of OHS?

a) The possibility of being harmed c) A completed safety check

b) A source of potential harm d) A worker's mistake

3. What is risk in the context of OHS?

a) A safe working condition c) A completed risk assessment

b) The likelihood of harm from a hazard d) An employee's error

4. Which of the following is NOT a common step in managing health and safety?

a) Hazard identification c) Hazard elimination

b) Risk assessment d) Emergency response

5. What does PPE stand for?

a) Personal Protective Equipment c) Professional Practice Evaluation

b) Public Protective Environment d) Proper Preventive Education

6. Which of the following is an example of a physical hazard?

a) Exposure to loud noise c) Repetitive movements

b) Working with chemicals d) Biological agents (like bacteria)

7. What is the purpose of a risk assessment?

a) To eliminate all hazards

b) To identify hazards and assess the likelihood and severity of harm
c) To punish unsafe workers
d) To create unnecessary paperwork

8. Which of the following is an example of a control measure to reduce risk?

a) Using personal protective equipment c) Blaming the worker

(PPE) d) Minimizing the risk by doing nothing
b) Ignoring the hazard

9. What is the purpose of ergonomic design in the workplace?

a) To increase the speed of work

b) To reduce stress and prevent injuries
c) To make the work environment more aesthetically pleasing
d) To eliminate the need for workers

10. What is the first step in developing an emergency response plan?

a) Conducting a risk assessment

b) Identifying potential hazards and emergency situations
c) Establishing communication channels
d) Acquiring necessary equipment
Answer key

1. c) Create a safe and healthy work environment

2. b) A source of potential harm
3. b) The likelihood of harm from a hazard
4. d) Emergency response
5. a) Personal Protective Equipment
6. a) Exposure to loud noise
7. b) To identify hazards and assess the likelihood and severity of
8. a) Using personal protective equipment (PPE)
9. b) To reduce stress and prevent injuries
10. b) Identifying potential hazards and emergency situations

VIII. EXERCISE EFFICIENT AND EFFECTIVE SUSTAINABLE PRACTICES IN THE WORKPLACE

1. True or False. A sustainable workplace establishes the goal of balancing the planet, people,
and profit to produce success and viability in the long-term.
a. True b. False

2. True or False. Investment in creating sustainable work environment should be classified as

one that will profit your organization more in the long run.
a. True b. False

3. Which of the following is not a way to reduce energy use?

a. Replace laptop computers with desktop computers
b. Use public transportation
c. Use renewable resources such as solar power to generate electricity

4. Which of the following cannot be recycled?

a. Tea bags b. Empty bottles c. Broken car batteries

5. Resource conservation means _____.

a. Achieving more with less b. Achieving less with more c. Achieving more and more

6. True or False. Commitment, involvement of employees, planning, and collecting and

analyzing data are all needed to reduce resource use and waste in the workplace
a. True b. False

7. When collecting data to understand and monitor resource use, it will be important to:
a. Wear safety goggles b. Recycle it
c. Establish a system of keeping the information

8. True or False. Small businesses with tight budgets will not be able to reduce the use of
resources such as water, electricity and paper.
a. True b. False
9. Which of the following is an example of inefficiencies and challenges in reducing resource use
and waste?
a. the mindset of people used to doing things the same way
b. the expense of replacing old worn out machinery and equipment with more energy
efficient ones
c. Lack of commitment from senior management to systematically address issues

10. True or False. Compliance to practices related to resource use is necessary to be able to
grow as a business and for a sustainable environment.
a. True b. False

Answer Key
1. A - True 6. A - True
2. A - True 7. A - Environmental technology
3. A - Resource 8. B - Human resource
4. C - Broken car batteries 9. B - Intellectual resource
5. A - Achieving more with less 10. A - Physical resource

IX. PRACTICE ENTREPRENEURIAL MINDSET IN THE WORKPLACE

1. Which of the following best define a cost-conscious Entrepreneur/Employee?

a. Someone who always prefer affordably-priced items even without quality
b. Someone who always sees to it the results produced are worth the value of money
he/she invested
c. Someone who spends a large amount of money, without improving the quality of the

2. Which of the following is the definition of quality standards?

a. an expected level of quality for the products or services
b. writing an operational manual
c. getting the best possible use of something

3. True or False. Writing a memo to your boss to tell them about your opinions on how to
improve the business operations is not a good choice and should not be done by any employee.
a. True b. False

4. True or False. Optimization is getting the best possible use of something.

a. True b. False

5. An employee who is cost-effective does the following, except:

a. Performs daily work responsibilities within his/her 8 hour duty
b. Utilize resources in the workplace based on the budget set
c. Saves money by walking to work but arrives 15 minutes late

6. One good practice in Documenting Policies and Procedures is:

a. Posting printed materials to remind staff to maintain cleanliness
b. Texting a new employee that he/she is hired without mentioning your name
c. Taking a video of the customers even without their permission

7. True or False. One good example of judiciously utilizing the workplace resources is not
following the maintenance schedules of the equipment.
a. True b. False
8. You are in charge of buying ingredients/materials for a Hamburger Company. Three different
suppliers would like to work with you; you must choose between these three suppliers of bread
for your need of 1,000 rolls weekly, which will you choose?
a. Supplier A – PhP 2.5 each bread, free delivery, 20 minutes away from store
b. Supplier B – PhP 2 each bread, P.45 delivery per bread, 25 minutes away from store
c. Supplier C – PhP 2.25 each bread, P.15 delivery per bread, 30 minutes away from
store

9. True or False. Entrepreneurial characteristics like being hard working, willing to learn,
reliable, and good communicator are also characteristics of a good employee.
a. True b. False

10. True or False. Being entrepreneurial is not only limited to the business owners but can also
include employees
a. True b. False

Answer Key
1. B - Someone who always sees to it the results produced are worth the value of money he/she
invested
2. A - An expected level of quality of the products or services
3. B - False
4. A - True
5. C - Saves money by walking to work but arrives 15 minutes late
6. A - Posting printed materials to remind staff to maintain cleanliness
7. B - False
8. C - Supplier C -PHP 2.25 each bread, P 0.15 delivery per break, 30minutes away from the
store
9. A - True
10. A - True
 INSTITUTIONAL COMPETENCY ASSESSMENT INSTRUMENT

COMMON COMPETENCIES

I. APPLY QUALITY STANDARD

1. Which of the following best describes "Quality Standards"?

a) A set of rules for personal conduct in the workplace.

b) Specifications and guidelines for ensuring materials, products, and services meet
requirements.
c) A list of employee benefits and compensation packages.
d) A company's mission statement.

2. What is the primary purpose of Quality Assurance?

a) To inspect finished products for defects.

b) To prevent defects from occurring in the first place.
c) To determine the selling price of a product.
d) To manage employee performance.

3. Which of the following is a key aspect of applying quality standards in a manufacturing

process?

a) Minimizing production costs.

b) Following documented procedures and work instructions.
c) Using the cheapest available materials.
d) Prioritizing speed over accuracy.

4. What is the role of a quality control department?

a) To design new products.

b) To inspect and test products to ensure they meet standards.
c) To manage the company's finances.
d) To hire and train employees.

5. What does "ISO 9001" refer to?

a) A type of material used in construction.

b) A set of international standards for quality management systems.
c) A specific piece of manufacturing equipment.
d) A software program for quality control.

6. What is the "Plan-Do-Check-Act" (PDCA) cycle used for in quality management?

a) To determine the cost of production.

b) To plan marketing strategies.
c) To implement and improve processes continuously.
d) To evaluate employee performance.

7. Which of the following is an example of a "prevention cost" in quality management?

a) Reworking defective products.

b) Inspecting products for defects.
c) Training employees on quality procedures.
d) Scrap disposal.

8. What is the main benefit of implementing a Quality Management System (QMS)?

a) Increased employee turnover.

b) Reduced production efficiency.
c) Improved customer satisfaction and business performance.
d) Higher material costs.

9. What does "TQM" stand for?

a) Total Quality Management. c) Territorial Quality Measurement.

b) Technical Quality Methodology. d) Transferable Quality Module.

10. Which of the following is a key principle of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

a) Centralized decision-making.
b) Employee empowerment.
c) Focus on internal processes.
d) Minimizing customer feedback.

Answer key

1. b 6. c
2. b 7. c
3. b 8. c
4. b 9. a
5. b 10. b

II. PERFORM COMPUTER OPERATIONS

1. Which of the following is NOT a type of computer port?

a) USB c) RAM
b) HDMI d) Ethernet

2. What does the acronym CPU stand for?

a) Complete Processing Unit c) Computer Peripheral Unit

b) Central Processing Unit d) Control Program Unit

3. Which of the following is an example of an input device?

a) Monitor c) Keyboard
b) Printer d) Speaker
4. What is the main function of an operating system?
a) To run applications c) To create documents
b) To manage hardware and software d) To play games
resources

5. Which of the following is a type of storage device?

a) Mouse c) Monitor
b) Hard drive d) Keyboard

6. What is the purpose of RAM?

a) To store data permanently c) To process data

b) To store data temporarily while the d) To display information
computer is on

7. What is the function of an ALU?

a) To control the computer's operations c) To store data

b) To perform calculations and logical d) To display information
operations

8. Which of the following is a type of network?

a) LAN c) ALU
b) CPU d) ROM

9. What is the role of a web browser?

a) To run applications c) To access and display websites

b) To manage files d) To store data

10. What is the purpose of a firewall?

a) To protect a computer from viruses c) To speed up internet connection

b) To protect a computer from unauthorized d) To create backup files
access

11. What is the function of an antivirus program?

a) To speed up the computer c) To create documents

b) To protect against malware d) To manage files

12. What is the purpose of a router?

a) To connect devices to the internet c) To store data

b) To protect from viruses d) To process data

13. What is an IP address?

a) A unique identifier for a website c) A type of file format

b) A unique identifier for a computer or d) A type of computer port
device on a network
14. What does the acronym "BIOS" stand for?

a) Basic Input Output System c) Best Input Output System

b) Binary Input Output System d) Basic Input Output Server

15. What is the purpose of a motherboard?

a) To store data c) To process data

b) To connect all the other components of a d) To display information
computer

16. What is the difference between a file and a folder?

a) Files store data, folders organize files c) There is no difference

b) Folders store data, files organize folders d) Files and folders are the same thing

17. What does "GUI" stand for?

a) Graphical User Interface c) General User Interface

b) Global User Interface d) Great User Interface

18. What is the function of a compiler?

a) To run programs c) To store data

b) To translate high-level code into machine d) To display information
code

19. What is the purpose of a backup?

a) To speed up the computer c) To create new files

b) To protect against data loss d) To manage files

20. What is the function of a search engine?

a) To create websites c) To store data

b) To find information on the internet d) To run applications

Answer key
1. D 11. B
2. B 12. A
3. C 13. B
4. B 14. A
5. B 15. B
6. B 16. A
7. B 17. A
8. A 18. B
9. C 19. B
10. B 20. B

III. PERFORM MENSURATION AND CALCULATION

1. What is the area of a rectangle with a length of 12 cm and a width of 7 cm?

(a) 19 sq cm (c) 84 sq cm
(b) 42 sq cm (d) 168 sq cm
2. What is the perimeter of a square with a side length of 9 meters?
(a) 18 meters (c) 81 meters
(b) 36 meters (d) 162 meters
3. How many centimeters are there in 2.5 meters?
(a) 25 cm (c) 0.025 cm
(b) 250 cm (d) 0.25 c
4. What is 1/4 as a percentage?
(a) 10 (c) 40
(b) 25 (d) 75
5. What is the volume of a cube with a side length of 3 inches?
(a) 9 cubic inches (c) 27 cubic inches
(b) 12 cubic inches (d) 81 cubic inches
6. If a train travels at 60 kilometers per hour, how far will it travel in 2.5 hours?
(a) 120 km (c) 180 km
(b) 150 km (d) 240 km
7. What is 3/8 + 1/4?
(a) 1/2 (c) 3/4
(b) 5/8 (d) 7/8
8. What is the diameter of a circle with a radius of 5 cm?
(a) 2.5 cm (c) 10 cm
(b) 5 cm (d) 25 cm
9. What is 20% of 150?
(a) 10 (c) 50
(b) 30 (d) 75
10. What is the area of a triangle with a base of 10 cm and a height of 6 cm?
(a) 30 sq cm (c) 15 sq cm
(b) 60 sq cm (d) 120 sq cm
Answer key

1. (c) 6. (b)
2. (b) 7. (b)
3. (b) 8. (c)
4. (b) 9. (b)
5. (c) 10. (a)

IV. PREPARE AND INTERPRET TECHNICAL DRAWING

1. Which of the following line types is used to represent edges that are not visible in a given
view?

a) Visible line c) Centerline

b) Hidden line d) Dimension line

2. What is the purpose of a cutting plane line in a section view?

a) To show the outline of the object c) To dimension the object
b) To indicate where the object is being d) To represent hidden edges
"cut" to reveal internal features

3. In third-angle projection, which view is typically placed to the right of the front view?

a) Top view c) Right side view

b) Bottom view d) Left side view

4. Which of the following is NOT a type of pictorial drawing?

a) Isometric c) Orthographic
b) Oblique d) Perspective

5. What does the abbreviation "DIA" represent in a technical drawing?

a) Diameter c) Length
b) Radius d) Depth

6. What is the purpose of a scale in a technical drawing?

a) To show the material of the object
b) To indicate the size of the object relative to its actual size
c) To represent hidden edges
d) To show the center of a circle

7. What type of line is used to indicate the center of a circle or arc?

a) Visible line c) Centerline

b) Hidden line d) Dimension line

8. What is the purpose of a leader line in a technical drawing?

a) To connect a dimension to a feature c) To show the center of a circle

b) To represent hidden edges d) To indicate the type of material

9. Which of the following is a standard line type used in technical drawings?

a) Thick solid line c) Thin dash-dot line

b) Thin dashed line d) All of the above

10. In a technical drawing, what does a broken-out section reveal?

a) The entire interior of the object c) The exterior of the object

b) A portion of the object's interior d) The material properties

Answer key
1. b) Hidden line
2. b) To indicate where the object is being "cut" to reveal internal features
3. c) Right side view
4. c) Orthographic
5. a) Diameter
6. b) To indicate the size of the object relative to its actual size
7. c) Centerline
8. a) To connect a dimension to a feature
9. d) All of the above
10. b) A portion of the object's interior

V. USE HAND TOOLS

1. Which of the following is NOT a type of hand tool?

a) Wrench c) Saw
b) Drill d) Motor

2. What is the primary function of a screwdriver?

a) Cutting wood c) Measuring distances

b) Tightening or loosening screws d) Bending metal

3. Which tool is best suited for gripping and turning nuts and bolts?

a) Hammer c) Wrench
b) Pliers d) Chisel

4. A tape measure is primarily used for:

a) Measuring angles c) Measuring long distances

b) Measuring small, precise distances d) Measuring weight

5. Which of the following is a safety precaution when using hand tools?

a) Always use the tool at maximum speed c) Use the wrong tool for the job
b) Wear appropriate personal protective d) Ignore any safety warnings
equipment

6. A claw hammer is typically used for:

a) Tightening screws c) Driving and removing nails

b) Cutting metal d) Measuring angles

7. What is a utility knife primarily used for?

a) Cutting wood c) Drilling holes

b) Cutting cardboard, rope, or other d) Measuring lengths
materials

8. Which of the following tools is used for filing or smoothing metal or wood?

a) Wrench c) File
b) Pliers d) Hammer
9. What is the purpose of a level?

a) To measure angles c) To measure distances

b) To determine if a surface is perfectly d) To cut wood
horizontal or vertical

10. Which tool is used to make a small indentation in a material before drilling?

a) Pliers c) Center punch

b) Screwdriver d) Wrench

Answer key

1. d) Motor
2. b) Tightening or loosening screws
3. c) Wrench
4. c) Measuring long distances
5. b) Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
6. c) Driving and removing nails
7. b) Cutting cardboard, rope, or other materials
8. c) File
9. b) To determine if a surface is perfectly horizontal or vertical
10. c) Center punch

VI. TERMINATE AND CONNECT ELECTRICAL WIRING AND ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS

1. Which of the following is NOT a common method of wire termination?

a) Soldering c) Screwing
b) Crimping d) Taping

2. What is the primary purpose of a crimp terminal?

a) To provide a permanent solder joint

b) To create a secure, mechanical connection between a wire and a terminal
c) To insulate a wire from a terminal
d) To act as a fuse

3. What does the term "short circuit" refer to in an electrical circuit?

a) A high-resistance path for current flow

b) A low-resistance path for current flow
c) A circuit with no current flow
d) A circuit with excessive voltage

4. Which of the following is NOT a common type of electrical connector?

a) Board-to-board connector c) Wire-to-wire connector

b) Cable-to-cable connector d) Glass-to-metal connector

5. What is the purpose of a junction box?

a) To house and protect electrical c) To reduce the current flow in a circuit
connections d) To act as a switch
b) To increase the voltage of a circuit

6. Which of the following is a safety precaution when working with electrical wiring?

a) Work on energized circuits without proper protection

b) Use tools with damaged insulation
c) Disconnect power before working on circuits
d) Ignore warnings about working with electricity

7. What is the function of a circuit breaker?

a) To increase the voltage in a circuit

b) To provide a path for grounding
c) To interrupt the flow of current in a circuit when it exceeds a predetermined level
d) To convert AC to DC current

8. What does the term "grounding" refer to in electrical wiring?

a) Connecting a circuit to a high-voltage source

b) Connecting a circuit to the earth for safety
c) Increasing the resistance of a circuit
d) Short-circuiting a circuit

9. What is the most common type of wire used in residential electrical wiring?

a) Solid wire c) Coaxial cable

b) Stranded wire d) Fiber optic cable

10. What does the term "open circuit" refer to in an electrical circuit?

a) A circuit with a continuous path for current flow

b) A circuit with a broken path for current flow
c) A circuit with a low resistance path for current flow
d) A circuit with a high resistance path for current flow

Answer key

1. d) Taping
2. b) To create a secure, mechanical connection between a wire and a terminal
3. b) A low-resistance path for current flow
4. d) Glass-to-metal connector
5. a) To house and protect electrical connections
6. c) Disconnect power before working on circuits
7. c) To interrupt the flow of current in a circuit when it exceeds a predetermined level
8. b) Connecting a circuit to the earth for safety
9. b) Stranded wire
10. b) A circuit with a broken path for current flow

VII. TEST ELECTRONIC COMPONENTS

1. Which component primarily resists the flow of current in an electrical circuit?
 (a) Capacitor (c) Resistor
(b) Inductor (d) Diode
2. What component is used to store electrical energy in an electric field?
(a) Resistor (c) Transistor
(b) Inductor (d) Capacitor
3. 3. A diode is often used to perform which function in a circuit?
(a) Amplify signals (c) Store electrical energy
(b) Rectify AC voltage (d) Generate oscillations
4. Which component acts as a semiconductor switch and amplifier?
(a) Resistor (c) Capacitor
(b) Transistor (d) Inductor
5. What is the main function of an inductor in a circuit?
(a) Store energy in an electric (c) Store energy in a magnetic
field field
(b) Resist current flow (d) Rectify AC voltage
6. Which of the following is NOT a passive component?
(a) Resistor (c) Capacitor
(b) Inductor (d) Transistor
7. What does LED stand for?
(a) Light Emitting Diode (c) Liquid Emitting Diode
(b) Low Energy Device (d) Long End Diode
8. What is the function of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
(a) To amplify signals (c) To store energy
(b) To protect the circuit from (d) To rectify AC voltage
overcurrent
9. What is a transformer primarily used for?
(a) Amplifying signals (c) Stepping up or stepping down
(b) Rectifying AC voltage voltage
(d) Storing energy
10. Which of these is an example of an active component?
(a) Resistor (c) Transistor
(b) Capacitor (d) Inductor

Answer key

1. (c) Resistor 7. (a) Light Emitting Diode

2. (d) Capacitor 8. (b) To protect the circuit from
3. (b) Rectify AC voltage overcurrent
4. (b) Transistor 9. (c) Stepping up or stepping down
5. (c) Store energy in a magnetic field voltage
6. (d) Transistor 10. (c) Transistor