31-08-2025

1950CPA404016250014 PA

PHYSICS

1) Force are acting on a body according to fig. If body is moving horizontally at a constant speed of 5

m/s then value of P and S respectively will be:-

(1) 0N, 0N
(2) 300 N, 200 N
(3) 300 N, 1000 N
(4) 2000 N, 300 N

2) Which of the following statement is not true for a force?

(1) Force is the influence of one body on another.

(2) Force can produce deformation in the body.
(3) Force can produce acceleration in a body.
(4) Force always acts in the direction of motion.

3) Newton's II law of motion connects :-

(1) momentum and acceleration

(2) change of momentum and velocity
(3) rate of change of momentum and external force
(4) rate of change of force and momentum

4) Calculate the tensions T1, T2 and T3 in the three threads shown in the following figure. (All threads

are mass less) (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30 N, 40 N, 50 N
(2) 50 N, 30 N, 40 N
(3) 35 N, 45 N, 40 N
(4) 30 N, 50 N, 40 N

5) The acceleration of the block is :-

(1) 6 m/s2
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 12 m/s2

6) Find the tension T2 for the system shown in fig.

(1) 1g N
(2) 2g N
(3) 5g N
(4) 6g N

7) Three equal weights of mass 2kg each are hanging on a string passing over a fixed pulley as
shown in fig. The tension in the string connecting weights B and C is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 13.3N
(3) 3.3 N
(4) 19.6 N

8) Three blocks of masses m1,m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown in the figure on
a frictionless table. They are pulled with a force of 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg,

then tension T2 will be :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 32 N
(4) 40 N

9)

The acceleration of the system shown in figure is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 2m/s2
(2) 5m/s2
(3) 10m/s2
(4) 0

10) When a constant force acts on a mass ‘m’ which is at rest initially, the velocity acquired in a
given displacement is proportional to

(1)

(2)

(3) m

(4)

11) A rocket works on the principle of

(1) conservation of energy

(2) conservation of linear momentum
(3) conservation of inertia
(4) conservation of force

12) Two identical bodies are allowed to fall from different heights h1 & h2. The ratio of their
momentum when they reach the ground will be

(1) h1: h2
2 2
(2) h1 : h2
(3)
(4) 1

13) In the system shown below, a constant force F is applied. The reaction offered by m2 upon m1
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

14) Find the recoil velocity of a gun having mass equal to 5 kg, if a bullet of 25 gm acquires the
velocity of 500 m/s after firing from the gun.

(1) –2.5 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) +2.5 m/s
(4) -5 m/s

15) A ball of mass ‘m’ moving with speed ‘v’ strikes a bat and returns back with speed ‘2v’. If the
ball was in contact for time ‘t’ with the bat, then magnitude of force applied by the bat is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mvt

16) The change in momentum of a body

(1) is equal to the force applied on it.

(2) is equal to the product of force applied on it and the time of application of the force.
(3) both (1) and (2) are true.
(4) both (1) and (2) are false.

17) The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

(1) to increase its speed.

(2) to decrease its speed.
(3) to resist any change in its state of motion.
(4) to decelerate due to friction.
18) Action and reaction act on

(1) the same body in opposite directions.

(2) different bodies in opposite directions.
(3) the same body in the same direction.
(4) the different bodies in the same direction.

19) A block of mass 5 kg resting on a horizontal surface is connected by a cord, passing over a light
frictionless pulley to a hanging block of mass 5 kg. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the

block and the surface is 0.5. Tension in the cord is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 49 N
(2) zero
(3) 36.75 N
(4) 12.75 N

20) A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight more?

(1) When the elevator moves downward with constant velocity.

(2) When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration.
(3) When the elevator moves upwards with uniform velocity.
(4) When the elevator moves downward with constant retardation.

CHEMISTRY

1) 18.066 × 1023 atoms of nitrogen contains:

(i) 1 gram atom of nitrogen
(ii) 45 grams of N2 (iii) 3 moles of nitrogen atoms

(1) Only (ii)

(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) Only (iii)

2) Match the following

Column I Column II
Mass of 0.5 mole
(A) (p) 0.5
of hydrogen atom
 Formula unit mass
(B) (q) 136.3
of ZnCl2
Formula of
(C) Calcium (r) Ca3P2
phosphide
Formula of
(D) Calcium (s) Ca3(PO4)2
phosphate
(1) A-(p), B-(q), C-(r), D-(s)
(2) A-(p), B-(r), C-(q), D-(s)
(3) A-(q), B-(p), C-(r), D-(s)
(4) A-(q), B-(s), C-(r), D-(p)

3) Vapour density of a volatile substance is 3 times of SO2 then molecular weight of the volatile
substance will be :-

(1) 64
(2) 192
(3) 180
(4) 128

4)

Which of the following would weigh the most?

(1) 0.2 mole of Sucrose [C12H22O11]

(2) 2 moles of CO2
(3) 2 moles of CaCO3
(4) 10 moles of H2O

5) A vessel contains 4.4g of CO2. It means that it contains

(1) 0.01 mole of CO2

22
(2) 6.022 × 10 molecules of CO2
(3) 8.8 g atoms of oxygen
(4) 1120 mL of CO2 at STP

6) How many O3 molecules are in 3.20 g of O3?

(1) 4.0 × 1022

(2) 6.0 × 1022
(3) 1.2 × 1023
(4) 6.0 × 1023

7)

Find the volume occupied by 8 gm of oxygen gas at STP

(1) 5600 ml
(2) 11200 ml
(3) 22400 ml
(4) none of the above

8) Which of the following is incorrect about a sample of 11.2 L CH4 gas at STP :

(1) Number of molecules in the sample are 3.01 × 1023

(2) Weight of 11.2 L of CH4(g) at STP is 8 g.
(3) Number of atoms in the sample are 15.05 × 1022
(4) None of these

9) The weight of 1 × 1022 molecules of CuSO4.5H2O is :

(1) 41.59 g
(2) 415.9 g
(3) 4.159 g
(4) 0.4159 g

10)

What volume of H2 gas at STP is liberated by 5 mol of Zn in the following reaction :

(1) 112 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 112 dm 3

(4) Both (1) and (3)

11) The total no. of electrons in 0.1 mol of CH4 in terms of NA :

(1) 1 NA
(2) 0.5 NA
(3) 5 NA
(4) 10 NA

12) The total number of protons in 10 g of calcium carbonate is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) When 8.4 g of magnesium carbonate is heated, it decomposes into magnesium oxide and carbon
dioxide. Calculate the mass of magnesium oxide formed.
(1) 2.5 g
(2) 4 g
(3) 6.2 g
(4) 9.1 g

14) Match the compounds given in column I with the ratio of masses of their constituent elements in
column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II
(P) Nitric oxide (i) 7 : 20
(Q) Nitrous oxide (ii) 7 : 16
(R) Nitrogen dioxide (iii) 7 : 8
(S) Dinitrogen pentoxide (iv) 7 : 4
(1) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
(2) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)
(3) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)
(4) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

15) Two gaseous samples were analysed : One contained 1.2 g of carbon and 3.2 g of oxygen.
The other contained 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen. The experimental data are in accordance with
:

(1) Law of conservation of mass.

(2) Law of definite proportion.
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion.
(4) Law of multiple proportion.

16) What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver
chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate if the law of conservation of mass is true?

(1) 17 g
(2) 17.7 g
(3) 19 g
(4) 20 g

17) All samples of pure water contain hydrogen and oxygen in the mass of ratio of 1 : 8. To which of
the following laws does the above statement is in agreement?

(1) Law of conservation of mass

(2) Law of multiple proportion
(3) Law of indestructibility of matter
(4) Law of constant proportion

18) Which of the following is a Triatomic molecule?

(1) Sulphur
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Water
(4) Ammonia

19) Carbon and oxygen combine in the ratio 3 : 8 by mass to form CO2. The mass of oxygen required
to completely react with 0.9 g Carbon is

(1) 24g
(2) 2.4g
(3) 4.8g
(4) 0.24g

20) Which of the following set of compounds follow law of reciprocal proportion?

(1) H2S, H2O, SO2

(2) H2S, H2O, HNO3
(3) SO2, NO2, H2S
(4) NO2, NO, N2O

BIOLOGY

1) The condensation of chromosomes is observed in ______

(1) Prophase 1
(2) Anaphase 1
(3) Metaphase 1
(4) None of the above

2) _________ is a form of cell division which results in the creation of gametes or sex cells.

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis
(3) Miosis
(4) Amitosis

3) The _______ state implies the exit of cells from the cell cycle

(1) S
(2) G1
(3) G2
(4) G0

4) The spindle apparatus is completed during the ________ phase of mitosis.

(1) Telophase
(2) Telophase
(3) Prophase
(4) Anaphase

5) If an individual wants to view diakinesis, which of these would be

(1) Hair
(2) Leaf
(3) Onion root
(4) Flower bud

6) Chromosome structure can be observed best during ____

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Prophase
(4) None of the above

7) How much time of the entire cell cycle is occupied by interphase?

(1) 75%
(2) 95%
(3) 50%
(4) 80%

8) Identify the phase of the cell cycle.

(1) Prophase
(2) G0
(3) G2
(4) Telophase

9) Protein synthesis takes place in _____

(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) G1 and G2 phases
(4) S phase

10) Which of these structures is the site of attachment of SPINDLE fibre?

(1) Centroid
(2) Aster
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centrosome

11) Identify the structure given below.

(1) Centrosomes
(2) Asters
(3) Centromeres
(4) Chromatin

12) Which of these processes ensure the haploid phase of life cycle?

(1) Fission
(2) Mitosis
(3) Meiosis
(4) Fertilization

13) How many cells are formed at the end of meiosis I?

(1) 2 haploid cells

(2) 4 diploid cells
(3) 2 diploid cells
(4) 4 haploid cells

14) Arrange the phases of prophase I in order.

(1) Zygotene → Leptotene → Pachytene → Diplotene

(2) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene
(3) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene → Diplotene
(4) Zygotene → Leptotene → Diplotene → Pachytene

15) What is the chromosomal association process in zygotene called?

(1) Zygote
(2) Tetrad
(3) Synapsis
(4) Chiasmata

16) During which stage of prophase I does TERMINALIZATION occur?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

17) During which stage does the bivalent become distinct?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene
18) Crossing over takes place during _____

(1) pachytene
(2) zygotene
(3) leptotene
(4) diplotene

19) Which of these is true regarding crossing over?

(1) Exchange occurs between non-homologous chromosomes

(2) It involves recombinase
(3) It is not mediated by enzymes
(4) It occurs during diplotene

20) Identify the phase

(1) Anaphase II
(2) Telophase II
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Telophase I

MATHEMATICS

1) In the figure given below, ⊥ where PT is the median drawn to . Which of the following

is/are sufficient to prove that ΔPQT ≅ ΔSRT?

(1) P, T and S are collinear points

(2) PT = TS
(3) PR = RS
(4) [(1) and (2)] or [(1) and (3)] or [(2) and (3)]

2) In the below ΔMNO, is the bisector of the ∠NMO and is perpendicular to . If ∠M = 40°
and ∠N = 80°, then ∠DMC is _____.

(1) 5°
(2) 15°
(3) 10°
(4) None of the above

3) In the adjacent figure BA and BC are produced to meet CD and AD produced is E and F. Then
is

(1) 80°
(2) 50°
(3) 40°
(4) 160°

4) In triangle ABC, BD bisect angle B. If and then is:-

(1) 75°
(2) 105°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°
5)
In the figure above(not to scale), and . If and
, then ____

(1) 80°
(2) 100°
(3) 110°
(4) 120°

6) The diagram shows a five-pointed star. How big is the angle A?

(1) 35°
(2) 42°
(3) 51°
(4) 65°

7) In the given figure, . Find the value of x.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) In the figure, ABE is a triangle and AC = AD. What is the measure of ?

(1) 30°
(2) 40°
(3) 60°
(4) 80°

9) In , AD is the median. If produced to F, produced to E, and

, then find .

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 80°
(4) 100°

10) In the figure below, ABE is a triangle and AC=AD. What is the measure of ?

(1) 30°
(2) 40°
(3) 60°
(4) 80°

11) In an isosceles triangle, if the vertex angle is twice the sum of the base angles, then the measure
of vertex angle of the triangle is

(1) 100°
(2) 120°
(3) 110°
(4) 130°

12) In the following figure ADBC, BD = CD = AC, . Find the value of y.

 0
(1) 27
0
(2) 54
0
(3) 72
0
(4) 58

13) In ABC, ∠A = 85°, ∠B = 30° and ∠C = 65° then

(1) AB > AC
(2) AB < AC
(3) BC < AC
(4) None of these

14) If A : Two triangles are said to be congruent if two sides and an angle of the one triangle are
respectively equal to the two sides and an angle of the other and
R : Two triangles are congruent if two sides and the included angle of the one must be equal to the
corresponding two sides and included angle of the other, then which of the following statement is
correct ?

(1) A is false and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) None of these.

15) If two sides AB and BC and the median AD of ΔABC are equal respectively to the two sides PQ
and QR and the median PM of the other triangle PQR, then
(i) ΔABD ≅ (ii) ΔABC ≅

(i) (ii)

A. ΔPQM ΔPQR

B. ΔPMR ΔPQM

C. ΔPQR ΔPQM

D. ΔPQR ΔPMR
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

16) In the given figure (not drawn to scale), AB = AC and BD = CD then ΔABD ≅ ΔACD by which

congruence rule ?

(1) ASA
(2) SSS
(3) SAS
(4) Both (2) & (3)

17) In the given figure (not drawn to scale), if PQ = PR, PS = PT and ∠QPR = ∠SPT, then:

(1) ΔPSQ ≅ ΔTRP

(2) ΔPQS ≅ ΔPTR
(3) ΔQSP ≅ ΔRTP
(4) ΔPSQ ≅ ΔRTP

18) In the given figure, if AE=AD and BD=CE, then _____.

(1) ΔBEC ≅ ΔBDC

(2) ΔAEB ≅ ΔADC
(3) BC = CD
(4) None of these

19) Sum of three altitudes of a triangle is_____ the sum of the three sides of the triangle.

(1) Less than

(2) Greater than
(3) Equal to
(4) Can't be determined

20) In the figure given below, find ∠Z.

(1) 40°
(2) 110°
(3) 45°
(4) 70°

21) If two sides AB and BC and the median AD of ΔABC are equal respectively to the two sides PQ
and QR and the median PM of the other triangle PQR, then:
(i) ΔABD ≅ (ii) ΔABC ≅

(i) (ii)

(A) ΔPQM ΔPQR

(B) ΔPMR ΔPQM

(C) ΔPQR ΔPQM

(D) ΔPQR ΔPMR

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

22) Which of the following is not possible in case of a triangle ABC?​​

(1) AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm and CA = 5 cm

(2) AB = 5 cm, BC = 8 cm and CA = 7 cm
(3) ∠A = 50°, ∠B = 60° and ∠C = 70°
(4) AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm and CA = 7 cm

23) In triangles ABC and PQR, AB = AC, ∠C = ∠P and ∠B = ∠Q. The two triangles are

(1) Isosceles but not congruent.

(2) Isosceles and congruent.
(3) Congruent but not isosceles.
(4) Neither congruent nor isosceles.
24) In ΔABC, AB = 12, BC = 10 and AD = 8, where D is mid point of side BC, then area of ΔABC is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In given figure, if AB = AC, BD = CD then find x and y.

(1) x = 70°, y = 37°

(2) x = 37°, y = 70°
(3) x + y = 117°
(4) x – y = 100°

26) Which of the following is not a criterion for congruence of triangles ?

(1) SSA
(2) SAS
(3) ASA
(4) SSS

27) In the above triangle DEF, side DE is produced to

point the M. Ray EO is the bisector of . is equal to
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) Sum of angles in the figure will be : i.e. ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 + ∠5 + ∠6

(1) π
(2) 2π

(3)

(4) none of these

29) In given figure, find the values of x and y, if QS = RQ.

(1) x = 36°, y = 32°

(2) x = 45°, y = 32°
(3) x = 32°, y = 45°
(4) x = 45°, y = 26°

30) The orthocentre of a right angled triangle lies

(1) Outside the triangle

(2) At the right angular vertex
(3) On its hypotenuse
(4) Within the triangle

MENTALABILITY

1) In the following question, from amongst the figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4), select the one
which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dot as in fig. (X).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Select the figure from the option which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as

in Fig.(X).
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In the following question, a diagram marked with X has some dots placed in it followed by four
alternatives. Only one of four alternatives satisfies the same condition. Find that alternative.

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

4) Identify the figure which satisfies the same condition of placement of dots as in given figure.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Select a figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dot as in the

given figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
6) Which of the following figures is embedded in figure (X) as one of its parts?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following figures is exactly embedded in fig.(X) as one of its parts?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 1 3 2 1 2 1 4 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 2 3

MATHEMATICS

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 3
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. A 4 1 2 2 1 1 2 4 2

MENTALABILITY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Concept : Equilibrium under horizontal and Vertical forces

Formula : ΣFX = 0 ; ΣFY = 0

Calculation : Since the body is moving horizontally with constant speed of 5m/s therefore
acceleration along horizontal axis is 0. Also acceleration along vertical axis is 0.
∴ aX = aY = 0
∴ ΣFX = 0 ; ΣFY = 0
⇒ Along horizontal (or x-axis)
P = 300 N (∵ Net force = 0)
⇒ Along vertical (or y-axis)
S+ S = 2000 N
⇒ 2 S = 2000 N
or S = 1000 N (∵ Net force = 0)

Final Answer : (3) 300 N, 1000 N

2) Explain: Identify the statement that is not true regarding the properties of force.
Concept: Force is an interaction that, when unopposed, will change the motion of an object.
Formula: Newton's Second Law: F = ma
Calculation: 1. Force is the influence of one body on another. This statement is true.
Force arises from the interaction between two or more bodies. For example, gravitational
force is the influence of one mass on another.
2. Force can produce deformation in the body. This statement is true. When a force is
applied to a body, it can cause a change in its shape or size. Examples include stretching a
spring, compressing a ball, or bending a rod.

3. Force can produce acceleration in a body. This statement is false. A force can act in the
same direction as motion (causing acceleration), opposite to the direction of motion (causing
deceleration), or at an angle to the direction of motion (changing both speed and direction).
Ans. (4) Difficulty level: easy

3) Explanation :
We are asked to determine which concept is connected by Newton's Second Law of Motion.

Concept :
Newton's Second Law of Motion states that :
F = dP/dt
Where :
• F is the net external force acting on an object
• dp/dt is the rate of change of momentum of the object.
This law essentially links the force acting on an object with how its momentum changes over
time.

Formula :
The key formula for Newton's Second Law of Motion is
F = dP/dt
Where :
• P is momentum, defined as P = m.v, with m being the mass of the object and v its velocity

Calculation :
• Newton's Second Law specifically connects the rate rate of change of momentum with the
external force acting on an object.
This, the correct answer is option 3, Rate of change of momentum and external force.

4) T3 = 4g = 40 N
T2 cos 37 = T3 = 40

T2 = 40 ⇒ T2 = 50 N
T2 sin 37 = T1

50 = T1 = 30 N

5)
: N + 30 = 50 ⇒ N = 20

fmax = µN = × 20 = 10
→ : 40 – 10 = 5a ⇒ a = 6 m/s2

6) T3 = 30 N
T2 = 20 + 30 = 50N = 5g N

7)
Tension in string between B and C
T = Mc(g – a)

=
 8)

Three blocks of masses m1,m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown in the figure
on a frictionless table. They are pulled with a force of 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 =
4 kg, then tension T2 will be :- 20 N

9) Asking About:
The acceleration of a system of masses connected by a string over a pulley, with one mass on
an inclined plane.

Concept:

A. Newton's Second Law: F = ma

B. Forces on the inclined Plane: Gravity has components along and perpendicular to the plane.
C. Tension in the String: The same throughout (assuming a massless, frictionless pulley)

Formula:

A. Net Force: Fnet = mtotala.

B. Gravity component Along the incline: mg sinθ.

Calculation / Explanation:
1. Forces on the 10 kg Mass (Inclined Plane):
• Gravity component along the incline:

10g sin30° = 10 × 10 × = 50 N
• Tension in the string: T (acting up the incline).

2. Forces on the 5 kg Mass (Hanging):

• Weight: 5g = 5 × 10 = 50 N (acting downward).
• Tension in the string: T (acting upward).

3. Equations of Motion:
• For the 10 kg mass: T – 50 = 10a
• For the 5 kg mass: 50 – T = 5a

4. Solving for Acceleration a:

• Adding both equations:
(T – 50) + (50 – T) = 10a + 5a
• Simplifies to:
0 = 15a ⇒ a = 0

Final Answer:
The acceleration of the system is 0 m/s2
Correct option is (4).

10)

Given : initial velocity, u = 0 ; mass = m ; displacement = s

From newton’s 2nd law of motion

From 3rd equation of motion, v2 = u2 + 2as
 or v2 = 0 + 2 .s

or ⇒

11) Rocket propulsion also works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

12) Given identical ball, m1 = m2 = m

From 3rd equation of motion
v2 = u2 + 2gs

Similarly,

Let the momentum of first body be P1 and second body be P2.

13)

From figure both the bodies are touching each other there is a pair of action-reaction force
between them at place of their contact. These forces are equal in magnitude but opposite in
direction.

For mass m1, F – f = m1a ....(1)

For mass m2, f = m2a ....(2)
Adding equation (1) and (2), gives :
(F – f) + f = m1a + m2a

F = (m1 + m2)a or
from (2) we have, f = m2a
(reaction offered m2 upon m1)

or

14)

Find the recoil velocity of a gun having mass equal to 5 kg, if a bullet of 25 gm acquires the
velocity of 500 m/s after firing from the gun.
5 m/s
 15)

A ball of mass ‘m’ moving with speed ‘v’ strikes a bat and returns back with speed ‘2v’. If the
ball was in contact for time ‘t’ with the bat, then magnitude of force applied by the bat is

16)

is equal to the product of force applied on it and the time of application of the force.

17)

to resist any change in its state of motion.

18)

different bodies in opposite directions.

19)

Fk is kinetic friction

Fk = µkN = µk(mg)
Fk = 0.5 × 5 × 9.8 = 24.5 N
For 1st block,
T – Fk = 5 × a
T – 24.5 = 5a ...(1)
nd
For 2 block, 5g – T = 5a
5 × 9.8 – T = 5a or 49 – T = 5a ...(2)
Adding equation (1) and (2), gives :
49 – 24.5 = 10a
or a = 2.45 m/s2
On putting the value of ‘a’ in (1)
T – 24.5 = 5 × 2.45
or T = 12.45 + 24.5
or T = 36.75 N

20)
 When the elevator moves downward with constant retardation.

CHEMISTRY

21)

No. of moles of nitrogen atoms = = 3 moles of nitrogen atoms = 3 × 14 g =

42 g N

22)

A-(p), B-(q), C-(r), D-(s)

23)

V.D. =
∴ V.D. ∝ M.W.
∴ [Link] = [Link] SO2 ×3
= 64 × 3
= 192

24) mole =
For calcium carbonate
Given mass = mole × molar mass
= 2 × 100
= 200 g
For H2O
10 × 18 = 180 g
For C12H22O11
0.2 × 346 = 69.2 g
For CO2
2 × 44 = 88 g

25) 4.4 g CO2 = 0.1 mole of CO2

∴ 0.1 × 6.022 × 1023 molecular
= 6.022 × 1022 molecules of CO2

26) Moles of O3 =

Moles of O3 =
No. of (N) molecules = NA

= × 6.02 × 1023
= 4.0 × 1022

27)

32 gm of O2 = 22400 ml at STP
8 gm of O2 = ? (x)
x = 5600 ml at STP

28)
Number of molecules = 0.5 NA = 0.5 × 6.02 × 1023 = 3.01 × 1023
no. of atoms of CH4 = 0.5 × NA × 5
wt. of CH4 = 0.5 × 16 = 8g

29)

The weight of 6 × 1023 molecules of

CuSO4.SH2O = 159.6g
The weight of 1 1022 Molecules of CuSO4.SH2O

=
=4.159 g

30)

Answer :
Both (1) and (3)

31)

Ans. 1 NA

32)

Mass of CaCO3 = 100g

No. of protons = 20 + 6 + 24 = 50

Moles of 10g of CaCO3 = = 0.1 mole

No. of molecules in 0.1 mole = 6.02 × 1023 × 0.1
= 6.02 × 1022
No. of protons = 6.02 × 1022 × 50 = 3.00 × 1024
33) Given, Mass of MgCO3 = 8.4 g
Molecular mass of MgCO3 = 84 g

∴ No. of mole = = 0.1 mol. 0.1 mole of

MgO is produced.
Molecular mass of MgO = 40 g
∴ Mass of MgO = mole × M = 0.1 × 40 = 4 g

34) Nitric oxide (NO) : N:O = 14 : 16 = 7 : 8

Nitrous Oxide (N2O) : N : O = 28 : 16 = 7 : 4
Nitrogen dioxide (N2O5) : N : O = 28 : 80 = 7 : 20

35) First sample contains 1.2 g of carbon and 3.2 g of oxygen.

Percentage of carbon in first sample

Percentage of oxygen in first sample

The second sample contains 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen.

Thus, Percentage of carbon in first sample = Percentage of carbon in second sample
Percentage of oxygen in first sample = Percentage of oxygen in second sample
So, the given experimental data are in accordance with the Law of definite proportion.

36)

The reaction is: Silver nitrate + Sodium chloride → Silver chloride + Sodium nitrate
According to law of conservation of mass.
Total mass of reactants = Total mass of products
∴ Mass of AgNO3 + 5.85 g = 14.35 g + 8.5 g
Mass of AgNO3 = 22.85 – 5.85 = 17.0 g

37) Pure water obtained from river, sea, well etc. always contains hydrogen and oxygen
combined together in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass.

38) Water (H2O) is a Triatomic molecule, as is one molecule contains three atoms.

39) C → O
3g → 8g

1g →
 0.9 g → × 0.9 g
= 2.4 g

40)

Theory based

BIOLOGY

41) The condensation of chromosomes is observed in1.

42) Meiosis is a form of cell division which results in the creation of gametes or sex cells.

43) G0 is quescent stage that has exited cell cycle

44) Spindle apparatus is completed in the Metaphase stage of mitosis.

45) Flower bud

46) Metaphase

47) 95%

48) The phase to be identified lies between the S phase or the synthesis phase and the M
phase or the mitosis phase. Hence, it is the G2 phase or the gap phase 2. Cell growth takes
place during this phase.

49)

Protein synthesis takes place in both G1 and G2 phases.

50) KInetochore is the site of attachment of SPINDLE fibre

51) The given structure is present in the cytoplasm of the cell and radiates out in all directions
from the centrosomes present on opposite poles of the cell. Hence, they are the asters, which
are made of microtubules

52) Meiosis

53) 2 haploid cells

 54) Prophase 1 is the first stage of meiosis. It is the first step of meiosis 1. It is divided into
four sub-phases-namely, Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene and Diplotene. Diplotene is followed
by diakinesis.

55) Zygotene is the second stage of prophase I of meiosis I. The compact chromosomes begin
to associate with each other during this phase, and this association process is known as
synapsis.

56) Terminalization occurs in Diakinesis of Prophase I

57) Bivalent or tetrad formation takes place during the zygotene stage of prophase I, after
synapsis has occurred and homologous chromosomes form pairs. However, the bivalent is
distinct only in the next stage, pachytene

58) Crossing over takes place after tetrad or bivalent formation by the process of synapsis
during zygotene. Hence, crossing over takes place during pachytene. Crossing over leads to
genetic diversity.

59) Crossing over takes place during the pachytene stage of prophase I. It is enzyme mediated
by enzyme recombinase and involves recombination nodules. Exchange of genetic material
occurs between homologous chromosomes

60) From the given diagram, we can observe that the chromosomes are moving towards the
poles from the center. Hence, it is anaphase. Since it results in the separation of the tetrad, it
is anaphase I.

MATHEMATICS

61) PT ⊥ QR
PT is median
QT = TR
If ΔPQT ΔSRT, then
∠PTQ = ∠RTS = 90°
(1) P, T and S are collinear
(2) PT = TS
(3) PR = RS
(4) [(1) and (2)] or [(1) and (3)] or [(2) and (3)]

62) In ΔMNO,
∠O = 180° – (80° + 40°) = 60°

So, ∠DMC = (∠N – ∠O)

= (80° – 60°) = 10°

63)

In the adjacent figure BA and BC are produced to meet CD and AD produced is E and F. Then
is

40°

64)

In triangle ABC, BD bisect angle B. If and then is:- 105°

65)

In the figure above(not to scale), and . If and

, then __120°

66)

The diagram shows a five-pointed star. How big is the angle A?

67)

In the given figure, . Find the value of x. 1

68)

In the figure, ABE is a triangle and AC = AD. What is the measure of ?

60°

69)

In , AD is the median. If produced to F, produced to E, and

, then find .

80°

70)

In the figure below, ABE is a triangle and AC=AD. What is the measure of ?

60°

71)
In an isosceles triangle, if the vertex angle is twice the sum of the base angles, then the
measure of vertex angle of the triangle is
120°

72)

In the following figure ADBC, BD = CD = AC, . Find the value of

y
0
72

73)

In ABC, ∠A = 85°, ∠B = 30° and ∠C = 65° then AB > AC

74) Statement A is false, because in statement A, it is not given that equal angle is included
between two given sides or not. In statement R, it is properly given, so statement R is correct
explanation of A.

75)

If two sides AB and BC and the median AD of ΔABC are equal respectively to the two sides PQ
and QR and the median PM of the other triangle PQR, then
(i) ΔABD ≅ (ii) ΔABC ≅
A

76)

In the given figure (not drawn to scale), AB = AC and BD = CD then ΔABD ≅ ΔACD by which
congruence rule ?

Both (2) & (3)

77)

ΔQSP ≅ ΔRTP

78)

ΔAEB ≅ ΔADC

79)

Sum of three altitudes of a triangle is__Less than___ the sum of the three sides of the triangle.

80)
In the figure given below, find ∠Z 45°

81) Given → In ΔABC and ΔPQR

AB = PQ
BC = QR
AD = PM
To Prove → (i) ΔABD is similar to which triangle
(ii) ΔABC is similar to which triangle
Proof → (i) In ΔABD and ΔPQM
AB = PQ (given) ...........(1)
BC = QR (given)

⇒ BC = QR
⇒ BD = QM .............(2)
AD = PM (given) ..............(3)
By (1), (2) & (3) ΔABD ΔPQM (SSS cong.)
⇒ ∠B = ∠Q (By. CPCT) ............(4)
(ii) In ΔABC and ΔPQR
AB = PQ (given)
∠B = ∠Q [By (i)]
BC = QR
By SAS cong. ΔABC ΔPQR

82) Sum of any two sides of a triangle is always greater than third side.
Sum of all interior angles of Δ is equal to 180°
In option (4) (AB + BC) CA

83) In ΔABC, AB = AC (given)

⇒ ∠B = ∠C ........(1)
Also ∠C = ∠P and ∠B = ∠Q (given)
Then by (1) ∠P = ∠Q
⇒ QR = PR
⇒ ΔPQR is an isosceles triangle.
Only two angles of ΔABC are respectively equal to two angles of ΔPQR. Hence these two
triangles are not congruent.
84)
Area of ΔABC = 2(Area of ΔABD)

85)
Given AB = AC, BD = CD
and AD = AD
So by SSS criteria
ΔABD ΔACD
By CPCT ∠DAB = ∠DAC
⇒ x = 37°
and ∠BDA = ∠CDA
⇒ y = 70°

86) SSA is not a criterion for congruence of triangles.

87)

88)

Sum of angles in the figure will be : i.e. ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 + ∠5 + ∠6

2π

89)

x = 45°, y = 26°

90)

At the right angular vertex

MENTALABILITY

91)

92)

As per observation option (2) is correct.

93) By observation