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CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper

This document is a CBSE 10th grade Science examination paper consisting of 39 questions divided into 5 sections, covering various topics in science. The paper includes objective type questions, very short answer questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, and case-based questions, with specific instructions on the format and word limits for each section. The total time allowed for the exam is 3 hours, and the maximum marks are 80.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
7 views6 pages

CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper

This document is a CBSE 10th grade Science examination paper consisting of 39 questions divided into 5 sections, covering various topics in science. The paper includes objective type questions, very short answer questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, and case-based questions, with specific instructions on the format and word limits for each section. The total time allowed for the exam is 3 hours, and the maximum marks are 80.
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

SCIENCE

CBSE - 10th

Time Allowed : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions :
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected
to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in
the range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should
be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should
be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION - A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 - 20.
There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
1. Metals such as ______ and ______ react so vigorously that they catch fire if kept in the open. Hence, to
protect them and to prevent accidental fires, they are kept immersed in ______.
(a) phosphorus, magnesium, water (b) sodium, potassium, kerosene oil
(c) sodium, potassium, water (d) tin, lead, alcohol
2. Which of the following does not contain a double bond?
(a) SO2 (b) NH3 (c) CO2 (d) O2
3. A solution in test tube ‘A’ turns red litmus blue, evolves hydrogen gas on reaction with zinc and does not
react with sodium carbonate. Whereas, solution in test tube ‘B’ turns blue litmus red, liberates hydrogen gas
on reaction with zinc and evolves carbon dioxide gas with sodium carbonate. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(a) ‘A’ is an acid, ‘B’ is a base. (b) ‘A’ is a base, ‘B’ is an acid.
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are bases. (d) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are acids.
4. Which of the following examples is a decomposition reaction?
(a) Evaporation of water
(b) Exposure of photographic film in the presence of light
(c) Heating sulphur in the presence of oxygen
(d) Dissolving salt in water
5. Sting of ant can be cured by rubbing the affected area with soap because
(a) it contains oxalic acid which neutralises the effect of formic acid
(b) it contains aluminium hydroxide which neutralises the effect of formic acid
(c) it contains sodium hydroxide which neutralises the effect of formic acid
(d) none of these.
6. During the experiment of heating the ferrous sulphate, four students recorded their observations as
(i) green colour changes to reddish brown colour
(ii) brownish yellow gas is evolved
(iii) blue colour changes to green colour
(iv) smell of burning sulphur is observed.
Which of the above observations are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
7. Which of the following property is generally not shown by metals?
(a) Electrical conduction (b) Sonority (c) Dullness (d) Ductility
8. Which of the following receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
(a) Right atrium (b) Left atrium (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
9. Name the plant hormone responsible for growth of stem.
(a) Gibberellin (b) Auxin (c) Cytokinin (d) Both (a) and (b)
10. Given below are the stages of binary fission in Amoeba. Select the correct sequence of these stages.

(a) (i)→(ii)→(iii)→(iv) (b) (iv)→(iii)→(i)→(ii)


(c) (ii)→(iv)→(i)→(iii) (d) (iii)→(i)→(iv)→(ii)
11. Mendel crossed a pure recessive white flowered pea plant with a pure dominant red flowered plant. The
first generation of hybrids from the cross should show
(a) 50% white flowers and 50% red flowers
(b) all red flowered plants
(c) 75% red flowered and 25% white flowered plants
(d) all white flowered plants.
12. In the case of renal failure and uremia, which one of the following is employed?
(a) Kidney replacement (b) Kidney removal
(c) Haemodialysis (d) None of these
13. The length of the shadow will be longest when the
(a) angle between the source of light and the object is 45°
(b) source of light and the object are parallel to each other
(c) source of light and the object are perpendicular to each other
(d) angle between the source of light and the object is 60°
14. The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of 2 W is
(a) 2 W (b) 4 W (c) 8 W (d) 16 W
15. In a food chain, there is
(a) bidirectional flow of energy (b) zig-zag flow of energy
(c) multidirectional flow of energy (d) unidirectional flow of energy.
16. Which of the following is a major ozone depleting substance?
(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Carbon dioxide
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below :
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
17. Assertion : Iron can be obtained from Fe2O3 by reduction with aluminium.
Reason : The process is known as thermite process.
18. Assertion : All human chromosomes are not paired.
Reason : Human males have 22 pair of autosomes and one odd, imperfect pair of sex chromosomes.
19. Assertion : In astigmatism, the rays of light coming from the horizontal and vertical planes of an object do
not come to focus at the same point.
Reason : Astigmatism occurs when the cornea or the eye lens or both are perfectly spherical.
20. Assertion : Ozone is present in the layer of earth’s atmosphere.
Reason : Ozone is a gas released by burning fuels.

SECTION - B
Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21. Take 3 g of barium hydroxide in a test tube, now add about 2 g of ammonium chloride and mix the contents
with the help of a glass rod. Now touch the test tube from outside.
(i) What do you feel on touching the test tube?
(ii) State the inference about the type of reaction occurred.
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.
22. What happens to the ovule and the ovary after fertilisation in flowering plants?

23. Justify "nutrition in Amoeba is different from nutrition in Paramecium".


OR
How does the transpiration helps in transport of water and minerals?

24. If the radius of a current carrying conductor is halved, how does current through it change?
25. “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel to itself.”
Draw labelled ray diagram to justify the statement”.
OR

Out of convex mirror and concave mirror whose focus is situated behind the mirror?
26. (a) In a food chain consisting of rabbit, snake and peacock, identify the primary, secondary and tertiary
consumers.
(b) Label A, B and C in the given diagram with their trophic levels.

Sun

C
B
A
Water
Soil

SECTION - C
Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27. A shining metal ‘M’, on burning gives a dazzling white flame and changes to a white powder ‘N’.
(a) Identify ‘M’ and ‘N’.
(b) Represent the above reaction in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
(c) Does ‘M’ undergo oxidation or reduction in this reaction? Justify.
28. Identify the compound X on the basis of the reactions given below.
Also, write the name and chemical formulae of A, B, C and D.
+ Zn A H2(g)

Compound + HCl
B H2O
X
+ H2O
C D

OR
(a) What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell?
(b) With the help of an example, explain what happens when a base reacts with a non-metallic oxide.
What do you infer about the nature of non-metal oxide?
29. How can haemodialysis save and prolong the life of uremic patients?
30. Which type of organisms will have more variations – sexually or asexually reproducing organisms? Explain.
31. (a) A long horizontal power line carries a current of 100 A. If the current be in the east-west direction,
what is the direction of magnetic field at a point 1 m below it ?

(b) A bar magnet of pole strength 10 Am is cut into two equal parts breadthwise. What is the pole strength
of each magnet ?
32. Find the position of the image of an object placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex mirror of focal
length 10 cm.
33. Calculate the energy transferred by a 5 A current flowing through a resistor of 2 ohms for 30 minutes.
SECTION - D
Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34. (a) Why excessive use of synthetic detergents is discouraged? Give reasons.
(b) What is scum? How is it formed?
(c) Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts in the following compounds :
O
(i) CH3(CH2)15CH2C—O– Na+
(ii) CH3(CH2)14CH2 — N+(CH3)3Br–

OR
Give an example of each of the following :
(a) A carbon compound containing two double bonds.
(b) A molecule in which central atom is linked to four other atoms.
(c) A compound containing both ionic and covalent bonds.
(d) An organic compound which is soluble in water.
(e) A carbon compound which burns with a sooty flame.
35. (a) Mention the reproductive parts of a flower.
(b) Define the terms unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
(c) Do you think sex-education is necessary in schools?
(d) Where does fertilisation take place in human females?
(e) Name a plant which can reproduce by fragmentation.
OR

(a) Describe asexual reproduction in Amoeba.


(b) Give a well elaborative not on human male reproductive system.
36. (a) A security mirror used in a big showroom has radius of curvature 5 m. If a customer is standing at a
distance of 20 m from the cash counter, find the position, nature and size of the image formed in the
security mirror.
(b) Neha visited a dentist in his clinic. She observed that the dentist was holding an instrument fitted with
a mirror. State the nature of this mirror and reason for its use in the instrument used by dentist.
OR

(a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors:


(i) Pole
(ii) Centre of curvature
(iii) Principal axis
(iv) Principal focus
(b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a
(i) Concave mirror
(ii) Convex mirror
(c) Consider the following diagram in which M is a mirror and P is an object and Q is its magnified image
formed by the mirror.
M Q
P
O
C F

State the type of the mirror M and one characteristic property of the image Q.
SECTION - E
Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts.
Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37. The chemical reactivity of an element depends upon its electronic configuration. All elements having less
than eight electrons in the outermost shell show chemical reactivity. During chemical reactions, atoms of
all elements tend to achieve a completely filled valence shell. Metals are electropositive in nature. They
have tendency to lose one or more electrons present in the valence shell of their atoms to form cations and
achieve nearest noble gas configuration. The compounds formed by the transfer of electrons from one
element to other are known as ionic or electrovalent compounds.
(a) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(b) The electronic configurations of four particles A, B, C and D are given below :
A : 2, 8, 8 ; B : 2, 8, 2 ; C : 2, 6 ; D : 2, 8.
Which electronic configuration represents :
(i) magnesium atom (ii) oxygen atom
(iii) sodium ion (iv) chloride ion
and what compounds are formed when (i) reacts with (ii) and (iii) reacts with (iv)?
OR
Four elements A, B, C and D have the following electronic arrangements in their atoms :
A : 2, 8, 6 ; B : 2, 8, 8 ; C : 2, 8, 8, 1; D : 2, 7.
(i) What type of bond is formed when element C combines with element D?
(ii) Which element is an inert gas?
(iii) What will be the formula of the compound formed between A and C?
38. A green stemmed rose plant denoted by GG and a brown stemmed rose plant denoted by gg are allowed to
cross bred with each other.
(a) What will be the colour of stem in their F1 progeny?
(b) Based on the findings of this cross, what conclusion can be drawn?
(c) What will be the percentage of brown stemmed plants in F2 progeny if plants are self pollinated?
OR
 What will be the ratio of F2 progenies when plant with genotype Gg crossed with gg?
39. The rate at which electrical energy is consumed or dissipated is called electrical power.
To measure the electric power of an appliance, say an electric lamp, we connect a battery and an ammeter
in series with the electric lamp and a voltmeter parallel with it as shown in figure.
Battery
+ – – +
A

I I

+ V –
(a) Write the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Filament type electric bulbs are not power efficient. Explain.
(c) Power of a lamp is 60 W. Find the energy in joules consumed by it in 1 s.
OR
The maximum power dissipated in a 10,000 W resistor is 1 W. What is the maximum current?

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