Psychology Test

GRE ®

Practice
Book
This practice book contains
• one actual, full-length GRE® Psychology Test
• test-taking strategies

Become familiar with

• test structure and content
• test instructions and answering procedures

Compare your practice test results with the

performance of those who took the test at a
GRE administration.

[Link]/gre
Table of Contents
Overview 3
Test Content 3
Preparing for the Test 4
Test-Taking Strategies 5
What Your Scores Mean 5
Taking the Practice Test 5
Scoring the Practice Test 6
Evaluating Your Performance 6
Practice Test 7
Worksheet for Scoring the Practice Test 43
Score Conversion Table 45
Answer Sheet 46

Test takers with disabilities or health-related needs who need test preparation materials in an
alternate format should contact the ETS Office of Disability Services at stassd@[Link]. For
additional information, visit [Link]/gre/disabilities.
Test takers with disabilities or health-related needs who need test preparation materials in
an alternate format should contact the ETS Office of Disability Services at
stassd@[Link]. For additional information, visit [Link]/gre/disabilities.
 Copyright © 2017 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
ETS, the ETS logo, MEASURING THE POWER OF LEARNING, GRADUATE
RECORD EXAMINATIONS, and GRE are
registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service (ETS) in the United States and other
countries.

Overview
The GRE® Psychology Test consists of approximately 205 multiple-choice
questions. Some of the stimulus materials, such as a description of an
experiment or
a graph, may serve as the basis for several questions. Testing time is 2 hours
and 50 minutes; there are no separately-timed sections.
This publication provides a comprehensive overview of the GRE Psychology
Test to help you get ready for test day. It is designed to help you:

• Understand what is being tested

• Gain familiarity with the question types
• Review test-taking strategies
• Understand scoring
• Practice taking the test
To learn more about the GRE Subject Tests, visit
[Link]/gre.

Test Content
The questions in the Psychology Test are drawn from the core of knowledge
most commonly encountered in courses offered at the undergraduate level
within the broadly defined field of psychology. A question may require
recalling factual information, analyzing relationships, applying principles,
drawing conclusions from data, and/or evaluating a research design.
The Psychology Test administered beginning in September 2017 yields six
subscores in addition to the total score:
• Biological
• Cognitive
• Social
• Developmental
• Clinical
• Measurement, Methodology and Other
The questions on which subscores are based are distributed throughout the test;
they are not set aside and labeled separately, although several questions from a
single content area may appear consecutively.
There are questions in six major content categories:
• Biological (17-21%)
• Sensation and Perception (5-7%)
• Psychophysics, Signal Detection
•
Attention
• Perceptual Organization
• Vision
• Audition
• Gustation
• Olfaction
• Somatosenses
• Vestibular and Kinesthetic Senses
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Physiological/Behavioral Neuroscience (12-14%)
• Neurons
• Sensory Structures and Processes
• Motor Structures and Functions
• Central Structures and Processes
• Motivation, Arousal, Emotion
• Cognitive Neuroscience
• Neuromodulators and Drugs
• Hormonal Factors
• Comparative and Ethology
• States of Consciousness
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Cognitive (17-24%)
• Learning (3-5%)
• Classical Conditioning
 • Instrumental Conditioning
• Observational Learning, Modeling
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Language (3-4%)
• Units (phonemes, morphemes, phrases)
• Syntax
• Meaning
• Speech Perception and Processing
• Reading Processes
• Verbal and Nonverbal Communication
• Bilingualism
• Theories, Applications and Issues

• Memory (7-9%)
• Working Memory
• Long-term Memory
• Types of Memory
• Memory Systems and Processes
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Thinking (4-6%)
• Representation (Categorization, Imagery, Schemas,
Scripts)
• Problem Solving
• Judgment and Decision-Making Processes
• Planning, Metacognition
• Intelligence
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Social (12-14%)
• Social Perception, Cognition, Attribution, Beliefs
• Attitudes, and Behavior
• Social Comparison, Self
 • Emotion, Affect, and Motivation
• Conformity, Influence, and Persuasion
• Interpersonal Attraction and Close Relationships
• Group and Intergroup Processes
• Cultural or Gender Influences
• Evolutionary Psychology, Altruism and Aggression
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Developmental (12-14%)
• Nature-Nurture
• Physical and Motor
• Perception and Cognition
• Language
• Learning, Intelligence
• Social, Personality
• Emotion
• Socialization, Family and Cultural
• Theories, Applications and Issues
•
Clinical (15-19%)
• Personality (3-5%)
• Theories
• Structure
• Assessment
• Personality and Behavior
• Applications and Issues
• Clinical and Abnormal (12-14%)
• Stress, Conflict, Coping
• Diagnostic Systems
• Assessment
• Causes and Development of Disorders
• Neurophysiological Factors
• Treatment of Disorders
 • Epidemiology
• Prevention
• Health Psychology
• Cultural or Gender Issues
• Theories, Applications and Issues
• Measurement, Methodology and Other (15-
19%)
• General (4-6%)
• History
• Industrial-Organizational
• Educational
• Measurement and Methodology (11-13%)
• Psychometrics, Test Construction, Reliability,
Validity
• Research Designs
• Statistical Procedures
• Scientific Method and the Evaluation of Evidence
• Ethics and Legal Issues
• Analysis and Interpretation of Findings
Preparing for the Test
GRE Subject Test questions are designed to measure skills and knowledge
gained over a long period of time. Although you might increase your scores to
some extent through preparation a few weeks or

months before you take the test, last minute cramming is unlikely to be of
further help. The following information may be helpful.
• A general review of your college courses is
probably the best preparation for the test. However, the test
covers a broad range of subject matter, and no one is
expected to be familiar with the content of every question.
• Become familiar with the types of questions in the
GRE Psychology Test, paying special attention to the
directions. If you thoroughly understand the directions before
you take the test, you will have more time during the test to
 focus on the questions themselves.
[Link] Strategies
The questions in the practice test illustrate the types of multiple-choice
questions in the test. When you take the actual test, you will mark your answers
on a separate machine-scorable answer sheet.
The following are some general test-taking strategies you may want to consider.
• Read the test directions carefully, and work as
rapidly as you can without being careless. For each question,
choose the best answer from the available options.
• All questions are of equal value; do not waste time
pondering individual questions you find extremely difficult or
unfamiliar.
• You may want to work through the test quickly,
first answering only the questions about which you feel
confident, then going back and answering questions that
require more thought, and concluding with the most difficult
questions if there is time.
• If you decide to change an answer, make sure you
completely erase it and fill in the oval corresponding to your
desired answer.
• Your score will be determined by the number of
questions you answer correctly. Questions you answer
incorrectly or for which you mark no answer or more than one
answer are counted as incorrect. Nothing is subtracted from a
score if you answer a question
incorrectly. Therefore, to maximize your score it is better for you to guess
at an answer than not to respond at all.
•
Record all answers on your answer sheet. Answers recorded
in your test book will not be counted.
• Do not wait until the last few minutes of a
testing session to record answers on your answer sheet.
What Your Scores Mean
The number of questions you answered correctly on the whole test (total correct
score) is converted to the total reported scaled score.
The number of questions you answered correctly that belong to a particular content
area (content correct score) and the number of questions you answered correctly
 on the whole test (total correct score) both contribute to each particular subscore.
In most cases, questions that belong to a particular content area also require some
ability in other content areas. By using the total correct score, the responses
to the questions that belong to other content areas are allowed to contribute to
each subscore and the quality of the subscore is enhanced. Once a subscore is
computed it is then converted to a reported scaled subscore.
The total score and the subscores are converted to ensure that a scaled score
reported for any edition of a GRE Psychology Test is comparable to the same scaled
score earned on any other edition of the same test.
Thus, equal scaled scores on a particular test indicate essentially equal levels of
performance regardless of the test edition taken.
GRE Psychology Test total scores are reported on a 200 to 990 score scale in
ten-point increments. Six subscores (Biological; Cognitive; Social;
Developmental; Clinical; and Measurement,
Methodology and Other) are reported on a 20-99 score scale in one-point increments.
Test scores should be compared only with other scores on the Psychology Test. For
example, a total scaled score of 740 on the Psychology Test is not equivalent to a
total scaled score of 740 on the Biology Test.
Taking the Practice Test
The practice test begins on page 7. The total time that you should allow for this
practice test is 2 hours and 50 minutes. An answer sheet is provided for you to
mark your answers to the test questions.
It is best to take this practice test under timed conditions. Find a quiet place to
take the test and

make sure you have a minimum of 2 hours and 50 minutes available.

To simulate how the administration will be conducted at the test center, print the
answer sheet (pages 46 and 47). Then go to the back cover of the test book (page
42) and follow the instructions for completing the identification areas of the
answer sheet. When you are ready to begin the test, note the time and begin
marking your answers on the answer sheet. Stop working on the test when 2 hours
and 50 minutes have elapsed.
Scoring the Practice Test
The worksheet on pages 43 and 44 lists the correct answers to the questions. The
“Correct Response” columns are provided for you to mark those questions for
which you chose the correct answer. The “Content” columns indicate the primary
content area to which each question contributes.
Mark each question that you answered correctly. Then, add up your correct
 answers and enter your total number of correct answers in each space labeled
“Total Correct” on page 44. Next, use the “Total Score” conversion table on
page 45 to find the corresponding total scaled score. For example, suppose you
chose the correct answers to 142 of all of the questions on the test. The “Total
Correct” entry in the “Total Score” conversion table that matches 142 is 142-143
and your total scaled score is 620.
To calculate each subscore: enter your number of correct answers on the
questions contributing to each of the six content areas in the space labeled with
the corresponding Questions Correct in Content Area (1–6). (Your total number
of correct answers should already be entered in each “Total Correct” space.)
Compute each subscore by multiplying the value entered with the value provided
and by adding up the products. Finally, use the “Subscores” conversion table on
page 45 to find the corresponding scaled subscore. For example, suppose you
chose the correct answers to 142 of all of the questions on the test, and the
correct answers to 25 of the questions associated with content 1 (Biological). Then
your subscore 1 is:
(25 x 0.74) + (142 x 0.13) = 36.96.
The “Subscore 1” entry in the “Subscores” conversion table that matches 36.96 is
37 and thus your Biological scaled subscore is 61.

Evaluating Your Performance

Now that you have scored your test, you may wish to compare your performance
with the performance of others who took this test.
The data in the worksheet on pages 43 and 44 are based on the performance of a
sample of the test takers who took the GRE Psychology Test in the United States.
The numbers in the column labeled “P+” on the worksheet indicate the
percentages of examinees in this sample who answered each question
correctly. You may use these numbers as a guide for evaluating your
performance on each test question.
Interpretive data based on the scores earned by a recent cohort of test takers are
available on the GRE website at
[Link]/gre/subject/scores/understand. The interpretive data show, for
selected scaled score, the percentage of test takers who received lower scores.
To compare yourself with this population, look at the percentage next to the
scaled score you earned on the practice test. Note that these interpretive data are
updated annually and reported on GRE score reports.
Your six subscores show your relative strengths or weaknesses in the six content
areas of the Psychology Test. The subscores are scaled in such a way that they
are related to the total scores on the test. On average, a person who has a
 comprehensive background in the field can expect to have subscores equal to
about one- tenth of his or her total score. Thus, if you have a total scaled score
of 600, and your undergraduate program placed equal emphasis on the six areas
of psychology represented by the subscores, you would expect to have a
scaled subscore of about 60 in each area. If, however, your subscores differ by
more than a few points,
you may take this as an indication that your lower scaled subscore shows
weakness, and you may wish to concentrate your review efforts on topics in
that area.
It is important to realize that the conditions under which you tested yourself
were not exactly the same as those you will encounter at a test center. It is
impossible to predict how different test-taking conditions will affect test
performance, and this is only one factor that may account for differences between
your practice
test scores and your actual test scores. By comparing your performance on this
practice test with the performance of other individuals who took the GRE
Psychology Test, however, you will be able to determine your strengths and
weaknesses and can then plan a program of study to prepare yourself for taking
the GRE Psychology Test under standard conditions.

FORM GR1782
FORM GR1782

82
GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS®
PSYCHOLOGY TEST
 Copyright © 2014, 2013, 2008, 2007 by Educational
Testing Service. All rights reserved. GRE, GRADUATE
RECORD EXAMINATIONS, ETS, EDUCATIONAL
TESTING
SERVICE and the ETS logos are registered trademarks of
Educational Testing Service.

NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE

PSYCHOLOGY TEST
Tim
e—
170
min
utes
205
Que
stio
ns
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is
followed by five suggested answers or completions. In each case, select the
one that is best and then completely fill in the corresponding space on the
 answer sheet.

• The ability of a postsynaptic neuron to respond to the presence of

a particular neurotransmitter that is released from a neighboring presynaptic
neuron is dependent on which of the following conditions?
• The storage of the neurotransmitter in the presynaptic
neuron
• The ability of the neurotransmitter to penetrate the membrane
of the postsynaptic neuron
• The presence of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron that have
an affinity for that particular neurotransmitter
• Whether or not the neurotransmitter is excitatory or
inhibitory
• Whether or not the postsynaptic neuron has an axon that is
myelinated
• Critics have argued that projective tests are too
• brief
• concrete
• quantitative
• objective
• subjective
• Organizing the string of letters B-F-J-T-A-V-K-C into JFK-TV-CAB
is an example of
• simplifying
• clustering
• seriating
• chunking
• paraphrasing
•
When persuasive communications follow the peripheral route, they focus on
which of the following?
• Beliefs
• Facts
• Values
• Emotions
• Cognitions
 • Consider the sentence “The dishwasher is running.” Which of
the following is true?
• It can have more than one surface structure.
• It can have more than one deep structure.
• It is grammatically incorrect.
• It can have more than one syntax.
• It violates the rules of bottom-up processing.

• According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental

Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5TM), children with separation anxiety disorder
often experience which of the following symptoms in addition to excessive
fear or anxiety over separation from attachment figures?
• Excessive concern about the safety and well- being of
attachment figures
• Persistent desire to develop relationships with adults other
than those who serve as major attachment figures
• Pervasive anxiety about failure in school or social
situations
• Perceptual delusions that the child’s parents have been
replaced by physically identical imposters
• Irresistible urges to perform and repeat a certain act
over and over again

• Patients with bilateral damage to the hippocampal formation are

tested on motor learning tasks such as the Tower of Hanoi. Studies show that the
patients improve their performance with repeated exposures. When asked
whether they have ever seen the task, even after numerous test sessions with it,
they typically report not having seen it before. Such results have led to which of
the following conclusions?
• Patients with hippocampal injury suffer from confabulation
similar to Korsakoff’s patients.
• The inability to remember the Tower of Hanoi reflects a
fundamental lesion-induced inability to name objects.
• Although procedural memory may not rely on normal
hippocampal functioning, declarative memory does.
• Hippocampal injury enhances the acquisition of tasks relying
on motor learning.
• Whereas procedural memory is severely impaired after
hippocampal injury, reference memory is intact.
 • Which of the following is chemically similar to opiates, has the
ability to reduce pain, and is blocked by the action of naloxone?
• Norepinephrine
• Acetylcholine
• Serotonin
• Endorphin
• Dopamine
• When stress is prolonged, the most likely result is
• generalized weakening of the immune system
• damage to brain areas within the pons and medulla
• an increase in the level of naturally produced endorphins
• intensification of the effects of natural killer cells
• an increase in the number of T cells
•
The bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity, and tremors that characterize Parkinson’s
disease are a result of the degeneration of dopaminergic cells in the
• association cortex
• cerebellum
• hippocampus
• reticular formation
• substantia nigra

• Which of the following best characterizes an infant’s object

concept at six months of age?
• The infant’s visual system is too immature to enable focusing
on an object in the visual field.
• The infant is unable to track moving objects in the visual
field.
• The infant is not surprised when two objects are seen to
occupy the same space at the same time.
• The infant’s understanding of object mechanics is as
sophisticated as the adult’s understanding.
• The infant understands objects to be solid bounded entities
that take up space and move on continuous paths.

• A 40-item vocabulary test was administered to a group of

students. A second, similar test of vocabulary terms was administered to this
same group of students approximately one week later. The researcher reported
that the correlation between these two tests was r = .90. What type of reliability
is represented in this example?
 • Test-retest
• Internal consistency
• Alternate forms
• Split-half
• Inter-rater

Questions 13-15 refer to the information below. 13. Which of the following
describes the pattern of
findings displayed in the
graph?

A researcher was interested in whether or not jazz vocals and opera influence
men’s and women’s emotional states. She hypothesized that these types of
music influence men and women differently. In a study investigating this
hypothesis, 40 men and 40 women heard a jazz piece, and 40 men and
40 women heard an operatic piece. The jazz piece was sung by a man, and the
operatic piece was sung by a woman. Afterward, participants rated themselves
on an inventory measuring emotional state. Higher scores on the inventory
indicate positive mood.
Results of this study are represented in the graph below.

•
Men who heard the jazz piece and women who heard the operatic piece
scored higher on the mood inventory than those in the other two groups.
• People who heard the operatic piece scored higher on the mood
inventory than those who heard the jazz piece.
• People who heard the jazz piece scored higher on the mood
inventory than those who heard the operatic piece.
• Men scored higher than women on the mood inventory
regardless of the type of music they heard.
• Women scored higher than men on the mood inventory
regardless of the type of music they heard.
• The researcher concludes from her study that jazz music
positively changes men’s moods and operatic music positively changes
women’s moods. Which of the following invalidates that conclusion?
• The participants were college students who were not
music majors.
• Only one scale was used to measure mood.
• Men and women were randomly assigned to groups.
 • Previous studies have shown that men are less
emotional than women.
• Men’s and women’s moods were not mea- sured before
exposure to the two types of music.
• Which of the following is the most serious problem with the
methodology of this research?
• Men and women did not listen to both types of music.
• The singers were not the same gender.
• The sample size was too small to draw a valid conclusion.
• The participants were not musicians.
• Only one type of music should have been used.

• The preference for a loosely knit social frame- work in which

individuals are responsible only for the care of their children and themselves is
known as
• collectivism
• individualism
• ethnocentrism
• egocentrism
• interactionism
• Over many trials a puff of air aimed at JoAnne’s eyes is paired with
a loud noise and a subtle smell. Afterward, it is very likely that JoAnne’s
conditioned eye blink will be under the control of the loud noise and not the
subtle smell. This phenomenon is an example of
• overshadowing
• conditioned suppression
• generalization
• counterconditioning
• reinstatement
• The idea that people cope with stress by moving toward people,
away from people, or against people is most consistent with the views of
• Aaron Beck
• Carl Rogers
• Karen Horney
• Erik Erikson
• Erich Fromm
 •
Which of the following is the best example of the categorical perception
of human speech?
• Listeners are able to categorize speech samples in
terms of the gender of the speaker.
• Listeners are able to categorize a stream of words into a
series of distinct words, because they can identify the brief pauses
that appear between words.
• When a sound is presented that is inter- mediate
between the phonemes /b/ and
/p/, listeners report that they heard either a distinct /b/ or a
distinct /p/.
• During speech perception, listeners auto- matically place
phonemes into one of two categories, vowels or consonants.
• After hearing a sentence, people process each word and
make decisions about the word’s function within that sentence.
• Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess described three
categories of infants: easy, difficult, and slow to warm up. These are
categories of
• play
• emotions
• toilet training
• temperament
• smiles

• Which of the following types of cognitive abilities is LEAST likely

to show a decline in late life?
• Working memory
• Processing speed
• Fluid intelligence
• Semantic memory
• Episodic memory
• Charles Scott Sherrington proposed that rapid stimulation of a
specific synapse is likely to produce a cumulative effect in the postsynaptic
cell because of
• spatial summation
• temporal summation
 • saltatory conduction
• neuromodulation
• spreading depression
• Which of the following is an atypical developmental pattern
characterized by stereotyped motor responses and poor communication
skills?
• Tardive dyskinesia
• Autism spectrum disorder
• Down syndrome
• Williams syndrome
• Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
•
The sharing of information about oneself is referred to as
• social exchange
• experience sampling
• communal sharing
• self-disclosure
• authority ranking
• Research on children’s social behavior shows that relative to
young adolescent boys, young adolescent girls exhibit more of which
type of aggression?
• Hostile
• Instrumental
• Physical
• Relational
• Displaced
• “I runned to the car” is an example of
• telegraphic speech
• fast mapping
• overregularization
• overextension
• holophrasing
• The visual pathway that tells us what we are looking at is
called the
• corticospinal tract
 • solitary tract
• spinothalamic tract
• dorsal stream
• ventral stream

• Which theorist revised Sigmund Freud’s stages of development,

replacing Freud’s psychosexual stages with psychosocial stages?
• Karen Horney
• Erik Erikson
• Alfred Adler
• Viktor Frankl
• Abraham Maslow
• Using a pendulum apparatus, a participant attempts to derive the
physical laws that determine the rate at which a pendulum swings. The
participant’s approach to solving this problem is to hold a relevant factor (X)
constant and to vary a second relevant factor (Y), and then to reverse this
procedure by holding Y constant and varying X. According to Jean Piaget, the
participant’s level of cognitive functioning is most likely
• preoperational
• concrete operational
• formal operational
• sensorimotor
• conventional
• A child has just developed the ability to lie with the intention of
deceiving another person. This new ability is probably based most directly on
a change in the child’s
• knowledge about mental representations
• skill in making transitive inferences
• formal operational thinking
• social referencing
• temperament
• The standard deviation of a sample of test scores is a measure of
the
• central tendency of scores
• variability of individual scores
• concurrent validity of the test
 • line of best fit
• normality of the distribution
•
Rapid eye movements are most closely associated with which of the
following?
• Alpha waves
• Delta waves
• Dreaming
• Apnea
• Stage II sleep
• An investigator interested in the development of children’s
attitudes toward the police assessed and compared the attitudes of 250 eight
year olds, 240 twelve year olds, and 245 sixteen year olds. She matched the
three groups with regard to gender and socioeconomic background. The
investigator’s research design is best charac- terized as which of the
following?
• A case study
• A controlled experiment
• Sequential
• Cross-sectional
• Longitudinal
• If a psychological disorder has a genetic basis, one would expect
to find the highest concordance rate for the illness between which of the
following?
• Mother and child
• Father and child
• Identical twins
• Fraternal twins
• Nontwin siblings
• According to Sigmund Freud, a child who grabs food from
another child because of hunger is driven by
• the id
• the ego
• environmental reinforcers
• the superego
• cognitive schemas
 • All of the following statements about psychodynamic theorists are
correct EXCEPT:
• Karen Horney stressed the importance of social relationships
between children and their parents.
• Alfred Adler claimed that childhood feelings of inferiority lead
to striving for superiority.
• Carl Jung identified two components of the unconscious: the
preconscious and the formal unconscious.
• Erik Erikson described conflicts at different stages of
development.
• Sigmund Freud stressed the interaction of the id, the ego, and
the superego.
• Juanita’s classmates enjoy being with her because she is always
sociable, easygoing, and lively. On Eysenck’s basic personality dimensions, she
would be classified as
• unstable introverted
• extroverted stable
• passive-aggressive
• intrinsically motivated
• cyclothymic dysthymic
• Annette is looking for a psychotherapist whose clinical work is
rooted in object relations theory. The best match for Annette would be a
therapist who emphasizes
• the use of medication
• the here and now
• cognitive distortions
• early life relationships
• counterconditioning
•
A client sleeps sixteen hours a day. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5™), the client most likely
has which of the following sleep disorders?
• Circadian rhythm sleep-wake
• Insomnia
• Hypersomnolence
• Sleep arousal
 • Nightmare
• Kyle mixes his blue paint with Jamie’s yellow paint. The
resulting green color occurs because
• equal stimulation of the blue receptors and the yellow
receptors in the eyes produces the sensation of green
• blue wavelengths and yellow wavelengths add together
to make green wavelengths
• the blue and the yellow absorb all the other wavelengths
except green
• paints involve additive rather than subtractive mixing
• blue wavelengths and yellow wavelengths subtract red
wavelengths equally to make green

Questions 41-43 refer to the following passage.

Depression is more common among people with insomnia than among those
with satisfactory sleep. To determine the reasons for this relationship,
investigators identified 40 people suffering from both depression and
insomnia. For each of these 40, they paired two other people of the same
gender and age who were neither depressed nor suffering from any sleep
disorder. One of these was designated the “normal-sleep control,” and the
other was designated the “yoked control.” All participants slept in a
laboratory for one week. The normal-sleep control person slept without
restrictions. During that same time, the yoked control was permitted to sleep
when the depressed-insomniac person slept, but was required to awaken
whenever the depressed-insomniac person awakened.
A valid questionnaire for measuring depression was administered at the end
of the one-week study. Assume that higher scores on the questionnaire reflect
greater depressive symptomatology.

• What pattern of results on the depression questionnaire would

justify the conclusion that sleeplessness leads to depression?
• Normal sleep control < yoked control = depressed
• Normal sleep control = yoked control = depressed
• Normal sleep control = yoked control < depressed
• Yoked control < normal sleep control < depressed
• Yoked control < normal sleep control = depressed
 • What pattern of results on the depression questionnaire would
one expect if depression were to arise for reasons other than sleeplessness?
• Normal sleep control < yoked control = depressed
• Normal sleep control = yoked control = depressed
• Normal sleep control = yoked control < depressed
• Yoked control < normal sleep control < depressed
• Yoked control < normal sleep control = depressed

• Suppose that the results were consistent with the hypothesis that
sleeplessness does not lead to depression. Of the following, which would be
the most serious criticism of the study and its conclusion?
• Although the questionnaire to measure depression was known
to be valid, it may not have been reliable.
• The study failed to examine other factors that might also
contribute to depression.
• The yoked-control group was unnecessary.
• One week of sleep deprivation may have been inadequate to
produce depression.
• The normal sleep-control group was unnecessary.

• Which of the following predictions is reasonable based on Baddeley

and Hitch’s theory of working memory?
• If two tasks using the same component are done
concurrently, performance will be improved on one or both.
• If two tasks using the same component are done
concurrently, performance will be impaired on one or both.
• If two tasks that do not use the same component are
done concurrently, performance will be improved on one or both.
• If two tasks that do not use the same component are
done concurrently, performance will be impaired on one or both.
• If two tasks are done concurrently, whether or not they use
the same component, performance will be unchanged.
• Which of the following was the first to systematically and
empirically study memory by developing an innovative approach based on
consonant-vowel-consonant combinations?
• Hermann Ebbinghaus
 • James Mill
• John B. Watson
• Max Wertheimer
• Christian von Ehrenfels
•
Marc recently moved to an area that experienced a large number of
tornadoes, which frightened him greatly. Every time a storm containing high
winds emerged, the lights in his home flickered. When the lights in his home
flickered on a clear day, he became quite fearful and searched for a safe
place to hide. What is the conditioned stimulus in this scenario?
• High winds
• Lights flickering
• Hiding place
• Storms
• Fear
• Which of the following learning theorists first demonstrated
that a neutral stimulus could acquire the ability to evoke a response
originally attributed to another stimulus?
• Michael Domjan
• Ivan Pavlov
• Albert Bandura
• B. F. Skinner
• E. L. Thorndike
• Which memory store is believed to have the largest
capacity?
• The sensory store
• The short-term store
• The long-term store
• The phonological loop
• The visuospatial sketch pad

• The use of polite words such as “please” and “thank you” in

everyday speech is called
• morphology
• syntax
• semantics
• pragmatics
 • phonetics
• Which of the following factors would best explain why
monozygotic twins, raised together, nevertheless develop different
personalities?
• Shared genetic material
• Non-shared genetic material
• Shared environments
• Non-shared environments
• Shared histories
• Which of the following visual experiences most attracts a
newborn’s gaze?
• The color beige
• The color black
• The color white
• A black-and-white pattern
• A beige-and-white pattern
• Edmundo got into an argument with the grocery clerk. When he
returned to his car after shopping, he discovered that he received a parking
ticket. Edmundo furiously crumpled up the ticket and threw it on the ground.
When his friend Terri told him to calm down, he screamed at her to mind her
own business. Which of the following theories best accounts for Edmundo’s
behavior?
• Excitation transfer
• Social identity
• Correspondent inference
• Distraction-conflict
• Normative focus
• Cleotha finds out that her roommate Leontyne is a better pool player
than she is. However, Cleotha reminds herself that she can play poker better than
Leontyne. Cleotha is engaging in which of the following?
• Self-verification
• Self-efficacy
• Self-affirmation
• Self-monitoring
• Self-awareness
 •
According to the theory of cognitive development proposed by Lev
Vygotsky, children learn best by working
• independently
• with adults and advanced peers
• with less advanced peers
• with visually simple objects
• with visually complex objects
• According to Jean Piaget, young infants are in which stage of
development?
• Proximal
• Psychosocial
• Attachment
• Sensorimotor
• Preoperational
• Which of the following predictions is the best example of
context-dependent memory?
• Concrete words are easier to recall than abstract
words.
• Auditory encoding is superior to visual encoding.
• Information is better recalled when learning and testing
occur in the same room.
• Information is better recalled when it is deeply
encoded.
• In a list of words, those in bold are easier to recall.
• Fred was keenly interested in a new science fiction film and
therefore was surprised when he arrived at the theater on opening night and
found only a few people there. Fred’s mistaken judgment of the popularity
of the film illustrates
• the self-serving bias
• self-handicapping
• pluralistic ignorance
• the actor-observer effect
• the false consensus effect

• According to the evolutionary principle of kin selection, people

are more likely to help someone who
• is physically attractive
• shares their genes
• will return the favor
• is a potential mate
• is of higher status
• Manic episodes are a defining feature of which of the following
disorders?
• Major depressive
• Autism spectrum
• Posttraumatic stress
• Bipolar
• Schizophrenia spectrum
• Newlyweds Layla and Keith both have normal color vision, but
Layla carries a recessive gene for color deficiency. Which of the following best
describes the probabilities of color deficiency in their children?
• Half of their daughters will be color- deficient, but none
of their sons will.
• Half of their sons will be color-deficient, but none of their
daughters will.
• All of their sons and half of their daughters will be color-
deficient.
• All of their daughters and half of their sons will be color-
deficient.
• None of their children will be color-deficient.
• An individual suffering from damage to Wernicke’s area would
most likely exhibit which of the following behaviors?
• Impaired comprehension of language
• An inability to determine what is socially acceptable
behavior
• An explosive temper with even slight provocation
• An inability to form new memories
• An uncontrollable tremor of the hands
•
Young children form rudimentary sentences that resemble telegrams even though
they have never heard anyone make such utterances before. This is evidence of
 • reinforcement theory
• a universal grammar
• pragmatics
• semantics
• morphology

• A fixed action pattern is defined as a response to a

• secondary reinforcer
• generalization gradient
• conditioned stimulus
• drop in reticular activity
• sign stimulus

• Based on research by Mary Ainsworth, which of the following best

describes how an infant who has formed a secure maternal attachment would be
expected to respond to the mother’s leaving and/or returning?
• Upon the mother’s return, the infant will be pleased to see her
and will go to her to be held.
• Upon the mother’s return, the infant will cry and will cling to
her.
• Upon the mother’s return, the infant will actively avoid her.
• The infant will not be upset by the mother’s leaving and will
not go to the mother upon her return.
• The infant will cry and cling to the mother as she leaves and
will continue to cry throughout the mother’s absence.

• Damaging the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus

in rats will
• impair the ability to acquire spatial information
• reduce the threshold for pain resulting from injury to the
limbs
• promote the development of maternal behavior in males
• interfere with the biological clock that is synchronized
with light
• decrease aggressive behavior directed at rats of the same
sex

• Which of the following increases the power of a statistical test?

• Changing alpha from .05 to .01
• Changing alpha from .10 to .01
• Changing from a two-tailed to a one-tailed test
• Using a smaller critical area in the distribution of sample
 means
• Decreasing the sample size from
N = 100 to N = 75

• Aunt Sybil paid her first visit to her niece Angela when the baby
was 3 months old. Aunt Sybil enjoyed holding and playing with the baby. Aunt
Sybil visited again when Angela was
9 months old. She was dismayed when the little girl took one look at her and
burst into tears.
Angela was exhibiting a normal emotional reaction called
• separation anxiety
• avoidant attachment
• ambivalent attachment
• emotional regulation
• stranger anxiety
• Which of the following therapeutic techniques can be explained by
classical conditioning principles?
• Modeling and implosion
• Modeling and systematic desensitization
• Modeling and token economies
• Systematic desensitization and flooding
• Systematic desensitization and token economies
• Joe’s therapist frequently exhibits genuineness and empathy
toward Joe. These elements are defining features of which of the following
therapeutic approaches?
• Existential
• Psychoanalytic
• Behavioral
• Cognitive
• Client-centered
•
According to evolutionary psychologists, which of the following is the
primary reason that men tend to prefer as mates younger and more attrac-
tive women?
• These characteristics signal good health and ability to
bear children.
• Modern societies all evolved from a single ancient culture
 in which the importance of these characteristics was noted.
• The belief that younger and attractive women tend to be
especially attentive mothers is characteristic of many cultures.
• Young, attractive women arouse parental or caretaking
impulses.
• Men’s preferences have been heavily shaped by images in
the mass media.
• Georgia sees a sign in the bathroom stall that says, “Do not
write on the walls under any circumstances!” Georgia takes out her pen
and begins to write all over the walls. According to social
psychologists, Georgia is experiencing
• selective avoidance
• trivialization
• reactance
• symbolic self-awareness
• jeer pressure
• Eric is frustrated with one of his coworkers who displays no
regard for the rights of others, no remorse when he abuses others, and a
repeated pattern of stealing equipment and petty cash. It is most likely
that this coworker has which of the following personality disorders?
• Antisocial
• Paranoid
• Narcissistic
• Histrionic
• Borderline
• The tendency to attribute your successes to dispositional
factors and your failures to situational factors is called the
• autokinetic effect
• hostile attribution bias
• self-serving bias
• self-fulfilling prophecy
• fundamental attribution error

• Free will plays the greatest role in which of the following?

• Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory
• B. F. Skinner’s behaviorism
 • Carl Rogers’ humanistic psychology
• Hans Eysenck’s trait model
• William Sheldon’s theory of somatotypes and temperament

• The figure above illustrates

• a boundary extension
• a geon
• an illusory contour
• a mach band
• a texture gradient
• When studying moral development,
Lawrence Kohlberg used moral dilemmas such as the Heinz dilemma, in
which a husband must decide whether to steal a drug to prolong his wife’s
life because they cannot afford the drug. A child who is in the conventional
level of Kohlberg’s theory will use which reasoning when faced with the
Heinz dilemma?
• It is against the law to steal, so the husband should not steal
the drug.
• It is up to the husband to decide what he wants to do. If it is
worth risking his life, he will steal the drug.
• The husband should not steal the drug because then he
will have to go to jail.
• The husband should steal the drug because the value of
human life outweighs the economic cost of the drug.
• The husband should steal the drug to avoid feeling bad.
•
What term is best used to describe the smallest meaningful unit of a
language?
• Phone
• Phoneme
• Morpheme
• Syntax
• Semantic
• According to Johnston and Heinz’s multimode theory of
attention, why is it dangerous to drive an automobile while talking on a
cell phone?
 • Driving is an automatic task, but talking requires
attentional resources.
• Talking on the phone results in the filtering of all other
stimuli, including those relevant to driving.
• People can both talk and drive effectively, but they will
not be able to remember anything about either the phone
conversation or events related to driving.
• Both talking and driving require attentional resources,
and adequate attentional resources may not be allocated to driving.
• Talking is an automatic task, but attentional resources
need to be allocated to driving.
• The transformation of energy into electrical impulses is
• neural processing
• transduction
• sensation
• a difference threshold
• an energy current
• As a color blindness test, Hector and his friends are asked to
judge whether or not a red jelly bean is similar to the blue and green jelly
beans in a jar. Hector’s friends all state that the red jelly bean is similar to the
blue and green ones. Hector knows this is not true, but he gives the same
answer.
Hector’s behavior here is an example of which of the following
concepts?
• Private conformity
• Private self-consciousness
• Public conformity
• Public self-consciousness
• Public goods dilemma

• The action potential is triggered at which of the following

parts of a neuron?
• Dendrite
• Soma
• Terminal button
• Axon hillock
• Spine
 • What function is served by the white myelin sheath that may
cover an axon?
• It protects the axon from overheating.
• It protects the axon from microorganisms.
• It increases the speed of the electrical impulses.
• It provides the axon with nutrients.
• It prohibits the axon from carrying impulses.
• Which of the following is the name given to the process of
differentiating oneself from others by emphasizing one’s uniqueness?
• Personality
• Impression formation
• Deindividuation
• Individuation
• Social categorization
• Gonadal hormones can act early in life to irreversibly determine
a rat’s mate selection through effects referred to as
• activational
• distributional
• initiating
• organizational
• triggering
• Which of the following theories places the greatest emphasis on
the effects of early childhood experiences on personality?
• Psychodynamic
• Humanistic
• Trait
• Social cognitive
• Behavioral
•
A neuron that receives excitation from other neurons and conducts
impulses from its soma in the spinal cord to muscle or gland cells is
called a
• sensory neuron
• motor neuron
• neuroglia
• oligodendrocyte
 • Schwann cell
• The inability to recognize a once-familiar face, while still
being able to accurately describe elements of the face, is a characteristic
symptom of
• amnesia
• blindsight
• prosopagnosia
• sensory neglect
• transcortical aphasia
• When Latoya was younger, she decided which ice cream cone
was bigger by always picking the taller one. Now that she’s eight years old,
she makes more-accurate choices by considering the width and depth of the
cone as well as its height.
Latoya has learned to
• assimilate
• use seriation
• show formal operations
• display class inclusion
• decenter
• Of the following, which is the most plausible source of deficits
such as inability to recognize faces, tendency to ignore the left half of the
body, and difficulty perceiving visual motion?
• Different kinds of dietary deficiencies
• Inadequate development through different Piagetian
stages
• Fixation at different Freudian stages
• Damage to different areas of the brain
• Deficits of different neurotransmitters
• Ability derived directly from previous experience is known as
• crystallized intelligence
• fluid intelligence
• formal operations
• concrete operations
• prospective memory

• Cohorts born in different decades have been found to differ in their

personality characteristics during adolescence. Such findings most directly
suggest that personality development
• follows a different course for males and for females during
late childhood
• is influenced primarily by hormonal factors
• is based on experience during a critical period in early
childhood
• is influenced by the historical context in which it occurs
• is influenced more by peers than by parents during
adolescence
•
“Of several responses made to the same situation, those which are
accompanied or closely followed by satisfaction to the animal will, other
things being equal, be more firmly connected with the situation . . . ; those
which are accompanied or closely followed by discomfort to the animal will,
other things being equal, have their connections with that situation
weakened.”
The statement above was written by
• Albert Bandura
• Edwin Guthrie
• Ivan Pavlov
• B. F. Skinner
• Edward Thorndike

Questions 93-97 refer to the passage below.

When Dr. Elkin interviewed Michael, she found that his behavior was very
strange and his thinking seemed paranoid and bizarre. Michael seemed to be
having a conversation with his mother, who he insisted was sitting in the room
with him, although she had died two years earlier. When Michael spoke to Dr.
Elkin, he told her that the cashiers at the local grocery store were intentionally
contaminating the cereals and bottled water he customarily purchased. On one
occasion he harmed a cashier as she picked up the telephone to do a price
check. In explaining his action, Michael insisted that he heard his mother’s
voice over the loudspeaker telling him to hurt the cashier.

Shortly after the death of his mother, Michael quit college, terminated all his
social relationships and began an unhealthy diet consisting exclusively of
sweetened cereals and water. Last year, Michael’s father had taken him to see
 a psychiatrist, who diagnosed Michael as having schizophrenia, and
recommended psychotherapy and antipsychotic medication, but Michael
vehemently refused both.
Michael’s father indicated that Michael’s grandfather also had been classified
as exhibiting schizophrenia.

• Which of the following best represents Michael’s mental disorder

according to the diathesis-stress model?

Diathesis
Stress
(A) Genetic history of schizophrenia
Death of his mother
(B) Death of his mother
Genetic history of schizophrenia
(C) Genetic history of schizophrenia
Paranoid beliefs
(D) Death of his mother
Paranoid beliefs
(E) Dropping out of college
Death of his mother

• Michael’s false belief that the cashiers were plotting against him
is an example of
• a hallucination
• a delusion
• a cognitive distortion
• an attribution error
• a dysfunctional attitude
• Michael reported that he harmed the cashier in response to an
instruction from his dead mother.
This phenomenon is called
• a delusion of reference
• a somatic delusion
• a gustatory hallucination
• a command hallucination
• magical thinking
• Which section of a report would most likely include a description of
Michael’s life experiences that are relevant to his mental disorder?
• Diagnosis
• Mental status
• General assessment of functioning
• Treatment plan
• Psychosocial history
•
In the case of Michael, which of the following statements is true regarding the
positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
• Hearing voices is a positive symptom.
• The fact that Michael’s grandfather had schizophrenia is a
positive symptom.
• The perception of his mother instructing him to harm the
cashier is a negative symptom.
• Michael’s vehement refusal to take medication is a
negative symptom.
• Michael’s unhealthy diet is a negative symptom.

• Which of the following approaches to assessment of intelligence is

most consistent with the theories of both Howard Gardner and Robert Sternberg?
• Using biological indexes of intelligence instead of the
Stanford-Binet IQ test
• Narrowing the definition of intelligence to include fewer
key skill areas
• Increasing the reliability of IQ tests
• Increasing the emphasis on measuring
g rather than specific abilities
• Increasing the emphasis on measuring specific abilities
rather than g

• Personality disorders are characterized by which specific symptoms?

• Permanent severe deficits of cognitive functioning
• Loss of contact with reality
• Long-term maladaptive traits and behavior patterns
• Unexplained physical symptoms
• Extreme alternations in mood

• Which of the following are two competing theories of color vision that
describe events that take place at different levels of the nervous system?
• Frequency versus place
 • Trichromatic versus opponent-process
• Specificity versus pattern
• Frequency versus pattern
• Trichromatic versus specificity

• Smokers were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Those in the

experimental group were told that they would be listening to tapes with sublim- inal
messages urging them to quit smoking. Those in the control group did not listen to the
tapes, nor were they told about them. A week after listening to the tapes, members of
the experimental group had decreased their smoking significantly more than members
of the control group. The inves- tigator concluded that listening to the subliminal
messages reduces smoking. Which of the fol- lowing, if true, casts the greatest doubt
on the investigator’s conclusion?
• During the week, some participants in the control group read
articles on the hazards of smoking.
• During the week, only a few of the experi- mental participants
reduced their smoking appreciably.
• Participants in the experimental group were influenced by their
expectations of the tapes’ effects.
• The two groups had similar initial (baseline) smoking rates.
• The two groups were both quite large, but unequal in size.

Questions 102-103 refer to the following information.

A researcher conducted a study to determine the effects of gender and
status on the perceived credibility of an eyewitness testifying in a trial.
Participants watched one of four video recordings depicting the eyewitness
and rated the credibility of the eyewitness.
• What type of design was used in this study?
• Between-subjects
• Within-subjects
• Between- and within-subjects
• Multivariate correlational
• Longitudinal
• In order to determine whether gender, as a specific variable, had
an effect on perceived cred- ibility of the eyewitness, which of the following
must be significant?
• The main effect of gender
• A post hoc analysis of gender
 • The main effect of status
• A post hoc analysis of status
• The interaction between gender and status

• Correlations of IQ scores are highest for which of the following

pairs?
• Mother and child, when the child is reared by both birth
parents
• Father and child, when the child is reared by both birth
parents
• Siblings reared together in a birth family
• Monozygotic twins reared apart in adoptive families
• Dizygotic twins reared together in a birth family

• Melody exclaims, “I got a C- on the statistics exam, and I was

miserable until I thought how terrible it must be for those who got F’s.”
Melody’s attitude is an example of which of the following?
• Social facilitation
• Social comparison
• Social anxiety
• Social learning
• Social validation
• Damage to which area of the brain leads to a decrease in
physically aggressive behavior and social rank?
• Lateral hypothalamus
• Hippocampus
• Amygdala
• Basal ganglia
• Medial geniculate
• Consider the following version of an interference task.
As fast as possible, say how many items are in each row for set 1 and for
set 2.

Set 1
Set 2
$$$
 222
#
5
**
44
&&&&
3333

If participants can say how many items are in set 1 faster than they can say
how many are in set 2, the result is most consistent with
• task-general resources
• the pop-out effect
• context-dependent memory
• the Stroop effect
• task-specific resources
•
Researchers using a variety of methods, peoples, and cultures have concluded
that five major personality traits exist. The traits are
• sociability, suspiciousness, practicality, dependency, and
shyness
• enthusiasm, calmness, adventure, docility, and hypochondria
• extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional
stability, and openness to experience
• obedience, self-control, astuteness, tension, and self-criticism
• emotional stability, apprehension, social awareness,
independence, and avoidance

• Mel is doing very well academically in college, but feels

academically incompetent. His therapist has instructed him to explain in writing
how his hard work and personal abilities contributed to each of the good grades he
received during the previous semester. This activity is characteristic of which of
the following therapeutic approaches?
• Psychoanalytic
• Cognitive
• Biomedical
• Behavioral
• Gestalt

• The Flynn effect is the phenomenon of

• the gradual increase in IQ scores over the last century
 • higher IQ scores among children who were breast-fed
• higher IQ scores among people with higher levels of
education
• a stronger correlation between the IQ scores of monozygotic
twins than between those of dizygotic twins
• a stronger correlation between the IQ scores of siblings reared
together than between those of siblings reared apart

• In which of the following cognitive tasks do the performances of

older adults show the greatest difference compared to the scores of young
adults?
• Divided attention task
• Recognition memory of narrative
• Recognition memory of word list
• Semantic memory test
• Implicit memory test

• Sertraline (Zoloft®) and fluoxetine (Prozac) are designed to treat

depression by
• altering genetic factors
• increasing production of norepinephrine
• increasing metabolism of epinephrine
• decreasing levels of dopamine in the synapse
• decreasing reuptake of serotonin
• According to current conceptions, working memory is
characterized by
• stress on episodic rather than semantic memory
• its unitary nature
• maintenance of information in current use
• greater importance for procedural than for declarative
memory
• required use of mnemonics
• Before taking an exam, Sinead imagines that she will get the worst
grade in the class, even though she usually performs very well. Imagining the
worst seems to help her deal with the anxiety associated with the exam. What
term best describes Sinead’s strategy?
• Intrinsic motivation
• Defensive pessimism
 • Self-handicapping
• Self-monitoring
• Self-regulation
•
A patient is administered the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2-
RF® (MMPI-2-RF®) by an experienced clinician. The clinician concludes that
the patient has schizophrenia. The clinician’s diagnosis best supports which of
the following additional conclusions?
• The patient’s pattern of responses to the MMPI-2-RF®
resembles that of people who are known to have schizophrenia.
• A brief interview with the patient would reveal that the patient
harbors delusions of grandeur.
• The clinician’s interpretation of the MMPI-2-RF®
findings is based on knowledge of projective testing.
• The patient received a low score on the lie scale of the
MMPI-2-RF®.
• The patient received a high score on the lie scale of the
MMPI-2-RF®.

• Some students were informed by their teacher that they had

scored high on their aptitude tests and had strong potential for academic
achievement. Consequently, those students started participating more in class
and studying longer hours to achieve high grades. This is an example of
what social construct?
• Fundamental attribution error
• Elaboration likelihood model
• Cognitive dissonance
• Norm crystallization
• Self-fulfilling prophecy
• Between eight and ten months of age, babies will watch a
parent’s face in a new situation before responding to the situation
themselves. This monitoring of adults’ emotional reactions is called
• temperament
• behavioral inhibition
• social referencing
• synchrony
• emotional display

• Which of the following techniques of studying the brain involves the

use of x-rays?
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• Computed tomography (CT)
• Electroencephalography (EEG)
• Immunohistochemistry
• Microiontophoresis
• Damage to the lateral hypothalamus of rats is known to produce
deficits in regulation of
• respiration
• pupillary reflexes
• sleep
• eating and drinking
• oxytocin levels
• According to a current model, learned helplessness in humans
is determined by causal explanations of prior uncontrollable events. These
causal explanations are referred to as
• aggregation
• attributions
• circular reasoning
• personal constructs
• valuations
• Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are most often
characteristic of
• substance-induced persisting amnestic disorder
• Alzheimer’s disease
• Parkinson’s disease
• bipolar disorder
• schizophrenia
• Participants in an experiment are asked to look at a display and to
find the one straight line among a number of circles. The participants are able to
find the line just as quickly among twenty circles as they are among five circles.
These results suggest that finding the straight line depends on
• a preattentive process
• serial processing
• shape constancy
 • size constancy
• habituation
•
When asked to name all of the states in the United States, Steven mentally
pictures a map and starts naming states from west to east. Steven’s strategy
is useful during the process of
• retrieval
• encoding
• storage
• flashbulb memory
• selective attention
• Albert recently noticed that he has difficulty hearing people at
crowded parties even though his hearing seems fine in quiet surroundings.
He most likely has damage to his
• pinna
• eardrum
• stapes
• oval window
• hair cells

• John recently moved to a large city and experienced an increase in

the level of noise. His new home was located adjacent to a railroad track. The
rail service was frequent and maintained a consistent schedule. John was
awakened frequently each night as trains passed his home. However, after
several months he was not awakened and he became less aware of the trains
passing by his home. What mechanism accounts for John’s adaptation to his
environment?
• Orienting response
• Sensitization
• Habituation
• Conditioned response
• Conditioned stimulus

• Which of the following tests measures ability, intellect, and

knowledge?
• Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2-RF®
(MMPI-2-RF®)
• Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
• Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale–Fourth Edition (WAIS®–
 IV)
• Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® (MBTI®)
• Strong Interest Inventory®

• Which of the following is a chronic condition that can cause

anterograde amnesia in some people?
• Alcoholism
• Fibromyalgia
• Muscular dystrophy
• Panic disorder
• Bipolar disorder
• Lo is an advocate of personal construct theory. Which of the
following processes does Lo believe are most important in the study of
personality?
• Biological
• Unconscious
• Cultural
• Emotional
• Cognitive
• According to Albert Bandura’s approach to observational
learning, which of the following is the best example of vicarious punishment?
• A child stops throwing pencils after watching a teacher scold
another child for throwing a pencil across the room.
• A child watches a teacher say to another child, “You did so
well on that homework that you do not need to take the test tomorrow.”
• A child acquires a schema about the difference between
socially punished behavior and socially rewarded behavior.
• A child escapes punishment by cleaning up a mess before
anyone notices it.
• A child is punished on a variable ratio schedule, rather than
being punished every time a mistake is made.
• A psychologist who studies aggression from a social-cognitive
theoretical perspective would be most interested in
• differences in aggressive and nonaggressive children’s
attributions of hostile motives to other people’s behavior
• the adaptive value of the aggression
 • the relation between children’s level of aggression and
parents’ negative reinforcement of children’s coercive behaviors
• the link between testosterone levels and frequencies of
aggressive episodes in adolescent males
• changes over time in the incidence of diagnoses of
conduct disorders
•
Cephalocaudal development refers to development that proceeds
from
• the trunk outward
• head to tail
• bottom to top
• the perimeter toward the center
• the general to the specific
• Which of the following best states the major shortcomings of
the place and the frequency- matching (volley) theories of audition?
• Neither theory can be studied empirically.
• Initial evidence in support of these theories cannot be
replicated.
• Neither theory can account for auditory dis- orders that
are caused by structural defects in the temporal lobe.
• Place theory applies primarily to loud sounds, whereas
frequency-matching theory applies primarily to barely audible sounds.
• Place theory does not explain the coding of very low
frequencies, whereas frequency- matching theory does not explain the
coding of very high frequencies.
• Which of the following represents the correct order of stages in
Bibb Latané and John Darley’s model of helping?
• Interpretation
• Knowing how to help
• Noticing
• Perception of responsibility
• Deciding to help
• I, III, V, IV, II
• III, I, IV, II, V
• III, IV, I, II, V
• III, IV, II, V, I
 • III, IV, I, V, II
• What is a limitation of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’s stages of
coping with death (denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance) ?
• The stages are not relevant to terminally ill patients.
• The stages are based on a study with fewer than twenty
individuals.
• Not all people experience every stage.
• Few people in Western cultures experience the
depression stage.
• The stages are generally not relevant to younger
adults.

• According to Carl Jung, there are tendencies that shape human

behavior and can be represented by terms such as “the hero” or “the shadow.”
Such tendencies are known as
• personas
• traits
• schemas
• archetypes
• complexes
• If a student hears a list of words such as night, bed, pillow,
blanket, dream, and snore, she is likely to later remember the word sleep even
though it was never presented. This can best be explained by
• the activation of schematic knowledge
• high sensitivity in a signal detection model
• appropriate use of rote recall
• a failure of the encoding specificity mechanism
• too much retroactive interference
• Which of the following statements about subliminal messages
is most accurate?
• Visual messages are more effective than auditory messages
in influencing attitude and behavior change.
• There is evidence they can influence short- term attitude
change.
• They are one of the most common techniques used by
advertisers to influence attitude and behavior change.
 • They are more effective than personal testimonial
advertising campaigns in influencing attitude and behavior change.
• They are consciously perceived by participants nearly
100% of the time.
• Brain imaging techniques have shown that compared to unaffected
individuals, individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia have
• enlarged ventricles and a reduction of the prefrontal cortex
• reduced ventricles and a reduction of the parietal cortex
• an enlarged parietal cortex and a reduction of the
hypothalamus
• lesions in the parietal lobe and increased cells in the orbital
frontal cortex
• lesions in the temporal lobe and increased cells in the
prefrontal cortex
•
According to Edward Tolman, behavior is best understood as
• molar and purposive
• a collection of S-R connections
• a series of associated muscle twitches
• a consequence of trial-and-error learning
• the expression of underlying psychodynamic conflicts
• Research by Solomon Asch supports which of the following?
• Conformity increases as group size increases from two
people to four or five people.
• The presence of one dissenter in a group is not strong
enough to reduce conformity.
• Higher levels of conformity are found in individualistic
societies than in collectivist societies.
• A person’s behavior changes when that person plays a
role as a prisoner or prison guard in an experiment.
• Individuals will follow orders to shock innocent
strangers.
• Which of the following is most commonly associated with
creative thinking?
• Convergent thinking
• Divergent thinking
 • Representativeness heuristic
• Availability heuristic
• Functional fixedness
• In which of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development
is the central task to develop and exercise self-control and independence?
• Trust versus mistrust
• Autonomy versus shame and doubt
• Initiative versus guilt
• Industry versus inferiority
• Generativity versus stagnation
• A recent article in an educational journal described a university
at which the average age is 26. This article also mentioned that 38 percent
of the students are over 25 years of age. What can be concluded from this
information?
• The median age must be greater than the mean age.
• The standard deviation must be relatively small.
• The mode must be either 25 or 26.
• The distribution must be skewed.
• The distribution must be bimodal.

• Which of the following concepts does the figure above illustrate?

• The general adaptation syndrome
• An intermittent schedule of reinforcement
• A continuous schedule of reinforcement
• The diathesis-stress model
• Signal detection theory

• When people first sense a new stimulus, only temporary changes

in neurons take place, but eventually more permanent changes occur.
This is called
• consolidation
• transduction
 • a reverberating circuit
• confabulation
• rehearsal
• If adjacent lights flash on and off in sequence, individuals will often
perceive apparent motion even though there is no motion. This experience is
referred to as
• linear perspective
• texture gradient
• motion parallax
• the phi phenomenon
• the Ponzo illusion
•
An experimenter predicts that bright colors enhance creativity. She provides
brightly colored crayons to the first 15 children who show up for an
experiment and muted colored crayons for the remaining 15. She then
examines their drawings and judges the brightly colored drawings to be
more creative. The study is flawed because it lacks
• a double-blind procedure and an independent variable
• an independent variable and demand characteristics
• demand characteristics and a dependent variable
• a dependent variable and random assignment
• random assignment and a double-blind procedure

• Which of the following is an example of a self-conscious

emotion?
• Joy
• Fear
• Guilt
• Sadness
• Disgust
• A behavioral approach to personality would argue that the root of
pathology lies in
• unrealistic beliefs
• maladaptive learned-response patterns
• disordered functioning of construct systems
• fixation and regression
• incongruence
 • Five randomly selected groups of participants are shown a list of
words, one word at a time. Each group of participants is assigned a different task
to perform on each word on the list. After completing the list, the participants
are given a surprise test for recall of the words. Which of the following assigned
tasks is most likely to result in the best recall?
• Counting the number of vowels in each of the words
• Indicating whether each of the words contains the letter
“t”
• Producing a rhyme for each of the words
• Saying each of the words three times in rapid succession
• Producing a synonym for each of the words
• Participants are asked to look at a picnic scene and to indicate
several ways that the people in the scene might deal with a sudden rainstorm.
One of the objects in the scene is a picnic basket. However, most of the
participants fail to notice that the basket could be used as a protection from the
rain. This failure is most likely a manifestation of
• the Purkinje effect
• the availability heuristic
• the law of common fate
• functional fixedness
• illusory correlation
•
In a lexical decision task, two groups of participants are instructed to make a
fast decision on whether each item is or is not an English word. The first
group of participants is presented with the word “robin,” followed by the
word “bird.” The second group is presented with the word “chair,” followed
by the word “bird.” The first group’s responses to “bird” will most likely be
• slower because of Stroop-like interference
• slower because of lateral inhibition
• slower because of a sequence effect
• faster because of semantic priming
• faster because of response bias
• The antianxiety effects of benzodiazepines such as diazepam
result from their binding with the receptor for which of the following
neurotransmitters found in the amygdala?
• Serotonin
• Acetylcholine
 • Substance P
• Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
• Norepinephrine
• The fact that Laura still knows how to ride a bicycle even
though she has not ridden one in ten years best exemplifies which of the
following types of memory?
• Procedural
• Propositional
• Semantic
• Episodic
• Iconic
• A persistent, unreasonable, and unwanted thought is known as
• a negative symptom
• a hallucination
• a compulsion
• an obsession
• a fugue
• Which of the following distinguishes experts from novices in
many fields of endeavor?
• More social connections
• Speed in recognizing relevant complex patterns
• Innate talent for performing in the particular field
• Greater short-term memory capacity
• Shorter reaction times to simple stimuli

• Randy is exceptionally organized. For example, he color codes all

his bills and alphabetizes the groceries in his cupboards. According to Freud’s
theory, Randy is most likely fixated at which stage of psychosexual
development?
• Oral
• Anal
• Phallic
• Latent
• Genital
• Which of the following psychological schools of thought was
heavily influenced by pragmatism?
• Structuralism
• Functionalism
• Gestalt
• Evolutionary
• Humanistic

• Consider the diagram above in which the outcomes for two people
(Joanne and Malik) are represented as a series of numbers, depending on their
own behavior and the behavior of the other person. A scientist uses these
outcomes to predict the likely behavior of each of the individuals.
The scientist is most likely studying which of the following?
• Self-perception
• Cognitive heuristics
• The self-fulfilling prophecy
• Attribution theory
• Social exchange
•
Who is reported to be the first researcher to utilize a twin studies
methodology in attempting to resolve the nature-nurture controversy?
• Sigmund Freud
• Francis Galton
• Carl Jung
• James Watson
• Wilhelm Wundt
• Eliciting sympathy in order to create a positive impression is
consistent with which of the following self-presentation strategies?
• Modesty
• Intimidation
• Exemplification
• Supplication
• Conformity
• Which of the following statements describes normative
influence?
• The process by which we come to evaluate and know
 others
• The tendency for impressions of others to be heavily
influenced by information gathered early in an interaction
• A set of theories describing how people explain causes
of behavior
• Conformity motivated by a fear of social rejection
• Conformity motivated by the belief that others are
correct
• A group of researchers was interested in learning whether a
newly developed exam would be useful in determining whether a student
will be success ful in college. The researchers designed a study
in which students took the new exam prior to entering college. At the
conclusion of the first year of college, the students took another exam,
which was designed to measure how much infor mation they had learned
during their first year.
The score on this exam was then correlated with the student’s score on
the newly developed exam. What type of validity was being evaluated in
the study?
• Concurrent
• Predictive
• Face
• Discriminant
• Content

• Which of the following hormones is responsible for preparing the

uterus for the implantation of an ovum that has been fertilized?
• Progesterone
• Melatonin
• Oxytocin
• Vasopressin
• Aldosterone
• An adolescent who says, “I won’t become ill from smoking; I
never get sick,” is most likely operating under which aspect of egocentrism?
• Personal fable
• Imaginary audience
• Deductive reasoning
• Immanent justice
 • Hypothetical reasoning
• Alfred Adler developed his theory of individual psychology as a
result of his disagreement with which of the following?
• Carl Roger’s belief that human growth is dependent on
unconditional positive regard
• Sigmund Freud’s emphasis on universal biological forces
in the personality
• Albert Bandura’s focus on reciprocal determinism as a key
factor in shaping personality
• Gordon Allport’s belief that personality is made up of
individual fundamental traits
• Abraham Maslow’s emphasis on a hierarchy of needs in
creating motivation
• Which school of psychology rejected the concept of consciousness
and defined psychology as an objective natural science?
• Structuralism
• Functionalism
• Behaviorism
• Humanistic psychology
• Gestalt psychology
• Which of the following is a memory store that is highly sensitive to
masking stimuli presented within 200–300 milliseconds of the presentation of
an array of letters?
• Sensory memory
• Short-term memory
• Working memory
• Implicit memory
• Semantic memory
•
The neural hub of the central executive portion of working memory is
thought to be located in the
• prefrontal cortex
• somatosensory cortex
• brainstem
• temporal lobe
• occipital lobe
 • In an experimental procedure, an animal receives a half second
of foot shock, then a half second of no stimulus, and then a tone. In a later
presentation of the tone, the animal displays a fear response. This result most
likely indicates the occurrence of
• backward conditioning
• forward conditioning
• delayed conditioning
• simultaneous conditioning
• operant conditioning
• In what way does delirium differ from dementia?
• Delirium is a permanent state, whereas dementia is a
temporary state.
• Delirium is a temporary state, whereas dementia is a
permanent state.
• Delirium can result from the use of substances,
whereas dementia cannot result from the use of substances.
• Delirium is sometimes associated with Alzheimer’s
disease, whereas dementia is never associated with Alzheimer’s
disease.
• Delirium affects younger people, whereas dementia
affects older people.
• The full Moon looks much larger when it is on the horizon than
when it is high in the sky. Which of the following is the best explanation for
this phenomenon?
• More rods are stimulated by the Moon when it is just
above the horizon than when it is high in the sky.
• Size judgment is based on visual cues between the
viewer and the image of the Moon.
• Brightness constancy cues are disrupted by interfering
stimulation.
• The image of the Moon high in the sky exceeds the
difference threshold.
• Judgment is based on the Gestalt principle of proximity.

• When newborn baby Yasmin’s cheek is stroked, she turns her head in
the direction of the stimulus. Which reflex is Yasmin demonstrating?
• Moro
 • Babinski
• Palmar
• Tonic neck
• Rooting
• Which of the following philosophers insisted that the mind at birth
is like a blank slate devoid of character or ideas?
• François-Marie Arouet de Voltaire
• James Mill
• John Stuart Mill
• David Hume
• John Locke
• On his first date with Sue, Bill walks into a party, trips coming
through the doorway, and falls flat on the floor. Bill thinks that the floor must
have been uneven, thus making him trip, while Sue thinks Bill is probably
clumsy. Their different attributions represent
• the discounting principle
• the actor-observer bias
• self-handicapping
• the foot-in-the-door technique
• the covariation principle
• The overjustification effect states which of the following?
• Positive reinforcement is consistently
more effective than negative reinforcement.
• Extrinsic rewards can diminish children’s intrinsic
motivation to learn.
• Extrinsic rewards are best when used with intrinsically
motivated students.
• Academic grades increase students’ intrinsic motivation to
learn.
• Behavior modification improves internal motivation in
large classrooms.
• The belief that differences among spoken languages cause
differences in the thinking and problem-solving styles of speakers is called
• taxonomic bias
• whole-object bias
• the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
 • the typicality effect
• the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis
•
Volunteers are trying to get people to donate money to a charity. Which
of the following is an example of the foot-in-the-door principle?
• Ask people to donate ten dollars. If they refuse, ask if
they would consider donating one dollar.
• Ask people to donate only one dollar. If they accept, ask
them to donate ten dollars.
• Ask people to donate ten dollars. If they refuse,
immediately ask them again.
• Ask people to donate ten dollars during a popular
sporting event when arousal is high.
• Ask people to donate ten dollars when they are
relaxing at home.
• Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages of
prenatal development?
• Embryo, gestation, neonate
• Gestation, embryo, fertilized ovum
• Embryo, fertilized ovum, fetus
• Fertilized ovum, embryo, fetus
• Fetus, embryo, fertilized ovum
• Participants in a social psychological experiment observe
through a one-way glass as two students take an oral quiz. The situation is
arranged such that both Arthur and Sheri get 15 of the 25 questions
correct, but Arthur gets each of the first 5 questions correct, while Sheri gets
none of the first 5 correct. Most participant observers would likely conclude
that
• Arthur is a better student than Sheri
• Sheri is a better student than Arthur
• Arthur and Sheri are approximately equally able
students
• the experiment does not provide any information
about the ability of Arthur or Sheri
• Arthur and Sheri are confederates in the
experiment
 • Which of the following is a characteristic of the
authoritarian personality?
• Liberal religious attitude
• Hostility toward outgroups
• Challenge of rules
• A high need for cognition
• A firm but warm parental style

• The confirmation bias leads people to draw incorrect

conclusions because they
• use algorithms when they should use heuristics
• use deductive reasoning when they should use inductive
reasoning
• do not seek evidence that would disprove their hypotheses
• do not consider alternative uses for a well- known object
• mistakenly attribute the causes of other people’s behavior
to internal factors
• Dr. Wang is a theorist who is interested in how a given behavior
increases an organism’s chance of reproductive success and perpetuates the
species. Dr. Wang is most likely
• an evolutionary psychologist
• a neuropsychologist
• a cognitive theorist
• a sociologist
• a learning theorist
• In his study of schizophrenia, Dr. Perez collects data on the number
of new cases of this diagnosis in the United States in the past year. This statistic
is known as the
• prevalence
• incidence
• base rate
• correlation
• sample
• A security screener in an airport checks by hand everything that
seems suspicious. It is critical that she never let any potentially dangerous item
through her security checkpoint. In terms of signal detection theory, this screener
is likely to make
• a large number of misses and a small number of hits
• a large number of hits and a large number of false alarms
• a large number of misses and a large number of false alarms
• a small number of hits and a small number of false alarms
• a large number of correct rejections and a large number of
false alarms
•
The Premack principle states that
• a more frequent behavior will reinforce a less frequent
behavior
• intrinsic motivation is reduced when it is overused
• there is a contingent relationship between stimulus and
response
• reinforcement is illusory when it is noncontingent
• reinforcement increases expectation and motivation

• Elizabeth Loftus and her colleagues ask students to talk about various
events that have occurred in their lives, including one that never occurred. If the
students have trouble remembering, the researchers provide cues. They record
whether the students remember the events that never occurred and how confident
the students are in these false memories. Which of the following best describes the
findings?
• About 25% of the students remember the false event, and
many are quite confident in it.
• Students almost never remember false events, although they
remember about 80% of the real events.
• About 80% of the students remember the false event, but
their confidence is uniformly low.
• Students almost never remember false events, and their
memory for the actual events is also quite low.
• False memories can be implanted in about 40% of the students,
but these memories are forgotten within about a week.

• Melvin has a set of Von Frey hairs of different diameters. He starts by

pressing a thin hair against a participant’s toe and continues with increasingly
thicker hairs until the participant feels pressure. Melvin then starts with a thick
hair and uses increasingly thinner hairs until the participant does not feel pressure.
Melvin is using the method of
• limits
• adjustment
 • constant stimuli
• magnitude estimation
• loci

• Long-term potentiation is widely assumed to be the physiological

mechanism of
• attention
• learning
• epilepsy
• emotion
• sexuality

• A psychologist wishes to compare the performances of an experimental

group and a control group on a continuous measure. Which of the following would be
the most typical way to make this comparison?
• Computing a single correlation coefficient
• Computing a multiple correlation
• Showing that both groups are normally distributed on the
dependent variable
• Conducting a chi-square test
• Conducting a t test on the two means

• We process information relevant to the self more efficiently than

we process other types of information. This phenomenon is called the
• perseverance effect
• self-reference effect
• slime effect
• halo effect
• mood-congruence effect
• Every time he hears the name of his favorite restaurant, Jacob
begins to salivate. In Pavlovian terms, the restaurant’s name is serving as
• a conditioned stimulus
• a conditioned response
• an unconditioned stimulus
• an unconditioned response
• a neutral stimulus
•
Which of the following is a type of glial cell that is responsible for
producing the myelin sheaths that cover axons?
 • Oligodendrocyte
• Astrocyte
• Microglia
• Monocyte
• Endothelial cell
• Roberta lives on the first floor of her dorm. She notices that
she has made more friends with others who live on her floor than with
others on other floors. This is an example of
• self-reference
• perseverance
• propinquity
• overjustification
• bystander
• Some researchers believe that people acquire a second
language better if they learn it prior to adolescence, whereas other
researchers believe that people can easily learn most aspects of
a second language, even if they are beyond adolescence. However, based
on the most frequently observed limitation in second language use, both
groups would expect to observe less than native-like competence after
adolescence in which of the following?
• Syntax
• Pronunciation
• Fluency of speech production
• Discourse comprehension
• Semantics

• The legal requirement that professionals notify appropriate

authorities about suspected child abuse is known as
• mandatory reporting
• duty to warn
• duty to protect
• parens patriae
• privileged communication

Questions 197-199 refer to the following information.

In a study of a new psychopharmacological treat ment for clinical depression,
40 participants diag- nosed with depression each received four different
amounts of a new medication called Deplow. The first week, they were given a
 placebo. During the second week of the study, they took 1 mg of Deplow each
day. During the third week, they took 3 mg of Deplow each day, and during the
fourth week, they took 5 mg of Deplow each day. Although the participants
took different amounts of the medication each week, they were not informed
about the amount they were taking. The participants also completed a
depression symptom checklist at the end of each week. Results are presented
below. The score on the checklist could range from 0 to 30, with 0 indicating no
depression and 30 indicating severe depression.
Assume statistical significance for differences greater than 3.0.
•
Which of the following effects is the most serious limitation of this study?
• Selection
• Ceiling
• Sleeper
• Cohort
• Carryover

• What type of design was used in this study?

• Single factor between subjects
• Single factor within subjects
• Multifactor between subjects
• Multifactor within subjects
• Cross-sectional

• Which of the following would make it difficult to conclude that

any decrease in depressive symptoms is due to Deplow and not to other aspects
of the study?
• The increasing doses of Deplow
• Week of Study
Treatment
Mean Depression Score
1
Placebo
22.5
2
1 mg
23.2
3
3 mg
19.9
4
5 mg
14.5

Week of Study
Treatment
Mean Depression Score
1
Placebo
22.5
2
1 mg
23.2
3
3 mg
19.9
4
5 mg
14.5

• The low sample size

• The lack of comparison with an established antipsychotic
medication
• The lack of comparison with participants diagnosed
with mania

• Conducting a study by analyzing United States census data from

previous years is an example of using which of the following research
approaches?
• Experimentation
• Case history
• Naturalistic observation
• Surveys
• Archival analysis
• Dr. Chen is interested in feminist attitudes of young adult
women in the United States.
Consequently, she administered a feminist attitude questionnaire to a total of
 100 young adult women from three universities. The 100 women tested and
the number of young adult women in the United States are which of the
following, respectively?
• Effect size and population
• Meta-analysis and effect size
• Sample and population
• Random assignment and random selection
• Independent variable and dependent variable
• Which of the following are the two individuals credited with the
founding of psychology,
as indicated by the formation of psychology laboratories in the 1870s?
• Mary Calkins and Wilhelm Wundt
• Ernst Weber and Gustav Fechner
• Gustav Fechner and E. B. Titchener
• Wilhelm Wundt and William James
• William James and Sigmund Freud
•
Which of the following best describes the role of arousal in the proposed
diagram depicting causal relationships among viewing violent television,
arousal, and aggressive behavior?
Violent Television → Arousal → Aggressive Behavior
• Predictor variable
• Mediating variable
• Spurious variable
• Extraneous variable
• Alpha variable

• An action that a person does for no external reward that intentionally

benefits another person is an example of which of the following concepts?
• Pure altruism
• Social facilitation
• Genuineness
• Empathic concern
• Reactance

• Which of the following best supports the all-or none principle of

neural impulses?
• A neuron will fire a complete action potential once the
 threshold is reached.
• During the absolute refractory period, a neuron cannot
fire again.
• An impulse loses strength the further it travels along an
axon.
• Drugs affect neurons by causing them to release all stored
neurotransmitters.
• A neuron is at its resting potential when only positive ions are
inside its membrane.

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FORM CODE GR1782

GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS SUBJECT TEST

• The Subject Tests are intended to measure your achievement in a
specialized field of study. Most of the questions are concerned with subject
matter that is probably familiar to you, but some of the questions may refer to
areas that you have not studied.
Your score will be determined by the number of questions you answer
correctly. Questions you answer incorrectly or for which you mark no answer
or more than one answer are counted as incorrect. Nothing is subtracted from
a score if you answer a question incorrectly. Therefore, to maximize your
score, it is better for you to guess at an answer than not to respond at all.
You are advised to use your time effectively and to work as rapidly as you
can without losing accuracy. Do not spend too much time on questions that
are too difficult for you. Go on to the other questions and come back to the
difficult ones later if you can.
YOU MUST INDICATE ALL YOUR ANSWERS ON THE SEPARATE
ANSWER SHEET. No credit will be given
for anything written in this examination book, but you may write in the book
 as much as you wish to work out your answers. After you have decided on
your response to a question, fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. BE SURE THAT EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY
FILLS THE OVAL. Mark only one answer to each question. No credit will be
given for multiple answers. Erase all stray marks. If you change an answer, be
sure that all previous marks are erased completely. Incomplete erasures may
be read as intended answers. Do not be concerned that the answer sheet
provides spaces for more answers than there are questions in the test.

Example:

What city is the capital of France?

• Rome
• Paris
• London
• Cairo
• Oslo

Sample Answer

A
B
C
D
E
CORRECT ANSWER PROPERLY MARKED
A
B
C
D
E

A
B
C
D
E

A
B
C
D
 E
IMPROPER MARKS
A
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C
D
E

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Worksheet for the GRE Psychology Test, Form GR1782

Answer Key and Percentages* of Test Takers Answering Each Question
Correctly
QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
1
C
72

2
E
84
•
3
D
68

4
D
54

5
B
39

6
A
74

7
C
81

•
8
D
62

9
A
89

10
E
43

11
E
46

12
C
27
•
13
A
100

•
14
E
95

•
15
B
83

•
16
B
75

17
A
72

•
18
C
54

19
C
27

20
D
91

21
D
40

22
B
39

•
23
B
73

24
D
90

25
D
66

26
C
49

27
E
35

28
B
85
•
29
C
70

30
A
31

31
B
65

•
32
C
74

33
D
89
•
34
C
95

35
A
91

36
C
58

•
37
B
97

38
D
48
•

39
C
88

40
C
37

41
A
82

•
42
C
58

•
43
D
67

•
44
B
43

45
A
60

•
46
B
97

47
B
88

48
C
85

49
D
63

50
D
74

51
D
72

52
A
73

53
C
75

54
B
71
•

55
D
77

QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
1
C
72

2
E
84

•
3
D
68

4
D
54

5
B
39

6
A
74

7
C
81

8
D
62
•

9
A
89

10
E
43

11
E
46

12
C
27

•
13
A
100
•
14
E
95

•
15
B
83

•
16
B
75

17
A
72

18
C
54
•

19
C
27

20
D
91

21
D
40

22
B
39

•
23
B
73

•
24
D
90

25
D
66

26
C
49

27
E
35

28
B
85

•
29
C
70

30
A
31

31
B
65

•
32
C
74

33
D
89

•
34
C
95
•

35
A
91

36
C
58

•
37
B
97

38
D
48

39
C
88
•

40
C
37

41
A
82

•
42
C
58

•
43
D
67

•
44
B
43

•
45
A
60

•
46
B
97

47
B
88

48
C
85

49
D
63

•
50
D
74

51
D
72

52
A
73

53
C
75

54
B
71

55
D
77

QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
56
C
83

57
E
70

58
B
74

•
59
D
96

60
B
30

61
A
90

62
B
50

63
E
49

•
64
A
84

65
D
29

66
C
23

•
67
E
89

68
D
57

69
E
90

70
A
97

71
C
75

72
A
84

73
C
54

74
C
83
•

75
C
62

76
A
61

77
C
52

78
D
83

79
B
80

•
80
C
92

81
D
41

82
C
89

83
D
90

84
D
17

•
85
A
85

86
B
74

87
C
80

88
E
8

89
D
97

•
90
A
55

91
D
81

92
E
34

•
93
A
95

94
B
94

95
D
80

96
E
93

97
A
86

98
E
41

99
C
86

100
B
68
•

101
C
88

•
102
A
53

•
103
A
62

•
104
D
49

105
B
87
•

106
C
58

107
D
63

108
C
87

109
B
78

110
A
50

•
 QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
56
C
83

57
E
70

58
B
74

59
D
96
•

60
B
30

61
A
90

62
B
50

63
E
49

64
A
84
•

65
D
29

66
C
23

•
67
E
89

68
D
57

69
E
90

•
70
A
97

71
C
75

72
A
84

73
C
54

74
C
83

75
C
62

76
A
61

77
C
52

78
D
83

79
B
80

80
C
92
•

81
D
41

82
C
89

83
D
90

84
D
17

85
A
85
•

86
B
74

87
C
80

88
E
8

89
D
97

90
A
55

•
91
D
81

92
E
34

•
93
A
95

94
B
94

95
D
80

•
96
E
93

97
A
86

98
E
41

99
C
86

100
B
68

101
C
88

•
102
A
53

•
103
A
62

•
104
D
49

105
B
87

106
C
58
•

107
D
63

108
C
87

109
B
78

110
A
50

* The numbers in the P+ column indicate the percentages of test takers in the United States who answer
each question correctly.
 Worksheet for the GRE Psychology Test, Form GR1782
Answer Key and Percentages* of Test Takers Answering Each
Question Correctly (continued)
QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
111
A
39

112
E
81

113
C
83

114
B
58
•

115
A
77

•
116
E
89

117
C
91

118
B
49

119
D
65

•
120
B
61

121
B
65

122
A
15

123
A
91

124
E
29

•
125
C
86

126
C
90

•
127
A
72

128
E
56

129
A
92

130
A
75

131
B
53

132
E
35

133
B
70

134
C
89

135
D
76
•

136
A
93

137
B
37

138
A
65

139
A
19

•
140
A
74
•

141
B
88

142
B
73

143
D
64

•
144
A
45

145
A
53

•
146
D
42

147
E
70

•
148
C
87

149
B
91

150
E
41

•
151
D
85

152
D
87

153
D
56

154
A
91

155
D
77

156
B
71

157
B
77

158
B
43

QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
111
A
39

•
112
E
81

113
C
83

114
B
58

115
A
77

•
116
E
89

•
117
C
91

118
B
49

119
D
65

120
B
61

121
B
65

122
A
15

123
A
91

124
E
29

125
C
86

126
C
90

•
127
A
72
•

128
E
56

129
A
92

130
A
75

131
B
53

132
E
35

•
133
B
70

134
C
89

135
D
76

136
A
93

137
B
37

•
138
A
65

139
A
19

•
140
A
74

141
B
88

142
B
73

•
143
D
64

•
144
A
45

145
A
53

146
D
42

147
E
70

•
148
C
87

149
B
91

150
E
41

151
D
85

152
D
87

153
D
56
•

154
A
91

155
D
77

156
B
71

157
B
77

158
B
43
•

QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
159
E
75

160
B
53

•
161
D
49

162
D
31
•

163
B
72

•
164
A
82

165
A
57

166
B
57

•
167
C
66
•
168
A
57

169
A
65

170
A
53

171
B
80

172
B
71

•
173
E
68

174
E
82

•
175
B
91

176
B
76

177
E
73

•
178
B
86

179
D
88

180
A
79

181
B
61

182
C
83

183
A
96

184
B
60

185
B
49

186
A
36

187
A
58

188
A
32
•

189
B
60

190
E
58

•
191
B
87

192
A
87

193
A
49

•
194
C
72

195
B
30

196
A
60

197
E
56

•
198
B
45
•
199
B
82

•
200
E
83

•
201
C
94

•
202
D
74

•
203
B
63
•
204
A
90

205
A
81

QUESTION
P+
CORRECT RESPONSE
CONTENT
Number
Answer

1
2
3
4
5
6
159
E
75

160
B
53
•
161
D
49

162
D
31

163
B
72

•
164
A
82

165
A
57

•
166
B
57

•
167
C
66

•
168
A
57

169
A
65

170
A
53

•
171
B
80

172
B
71

173
E
68

174
E
82

•
175
B
91

176
B
76

177
E
73

178
B
86

179
D
88

180
A
79

181
B
61
•

182
C
83

183
A
96

184
B
60

185
B
49

186
A
36

•
187
A
58

188
A
32

189
B
60

190
E
58

•
191
B
87

•
192
A
87

193
A
49

194
C
72

195
B
30

196
A
60

•
197
E
56

•
198
B
45

•
199
B
82

•
200
E
83

•
201
C
94

•
202
D
74

•
203
B
63

•
204
A
90

205
A
81

Total Correct: , Scaled Score:

Subscore 1 (Biological):= (Questions Correct in Content Area 1 X 0.74) + (Total Correct X

0.13) = , Scaled Score: . Subscore 2 (Cognitive): = (Questions Correct in
Content Area 2 X 0.23) + (Total Correct X 0.24) = , Scaled Score: .
Subscore 3 (Social): = (Questions Correct in Content Area 3 X 0.69) + (Total Correct X
0.17) = , Scaled Score: . Subscore 4 (Developmental): = (Questions Correct in
Content Area 4 X 0.58) + (Total Correct X 0.19) = , Scaled Score: .
 Subscore 5 (Clinical): = (Questions Correct in Content Area 5 X 0.68) + (Total Correct X
0.16) = , Scaled Score: . Subscore 6 (Measurement/Methodology/Other): =
(Questions Correct in Content Area 6 X 0.58) + (Total Correct X 0.18) = , Scaled
Score: .
* The numbers in the P+ column indicate the percentages of test takers in the United States who answer each
question correctly.

44 Page
GRE® Psychology Test Practice Book
44 Page
GRE® Psychology Test Practice Book

Score Conversions for the GRE Psychology Test, Form GR1782

TOTAL SCORE
Total Correct
Scaled Score
Total Correct
Scaled Score

122-123
540

119-121
530
204-205
870
117-118
520
201-203
860
114-116
510
199-200
850
112-113
500
196-198
840
109-111
490
194-195
830
107-108
480
191-193
820
104-106
470
189-190
810
102-103
460
186-188
800
99-101
450
184-185
790
97-98
440
182-183
780
94-96
430
179-181
770
92-93
420
177-178
760
89-91
410
174-176
750
87-88
400
172-173
740
84-86
390
169-171
730
82-83
380
167-168
720
79-81
370
164-166
710
77-78
360
162-163
700
75-76
350
159-161
690
72-74
340
157-158
680
70-71
330
154-156
670
67-69
320
152-153
660
65-66
310
149-151
650
62-64
300
147-148
640
60-61
290
144-146
630
57-59
280
142-143
620
55-56
270
139-141
610
53-54
260
137-138
600
50-52
250
134-136
590
48-49
240
132-133
580
45-47
230
129-131
570
43-44
220
127-128
560
40-42
210
124-126
550
0-39
200

TOTAL SCORE
Total Correct
Scaled Score
Total Correct
Scaled Score

122-123
540

119-121
530
204-205
870
117-118
520
201-203
860
114-116
510
199-200
850
112-113
500
196-198
840
109-111
490
194-195
830
107-108
480
191-193
820
104-106
470
189-190
810
102-103
460
186-188
800
99-101
450
184-185
790
97-98
440
182-183
780
94-96
430
179-181
770
92-93
420
177-178
760
89-91
410
174-176
750
87-88
400
172-173
740
84-86
390
169-171
730
82-83
380
167-168
720
79-81
370
164-166
710
77-78
360
162-163
700
75-76
350
159-161
690
72-74
340
157-158
680
70-71
330
154-156
670
67-69
320
152-153
660
65-66
310
149-151
650
62-64
300
147-148
640
60-61
290
144-146
630
57-59
280
142-143
620
55-56
270
139-141
610
53-54
260
137-138
600
50-52
250
134-136
590
48-49
240
132-133
580
45-47
230
129-131
570
43-44
220
127-128
560
40-42
210
124-126
550
0-39
200

SUBSCORES
SUBSCORE
SCALED SUBSCORE
SUBSCORE
SCALED SUBSCORE
1
2
3
4
5
6

1
2
3
4
5
6

57
89
32
35

36
35
54
56

88
31
34
32
31
35
34
53

53

59
87

31
30
34
33
52
55
58
53

58
86
30
33
51
54
57

52

85
29
32
30
29
33
32
50
53

52
51
57
57
84
28
31
29
28
32
31
49

56
51

56
56
83

30
48
52
55

50

55
82
27
30
28
27
31

47
51
54
50
49
55

81
26
29

26
30
29
46

49

54
54
80

27

29
28
45
50
53

48
53
53
79
25
28
26
25

27
44
49
52
48
47

52
78
24
27

28

43
48

47

52

77
23
26
25
24
27
26
42

51

46
51
51
76

24
23
25
41
47
50
46
45

50
75
22
25

26
24
40
46
49
45

50

74
21
24
23
22
25

39

44
49
49
73
20

22
21

23
38
45
48
44
43

48
72

23

24
22
37
44
47

48
47
71
19
22
21
20
23
21
36
43

43
42
47

70
18
21

19
22

35

46
42
41
46
46
69

20

20
34
42
45

45
68
17
20
19
18
21
19
33
41
44
41
40
45
44
67
16
19

17
20

32

40

44

66
15

18

18
31
40
43

39

43
65

18
17
16
19
17
30
39
42
39
38
43
42
64
14
17

15
18
16
29
38

38

42
41
63
13
16
16

17

28
41

37
41

62

15
14

15
27
37
40
37
36

40
61
12
15

13
16
14
26
36
39

40
39
60
11
14
14

15
13
25

36
35
39
38
59
10
13
13
12

24
35
38
35
34

58

11
14
12
23
34
37

38
37
57
9
12
12

13
11
22
33
36
34
33
37
36
56
8
11

10
12
10
21

33
32

55
0-7
0-10
0-11
0-9
0-11
0-9
20

SUBSCORES
SUBSCORE
SCALED SUBSCORE
SUBSCORE
SCALED SUBSCORE
1
2
3
4
5
6

1
2
3
4
5
6

57

89
32
35

36
35
54
56

88
31
34
32
31
35
34
53

53

59
87

31
30
34
33
52
55
58
53

58
86
30
33

51
54
57

52

85
29
32
30
29
33
32
50
53

52
51
57
57
84
28
31
29
28
32
31
49

56
51

56
56
83

30
48
52
55

50

55
82
27
30
28
27
31

47
51
54
50
49
55

81
26
29

26
30
29
46

49

54
54
80

27

29
28
45
50
53

48
53
53
79
25
28
26
25

27
44
49
52
48
47

52
78
24
27

28

43
48

47

52

77
23
26
25
24
27
26
42

51

46
51
51
76

24
23

25
41
47
50
46
45

50
75
22
25

26
24
40
46
49
45

50

74
21
24
23
22
25

39

44
49
49
73
20

22
21

23
38
45
48
44
43

48
72

23
24
22
37
44
47

48
47
71
19
22
21
20
23
21
36
43

43
42
47

70
18
21

19
22

35

46
42
41
46
46
69

20

20
34
42
45

45
68
17
20
19
18
21
19
33
41
44
41
40
45
44
67
16
19

17
20

32

40

44

66
15

18

18
31
40
43

39

43
65
18
17
16
19
17
30
39
42
39
38
43
42
64
14
17

15
18
16
29
38

38

42
41
63
13
16
16

17

28

41

37
41

62

15
14

15
27
37
40
37
36

40
61
12
15

13
16
14
26
36
39

40
39
60
11
14
14

15
13
25

36
35
39
38
59
10
13
13
12

24
35
38
35
34

58

11
14
12
23
34
37

38
37
57
9
12
12

13
11
22
33
36
34
33
37
36
56
8
11

10
12
10
21

33
32

55
0-7
0-10
0-11
0-9
0-11
0-9
20

6. TITLE CODE
(on back cover of your test book)

0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9

6. TITLE CODE
(on back cover of your test book)

0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9

46 Page
46 Page
GRE® Psychology Test Practice Book
GRE® Psychology Test Practice Book

GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS® -

- SUBJECT TEST SIDE 1

Use only a pencil with soft, black lead (No. 2 or HB) to complete this answer sheet. Be sure to fill in
completely the space that corresponds to your answer choice.
Completely erase any errors or stray marks.
Use only a pencil with soft, black lead (No. 2 or HB) to complete this answer sheet. Be sure to fill in completely the space that
corresponds to your answer choice.
Completely erase any errors or stray marks.
Q3442/1-2/2 89176-02954 • TF212E70
Q3442/1-2/2 89176-02954 • TF212E70
1
1
2
2
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4
763338
763338
Enter your last name, first name initial (given name), and
1. NAME
middle initial if you have one.
Omit spaces, apostrophes, Jr., II., etc.
First
Middle
Last Name only (Family Name or Surname) - First 15 Letters

Name
Initial
Initial

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

Enter your last name, first name initial (given name), and
1. NAME
middle initial if you have one.
Omit spaces, apostrophes, Jr., II., etc.
First
Middle
Last Name only (Family Name or Surname) - First 15 Letters

Name
Initial
Initial

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
–
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
–
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
–
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

BE SURE EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE INTENDED SPACE AS ILLUSTRATED HERE: .
YOU MAY FIND MORE RESPONSE SPACES THAN YOU NEED. IF SO, PLEASE LEAVE THEM BLANK.
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• A B C D E
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• A B C D E
• A B C D E

BE SURE EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE INTENDED SPACE AS ILLUSTRATED HERE: .
YOU MAY FIND MORE RESPONSE SPACES THAN YOU NEED. IF SO, PLEASE LEAVE THEM BLANK.
• A B C D E
• A B C D E
• A B C D E
• A B C D E
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 • A B C D E
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• A B C D E
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Copyright ® 2012 by Educational Testing Service, Princeton, NJ 08541 All rights reserved. Printed in U.S.A.
®
®

Item responses continued on reverse side.

SIGNATURE:
Room Number
Center Number
Country
State or Province
City
CENTER:
ZIP or Postal Code
Country
State or Province
City
MAILING ADDRESS:
(Print) P.O. Box or Street Address
M.I.
First Name (Given)
Last Name (Family or Surname)
(Print)
2.
YOUR NAME:
SIGNATURE:
Room Number
Center Number
Country
State or Province
City
CENTER:
ZIP or Postal Code
Country
State or Province
City
MAILING ADDRESS:
(Print) P.O. Box or Street Address
M.I.
First Name (Given)
Last Name (Family or Surname)
(Print)
2.
YOUR NAME:
3. DATE OF BIRTH
Month
Day
Year
Jan.

Feb.
0 0
0 0
Mar.
1 1
1 1
April
2 2
2 2
 May
3 3
3 3
June
4
4 4
July
5
5 5
Aug.
6
6 6
Sept.
7
7 7
Oct.
8
8 8
Nov.
9
9 9
Dec.

3. DATE OF BIRTH
Month
Day
Year
Jan.

Feb.
0 0
0 0
Mar.
1 1
1 1
April
2 2
2 2
May
3 3
3 3
June
4
4 4
July
5
5 5
Aug.
6
6 6
Sept.
7
7 7
 Oct.
8
8 8
Nov.
9
9 9
Dec.

4. LAST FOUR DIGITS OF SOCIAL SECURITY

NUMBER
(U.S.A. only)

0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9
4. LAST FOUR DIGITS OF SOCIAL SECURITY
NUMBER
(U.S.A. only)

0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

5. REGISTRATION NUMBER
(from your admission ticket)

0
0
0
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
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2
2
2
2
2
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5. REGISTRATION NUMBER
(from your admission ticket)

0
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1
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7. TEST NAME (on back cover of your test book)

FORM CODE (on back cover of your test book)

8. TEST BOOK SERIAL NUMBER
(number in upper right corner of front cover of
your test book)

SHADED AREA FOR ETS USE ONLY

7. TEST NAME (on back cover of your test book)

FORM CODE (on back cover of your test book)

8. TEST BOOK SERIAL NUMBER
(number in upper right corner of front cover of
your test book)

SHADED AREA FOR ETS USE ONLY

IF YOU DO NOT WANT THIS ANSWER SHEET TO BE SCORED

If you want to cancel your scores from this test administration, complete A and B below. You will not receive scores
for this test. No record of this test or the cancellation will be sent to the recipients you indicated, and there will be no
scores for this test on your GRE file.
IF YOU DO NOT WANT THIS ANSWER SHEET TO BE SCORED
If you want to cancel your scores from this test administration, complete A and B below. You will not receive scores
for this test. No record of this test or the cancellation will be sent to the recipients you indicated, and there will be no
scores for this test on your GRE file.
To cancel your scores from this test administration, you must:
To cancel your scores from this test administration, you must:
A. Fill in both circles here . . .
A. Fill in both circles here . . .
B. Sign your full name here:
B. Sign your full name here:

CERTIFICATION STATEMENT
Please write the following statement below, DO NOT PRINT.
“I certify that I am the person whose name appears on this answer sheet. I also agree not to disclose the
contents of the test I am taking today to anyone.” Sign and date where indicated.

SIGNATURE: DATE:
Month Day Year
CERTIFICATION STATEMENT
Please write the following statement below, DO NOT PRINT.
“I certify that I am the person whose name appears on this answer sheet. I also agree not to disclose the
contents of the test I am taking today to anyone.” Sign and date where indicated.

SIGNATURE: DATE:
Month Day Year

SUBJECT TEST

COMPLETE THE
CERTIFICATION
 STATEMENT, THEN
TURN ANSWER
SHEET OVER TO
SIDE 1.

BE SURE EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE INTENDED SPACE AS ILLUSTRATED HERE:
. YOU MAY FIND MORE RESPONSE SPACES THAN YOU NEED. IF SO, PLEASE LEAVE THEM BLANK.
116
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TR
TW
TFS
TCS
1R
1W
1FS
1CS
2R
2W
2FS
2CS
FOR ETS USE ONLY
3R
3W
3FS
3CS
4R
4W
4FS
4CS

5R
5W
5FS
5CS
6R
6W
6FS
6CS
120764-007630 • UNLWEB617 • 7630
120764-007630 • UNLWEB617 • 7630