UPSC EPFO 2025

5 FULL LENGTH TESTS

WITH EXPLANATIONS
APFC & EO/AO
#AspirantToOfficer
 Table of Contents

• Full Length Test - 1 ................................................................................................... 1

• Full Length Test - 2 ................................................................................................... 46

• Full Length Test - 3 ................................................................................................... 88

• Full Length Test - 4 ................................................................................................... 130

• Full Length Test - 5 ................................................................................................... 171

 FULL LENGTH TEST - 1

Directions (Q1-Q5): Given below are five items, Directions (Q6-Q10): Each of the five items
comprising sentences in which one word has given below has a phrase given in italics and is
been underlined. Choose the response A, B, underlined. Choose the one from among the
C and D which is closest to the meaning of the options A, B, C and D that best describes the
underlined word and mark your response in the phrase and mark your response in the Answer
Answer Sheet accordingly. Sheet accordingly.
Q1. Her speech gave the team fresh impetus, Q6. The old editor blamed the printer’s devil for
boosting their confidence and determination the spelling mistakes, though everyone knew
to succeed in the upcoming competition he had missed the errors himself.
without fear. A. Scapegoat
A. Momentum B. Error
B. Inhibition   C. Machine
C. Indifference D. Ghost
D. Stagnation Q7. The principal called him on the carpet for
Q2. The travel agent prepared a detailed itinerary, misbehaving in class, warning him of serious
including hotel stays, sightseeing tours, and consequences if it happened again.
meal timings for the group of excited tourists. A. Punished
A. Schedule of a journey B. Reprimanded
B. List of expenses C. Ignored
C. Proof of identity D. Fired
D. Food coupon Q8. When she saw the empty cage and open
Q3. After days of heavy rain, a sudden deluge door, she put two and two together - the
flooded the streets, causing damage to shops parrot had escaped again.
and disrupting daily city life. A. Guess
A. Dry spell B. Infer
B. Mild drizzle C. Forget
C. Heavy rainfall D. Deduce
D. Cool wind Q9. He was within an ace of winning the race,
Q4. The cumulative effect of small daily efforts but stumbled near the finish line and lost by
can lead to great success, especially when a second.
practiced with dedication and positive A. Close
intention. B. Far
A. Temporary C. Lucky
B. Separate D. Quick
C. Collective Q10. During the final debate, she was really
D. Sudden on her mettle, answering every question
Q5. Increased screen time has a concomitant confidently and impressing the entire
effect on sleep patterns, often causing judging panel.
insomnia and other health problems among A. Nervous
young students today. B. Confident
A. Opposite C. Tired
B. Accidental D. Angry  
C. Delayed
D. Accompanying

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Directions (Q11-Q15): Each of the following Q15.

five items in this section consists of a sentence, a. vaccination and regular screenings,
parts of which have been jumbled. These parts b. is preventable through
are labelled as a, b, c and d. Given below each c. reducing the risk for women worldwide
sentence are four sequences, namely A, B, C and d. cervical cancer, primarily caused by HPV,
D. You are required to rearrange the jumbled A. acbd
parts to form the most appropriate sentence B. cabd
and mark your response in the Answer Sheet C. abdc
accordingly. D. dbac
Q11.
a. the Genome India Project seeks to map Directions (Q16-Q20): Read the following passage
b. to develop personalized healthcare carefully and answer the five questions that
c. the genetic diversity of India’s population follow by selecting your answers based solely on
d. and treatments the content of the passage and the opinion of the
A. cabd author only.
B. acbd The Earth has warmed over one degree Celsius
C. adbc since the Industrial Revolution. The 2016 Paris
D. bacd Agreement aimed to limit warming to two degrees,
but studies suggest only a 5% chance of success.
Q12. Even with just two degrees of warming, we face
a. and foster economic growth severe consequences: coral reef extinction, rising
b. between African nations and international sea levels, and inhabitable regions like the Persian
organizations Gulf. A three-degree rise means Arctic forests
c. to address development challenges and drowned coastal cities. Four degrees would
d. the Africa Club promotes collaboration bring extreme droughts in Europe and large-scale
A. cabd desertification in Asia. At five degrees, human
B. dbca civilization itself is threatened.
C. cadb Tragically, we had a real chance to prevent this.
D. adbc Between 1979 and 1989, scientists, politicians,
Q13. and even major oil companies were aware of
a. ensuring international accountability global warming and were willing to act. Scientific
b. seeks to prevent and punish genocide, data had already confirmed that fossil fuel use
c. the Genocide Convention, established in was dangerously heating the planet. During this
1948, time, both Republican and Democratic leaders
d. for such atrocities in the U.S. took climate change seriously and
A. acdb sought bipartisan solutions. Reports even advised
B. abdc immediate global cooperation and a 20% reduction
C. cbad in emissions by 2005 to limit warming.
D. bcad At the 1979 World Climate Conference, 50 nations
agreed that immediate action was crucial. By the
Q14. late ‘80s, efforts to build a binding global treaty
a. in providing reliable propulsion were in motion, with wide international support.
b. solid fuel technology plays a crucial role But inaction prevailed. The fossil fuel industry’s
c. for missiles, spacecraft, aggressive denial campaigns only began in the late
d. and other aerospace applications ‘80s — by then, the window for easy solutions had
A. acbd already closed.
B. cabd The failure to act during this hopeful decade led us
C. bacd into what is now a global crisis. The first chapter
D. adbc
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of the climate story was about recognizing the Q20. What does the second chapter of climate
problem. The second, “The Reckoning,” will crisis refer to?
examine our failure, our missed opportunity, A. Understanding why humans succeeded in
and how that will reshape our identity, memory, solving global warming.
and future. Some individuals fought bravely to B. Reckoning with our failure and missed
bring change, but their efforts weren’t enough. opportunities to act.
Understanding their journey — and our collective C. Celebrating progress in fighting the climate
inaction — is key to facing what lies ahead. crisis since 1990s.
Q16. What was the goal of the 2016 Paris Climate D. Shifting responsibility for climate crisis to
Agreement? poor countries.
A. To end fossil fuel use by 2025 globally. Q21. What is the equivalent decimal value of
B. To limit global warming to two degrees binary number 101100?
Celsius. A. 42
C. To reduce global population for less carbon B. 44
emission. C. 56
D. To make renewable energy compulsory for D. 64
all nations. Q22. Which one of the following is not a
Q17. What would happen with three degrees language translator?
Celsius global warming? A. Assembler
A. Rainforests would flourish and Arctic B. Linker
would remain stable. C. Interpreter
B. Coastal cities would be protected by ice D. Compiler
sheets.
Q23. Which type of memory is the fastest and
C. Most coastal cities would be lost and Arctic
smallest in a computer system?
forests appear.
D. Ice caps would grow and deserts would A. Cache Memory
reduce in size. B. Primary Memory
C. Register Memory
Q18. Why did global leaders fail to act during D. Secondary Memory
1980s?
A. They had no scientific data on climate Q24. In packet switching, what happens if
change effects. different packets of the same message take
B. Fossil fuel companies denied all climate different routes to the destination?
science reports. A. The message cannot be reassembled
C. Political manipulation and controversy correctly.
blocked global action. B. Each packet carries the complete message,
D. Human inaction and delay despite clear so routing does not matter.
scientific warnings. C. The destination system reassembles the
packets in the correct order based on
Q19. What was proposed by scientists in late headers.
1980s? D. The sender system keeps track of packet
A. Immediate 100 percent shift to solar order and reconstructs the message.  
energy systems.
B. Total elimination of industrial production Q25. Which of the following is not a function of
and deforestation. the motherboard’s Northbridge chipset?
C. Freeze emissions and reduce them by A. Facilitating communication between the
twenty percent. CPU, RAM, and graphics controller
D. Build cities only in cooler parts of the B. Managing the communication between
world. the CPU and hard drive

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C. Allowing the CPU to interface with the A. It defines how data is physically stored and
Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) organized on the storage medium.
D. Acting as a link between the CPU and the B. It provides a user-specific view of the
Southbridge database by customizing access to data.
Q26. Which of the following best describes the C. It represents the overall structure of the
main advantage of Harvard Architecture entire database without detailing physical
over Von Neumann Architecture? storage.
D. It ensures that different applications can
A. It allows the CPU to access instructions
simultaneously access different parts of
and data simultaneously, improving
the database.
performance.  
B. It uses a single bus for data and instructions, Q31. Which article of the Indian Constitution
reducing complexity. provides for the participation of workers in
C. It allows instructions and data to be the management of undertakings engaged
stored in the same memory, making in any industry?   
reprogramming easier. A. Article 41
D. It eliminates the need for an ALU, B. Article 42  
improving processing speed. C. Article 43  
Q27. In Blockchain technology, what ensures D. Article 43A
that transactions are secure and cannot be
Q32. Which of the following statements regarding
altered after being recorded? the recommendations of the First National
A. The use of high-speed processing nodes. Commission on Labour (1969) is/are correct?
B. The centralized database structure of 1. It proposed the removal of wage ceilings
blockchain networks. in the Employees’ Provident Funds and
C. The cryptographic hashing of each block Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
and linking it to the previous block. 2. It suggested stricter measures for unfair
D. The ability to modify data after transaction labor practices under the Industrial
verification. Disputes Act, 1947.
Q28. Which of the following malware detection 3. It recommended changes in the Factories
techniques does not rely on pre-existing Act, 1948, including making penalties
virus signatures? more stringent for violations.
A. Signature-based detection Select the correct answer using the code
B. Heuristic analysis given below:
C. Sandbox detection A. 1 and 2 only  
D. Data mining techniques B. 2 and 3 only
Q29. In Microsoft Excel, which of the following C. 1 and 3 only  
functions is used to return the relative D. None of the above
position of an item in a specified range, Q33. Match the following perspectives with their
rather than the actual value? descriptions:
A. VLOOKUP
Column A Column B
B. MATCH
C. INDEX 1. System A. Management and workers
D. INDIRECT Model are one happy family, and
decisions by management are
Q30. Which of the following best describes the
seen as right and rational.
primary function of the Conceptual Level
in the three-tier architecture of Database
Management System (DBMS)?

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2. Unitary B. Both management and C. 1 and 3 only  

Perspective workers aim for growth and D. 2, 3, and 4
control, leading to conflicts Q36. Which of the following statements
that can be resolved. regarding the Payment of Wages Act, 1936,
3. Pluralist C. Organizations represent the is incorrect?
Perspective oppressive nature of the A. The Act applies to wages payable to an
societal structure. employed person if not exceeding ₹24,000
4. Radical D. Three parties (management, per month.  
Perspective workers, and government) B. “Wages” include remuneration payable
operate within an external under any award, settlement, or court
environment that affects order and also for overtime work, holidays,
them. or leave periods.  
C. No wage period shall exceed 2 months
Select the correct set of matching options:
under this Act.  
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C  
D. The maximum fine that can be imposed on
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D  
an employee in any wage period is limited
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
to 3% of their wages for that period.
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A  
Q37. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948,
Q34. Which type of union is characterized by
which body is responsible for advising the
adopting any means, including violence and
Central and State Governments on the
secret methods, to achieve its objectives
fixation and revision of minimum wages and
and includes subtypes like Hold-up unions
coordinating the work of Advisory Boards?
and Guerilla unions?
A. Central Advisory Board  
A. Revolutionary Unions  
B. National Wages Board  
B. Predatory Unions  
C. Labour Welfare Committee  
C. Industrial Unions  
D. Minimum Wage Commission
D. Craft Unions  
Q38. Which of the following options regarding the
Q35. Which of the following statements regarding
term “industrial establishment” under the
trade unions in India is/are correct?
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders)
1. For recognition as a Central Trade Union Act, 1946, is incorrect?
Organisation (CTUO), a trade union must
A. An industrial establishment as defined in
have affiliates in at least 50% states and
the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.  
50% industries.
B. A factory as defined in the Factories Act,
2. The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was
1948.  
founded in December 1948 in Calcutta,
C. A railway as defined in the Indian Railway
with R.S. Ruikar as its first president.
Act, 1890.  
3. The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) was
D. None of the above.  
founded in 1955 under the leadership of
Dattopantji Thengdi. Q39. Which of the following statements regarding
4. The Self-Employed Women’s Association the Trade Union Act, 1926, is incorrect?
(SEWA) was founded in 1972 as a A. In a Trade Union, “office-bearer” means
registered trade union of women in the any executive member but does not
informal sector. include an auditor.
B. Any 7 or more members of a Trade Union
Select the correct answer using the code
can apply for registration by subscribing
given below:
their names to the rules of the Trade
A. 1, 2, and 3 only  
Union.  
B. 2 and 4 only  
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C. The Registrar must give the Trade Union employment of adolescents on dangerous
at least 2 months’ notice in writing before machines
withdrawal or cancellation of registration, 4. Maintenance of buildings
except at the request of the Trade Union 5. Fencing of Radioactive elements
itself.  
Select the correct answer using the code
D. At least 2/3 of the total number of office-
given below:
bearers in every registered Trade Union
A. 1 and 2 only  
must work in the industry associated with
B. 1, 3, and 4 only  
the union.  
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only  
Q40. Under which law does the State Government D. All of the above
have the authority to form a Site Appraisal
Q43. Match the following regulatory provisions
Committee for evaluating applications to
under various labour laws with their
establish or expand factories with hazardous
corresponding committees/officers:
processes?  
A. Factories Act, 1948   Column A Column B
B. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947   1. Inter-State Migrant A. Licensing
C. Minimum Wages Act, 1948   Workmen (Regulation of Officers
D. Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948   Employment and Conditions
Q41. Which of the following statements relating of Service) Act, 1979
to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is NOT 2. The Factories Act, 1948 B. Welfare
correct? Officers
A. Lock-out refers to the temporary closure
3. Industrial Disputes Act, C. Works
of a place of employment or refusal by
1947 Committee
an employer to employ any number of
persons.   4. The Child and Adolescent D. Technical
B. A Works Committee must be established in Labour (Prohibition and Advisory
establishments with 50 or more workmen, Regulation) Act, 1986 Committee
as per the instructions of the appropriate
Government.   Select the correct match from the options
C. The appropriate Government may below:  
constitute a Board of Conciliation to A. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
promote the settlement of industrial B. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D  
disputes. C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D  
D. The Second Schedule of the Industrial D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C  
Disputes Act, 1947, includes matters Q44. A person employed in a supervisory
within the jurisdiction of Labour Courts. capacity but drawing wages exceeding ₹500
Q42. Which of the following provisions are per month is expressly excluded from the
included under Section 13 of The Child definition of ‘Workman’ under which of the
and adolescent labour (Prohibition and following legislations?
Regulation) Act, 1986, for ensuring health A. The Factories Act, 1948  
and safety? B. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947  
1. Cleanliness in the workplace and freedom C. The Child and Adolescent Labour
from nuisance (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986  
2. Protection of eyes D. The Inter-State Migrant Workmen
3. Instructions and supervision for (Regulation of Employment and Conditions
of Service) Act, 1979  

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Q45. At least how many months’ notice must 1. Xylem is responsible for the upward
the Appropriate Government give before transport of water and dissolved minerals
applying the provisions of the Contract from roots to other parts of the plant.
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, 2. Phloem transports food and nutrients
to establishments or contractors employing produced in the leaves to other parts
less than 20 workmen? of the plant through a process called
A. 1 month   translocation.
B. 2 months   3. Unlike phloem, xylem tissue is composed
C. 3 months   of only living cells.
D. 6 months   Select the correct answer using the code
Q46. Scalar quantities are physical quantities given below:
that have only magnitude and no direction. A. 1 and 2 only  
Which of the following physical quantities is B. 1 and 3 only  
NOT a scalar? C. 2 and 3 only  
A. Mass   D. All of the above
B. Speed   Q50. Plant hormones, also known as
C. Force   phytohormones, are chemical substances
D. Time that regulate various physiological processes
Q47. A car of mass 1000 kg is moving with a speed such as growth, development, and response
of 20 m/s on a circular track of radius 50 m. to stimuli in plants. Which of the following is
What is the centripetal force acting on the NOT a plant hormone?
car? A. Auxin  
B. Cytokinin  
A. 2000 N
C. Gibberellin  
B. 3000 N
D. Oxytocin
C. 6000 N
D. 8000 N Q51. Stearic acid, is an acid, is primarily found in
which of the following?
Q48. Which of the following statements about
DNA is/are correct? A. Apples  
B. Sour milk  
1. DNA is a macromolecule composed of
C. Animal fats and vegetable oils
three components: nitrogen base, sugar,
D. Grapes
and phosphate group.
2. Purines in DNA include adenine and Q52. Vulcanization of rubber is a process in
thymine, while pyrimidines include which natural rubber is treated with heat
guanine and cytosine. and a chemical to improve its strength and
3. The structure of DNA was first described elasticity. Which chemical is used in this
by Watson and Crick as a double helix process?
with two strands bonded by hydrogen A. Carbon  
bonds. B. Sulphur
C. Phosphorus  
Select the correct answer using the code
D. Nitrogen
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only   Q53. Consider the following reaction:
B. 1 and 3 only   𝐶 + 𝑂 2 → 𝐶𝑂 2
C. 2 and 3 only   Which one of the following statements
D. All of the above about the reaction given above is correct?
Q49. Which of the following statements regarding A. The oxidation state of carbon increases
xylem and phloem in plants is/are correct? while that of oxygen decreases.

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B. The oxidation state of carbon decreases over all subordinate presidencies in

while that of oxygen increases.   matters of war and revenue  
C. There is no change in the oxidation state C. Prohibition on the Governor-General from
of carbon or oxygen.   declaring war without the prior sanction
D. During the reaction, carbon is oxidized of the British Parliament  
while oxygen is reduced. D. Introduction of the principle of non-
Q54. Match the following acids with their intervention in the affairs of Indian princely
corresponding uses: states  
Q57. Shah Mal, a prominent leader who mobilized
Column A Column B local villagers and headmen to rebel against
British rule during the Revolt of 1857,
1. Hydrochloric A. In lead storage
belonged to which of the following regions?
Acid (HCl) batteries
A. Meerut, Uttar Pradesh  
2. Nitric Acid B. In the tanning of B. Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh  
(HNO₃) leather C. Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh  
3. Sulphuric Acid C. In the manufacture of D. Baghpat, Uttar Pradesh
(H₂SO₄) rayon Q58. Match the following prominent moderate
4. Phosphoric D. Involved in providing leaders with their contributions:
Acid (H₃PO₄) energy for chemical
Column A Column B
reactions in cells
1. Dadabhai Naoroji A. First president of
Select the correct match from the options the INC
below:  
2. Womesh Chandra B. Founded ‘The
A. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D Bannerjee Hindu’ newspaper
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B  
C. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A   3. G. Subramanya C. Authored ‘Poverty
D. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D Aiyar and Un-British Rule
in India’
Q55. Which of the following properties
differentiates soaps from detergents in 4. Gopal Krishna D. Founded the
terms of their molecular structure and Gokhale Servants of India
environmental impact? Society
A. Soaps are derived from petroleum-based 5. Surendranath E. Founded ‘The
chemicals, while detergents are made Banerjee Bengalee’
from natural fats and oils.   newspaper
B. Soaps contain a polar ionic group, whereas
detergents do not have any ionic groups.   Select the correct match from the options
C. Soaps form insoluble salts in hard water, below:  
while detergents remain effective in both A. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D, 5-E  
hard and soft water.   B. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E  
D. Soaps are non-biodegradable, whereas C. 1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-A, 5-D  
detergents are completely biodegradable. D. 1-E, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A  

Q56. Which of the following is NOT a provision Q59. Which of the following statements is
under the Pitt’s India Act of 1784? incorrect regarding the features of the
Gandhara, Mathura, and Amaravati Schools
A. Establishment of a Board of Control with
of Art?
members appointed by the King  
B. Extension of Governor-General’s power A. Gandhara School was influenced by Indo-
Greek art and Hellenistic elements.
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B. Mathura School developed indigenously

Column A Column B
without any external influences.
C. Amaravati School primarily used white 1. Mauryan A. Siddheshvara Mahadeva
marble for sculptures. Art Temple in Barakar
D. Gandhara School depicted Buddha with 2. Gupta Art B. Buddha image at Sultanganj,
a smiling face, emphasizing humanized Bihar
features. 3. Palas C. Yakshi figure from Didarganj,
Q60. Which of the following statements about Patna
the Chandellas and their contributions is 4. Cholas D. Nataraja sculpture at Ravana
NOT correct?   Phadi cave, Aihole
A. The Chandellas were prominent rulers of
Central India during the tenth and eleventh Select the correct match from the options
centuries and contributed significantly to below:  
temple architecture.   A. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
B. The Khajuraho temples constructed by the B. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D  
Chandellas are known for their slender C. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D  
sculptures, accentuated linear details, and D. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D  
a focus solely on spiritual themes.   Q63. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
C. The Kandariya Mahadev and Laxman the Nagara School of Architecture?
temples at Khajuraho are regarded as A. The Shikhara ends with a horizontal fluted
masterpieces of Indian sculptural art with disc known as Amalak and a spherical
intricate human depictions and geometric kalash on top.  
designs. B. The ambulatory passageway or the
D. The Khajuraho temples are famous for pradakshina path around the sanctum
their provocative and erotic relief panels, sanctorum was covered.
which are believed to reflect certain C. High boundary walls and a gateway
medieval tantrik cult practices. (Gopuram) surrounded the Nagara
Q61. Which of the following statements regarding temples.  
the Hoysala School of Temple Architecture D. The wall inside the temple was divided
is/are correct? into vertical planes called Rathas, later
1. The temples were built on a raised developing into pancharatha, saptaratha,
platform known as Jagati, approximately and navaratha.
1 metre high. Q64. Which of the following statements about
2. The Hoysala temples used granite as their the constitutional provisions related to
primary building material for enhanced preventive detention in India is/are correct?
durability. 1. No person can be detained in custody
3. The characteristic shape of the Shikharas without being informed of the grounds
featured interconnected chambers with of arrest and is entitled to consult or be
horizontal lines and mouldings. defended by a legal practitioner.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The safeguards related to arrest and
given below: custody do not apply to individuals
A. 1 and 2 only   detained under preventive detention
B. 1 and 3 only   laws.
C. 2 and 3 only   3. Preventive detention cannot exceed
D. All of the above   three months under any circumstances.
Q62. Match the following art forms with their Select the correct answer using the code
respective periods or dynasties:   given below:

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A. 1 and 2 only   Select the correct answer using the code

B. 2 and 3 only given below:
C. 1 and 3 only   A. Only 1 and 2  
D. All of the above B. Only 2 and 3  
Q65. Which of the following statements about C. Only 1 and 3  
the No-Confidence Motion is NOT correct? D. All of the above
A. A No-confidence motion can only be Q68. Which of the following statements regarding
introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the the tenure of a Supreme Court judge in India
Rajya Sabha.   is INCORRECT?
B. If a No-confidence motion is passed, the A. A Supreme Court judge holds office until
Government must resign.   they attain the age of 65 years.
C. A No-confidence motion must set out B. The tenure of a Supreme Court judge is
specific grounds on which it is based.   prescribed in the Indian Constitution.  
D. The Council of Ministers is collectively C. A judge can resign by submitting a written
responsible to the Lok Sabha under Article resignation to the President of India.  
75(3). D. The President can remove a judge from
office only if Parliament recommends their
Q66. Which of the following statements regarding
removal.
the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled
Areas Act (PESA Act), 1996 is/are correct? Q69. Which of the following statements about
1. The PESA Act extends the provisions the regulation of temples in India is/are
of Part IX of the Constitution, relating correct?
to Panchayats, to the Scheduled Areas 1. Article 25(1) of the Indian Constitution
under the Fifth Schedule. provides freedom of religion.
2. All 10 states with Fifth Schedule areas 2. The Hindu Religious Endowments
have framed and notified their State Commission (1960) declared that
PESA Rules under their respective State government control over temples was
Panchayati Raj Acts. essential to prevent maladministration.
3. The PESA Act is considered a ‘Constitution 3. Article 26 of the Indian Constitution
within the Constitution’ for tribal provides freedom to manage religious
empowerment and mainstreaming. affairs exclusively to the central
government.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only  
A. Only 1 and 2  
B. 1 and 3 only  
B. Only 2 and 3  
C. 2 and 3 only  
C. Only 1 and 3  
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Q67. Which of the following statements regarding
Q70. Which of the following statements about the
the Mediation Act 2023 is/are correct?
ordinance-making power of the President
1. The Mediation Act 2023 mandates under Article 123 is correct?
voluntary pre-litigation mediation. A. Ordinances have a permanent nature and
2. Disputes involving minors, persons of remain in force indefinitely.  
unsound mind, and criminal prosecution B. Ordinances can only be promulgated
are included in mediation under this act. during the recess of Parliament.  
3. The Mediation Act 2023 establishes the C. The President cannot promulgate
Mediation Council of India (MCI) for ordinances on urgent or unforeseen
mediator registration. matters.  

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D. The ordinance-making power of the In the year 2018, cost price was the same as
President requires prior approval from the that in 2017, but Rahul increased his profit
Prime Minister. by 20% of what it was in 2017. What was the
Q71. Which of the following statements about selling price (in Rs.) of that mobile in 2018?
the composition of the Delimitation A. Rs. 28000
Commission in India is/are correct? B. Rs. 27000
C. Rs. 29000
1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed
D. Rs. 30000
by the President of India.
2. The Chairperson of the Delimitation Q75. Pipes P1 and P2 can together fill a swimming
Commission is a retired judge of the pool in 12 hours. P1 is opened in the empty
Supreme Court. pool and closed after 5 hours, and at the
3. The Delimitation Commission includes same time P2 is opened. After 10 more
the Chief Election Commissioner and hours it was found that the pool was half
the State Election Commissioner of the full. In how many hours can P2 alone fill the
concerned state as its ex-officio members. pool completely?
A. 60 hours
Select the correct answer using the code
B. 50 hours
given below:
C. 40 hours
A. Only 1 and 2   D. 80 hours
B. Only 2 and 3  
C. Only 1 and 3   Q76. A ship sails in still water at a speed of 40
D. All of the above km/hr. It enters a river wherein the flow of
stream is 10 km/hr. The ship has to cover a
Q72. Which of the following statements about distance of 120 km in the river. What is the
the National Commission for Backward percent increase/decrease in time taken to
Classes (NCBC) is incorrect? cover this distance upstream compared to
A. The NCBC was established in 1993 under that in still water?
the NCBC Act, 1993.   A. 25%
B. The origin of NCBC is linked to the Indra B. 100/3%
Sawhney vs. Union of India case, 1992.   C. 400/3%
C. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act D. 50%
of 2018 inserted Article 338-A, granting
Constitutional status to NCBC.   Q77. There are two vessels A and B containing
D. The NCBC examines all matters related to 40 liters each of pure milk and pure water
Backward Classes. respectively. 8 liters of milk from vessel A is
taken out and poured into vessel B, then 12
Q73. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is liters of the mixture from vessel B is taken
multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the out and poured into vessel A. What is the
digits of the resulting number? ratio of milk in vessels A and B respectively?
A. 64 A. 21:17  
B. 80 B. 17:3  
C. 81 C. 32:9  
D. 100 D. 14:5
Q74. Rahul is a mobile phone store owner. He Q78. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using
sold a mobile phone for Rs. 24,000 in the the digits 5, 6, 7 and 8, and none of these
year 2016, and made a 20% profit. Next four digits are to be repeated in any manner.
year, the cost price of mobile phone had Further,5 is not to appear at the first place.
changed and to increase his profit by 25%, Numbers 6 and 7 are not to immediately
Rahul increased the selling price by 12.5%. follow each other. 8 is not to appear at
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the last place, and number5 is not to be A. 2 only

immediately followed by 7. How many such B. Both 1 and 2
numbers can be formed? C. 1 only
A. 6 D. None of the above
B. 8 Q83. A shopkeeper mixed 3 varieties of tea –
C. 9 Assam tea, Darjeeling tea and Nilgiri tea. The
D. 10   prices of Assam tea, Darjeeling tea and Nilgiri
Q79. The average weight of the first eight students tea (in Rs. /kg) are 24, 28, 34 respectively.
is 150kg, the average weight of the last ten The mixed tea was sold at Rs. 30/kg, and the
students is 10 more than the average weight shopkeeper earned 20% profit by selling it.
of first eight students. The average weight of It is known that the quantity of Assam tea in
the rest two students is 300 kg. The average the mixture was 6kg more than 3 times the
weight of all the students is ____kg. Then sum of the quantities of other two varieties
the 40% of the average weight of all the in the mixture. What is the quantity of
students is ____kg. Nilgiris tea in that mixture?
A. 175 kg and 55 kg   A. 1 kg
B. 172 kg and 60 kg   B. 2 kg
C. 164 kg and 79 kg   C. 2.5 kg
D. 170 kg and 68 kg D. 3 kg
Q80. A cricket team of 11 is to be selected from 7 Q84. The average age of the company is 48 years
batsmen and 6 bowlers which are available. and the total number of employees in the
The team must have at least 5 bowlers. In company is 30. If the ratio of the male to
how many ways can it be done? female employees in the company is 3: 2 and
A. 21 the average age of the female employees in
B. 42 the company is 52.5 years, then what is the
C. 84 average age of the male employees in the
D. 63 company?
Q81. If x + y = 36, then which of the following A. 40 years  
must be true? B. 42 years  
C. 45 years  
1. Both x and y must be positive.
D. 48 years
2. If x is positive, y must be negative.
3. If x is negative, y must be positive. Q85. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank?
Select the correct answer using the code 1. The area of the base is 15400 [Link].
given below. 2. The height of the tank is 2 times the
A. 1 only radius.
B. 3 only 3. Circumference of base is 440cm.
C. 2 only Which of the above statements are
D. Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3 necessary to answer the above question?
Q82. If X and Y are integers, then which of the A. Only 1
following must be true? B. Only 2
1. X – Y must give a positive value for any C. Only 1 and 2  
value of X and Y. D. Only 1 and 2 or 2 and 3
2. X + Y must be an even number. Q86. In a row of 34 persons, A is 25 from left side
3. X/Y must be a proper fraction. and B is 12 from right. Find the total number
Select the correct statement using the code of persons between them.
given below: A. 4
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B. 3 Q91. Which of the following are pillars of Human

C. 1 Development?
D. 5 1. Equity
Q87. If 3rd December, 1990 is Sunday, what day is 2. Sustainability
3rd January 1991? 3. Empowerment
4. Productivity
A. Sunday
Choose the correct answer from the option
B. Monday
given below:
C. Tuesday
A. 1 and 2 only
D. Wednesday
B. 2 and 3 only
Q88. Consider the following statements regarding C. 1 and 3 only
the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in D. All of the above
India:
Q92. What does the term risk refer to in the
1. It was established under the provisions of context of insurance and uncertainty?
the RBI Act, 1934, as amended in 2016. A. The certainty of receiving a profit
2. The committee comprises 6 members, out B. The probability of uncertain gains
of which 3 are appointed by the Central C. The chance of suffering a loss due to
Government. uncertain events
3. The MPC is primarily responsible for D. The guarantee of a future event
deciding India’s Fiscal Deficit targets.
Which of the above statements is/are Q93. Which of the following statements is TRUE
correct? regarding statutory audit?
A. Statutory audit is optional for all companies
A. 1 and 2 only
under the Companies Act, 2013.
B. 2 and 3 only
B. Statutory audits are only conducted for
C. 1 and 3 only
private businesses, not public institutions.
D. 1, 2 and 3
C. Statutory audit ensures that the company’s
Q89. Which of the following statements financial position is presented fairly on the
regarding “Fiscal Policy,” is/are correct? balance sheet date.
1. It is primarily concerned with government D. Statutory audit is conducted only for
revenue and expenditure. income tax calculation purposes.
2. It is implemented by the Reserve Bank of Q94. Which of the following correctly identifies
India. a company required to comply with auditor
3. One of its key objectives is income rotation norms under Section 139(2)?
redistribution. A. Private limited company with ₹30 crore
Choose the correct answer from the option paid-up capital and ₹20 crore borrowings
given below? B. Unlisted public company with ₹8 crore
A. 1 and 2 only paid-up capital and ₹70 crore borrowings
B. 2 and 3 only C. Small company with ₹3 crore paid-up
C. 1 and 3 only capital
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. One Person Company with ₹55 crore
Q90. According to Census 2011, which of the public deposits
following states had the highest population Q95. Who becomes the payee when a bill is
density? discounted by the drawer with a bank?
A. Uttar Pradesh A. Drawer
B. Bihar B. Drawee
C. West Bengal C. Bank
D. Kerala D. Creditor of the Drawer
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Q96. Which of the following events is considered D. Not shown in balance sheet
an external economic event as per the Q101. Which of the following is correctly
accounting process? classified as a current asset?
1. Payment of salaries to employees. A. Plant and Machinery
2. Supply of raw materials from the B. Building
stores department to the production C. Computers
department. D. Cash in Hand
3. Purchase of goods from a supplier.
4. Transfer of goods from warehouse to the Q102. Which of the following is considered
retail outlet within the same company. Capital for a business?
A. Only Statement 1 A. Loan taken from a bank
B. Only Statement 3 B. Goods sold on credit
C. Statements 1 and 3 C. Owner’s investment in cash
D. Statements 2, 3, and 4 D. Salary paid to employees
Q97. A loan taken by a company for 10 years is Q103. What does the Entity Concept assume?
classified as: A. The business and the owner are one and
A. Current Liability the same entity.
B. Current Asset B. The business and the owner are two
C. Non-Current Liability separate entities.
D. Fixed Asset C. The business records the owner’s
personal expenses.
Q98. Which of the following statements correctly
D. The owner’s personal transactions are
describes Financial Accounting?
recorded in the business books.
A. It focuses only on internal management
decisions. Q104. What does the bank receive as profit when
B. It helps in fixing the selling price of it discounts a bill of exchange?
products. A. Interest/Discount charged from the
C. It involves preparation of income Drawer
statement, balance sheet, and cash flow B. Commission for issuing the bill
statement. C. Fees for preparing journal entries
D. It is not useful for shareholders. D. Share of the payment from the Drawee
Q99. According to the Going Concern Concept, Q105. What is the main principle of the Matching
how should a company account for a long- Concept?
term asset like machinery? A. Revenue should be recognized when
A. By recording the asset at its current market cash is received.
value every year. B. Expenses should be matched with the
B. By recording the asset at its historical cost revenue they helped generate.
and depreciating it over time. C. Revenue should be recognized only when
C. By revaluing the asset every year based on the cash is paid.
its expected sale value. D. Expenses should be recognized when
D. By ignoring depreciation if the asset is still paid, not when incurred.
in use. Q106. Which of the following accurately describes
Q100. Debtors are shown on which side of the the measurement process in accounting?
balance sheet? 1. It involves recording all transactions in
A. Liabilities Side chronological order.
B. Asset Side 2. It involves expressing business
C. Equity Side transactions in monetary terms.

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3. Non-monetary events like the 2. Each EMRS school can admit a maximum
appointment of a manager are included. of 720 students from Class VI to XII.
4. Events must be quantifiable in rupees 3. EMRS targets blocks with at least 30%
and paise to be recorded. (In case of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and a
Indian Currency) minimum of 15,000 ST persons.
A. Statements 2 and 4 only A. Only 1
B. Statements 1 and 3 only B. Only 2
C. Statements 1, 2, and 4 C. 1 and 2
D. All of the above D. 1 and 3
Q107. Consider the following statements Q110. The nomenclature of __________ was
regarding the Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan modified to NAMASTE (National Action
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY): Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem)
1. PM-JAY provides cashless health and the scheme aims to cover __________
insurance coverage of ₹5 lakh per family Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in a phased
per annum for primary, secondary, and manner.
tertiary care. A. Swachh Bharat Mission; 100+
2. It covers pre-existing conditions from B. SRMS (Self-Employment Scheme for
the very first day of enrollment. Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers);
3. Children under 5 years can avail 4800+
treatment on either parent’s Ayushman C. Swachh Bharat Mission; 500
card even if they are admitted in D. SRMS (Self-Employment Scheme for
different empaneled hospitals. Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers);
Which of the statements given above are 5200+
correct? Q111. The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at
A. 1 and 2 providing adequate and timely credit
B. 2 and 3 support from the banking system under
C. 1 and 3 a single window with the flexible and
D. 1, 2 and 3 simplified procedures to the farmers for
their cultivation and other needs.
Q108. Under Samagra Shiksha Abhiyaan, annual
allocation for children with special needs The loan to farmer under KCC is not
(CwSN) has been increased from ₹3,000 to available for which of the following
₹______ per child, and uniform assistance activity?
under RTE has been enhanced from ₹400 A. Post-harvest expenses
to ₹______ per annum. B. Consumption requirements of farmer
A. ₹3,500; ₹600 household
B. ₹4,000; ₹500 C. Working capital for maintenance of farm
C. ₹3,600; ₹550 assets and activities allied to agriculture
D. ₹3,500; ₹500 D. To meet the long-term credit
Q109. Which of the following statements is/are requirements for the cultivation of crops
incorrect with respect to the Ekalavya Q112. India participated in the Conference of the
Model Residential Schools (EMRS) Parties (COPs) to the Basel, Rotterdam,
scheme? and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions. Match
1. The scheme is implemented by the the following BRS Conventions with their
Ministry of Education under the respective objectives:
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.

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C. Only Three
Conventions Objectives
D. Only Four
1. Basel A. Focuses on regulating the
Q114. While highlighting the rise of India’s
Convention transboundary movement
innovation ecosystem led by Agri-Startups
(1989) of hazardous wastes and
and deep-tech ventures, the Union
their disposal to minimize
Minister for Science & Technology referred
risks to human health and
to India’s transformation from being part
the environment.
of the “Fragile Five” to aspiring among the
2. Rotterdam B. Encourages responsible world’s top five economies by 2047. The
Convention management of chemicals term “Fragile Five” was originally coined in
(1998) and wastes, including 2013 by _______.
international cooperation A. World Ban
and capacity-building. B. IMF
3. Stockholm C. Aims to reduce and C. Morgan Stanley
Convention eliminate the production, D. Goldman Sachs
(2001) use, and release of Q115. The 35th report on the performance
persistent organic of Central Ministries under Centralized
pollutants (POPs) to Public Grievances Redress and Monitoring
protect human health and System (CPGRAMS) and Bhavishya was
the environment. released by the Department of Pension &
Pensioner’s Welfare. In this context, which
Choose the correct code:
of the following categories of grievances
A. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A are not addressed under the CPGRAMS?
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
1. Matters under judicial consideration or
C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
already adjudicated
D. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
2. Right to Information (RTI) Act matters
Q113. Justice Surya Kant was appointed as the 3. Personal and family disputes
Executive Chairman of the National Legal 4. Cases involving departmental
Services Authority (NALSA). In this context, promotions
consider the following: 5. Issues related to national security and
1. A woman subjected to domestic international relations
violence 6. Public grievances on service delivery in
2. A person with an annual income of Rs. central ministries
3 lakh, seeking legal aid before a District Choose the correct code given below:
Court
A. Only 1, 3, and 5
3. A tribal farmer affected by drought
B. Only 2, 4, and 6
4. A physically disabled person in a legal
C. Only 1, 2, 3, and 5
dispute
D. Only 1, 2, and 4
5. A child in conflict with the law
6. A person in lawful police custody Q116. The Government e Marketplace (GeM)
celebrated its 8th Incorporation Day,
How many of the above individuals is/
marking significant achievements in
are not among those eligible for free
inclusive public procurement and digital
legal services under the Legal Services
governance. In this context, consider the
Authorities Act, 1987?
following statements:
A. Only One
1. Uttar Pradesh is the first state in India to
B. Only Two
fully integrate the GeM platform.

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2. GeM mandates 25% procurement from How many of above is/are major sources
MSMEs and sets sub-targets of 3% for of income contributing to this dividend
women-led MSMEs and 4% for SC/ST payout?
entrepreneurs. A. Only 1
Which of the above statements is/are B. Only 2
correct? C. Only 3
A. Only 1 D. All of the above
B. Only 2 Q119. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) officially
C. Both 1 and 2 notified the formation of the Payments
D. None of the above Regulatory Board (PRB) under the Payments
Q117. The Ministry of Defence granted Miniratna and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. In this
Category-I status to certain Defence context, consider the following:
PSUs. With reference to the Miniratna 1. Individuals above the age of 70 years
classification criteria and privileges, 2. Sitting Members of Parliament or State
consider the following statements: Legislatures
1. Companies under Miniratna Category-I 3. Persons with significant personal or
are allowed to make investments up financial interest in the payment sector
to ₹300 crore or up to 50% of their net 4. Senior officials from the Department
worth, whichever is lower. of Payment and Settlement Systems
2. To qualify for Miniratna Category-I, a (DPSS)
company must have earned profit in Which of the above statements correctly
each of the last three years and a pre- identify those NOT eligible to serve as a
tax profit of ₹30 crore or more in at least member of the PRB?
one of those years. A. Only 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above statements is/are B. Only 2, 3 and 4
correct? C. Only 1 and 4
A. Only 1 D. All 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Only 2 Q120. Recently, the G7 under Canada’s
C. Both 1 and 2 presidency proposed an exemption
D. None of the above for U.S. multinational firms from the
Q118. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved a Global Minimum Tax (GMT), subject to
record surplus transfer of ₹2.69 lakh crore final approval by which international
to the central government. In this context, organisation that originally proposed and
consider the following: structured the GMT regime?
1. Interest income on RBI’s holdings of A. World Trade Organization (WTO)
rupee-denominated Government B. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Securities C. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
2. Mark-to-market (MTM) gains arising D. Organization for Economic Co-operation
from falling Government Securities and Development (OECD)
yields
3. Gross dollar purchases by the RBI in the
forex market
4. Income from deployment of forex
reserves and currency printing
operations

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Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 A 26 A 51 C 76 B 101 D
2 A 27 C 52 B 77 B 102 C
3 C 28 A 53 A 78 A 103 B
4 C 29 B 54 A 79 D 104 A
5 D 30 C 55 C 80 D 105 B
6 A 31 D 56 C 81 D 106 A
7 B 32 B 57 D 82 D 107 B
8 D 33 A 58 A 83 A 108 A
9 A 34 B 59 D 84 C 109 C
10 B 35 D 60 B 85 D 110 B
11 B 36 C 61 B 86 C 111 D
12 B 37 A 62 D 87 D 112 B
13 C 38 D 63 C 88 A 113 A
14 C 39 D 64 A 89 C 114 C
15 D 40 A 65 C 90 B 115 C
16 B 41 B 66 B 91 D 116 C
17 C 42 C 67 C 92 C 117 B
18 D 43 C 68 B 93 C 118 C
19 C 44 D 69 A 94 B 119 A
20 B 45 B 70 B 95 C 120 D
21 B 46 C 71 D 96 B
22 B 47 D 72 C 97 C
23 C 48 B 73 C 98 C
24 C 49 A 74 A 99 B
25 B 50 D 75 A 100 B

Detailed Explanation

Q1. Momentum (A): Synonym - Impetus refers to the • Indifference (C): Unrelated - Indifference refers
driving force or encouragement behind something. to a lack of interest or concern. It is unrelated to
Momentum is a synonym as it also refers to the force impetus, which involves motivating or energizing
or energy driving an action or progress, particularly someone or something. Hence, this option is
in motion or development. Hence, this is the correct irrelevant to the meaning of impetus.
option. • Stagnation (D): Antonym - Stagnation refers to
• Inhibition (B): Antonym -Inhibition refers to a lack of movement or progress, the opposite of
a restriction or a holding back of something. impetus, which suggests momentum or action.
This is the opposite of impetus, which implies Thus, this is also an antonym.
encouragement or force pushing things forward. Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Thus, it is an antonym. 

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Q2. Schedule of a journey (A): Synonym Itinerary happen slowly over time, so this is also an antonym.
refers to a planned route or schedule for a journey, Hence, the correct answer is option C.
including details like destinations, activities, and
timings. “Schedule of a journey” directly matches this Q5. Opposite (A): Antonym Opposite means completely
meaning. Hence, it is the correct option. different or contrary. This does not match the meaning
• List of expenses (B): Unrelated A list of expenses of concomitant, so it is incorrect.
shows how money is spent, which is financial in • Accidental (B): Unrelated Accidental implies
nature. It has no direct connection to a travel plan something unplanned or unexpected. Concomitant
or route, making it unrelated to itinerary. refers to something that naturally occurs together,
• Proof of identity (C): Unrelated - Identity proof not by accident.
is a document to verify a person’s identity. It is • Delayed (C): Antonym Delayed means something
irrelevant to the meaning of itinerary, which deals that happens later. Concomitant means happening
with travel planning, not personal identification. at the same time, so this is an opposite idea.
• Food coupon (D): Unrelated - A food coupon is used • Accompanying (D): Synonym Concomitant
to get meals, usually as a discount or prepaid offer. means something that happens at the same
It does not involve travel planning or scheduling, time as something else or is naturally connected.
so it is unrelated to itinerary. Accompanying captures this idea well, making it
Hence, the correct answer is option A. the correct synonym.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
Q3. Dry spell (A): Antonym Deluge means a heavy flood
or downpour. A dry spell is the opposite, indicating Q6. Scapegoat — Correct - Printer’s devil is an idiomatic
no rain for an extended time. Thus, it is the correct expression used humorously to refer to a person (or
antonym. sometimes a fictional figure) blamed for errors or
• Mild drizzle (B): Unrelated Mild drizzle refers mistakes. In this context, it represents a scapegoat,
to light rain, which is neither similar to nor the someone or something blamed for problems that
opposite of deluge. It’s unrelated in intensity. were actually caused by another person.
• Heavy rainfall (C): Synonym This means the same • Error — Incorrect - Error refers to a mistake itself,
as deluge, both implying a lot of rain. It’s not not a person or entity blamed for it. This doesn’t
the correct answer since we need the opposite capture the meaning of printer’s devil.
meaning. • Machine — Incorrect - While the word printer
• Cool wind (D): Unrelated - Cool wind is about is mentioned, printer’s devil does not refer to a
temperature and wind, not rain or flooding. It has machine but to the blame placed on a person for
no meaningful connection to deluge. mistakes.
Hence, the correct answer is option C. • Ghost — Incorrect - A ghost might seem related
due to the term devil, but it doesn’t fit the
Q4. Temporary (A): Antonym Temporary means lasting idiomatic meaning of printer’s devil, which refers
for a short time. This is not related to cumulative, which to a scapegoat for errors.
suggests lasting and building over time. Hence, the correct answer is option A.
• Separate (B): Antonym Separate implies being
apart or unconnected, which is the opposite of Q7. Punished — Incorrect  - While punished could
cumulative, where efforts build together. be a consequence of misbehavior, “on the carpet”
• Collective (C): Synonym Cumulative means specifically refers to being scolded or criticized, not
increasing or growing by gradual additions. necessarily punished. 
Collective refers to things gathered together as a • Reprimanded — Correct - The phrase “called on
whole, which matches the meaning of cumulative. the carpet” is an idiomatic expression meaning
Hence, this is the correct synonym. to be scolded or reprimanded for one’s actions.
• Sudden (D): Antonym Sudden means happening In this case, the principal is reprimanding the
quickly without warning. Cumulative effects student for misbehaving, which aligns with the
meaning of “on the carpet.”

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• Ignored — Incorrect - The phrase does not imply • Confident — Correct - The phrase “on her mettle”
being ignored. In fact, “on the carpet” indicates means being in a situation where someone is
direct attention and confrontation, not neglect. required to demonstrate their skill or abilities,
• Fired — Incorrect  - Fired refers to being dismissed usually with a confident or determined attitude. In
from a job, which is not the intended meaning of this context, it suggests that she was performing
“on the carpet” in the context of school discipline. well and confidently during the debate.
The phrase does not mean being removed from a • Tired — Incorrect - Tired refers to fatigue, which
position. doesn’t fit with the phrase. “On her mettle”
Hence, the correct answer is option B. means being alert and ready to perform well, not
exhausted.
Q8. Guess — Incorrect - Guess means to make a guess • Angry — Incorrect - Angry refers to strong
without sufficient evidence. Putting two and two feelings of displeasure, which is not related to the
together involves using logical reasoning, which is meaning of “on her mettle”. The phrase focuses on
more than just guessing. confidence and ability, not anger.
• Infer — Incorrect - While infer is related to drawing Hence, the correct answer is option B.
conclusions, it doesn’t fit as well as deduce in this
context. Infer is more about reading between the Q11. Option A: cabd - Starts with «the genetic diversity»
lines, while deduce is a more direct process of without introducing the subject. It feels abrupt and
reasoning based on facts. lacks clarity.
• Forget — Incorrect - Forget is unrelated. “Putting
• Option B: acbd - Correct sequence. It clearly
two and two together” involves understanding and
introduces the subject, explains the goal, and
reasoning, not forgetting something.
presents a logical flow: mapping diversity to
• Deduce — Correct - The phrase “put two and two develop healthcare and treatments.
together” means to make a logical conclusion
• Option C: adbc - “And treatments” comes too early
based on available evidence. In this case, she
and disrupts the sentence’s natural development.
uses the clues (the empty cage and open door) to
deduce that the parrot had escaped. • Option D: bacd - Begins with the purpose but
Hence, the correct answer is option D. has no subject. The sentence structure becomes
confusing and grammatically weak.
Q9. Close — Correct - The phrase “within an ace of” Hence, the correct answer is option B.
means very close to achieving something, almost but
not quite. In this case, the runner was very close to Q12. Option A: cabd - Starts with «To address
winning the race but lost by a narrow margin. development challenges» but lacks a subject at the
• Far — Incorrect - Far is the opposite of close and beginning. It feels incomplete.
doesn’t fit the meaning of being nearly at the goal • Option B: dbca - Correct sequence. It starts
or achievement. “Within an ace” implies closeness, with the subject “The Africa Club promotes
not distance. collaboration,” then shows between whom, why,
• Lucky — Incorrect - Lucky refers to chance or and with what goal. The sentence flows logically
fortune, which is unrelated to the idea of being very and meaningfully.
close to success. The phrase refers to proximity, • Option C: cadb - Starts with purpose but no subject.
not luck. Also, the order of actions and actors is unclear.
• Quick — Incorrect - Quick refers to speed or • Option D: adbc - Begins with the result (“And foster
promptness, but “within an ace” is about proximity economic growth”) without stating who is acting.
or nearing an achievement, not about speed. Confusing and structurally weak.
Hence, the correct answer is option A. Hence, the correct answer is option B.
Q10. Nervous — Incorrect - Nervous would indicate Q13. Option A: acdb - Starts with «Ensuring
unease or anxiety, which contrasts with “on her mettle”, international accountability» — no subject or context.
as the phrase implies being prepared and performing The sentence feels unclear and disconnected.
confidently under pressure, not nervousness.

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• Option B: abdc - Starts with “Ensuring international Hence, the correct answer is option D.
accountability seeks to prevent...” which is
awkward and incorrect grammatically. Q16. Option A Incorrect. The Paris Agreement never
• Option C: cbad - Correct sequence. Starts with the set a deadline like 2025 to stop fossil fuel use. Its
subject: “The Genocide Convention, established in approach is gradual and depends on national pledges.
1948,” then states its purpose (“seeks to prevent • Option B Correct. The agreement aimed to keep
and punish genocide”), adds how (“ensuring the rise in global temperatures below two degrees
international accountability”), and ends logically Celsius. It is a key goal of the treaty.
with “for such atrocities.” • Option C Incorrect. Reducing global population
• Option D: bcad - Starts with “Seeks to prevent...” was never a part of the climate agreement.
but has no clear subject first, making the sentence • Option D Incorrect. While renewable energy is
grammatically incorrect. promoted, no rule was made to force countries to
Hence, the correct answer is option C. adopt it.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
Q14. Option A: acbd - Starts with «In providing reliable
propulsion» but gives no subject until later. The Q17. Option A Incorrect. Climate change threatens
sentence feels incomplete and unclear. rainforests with drying and fires. The Arctic would not
• Option B: cabd - Begins with “For missiles, stay stable; warming affects it severely.
spacecraft” — lacks a proper subject and verb at • Option B Incorrect. Ice sheets are melting, not
the start. Sentence construction is weak. protecting anything. Coastal cities are at more risk
• Option C: bacd - Correct structure. of flooding.
Begins with the subject and verb: “Solid
• Option C Correct. The passage mentions that with
fuel technology plays a crucial role”
three degrees of warming, most coastal cities
— followed by how and where it plays a role:
would be lost, and forests could grow in the Arctic.
“in providing reliable propulsion for missiles,
spacecraft, and other aerospace applications.” • Option D Incorrect. Ice caps are shrinking, and
This option is grammatically complete and deserts are expected to spread, not reduce.
logically sequenced. Hence, the correct answer is option C.
• Option D: adbc - Starts with a prepositional phrase,
not the subject, leading to confusion. The structure Q18. Option A Incorrect. By 1979, scientists had
becomes clunky and lacks flow. enough data to show the dangers of fossil fuels.
Hence, the correct answer is option C. • Option B Incorrect. Fossil fuel companies like
Exxon and Shell were still researching the problem
Q15. Option A: acbd - Starts with “Vaccination and seriously at that time. Denial campaigns became
regular screenings” and then “cervical cancer” comes prominent later.
later. The subject (cervical cancer) should come earlier • Option C Incorrect. Major political controversy
for clarity. wasn’t yet blocking climate action during the
• Option B: cabd - Begins with “Reducing the risk…” 1980s. Cooperation seemed possible then.
but doesn’t identify what is being talked about • Option D Correct. The main reason for inaction
until too late. Disconnected sentence. was delay and lack of urgency, even though the
• Option C: abdc - Starts with “Is preventable science was already clear.
through” — but has no subject before the verb. Hence, the correct answer is option D.
Grammatically incorrect.
• Option D: dbac - Correct structure: “Cervical Q19. Option A Incorrect. A full shift to solar energy was
cancer, primarily caused by HPV, is preventable not demanded. Scientists suggested emission cuts, not
through vaccination and regular screenings, specific technologies.
reducing the risk for women worldwide.” • Option B Incorrect. Industrial activity and
This sequence flows logically and is grammatically deforestation were not targeted for total
complete. elimination. The goal was emission control.

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• Option C Correct. The scientific recommendation faster than cache memory, primary memory (RAM),
was to freeze carbon emissions and reduce them and secondary storage.
by 20% by 2005. • Registers temporarily store frequently used
• Option D Incorrect. There was no suggestion to values for quick processing, reducing the need for
relocate cities based on temperature zones. the CPU to fetch data from slower memory types
Hence, the correct answer is option C. like RAM or cache. However, registers are limited
in size compared to other memory types, typically
Q20. Incorrect. The chapter is about failure, not holding only a few bytes of data at a time.
success. Hence, option C is correct answer.
• Correct. “The Reckoning” is described as a time to
understand and reflect on our failure to act. Q24. In packet switching, data is divided into small
packets before being transmitted over a network. Unlike
• Incorrect. The passage is critical of inaction and circuit switching, where a dedicated path is established
offers no reason to celebrate. for the entire communication, packet switching allows
• Incorrect. No blame was placed on poorer nations; each packet to take the most efficient route available
the focus was on global and especially U.S. inaction. at the time of transmission.
• Incorrect. permanent statutory body to examine • Since packets can take different routes due
all matters related to Backward Classes. to network congestion, varying bandwidth
• Incorrect. The NCBC was established in 1993 under availability, or routing policies, they may arrive
the NCBC Act, 1993. at the destination out of order. However, the
destination system uses the sequence numbers
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
in the packet headers to reassemble them in the
correct order, ensuring that the original message is
Q21. The decimal equivalent of a binary number can
reconstructed properly.
be obtained by multiplying powers of 2 to the binary
number from right side as given below: Hence, option C is correct answer.
• (1 x 25) + (0 x 24) + (1 x 23) + (1 x 22) + (1 x 21) + (0
Q25. The Northbridge chipset is a critical component
x 20) = 32 + 0 + 8 + 4 + 0 + 0 = 44
of the motherboard that manages high-speed
Hence, option B is correct answer. communication between the CPU, RAM, and graphics
processor. It plays a crucial role in system performance
Q22. Language-translator: Program that is used to by handling tasks that require fast data transfer.
translate information or instructions that are written in
• The Northbridge directly connects to the CPU and
source to object language. It means that can translate
manages memory access and communication
from high-level language or assembly-language into
with the graphics controller (especially in older
machine-language.
systems using AGP).
• There are generally three types of language-
• The CPU and hard drive communication is
translator- Compiler, Assembler, Interpreter.
managed by the Southbridge chipset, not the
• Complier is that kind of program which translates Northbridge. The Southbridge handles slower
one language into other target-language input/output (I/O) functions such as storage
• Linker is not language- translator. Hence option B devices, USB, and peripheral connections.
is the answer to this given question. • In older systems, AGP graphics cards were
Hence, option B is correct answer. connected through the Northbridge, ensuring fast
communication between the CPU and GPU.
Q23. Register memory is the fastest and smallest type • The Northbridge connects the CPU to the
of memory in a computer system. It is located within Southbridge, which then manages slower
the CPU and holds data, instructions, and addresses peripherals like hard drives, USB devices, and
that the processor needs to access immediately. network controllers.
Because registers are directly integrated into the CPU, Hence, option B is correct answer
they have zero or minimal access time, making them

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Q26. The Harvard Architecture is designed with predefined database of known virus signatures
separate memory and buses for instructions and (unique patterns or code snippets of known malware).
data, which allows the CPU to fetch instructions and When an antivirus program scans a file, it compares the
read/write data simultaneously. This parallel access file’s code against this database. If a match is found,
significantly improves performance, especially in high- the file is flagged as malicious.
speed computing applications. • However, this method has a major limitation: it
• Von Neumann Architecture: cannot detect new or unknown malware that has
o Uses a single memory space for both not been previously identified and recorded in the
instructions and data. database. This makes it ineffective against zero-
day threats, polymorphic viruses, and advanced
o Has a single bus, meaning instructions and data
malware variants that change their code to evade
cannot be accessed at the same time, causing
detection.
a bottleneck known as the Von Neumann
bottleneck. • Heuristic analysis detects new threats by analysing
suspicious behaviour or patterns in the code.
• Harvard Architecture:
• Sandbox detection runs files in a controlled
o Uses separate memory and buses for
environment to observe their behaviour before
instructions and data.
allowing execution.
o The CPU can fetch an instruction while
• Data mining techniques use machine learning and
simultaneously accessing data, leading to
statistical models to identify potentially harmful
faster processing speeds and improved
files based on characteristics rather than known
efficiency.
signatures.
Hence, option A is correct answer.
Hence, option A is correct answer.
Q27. In Blockchain technology, transactions are
Q29. The MATCH function in Microsoft Excel is used to
secured and made tamper-proof through cryptographic
return the relative position of a value in a specified
hashing and the linking of each block to the previous
range, rather than the actual value itself. This makes
block.  
it different from functions like VLOOKUP or INDEX,
• Each block in a blockchain contains a unique which return actual data.
cryptographic hash, which is generated using
• Syntax of MATCH Function: MATCH (lookupvalue,
a hashing algorithm. This hash acts as a digital
lookuparray, [matchtype])
fingerprint for the block’s data.  
• VLOOKUP: Searches for a value in the first column
• Additionally, each block also contains the hash of
of a range and returns a corresponding value.
the previous block, creating an interconnected
chain. If an attacker tries to alter any transaction in • INDEX: Returns the actual value from a given row
a block, its hash will change, breaking the link with and column number within a range.
the subsequent blocks.   • INDIRECT: Returns a reference specified by a text
• To successfully modify a blockchain, an string but does not search for values.
attacker would need to recompute and alter Hence, option B is correct answer.
all subsequent blocks across multiple nodes,
which is computationally impractical due to Q30. The Conceptual Level in the three - tier
the decentralized and distributed nature of architecture of a Database Management System
blockchain networks.   (DBMS) provides an overall logical structure of the
• This mechanism ensures data integrity, database while remaining independent of physical
transparency, and security, making blockchain storage details. It serves as a bridge between the
highly resistant to fraud and unauthorized physical storage level (Internal Level) and the user-
modifications. specific views (External Level).
Hence, option C is correct answer. • Key Functions of the Conceptual Level:
o Defines entities, relationships, constraints,
Q28. Signature-based detection is a traditional and schemas without considering how data is
malware detection technique that relies on a physically stored.

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o Maintains data consistency and integrity • Unitary Perspective: Matches with A, emphasizing
across multiple external views. management and workers as one happy family,
o Ensures logical independence, meaning with management’s decisions viewed as completely
changes to the physical structure do not affect right.
the overall database structure. • Pluralist Perspective: Matches with B, which
Hence, option C is correct answer. highlights conflicts between management and
workers that can be resolved.
Q31. Article 43A: It specifically provides for the • Radical Perspective: Matches with C, pointing to
participation of workers in the management of organizations reflecting the oppressive nature of
undertakings engaged in any industry societal structures.
• Article 41: Relates to the right to work, to education, Hence, option A is correct answer.
and to public assistance in cases of unemployment,
old age, sickness, and disablement. Q34. Predatory Unions: Use any method, including
• Article 42: Pertains to provisions for securing just violence and secret practices, to fulfill their objectives.
and humane conditions of work and maternity • Hold-up Unions: A subtype formed by employees
relief. and employers, focusing solely on their benefits
• Article 43: Focuses on promoting cottage industries without regard for principles or external concerns.
on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas. • Guerilla Unions: Work against employers, often
Hence, option D is correct answer. using extreme measures like terrorism, and are
controlled by a ‘boss.’
Q32. The First National Commission on Labour • Revolutionary Unions: Aim to overthrow the
was established on 24 December, 1966, under the existing system to establish a new order, unlike
chairmanship of Justice PB Gajendragadkar. It Predatory Unions.
submitted its report in August, 1969. • Industrial Unions: Focus on collective bargaining
• The issues covered in the report included labour for fair treatment, wages, and conditions within a
welfare, wages, wage policy, bonus, social security, particular industry.
workers’ training and education, workers’ and
• Craft Unions: Organized based on specific trades
employers’ organizations, and industrial relations
or crafts, focusing on protecting the skill set of
machinery.
their members.
• The recommendations of the First National
Hence, option B is correct answer
Commission on Labour resulted in amendments to
certain labour laws:
Q35. Criteria for Recognition of CTUOs (as laid down
• Removal of the wage ceiling from the Workmen’s by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, Government
(now Employees’) Compensation Act, 1923. of India):
• Strict changes regarding unfair labour practices in • Affiliates must be spread over at least 4 states and
the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. 4 industries.
• Enhancement of the wage limit for exemption • Must have a minimum of 5 lakh (0.5 million)
from payment of employees’ contribution in the members.
Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
• All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC):
• More stringent penalties for violations in the
• First trade union in India, founded in 1920 in
Factories Act, 1948.
Bombay.
• Enhancement in the Employees’ Provident Funds
• Lala Lajpat Rai was the first president.
and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
Hence, option B is correct answer. Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS):
• Founded during a trade union conference in
Q33. System Model: Matches with D, as it refers to the Calcutta from 24th to 26th December 1948.
three parties (management, workers, and government) • R.S. Ruikar was the first president.
operating within an external environment.

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Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC): Q38. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
• Trade union wing of the Indian National Congress, 1946:
established on 3rd May 1948. • The term “industrial establishment” includes:
Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS): o An industrial establishment as defined in the
• Founded on 23rd July 1955 under the leadership of Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
Dattopantji Thengdi. o A factory as defined in the Factories Act, 1948.
Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA): o A railway as defined in the Indian Railway Act,
• A registered trade union with about a million 1890.
women workers in the informal sector. o The establishment of a person who employs
• Founded in 1972 by Ela Bhatt, a lawyer and union workmen to fulfill a contract with the owner of
organizer. any industrial establishment.
Hence, option D is correct answer. Hence, option D is correct answer.

Q36. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies to employees Q39. Trade Union Act, 1926:
with wages not exceeding ₹24,000 per month. • “Office-bearer” in a Trade Union refers to any
• “Wages” includes all monetary compensation executive member, but does not include an auditor.
(salary, allowances, etc.) payable to an employee • Any 7 or more members of a Trade Union can
for their work, including wages due under apply for registration by subscribing their names
employment contracts (both explicit and implied), to the union’s rules and meeting the requirements
remuneration under awards, settlements, or court outlined in the law.
orders, and remuneration for overtime, holidays, • The Registrar must provide at least 2 months’
or leave periods. notice in writing to the Trade Union, specifying the
• No wage period shall exceed 1 month. grounds for withdrawal or cancellation, unless the
• The maximum fine that can be imposed on an withdrawal is requested by the Trade Union itself.
employer in any wage period is limited to 3% of • At least 1/2 of the total number of office-bearers
the employee’s wages for that period. in every registered Trade Union must work in the
• Employers must maintain registers and records industry associated with the union.
with specific details about their employees, work Hence, option D is correct answer.
performed, wages paid, deductions, receipts, and
other prescribed particulars. These records must Q40. The Factories Act, 1948 empowers the State
be kept for a minimum of 3 years after the last Government to establish a Site Appraisal Committee
entry. to assess applications for setting up or expanding
Hence, option C is correct answer. factories involving hazardous processes.
• The State Government can form a Site Appraisal
Q37. Central Advisory Board: This board is constituted Committee to evaluate applications for establishing
under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, to: or expanding factories with hazardous processes.
o Advise the Central and State Governments on • The committee includes:
the fixation and revision of minimum wages. o The Chief Inspector of the State as Chairman.
o Coordinate the work of the Advisory Boards. o A representative of the Central Board for the
o It comprises equal numbers of employer and Prevention and Control of Water Pollution,
employee representatives, with up to one- appointed by the Central Government.
third independent members nominated by the o A representative of the Central Board for the
Central Government. Prevention and Control of Air Pollution.
o The Chairman is an independent member of o A representative of the State Board, appointed
the board. under Section 4 of the Water (Prevention and
Hence, option A is correct answer. Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

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o A representative of the State Board for the or permitted to work in any establishment or class of
Prevention and Control of Air Pollution. establishments.
o A representative of the Department of • These rules may cover any of the following matters:
Environment in the State. Health and Safety Provisions:
o A representative of the Meteorological • Cleanliness in the workplace and freedom from
Department of the Government of India. nuisance.
o An expert in the field of occupational health. • Disposal of wastes and effluents.
o A representative of the Town Planning • Ventilation and temperature control.
Department of the State Government.
• Dust and fumes management.
o Not more than five additional members co-
• Artificial humidification control.
opted by the State Government, who may
include: • Adequate lighting.
o A scientist with specialized knowledge of the • Availability of drinking water.
hazardous process involved in the factory. • Provision of latrines and urinals.
o A representative of the local authority • Installation of spittoons.
within whose jurisdiction the factory is to be • Fencing of machinery for safety.
established.
• Safe work at or near machinery in motion.
o Up to three other persons deemed fit by the
State Government. • Regulating the employment of adolescents on
dangerous machines.
• The Site Appraisal Committee shall:
• Instructions, training, and supervision for
o Examine applications for the establishment of adolescents on dangerous machines.
factories involving hazardous processes.
• Use of a device for cutting off power.
o Make recommendations to the State
• Availability of self-acting machines.
Government within 90 days of receiving the
application. • Easing the use of new machinery.
Hence, option A is correct answer. • Safe floor, stairs, and means of access.
• Safety around pits, sumps, and floor openings.
Q41. Statement [B] is incorrect: As per the Industrial • Management of excessive weights.
Disputes Act, 1947, the Works Committee is mandated
in establishments with 100 or more workmen employed • Protection of eyes.
(or employed in the preceding 12 months), not 50 or • Prevention of explosive or inflammable dust, gas,
more workmen. etc.
• Statement [A] is correct: The definition of Lock-out • Precautions in case of fire.
under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, involves • Maintenance of buildings.
the temporary closing of a place of employment or
• Safety of buildings and machinery
refusal to employ workers.
Hence, option C is correct answer.
• Statement [C] is correct: The Act allows the
appropriate Government to set up a Board of
Q43. 1-A: Under the Inter-State Migrant Workmen
Conciliation with a Chairman and 2 or 4 other
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
members to resolve industrial disputes.
Act, 1979, Licensing Officers are designated to regulate
• Statement [D] is correct: The Second Schedule employment conditions.
under the Act lists matters within the jurisdiction
• 2-B: The Factories Act, 1948, requires the
of Labour Courts.
appointment of Welfare Officers in factories
Hence, option B is correct answer. to ensure employee welfare measures are
implemented.
Q42. The appropriate Government may frame rules
• 3-C: The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, mandates
for the health and safety of adolescents employed

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the establishment of a Works Committee in Q46. Mass: A scalar quantity as it only has magnitude.
industrial establishments with 100 or more • Speed: A scalar quantity representing the rate of
workmen. motion without direction.
• 4-D: The Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition • Time: A scalar quantity as it does not have a
and Regulation) Act, 1986, mentions the formation directional component.
of a Technical Advisory Committee to aid in
technical matters related to the Act. • Force: A vector quantity because it has
both magnitude (how strong it is) and direction (the
Hence, option C is correct answer. way it acts). It also obeys the triangle law of vector
addition.
Q44. Under the Inter-State Migrant Workmen
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Hence, option C is correct answer.
Act, 1979, the term “Workman” includes persons
employed in skilled, semi-skilled, unskilled, manual, Q47. The formula for centripetal force is:
supervisory, technical, or clerical roles. F = mv2/R
• However, it explicitly excludes persons employed Where:
in a managerial or administrative capacity or • m = 1000kg
those employed in a supervisory capacity and
• v = 20 m/s
drawing wages exceeding ₹500 per month.
• R = 50 m
Hence, option D is correct answer.
Substitute the values:
Q45. As per the Contract Labour (Regulation and F = 1000 x (20)2 / 50
Abolition) Act, 1970, the appropriate Government must F = 1000 x 400/50 = 8000 N
give at least 2 months’ notice before extending the
Hence, option D is correct answer.
provisions of the Act to establishments or contractors
employing less than 20 workmen.
Q48. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
Applicability of the Act
• Discovery: Frederic Meischer was the first to
• Applies to every establishment in which 20 or more isolate DNA from the nucleus of pus cells.
workmen are employed or were employed on any
• DNA is a macromolecule containing a large number
day of the preceding 12 months as contract labour.
of nucleotides.
• Applies to every contractor who employs or
• Chemical Composition:
employed 20 or more workmen on any day of the
preceding 12 months. • A nucleotide consists of three components:
• Does not apply to establishments where only work o Nitrogen base
of an intermittent or casual nature is performed. o Sugar
• If a question arises whether work performed in o Phosphate group
an establishment is of an intermittent or casual Nitrogen Bases:
nature, the appropriate Government shall decide
• Two types of nitrogen bases:
that question after consultation with the Central
Board or a State Board, and its decision shall be • Purines: Adenine and Guanine.
final. • Pyrimidines: Thymine and Cytosine.
o Work performed in an establishment shall not • Thus, there are four types of nucleotides present
be deemed to be of an intermittent nature if it in DNA.
was performed for more than 120 days in the Structural Model of DNA (proposed by Watson and
preceding 12 months. Crick):
o Work of a seasonal character shall not be • DNA is composed of two polynucleotide strands
deemed intermittent if it is performed for more forming a double helix.
than 60 days in a year.
• Each strand has a backbone of sugar and phosphate,
Hence, option B is correct answer. with nitrogen bases attached to the sugar.

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• Nitrogen bases of the two strands form pairs Q51. Stearic acid is a saturated fatty acid found
through hydrogen bonds: abundantly in animal fats (e.g., beef tallow, pork fat)
• Adenine pairs with Thymine. and certain vegetable oils (e.g., cocoa butter, shea
butter).
• Guanine pairs with Cytosine.
• Apples, sour milk, and grapes do not contain
• Adenine and Thymine are complementary, while significant amounts of stearic acid as they are
Cytosine and Guanine are complementary. primarily sources of carbohydrates, proteins, or
• The hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases other organic acids, not saturated fatty acids.
holds the two strands together, resembling the Hence, option C is correct answer.
steps of a spiral staircase.
Functions of DNA: Q52. Vulcanization of rubber involves treating natural
• Contains genetic information in a coded form. rubber with sulphur or sulphur compounds under
heat.
• Synthesizes RNA.
• This process enhances the strength, elasticity,
Note: and durability of rubber, making it suitable for
• DNA is primarily found in the nucleus. manufacturing items like tyres, gloves, and rubber
• In smaller amounts, it is also found in mitochondria bands.
and chloroplasts. • Carbon, phosphorus, and nitrogen are not used in
Hence, option B is correct answer. this process.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q49. Statement 1 is correct: Xylem primarily facilitates
the upward movement of water and minerals absorbed Q53. Carbon is oxidized as its oxidation state increases
by the roots to the stem and leaves. from 0 in elemental carbon to +4 in carbon dioxide.
• Statement 2 is correct: Phloem conducts food, • Oxygen is reduced as its oxidation state decreases
primarily sugars produced during photosynthesis, from 0 in elemental oxygen to -2 in carbon
to other parts of the plant through a process dioxide. Options B, C, and D do not correctly
called translocation. describe the changes in oxidation states.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Xylem tissue consists Hence, option A is correct answer.
mostly of dead cells (e.g., tracheids and vessels),
whereas phloem consists of living cells (e.g., sieve Q54. 1-HCl (B): Used in the tanning of leather.
tubes and companion cells). • 2-HNO₃ (C): Used in the manufacture of rayon.
Hence, option A is correct answer. • 3-H₂SO₄ (A): Used in lead storage batteries.
Q50. Auxin, Cytokinin, and Gibberellin are plant • 4-H₃PO₄ (D): PO₄³⁻ provides energy for chemical
hormones: reactions in cells.
• Auxin promotes cell elongation, root initiation, Hence, option A is correct answer.
and phototropism.
Q55. Option C: Correct – Soaps react with calcium and
• Cytokinin aids in cell division and delays leaf magnesium ions in hard water to form insoluble salts
senescence. (scum), reducing their cleaning efficiency. Detergents,
• Gibberellin supports stem elongation, seed being synthetic, are designed to remain effective in
germination, and flowering. both hard and soft water.
• Oxytocin is a natural hormone that manages key • Option A: Incorrect – Soaps are made from natural
aspects of the female and male reproductive fats and oils, while detergents are derived from
systems, including labor and delivery and lactation, petroleum-based chemicals.
as well as aspects of human behaviour. • Option B: Incorrect – Both soaps and detergents
Hence, option D is correct answer. have polar ionic groups, enabling their cleaning
action.

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• Option D: Incorrect – Soaps are biodegradable, was one of the reasons for the Revolt of 1857.
whereas many detergents are non-biodegradable, Hence, option C is correct answer.
causing environmental harm.
Hence, option C is correct answer. Q57. Civilian Participation – Story of Shah Mal
• The sacrifices made by the common masses during
Q56. Pitt’s India Act 1784 the Revolt of 1857 were immense and innumerable.
• The aim of Pitt’s India Act was to remove the • Shah Mal, a local villager in Pargana Baraut
weaknesses of the Regulating Act of 1773 and (Baghpat, Uttar Pradesh), is a notable figure who
bring the Company’s administration in India under led civilian participation against British rule.
the supreme control of the British Parliament.
• He organized the headmen and peasants of 84
• It was William Pitt, the then Prime Minister of villages (referred to as chaurasi desh) and marched
Great Britain (1783–1801), who introduced an at night, urging people to rebel against British
India Bill, later known as Pitt’s India Act hegemony.
Salient Features of Pitt’s India Act of 1784 • Under his leadership, people attacked government
• The Act introduced a form of ‘Double Government’, buildings, destroyed bridges over rivers, and dug
allowing the Court of Directors to manage the up metalled roads:
Company’s commercial affairs. • This was done to stop government forces from
• For political affairs, the Act appointed a Board of entering the area (Scorched Earth Policy).
six Commissioners, known as the Board of Control, • Bridges and roads were also viewed as symbols of
which included: British rule.
• The Chancellor of Exchequer, a Secretary of State, • Shah Mal sent supplies to the mutineers in Delhi
and four Privy Councillors. and prevented official communication between
• All members were appointed by the King. British headquarters and Meerut.
• The Board’s approval was necessary for all • He established his headquarters at a bungalow
dispatches that were not purely commercial. of the irrigation department on the banks of the
Yamuna, from where he supervised and controlled
• The Act subordinated the civil and military operations.
Government of the Company to the Government
in England. • The bungalow was turned into a “hall of justice”,
where disputes were resolved, and judgments
• This arrangement continued until 1858, with the dispensed.
President of the Board of Control responsible for
• In July 1857, Shah Mal was killed by an English
the Government of British India until succeeded in
officer, Dunlap.
1858 by the Secretary of State for India.
• It is alleged that his body was cut into pieces and
• The number of members in the Governor-
his head displayed on July 21, 1857, to terrify the
General’s Council was reduced to three, enabling
public.
the Governor-General (GG) to proceed if supported
by even one Council member. • Despite his death, the rebels continued their
struggle for more than a year against heavy odds.
• The power of GG-in-Council over subordinate
presidencies was extended to include all matters Hence, option D is correct answer.
of war, diplomatic relations, and revenue.
Q58. Prominent Moderate Leaders
• The GG and Council were made subordinate to the
British Government and were forbidden to declare Dadabhai Naoroji
war without prior sanction of the directors. • Known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India.’
• The Act introduced the principle of non- • Became the first Indian to become a member of
intervention in the affairs of Indian Princely states the House of Commons in Britain.
to end further wars and conquests. • Authored ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India,’
• However, this provision was often breached, highlighting the economic drain of India due to
leading to continuous wars and conquests, and British policies, which led to an official enquiry.

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Womesh Chandra Bannerjee • Developed indigenously without external

• First President of the Indian National Congress influences.
(INC). • Used spotted red sandstone as the primary
• A lawyer by profession and the first Indian to act as material.
Standing Counsel. • The themes incorporated Hinduism, Buddhism,
G. Subramanya Aiyar and Jainism, showcasing syncretism.
• Founded ‘The Hindu’ newspaper, where he • Patronized by Kushana rulers.
criticised British imperialism. • Represented Buddha in a delighted mood with a
• Also founded the Tamil newspaper smiling face, emphasizing humanized features.
‘Swadesamitran.’ Amaravati School:
• Co-founded the Madras Mahajan Sabha. • Flourished in the Krishna-Godavari lower valley,
Gopal Krishna Gokhale including Vengi, Amaravati, and Nagarjunakonda.
• Regarded as Mahatma Gandhi’s political guru. • Developed indigenously, like the Mathura School.
• Founded the Servants of India Society. • Used white marble for sculptures.
• Associated with the Sarvajanik Sabha journal • Themes primarily revolved around Buddhist
started by Govind Ranade. influence with a focus on narrating the life stories
of Buddha.
• In 1908, founded the Ranade Institute of
Economics. • Patronized by Satavahana rulers.
• Started the English weekly newspaper ‘The • Focused less on individual features of Buddha,
Hitavada’ (The People’s Paper). emphasizing narrative expressions instead.
Surendranath Banerjee Hence, option D is correct answer.
• Known as ‘Rashtraguru’ and ‘Indian Burke.’ Q60. CHANDELAS
• Founded the Indian National Association, which • During the tenth and eleventh centuries, the
later merged with the INC. Chandellas were the greatest power in Central
• Cleared the Indian Civil Service but was discharged India. They were great builders of temples, tanks,
due to racial discrimination. forts, palaces, etc.
• Founded the newspaper ‘The Bengalee.’ • The Chandellas constructed towering temples in
Hence, option A is correct answer. central India, like the Kandariya Mahadev temple
and Laxman temple at Khajuraho. These temples
Q59. Gandhara School: were sculpted with human representations of
endless variety. The sculptor preferred slender,
• Developed in the North-West frontiers of India. taller figures with a considerable accentuation of
• Influenced by Indo-Greek art and Hellenistic linear details.
elements. • The sculptures of Khajuraho are great masterpieces
• Initially used bluish-grey sandstone but later of Indian sculptural art. Khajuraho, the capital of
incorporated mud and stucco. the Chandellas, was a principal site of sculptural
• The theme was centred around Buddhist imagery. activity and marked a high point of building activity.
• Patronized by Kushana rulers. • The Khajuraho temples are famous for their erotic
relief panels, which may illustrate the tantrik
• Depicted Buddha in a spiritual state with wavy practices of certain medieval cults. These temples
hair, fewer ornaments, a meditative posture, and reveal the many charms of the female body in
half-closed eyes signifying omniscience. most contorted and provocative poses. Geometric
Mathura School: and floral designs are also abundant.
• Originated in and around Mathura, Sonkh, and Hence, option B is correct answer.
Kankalitila.

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Q61. HOYSALA SCHOOL OF TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE • The vertical end of the shikhara ended in a
• Region and Origin: In the Karnataka region near horizontal fluted disc, known as the Amalak.
Mysore, the temples built under the Hoysala rulers • On top of the Amalak, a spherical shape was
developed a distinct style known as the Hoysala placed, known as the Kalash.
School of Architecture. • Latina or Rekha-Prasad: Square at the base with
• Platform Design: The temples were built on an walls curving inward to a point at the top.
upraised platform known as Jagati, which was • Phamsana: Broader base, shorter in height than
about 1 metre high. the Latina ones, with upward-sloping straight lines.
• Ground Plan: Unlike the cruciform ground plan • Valabhi: Rectangular base with roofs rising into
of the Panchayatan style, the shrines followed a vaulted chambers, also called wagon-vaulted
stellate plan (star-shaped) with intricately designed roofs.
walls and stairs arranged in a zigzag pattern.
• Inside the temple, the wall was divided into three
• Materials Used: The primary building material was vertical planes called rathas. These were known as
soft soapstone (Chlorite schist). triratha temples.
• Decoration of Temples: A massive emphasis was • Later, pancharatha, saptaratha, and even navaratha
placed on decorating the temples with intricate temples came into existence. The vertical planes
sculptures. Both interior and exterior walls, as well were used as panels for narrative sculptures.
as the jewelry worn by the deities, were intricately
• The ambulatory passageway or the pradakshina
carved.
path around the sanctum sanctorum was covered.
• Shikhar Design: All chambers featured Shikharas
• Generally, the temple premises did not have
interconnected by an arrangement of horizontal
elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
lines and moldings, which created an orderly
succession of tiers. Dravidian Architecture
• Prominent Examples: Hoyasaleshwara Temple in • High Boundary Walls: Unlike the Nagara temples,
Halebid and Channakesava Temple in Belur are Dravidian temples were surrounded by high
prime examples of this architectural style. boundary walls.
Hence, option B is correct answer. • Gateways (Gopuram): The front wall had a high
entrance gateway, known as the Gopuram.
Q62. 1-C: The Yakshi figure from Didarganj, Patna, is a • Panchayatan Style: The temple premise was laid
famous representation of Mauryan art, known for its out in the panchayatan style, with a principal
polished surface and elaborate craftsmanship. temple and four subsidiary shrines.
• 2-B: The Buddha image at Sultanganj, Bihar, is an Vimana & Shikhara:
iconic piece of Gupta art, reflecting the elegance
• Linearly rising spire in the form of a stepped
and refinement of Gupta-era sculptures.
pyramid was known as the Vimana.
• 3-A: The Siddheshvara Mahadeva Temple in
• The Kalasha in Dravidian temples was known as
Barakar is a significant example of Pala art,
Shikhara and was octagonal.
which primarily focused on temples and intricate
sculptural forms. • Only one vimana was present on top of the main
temple in Dravidian architecture.
• 4-D: The Nataraja sculpture at Ravana Phadi cave,
Aihole, is associated with the Cholas, showcasing Garbhagriha:
their mastery in depicting dynamic forms and • The assembly hall was connected with the
religious symbolism. garbhagriha by a vestibular tunnel called antarala.
Hence, option D is correct answer. • The entrance of the garbhagriha had sculptures of
Dwaarpal, Mithun, and Yakshas.
Q63. Nagara School of Architecture • Water Tank: Presence of a water tank inside the
Types of Shikhara: temple enclosure was a unique feature of the
• Additionally, there were 3 main types of Shikharas Dravidian style.
in the Nagara School of Architecture. Hence, option C is correct answer.

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Q64. No person can be detained in custody without Q66. The PESA Act, 1996, was enacted based on
being informed of the grounds of arrest nor can they the recommendations of the Dileep Singh Bhuria
be denied the right to consult or be defended by a legal Committee to empower tribals and bring them into the
practitioner. mainstream.
• Every person who is arrested or detained in custody • It extends the provisions of Part IX of the
must be produced before a magistrate within 24 Constitution relating to Panchayats to Scheduled
hours of such an arrest. Areas of 10 states under Article 244(1) read
• The above two clauses do not apply to a person with Schedule 5, with specific modifications and
detained under a law providing for preventive exceptions.
detention. • The Act empowers state legislatures to frame laws
• No person can be detained for more than a period regarding its implementation.
of three months unless an advisory board confirms • Presently, 10 states with Fifth Schedule Areas
there is sufficient cause for the continuation of are Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,
such detention. Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
• A person can be preventively detained for more Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana.
than three months without the opinion of • Eight states (excluding Jharkhand and Odisha)
an advisory board if Parliament by law provides have framed and notified their State PESA Rules
the maximum period of such detention and under their respective State Panchayati Raj Acts.
specifies the circumstances, classes of persons, • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal ministry
and cases to which such a law may apply. responsible for implementing PESA provisions in
Hence, option A is correct answer. the states.
• The PESA Act is referred to as a “Constitution
Q65. No-confidence motion is a legislative resolution within the Constitution.”
introduced in the Lok Sabha that allows the Opposition
to challenge the government’s majority. Hence, option B is correct answer.
• If a No-confidence motion is passed, the Q67. Key Features of the Mediation Act, 2023
government of the day must resign.
• Mediation allows parties to amicably settle
• The motion of No-confidence can only be moved in disputes with the help of a mediator.
the Lok Sabha.
• Provides for voluntary pre-litigation mediation.
• Article 75(3) of the Constitution states that the
Council of Ministers is collectively responsible • Excludes disputes involving minors, persons of
to the Lok Sabha, while at the state level, Article unsound mind, and criminal prosecution.
164(2) provides that the Council of Ministers is • Makes mediation agreements enforceable as court
collectively responsible to the State Legislative judgments.
Assembly. • Establishes the Mediation Council of India (MCI)
• Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of for registering mediators.
Business in Lok Sabha provides for the motion of • Stipulates that mediation should be completed
No-confidence. within 120 days.
• A Motion of No-confidence does not need to set Hence, option C is correct answer.
out any grounds on which it is based.
• Unless leave is granted by the House to move the Q68. Tenure of a Supreme Court Judge in India
motion, no speech is permitted in support of the • The Indian Constitution does not prescribe a
motion. specific tenure for a Supreme Court judge.
• After a No-confidence Motion has been discussed • Article 124 of the Constitution contains the
and negated by the House, another No-confidence following provisions:
Motion cannot be moved in the same session.
• A Supreme Court judge shall hold office until they
Hence, option C is correct answer. attain the age of 65 years.

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• Any question regarding the judge’s age is • State Election Commissioner of the concerned
determined by an authority as provided by state.
Parliament. Hence, option D is correct answer.
• A judge can resign by submitting a written
resignation to the President. Q72. History of the Commission
• The President can remove a judge from office if • The origin of NCBC is linked to the Indra Sawhney
Parliament recommends their removal. vs. Union of India case, 1992 (Mandal case).
Hence, option B is correct answer. • In this case, the Supreme Court directed the Central
Government to establish a permanent statutory
Q69. Temple Regulation in India body to examine all matters related to Backward
• Legal and Institutional Framework to Regulate Classes.
Temples • The NCBC was established in 1993 under the NCBC
• Article 25(1): Provides freedom of religion. Act, 1993.
• Article 26: Grants freedom to manage religious • In 2018, the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
affairs. conferred Constitutional status on NCBC.
• Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments • The amendment introduced a new Article 338-B
(HR&CE): in the Indian Constitution.
• Several states have enacted legislative and Hence, option C is correct answer.
regulatory frameworks for temple management.
• Hindu Religious Endowments Commission (1960): Q73. 11 × 11 = 121
• Declared that government control over temples • 111 × 111 = 12321
was essential to prevent maladministration. • 1111 × 1111 = 1234321
Hence, option A is correct answer. • Following the same pattern, we get: (1111 …. 9
times) × (1111 …. 9 times) = 12345678987654321
Q70. Ordinance-Making Power of the President
• Sum of the digits of the resulting number = 2 × (1
• Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers + 2 + 3 + …. + 8) + 9 = 2 × [8 × 9/2] + 9 = 72 + 9 = 81
the President to promulgate ordinances during the
recess of Parliament. • [Sum of first n natural numbers = n (n + 1)/2]
• Ordinances are temporary laws but have the same Hence, the correct answer is option C.
force as laws enacted by Parliament.
Q74. Let the cost price of the mobile phone in 2016 be
Need for Ordinance-Making Rs. x.
• This power is vested in the President to address According to the question,
unforeseen or urgent matters.
x + x (20/100) = 24000
• The President can legislate through ordinances
or x + x/5 = 24000
when it is not possible to have a Parliamentary
enactment on the subject immediately. or 6x/5 = 24000
Hence, option B is correct answer. or x = Rs. 20000
Profit in 2016 = 24000 - 20000 = Rs. 4000
Q71. Composition of the Delimitation Commission Selling price in 2017 = 24000 [1+ (12.5/100)] = 24000 ×
• The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the 9/8 = Rs. 27000
President of India Profit in 2017 = 4000 × 125/100= Rs. 5000
• The Commission consists of three ex-officio
So, Cost price in 2017 = 27000 - 5000 = Rs. 22000
members:
In the year 2018, cost price was the same as it was in
• Chairperson: A retired judge of the Supreme Court. 2017, and profit increased by 20% of what it was in
• Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) or an Election 2017.
Commissioner nominated by the CEC. Cost price in 2018 = Rs. 22000

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Profit in 2018 = 5000 × 120/100 = Rs. 6000 Q77. Milk in vessel A at the beginning = 40 liters and
Selling price in 2018 = 22000 + 6000 = Rs. 28000 water = 0 liters
Hence, option A is the correct answer. Water in vessel B at beginning 40 liters and
milk = 0 liters
Q75. Let, pipe P1 fills P1 part of the pool in 1 hour, and
At First 8 liters of milk is taken out from vessel A
pipe P2 fills P2 part of the pool in 1 hour.
and mixed in vessel B, so
Pipes P1 and P2 can fill the pool completely in 12 hours.
Milk in vessel B= 8 lit and water= 40 liters
Therefore, part of the pool filled by pipes P1 and P2
together, in 12 hours = 12 (P1 + P2) So, ratio= 8: 40 = 1: 5
Since, the pool is completely filled in 12 hours, hence Milk in vessel A = 40 - 8 = 32 liters
half part will be filled in 6 hours. Now, Milk is 12 liters of the mixture of B = 12 ×1/6 = 2
Therefore, part of the pool filled by both pipes P1 and liters
P2 in 6 hours = 6 (P1+P2) water = 12 ×5/6 = 10 liters
Now, according to the question So, the water in vessel A=10 liters and milk in
Since, pipe P1 was opened for 5 hours and Pipe P2 was vessel A = 32+2 = 34 liters
opened for 10 hours. Milk in vessel B = 8 - 2 = 6
∴ 6 (P1+P2) = 5P1 + 10P2 So, ratio = 34: 6 = 17:3
or 6P1 + 6P2 = 5P1 + 10P2 Hence, option B is the correct answer.
or P1 = 4P2
As we know P1 and P2 can fill the pool in 12 hours. Q78. According to question, four-digit numbers are to
be formed. From the conditions given for the four
Let the work done in filling the pool be 1 unit.
positions (digits) of the number, we get:
∴ 12(P1+P2) = 1
5 cannot come at the first place. So, 6, 7 and 8 can
or 12(4P2 +P2) = 1 appear there.
or 12 x 5P2 = 1 8 is not to appear at the last place. So, 5, 6 and 7 can
or 60 P2 = 1 appear there.
So, P2 = 1/60 6 and 7 are not to immediately follow each other, i.e.,
So, P2 alone can fill the pool in 60 hours. they cannot be together. So, 67 and 76 are not
allowed.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
5 is not to be immediately followed by 7. So, 57 is not
Q76. Speed of ship upstream = 40 – 10 = 30 kmph allowed.
Speed of ship in still water = 40 kmph List of possible numbers - 6875, 6587, 7586, 7856,
7865 and 8756.
Time taken by the ship to reach its destination when it
sails upstream = distance covered /upstream speed = Hence, six such numbers can be formed.
120/30 = 4 hours Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Time taken by the ship to reach its destination, when it
sails in still water = distance covered/speed of ship in Q79. Sum of the weight of the first eight students =
still water = 120/40 = 3 hours 150 × 8 = 1200
Extra time taken = 4 - 3 = 1 hour Sum of the weight of the last ten students is = (150 +
10) × 10 = 160 × 10 = 1600
Percentage of extra time the ship will take to reach
its destination when it sails upstream than that in still Average weight of rest of two students = 300
water (i.e., Percent increase in time) = (1/3) × 100 = So, the sum of the last two students is = 300 × 2 = 600
(100/3) %
So, the sum of weight of all students is = 1200 + 1600
Hence, option B is the correct answer. + 600 = 3400

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So, the average weight of all the students is = 3400/20 X and Y are integers. So, X – Y can be any value (positive,
= 170 kg. negative or zero). Thus statement 1 is
Then the 40% of the average weight of all students = incorrect.
170 × 40/100 = 68 kg. X and Y are integers. So, X + Y can be an even number,
Hence the required answer is = 170 kg and 68 kg odd number, zero or negative integer. Thus
Hence, option D is the correct answer. statement 2 is incorrect too.
X and Y are integers. If X is greater than Y, then X/Y will
Q80. Here we have to select, i.e., it’s a question of be an improper fraction. If Y is greater than X,
combination (and not permutation), as the order of
then X/Y will be a proper fraction. Thus statement 3 is
the players do not matter.
incorrect.
As the team must have at least 5 bowlers, two cases
Therefore, none of the given statement is correct.
emerge:
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Case I: Team has 5 bowlers and 6 batsmen.
Number of ways of choosing such a team = Number Q83. Let the quantities of Assam tea, Darjeeling tea and
of ways of choosing 5 bowlers out of 6 available and Nilgiri tea in the mixture be x, y and z kg respectively.
6 batsmen out of 7 available = 6C5 × 7C6 = 6 × 7 = 42.
Total cost of Assam tea = price (per kg) × quantity = 24x
Case II: Team has 6 bowlers and 5 batsmen.
Total cost of Darjeeling tea = 28y
Number of ways of choosing such a team = Number
Total cost of Nilgiri tea = 34z
of ways of choosing 6 bowlers out of 6 available and 5
batsmen out of 7 available = 6C6 × 7C5 = 1 × 21 = 21. Total cost of the mixture = 24x + 28y + 34z
Hence, total possible ways = 42 + 21 = 63. Now, Actual cost of the mixture per kg = (30 /120) ×
100 = Rs. 25/ kg
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Total quantity of the tea = (x+ y+ z)
Q81. Given: x + y = 36 Therefore, total cost of the mixture = 25(x+ y+ z)
Statement 1: Taking x = 37 and y = – 1 According to the question,
x + y = 37 + (– 1) = 36 24x + 28y + 34z = 25 (x+ y+ z)
Hence, statement 1 is not true because one of x or y or 24x – 25x + 28y – 25y + 34z – 25z = 0
can be negative. or 3y + 9z - x = 0 ....... (i)
Statement 2: Taking x = 35 and y = 1 It’s given that, quantity of Assam tea in the mixture
x + y = 35 + 1 = 36 was 6 kg more than 3 times the sum of the quantities
Hence, statement 2 is not true because y can be of other two varieties in the mixture.
positive even if x is positive. x = 3 (y +z) + 6
Statement 3: It must be true because y has to be or x - 3 (y +z) = 6
positive if x is negative. Only then their summation can or x - 3y - 3z = 6 .............. (ii)
be positive. Adding equations (i) and (ii), we get:
For example, taking x = – 12 and y = 48 6z = 6
x + y = – 12 + 48 = 36 or z = 1 kg
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Quantity of Nilgiris tea in that mixture = 1 kg
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Q82. Integers: An integer is a set of numbers containing
whole numbers and negative numbers. Integers can be
Q84. Male : Female = 3 : 2
positive and negative. For example: -5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0,
1, 2, 3 ....... Total age of the company = 48 × 30 = 1440
Whole numbers: Whole numbers are positive numbers, Number of male employees in the company =
including zero, without any decimal or fraction. 3/5 × 30 = 18

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Number of female employees in the company = Hence, option D is the correct answer.
2/5 × 30 = 12   
Q88. Statement 1: “It was established under the
Total age of female employees = 52.5 × 12 = 630 provisions of the RBI Act, 1934, as amended in 2016.”
Total age of male = 1440 – 630 = 810 • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was
Average age of male employees = 810/18 = 45 years constituted by amending the Reserve Bank of
Hence, option C is the correct answer. India Act, 1934 through the Finance Act of 2016.
• It was formally notified in 2016 and came into
Q85. Capacity or volume of cylinder = 𝜋r2h force to make decisions on setting the policy (repo)
From I => rate to control inflation.
Area of The Base of cylinder = 𝜋r2 Statement 2: “The committee comprises 6 members,
out of which 3 are appointed by the Central
𝜋r2 = 15400 Government.”
=> r = 70cm • The MPC has 6 members:
This statement is not sufficient to answer the question. • 3 members from RBI:
From II • RBI Governor (Chairperson)
=> h = 2r • Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy
This statement is not sufficient to answer the question. • One RBI officer nominated by the Governor
From III • 3 external members appointed by the Central
=> Circumference of base of cylinder = 2𝜋r = 440 Government, selected for a four-year term.
=> r = 70cm Statement 3: “The MPC is primarily responsible for
This statement is not sufficient to answer the question. deciding India’s Fiscal Deficit targets.”
From I and II • Fiscal Deficit targets are related to fiscal policy,
which is under the domain of the Ministry of
=> we get r = 70cm and h = 140cm Finance.
Capacity = 𝜋r2h = 3.14×70×70×140 = 215600 cm2 • MPC is concerned with monetary policy,
Both statement I and II is necessary to answer the particularly inflation targeting through interest
question. rate decisions (like the repo rate).
From II and III • Hence, deciding fiscal deficit targets is not a
=>we get r = 70cm and h = 140cm function of the MPC.
Capacity = 𝜋r2h = 3.14×70×70×140 = 215600 cm2 Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Both statement II and III is necessary to answer the Q89. Statement 1: “It is primarily concerned with
question. government revenue and expenditure.”
Hence, option D is the correct answer. • Fiscal Policy refers to the use of government
revenue collection (taxation) and expenditure
Q86. 25 + 12 = 37 > total number of persons i.e. 34 (spending) to influence the economy.
Total number of persons between them = (25 + 12) – • It is primarily used to stabilize the economy,
34 –2 = 1   manage public debt, stimulate economic growth,
Hence, there is only one person between them. and control inflation or deflation.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • It is an essential tool for macroeconomic
management.
Q87. Clearly, 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th and 31st December Statement 2: “It is implemented by the Reserve Bank
1990 are Sundays. of India.”
So, 1st January 1991 is Monday and 3rd January 1991 • Fiscal Policy is the responsibility of the Ministry of
is Wednesday Finance, Government of India, not the RBI.

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• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) implements bridging gaps in access to education, healthcare,
monetary policy, which deals with money supply, and income.
interest rates, and inflation control. • Equity ensures that growth benefits all sections of
Statement 3: “One of its key objectives is income society equally.
redistribution.” Sustainability
• Fiscal policy plays an important role in reducing • Sustainability means ensuring that development
income inequality by: meets present needs without compromising
• Progressive taxation (taxing the rich more than the future generations.
poor) • It includes environmental protection, sustainable
• Targeted government spending (e.g., subsidies, use of natural resources, and long-term planning.
social welfare schemes for the poor) • Human development must not lead to depletion
• This helps in promoting inclusive growth and of natural resources or degradation of life quality
reducing economic disparities. in the long run.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. Empowerment
• Empowerment is about increasing people’s
Q90. Population Density refers to the number of freedom and capacity to make life choices.
people living per square kilometre of area. It is a • It includes access to education, healthcare,
measure used to understand how densely populated a information, and political participation.
region is.
• A society where individuals, especially women and
• As per Census 2011, the population density of marginalized groups, are empowered tends to be
India was: more just and inclusive.
o 382 persons per sq. km. Productivity
o Below are the top states with highest • Productivity in human development refers to
population density as per Census 2011: increasing people’s capabilities to contribute
economically and socially.
Population Density
State • It involves investing in human capital (like health
(persons/sq km)
and education) to boost economic productivity
Bihar 1,106
and efficiency.
West Bengal 1,028 • A healthy, educated, and skilled population
Kerala 859 enhances overall national growth.
Uttar Pradesh 828 Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Q92. Risk refers to the possibility of loss arising from
uncertain future events. It is not about gains or
Q91. The concept of Human Development was
certainties, but about potential adverse outcomes. This
introduced in the Human Development Report (HDR)
distinguishes it from mere uncertainty, which does not
1990 by the United Nations Development Programme
always involve the possibility of loss.
(UNDP).
• It is quantifiable and can be managed or mitigated
• It focuses not just on economic growth, but on
through strategies like insurance, diversification,
enhancing people’s well-being, capabilities, and
or hedging, whereas uncertainty is more difficult
opportunities.
to predict or measure, and may not necessarily
• The four main pillars of Human Development are: involve the potential for a loss.
Equity Hence option C is correct answer.
• Equity means ensuring fair access to opportunities
and resources for all, regardless of gender, caste, Q93. Option C is correct. Statutory audit aims to
ethnicity, or socioeconomic background. provide assurance that the financial statements show
a “true and fair view” of the company’s position as on
• It focuses on removing discrimination and
the balance sheet date.

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• Option A: Incorrect – The Companies Act, 2013 • Statement 2 (Incorrect): Movement of raw
makes statutory audit mandatory for companies, materials between departments is internal to the
especially joint-stock companies. organization.
• Option B: Incorrect – Statutory audits are required • Statement 4 (Incorrect): Movement of goods
not just for private businesses but also for public between company-owned locations is internal.
institutions, municipalities, trusts, banks, insurance Hence, option B is the correct answer.
companies, etc., as per different statutes.
• Option D: Incorrect – Statutory audits are not Q97. Non-Current Liability. A non-current liability is
limited to tax purposes; they serve broader one that is payable after more than one year, so a 10-
purposes like compliance, transparency, credibility, year loan fits this category.
and legal accountability. • Option A (Incorrect): A loan of 10 years duration is
Hence, option C is the correct answer. not short-term, hence not a current liability.
• Option B (Incorrect): Loan is not an asset but an
Q94. Unlisted public company with ₹8 crore paid- obligation to pay, so it cannot be a current asset.
up capital and ₹70 crore borrowings. Even though
the company does not meet the ₹10 crore capital • Option D (Incorrect): Fixed assets are tangible
threshold, it crosses ₹50 crore in public borrowings, assets, not obligations or debts.
making it subject to auditor rotation. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Option A: Incorrect – Although it’s a private
company, neither capital nor borrowings cross the Q98. Financial Accounting includes the preparation
required limits (₹50 crore), so it’s not applicable. of financial reports like income statement, balance
sheet, and cash flow statement.
• Option C: Incorrect – Small companies are exempt
from auditor rotation, regardless of capital size • Option A (Incorrect) as it misrepresents the scope
(which is below threshold here too). of financial accounting.

• Option D: Incorrect – While it meets the public • Option B (Incorrect) relates to Cost Accounting.
deposit threshold, One Person Companies (OPCs) • Option D (Incorrect) Financial Accounting is useful
are excluded from the rotation rules. for shareholders; it provides accurate and
Hence, option B is the correct answer. timely information about company’s financial
performance and position.
Q95. When the drawer discounts the bill with the bank, Hence, option C is the correct answer.
the bank becomes the payee because it will collect
the money from the drawee at maturity. The drawer Q99. By recording the asset at its historical cost and
receives funds earlier but gives up the right to collect. depreciating it over time.
• Option A: Incorrect- the drawer is not the payee The Going Concern Concept assumes that the business
after discounting. will continue indefinitely, so assets are recorded at
• Option B: Incorrect- Drawee is the person who their historical cost and depreciated over time. This is
pays, not receives. because the asset will be used for generating revenue
in the future, not sold immediately.
• Option D would be correct only in case of
endorsement, not discounting. • Option A (Incorrect)- The going concern concept
does not require assets to be revalued annually;
Hence, option C is the correct answer they are recorded at cost.

Q96. Statement 3 is correct. Purchase of goods from • Option C (Incorrect)- assets are not revalued based
an external supplier involves an outside party, hence it on their sale value, as the company is expected to
is an external economic event. continue using them.
• Option D (Incorrect)- because depreciation is
• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Payment of salaries is an
necessary for the allocation of the cost of the asset
internal economic event, as it happens within the
over its useful life.
organization.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

Q100. Debtors owe money to the business and are transactions of the owner are not recorded in the
shown on the asset side. business books unless related to business funds.
• Option A (Incorrect): Debtors are not liabilities; Hence, option B is the correct answer.
they are expected to bring in cash.
Q104. Interest/Discount charged from the Drawer
• Option C (Incorrect): Equity relates to owner’s
capital, not debtors. • When a bank discounts a bill, it pays the drawer
(holder of the bill) a lesser amount than the face
• Option D (Incorrect): Debtors are part of financial
value of the bill. The difference is the discount or
statements and must be shown.
interest, which is the profit for the bank.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Option B (Incorrect) - no commission is charged for
issuing the bill.
Q101. Cash in Hand. Cash in hand is a current asset
because it is already in liquid form and can be used • Option C (Incorrect) - journal entries are made by
within a year. the business, not the bank.
• Option A (Incorrect): Plant and Machinery are fixed • Option D (Incorrect) - the bank receives the full
assets as they have a useful life of more than one amount from the drawee but does not share any
year. payment with anyone.
• Option B (Incorrect): Building is a fixed asset, used Hence, option A is the correct answer.
in operations and not meant for conversion into
cash within a year. Q105. Expenses should be matched with
the revenue they have helped generate.
• Option C (Incorrect): Computers, due to long-term
The Matching Concept ensures that expenses are
usage, are fixed assets.
recognized in the same period as the revenue they
Hence, option D is the correct answer. help generate. This provides an accurate picture
of profitability during a given period. For example,
Q102. Capital is the owner’s investment, whether in costs related to the production of goods sold should
cash or kind. be matched with the revenue from the sale of those
• Option A (Incorrect): Loan is a liability, not capital. goods.
• Option A (Incorrect)- because matching focuses on
• Option B (Incorrect): Credit sales are revenue, not
matching costs with revenue, not cash receipt.
capital.
• Option C (Incorrect)- because matching revenue to
• Option D (Incorrect): Salary paid is an expense, not
expenses does not depend on cash receipt.
capital.
• Option D (Incorrect) because expenses should be
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
recognized when incurred, not when cash is paid.
Q103. The business and the owner are two separate Hence, option B is the correct answer.
entities.
Q106. Statement 1 (Incorrect): Chronological recording
The Entity Concept assumes that the business has a
is part of the recording process, not measurement.
distinct and separate identity from its owner. This
means the business’s financial records should not • Statement 2 (Correct): Measurement involves
include the owner’s personal transactions, and the quantifying events in monetary terms.
business’s finances are kept separate from personal • Statement 3 (Incorrect): Non-monetary events
finances. like managerial appointments are not included in
• Option A (Incorrect)- because it contradicts the accounting records.
Entity Concept, which treats the business and
• Statement 4 (Correct): Events must be measurable
owner as separate.
in rupees and paise for them to be recorded in
• Option C (Incorrect)- because personal expenses of financial accounts.
the owner are not recorded in the business books
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
unless they involve business funds.
• Option D (Incorrect)- because the personal

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Q107. Statement 1 is incorrect: PM-JAY covers only o Ensuring equity and inclusion at all levels of
secondary and tertiary care, not primary care. school education
• Statement 2 is correct: All pre-existing conditions o Support States in implementing Right to
are covered from day one. Education (RTE) Act, 2009
• Statement 3 is correct: Children <5 years can avail • Target Beneficiaries
benefits using either parent’s Ayushman card, o Aspirational Districts (NITI Aayog)
even if admitted in two different hospitals.
o All school children
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM – JAY)
o Special focus on girls, SC, ST, minorities,
• Launch – 2018 transgender children
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare o Urban deprived children, children affected by
• Implementing Agency – National Health Authority migration
at National Level
o Children in remote/sparsely populated areas
• Subsumed – Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
o Educationally Backward Blocks (EBBs), Special
(RSBY) launched in 2008.
Focus Districts (SFDs), LWE-affected areas
• Aim – To cover over 12 crores poor and vulnerable
o Districts with high SC/ST/Muslim population
families (approx 55 crore beneficiaries) i.e., bottom
40% of the Indian population. Key Features
• Centrally Sponsored Scheme • Schemes Subsumed
• Beneficiaries – Households according to the latest o Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data covering o Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
both rural and urban areas on the basis of 6 (RMSA)
deprivation and 11 occupational criteria.
o Teacher Education (TE)
• Health coverage of ₹5 lakh per beneficiary family
• Universalizing Access
per annum for secondary and tertiary care
irrespective of no. of family members. o School upgradation from pre-primary to
senior secondary
• Covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15
days post-hospitalization. o Strengthening of schools, barrier-free access
for Divyang children
• Benefits can be availed in both public and
empanelled private facilities. • Mainstreaming Out-of-School Children
• Children up to 5 years of age avail treatment on o Extended from elementary to age 16–19 years
the Ayushman Card of their parents via open schooling
• Benefits of the scheme are portable across the • Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas (KGBVs)
country o Residential/schooling for girls up to Class XII
Hence, option B is the correct answer. (upgraded from 6–8 to 6–12)
• Sanitation: Incinerators + sanitary pad vending
Q108. Under Samagra Shiksha Abhiyaan, the allocation machines in all girls’ hostels
for CwSN has been raised to ₹3,500 per child annually.
Uniform allocation under RTE is now ₹600 per child per • Free Textbooks + Uniforms: For all girls, SC, ST,
year. BPL boys at elementary level
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan o Including tribal language primers + bridging
materials
• Launch: Launched in 2018
• Transport: Extended to secondary level, ₹up to
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education 6000 per annum
• Duration: Till 31 March 2026 • Allocations (RTE Act)
• Objectives: o Uniforms: ₹600 (from ₹400)
o Promoting Vocationalisation of education o Textbooks: ₹250/400 (from ₹150/250)

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o Energized textbooks introduced • Number of seats for boys and girls will be equal
o Children With Special Needs (CwSN) • 10% of seats can be filled up by non-ST candidates
o ₹3500 per child/year (from ₹3000) (shall not exceed total strength of 480)
o For aids, appliances, home-based care, etc. o Priority to children of staff, children who have
o Girls With Special Needs (Classes 1–12) lost their parents to Left wing extremism and
insurgencies, children of widows, divyang
o ₹200 monthly stipend
parents etc.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• Reservation of 20% seats under sports quota for
Q109. Statement 1 is incorrect – The scheme is deserving ST students who have excelled in the
implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs through field of sports
NESTS, not the Ministry of Education. • Recurring cost per student - ₹1,09,000 (earlier ₹
• Statement 2 is incorrect – The maximum 61,000)
sanctioned strength is 480 students, not 720. • Construction cost of EMRS
• Statement 3 is correct – EMRS is for blocks with o ₹38 cr. (earlier ₹20 cr) - plain areas
more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 o ₹48 cr. (earlier ₹24 cr) - hilly areas
ST persons, not 30%.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Ekalavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS)
• Launch: 1997-98 (revamped in 2018-19) Q110. The Self-Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs of Manual Scavengers (SRMS) was renamed and
modified as NAMASTE. The scheme aims to cover all
• Implementing Agency: National Education Society 4800+ ULBs across India in a phased manner, expanding
for Tribal Students (NESTS) from the earlier coverage of only 500 AMRUT cities.
• Aim: To impart quality education to ST children National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
in remote areas to enable them to avail of (NAMASTE)
opportunities in high and professional educational
courses and get employment in various sectors, • Launch – 2022
focus not only on academic education but on the • Joint initiative of Ministry of Social Justice and
all-round development Empowerment and Ministry of Housing and
• Type: Central Sector Scheme Urban Affairs
• Target: Every block with >50% ST population and • Implementing Agency – National Safai Karamchari
at-least 20,000 tribal persons, to have an Ekalavya Financial Development Corporation (NSKFDC)
Model Residential School • Central Sector Scheme
o 740 schools to be set up by March 2026 • Objective – Formalization and Rehabilitation of
o 288 sanctioned before 2019 Manual Scavengers (MS) and Persons Engaged
in Hazardous Cleaning of Sewer and Septic Tank
o 452 schools approved in 2019 (SSWs)
Key Features: • Tenure – 2022-23 to 2025-26
• Schools to be on par with Navodaya Vidyalayas • Financial Outlay - ₹360 Crores
• Special facilities for preserving local art and culture • Identified sanitation workers and their family
besides providing training in sports and skill members extended benefits of all the social
development security schemes being implemented by various
• Maximum sanctioned strength of a school shall be departments in area.
480 students, catering to students from Class VI to • Identified Sewer/Septic Tank Workers (SSWs)
XII and their dependents to be given counseling on
o Class VI to X - maximum 60 students/class available livelihood choices and an opportunity to
o Class XI & XII - maximum 30 students/class acquire alternative skills, if they so desire

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

• Occupational Safety Training and distribution of • Rotterdam Convention: Encourages responsible

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) Kits to SSWs. management of chemicals and wastes, including
Hence, option B is the correct answer. international cooperation and capacity-building.
• Stockholm Convention: Aims to reduce and
Q111. Under KCC, the financial assistance is available eliminate the production, use, and release of
to meet the short-term credit requirements for persistent organic pollutants (POPs) to protect
the cultivation of crops, and not the long-term human health and the environment.
requirements. • These conventions are managed under the United
Kisan Credit Card Scheme Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• Launch Year – 1998 Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Nodal Agency – National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development (NABARD) Q113. Statement 2 is not eligible: A person earning Rs.
3 lakh annually does not qualify under the income
• Implementing Agencies – All Co-operative banks,
ceiling for free legal services before District or other
Regional Rural Banks, Scheduled Commercial
courts, which is Rs. 1 lakh (for Supreme Court, the
Banks, Small Finance Banks
limit is Rs. 5 lakh).
• Aim – To provide timely and adequate credit to
About NALSA:
farmers to meet their needs
Eligibility – • Established Under: Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987.
• Age – 18 to 75 years
• Objective: To provide free Legal Services to the
• For senior citizen (>60 years), a co-borrower (legal weaker sections of society and to organize Lok
heir) is mandatory Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
• All farmers: individual/joint cultivator, owner, • Structure: The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-
tenant farmer, and sharecroppers in-Chief of NALSA.
• Loan is available to anyone engaged in agriculture,
• Executive Chairman: As per convention, the post is
allied activities or other non-farming activities,
occupied by the second senior-most judge of the
Animal Husbandry and Fisheries sector
Supreme Court of India.
• SHGs or joint liability groups including tenant
o The appointment is made by the President in
farmers
consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Benefits – (CJI).
• Loan of up to ₹5 lakh for a period of up to 3 years • Persons eligible for free legal services includes:
• Insurance coverage: up to ₹50,000 (permanent o Women and children
disability or death) & ₹25,000 (other risks)
o Members of Scheduled Castes/Scheduled
• No collateral required for loans amounting up to Tribes
Rs. 2.0 lakh
o Industrial workmen
• Covers – Short term credit requirements for
o Victims of mass disasters, violence, flood,
cultivation of crops, Post-harvest expenses,
drought, earthquake, and industrial disaster
Produce marketing loan, Consumption
requirements of farmer household, Working capital o Disabled persons
for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied o Persons in custody
to agriculture, Investment credit requirement for
o Persons whose annual income does not exceed
agriculture and allied activities
Rs. 1 lakh (in the Supreme Court Legal Services
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Committee the limit is Rs. 5,00,000)
o Victims of trafficking in human beings or
Q112. Basel Convention: Focuses on regulating the
beggars
transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and
their disposal to minimize risks to human health and Hence, option A is the correct answer.
the environment.

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

Q114. The term “Fragile Five” was coined by Morgan • Statement 2 is correct: This is the exact eligibility
Stanley in 2013 to describe five emerging economies— criterion for Miniratna Category-I.
Brazil, India, Indonesia, South Africa, and Turkey— Classification for CPSEs
with weak macroeconomic fundamentals, such as
large current account deficits and dependence on • Department of Public Enterprises grants Maharatna,
foreign capital. Navratna, or Miniratna status to CPSEs based on
their financial performance:
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Miniratna Category-I: Companies must have
Q115. CPGRAMS does not address grievances related earned a profit in each of the previous 3 years,
to: having a pre-tax profit of 30 crores or even more in
at least one of 3 years.
o Matters under court consideration or already
judged (Statement 1) o Companies categorised as Miniratna Category
I enjoy financial autonomy for investment
o RTI-related matters (Statement 2) decisions up to ₹500 crore or an amount
o Personal and family disputes (Statement 3) equivalent to their net worth, whichever is
o National security and international lower.
relations (Statement 5) o It also enables them to enter joint ventures
• Statement 4 (departmental promotions) and and forge technology partnerships more
Statement 6 (public grievances on service independently.
delivery) are within the scope of CPGRAMS and • Miniratna Category-II: Companies must have
hence are addressed. continuously earned profits for the previous 3
More About CPGRAMS years and positive net worth.
• Started in 2007 by the Department of Administrative o On the other hand, Miniratna Category
Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). II companies have the flexibility of financial
autonomy for investments up to ₹300 crore or
• Objective: To provide an effective and efficient up to 50% of their net worth, whichever is
platform for redressal of public grievances with a lower.
focus on citizen engagement.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Time Limit for Grievance Redressal: 21 days.
• Appeal Mechanism: Appeal must be lodged within Q118. Statement 1: Correct
30 days of the grievance resolution, and it must The RBI earns interest income from its holdings
be resolved within 30 days by the Nodal Grievance of rupee-denominated Government Securities
Officers of the respective Central Ministry/ (G-Secs). As interest payments accrue over time,
Department. this forms a stable revenue stream. In FY25, an
• Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) serves as increase in these holdings (₹1.95 lakh crore) led to
an appellate body for unresolved grievances and a higher interest income, directly contributing to
follows a 30-day timeline for case reports. the surplus.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • Statement 2: Correct
RBI recorded mark-to-market (MTM) gains on its
Q116. Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh became GSec holdings. When GSec yields fall, the market
the first state to fully integrate with the GeM value of existing bonds rises, generating unrealised
platform. gains for the RBI. These gains are recognised under
• Statement 2 is correct: GeM’s procurement policy the surplus income, thus boosting the dividend
targets include 25% from MSMEs, with 3% from potential.
women and 4% from SC/STs. • Statement 3: Incorrect
Hence, option C is the correct answer. The surplus was supported by robust dollar sales,
not purchases. Selling foreign exchange at a
Q117. Statement 1 is incorrect: The limit mentioned higher rate than the purchase cost results in forex
applies to Miniratna Category-II, not Category-I. gains. Statement 3 incorrectly mentions “dollar

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

purchases”, which would not generate income in Legislature.

this context. o Have been declared insolvent.
• Statement 4: Correct o Have been convicted of a crime with
As per the Economic Capital Framework guided by punishment of 180 days or more.
the Bimal Jalan Committee, RBI’s surplus includes
o Are physically or mentally unfit to do the job.
income from:
o Have a conflict of interest with any payment
o Deployment of forex reserves (such as interest
system and can’t resolve it.
or capital gains from investments abroad),
• Tenure and Resignation
o Currency printing operations (where
seigniorage – the difference between the face o Members (unless public servants under
value of money and the cost to produce it – Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) will hold office
adds to income), and for 4 years.
o General interest earnings. These are all o Not be re-nominated after their term.
legitimate sources that contribute to the o Resignation is allowed by giving at least 6
overall accumulated surplus transferred to weeks’ written notice to the Central
the Government. Government.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • Automatic Removal

Q119. Statement 4: Incorrect – Senior officials from o A Member will lose their position if they miss 3
the Department of Payment and Settlement Systems Board meetings in a row without permission
(DPSS) are not barred from participation. In fact, PRB from the Chairperson.
is expected to coordinate closely with DPSS, and RBI • Board Meetings and Voting Rules
officials (including from DPSS) may be nominated to o The Board must meet at least twice a year at
the Board. a place or via a method decided by the
Additional Information About Payments Regulatory Chairperson.
Board (PRB): o Quorum: Minimum 3 Members are needed
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has officially for a valid meeting:
notified the formation of a new six-member o Must include the Chairperson (or, if absent,
PRB to oversee India’s payment systems under the Deputy Governor),
the Payments and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
o And at least one nominated Member.
• The PRB replaces the existing Board for Regulation
and Supervision of Payment and Settlement • Each board member has one vote. Decision will be
Systems (BPSS). taken on majority basis.
• New structure includes 3 central government o In the event of an equality of votes, the
nominees, in addition to RBI officials. chairperson, or in his absence, the Deputy
Governor, will have a second or casting vote.
• Board Composition:
• The PRB may invite domain experts in payments,
• Chairperson: RBI Governor (ex officio)
IT, and law as permanent or ad hoc invitees.
• Members:
o Principal Legal Adviser of RBI is a permanent
o RBI Deputy Governor in charge of Payment invitee.
and Settlement Systems (ex officio)
• The Board must meet at least twice a year and
o One RBI official nominated by the Central
meetings will be presided over by the chairperson
Board (ex officio)
or in his absence, by the deputy governor.
o 3 nominees of the Central Government
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• A person cannot be nominated if they: Q120. The Global Minimum Tax (GMT) regime
o Are 70 years or older at the time of was proposed by the Organisation for Economic Co-
appointment. operation and Development (OECD) and was approved
o Are a Member of Parliament or State in 2021, with an effective date of 2024.

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

• The framework was designed to prevent base

erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) by multinational
enterprises and to ensure a level playing field in
global taxation.
• It operates under a two-pillar structure:
o Pillar One reallocates taxing rights based on
market presence.
o Pillar Two mandates a 15% minimum tax on
corporations with revenue exceeding €750
million (approx. $812 million).
• The agreement includes a top-up tax mechanism:
o If a country’s effective tax rate is below 15%,
other countries where the company operates
are allowed to impose an additional tax to
meet the minimum.
• In June 2025, the G7 proposed that U.S.
multinational firms be exempted from taxation
by foreign jurisdictions under GMT, with taxation
limited to the United States only.
o However, this exemption still requires formal
approval from the OECD to be implemented.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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 FULL LENGTH TEST - 2

Directions (Q1-5): In the following five items, The concept of sustainable urbanization has
each sentence has a blank space and four optionsgained prominence in recent years as cities
have been given after the sentence. Select the continue to grow at an unprecedented rate. With
most appropriate option for the blank space. over half of the world’s population now residing
Q1. He ______ contemplating the consequences in urban areas, challenges such as overpopulation,
of his decision long before he took action. pollution, inefficient resource management,
and climate change have become more pressing
A. was
than ever. Sustainable urban development aims
B. has been
to strike a balance between economic growth,
C. had been
environmental conservation, and social well-
D. will be
being.
Q2. The committee members were divided on One of the critical aspects of sustainable
the issue, and it __________ whether they urbanization is the adoption of smart city
would ever reach a consensus. technologies, which involve integrating digital
A. remains to be seen infrastructure to enhance the efficiency of
B. remains a doubt public services. The Internet of Things (IoT),
C. remains in doubt data analytics, and artificial intelligence (AI) are
D. is a doubt now being used to manage traffic congestion,
Q3. His investment strategies proved that a bird waste disposal, energy consumption, and water
__________ is worth more than speculative conservation. Governments and urban planners
ventures. are increasingly recognizing the need to develop
A. at hand green spaces, promote renewable energy sources,
B. in the cage and improve public transport systems.
C. in hand Another key factor is citizen participation, which
D. within reach ensures that urban planning aligns with the
Q4. The scientist’s discoveries illustrate that needs of local communities. Sustainable cities
knowledge _____________ ever - expanding must incorporate inclusive policies that prioritize
frontiers. affordable housing, equitable access to resources,
A. pursues and environmental sustainability. The global
B. defies movement toward eco-friendly urbanization is also
C. transcends closely linked to the United Nations’ Sustainable
D. confines Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 11,
which focuses on making cities inclusive, safe,
Q5. While historical accounts must be based resilient, and sustainable.
on facts, interpretations often __________
Ultimately, the future of urbanization depends
subjective viewpoints.
on the collaborative efforts of governments,
A. reflect businesses, and citizens. While technological
B. consolidate advancements are pivotal in shaping modern
C. determine cities, the emphasis must remain on long-
D. counterbalance term sustainability and the well-being of urban
populations.
Directions (Q6-10): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the five questions that Q6. Which of the following is a crucial factor in
follow by selecting your answers based solely on sustainable urbanization according to the
the content of the passage and the opinion of the passage?
author only.

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

A. Economic growth without environmental Directions (Q11-15): In the following five items,
considerations each item consists of six sentences of a passage.
B. Adoption of smart city technologies The first and sixth sentences are given at the
C. Population expansion without regulations beginning as S1 and S6. The four sentences in
D. Heavy industrialization between S1 and S6 in each question have been
Q7. What role does citizen participation play in jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R, and S. You are
sustainable urbanization? required to find the proper sequence of the four
A. It ensures that urban development aligns sentences.
with the needs of local communities Q11.
B. It promotes individual wealth accumulation S1: Effective leadership is a crucial factor in
through real estate investments the success of any organization.
C. It reduces the role of governments in S6: Without clear direction, even the most
planning and policymaking talented team may struggle to achieve
D. It encourages people to migrate to rural its goals.
areas P: Leaders must develop a strategic vision
Q8. “Governments and urban planners are that aligns with the organization’s long-
increasingly recognizing the need to develop term objectives.
green spaces.” What does this phrase imply? Q: They must also communicate effectively
A. There is an urgent need to protect and to inspire and motivate their teams.
expand natural areas in urban settings R: Decision-making in leadership is often
B. Parks and gardens are no longer required in complex and requires balancing multiple
modern cities perspectives.
C. Governments are restricting citizens from S: Adaptability and the ability to respond
using public parks to changing circumstances are essential
D. Technology can fully replace the need for qualities of a good leader.
natural spaces A. RQSP
B. PQRS
Q9. The phrase “long-term sustainability and
C. RSPQ
well-being of urban populations” in the
D. PRSQ
passage suggests that:
A. Cities should focus only on short-term Q12.
development projects S1: Scientific research plays a fundamental
B. Urban growth should consider role in technological advancements.
environmental, social, and economic S6: These innovations, in turn, shape the
factors way society’s function and progress.
C. Industrialization should take priority over P: New discoveries often lead to practical
environmental policies applications that improve industries and
D. Governments should reduce their healthcare.
involvement in urban planning Q: However, scientific progress is not always
Q10. The passage suggests that sustainable linear, and breakthroughs may take
urbanization requires: decades.
A. Cooperation between governments, R: Research requires persistence,
businesses, and citizens collaboration, and substantial funding.
B. Increased reliance on fossil fuels for energy S: The integration of science with technology
C. Complete removal of human intervention results in innovations that impact daily
in city planning life.
D. Disregard for environmental policies in A. PQRS
favor of economic growth B. SRQP

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 hello@[Link] +91 8146207241

C. RQPS Q15.
D. PRSQ S1: Artificial Intelligence (AI) is
Q13. revolutionizing industries across the
S1: The rapid urbanization of developing world.
countries has created both opportunities S6: However, ethical considerations must be
and challenges. taken into account to ensure responsible
S6: Addressing these challenges requires AI development.
innovative planning and sustainable P: AI-powered automation is transforming
policies. the job market, increasing efficiency
but also raising concerns about job
P: However, urbanization also brings displacement.
problems such as congestion, pollution, Q: Machine learning algorithms are being
and inadequate housing. used in healthcare, finance, and many
Q: Many cities have become hubs of other sectors.
economic growth, attracting people in R: The ability of AI to analyse vast amounts
search of better job opportunities. of data enables faster decision-making
R: Governments must find ways to manage and innovation.
this growth while ensuring environmental S: Despite its advantages, AI presents
sustainability. challenges such as bias in algorithms and
S: Smart city initiatives and improved data privacy concerns.
infrastructure are essential to balancing A. QPRS
urban expansion. B. PQSR
A. PQRS C. RQPS
B. QPRS D. QSPR
C. PRSQ
D. QSRP Directions (Q16-20): In the following five items,
Q14. each item has a sentence with three underlined
S1: Climate change is one of the most parts labelled as (a), (b), and (c). Read each
pressing global challenges of the 21st sentence and identify any error in any underlined
century. part, and indicate your response on the Answer
S6: Without immediate action, the Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e. (A)
consequences could be catastrophic. (B) and (C). If you find no error, your response
P: Deforestation and industrial emissions should be indicated as (D).
are among the leading contributors to Q16. The researcher (a) was unable to find (b) any
global warming. correlation between the two variables (c)
Q: Rising temperatures have led to extreme despite of extensive testing. (d) No error.
weather patterns and habitat loss for A. was unable to find
many species. B. any correlation between the two variables
R: Governments and organizations C. despite of extensive testing
worldwide are working to implement D. No error
sustainable policies.
S: Reducing carbon footprints and investing Q17. (a) Neither of the candidates (b) were willing
in renewable energy sources are crucial to withdraw from the election, (c) causing a
steps. deadlock in the negotiations. (d) No error.
A. PQRS A. Neither of the candidates
B. QPRS B. were willing to withdraw
C. QSPR C. causing a deadlock in the negotiations
D. PRSQ D. No error  

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Q18. (a) The professor insisted (b) that each of D. Storing frequently used data.  
the students submit (c) their assignments Q25. Which of the following best describes the
before the deadline. (d) No error. function of the ALU in a computer?
A. The professor insisted A. It manages data storage and retrieval.
B. that each of the students submit B. It performs arithmetic and logic operations.
C. their assignments before the deadline C. It deciphers machine code into human
D. No error language.
Q19. (a) If I was knowing (b) about the policy D. It acts as an interface between the CPU
change earlier, (c) I would have made and memory.
different decisions. (d) No error. Q26. Which of the following software categories
A. If I was knowing includes Microsoft Excel?
B. about the policy change earlier A. System Software
C. I would have made different decisions B. Utility Software
D. No error C. General Purpose Application Software
Q20. (a) The company’s decision (b) to lay off its D. Specific Purpose Software.
employees were criticized (c) by industry Q27. Which of the following is an example of an
experts as being too hasty. (d) No error. object-oriented programming language?
A. The company’s decision A. FORTRAN
B. to lay off its employees were criticized B. COBOL
C. by industry experts as being too hasty C. C++
D. No error D. BASIC.
Q21. Which type of network topology uses a Q28. Which of the following is NOT a type of
central node to connect all devices? system software?
A. Bus Topology A. Operating System
B. Star Topology B. Device Drivers
C. Ring Topology C. Antivirus Software
D. Mesh Topology D. Language Translator.
Q22. Which type of software directly interacts Q29. Which of the following is a volatile type of
with computer hardware? memory?
A. System Software   A. ROM
B. Application Software B. Flash Memory
C. Utility Software C. HDD
D. Middleware D. RAM.
Q23. Which of the following ports is used for Q30. What is the primary role of cache memory
connecting high-definition video and audio in a computer system?
devices?
A. Storing the operating system permanently
A. VGA B. Holding frequently accessed data for quick
B. HDMI CPU access
C. PS/2 C. Providing a backup for hard disk failures
D. Serial Port D. Storing all user files and applications.
Q24. What is the primary purpose of the Control Q31. In the context of tripartite industrial
Unit in a CPU? relations, which of the following three
A. Performing mathematical operations main groups are involved in ensuring fair
B. Managing input/output devices negotiations and addressing workplace
C. Controlling the execution of instructions issues between workers and employers?

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A. Employers, Workers, and Trade Unions the Industry?

B. Workers, Employers, and Government 1. The Code of Discipline was first discussed
C. Employers, Government, and Trade Unions in the 15th Indian Labour Conference in
D. Workers, Government, and Employers’ July 1957.
Associations 2. It was officially implemented in the 16th
Q32. Which of the following was the first workers’ session of the Indian Labour Conference
association established in 1890, following in 1958.
the enactment of the Factories Act in 1881, 3. The Code of Discipline encourages both
to represent workers’ interests? parties to take unilateral actions to
A. All India Trade Union Congress resolve disputes.
B. Indian Workers Union Select the correct answer using the code
C. Hind Mazdoor Sabha given below:
D. Bombay Mill Hands Association A. Only 1  
B. Only 2 and 3
Q33. Which organization serves as the watchdog
C. Only 1 and 2
for the safety and health of workers in
D. All of the above
India and is responsible for conducting
inspections related to occupational safety Q36. As per the provisions of The Code on Social
and health issues? Security, 2020, which of the following Acts
A. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation is NOT included in the list of acts to be
(ESIC) repealed?
B. National Safety Council (NSC) A. The Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923
C. Labour Bureau of India B. The Employees’ Provident Funds and
D. Directorate General, Factory Advice Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
Service and Labour Institutes C. The Building and Other Construction
Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996
Q34. Which of the following statements regarding
D. None of the above
the history of trade unions in India is/are
correct? Q37. Which of the following Acts have been
1. The Bombay Mill Hands Association was subsumed under the Code on Wages, 2019?
the earliest trade union in India, founded 1. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
by Narayan Meghaji Lokhande in 1890 in 2. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Bombay (now Mumbai). 3. The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
2. The Madras Labor Union, founded by B. P. 4. The Industrial Relations Act, 1980
Wadia in 1918 in Madras (now Chennai), Select the correct answer using the code
was the first registered trade union in given below:
India. A. 1 and 4
3. The All India Trade Union Congress B. 1, 2, and 3
(AITUC), formed in 1920 by Lala Lajpat Rai C. 1, 2, and 4
and others, was the first national trade D. All of the above
union federation in India.
Q38. Which of the following is an incorrect
Select the correct answer using the code statement regarding The Mines Act, 1952?
given below: A. No person employed in a mine shall be
A. 1 and 2 only required or allowed to work for more than
B. 2 and 3 only 10 hours in any day, inclusive of overtime.
C. 1 and 3 only B. No person shall be required or allowed to
D. 1, 2, and 3 work in a mine if they have already been
Q35. Which of the following statements are working in any other mine within the
correct regarding the Code of Discipline in preceding twelve hours.
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C. No adult employed below ground in a Abolition) Act, 1970, no court shall take
mine shall be allowed to work for more cognizance of any offence except on a
than 54 hours in any week or for more complaint made by, or with the previous
than 9 hours in any day. sanction of the inspector.
D. No adult employed above ground in a B. The Inter-State Migrant Workmen
mine shall be required or allowed to work (Regulation of Employment and
for more than 48 hours in any week or for Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 requires
more than 9 hours in any day. that no principal employer shall employ
Q39. According to the Building and Other inter-State migrant workmen unless a
Construction Workers (Regulation of certificate of registration in respect of the
Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, establishment is in force
1996, which of the following statements is/ C. The Child and Adolescent Labor (Prohibition
are correct regarding the appeal process for and Regulation) Act, 1986 allows children
a penalty imposed under the Act? to work in hazardous occupations if they
help their family enterprise after school
1. If a penalty is imposed by the Director-
hours or during vacations.
General, the appeal can be made to the
D. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 mandates
State Government.
that every industrial establishment
2. An appeal must be filed within 3
employing 20 or more workmen must
months from the date the penalty is
have one or more Grievance Redressal
communicated to the person.
Committees for resolving disputes arising
3. If a penalty is imposed by the Chief
out of individual grievances.
Inspector, the appeal must be made to
the Central Government. Q42. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the prohibition of strikes
Select the correct answer using the code
and lockouts under the Industrial Disputes
given below:
Act, 1947?
A. 1 and 2
1. A person employed in a public utility
B. 2 and 3
service is allowed to strike without any
C. 1 and 3
prior notice.
D. 2 only
2. A notice of strike must be given to the
Q40. As per Section 6 of the Payment of Bonus Act, employer at least six weeks before the
1965, which outlines the sums deductible strike begins.
from gross profits as prior charges, which 3. Strikes are prohibited during the
schedule specifies additional sums that pendency of conciliation proceedings
are to be deducted from the gross profits, before a conciliation officer and for
apart from those mentioned in the Income seven days after the conclusion of such
Tax Act, such as depreciation, development proceedings.
rebate, investment allowance, and direct
Select the correct answer using the code
taxes?
given below:
A. First Schedule
A. 2 and 3
B. Second Schedule
B. Only 1
C. Third Schedule
C. 1 and 2
D. Fourth Schedule
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q41. Which of the following statements is
Q43. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect regarding the various labour laws
correct regarding the general duties of
in India?
occupiers under Section 7A of The Factories
A. Under the Contract Labor (Regulation and Act, 1948?

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1. Occupiers are required to prioritize the 1. A compound is formed by mixing two or

health, safety, and welfare of workers more different types of elements in any
in the factory, as far as is reasonably proportion.
practicable. 2. A mixture retains the properties of its
2. Occupiers must ensure safe plant and constituent elements or compounds.
work systems, and maintain safety in 3. A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of
handling articles and substances. two or more substances.
3. Occupiers are obligated to create and Select the correct answer using the code
regularly update a written statement given below:
detailing their health and safety policy
A. 1 and 2
and its implementation.
B. 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code C. 1 and 3
given below: D. 2 only
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 2   Q47. Allotropes are different forms of the
C. 2 and 3   same element that have different physical
D. All of the above properties, although their chemical
properties may or may not differ. Which of
Q44. In reference of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
consider the following requirements for the A. Diamond
amalgamation of two or more registered B. Graphite
Trade Unions and select the correct one. C. Fullerene
A. The proposal for amalgamation must be D. Quartz
supported by at least 60% of the votes of
members of only one Trade Union. Q48. Which of the following terms refers to the
B. The votes of at least one-half of the number of electrons present in the outermost
members of each Trade Union entitled to shell of an atom, which determines the
vote must be recorded, and at least 60% bonding capacity of an element?
of those votes should be in favor of the A. Atomic number
proposal. B. Mass number
C. A proposal for amalgamation can be C. Valency
passed with a simple majority vote of any D. Isotopy
one Trade Union. Q49. Which of the following instruments is
D. Only a written consent from the leaders specifically designed to measure the
of the Trade Unions is required for frictional force between two surfaces in
amalgamation. contact? This instrument is commonly
Q45. According to the Factories Act, 1948, adult used in experiments and tests to assess the
workers in a factory must have their work resistance to motion on different types of
periods arranged such that no period surfaces.
exceeds __________ and they must have at A. Tribometer
least a half-hour rest interval after working B. Thermometer
this period. C. Barometer  
A. 4 hours D. Hygrometer
B. 5 hours Q50. Which of the following scenarios describes
C. 6 hours kinetic energy and which describes potential
D. 7 hours energy? Consider the following examples:
Q46. Consider the following statements and select Example 1: A moving car on a highway,
the correct combination of statements
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which has energy due to its motion from 1. The PNS consists of sensory (afferent)
one location to another. pathways that carry signals to muscles
Example 2: A stretched bowstring before and glands.
being released, where energy is stored due to 2. The PNS consists of motor (efferent)
the bowstring’s position and configuration. pathways that provide input from the
Which of the following is kinetic energy and body into the central nervous system
which is potential energy? (CNS).
A. Example 1 is kinetic energy, and Example 2 3. The Somatic Nervous System controls the
is potential energy muscular system and external sensory
B. Example 1 is potential energy, and Example receptors.
2 is kinetic energy 4. The Autonomic Nervous System controls
C. Both Example 1 and Example 2 are kinetic voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.
energy Select the correct answer using the code
D. Both Example 1 and Example 2 are given below:
potential energy A. 1 and 3
Q51. Which of the following statements about B. 2 and 4  
infrasonic waves is/are correct? C. 1, 3, and 4
1. Infrasonic waves have frequencies less D. 3 only
than 20 Hz, ranging from 20 Hz down to Q54. Which of the following statements about
0.001 Hz. carbohydrates is/are incorrect?
2. Infrasonic waves are only produced by 1. Carbohydrates are composed of carbon,
human heartbeats. hydrogen, and oxygen.
3. Infrasound is used for monitoring 2. Glucose is present in our blood, and its
earthquakes and charting rock formations. normal level is 70-100 mg/dL.
4. Infrasound cannot travel long distances 3. Starch, found in foods like potatoes,
and is quickly dissipated. wheat, and rice, is an important source of
Select the correct answer using the code carbohydrates in our diet.
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
A. 1 and 3 given below:
B. 1 and 2 A. Only 1 and 2
C. 1 and 4 B. Only 1 and 3
D. 2 and 4 C. Only 3
Q52. Which of the following statements about D. None of the above
the midbrain is incorrect? Q55. Which of the following statements about
A. The midbrain is involved in processing Trans fats (TFAs) is incorrect?
auditory and visual information. A. Trans fats are the most harmful type of
B. The midbrain consists of the cerebellum fats, having more adverse effects than
and medulla oblongata. other dietary constituents.
C. The midbrain is located between the B. Trans fats are entirely produced artificially,
forebrain (thalamus/hypothalamus) and and no small amounts occur naturally.
the hindbrain (pons). C. Artificial TFAs are formed when hydrogen
D. The midbrain is important for motor reacts with oil to create fats resembling
control, especially in eye movements. ghee/butter.
Q53. Which of the following statements about D. The major sources of artificial TFAs are
the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) is/are partially hydrogenated vegetable oils.
correct?
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Q56. Which of the following statements about Q59. Match the characteristics of Sufism with
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar’s contributions are their respective descriptions:
accurate?
Column A Column B
1. Dr. Ambedkar played an important role
1. Fana A. Remembrance of God
in favor of the Communal Award of 1932
all the time
that provided separate electorates for
the Depressed Classes. 2. Insaan-e-Kamil B. Perfect human with all
2. Dr. Ambedkar established the good virtues
Independent Labour Party in 1936 to 3. Zikr Tauba C. Spiritual merger of
represent the interests of workers and devotee with Allah
laborers. 4. Wahadat-ul- D. One God for the entire
3. Dr. Ambedkar was a strong advocate for wazud Universe
the abolition of the caste system but did 5. Sama E. Spiritual dance & music,
not support the formation of political even though music is
organizations for the Dalits. considered un-Islamic
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
A. 1 and 2 A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E
B. 1 and 3 B. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-E
C. Only 1 C. 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-C, 5-A
D. 2 and 3 D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-C

Q57. Which of the following statements regarding Q60. Which state celebrates the festival of Saga
Attlee’s February Declaration are correct? Dawa, which is observed on the full moon
day falling in the middle of the Tibetan lunar
1. The deadline for the transfer of power
month, typically between April and May?
was set for June 30, 1948, regardless of
whether Indian politicians had agreed on A. Himachal Pradesh
the constitution. B. Arunachal Pradesh
2. British powers and obligations concerning C. Ladakh
the princely states would be transferred D. Sikkim
to the successor government in British Q61. Which of the following is not one of the
India after the transfer of power. classifications of Dhrupad music, one of the
3. Mountbatten replaced Wavell as the oldest forms of Hindustani classical music?
viceroy as part of the provisions of the A. Dagari Gharana
February Declaration. B. Darbhanga Gharana
Select the correct answer using the code C. Bettiah Gharana
given below: D. Bhairav Gharana
A. 1 and 2 Q62. Ramappa temple, constructed during the
B. 1 and 3 Kakatiya period (1123–1323 CE) under
C. Only 1 rulers Ganapati Deva and Recharla Rudra
D. 2 and 3 Reddy, is renowned for its architectural
beauty. The construction of this sandstone
Q58. Which of the following was Gandhiji’s first
temple began in 1213 CE and continued for
non-cooperation movement in India?
around 40 years. The temple is considered a
A. Kheda Satyagraha (1918)
major religious and cultural landmark in the
B. Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
region. The temple, located in Palampet,
C. Salt March (1930)
Mulugu district, Telangana, is dedicated to
D. Quit India Movement (1942)
which of the following deities?
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A. Lord Vishnu 1. The Act mandates a five-year term for

B. Lord Shiva every municipality.
C. Goddess Durga 2. A municipality can be dissolved before
D. Lord Ganesha the completion of its term.
Q63. Which of the following statements about 3. Fresh elections for a dissolved
Pattachitra painting is incorrect? municipality must be held within 5
months of dissolution.
A. The base of the painting is treated cloth,
4. If the remainder of the term is less than
and the colors come from natural sources
six months, no election needs to be held
like burnt coconut shells and lamp black.
for the new municipality.
B. Once the final lines are drawn, the painting
is coated with lacquer for a glossy finish. Select the correct answer using the code
C. The themes of Pattachitra paintings given below:
are inspired only from Jagannath and A. Only 1 and 2
Vaishnava cults. B. Only 2 and 4
D. Raghurajpur in Odisha is famous for C. 1, 2, and 4
Pattachitra paintings, and Pattachitra on D. Only 1 and 3
palm leaf is known as talapattachitra. Q66. Which of the following statement is incorrect
Q64. Which of the following statements regarding with regard to the jurisdiction and powers
the Legislative Powers of the Governor is/ of the Indian Supreme Court?
are correct? A. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution
1. The Governor can nominate one-sixth provides for the Original Jurisdiction of the
of the members of the State Legislative Supreme Court in disputes between two
Council from fields such as art, science, or more States.
literature, social service, and the B. Article 143 gives the President the power
cooperative movement. to consult the Supreme Court on matters
2. The Governor can appoint a member of advisory jurisdiction.
from the Anglo-Indian community to the C. Special leave to appeal under Article 136
State Legislative Assembly. applies to judgments, decrees, or orders
3. The Governor can appoint a member of passed by any military tribunal or court
the State Legislative Assembly to preside martial.
over its proceedings when the offices of D. The Supreme Court is a Court of Record,
both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker fall and its judgments are considered legal
vacant. precedents and of evidentiary value.
4. The Governor can appoint a member to Q67. "Which of the statements regarding
preside over the proceedings in case the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of
offices of Chairman and Vice-Chairman of India given below are correct?"
the Legislative Council fall vacant.
1. The CAG is the head of the Indian audit
Select the correct answer using the code and account department and is the Chief
given below: Guardian of Public purse.
A. Only 1, 2, and 3 2. The CAG’s qualification requirements
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are explicitly mentioned in the Indian
C. Only 1 and 3 Constitution.
D. All the above 3. The CAG is appointed by the President
Q65. Which of the following statements are of India and holds office for a term of six
correct with regard to the duration and years or until the age of 70, whichever is
dissolution of municipalities? earlier.
4. The CAG can be removed only through
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the same procedure as that of a Judge of C. 1 and 3

the Supreme Court. D. 1, 2, and 3
Select the correct answer using the code Q71. Which of the following statements regarding
given below: the Election Commission of India (ECI) is/are
A. 1 and 2 correct?
B. 1 and 4 1. The Election Commission of India (ECI)
C. 3 and 4 was established on 25th January 1950,
D. 1, 3, and 4 and National Voters’ Day is celebrated on
Q68. The Union home minister and Minister this date since 2011.
of Cooperation and the Prime Minister 2. The ECI’s role includes administering
of India inaugurated the United Nations elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
International Year of Cooperatives 2025 (IYC and State Legislative Assemblies only.
2025). What is the theme of IYC 2025? 3. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
A. Cooperatives Build a Better World and two Election Commissioners have
B. Cooperatives for a Sustainable Future been a permanent part of the ECI since
C. Empowering Communities through 1993.
Cooperatives Select the correct answer using the code
D. Cooperatives: A Key to Global Prosperity given below:
Q69. What is the primary aim of Panchayat Se A. 1 and 2
Parliament 2.0, which was recently seen in B. 2 and 3
the news? C. 1 and 3
A. To promote economic development in D. 1, 2, and 3
Scheduled Tribes Q72. Which of the following statements regarding
B. To empower elected women the 97th Amendment, 2011 and its impact
representatives from Scheduled Tribes in on Cooperative Societies is/are correct?
Panchayati Raj institutions
1. The 97th Amendment, 2011 granted
C. To improve the communication skills of
cooperative societies constitutional
women in local governance
status and included them in Article 19(1)
D. To support the constitutional rights of
(c) as a fundamental right.
Scheduled Tribes
2. The amendment inserted Article 43B
Q70. Which of the following statements regarding as a directive principle to promote
the Doctrine of Merger is/are correct? cooperatives.
1. The Doctrine of Merger was explained in 3. New Part IX was added to the Constitution,
the case Kunhayammed v. State of Kerala which included Articles 243ZH to 243ZT
(2000). for cooperative governance.
2. The doctrine allows more than one
Select the correct answer using the code
decree or operative order to govern the
given below:
same subject matter at a given point in
time. A. 1 and 2
3. Once the superior court disposes of a B. 2 and 3
case, its order becomes final, binding, C. 1 and 3
and operative, merging the lower court’s D. 1, 2, and 3
decision into it. Q73. 6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B
Select the correct answer using the code is 7: 6 and A’s age after 6 years is 40 years.
given below: Present age of C is 10 years more than one
A. 1 and 2 - sixth of B’s present age. Find the ratio of
B. 2 and 3 present age of B and C?

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A. 3:2 1/m + 4/n = 1/12, where n is an odd integer

B. 2:1 less than 60?
C. 4:5 A. 3
D. 1:3 B. 6
Q74. Each of the questions below consists of a C. 4
question and two statements numbered D. 7
I and II given below it. You have to decide Q77. Consider the following equation, wherein
whether the data provided in the statements 3#005 is a five-digit number.
are sufficient to answer the question. Read
3#005 ÷ 185 = 173
both the statements and give answer:
Which of the following statements is/
What is the cost price of an item?
are true with regards to the digit that is
Statement I: The selling price of the item represented by the symbol #?
is Rs. 1500 and the difference between its I. # is the smallest even number.
marked and cost price is Rs. 1300. II. 7 to the power # is completely divisible by
Statement II: The difference between the 16.
selling price and the cost price of the item is III. # is not a prime number.
Rs. 800. Select the correct answer using the codes
A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient given below.
to answer the question while data in A. Only I
statement II alone is not sufficient to B. Both I and II
answer the question C. Only II
B. If the data in statement II alone is D. All I, II and III
sufficient to answer the question while
data in statement, I alone is not sufficient Q78. The question consists of two statements
to answer the question numbered “I and II” given below it. You
C. If data either in statement I alone or have to decide whether the data provided in
statement II alone is sufficient to answer the statements are sufficient to answer the
the question question.
D. If data given in both I & II together are not Maya chooses a special number ‘N’. She
sufficient to answer the question reversed the digits of the number and
obtained a new number that she labelled
Q75. Average of a set of five consecutive
as ‘M’. If both ‘M’ and ‘N’ are two-digit
even numbers is 56 and average of a
numbers, then find the value of ‘N’
set of six consecutive odd numbers is
_______________. Smallest even number in Statement I: Product of unit digits of ‘M’ and
the set is ___________ % of the smallest odd ‘N’ is 4.
number in the set. Which of the following Statement II: Product of ‘M’ and ‘N’ is 574.
option/options satisfy the given condition? A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient
I. 18, 400 to answer the question, while the data
II. 44, 400/3 in statement II alone is not sufficient to
III. 38, 117 answer the question.
A. Only I and III   B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient
B. Only I and II   to answer the question, while the data
C. Only II and III   in statement I alone is not sufficient to
D. All I, II and III answer the question.
C. The data either in statement I alone or in
Q76. How many pairs of positive integers m, n
statement II alone is sufficient to answer
satisfy the following equation:
the question.
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D. The data given in both statements I and Q82. How many different permutations can
II together is not sufficient to answer the be made out of the letters of the word
question. ‘PERMUTATION’?
Q79. Find the perimeter of the square ‘A’. A. 19858400
B. 19958400
Statement I: Area of a circle ‘B’ is 825 cm² C. Can’t be determined
more than that of the square ‘A’. D. None of these
Statement II: Circumference of the circle ‘B’
Q83. If a number 265x480y8 is divisible by 72,
is 220 cm.
what is the difference of x and y?
Statement III: The area of a rectangle is 1975 A. 1
cm² less than that of the square. The ratio of B. 2
length to breadth of the rectangle is 7:6. C. 4
A. The data is statements I and II together D. 6
are sufficient to answer the question while
data in statement III alone is not sufficient Q84. Find the missing term in the following.
to answer the question. HIJK :: GFED :: NOPQ :: ?
B. The data either in statement I and II or in A. EFGH
statement I and III are sufficient to answer B. BCDE
the question while data in statement II and C. FDEC
III together are not sufficient to answer D. MLKJ
the question.   Q85. What was the day of the week on, 16th July,
C. The data in either of the two statements 1776?
together is sufficient to answer the A. Tuesday
question. B. Wednesday
D. The data in all the three statements C. Monday
together is necessary to answer the D. Saturday
question
Q86. Find the angle between the hour hand and
Q80. What will be the remainder if 468 is divided the minute hand of a clock when the time is
by 192? 2:52.
A. 16 A. 226 degrees
B. 49 B. 225 degrees
C. 64 C. 155 degrees
D. 21 D. 115 degrees
Q81. A Completes the work alone in 20 days. Q87. Which of the following statements regarding
Ratio of efficiency of A and B is 3:2. Ratio Fiscal Policy is/are correct?
of time between B and C is 3:4. A started 1. It is micro-economic policy used by the
the work. After 2 days, B joined with him. Government to adjust its spending levels
After 2 days of work A left the work. B alone and tax rates to monitor Indian Economy.
worked for 2 days, then C joined him. B and 2. It is formulated by Reserve Bank of
C worked for 4 days then B left the work. India annually.
Now C increased its efficiency by 33.33% 3. In India, there is a single fiscal policy for
and finished the work. Find the total time both centre and state government
taken to finish the work. Select the correct answer using the code
A. 22 days   given below:
B. 23 days   A. 1 and 2 only  
C. 25 days   B. 2 and 3 only
D. 36 days   C. 1 and 3 only  

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D. None of the above securities by the government to manage

Q88. With reference to Public Expenditure in public debt.
India, consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Capital expenditure creates assets or given below:
reduces liabilities. A. 1 and 2 only
2. Revenue expenditure is always non- B. 2 and 3 only
productive in nature. C. 1 and 3 only
3. Interest payments, subsidies, and salaries D. 1, 2 and 3
are examples of revenue expenditure. Q91. Which of the following best defines an
Which of the above statements is/are insurance policy?
correct? A. A legal notice issued by the government
A. 1 and 3 only B. A formal agreement to pay taxes regularly
B. 2 and 3 only C. A contract where one party agrees to make
C. 1 and 2 only good financial loss of another in exchange
D. 1, 2 and 3 for a premium
Q89. Consider the following statements about the D. A document certifying the completion of
Inequality-adjusted Human Development financial training
Index (IHDI): Q92. When the owner withdraws any money from
1. The IHDI accounts for inequalities in the the business for his personal expenses, it is
distribution of each dimension of the HDI treated as reduction of the owner’s capital
across the population. and consequently a reduction in the ______
2. The IHDI value is always equal to or higher of the business.
than the standard HDI value for a country. A. Assets
3. The greater the difference between the B. Profits
HDI and IHDI, the higher the inequality in C. Income
a country. D. Gains
Which of the above statements are correct? Q93. Land was reported at its selling price which
A. 1 and 2 only is substantially higher than its cost. The
B. 1 and 3 only increase in value was included in the income
C. 2 and 3 only statement, which accounting principle is
D. 1, 2, and 3 violated?
Q90. Which of the following statements regarding A. Conservatism
quantitative tools of monetary policy used B. Going Concern Concept
by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is/are C. Entity Concept
correct? D. Cost Principle
1. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) directly Q94. Shares would be subscribed and Fully Paid
influences the amount of funds that up only when _______________.
banks can lend, by mandating a certain A. Authorized Capital = Subscribed Capital
percentage of deposits to be kept with B. Issued Capital = Paid Up Capital
the RBI. C. Called up Capital = Paid Up Capital
2. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) affects D. Subscribed Capital = Paid Up Capital
liquidity in the economy by requiring Q95. The words ‘To Balance b/f’ or By Balance
banks to invest in prescribed government b/f’ are recorded in the Particulars column
securities or other approved assets. of an account at the time of posting of
3. Open Market Operations (OMOs) refer ________________.
to the sale and purchase of government
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A. All compound entries balance sheet.

B. An Opening Entry A. 1 and 2 only
C. A Closing Entry B. 2 and 3 only
D. An Adjusting Entry C. 1 and 3 only
Q96. Match the following D. 2 only
(A) AS 26 (i) Impairment of Assets Q101. Current Ratio 2.5, Liquid Ratio 1.5 and
(B) AS 10 (ii) Discounting operations Working Capital Rs.60,000. What is the
(C) AS 28 (iii) Intangible assets amount of Current Assets?
(D) AS 24 (iv) Accounting for Fixed Assets A. Rs 78,000
A. (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i) B. Rs 56,000
B. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (ii) C. Rs 1,20,000
C. (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i) D. Rs 1,00,000
D. (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (ii)
Q102. A company issued 20,000 preference
Q97. The rights are sold to somebody else at a shares at the rate of Rs. 100 each at 5%
price by the shareholder. What is this called? premium and 2,00,000 equity shares at the
A. Remuneration of Rights rate Rs. 10 each at 10% premium. What is
B. Recalling of Rights the net amount of securities premium?
C. Renunciation of Rights A. Rs 1,00,000
D. Redemption of Rights B. Rs 2,00,000
Q98. Which of the following best describes an C. Rs 2,40,000
Error of Commission in accounting? D. Rs 3,00,000
A. A transaction is completely omitted from Q103. Which of the following is not a financial
the books of accounts statement?
B. A transaction is posted to the correct class A. Balance sheet
of account but with an incorrect amount B. Profit & Loss account
or to the wrong personal account C. Cash flow statement
C. A transaction is posted to the correct D. Trial Balance
account with the correct amount. Q104. A _________ audit is an examination
D. A transaction is recorded in the correct and evaluation of a firm’s or individual’s
account but in the wrong type of account financial records.
Q99. According to the Money Measurement A. Literal
Concept, which of the following would be B. Financial
recorded in the books of accounts? C. Theoretical
A. Employee satisfaction score D. Both A and C
B. Purchase of raw materials worth Rs 20,000 Q105. Under Section 139(2) of the Companies Act,
C. Manager’s leadership skills 2013, auditor rotation is not applicable to
D. A congratulatory email sent by a client which of the following types of companies?
Q100. Which of the following statements is/are A. Private companies with paid-up share
correct? capital of ₹60 crore
1. The balance of the petty cash is a B. Unlisted public companies with paid-up
liability. share capital of ₹12 crore
2. Revenue generated other than principal C. Companies with public borrowings of
activities of the business are called ₹55 crore
other income. D. One Person Companies (OPCs)
3. Capital Receipts are presented in the

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Q106. Consider the following statements 3. The recurring cost per beneficiary under
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya DAJGUA is fixed at ₹1,00,000.
Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP): A. 1 and 2
1. PMBJP Kendras sell medicines that B. 2 and 3
are 50%–90% cheaper than branded C. 1 and 3
medicines, and each batch is tested in D. 1, 2 and 3
NABL-accredited labs. Q109. Which of the following is a correct
2. Under PMBJP, a special incentive of feature of Mode-1 schools (reputed CBSE-
₹2 lakh is given exclusively to PMBJKs affiliated private residential schools) under
opened in aspirational districts as the SHRESHTA (Scheme for Residential
notified by NITI Aayog. Education for Students in High Schools in
3. Entrepreneurs running PMBJKs receive Targeted Areas) scheme?
20% margin on the MRP of medicines A. Schools must be in existence for at least
sold (excluding taxes). the last 2 years
Which of the above statements are B. Schools must have average board results
correct? below 70% over the past three years
A. 1 and 2 C. Schools must be recommended by
B. 2 and 3 District Authorities and have residential
C. 1 and 3 facilities
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. Schools funded by PM-AJAY and Samagra
Q107. Consider the following statements Shiksha are eligible for coverage under
regarding the PM-SHRI Scheme: SHRESHTA
1. PM-SHRI aims to develop over 14,500 Q110. Under PM-SYM, if a subscriber has
schools as exemplary institutions contributed regularly but becomes
aligned with the National Education permanently disabled before the age of 60,
Policy 2020. the spouse can either continue the scheme
2. The scheme emphasizes inquiry-driven by paying regular contributions or exit the
and play-based pedagogy, especially scheme and withdraw the subscriber’s
during foundational years. contribution with interest, whichever is
3. The tenure of PM-SHRI is fixed from higher between the amount earned by the
2022–23 to 2026–27, after which schools __________ or the __________.
are delisted from support mechanisms. A. Central Government; Insurance Fund
Which of the above statements are B. LIC-managed fund; market interest rate
correct? C. Pension fund; savings bank interest rate
A. 1 and 2 D. State Welfare Board; NPS Tier-II yield
B. 2 and 3 Q111. Recently, the 25th meeting of the Zonal
C. 1 and 3 Council was held in Varanasi. Which of
D. 1, 2 and 3 the following statements regarding Zonal
Q108. Which of the following statements is/ Council is/are correct?
are incorrect with respect to the Dharti 1. It is a statutory body.
Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan 2. Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the
(DAJGUA)? council.
1. The scheme will cover about 63,000 3. Permanent Committee consist of Chief
villages and 549 districts across India. Secretaries of the state.
2. Up to ₹2 lakh per household is provided Choose the correct code:
for construction under Tribal Home A. 1 and 2
Stays initiative.
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B. 2 and 3 over ₹20,000 per day using e-rupee may

C. Only 2 face restrictions similar to cash-based
D. 1 and 3 transactions.
Q112. Consider the following statements How many of the above statements is/are
regarding the structure and membership correct?
of AIIB: A. Only One Statement
1. The AIIB headquarters is located in B. Only Two Statements
Shanghai, China. C. All of the above
2. China is the largest shareholder in the D. None of the above
AIIB with more than 25% ownership. Q115. Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved
3. The AIIB currently has 110 member the establishment of the International
countries, excluding the United States. Potato Centre (CIP)’s South Asia Regional
Which of the above statements is/are Centre (CSARC) at Singna, Agra, Uttar
correct? Pradesh. Where is the headquarters of the
A. Only 1 International Potato Centre (CIP) located?
B. 1 and 2 only A. Lima, Peru
C. 2 and 3 only B. New Delhi, India
D. Only 3 C. Beijing, China
Q113. As per the Reserve Bank of India’s data D. Washington, D.C., USA
released in June 2025 on India’s external Q116. Which city was designated as the
debt, which of the following correctly headquarters of the newly inaugurated
represents the descending order of National Turmeric Board?
currency-wise composition of India’s A. Warangal
external debt as of end-March 2025? B. Vijayawada
1. US Dollar C. Nizamabad
2. Indian Rupee D. Hyderabad
3. Japanese Yen Q117. Consider the following statements
4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) regarding India’s participation in the
5. Euro Axiom-4 Mission and identify the correct
Select the correct code: statements
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1. Shubhanshu Shukla became the first
B. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 Indian to travel to the International
C. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 Space Station (ISS) through a privately
D. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 contracted mission.
Q114. The RBI’s Central Bank Digital Currency 2. The Axiom-4 Mission was launched
(CBDC), the e-rupee, surpassed ₹1,000 using the Crew Dragon capsule named
crore in circulation. In this context, Grace, carried by SpaceX’s Falcon 9
consider the following statements: rocket.
3. The launch of Axiom-4 marked India’s
1. The e-rupee can be used for interbank
first human spaceflight mission since
settlements but does not earn interest
Kalpana Chawla’s return from ISS in
like conventional bank deposits.
2003.
2. Any digital rupee donation exceeding
₹2,000 is eligible for income tax Choose the correct code:
deduction under Section 80G. A. Only 1 and 2
3. Businesses receiving or repaying loans B. Only 2 and 3

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C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
Q118. Recently, during the 113th Session of
the International Labour Conference
held in Geneva, which of the following
Conventions was adopted as the first-ever
international labour standard specifically
aimed at preventing exposure to and
protecting workers from biological hazards
in the workplace?
A. Convention on Occupational Safety and
Health (COSH)
B. Convention on Biological Risk
Preparedness
C. Workplace Disease Prevention
Convention
D. Convention on Biological Hazards in the
Working Environment
Q119. Recently, the Ministry of Road Transport
and Highways announced the launch
of a FASTag-based annual pass for non-
commercial private vehicles, aimed at
reducing congestion at toll plazas. As per
the announcement, the pass is priced at
₹________ and is valid for either one year
or ________ highway trips, whichever
occurs earlier.
A. ₹2,000; 100
B. ₹3,000; 200
C. ₹3,500; 150
D. ₹2,500; 250
Q120. Recently, Bihar became the first Indian
state to adopt an e-voting system for urban
municipal polls. Which European country
is the only other one to have implemented
a similar e-voting system?
A. Norway
B. Sweden
C. Estonia
D. Finland

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Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 C 26 C 51 A 76 A 101 D
2 A 27 C 52 B 77 A 102 D
3 C 28 C 53 A 78 D 103 D
4 C 29 D 54 D 79 A 104 B
5 A 30 B 55 B 80 C 105 D
6 B 31 B 56 A 81 B 106 C
7 A 32 D 57 B 82 B 107 A
8 A 33 D 58 A 83 C 108 B
9 B 34 D 59 B 84 D 109 C
10 A 35 C 60 D 85 A 110 C
11 C 36 D 61 D 86 A 111 D
12 C 37 B 62 B 87 D 112 C
13 B 38 C 63 C 88 A 113 A
14 D 39 D 64 D 89 B 114 B
15 A 40 C 65 C 90 A 115 A
16 C 41 C 66 C 91 C 116 C
17 B 42 A 67 B 92 A 117 A
18 C 43 D 68 A 93 D 118 D
19 A 44 B 69 B 94 D 119 B
20 B 45 B 70 C 95 B 120 C
21 B 46 D 71 C 96 D
22 A 47 D 72 A 97 C
23 B 48 C 73 B 98 B
24 C 49 A 74 D 99 B
25 B 50 A 75 B 100 B

Detailed Explanation

Q1. “Had been” is the correct choice as the sentence Hence, option C is the correct answer.
refers to an action that was ongoing before another
past event (“he took action”), indicating the past Q2. “Remains to be seen” is an idiomatic expression
perfect continuous tense. meaning that the outcome is uncertain and will be
revealed in the future.
• “Was” (option A) is incorrect because it does not
show the continuity of the action. • “Remains a doubt” (option B) and “is a doubt”
(option D) are grammatically incorrect.
• “Has been” (option B) is incorrect because it refers
to present perfect continuous tense. • “Remains in doubt” (option C) is incorrect as it is
not a common English phrase.
• “Will be” (option D) is incorrect as it refers to
future tense. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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Q3. “A bird in hand is worth two in the bush” is a • Option (B) is incorrect as wealth accumulation is
well-known proverb, meaning that having something not the primary focus of citizen participation.
certain is better than taking a risk for more. • Option (C) is incorrect because governments still
• “At hand” (option A) means something is available play a vital role in policymaking.
but not secured. • Option (D) is incorrect as the passage discusses
• “In the cage” (option B) is not an idiom. urbanization, not migration to rural areas.
• “Within reach” (option D) implies something is Hence, option A is the correct answer.
accessible but not yet secured.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. Q8. The passage stresses that green spaces are essential
for sustainable urbanization, providing environmental
Q4. “Transcends” means to go beyond limits, which is and social benefits.
appropriate in the context of knowledge expanding its • Option (B) is incorrect because the passage
frontiers. supports expanding rather than removing green
• “Pursues” (option A) means to follow, which is spaces.
incorrect. • Option (C) is incorrect as no restriction on public
• “Defies” (option B) means to resist, which does not parks is mentioned.
fit. • Option (D) is incorrect as technology cannot fully
• “Confines” (option D) means to limit, which is the substitute natural spaces.
opposite of what the sentence suggests. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q9. The passage discusses balancing economic growth,
Q5. “Reflect” is correct because interpretations of environmental conservation, and social well-being,
history often show or represent subjective viewpoints. indicating the need for sustainable urban development.
• “Consolidate” (option B) means to strengthen or • Option (A) is incorrect because the passage
merge, which is incorrect. prioritizes long-term sustainability.
• “Determine” (option C) means to decide or • Option (C) is incorrect because prioritizing
establish, which does not fit. industrialization over the environment contradicts
sustainable development.
• “Counterbalance” (option D) means to offset,
which changes the meaning of the sentence. • Option (D) is incorrect as governments play a
significant role in urban planning.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q6. The passage highlights smart city technologies
such as IoT, AI, and data analytics as key components Q10. The passage clearly states that sustainable
of sustainable urbanization. urbanization relies on collaboration among
governments, businesses, and citizens to address
• Option (A) is incorrect as sustainability must global urban challenges.
balance economic growth with environmental
protection. • Option (B) is incorrect as fossil fuel dependence
contradicts sustainability efforts.
• Option (C) is incorrect because unregulated
population growth can strain urban infrastructure. • Option (C) is incorrect because human intervention
in planning is necessary for sustainable cities.
• Option (D) is incorrect as excessive industrialization
can contribute to pollution and resource depletion. • Option (D) is incorrect as economic growth should
be balanced with environmental policies.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Q7. The passage emphasizes that citizen participation
is crucial to ensuring inclusive policies that prioritize Q11. The sequence follows the logical flow of leadership
affordable housing, equitable access to resources, and skills—decision-making (R), adaptability (S), strategic
environmental sustainability. vision (P), and communication (Q), leading into S6,

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which highlights the importance of clear direction. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q20. “Decision” is singular, so the verb “were” should
Q12. The sequence follows a logical order of scientific be replaced with “was.”
research—its requirements (R), unpredictability (Q), its • Correct sentence: “The company’s decision to lay
applications (P), and its impact on society (S), leading off its employees was criticized by industry experts
to S6. as being too hasty.”
Hence, option C is the correct answer. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q13. The sentence order follows the progression of Q21. In Star Topology, all devices are connected to a
urbanization—its positive aspects (Q), the problems it central hub/switch, which manages communication.
creates (P), the need for governance (R), and potential
• Option A is incorrect – Bus topology uses a single
solutions (S), leading to S6.
communication line.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Option C is incorrect – Ring topology connects
Q14. The logical order follows the causes of climate devices in a closed loop.
change (P), its effects (R), global efforts (S), and • Option D is incorrect – Mesh topology connects
solutions (Q), leading to S6. devices directly to multiple other devices.
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Hence, option B is correct answer.

Q15. The order follows the impact of AI—its Q22. System software, such as operating systems,
applications (Q), automation (P), advantages (R), and manages hardware resources and provides a platform
challenges (S), leading to S6. for running applications.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. • Option B is incorrect – Application software is used
for specific user tasks (e.g., MS Word).
Q16. The phrase “despite of” is incorrect. The correct • Option C is incorrect – Utility software helps in
usage is “despite extensive testing” or “in spite of system maintenance but does not directly manage
extensive testing.” hardware.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • Option D is incorrect – Middleware facilitates
communication between different applications.
Q17. The subject “Neither of the candidates” is singular,
so the verb should be “was” instead of “were.” Hence, option A is correct answer.
• Correct sentence: “Neither of the candidates was Q23. The High-Definition Multimedia Interface
willing to withdraw from the election.” (HDMI) port allows transmission of high-quality video
Hence, option B is the correct answer. and audio signals.
• Option A is incorrect – VGA transmits only analog
Q18. “Each of the students” is singular, so the pronoun video, not audio.
“their” should be replaced with “his or her.”
• Option C is incorrect – PS/2 is used for old keyboard
• Correct sentence: “The professor insisted that and mouse connections.
each of the students submit his or her assignment
before the deadline.” • Option D is incorrect – Serial ports transmit data
one bit at a time and are used for legacy devices.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q19. The verb “knowing” should not be in the
continuous tense. “Know” is a stative verb and does Q24. The Control Unit (CU) directs the operation of
not take the continuous form. the processor by fetching, decoding, and executing
instructions.
• Correct sentence: “If I had known about the
policy change earlier, I would have made different • Option A is incorrect – The ALU performs
decisions.” mathematical operations.

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• Option B is incorrect – Input/output devices are Q29. RAM is volatile, meaning data is lost when power
managed by specialized controllers. is turned off.  
• Option D is incorrect – Frequently used data is • Option A (ROM) is incorrect because it is non-
stored in cache memory or registers. volatile.  
Hence, option C is correct answer. • Option B (Flash Memory) is incorrect because it
retains data without power.  
Q25. The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is responsible • Option C (HDD) is incorrect because they provide
for performing all arithmetic (addition, subtraction, non-volatile storage.
multiplication, division) and logical (AND, OR, NOT)
operations within a computer. Hence, option D is correct answer.
• Option A is incorrect – Data storage is handled by Q30. Cache memory speeds up CPU processing by
memory and storage devices. storing frequently accessed data.
• Option C is incorrect – Machine code is not • Option A is incorrect because the OS is stored in
translated by the ALU but by a compiler or ROM or HDD/SSD.
interpreter.
• Option C is incorrect since cache memory has
• Option D is incorrect – The Control Unit (CU) nothing to do with HDD backup.
manages communication between CPU and
memory. • Option D is incorrect because user files are stored
in secondary storage.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q26. Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet application, used
for various tasks, making it general-purpose software. Q31. In tripartite industrial relations, the three main
groups involved are workers, employers, and the
• Option A is incorrect because system software government. The government plays an important role
includes OS and utilities, not applications. in ensuring fairness and addressing disagreements.
• Option B is incorrect because utilities are tools like Hence, option B is correct answer.
disk defragmenters.
• Option D is incorrect as specific-purpose software is Q32. The Bombay Mill Hands Association was the
designed for a single task, like payroll management. first workers’ association formed in 1890, following
Hence, option C is correct answer. the enactment of the Factories Act in 1881. It was
established through the efforts of N.M. Lokhande.
Q27. C++ is an object-oriented programming language.   Hence, option D is correct answer.
• Option A (FORTRAN) and Option B (COBOL) are
incorrect because they are procedural languages.   Q33. The Directorate General, Factory Advice Service
and Labour Institutes (DGFASLI) acts as a watchdog for
• Option D (BASIC) is incorrect as it is a simple occupational safety and health of workers in India.
procedural language.  
• DGFASLI is responsible for conducting inspections
Hence, option C is correct answer. related to workplace safety and health issues.
Q28. Antivirus software is classified as security • It has its headquarters in Mumbai, along with the
software, not system software. Central Labour Institute, and four regional offices
in Chennai, Kanpur, Kolkata, and Faridabad.
• Option A (Operating System) is incorrect because
OS is a key system software. • The key activities of DGFASLI include policy
framing, planning, and executing programs related
• Option B (Device Drivers) is incorrect as they help to worker safety, health, and welfare in industries.
hardware communicate with the OS.
Hence, option D is correct answer.
• Option D (Language Translator) is incorrect because
compilers and interpreters are system software.
Hence, option C is correct answer.

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Q34. The Bombay Mill Hands Association, founded in o The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
1890 by Lala Lajpat Rai, was the earliest trade union o The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
in India, focusing on improving working conditions for
laborers. o The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
• The Madras Labour Union, founded by B. P. Wadia o The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
in 1918, was the first registered trade union in Hence, option B is correct answer.
India, playing a key role in advocating for labor
rights. Q38. The Mines Act, 1952
• The All-India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was Limitation of Daily Hours of Work
formed in 1920 by Lala Lajpat Rai and others • No person employed in a mine shall be required
and became India’s first national trade union or allowed to work in the mine for more than 10
federation, uniting various regional unions for hours in any day, inclusive of overtime.
collective action.
• Prohibition of Employment of Certain Persons
Hence, option D is correct answer.
• No person shall be required or allowed to work in
Q35. The Code of Discipline was first discussed in the a mine if they have already been working in any
15th Indian Labour Conference in July 1957. other mine within the preceding twelve hours.
• It was later ratified in the 16th session of the Indian Hours of Work Below Ground
Labour Conference and officially came into effect • No adult employed below ground in a mine shall
on June 1, 1958. be allowed to work for more than 48 hours in any
• The Code of Discipline emphasizes creating an week or for more than 8 hours in any day.
atmosphere of mutual regard and respect to Hours of Work Above Ground
promote harmonious relations and industrial • No adult employed above ground in a mine shall
peace, and it encourages both parties not to take be required or allowed to work for more than 48
unilateral actions. hours in any week or for more than 9 hours in any
Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect. day.
Hence, option C is correct answer. Hence, option C is correct answer.

Q36. As per The Code on Social Security, 2020, 9 Acts Q39. Statement 1 is incorrect: If a penalty is imposed
are to be repealed, which include: by the Director-General, the appeal must be made to
o The Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 the Central Government, not the State Government.
o The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 • Statement 2 is correct: An appeal must be filed
within 3 months from the date the penalty is
o The Employees’ Provident Funds and communicated to the person.
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
• Statement 3 is incorrect: If a penalty is imposed by
o The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 the Chief Inspector, the appeal must be made to the
o The Cine-Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981 State Government, not the Central Government.
o The Building and Other Construction Workers’ Hence, option D is correct answer.
Welfare Cess Act, 1996
o The Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, Q40. The correct answer is the Third Schedule:
2008 According to Section 6 of the Payment of Bonus Act,
1965, apart from the amounts like depreciation,
o The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 development rebate, investment allowance, and
o The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory direct taxes mentioned in the Income Tax Act, the
Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959   Third Schedule specifies additional sums that are to be
Hence, option D is correct answer. deducted from gross profits.
Hence, option C is correct answer.
Q37. Acts Subsumed under Code on Wages, 2019

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Q41. [A] is correct: The Contract Labour (Regulation Hence, option D is correct answer.
and Abolition) Act, 1970 mandates that no court shall
take cognizance of any offence except on a complaint Q44. [A] is incorrect: The proposal must be supported
made by, or with the previous sanction of the inspector. by at least 60% of the votes of members from each
• [B] is correct: The Inter-State Migrant Workmen Trade Union, not just one.
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of • [B] is correct: The amalgamation of Trade Unions
Service) Act, 1979 stipulates that no principal requires the votes of at least one-half of the
employer shall employ inter-State migrant members of each Trade Union entitled to vote,
workmen unless a certificate of registration in with at least 60% of those votes in favor of the
respect of the establishment is in force. proposal.
• [C] is incorrect: The Child and Adolescent Labour • [C] is incorrect: The proposal for amalgamation
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 prohibits the cannot be passed with a simple majority vote of
employment of children in hazardous occupations. any one Trade Union alone.
However, it allows children to help their family or • [D] is incorrect: A written consent from the leaders
family enterprise in non-hazardous occupations is not sufficient; the voting requirement as outlined
after school hours or during vacations, not in in the Act must be met.
hazardous occupations as stated in this option.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
• [D] is correct: The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
mandates the formation of Grievance Redressal Q45. As per the Factories Act, 1948, the work period
Committees in industrial establishments employing for adult workers must not exceed 5 hours, and they
20 or more workmen for the resolution of disputes. must have a rest interval of at least half an hour after
Hence, option C is correct answer. 5 hours of work.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q42. Statement 1 is incorrect: A person employed in a
public utility service cannot go on strike without giving Q46. Statement 1 is incorrect: A compound is formed by
prior notice as stipulated in the Act. chemically combining elements in a fixed proportion,
• Statement 2 is correct: According to the Industrial not just mixing them in any proportion.
Disputes Act, 1947, a person must give notice of • Statement 2 is correct: A mixture retains
strike at least six weeks before striking. the properties of its constituent elements or
• Statement 3 is correct: The Act prohibits strikes compounds.
during the pendency of conciliation proceedings • Statement 3 is incorrect: A solution is a
and for seven days after the conclusion of such homogeneous mixture, not a heterogeneous
proceedings. mixture.
• Hence, the correct combination is 2 and 3. Hence, option D is correct answer.
Hence, option A is correct answer.
Q47. Diamond, Graphite, and Fullerene are all
Q43. Statement 1 is correct: Occupiers must prioritize allotropes of carbon, meaning they are different
the health, safety, and welfare of workers, ensuring it structural forms of the element carbon, each with
is as practicable as possible. distinct physical properties.  
• Statement 2 is correct: Occupiers are responsible • Diamond is extremely hard and has a high melting
for ensuring safe plant and work systems and point, with carbon atoms arranged in a tetrahedral
maintaining safety in the handling of articles and structure.
substances. • Graphite consists of carbon atoms arranged
• Statement 3 is correct: The Act requires occupiers in hexagonal layers, and it conducts heat and
to create and update a written statement outlining electricity well.
their health and safety policy and the organizational • Fullerene forms closed, hollow molecules, such as
arrangements for its implementation. C-60 (Buckminster fullerene), which can act as a
• Therefore, all of the above statements are correct. semiconductor, conductor, and superconductor.

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• Quartz, on the other hand, is a mineral composed • Statement 2 is incorrect: While heartbeats are
of silicon and oxygen, not a form of carbon. infrasonic, they are not the only source of infrasonic
Therefore, it is not an allotrope of carbon. waves. Infrasonic waves are also produced by
• The correct answer is “Quartz.” earthquakes and other natural phenomena.  
Hence, option D is correct answer. • Statement 3 is correct: Infrasonic waves are
used for monitoring earthquakes, charting rock
Q48. Valency refers to the number of valence formations, and even petroleum formations below
electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom. the earth.  
It determines the bonding capacity of an element, i.e., • Statement 4 is incorrect: Infrasound is known for
how many bonds it can form with other atoms.   its ability to cover long distances and get around
• Atomic number is the number of protons in the obstacles with little dissipation.  
nucleus of an atom and determines the element’s • The correct answer is “1 and 3 are correct.”
identity.   Hence, option A is correct answer.
• Mass number is the total number of protons and
neutrons in an atom’s nucleus.   Q52. Statement B is incorrect: The midbrain consists of
• Isotopy refers to different forms of an element that the tectum and tegmentum, not the cerebellum and
have the same number of protons but a different medulla oblongata. The cerebellum and medulla are
number of neutrons.   part of the hindbrain.  
• The correct answer is “Valency.” • The other statements (A, C, and D) are correct,
as the midbrain processes auditory and visual
Hence, option C is correct answer. information, plays a role in motor control, and is
located between the forebrain and hindbrain.
Q49. A Tribometer is an instrument used to measure
friction on surfaces. It is specifically designed to Hence, option B is correct answer.
measure the force of friction that resists the relative
motion between two contacting surfaces, often used in Q53. Statement 1 is correct: The sensory (afferent)
material science and engineering applications.   pathways provide input from the body into the CNS.  
• A Barometer measures atmospheric pressure, • Statement 2 is incorrect: The motor (efferent)
a Thermometer measures temperature, and a pathways carry signals from the CNS to muscles
Hygrometer measures the level of humidity in the and glands, not the other way around.  
air.   • Statement 3 is correct: The Somatic Nervous
System controls the muscular system and external
• The correct answer is “Tribometer.”
sensory receptors.  
Hence, option A is correct answer.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The Autonomic Nervous
System controls internal organs, not voluntary
Q50. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. Example 1
skeletal muscles.  
describes a moving car on a highway, which has energy
due to its motion (this is kinetic energy).   • The correct answer is “1 and 3 are correct.”
• Potential energy is the energy stored in an object Hence, option A is correct answer.
due to its position or configuration. Example
2 describes the energy stored in a stretched Q54. Statement 1 is correct: Carbohydrates consist of
bowstring, which is potential energy due to its carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.  
position and configuration.   • Statement 2 is correct: Glucose is present in our
• The correct answer is “Example 1 is kinetic energy, blood, and the normal blood glucose level is
and Example 2 is potential energy.” between 70-100 mg/dL.  
• Statement 3 is correct: Starch is a major
Hence, option A is correct answer.
carbohydrate source in our diet, found in foods like
potatoes, wheat, rice, and bananas.  
Q51. Statement 1 is correct: Infrasonic waves have
frequencies less than 20 Hz, ranging from 20 Hz to • The correct answer is None of the above.
0.001 Hz.   Hence, option D is correct answer.

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Q55. Statement B is incorrect: While artificial TFAs are in response to the unjust tax demands on farmers in
largely produced artificially through hydrogenation, Kheda district during a drought, where Gandhiji called
small amounts of natural TFAs are found in meats and for non-payment of taxes, and Sardar Vallabhbhai
dairy products.   Patel played a major role in organizing the peasants.  
• Statement A is correct: Trans fats are considered • Champaran Satyagraha (1917), though a significant
the most harmful type of fats, having more adverse movement led by Gandhiji, was focused on the
effects on health than other fats.   exploitation of indigo farmers in Bihar and was not
• Statement C is correct: Artificial TFAs are formed a non-cooperation movement.  
when hydrogen reacts with oil, resulting in fats • Salt March (1930) was part of the civil disobedience
that resemble ghee or butter.   movement, which came later, not Gandhiji’s first
• Statement D is correct: Artificial TFAs are found non-cooperation movement.  
in partially hydrogenated vegetable oils (PHVO), • Quit India Movement (1942) was a call for
vanaspati, and margarine, while natural TFAs immediate independence and came much later in
are present in meats and dairy products in small Gandhiji’s struggle.
amounts. Hence, option A is correct answer.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q59. Fana refers to the spiritual merger of the devotee
Q56. Statement 1: Dr. Ambedkar was indeed a key with Allah, represented by [C].  
proponent of the Communal Award of 1932, which • Insaan-e-Kamil is described as a perfect human
granted separate electorates for the Depressed with all good virtues, represented by [B].  
Classes, making this statement accurate.
• Zikr Tauba emphasizes the remembrance of God
• Statement 2: Dr. Ambedkar founded the all the time [A].  
Independent Labour Party in 1936 to represent the
interests of workers and laborers, which is true. • Wahadat-ul-wazud teaches that there is only one
God for the entire Universe, represented by [D].  
• Statement 3: Dr. Ambedkar was a strong advocate
for the abolition of the caste system, but he • Sama involves spiritual dance and music, even
strongly supported the formation of political though music is considered un-Islamic in certain
organizations for Dalits, such as the Depressed contexts, represented by [E].
Classes Federation and the Republican Party of Hence, option B is correct answer.
India. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Hence, option A is correct answer. Q60. Saga Dawa is mostly celebrated by Buddhist
communities in Sikkim.  
Q57. Statement 1: The deadline of June 30, 1948, for • It is observed on the full moon day that falls in
the transfer of power was indeed fixed in Attlee’s the middle of the Tibetan lunar month called Saga
February Declaration, regardless of whether Indian Dawa, which typically occurs between April and
politicians had agreed on the constitution, making this May.
statement accurate.   Hence, option D is correct answer.
• Statement 2: The British powers and obligations
concerning the princely states would not be Q61. Dhrupad Style of Hindustani Music
transferred to any successor government in British Historical Roots of Dhrupad Music:
India after the transfer of power. Therefore, this
statement is incorrect. • One of the oldest and grandest forms of Hindustani
classical music.
• Statement 3: Mountbatten replaced Wavell as
the viceroy under the provisions of the February • Mentioned in Natyashastra (200 BC - 200 AD).
Declaration, making this statement correct. • Roots in earlier forms of music like Prabandha and
Hence, option B is correct answer. Dhruvapada.
• Consolidated as a classical music form in the 13th
Q58. Kheda Satyagraha (1918) was Gandhiji’s first century and reached its peak during Emperor
non-cooperation movement in India. It was launched Akbar’s reign.

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• Major proponents: Gopaldas, Haridas & Tansen, and dissolve the State legislative Assembly.
who adorned the court of Emperor Akbar. • He can address the State legislature at the
• Important Features of Dhrupad Music: commencement of the first session after each
• Essentially a poetic form incorporated into an general election and the first session of each year.
extended presentation style. • He can send messages to the House regarding Bills
• Characterized by precise and over-elaborate or otherwise.
expressions of a raga. APPOINTMENTS
• Uses Sanskrit syllables and has temple origins. • He can nominate one-sixth of the members of
• Compositions typically contain 4 to 5 stanzas and the State legislative Council from fields such as
are performed by a duo. art, science, literature, social service, and the
• Generally, two vocalists perform Dhrupad style. Cooperative movement.
Tanpura and Pakhawaj usually accompany. • He can nominate one member to the State
• Classification of Dhrupad Music: legislative Assembly from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
• Dhrupad singing is divided into four forms based
on vanis or banis they perform:   • He can appoint any member of the State legislative
Assembly to preside over its proceedings when the
o Dagari Gharana
offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker fall
o Darbhanga Gharana vacant.
o Bettiah Gharana • He can do the same in case of the Chairman and
o Talwandi Gharana Vice-Chairman of the legislative Council.
• Bhairav Gharana is not part of the classification. Hence, option D is correct answer.
Hence, option D is correct answer.
Q65. Statement 1 is correct: The Act provides for a
Q62. The Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple is five-year term for every municipality.  
dedicated to Lord Shiva.   • Statement 2 is correct: A municipality can be
• The temple was built during the Kakatiya period dissolved before the completion of its term.  
and is one of the most significant temples in • Statement 3 is incorrect: Fresh elections for
Telangana.   a dissolved municipality must be held within
• It is particularly known for its intricate architectural 6 months, not 5 months, from the date of
design and has been a key symbol of the region’s dissolution.  
cultural heritage. • Statement 4 is correct: If the remainder of the
Hence, option B is correct answer. period is less than six months, no election is
required for the new municipality.
Q63. The themes of Pattachitra paintings are not Hence, option C is correct answer.
limited to just the Jagannath and Vaishnava cults; they
can also be inspired by the Shakti and Shaiva cults.   Q66. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution gives
• The other statements are correct: Pattachitra the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes
paintings are created on treated cloth, colors between the Centre and one or more States, between
come from natural sources, and the paintings are the Centre and States on opposite sides, or between
finished with lacquer.   two or more States.  
• Raghurajpur in Odisha is indeed known for this • Article 143 provides the President with the power
art form, and Pattachitra on palm leaf is called to consult the Supreme Court on matters of
talapattachitra. advisory jurisdiction.  
Hence, option C is correct answer. • Special leave to appeal under Article 136 grants
the Supreme Court discretion to hear appeals
Q64. LEGISLATIVE POWERS from judgments or orders passed by any court or
tribunal in India, but does not apply to military
• He can summon or prorogue the State legislature tribunals or courts martial.  

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• The Supreme Court is a Court of Record, and its Hence, option C is correct answer.
judgments are recognized as legal precedents and
of evidentiary value. Q71. Statement 1 is correct: The ECI was established
Hence, option C is correct answer. on 25th January 1950, and National Voters’ Day has
been celebrated on this date since 2011.  
Q67. Statement 1 is correct: The CAG is indeed the • Statement 2 is incorrect: The ECI administers
head of the Indian audit and account department and elections not only to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
the Chief Guardian of Public purse. and State Legislative Assemblies, but also to the
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution offices of the President and Vice President.  
does not specify any qualification for the post of • Statement 3 is correct: The Chief Election
CAG, nor does the CAG’s Act, 1971. Commissioner and two Election Commissioners
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The CAG holds office for have been a permanent part of the commission
a term of six years or until the age of 65, not 70. since 1993.
• Statement 4 is correct: The CAG can be removed Hence, option C is correct answer.
only in the manner and on the grounds that a Judge
of the Supreme Court is removed, i.e., proven Q72. Statement 1 is correct: The 97th Amendment,
misbehaviour or incapacity. 2011 granted constitutional status to cooperative
societies by including them in Article 19(1)(c), making
Hence, option B is correct answer. it a fundamental right.  
Q68. The theme for the United Nations International • Statement 2 is correct: The amendment inserted
Year of Cooperatives 2025 (IYC 2025) is “Cooperatives Article 43B as a directive principle to promote the
Build a Better World”, as proclaimed by the United growth and development of cooperatives.  
Nations General Assembly in June 2024. • Statement 3 is incorrect: The amendment added a
Hence, option A is correct answer. new Part IXB to the Constitution, which introduced
Articles 243ZH to 243ZT for the governance of
Q69. The aim of Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0 is to cooperative societies.
empower elected women representatives from Hence, option A is correct answer.
Scheduled Tribes in Panchayati Raj institutions.  
• It seeks to enhance their knowledge of Q73. 6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B = 7: 6  
constitutional provisions, parliamentary Let ages of A & B 6 years ago be 7x & 6x respectively.
procedures, and governance to foster effective Present ages of A and B = 7x + 6, 6x + 6
leadership.  
According to the question, A ‘s age after 6 years is 40
• The program is organized by National Commission
for Women, Lok Sabha Secretariat, and Ministry 7x + 6 + 6 = 40
of Tribal Affairs to focus on women’s leadership 7x = 28
development.
x=4
Hence, option B is correct answer.
A’s present age = 7 x 4 + 6 = 34 years
Q70. Statement 1 is correct: The Doctrine of Merger B’s present age = 6 x 4 + 6 = 30 years
was indeed explained in the case Kunhayammed v. Present age of C = (1/6) ×B’s present age + 10
State of Kerala (2000).  
C’s present age = (1/6) ×30 + 10 = 15
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The doctrine does not
Required ratio = 30: 15 = 2: 1
allow more than one decree or operative order
governing the same subject matter at the same Hence, option B is the correct answer.
time.  
• Statement 3 is correct: Once the superior court Q74. Statement I: No link of selling price with marked
disposes of a case, its decision becomes final, or cost price.
binding, and operative, and it merges the lower Statement II: We don’t know whether the selling price
court’s decision into it. is more or less than the cost price.

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Using both the statements: Doesn’t satisfy the given condition.

When sold at a loss: Hence, option B is the correct answer.
SP = 1500
Q76. 1/m + 4/n = 1/12
CP = 1500 + 800 = 2300
Or 1/m = 1/12 – 4/n
MP = 2300 + 1300 = 3600
Or m = 12n/ (n – 48)
When sold at a profit:
So, minimum value of n will be 49.
SP = 1500
We also know that n is an odd integer and less than 60.
CP = 1500 – 800 = 700 So, possible values of n are 49, 51, 53, 55, 57 and 59.
MP = 700 + 1300 = 2000 If n = 49, then: m = (12 × 49)/(49 – 48) = 588
As two conditions are possible If n = 51, then: m = (12 × 51)/ (51 – 48) = 204
Both the statements are together insufficient. If n = 53, then: m = (12 × 53)/ (53 – 48) → not an integer
Hence, option D is the correct answer. If n = 55, then: m = (12 × 55)/(55 – 48) → not an integer
Q75. We know that If n = 57, then: m = (12 × 57) (57 – 48) = 76
Average of n consecutive even/odd numbers = first If n = 59, then: m = (12 × 59)/(59 – 48) → not an integer
term + (n – 1) So, 3 pairs of positive integers m, n satisfy the given
56 = first term + (5 – 1) equation and conditions.
First term = 56 – 4 Hence, option A is the correct answer.
First term = 52 Q77. 3#005 ÷ 185 = 173
Set of even numbers = {52, 54, 56, 58, 60} From this we get,
(I) 3#005 = 185 × 173 = 32005
18 = first term + (6 – 1) On comparing both sides we get, # = 2
First term = 18 – 5 2 is the smallest even number.  
First term = 13 Hence, Statement I is correct.
Set of odd numbers = {13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23} 7 to the power #, i.e., 72 is not completely divisible by
Required percentage = 52/13 x 100 = 400% = 400 16.  
Satisfies the given condition. Hence, Statement II is wrong.
(II) 2 is a prime number.  
44 = first term + (6 – 1) Hence, Statement III is wrong.
First term = 44 – 5 Hence, option A is the correct answer.
First term = 39
Q78. For 2-digit number ‘N’, let unit digit be ‘b’ and
Set of odd numbers = {39, 41, 43, 45, 47, 49} ten’s digit be ‘a’
Required percentage = 52/39 x 100 = 400/3% = 400/3 Therefore, N = 10a + b
Satisfies the given condition. So, M = 10b + a
(III) Statement I:
38 = first term + (6 – 1) 4=a×b
First term = 38 – 5 So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
First term = 33 the question.
Set of odd numbers = {33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43) Statement II:
Required percentage = 52/33 x 100 = 157.57% ≠ 117 (10a + b) × (10b + a) = 574

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Or, 100ab + 10a²+ 10b²+ ab = 574 Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be 7x cm
So, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer and 6x cm, respectively
the question. Therefore, area of the rectangle = 7x × 6x + 1975 =
Combining statement, I and II, we have; (42x² + 1975) cm²
(10a + b) × (10b + a) = 574 So, data in statement III alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
Or, 100ab + 10a²+ 10b²+ ab = 574
Combining statements, I and II:
So, 10a²+ 10b²= 574 – (100 × 4) – 4
Area of circle = πr² = (22/7) × 35 × 35 = 3850 cm²
Or, 10(a²+ b²) = 170
Therefore, area of square = 3850 – 825 = 3025 cm²
Or, (a²+ b²) = 17
Therefore, each side of the square = √3025 = 55 cm
We know that (a + b) ² = a²+ b²+ 2ab
Perimeter of the square = 4 × 55 = 220 cm
So, (a + b) ² = 17 + 2 × 4
So, data in statements I and II together is sufficient to
Or, (a + b) ² = 25 answer the question.
So, a + b = 5 ……… (I) Combining statements II and III:
Also, ab = 4 We cannot determine the perimeter of square ‘A’
Or, b = (4/a) …… (II) So, data in statements II and III together is not sufficient
Putting the value of ‘b’ in equation (I), we get to answer the question.
{a + (4/a)} = 5 Combining statements, I and III
Or, a²– 5a + 4 = 0 We cannot determine the perimeter of square ‘A’
Or, a²- 4a – a + 4 = 0 So, data in statements I and III together are not
Or, a (a – 4) – 1(a – 4) = 0 sufficient to answer the question.
Or, (a – 1) (a – 4) = 0 So, data in statements I and II together are sufficient to
answer the question while data in statement III alone
Or, a = 1 or 4 is not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, b = 4 or 1 Hence, option A is the correct answer.
So, possible values of ‘N’ = 41 and 14.
Therefore, data given in both statements I and II Q80. 468/192 = 22×68 / (64×3)
together is not sufficient to answer the question. 468/192 = 2136 / (26×3)
Hence, option D is the correct answer. 468/192 = 2130/3 (in the end we will multiply the answer
with 26)
Q79. Let each side of the square ‘A’ be ‘a’ cm. 21/3→ Remainder is 2
Let the radius of the circle ‘B’ be ‘r’ cm 22/3 →Remainder is 1
Statement I: 23/3 →Remainder is 2 ............... and so on.
According to the question, So, when power is odd, we get remainder 2.
(πr² – a²) = 825 & when power is even, we get remainder 1.
So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer Therefore, in case of 2130/3 we will get remainder 1.
the question.  
Required Remainder = 1×26 = 64
Statement II:
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
2πr = 220
Or, r = 220 × (7/44) = 35 cm Q81. Ratio of efficiency of A and B is 3:2
So, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer Ratio of time of B and C = 3:4
the question. Efficiency of B & C = 4:3
Statement III: A: B = 3:2……………… multiply by 4

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B:C = 4:3………………. multiply by 2 From equation (i), we have

A completes work in 20 days. Either y = 4 and x = 8 or y = 8 and x = 4
B complete the work in 20×3/2=30 days. Hence, the difference of x and y = 8 – 4 = 4.
C complete the work in 30×4/3= 40 days. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Total work is 240 units.
Q84.
Efficiency of A, B and C is 12,8,6 respectively.
Now, total done before C did alone is = 12×2+ [12+8]
×2+8×2+14×4=136  
So left work =240-136 = 104
33.33% more = 133.33% = 4/3
104-unit work C did in 6×133.33/100 = 8 Efficiency
So, time taken C to finished the work = 104/8=13 Similarly,
Total time taken = 13+10=23 days
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q82. The word is given as -  

‘PERMUTATION’  
The number of letters in the given word is   Hence, option D is the correct answer.
11
Q85. 16th July, 1776 = (1775 years + Period from 1st
The letter ‘T’ is repeated 22 times and there
Jan, 1776 to 16th July, 1776)
is no other repetition of any other letter.  
Counting of odd days:
So, the permutation is -  
1600 years have 0 odd day.
p(n,r) = (11!)/2!
100 years have 5 odd days.
p(n,r) = (11×10×9×8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1)/2×1
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years) = [(18 × 2)
p(n,r) = (39916800)/2 + (57 × 1)] = 93 (13 weeks + 2 days) = 2 odd days
p(n,r) =19958400 1775 years have (0 + 5 + 2) odd days = 7 odd days = 0
Hence, option B is the correct answer. odd day.  
Jan  Feb  Mar  Apr  May  Jun  Jul   
Q83. If a number is divisible by 72, the number is also
divisible by 8 and 9. 31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 16 = 198 days = (28 weeks
+ 2 days)  
2 + 6 + 5 + x + 4 + 8 + 0 + y + 8 = x + y + 33
Total number of odd days = (0 + 2) = 2.   
For 265x480y8 to be divisible by 9,
Required day was ‘Tuesday’.
(x + y + 33) should be divisible by 9.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
(x + y + 6 +27) should be divisible by 9.
(x + y + 6) should be divisible by 9. Q86. The angle between the hour hand and the minute
x + y = 3 or 12 … (i) hand can be calculated using the formula given below:
For 265x480y8 to be divisible by 8, the number formed Angle = [(11/2) M - 30H] {M = minutes and H = hours}
by the last three digits (0y8) should be divisible by 8. Here, M = 52, H =2
0y8 = 10y + 8 = 8y + 2y + 8 = 8(y + 1) + 2y Angle = (11/2) × 52 - 30×2
Since 8(y + 1) is divisible by 8, 0y8 is divisible by 8. Angle = 286 - 60 = 226 degree
2y should also be divisible by 8. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
⇒ y can be 4 or 8.    

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Q87. All Statements are incorrect because system. The purpose is monetary management,
• It is macroeconomic policy not microeconomic not public debt management—which is handled
by the Ministry of Finance.
• It is formulated by Finance Ministry. And Monetary
policy is formulated by RBI Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• There is separate fiscal policy for centre and states. Q91. An insurance policy is a legal contract between
Hence, option D is the correct answer. the insurer and the insured, where the insurer promises
to compensate the insured for certain defined losses
Q88. Statement 1 is correct: Capital expenditure in return for a premium. It’s the foundation of any
includes things like infrastructure or loan repayments. insurance agreement.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Revenue expenditure Hence, option C is the correct answer.
may or may not be productive; for instance,
spending on education is productive. Q92. When the owner withdraws any money from
• Statement 3 is correct: Salaries, interest payments, the business for his personal expenses(drawings), it
subsidies are classic revenue expenditures. is treated as a reduction of the owner’s capital and
consequently, a reduction in the liabilities of the
Hence, option A is the correct answer. business As well as a reduction in the assets of the
business since the withdrawal has to be made out of
Q89. Statement 1 is correct. The IHDI adjusts the the Cash/Bank Account of the Business.
standard HDI by considering inequalities in health,
education, and income. Additional Information
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The IHDI value is always • Assets: Assets are the properties owned by the
equal to or lower than the standard HDI because business. They are the economic resources of the
it factors in inequality. business.
• Statement 3 is correct. A greater gap between HDI • Profit: It means income earned by the business
and IHDI indicates higher levels of inequality in the from its Operating Activities. Profit is further
country. divided into gross profit and net profit.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. • Gain: It is a profit of an irregular or non-recurrent
nature.
Q90. Statement 1: Correct • Expenditure: It is the amount spent or liability
• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a percentage of incurred for acquiring assets, goods or services.
total deposits that banks are required to maintain Expenditures may be categorized into Capital and
with the RBI in cash form. A higher CRR means Revenue Expenditure.
less money available for banks to lend, tightening • Loss: It is an excess of expenses of a period over its
liquidity. It is a direct and powerful tool used to revenues. It decreases the owner’s equity.
curb inflation or stimulate growth. Hence, option A is correct answer.
Statement 2: Correct
• The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) mandates Q93. The cost principle is an accounting principle that
banks to keep a certain portion of their deposits requires assets, liabilities, and equity investments to
in approved securities (mostly government be recorded on financial records at their original cost.
securities). This affects the availability of credit • According to the cost principle, transactions should
in the economy. A higher SLR reduces the funds be listed on financial records at historical cost – i.e.
available with banks for lending, hence reducing the original cash value at the time the asset was
liquidity. purchased – rather than the current market value.
Statement 3: Incorrect • The cost principle is also known as the historical
• Open Market Operations (OMOs) are conducted cost principle and the historical cost concept.
by the RBI, not the government, and involve the Hence, option D is the correct answer.
buying and selling of government securities in the
open market to regulate liquidity in the banking

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Q94. Shares would be subscribed and Fully Paid up Hence, option D is the correct answer.
only when Subscribed Capital = Paid Up Capital.
• Subscribed Capital: This refers to the total Q97. The rights are sold to somebody else at a price by
value of shares that investors have agreed to the shareholder. This is called renunciation of Rights.
purchase, whether they have paid for them or not. • Renunciation of Rights will be only possible if that
Paid-Up Capital: This refers to the are not prohibited by Articles of Association.
actual amount that has been paid by • The rights issue renunciation is the transfer of the
shareholders for the subscribed shares. rights entitlements by a shareholder not willing to
For shares to be considered fully paid-up, the accept the rights offer and want to renounce the
amount that shareholders have paid must be equal shares in favour of another person.
to the subscribed capital, meaning no further
payments are due on those shares. • This process of transfer or sale to another person
is known as the renunciation of rights share. The
• If a company issues 1,000 shares at ₹100 person selling the rights entitlement is known as
each, the Subscribed Capital is ₹1,00,000. the renouncer and the person buying the rights
If shareholders have paid the full ₹1,00,000, the entitlements is known as the renounce.
Paid-Up Capital is also ₹1,00,000, making the
shares fully paid-up. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Q98. Errors of commission occur when entries are
made in the correct class of account (like personal
Q95. To Balance b/f” and “By Balance b/f” are used in
or real) but the amount is incorrect or the posting is
ledgers when carrying forward balances.
made to the wrong person/account. Example from the
• “To Balance b/f” is used on the debit side of paragraph: Rs. 25,000 was supposed to be debited to
accounts. Preetpal’s account, but only Rs. 2,500 was posted - this
• “By Balance b/f” is used on the credit side of is an Error of Commission.
accounts. Hence option B is the correct answer.
These phrases indicate the brought forward
(b/f) balances from the previous accounting period Q99. Only transactions that can be measured in
and are the first entries made in a new accounting monetary terms are recorded, which aligns with the
period to carry over the closing balances. Money Measurement Concept.
• Assets and expenses usually have debit balances • The Money Measurement Concept in accounting
(To Balance b/f). states that only transactions and events that can
be expressed in monetary terms are recorded in
• Liabilities, income, and capital usually have credit
the financial statements. Non-monetary items,
balances (By Balance b/f).
like employee morale or brand reputation, are not
Hence, option B is the correct answer. included.
• A, C, D, E are all qualitative factors and cannot be
Q96. The correct order is - (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv),
expressed in money, so they are not recorded in
(C) – (i), (D) – (ii) accounting.
• AS 26: Deals with Intangible Assets, covering the Hence, option B is the correct answer.
recognition, measurement, and amortization of
intangible assets. Q100. The balance of a petty cash book is an asset as
• AS 10: Relates to the Accounting for Fixed Assets, it is treated as a current asset. Hence, Statement 1 is
specifying how to account for tangible assets. incorrect.
• AS 28: Addresses the Impairment of Assets, detailing • Other income is income that does not come from a
how to recognize and measure impairment losses company’s main business, such as interest. Hence,
for assets. Statement 2 is correct.
• AS 24: Covers Discounting operations, focusing • Examples of other income include income from
on the treatment of discontinued operations in interest, rent, and gains resulting from the sale of
financial statements. fixed assets. Companies present other income in a

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separate section, before income from operations. reflecting the net profit or loss.
• Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or • Cash Flow Statement: This statement details the
reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash inflows and outflows of a company categorized
cash flows. Capital receipts can be both non-debt into operating, investing, and financing activities.
and debt receipts. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
• In the balance sheet, capital receipts are mentioned
in the liabilities section. Hence, Statement 3 is Q104. A financial audit, also known as a financial
correct. statement audit, is a systematic and objective
Hence, option B is the correct answer. evaluation of an organization’s financial reports to
ensure their accuracy and compliance with relevant
Q101. Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current accounting standards and regulations, such as Ind AS
Liabilities = 2.5 or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
So, Current Assets = 2.5 Current Liabilities • Financial audits can be performed by internal
auditors, who are employed by the organization
Now, Working Capital = Current Asset - Current being audited, or by external auditors, who are
Liabilities = Rs.60000 independent third parties.
So, Current Assets - Current Liabilities = Rs 60000 • The primary purpose of a financial audit is to provide
2.5 Current Liabilities - Current Liabilities = Rs 60000 stakeholders (investors, creditors, regulators, etc.)
Current Liabilities = Rs.40000 with confidence in the reliability and accuracy of
an organization’s financial statements.
Now, Current Assets = 2.5 x Rs 40000 = Rs.100000
• This helps in detecting errors and fraud, evaluating
Hence, option D is the correct answer. the effectiveness of internal controls, and ensuring
compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
Q102. Preference share = 20000 × 100 = 2000000
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Securities Premium of Preference Shares= 2000000 ×
5% = 100000 Q105. One Person Companies (OPCs).
Equity shares = 200000 × 10 = 2000000 • OPCs and small companies are specifically excluded
Securities Premium of Equity Shares = 2000000 × 10% from the applicability of auditor rotation under the
= 200000 Companies Act and Audit Rules.
Total Securities Premium = Securities Premium of • Option A is incorrect as Private companies with
Preference Shares +Securities Premium of Equity paid-up capital ≥ ₹50 crore must comply with
Shares = 1,00,000 + 2,00,000 = 3,00,000 auditor rotation.
Hence, option D is the correct answer. • Option B is incorrect as Unlisted public companies
with paid-up capital ≥ ₹10 crore fall under the
Q103. Trial Balance is not a financial statement. Trial auditor rotation requirement.
Balance is a list of closing balances of ledger accounts • Option C is incorrect as Companies with public
on a certain date and is the first step towards the borrowings or deposits ≥ ₹50 crore are subject to
preparation of financial statements. It is usually rotation of auditors.
prepared at the end of an accounting period to assist
in the drafting of financial statements. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
All other options are incorrect. Q106. Statement 1 is correct: Medicines under PMBJP
• Balance Sheet: This is a financial statement that are 50%–90% cheaper, and each batch is tested at
shows the company’s financial position at a NABL-accredited labs.
specific point in time. It lists assets, liabilities, and • Statement 2 is incorrect: The ₹2 lakh special
shareholders’ equity. incentive is for PMBJKs opened by women
• Profit and Loss Account (Income Statement): This entrepreneurs, Divyang, SC/ST, not exclusively
statement summarizes the company’s revenues for aspirational districts (though those districts do
and expenses over a specific period, ultimately receive support).

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• Statement 3 is correct: Kendra owners get a 20% Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM-SHRI)
margin on MRP, excluding taxes. Scheme
Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana • Launch – 2022
(PMBJP) • Ministry of Education
• Launch: • Aim - To prepare more than 14,500 exemplar
Jan Aushadhi Scheme’ launched in 2008 was schools in which every student feels welcomed
revamped as Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana • Financial Outlay- ₹27360 crore
(PMJAY) in 2015
• Centrally Sponsored
Again, renamed as ‘Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya
Janaushadhi Pariyojana’ (PMBJP) in 2016 • Tenure - 2022-23 to 2026-27
• Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers (Department • Selected schools to help showcase implementation
of Pharmaceuticals) of National Education Policy 2020.
• Implemented by - Pharmaceuticals & Medical • Existing schools to be strengthened from amongst
Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) schools managed by Central government/State/
UT Government/local bodies through existing
• Objective - Ensure access to quality medicines for administrative structure.
all the section of the population especially for poor
and deprived ones • Maximum 2-schools (1 Elementary & 1 Secondary/
Senior Secondary) to be selected per block/ULB
• Target - To increase the number of PMBJKs to with upper limit of number of total schools across
25,000 by March 2027 India.
• Kendra owners are provided sale margin of 20% Hence, option A is the correct answer.
margin on MRP (Excluding taxes) of each drug
• Normal Incentive - To Kendras owners has been Q108. Statement 1 is correct – Coverage is around
enhanced from ₹2.5 lakhs to ₹5 lakhs, to be given 63,000 villages and 549 districts.
@15% of monthly puchase made, subject to a • Statement 2 is incorrect – The construction support
ceiling of ₹15,000 per month is up to ₹5 lakh per household, not ₹2 lakh.
• Special Incentive amount of ₹2.00 lakhs in addition • Statement 3 is incorrect – No such recurring cost is
to normal incentives for furniture and fixtures and specified in DAJGUA.
computers & printers
Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan
o For PMBJK opened by Women Entrepreneurs, (DAJGUA)
Divyaang, SC, ST
• Launch: September 2024 (announced in Union
o Any entrepreneurs open PMBJK at aspirational Budget 2024-25)
districts (backward district) as notified by the
NITI Aayog & in Himalayan, Island territories • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs
and North-Eastern states Ministries Involved: 17-line ministries
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • Aim: To improve the socio-economic conditions of
tribal communities through saturation coverage in
Q107. Statement 1 is correct: The scheme aims to tribal-majority villages and aspirational districts
develop 14,500 PM-SHRI schools aligned with NEP • Financial Outlay: ₹79,156 crore
2020. o Central Share: ₹56,333 crore
• Statement 2 is correct: The pedagogical approach o State Share: ₹22,823 crore
includes inquiry-driven, learner-centered, and
play-based learning methods. • Allocated under Development Action Plan for
Scheduled Tribes (DAPST) over the next 5 years
• Statement 3 is incorrect: While the tenure is
2022–23 to 2026–27, post-tenure, the States/ Goals:
UTs are responsible to maintain benchmarks — • Goal 1 – Developing Enabling Infrastructure
schools are not delisted. o Pucca housing under PMAY (Gramin), along

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with tapped water (Jal Jeevan Mission), • Monitoring and Awards

electricity (RDSS), and access to Ayushman o Mapping: Tribal villages to be mapped on the
Bharat Card (PMJAY) PM Gati Shakti Portal
o All-weather road connectivity to ST-majority o Monitoring: Physical and financial progress
villages (PMGSY), mobile and internet access tracked on PM Gati Shakti platform
(BharatNet), and improved infrastructure
for health, nutrition, and education (NHM, o Recognition: Awards for best-performing
Samagra Shiksha, Poshan) districts
• Goal 2 – Promotion of Economic Empowerment • Sustainable Livelihood Forest Right Holders (FRA)
o Skill Development Entrepreneurship o Mission targets 22 lakh FRA patta holders,
promotion and enhanced livelihood (self- converging benefits from ministries for faster
employment) - access to long-term courses forest rights recognition, tribal empowerment,
for ST youth post 10th/12th. Offer marketing and sustainable livelihoods, while expediting
support through Tribal Multipurpose claims and training stakeholders
Marketing Centres (TMMC), Tourist Home Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Stays, and agriculture, animal husbandry, and
fishery support for FRA Patta holders Q109. Option A is incorrect: Schools must have been in
• Goal 3 – Universalization of Access to Good existence for at least 5 years.
Education • Option B is incorrect: Average board results must
o Education - Raise GER to national levels by exceed 75% in Class 10 and 12 over the past 3
ensuring affordable, accessible education for years.
ST students with tribal hostels under Samagra • Option C is correct: Schools are recommended
Shiksha Abhiyan by District Authorities and must be residential to
• Goal 4 – Healthy Lives and Dignified Ageing qualify under Mode-1.
o Education - Improve ST access to quality • Option D is incorrect: Schools funded under PM-
healthcare, aiming for national standards in AJAY/Samagra Shiksha/PM SHRI are not eligible
IMR, MMR, and immunisation via Mobile under SHRESHTA.
Medical Units in underserved areas (NHM) Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High
• Key Features Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA)
• Coverage: Approximately 63,000 villages across 30 • Launch – 2021
States/UTs • Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• Districts: 549 (Blocks: 2,740) across 30 states/UTs • Tenure – Till 2025-26
• Beneficiaries: Over 5 crore tribal people • Aim – Providing quality residential education to
• Number of Interventions/Schemes: 25 meritorious SC students in reputed private schools
• Tribal Home Stays – Swadesh Darshan (managed • Central Sector Scheme
by Ministry of Tourism) • Eligibility Criteria –
o In villages with tourist potential, funding will o SC category
be provided to the tribal household and the o Family income should not exceed ₹2,50,000
village for construction of 5-10 Homestays in per annum
one village.
o Preference to students whose family income
o Total 1000 home stays will be set up is less than ₹1,00,000 and students having
o Up to ₹5 lakh per household for new physical disability
construction • Not covered under Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme
o Up to ₹3 lakh for renovation • Each year 3000 students in States/UTs to be
o ₹5 lakh for village community requirement selected

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• Admissions in Class 9 and Class 11 and would be with interest, calculated as:
automatically renewed up to class 12 • Either the actual earnings by the pension fund, or
• Grants for tuition fee and residential, subject to a • Savings bank interest rate, whichever is higher.
ceiling of
• The fund is managed by LIC, as the Pension Fund
o ₹1,00,000/annum per student – Class 9 Manager under the scheme.
o ₹1,10,000/annum per student – Class 10 Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
o ₹1,25,000/annum per student – Class 11 Yojana
o ₹1,35,000/annum per student – Class 12 • Launch – 2019
Modes • Ministry of Labour and Employment
• Mode 1: SHRESHTA Schools (Best CBSE/State • Central Sector Scheme
Board Private Residential Schools) • Eligibility –
o Selection via NETS (National Entrance Test for o Unorganized Worker (UW)
SHRESHTA by NTA)
o Entry age between 18 to 40 years
o Admission in Class 9 or 11 till completion of
o Monthly Income ₹15000 or below
Class 12
o Should not be income tax payer
o Then connected to Post Matric Scholarship
Scheme / Top Class Scheme o Minimum assured pension of ₹3000 per month
after attaining the age of 60 years
o Seats: 3000 (1500 each for Class 9 & 11; can be
adjusted based on availability) o Monthly contribution varies from ₹55 per
month at the age of 18 years to ₹200 per
• Mode 2: VOs/NGOs with Higher Secondary
month at the age of 40 years
Schools
o Family pension is applicable only to spouse
o Schools receiving Grant-in-Aid may continue
(residential or non-residential) • Contribution –
o NGO-run schools (Classes 1–8) given time to o 50% by pensioner
upgrade to at least Class 10 by 2027 o 50% by Central government
o Must be registered on NGO DARPAN portal o Implemented through - Life Insurance
o No new school to be taken under this mode Corporation of India and CSC eGovernance
Services India Limited (CSC SPV).
o 13,500 slots every year
o In case of death of beneficiary -Spouse shall be
• Selection Criteria for Schools – Mode 1 entitled to receive 50% of the pension
o Recommended by District Authorities o Subscriber gives regular contribution and died
o Should be residential schools - Spouse can continue scheme.
o Minimum 75% board results (Class 10 & 12) Hence, option C is the correct answer.
for past 3 years
o Minimum 5 years of existence Q111. Statement 1 is correct: Zonal Councils are
statutory bodies, not constitutional ones.
o Must admit at least 10 SC students (9 & 11
combined) • Statement 2 is incorrect: Union Home Minister is
the Chairman for all five Zonal Councils.
o Centrally funded schools not eligible (PM-
AJAY, Samagra Shiksha, PM SHRI) • Statement 3 is correct: Permanent Committee:
Composed of Chief Secretaries, initially discusses
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
issues before they reach the full Council.
Q110. In the case of permanent disability before age About Zonal Councils:
60, the spouse may: • Origin and Constitutional Status:
• Continue the scheme by regular contribution, or o Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, not
• Exit and withdraw the subscriber’s contribution constitutional ones.

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o Created under States Reorganisation Act, • Statement 2 is correct: China is the largest
1956. shareholder in the AIIB with more than 25%
o They function as advisory bodies for promoting ownership.
interstate cooperation and coordination. • Statement 3 is incorrect: The AIIB currently has 110
• Five Zonal Councils were created for different member countries, excluding the United States.
regions of India: • About Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
o Northern Zonal Council – Haryana, Himachal (AIIB)
Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, • Launched in 2015 (began operations in 2016).
Delhi, Chandigarh • A multilateral development bank focused on
o Central Zonal Council – Uttar Pradesh, Madhya infrastructure financing.
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand
• Headquartered in Beijing (China)
o Eastern Zonal Council – Bihar, Jharkhand,
• Members: 110 (Excluding USA)
Odisha, West Bengal, Sikkim
• AIIB is capitalized at USD100 billion, and is AAA-
o Western Zonal Council – Rajasthan, Gujarat,
rated by major international credit rating agencies.
Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and
Daman & Diu • Top three shareholders: China (26.54%), India
(7.58%), and Russia (5.9%).
o Southern Zonal Council – Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry • AIIB has directed at least 50% of new financing
towards climate finance.
• Separate Body for the North-East:
o The North Eastern Council (NEC), set up in • Permanent Observer status was granted by the
1972 under the North Eastern Council Act, United Nations in 2018.
serves the northeastern states and operates Hence, option C is the correct answer.
separately from the five Zonal Councils.
• Organizational Structure: Q113. According to data released by the Reserve Bank
of India in June 2025, India’s external debt stood at
• Chairman: Union Home Minister (for all five Zonal $736.3 billion, which is 19.1% of GDP, as of end-March
Councils) 2025.
• Vice-Chairman: Chief Minister of a member state • The correct descending order is:
(rotated annually)
o US Dollar (54.2%)
• Members:
o Indian Rupee (31.1%)
o Chief Ministers and Administrators/Lieutenant
Governors of the member states/UTs o Japanese Yen (6.2%)
o Two ministers from each state nominated by o SDRs (4.6%)
the Governor o Euro (3.2%)
• Advisors: • Additional Insights:
o One member from NITI Aayog o Long-term debt accounted for $601.9 billion,
o Chief Secretaries and Development reflecting a $60.6 billion increase over the
Commissioners of each state previous year.
• Permanent Committee: Composed of Chief o Short-term debt now forms 18.3% of total
Secretaries, initially discusses issues before they debt, though its ratio to forex reserves rose to
reach the full Council 20.1%.
• Implementing Body: Inter-State Council Secretariat • Key components of external debt include:
Hence, option D is the correct answer. o Loans: 34%
o Currency & Deposits: 22.8%
Q112. Statement 1 is incorrect: AIIB has its headquarter
in Beijing (China) o Trade Credit & Advances: 17.8%
o Debt Securities: 17.7%

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• Major borrowers include: o Businesses and professionals may lose

o Non-financial corporations: $261.7 billion eligibility for audit exemptions if more than
5% of their receipts or payments are in digital
o Deposit-taking corporations: $202.1 billion currency treated as cash.
o Government: $168.4 billion o Premiums paid for health insurance using
Hence, option A is the correct answer. e-rupee may not be eligible for tax deduction.
o Transactions involving receipt or repayment of
Q114. Statement 1 – Correct amounts exceeding ₹2 lakh may be disallowed
o The e-rupee is used in interbank settlements or penalized.
and secondary market G-Sec transactions.
o There may be penalties equal to the amount
o It does not earn interest, unlike savings in received if the digital rupee is treated as
bank deposits. equivalent to hard cash in large transactions.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect o Withdrawals using digital rupee may attract tax
o Donations exceeding ₹2,000 made using deduction at source (TDS) if treated similar to
e-rupee are not eligible for tax deductions, as physical cash withdrawals over set thresholds.
they are treated similar to cash donations. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Statement 3 – Correct
Q115. The Union Cabinet has approved to set up
o Using e-rupee for loan or deposit transactions
International Potato Centre (CIP)’s South Asia Regional
over ₹20,000 in a day may invite restrictions
Centre (CSARC) at Singna, Agra (Uttar Pradesh).
and penalties, in line with cash-equivalent
compliance rules. • It will be established by Department of Agriculture
• About Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or & Farmers Welfare, in collaboration with the
e-Rupee International Potato Center (CIP).

• Launch & Growth: • The Centre will focus on climate-resilient, disease-

free, and processing-suitable varieties of potato
o Launched in 2022 as a pilot for select wholesale and sweet potato.
and retail users.
• The project is valued at ₹171 crore, of which
• Transaction Mechanics: ₹111.5 crore will be contributed by India and ₹60
o Issued in denominations equivalent to coins crore by CIP.
and notes. • CSARC will be India’s second international
o Accessed through digital wallets by agricultural research Centre, following the
participating banks. International Rice Research Institute South Asia
o Fungible digital token, not account-based. Regional Centre (IRRI-SARC) in Varanasi (set up in
users do not need a bank account. 2017).
• Taxation Status: • India is the second-largest producer and consumer
of potato globally, after China.
o Classified as sovereign legal tender, not an
investment asset. • About International Potato Center (CIP)
o Not subject to Income Tax or GST. • Established in 1971; Headquarters: Peru, Lima.
o Falls outside the ambit of ‘capital assets’ and • Research for development organisation with a
‘virtual digital assets’ under Indian tax laws. focus on potato, sweet potato and Andean roots
and tubers.
o Cannot be traded or transferred for
consideration; used solely for payment. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
o Tax Pitfalls (Cash-equivalent Restrictions
Q116. In June 2025, Nizamabad in Telangana was
Potentially Applicable to e-Rupee)
designated as the headquarters of the newly
o Expenditure payments made in excess inaugurated National Turmeric Board.
of ₹10,000 may be fully disallowed as a
• The Government of India has set an ambitious
deduction.

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target to reach $1 billion in turmeric exports by all three nations flew on a commercial ISS
2030. mission.
• India remains the world’s largest producer, Hence, option A is the correct answer.
consumer, and exporter of turmeric, making this
move significant for the spice trade and agricultural Q118. The 113th International Labour Conference
economy. (ILC), held in Geneva from 2–13 June 2025, adopted
Hence, option C is the correct answer. the first-ever international labour standard titled
“Convention on Biological Hazards in the Working
Q117. Statement 1 is correct: Shubhanshu Shukla is Environment”, to prevent exposure and ensure worker
the first Indian in a privately contracted mission to ISS. protection against biological hazards in all sectors.
• Statement 2 is correct: The mission was launched • The Convention (C 192) is legally binding and calls
using SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket carrying the Crew on member states to:
Dragon capsule named ‘Grace’. o Formulate national policies and adopt
• Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s last human protective measures.
spaceflight was by Rakesh Sharma in 1984, not o Enhance preparedness for accidents,
Kalpana Chawla in 2003 (who was part of NASA outbreaks, epidemics, and pandemics.
missions and tragically died in the Columbia
• A complementary Recommendation was also
disaster).
adopted, covering:
• Thus, this mission marks India’s return to human
o Risk assessments, early warning systems, and
spaceflight after 41 years, not since 2003.
response strategies.
• About the Mission:
o Worker training, information sharing, and
o The fourth all-private astronaut mission to implementation guidance.
the ISS.
• Other decisions at the 113th ILC included:
o Launched by Texas-based startup Axiom Space,
in collaboration with SpaceX and NASA. o A resolution on decent work in the platform
economy, aiming for a new Convention and
o Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket
Recommendation in 2026.
carrying the newly built Crew Dragon capsule
‘Grace’. o Palestine was approved to participate as a
non-member observer State.
o Launch Site: NASA Kennedy Space Center,
Cape Canaveral, Florida. o The ILC adopted amendments to the Maritime
o Objective: 14-day stay at ISS to conduct Labour Convention (2006).
microgravity experiments. o A resolution to reduce informal employment
o Experiment Details: Approximately 60 scientific and support the Second World Summit for
studies from 31 countries. Experiments span Social Development in Doha (November
human physiology, space technology, and 2025).
Earth observation. ISRO to perform 8 key Hence, option D is the correct answer.
experiments.
• Mission Composition Q119. The FASTag-based annual pass, announced by
the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, will
o Commander: Peggy Whitson (USA) – veteran
be rolled out from August 2025 for non-commercial
astronaut on her fifth mission.
private vehicles.
o Crew: Shubhanshu Shukla (India), Slawosz
Uznański (Poland), Tibor Kapu (Hungary) • The pass is:
• Historic Firsts: o Priced at ₹3,000
o Poland’s Slawosz Uznański-Wiśniewski and o Valid for one year or 200 highway trips,
Hungary’s Tibor Kapu made their countries’ whichever comes first.
first ISS visits. o FASTag is an RFID-based electronic toll
o This marks the first time astronauts from collection system, launched in 2014 on the

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Ahmedabad–Mumbai corridor, and made

mandatory for four-wheelers from 2021.
o It is linked to a bank/prepaid account and
automatically deducts toll charges.
• Validity of FASTag: 5 years.
• Uttar Pradesh leads in FASTag toll revenue,
contributing ₹7,060 crore.
• Additional Initiative:
o ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ launched in 2024
to prevent:
o Use of a single FASTag across multiple vehicles.
o Linking multiple FASTags to a single vehicle.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q120. Bihar became the first state in India to adopt an

e-voting system for urban municipal polls.
• The voting process will use two mobile applications:
“e-Voting SECBHR” (developed by C-DAC) and
another by the Bihar State Election Commission.
• Apart from Bihar, only Estonia in Europe has
implemented a similar e-voting system.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

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 FULL LENGTH TEST - 3

Directions (Q1-Q5): Given below are five items, Directions (Q6-Q10): Each of the five items given
comprising sentences in which one word has below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one
been underlined. Choose the response A, B, from among the options A, B, C and D that best
C and D which is closest to the meaning of the describes the phrase and mark your response in
underlined word and mark your response in the the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Answer Sheet accordingly. Q6. While choosing between strict parents and
Q1. People often overstate their achievements harsh teachers, he felt trapped between
on social media, making their lives seem Scylla and Charybdis, with no safe option.
more exciting and perfect than they truly are. A. Two positive choices
A. Intricate B. Two equally bad options
B. Complicate C. A moment of clarity
C. Exaggerate D. A path of easy decisions
D. Repudiate Q7. She always flatters the manager because she
Q2. The actor wore a ostentatious costume with knows which side the bread is buttered on
glittering feathers and bright colors, stealing and values job security above all.
everyone’s attention at the grand stage A. Understanding one’s priorities
performance. B. Seeking personal gain or advantage
A. Flamboyant C. Acting out of principle
B. Malignant D. Helping others selflessly
C. Valiant Q8. Even at twenty-five, he remains tied to the
D. Truculent apron strings of his mother, unable to make
Q3. Despite the urgent deadline his indolent decisions on his own.
approach to completing the task led to a A. Acting independently
rushed, subpar submission. B. Dependent on others
A. Garrulous C. Overly dependent on family
B. Virtuous D. Seeking professional advice
C. Phlegmatic Q9. She had a lump in her throat while giving her
D. Lackadaisical farewell speech, struggling to hold back her
Q4. Political imbroglios often confuse the public, tears of emotion.
as leaders blame each other instead of solving A. Feeling anger
the real issues affecting people’s lives. B. Experiencing overwhelming emotion
A. Conundrums C. Feeling indifferent
B. Epiphanies D. Exhibiting nervousness
C. Axioms Q10. He writes short stories for magazines to
D. Hegemonies keep the pot boiling while working on his
Q5. The magician carried strange paraphernalia, dream of publishing a novel.
including glowing potions and odd tools, A. Avoiding hard work
amazing the children during his mysterious B. Maintaining a steady income
and magical street performance. C. Pursuing a leisurely hobby
D. Working on something unnecessary
A. Myths
B. Incantations
Directions(Q11-Q15): Each of the following
C. Implements
five items in this section consists of a sentence,
D. Ephemeral
parts of which have been jumbled. These parts
are labelled as a, b, c and d. Given below each
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sentence are four sequences, namely A, B, C and Q15.

D. You are required to rearrange the jumbled a. patents provide legal protection
parts to form the most appropriate sentence b. to their inventions and creativity
and mark your response in the Answer Sheet c. to inventors, granting them exclusive
accordingly. rights
Q11. d. thereby encouraging innovation
a. designed to enhance India’s defense A. adbc
capabilities, B. acbd
b. INS Jatayu is a C. acdb
c. especially in search-and-rescue D. abdc
operations
d. strategic naval vessel Directions (Q16-Q20): Read the following passage
A. cabd carefully and answer the five questions that
B. bdac follow by selecting your answers based solely on
C. badc the content of the passage and the opinion of the
D. cdba author only.
Decades before the rise of social media, language
Q12.
discussions were already highly polarized,
a. operation Indravati was a military
and this remains the case today. People often
operation
feel compelled to choose one of two sides in
b. and restore stability in conflict-prone
the debate. Some proudly criticize language
regions
errors and adhere to strict rules, identifying as
c. launched by India
prescriptivists. Others focus on language change
d. to tackle insurgency and restore stability
and challenge prescriptivists’ views, calling
A. acbd
themselves descriptivists. Membership in these
B. acbc
groups is seen as essential, and they are often
C. acdb
viewed as opposites.
D. bdca
However, this division doesn’t necessarily need to
Q13. exist. In my professional life, I hold two roles: editor
a. in areas like defense, disaster and language columnist, which require me to
management, embrace both perspectives. As an editor, I correct
b. to support decision-making grammar and apply the publication’s house style.
c. and urban development But as a columnist, I explore the evolving nature
d. geospatial intelligence analyzes of language, aiming to learn something new rather
geographic data than criticize. I believe these two approaches can
A. acbd be reconciled into a cohesive philosophy.
B. acdb
Language is constantly changing. While some
C. dbac
changes may seem chaotic and disruptive, they
D. adbc
are part of how language evolves. For example, the
Q14. word “decimate” originally referred to the Roman
a. irrespective of their religious beliefs practice of punishing a mutinous legion by killing
b. the Uniform Civil Code aims to create one in every ten soldiers. Today, it is often used
c. a common legal framework to mean “to destroy utterly,” an extension that
d. for all citizens some prescriptivists find troubling. Descriptivists
A. acbd argue that such semantic shifts are natural and
B. bcda expected. The Oxford English Dictionary traces
C. abdc these changes in detail, showing that words
D. adbc constantly shift in meaning over time.
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Despite this, prescriptivists argue that such Q19. What concern does the author express about
changes can be frustrating. If “decimate” becomes the figurative use of the word “literally”?
synonymous with “destroy,” we lose a unique word A. It risks turning precise expressions into
and gain nothing in return. The same happens vague exaggerations.
with the word “literally.” I prefer the traditional B. It contradicts literary traditions established
use of “literally,” which emphasizes its exact by writers like Joyce and Nabokov.
meaning, rather than using it as an intensifier. C. It challenges dictionary makers to abandon
While many writers, including James Joyce and strict definitions.
Vladimir Nabokov, used it figuratively, I feel that D. It diminishes the importance of historical
its traditional use adds precision and beauty. accuracy in grammar.
Though language change is inevitable, it can result Q20. What overall stance does the passage take
in a loss, not the end of the world, but harm to toward language change?
clarity and richness. A. It views change as entirely destructive,
Q16. What central tension does the passage causing irreparable harm.
highlight in language debates? B. It sees change as inevitable but capable of
A. The debate between linguistic creativity reducing clarity and richness.
and academic authority in defining correct C. It believes prescriptivists’ resistance
usage. prevents unnecessary confusion.
B. The clash between prescriptivists valuing D. It considers descriptivist acceptance of
rules and descriptivists emphasizing change superior in every case.
change. Q21. 27 mango trees, 48 apple trees, and 63
C. The tension between spoken language orange trees have to be planted in rows
and written grammar standards. such that each row contains the same
D. The conflict between historical meanings number of trees of one variety only. What is
of words and dictionary updates. the minimum number of rows in which the
Q17. How does the author personally reconcile trees may be planted?
prescriptivist and descriptivist perspectives? A. 46
A. By rejecting both roles and creating a new B. 64
linguistic framework. C. 38
B. By acting as a prescriptivist editor and D. 48
descriptivist columnist. Q22. Ratio of the volume of cone and cylinder is
C. By following prescriptivist rules strictly in 2:1 and the radius of the cone is double of
all professional writing. the radius of the cylinder. If the height of the
D. By avoiding judgments and refusing to cone is (x + 6), then find the height of the
correct errors as an editor. cylinder?
Q18. Why is the word “decimate” used as an A. (x + 6)/2
example in the passage? B. 2x + 6
A. To demonstrate how prescriptivists and C. 3x/2 + 6
descriptivists interpret semantic shifts D. (2x/3) + 4
differently. Q23. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be
B. To highlight the role of Roman history in formed out of 5 boys A, B, C, D and E such
shaping English vocabulary. that no one group contains both C and D
C. To argue that dictionaries should preserve together. What is the maximum number of
traditional meanings of words. such different groups?
D. To show that figurative usage of words A. 4
always weakens their meaning. B. 3

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C. 7 Q28. Find the quantity of vessel C.

D. 2 Statement I: Milk in C is the average of milk
Q24. The sum of two numbers is 462 and their in vessels A and B together similarly the
highest common factor is 22. What is the amount of water in C is the average of water
maximum number of pairs that satisfy these in vessels A and B together. The ratio of the
conditions? total quantity of A to B vessels is 7:9. The
A. 6 difference in the quantity of A and B is 20.
B. 3 Statement II: Amount of milk in A is 40.
C. 5 The ratio of the amount of milk A and B is
D. 10 4:5. The ratio of water in A and C is 2:3. The
amount of water in B is 40.
Q25. Two inlet pipes X and Y are used to fill a tank.
If Y fills one-fourth of tank and the remaining A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
part is filled by X, then total time taken to fill to answer the question, while the data
the tank is 35 minutes. If X fills one-fourth in statement II alone is not sufficient to
of tank and the remaining part is filled by answer the question
Y, then total time taken to fill the tank is 25 B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
minutes. Find the time (in minutes) taken by to answer the question, while the data
X and Y together to fill the tank. in statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question
A. 40
C. The data either in statement I alone or in
B. 40/3
statement II alone is sufficient to answer
C. 80/3
the question
D. 20
D. The data given in both statements I and
Q26. There are 51 students in a class. Rahul scored II together are necessary to answer the
highest marks while Prashant was the least question
scorer. If the marks of Rahul are excluded,
Q29. The work done by a child, a woman and a
the average marks of class decrease by
man are in the ratio of 2:3:4. There are 10
3, however if the marks of Prashant are
men, 20 women and 30 children in a factory.
excluded, the average marks of the class
Their daily wages amount to Rs. 1600, which
increase by 2. What are the average marks
is divided in the ratio of work done by the
of the class if the ratio of marks of Rahul and
children, women, and men. What will be
Prashant is 11:9?
the wages of one man and two women for 2
A. 2250 days of work?
B. 2450
A. Rs. 100
C. 1125
B. Rs. 200
D. 1225
C. Rs. 300
Q27. A certain brand of coffee costing Rs. “a” per D. Rs. 400
kg is mixed with chicory costing Rs. "b” per
Q30. If x = 17! and y = 19! then which of the
kg in the ratio of 5:2. If the per kg selling
following statements is correct?
price of the mixture is kept at Rs. C to allow
the seller to make a gain, then which of the [for any natural number n, n! = [Link] ... ...
following will represent the profit made? ... ... (n –1). n]
A. 7c + 5a +2b A. x and y are composite numbers.
B. 7c – 5a – 2b B. x and y are twin primes.
C. 7c – 5a + 2b C. x and y are co-primes.
D. None of the above D. Statements in (A) and (B) both, are correct.

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Q31. A cricketer whose bowling average is 18.6 mean is ₹45,000 and the standard deviation
runs per wicket takes 6 wickets for 39 runs is ₹9,000. If every employee receives a
and thereby decreases his average by 0.6. uniform bonus of ₹5,000, what will be the
The number of wickets taken by him till the new standard deviation of the salaries?
last match (the match, previous to the match A. ₹9,000
in which he takes 6 wickets for 39 runs) was: B. ₹14,000
A. 125 C. ₹10,000
B. 105 D. ₹9,487
C. 115 Q36. What is the current inflation target under
D. None of these India’s flexible inflation targeting (FIT)
Q32. Deepa is playing with 3D geometrical figures. framework?
She puts a solid cone in a hollow cylinder A. 3% ± 1%
which fits exactly in the cylinder. Then she B. 4% ± 2%
pours 100 ml water in the vacant space of C. 5% ± 1%
the cylinder, which completely fills it. Find D. 6% ± 2%
the volume of water that could have been
Q37. Which of the following are qualitative tools
filled in the cylinder if there was no cone in
of monetary policy?
it.
1. Marginal Standing Facility
2. Moral Suasion
3. Selective Credit Control
4. Open Market Operations
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
A. 125 ml
C. 1 and 3 only
B. 150 ml
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 300 ml
D. 200 ml Q38. Which of the following is not a component
of the Human Development Index (HDI)?
Q33. Let 3546A and B3135 be five-digit numbers
A. Life Expectancy
where each letter represents a different
B. Income Index
digit. If the sum of the numbers is 12A603,
C. Educational Index
then what is the product of the values of A
D. Gender Parity Index
and B?
A. 36 Q39. Which type of strike involves workers
B. 72 remaining at their workstations but halting
C. 96 work for a brief duration, such as a few
D. 80 minutes to a few hours?
A. Sit-in Strike
Q34. How many triangles are there in the given
B. Slow-Down Strike
figure?
C. Quickie
A. 9
D. Stay-in Strike
B. 11
C. 12 Q40. Which of the following statements is correct
D. 8 about Arbitration and Conciliation?
A. Arbitration is an informal process, whereas
Q35. For a dataset of employee salaries, the
conciliation is a formal process.

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B. An arbitral award is not final and binding, B. An employee with a salary exceeding
while conciliation always ensures a ₹25,000 per month is eligible for a bonus.
mutually agreeable outcome C. An employee must work for at least 30
C. Arbitration decisions are enforceable days in an accounting year to be eligible
like court judgments, while conciliation for a bonus.
decisions are not enforceable. D. The minimum bonus to be paid is 5% of
D. Arbitrators are allowed to discuss issues the salary or ₹100, whichever is higher.
directly with the parties, unlike conciliators. Q45. Under which of the following Acts is the
Q41. Which of the following Articles does not talk provision for establishing “State Welfare
about labour welfare as per the Directive Boards” mandated to ensure the welfare
Principles of State Policy enshrined in the of workers engaged in specific sectors, with
Constitution of India? the responsibility assigned to respective
A. Article 38 state governments?
B. Article 41 A. Payment of Bonus Act, 19653
C. Article 43 B. Mines Act, 1952
D. Article 44 C. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Q42. Which of the following committees was Act, 1970
appointed in 1944 to investigate labour D. Building and Other Construction Workers
welfare measures and is also known for (Regulation of Employment and Conditions
submitting a report in 1946 recommending of Service) Act, 1996
the extension of welfare measures like Q46. According to the Building and Other
education, healthcare, and relief in case of Construction Workers (Regulation of
old age and death? Employment and Conditions of Service)
A. Sarkaria Committee Act, 1996, creches must be provided in
B. Rege Committee workplaces where more than ________
C. Malhotra Committee female building workers are ordinarily
D. Mehta Committee employed.
Q43. Match the following theories with their A. 25
respective proponents: B. 40
C. 50
Column B D. 100
Column A (Theory)
(Proponent)
Q47. Under which of the following Acts does
1. Subsistence Theory A. J. S. Mill the provision for appointing “Certifying
2. Wages Fund Theory B. Walker Surgeons” exist, empowering the Central
3. Residual Claimant Government to assign qualified medical
C. John Bates Clark practitioners for specific duties?
Theory
4. Marginal Productivity A. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
D. David Ricardo B. The Mines Act, 1952
Theory
C. The Factories Act, 1948
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
D. The Building and Other Construction
B. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
Workers (Regulation of Employment and
C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
D. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
Q48. With reference to Section 9 of the Payment
Q44. Which of the following statements is correct
of Wages Act, 1936, Which of the following
about the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
statements is/are correct?
A. The Act applies only to factories employing
1. Deductions for absence from duty are
more than 50 persons.

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permissible only for the proportion of A. Only individuals aged 18 or more can be
wages corresponding to the duration of members of a registered Trade Union.
absence. B. A registered Trade Union can change its
2. If 10 or more employees collectively name with the approval of at least 3/4th
absent themselves without proper notice, of its members.
the deduction may include up to 10 days’ C. Two or more registered Trade Unions
wages as compensation to the employer. can amalgamate if 75% of the members
3. Rules established by the appropriate approve the proposal.
Government can modify the deduction D. At least half of the office-bearers of a
provisions for collective absence. registered Trade Union must work in the
Select the correct answer using the code industry associated with the union.
given below: Q52. With reference to the Factories Act, 1948,
A. 1 and 2 only which of the following statements is/are
B. 1 and 3 only correct?
C. 2 and 3 only 1. Factories employing more than 30 women
D. 1, 2, and 3 workers must provide suitable rooms for
Q49. With reference to the Central Advisory Board children under 6 years of age.
under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, which 2. Factories with 500 or more regular
of the following statements is/are correct? workers must appoint welfare officers as
prescribed by the State Government.
1. The Central Advisory Board advises both
3. No adult worker shall be required or
the Central and State Governments on
allowed to work in a factory for more
the fixation and revision of minimum
than 54 hours in any week.
wages.
2. The composition of the Board includes Select the correct answer using the code
equal representation from employers given below:
and employees, along with a maximum A. 1 and 2 only
of 1/3rd independent members. B. 2 and 3 only
3. The Chairman of the Board is elected by the C. 1 and 3 only
employer and employee representatives. D. 1, 2, and 3
Select the correct answer using the code Q53. Under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947,
given below: which of the following statements are
A. 1 and 2 only correct regarding penalties for illegal strikes
B. 2 and 3 only and lock-outs?
C. 1 and 3 only 1. An employer who initiates or advances
D. 1, 2, and 3 an illegal strike under this Act can be
Q50. Under the Industrial Employment (Standing punished with imprisonment for up to
Orders) Act, 1946, what percentage of a one month, a fine of up to 50 rupees, or
workman’s wages is paid as subsistence both.
allowance for the first 90 days of suspension 2. Any workman initiating or advancing
during an investigation of misconduct? an illegal lock-out under this Act can be
penalized with imprisonment for up to
A. 25%
one month, a fine of up to 1000 rupees,
B. 50%
or both.
C. 75%
D. 100% Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Q51. Which of the following statements is correct
under the Trade Unions Act, 1926? A. Only 1

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B. Only 2 Select the correct answer using the code

C. Both 1 and 2 given below:
D. None of the above A. Only 1
Q54. The ____________, discovered by Altman in B. Only 1 and 2
the year 1886, are cylindrical, rod-shaped, or C. Both 1 and 3
spherical structures found in the cytoplasm. D. All 1, 2, and 3
They are surrounded by a double-layered Q57. Which of the following is not an explosive?
membrane, with the inner membrane A. Dynamite
having many folds called cristae. These B. Tri Nitro Toluene (TNT)
organelles, also known as the “powerhouse C. Tri Nitro Phenol (TNP)
of the cell,” generate energy in the form D. Sodium Nitrate
of ATP. The fluid present inside is called
the matrix, containing many enzymes and Q58. Which of the following statements about
coenzymes. water hardness is incorrect?
A. Nucleoplasm A. Temporary hardness of water is caused by
B. Lysosome bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum B. Permanent hardness of water is caused
D. Mitochondria by chlorides and sulphates of calcium and
magnesium.
Q55. Which of the following is an incorrect C. Permanent hardness can be removed by
statement regarding Red Blood Corpuscles Clark’s method.
(RBC)? D. Soda ash process is used to remove
A. RBCs are biconcave and do not contain a permanent hardness.
nucleus in mammals, with exceptions like
Q59. Match the following gases with their correct
camels and llamas.
uses:
B. RBCs are formed in the spleen at all stages
of life, including the embryonic stage. Column A (Gases) Column B (Uses)
C. The main function of RBCs is to carry
1. Ammonia A. In heating furnace
oxygen to all cells of the body and bring
back carbon dioxide. 2. Water gas
B. As fuel in welding
D. Haemoglobin in RBCs contains haematin, work
an iron compound responsible for the red C. As reagent in ice
3. Producer gas
color of blood. factory
Q56. Which of the following statements about 4. Coal gas D. In inert atmosphere
blood vessels found in Human Heart is/are A. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
correct B. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
1. Veins carry impure blood containing C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
carbon dioxide from the body towards D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
the heart, except for the pulmonary vein,
which carries pure blood. Q60. The speed of light in a vacuum is 3 x 108 m/s.
2. Arteries carry pure blood containing If the refractive index () of a medium is 1.5,
oxygen from the heart to the body, except what is the speed of light in the medium?
for the pulmonary artery, which carries A. 1.5×10^8 m/s
impure blood. B. 2.0×10^8 m/s
3. The pulmonary vein carries blood from C. 2.5×10^8 m/s
the right ventricle to the lungs, where it D. 3.0×10^8 m/s
gets oxygenated.

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Q61. Match the following defects of the human Q65. Arrange the following events from Gandhiji’s
eye with their respective remedies: life in South Africa in chronological order:
Column A (Defects) Column B (Remedies)
1. Formation of Natal Indian Congress and
the launch of Indian Opinion
1. Myopia A. Cylindrical lens 2. Gandhiji’s first racial humiliation while
2. Hypermetropia B. Diverging lens traveling from Durban to Pretoria
3. Launch of Passive Resistance Association
3. Presbyopia C. Converging lens against Asiatic Registration Bill
4. Astigmatism D. Bifocal lens 4. Establishment of Phoenix Settlement
5. Setting up of Tolstoy Farm
A. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
B. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C B. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
Q62. Which of the following statements about
ionic compounds is incorrect? Q66. Which of the following statements regarding
A. Ionic compounds are good conductors of the Vedanta School of Philosophy is/are
electricity in both solid and molten states. correct?
B. Ionic compounds have high melting points 1. The philosophy upholds the idea that
and boiling points. Brahma is the reality of life, while
C. Ionic compounds are soluble in water. everything else is unreal or Maya.
D. Ionic compounds are insoluble in non- 2. According to Advaita Vedanta, the
polar covalent solvents like benzene and atma or self is distinct from the highest
carbon tetrachloride. metaphysical reality, Brahman.
3. Ramanuja’s view emphasizes the
Q63. Which of the following statements about importance of love and devotion as the
the Ilbert Bill Controversy is incorrect? means to attain salvation.
A. The Ilbert Bill sought to give Indian
members of the ICS the same judicial Select the correct answer using the code
powers as their European colleagues. given below:
B. The White Mutiny of 1883 was a protest A. 1 and 2 only
by Indians abroad supporting the bill. B. 1 and 3 only
C. An amendment required a jury of 50% C. 2 and 3 only
Europeans for trials involving European D. 1, 2, and 3
defendants. Q67. Which of the following statements about
D. The bill faced severe opposition from Lord Vardhaman Mahavir is incorrect?
Europeans. A. Lord Vardhaman Mahavir attained the
Q64. What was the Zimmerman Plan during the highest spiritual knowledge, ‘Kevala
First World War? Jnana,’ in the 13th year of his penance.
A. A strategy to recruit Indian soldiers for the B. He preached his doctrines for 30 years and
British Army passed away at the age of 72 at Pava near
B. A plan by Indian revolutionaries to ally Rajagriha.
with the Japanese Army C. Lord Vardhaman Mahavir was born to
C. A proposal for constitutional reforms in Kshatriya parents Siddhartha and Trisala
British India at Kundagram near Vaisali in 599 BCE.
D. A plot to import German arms and D. Lord Vardhaman Mahavir and his wife
ammunition to spark an all-India Yasoda had a son named Jamali, who
insurrection became his first disciple.

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Q68. Which of the following statements about the Q71. Which of the following statements about
Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple is Article 14 and the concept of equality before
incorrect? the law is/are correct?
A. The Rudreshwara Temple, popularly 1. The concept of ‘equality before the law’
known as Ramappa Temple, is located in originates from the British concept of the
Palampet village of Telangana. ‘Rule of Law.’
B. The temple was built during the Kakatiya 2. It is a positive concept as it ensures the
period under rulers Ganapati Deva and State provides special privileges to certain
Recharla Rudra Reddy. individuals.
C. Construction of the temple began in 1213 3. The Supreme Court has held that the
CE and continued for approximately 40 ‘Rule of Law’ is a basic feature of the
years. Indian Constitution.
D. The temple was built entirely using granite Select the correct answer using the code
during the Kakatiya period. given below:
Q69. Which of the following statements regarding A. 1 and 2 only
pottery in the Vedic Age is/are correct? B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
1. The Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture
D. 1, 2, and 3
is associated with the Iron Age and was
confined to regions like Punjab, Haryana, Q72. Which of the following words was not
and the upper Ganga Valley. inserted into the Preamble of the Indian
2. The Rig Vedic phase represents the pre- Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act,
iron phase of PGW, while the Later Vedic 1976?
phase represents the iron-phase of PGW. A. Socialist
3. The Northern Black Polished Ware B. Secular
(NBPW) pottery emerged during the Later C. Equality
Vedic Age and marked the second phase D. Integrity
of urbanization in India. Q73. Which of the following schedules were
Select the correct answer using the code added to the Indian Constitution by the
given below: 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts of 1992?
A. 1 and 2 only A. 8th Schedule and 9th Schedule
B. 1 and 3 only B. 10th Schedule and 11th Schedule
C. 1, 2 and 3 C. 6th Schedule and 7th Schedule
D. None of the above D. 11th Schedule and 12th Schedule
Q70. Which of the following statements about Q74. Which of the following statements does not
the main elements in stupas is correct? reflect the unitary features of the Indian
A. The dome (anda) symbolizes the cosmic Constitution?
axis and supports a triple umbrella A. The residuary powers rest with the Centre.
structure. B. The Union List contains more subjects
B. The harmika represents the wall of ego than the State List.
and is surmounted by a yashti supporting C. There is unequal representation of states
the Three Jewels of Buddhism. in the Rajya Sabha.
C. The medhi is a circular terrace where the D. Dual polity consisting of the Union at the
faithful circumambulate in a clockwise Centre and the states at the periphery.
direction Q75. The Collegium responsible for judicial
D. The Sanchi Stupa in Madhya Pradesh is the appointments in the Supreme Court consists
the oldest stupa in India. of the Chief Justice of India and how many
senior-most judges?
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A. 3 senior-most Judges C. On demise, the family pension amounts

B. 4 senior-most Judges to 60% of the employee’s pension before
C. 5 senior-most Judges demise.
D. 6 senior-most Judges D. The government contribution under the
Q76. Which of the following statements regarding scheme has been increased from 14% to
the Inter-State Council (ISC) is/are correct? 18.5%.
1. The Inter-State Council was established Q79. Recently, the term ‘Black Coat Syndrome’
under Article 263 of the Constitution was seen in the news. It is related to which
through a Presidential Order in 1990. of the following?
2. The Prime Minister serves as the Chairman A. Anxiety experienced by students during
of the Inter-State Council. competitive exams.
3. Only Chief Ministers of States are part B. Stress faced by lawyers due to heavy
of the Inter-State Council, while Union workloads.
Territories are not represented. C. Anxiety experienced by ordinary citizens in
Select the correct answer using the code court settings.
given below: D. Fatigue faced by judges during long trials.
A. 1 and 2 only Q80. The Union Cabinet recently accepted
B. 1 only the recommendations of the High-Level
C. 2 and 3 only Committee on Simultaneous Elections,
D. 3 only chaired by former President Shri Ram Nath
Q77. Which of the following statements regarding Kovind. Simultaneous elections, also known
the People’s Plan Campaign (Jan Yojana as ‘One Nation, One Election,’ involve
Abhiyan) is incorrect? conducting elections to the Lok Sabha, State
A. The People’s Plan Campaign was launched Legislative Assemblies, and local bodies
as ‘Sabki Yojana Sabka Vikas’ by the together. In which of the following years
Ministry of Panchayati Raj on 2nd October were simultaneous elections not held in
2018. Indian political history?
B. The campaign adopts a thematic approach A. 1951
based on localization of Sustainable B. 1957
Developmental Goals (SDGs). C. 1962
C. The Panchayat Development Index (PDI) D. 1971
is a single-domain index used to measure Q81. Which type of ROM can be erased using
the economic progress of Panchayats. ultraviolet light?
D. The campaign ensures inclusive A. Masked ROM (MROM)
participation by engaging youth, elderly, B. Programmable Read-Only Memory
and Community-Based Organizations (PROM)
(CBOs). C. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-
Q78. Which of the following statements regarding Only Memory (EEPROM)
the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) is D. Erasable Programmable Read-Only
incorrect? Memory (EPROM)
A. The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) will be Q82. Which of the following Data Manipulation
effective from April 1, 2025, and applies to Language (DML) commands is used to
all Central Government employees. retrieve specific records from a relational
B. The minimum pension under the scheme database based on conditions?
is set at Rs. 15,000 per month after a
A. UPDATE
minimum of 10 years of service.
B. DELETE

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C. SELECT B. To allow reordering, deleting, and

D. GRANT organizing multiple slides at once.
C. To edit individual slides with animations
Q83. Which security feature in Microsoft Outlook and transitions.
helps prevent malware and phishing attacks D. To add speaker notes for each slide.
by restricting web bugs, blocking images
from unknown senders, and filtering spam? Q88. What is the decimal equivalent of the
A. Message Confirmation hexadecimal number 7F3A
B. Junk Mail Filters A. 32572
C. Active Directory Integration B. 32570
D. Exchange Server Synchronization C. 33148
D. 33145
Q84. Which of the following cyber threats is
specifically designed to mislead users Q89. Which type of database key allows a non-
into believing their system is infected and key attribute in one table to reference the
persuade them to purchase fake security primary key of another table, establishing a
software? relationship between them?
A. Ransomware A. Candidate Key
B. Scareware B. Primary Key
C. Keylogger C. Foreign Key
D. Phishing D. Super Key
Q85. In the context of memory hierarchy, why is Q90. Which type of firewall is implemented
secondary memory significantly slower than directly on a computer to monitor and
primary memory? control its network traffic?
A. Secondary memory uses semiconductor A. Network Firewall
technology, which has higher latency. B. Host-based Firewall
B. Secondary memory requires additional C. Packet Filtering Firewall
processing steps before the CPU can D. Proxy Firewall.
access the data. Q91. In case of a fire which of the following
C. Secondary memory operates on a different violates the Principle of Loss Minimization?
voltage level than the CPU, causing delays. A. The insured uses a fire extinguisher to
D. Secondary memory stores data using control a fire before it spreads.
optical signals, which take longer to B. The insured calls the fire department
process. when the fire starts in the factory.
Q86. Which of the following is not a valid function C. The insured does nothing to stop a fire,
of the Session Layer in the OSI model? thinking the insurer will compensate for
A. Establishing, maintaining, and terminating the damage.
communication sessions D. The insured takes immediate action and
B. Synchronizing data exchange between evacuates the building during a gas leak.
sender and receiver Q92. Which of the following accounting principles
C. Handling end-to-end data encryption and states that similar items should be treated
decryption consistently from one accounting period to
D. Managing dialogue control between two another?
communicating systems. A. Going Concern Principle
Q87. In Microsoft PowerPoint, what is the primary B. Accrual Principle
purpose of the Slide Sorter View? C. Consistency Principle
A. To display the slide deck in full-screen D. Matching Principle
mode for presentation.
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Q93. Which of the following best describes the of tenure.

primary objective of conducting a cash audit C. An employee earns the right to 100 shares
in an organization? each year over three years, becoming fully
A. To detect and prevent tax evasion through entitled to 300 shares only after three
indirect means years.
B. To verify inventory valuation and reporting D. An employee is required to buy 300 shares
accuracy at ₹500 to participate in the ESOP scheme.
C. To examine the accuracy and Q98. Quick Assets exclude which of the following?
documentation of cash receipts and A. Cash
payments B. Marketable Securities
D. None of the above C. Inventory
Q94. Which of the following companies will D. Accounts Receivable
NOT be exempt from CARO 2020 reporting Q99. What is the number of shares issued after
requirements? a bonus issue in the ratio of 4:3, if the
A. A private company with revenue of ₹8 company had 6000 shares issued before the
crore, borrowings of ₹75 lakh, and paid-up bonus issue?
capital + reserves of ₹80 lakh. A. 7000
B. A private company with revenue of ₹9 B. 8000
crore, borrowings of ₹95 lakh, and is C. 9000
a wholly owned subsidiary of a public D. 10000
company.
C. A private company with revenue of ₹9.5 Q100. If a company applies the Weighted Average
crore, borrowings of ₹85 lakh, and paid-up Cost method to its inventory and purchases
capital + reserves of ₹90 lakh 500 units at Rs. 10 and 100 units at Rs. 20,
D. A small company with turnover of ₹1.8 what is the average cost per unit for the
crore and paid-up capital of ₹40 lakh. closing inventory after 100 units are used?
A. 10
Q95. Who is considered a Creditor for a business?
B. 11.67
A. An employee receiving salary C. 12
B. A customer who pays cash immediately D. 15
C. The business owner
D. A supplier who provided goods on credit Q101. Which of the following transactions
would not be included in the Cash Flow
Q96. Which type of accounting is primarily used from Operating Activities section under
to determine the cost of production and the indirect method of the Cash Flow
assist in pricing decisions? Statement?
A. Cost Accounting A. Depreciation on plant and machinery
B. Financial Accounting B. Increase in accounts receivable
C. Management Accounting C. Cash received from sale of machinery
D. Tax Accounting D. Working capital loans are used for day-to-
Q97. Which of the following scenarios best day operations, like inventory purchase,
demonstrates the concept of vesting in salaries, etc.
ESOPs? Q102. A company has the following financial
A. An employee is granted the right to data:
purchase shares at ₹100, and the company
Net Credit Sales = Rs. 12,00,000
deposits the full value in his account.
B. An employee can purchase shares at ₹100 Opening Accounts Receivable = Rs. 80,000
anytime during his employment regardless Closing Accounts Receivable = Rs. 1,20,000

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What is the Debtors Turnover Ratio? D. Punjab National Bank (PNB)

A. 10 Q107. Which of the following statements about
B. 9 Wimbledon 2025 is/are correct?
C. 5 1. Jannin Sinner becomes the first Italian
D. 12 to win the tournament.
Q103. If Anil and Sunil enter into an agreement 2. Iga Swiatek becomes the first Polish
for a Bill of Exchange worth Rs. 20,000 player to win a singles title at Wimbledon
payable after 4 months, where Sunil is Select the correct answer using the code
the Accommodating Party, how much and given below.
who would get the money if the bill is
A. 1 only
discounted with the bank at 10% p.a.?
B. 2 only
A. Anil, Rs. 19,200.00 C. Both 1 and 2
B. Anil, Rs. 19,333.33 D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Sunil, Rs. 18,500.00
D. Sunil, Rs. 19,000.00 Q108. The SAMADHAN Portal functions under
the Ministry of Labour & Employment to
Q104. If vendors are issued fully paid shares of monitor and resolve industrial disputes
₹1,25,000 in consideration of net assets and claims under several labour laws. In
worth ₹1,50,000, the balance of ₹25,000 this regard, consider the following:
will be credited to:
1. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
A. Statement of Profit & Loss 2. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B. Goodwill Account 3. Employees’ Provident Funds and
C. Capital Reserve Account Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
D. Revaluation Reserve 4. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Q105. Which of the following best illustrates the How many of the above acts is/are not
role of “Procedures and Instructions” in an covered under the dispute resolution
Accounting Information System (AIS)? framework of the SAMADHAN Portal?
A. Producing final reports like financial A. Only One
statements B. Only Two
B. Maintaining physical servers and network C. Only Three
hardware D. All Four
C. Collecting, managing, and storing
financial transaction data Q109. Which one of the following is not a
D. Verifying the identity of users through feature of the Banking Laws (Amendment)
login credentials Act,2025?
A. It redefines ‘substantial interest’ in
Q106. As of 2025, under the Solar Rooftop
directorships, potentially raising the
Investment Program (SRIP) supported by
threshold from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore.
the Asian Development Bank (ADB), which
B. It increases the maximum consecutive
Indian financial institution has received
tenure of directors (other than chairman/
two separate tranches of funding totaling
whole-time director) of co-operative
USD 400 million for rooftop and ground-
banks from 8 to 10 years.
mounted solar installations?
C. The remuneration of auditors of banks
A. State Bank of India (SBI) will continue to be decided by the
B. Indian Renewable Energy Development RBI in consultation with the central
Agency (IREDA) government.
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural D. The Act redefines ‘fortnight’ for cash
Development (NABARD)

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reserve purposes as the 1st–15th and the Cancún Agreements of the UNFCCC.
16th–end of every month. 2. At least half of GCF’s adaptation
resources must be invested in the most
Q110. With reference to Starlink, which of the climate-vulnerable countries.
following statements is/are correct?
1. Starlink’s Gen1 constellation operates in Select the correct answer using the code
low-earth orbit and has been granted a given below:
five-year authorisation by IN-SPACe. A. 1 only
2. Starlink is the only company to have B. 2 only
received full regulatory approval C. Both 1 and 2
for offering satellite communication D. Neither 1 nor 2
services in India. Q114. The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year
Select the correct answer using the code 2024 was awarded for:
given below: A. Discoveries on graphene and its unique
A. 1 only properties
B. 2 only B. The development of lithium-ion batteries
C. Both 1 and 2 C. Foundational discoveries and inventions
D. Neither 1 nor 2 that enable machine learning with
artificial neural networks
Q111. Which of the following statements with D. Contributions to quantum teleportation
respect to BIMSTEC is/are correct? and quantum entanglement
1. Bangladesh recently concluded the
BIMSTEC Traditional Music Festival. Q115. The term ‘Kannadippaya’ was recently in
2. Bangladesh assumed the chairmanship the news. It refers to:
of the BIMSTEC for the next 2 years from A. A traditional martial art form of Kerala
Thailand. B. A tribal handicraft made from reed
bamboo
Select the correct answer using the code C. A folk dance performed during temple
given below: festivals in Kerala
A. 1 only D. A ritual musical instrument of the
B. 2 only Malabar region
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Q116. The Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana (AVYAY),
launched in April 2021, aims to improve
Q112. As per SEBI’s updated recognition list in July the quality of life of senior citizens by
2025, which of the following is not one of providing basic amenities such as shelter,
the SEBI-recognized clearing corporations food, medical care, and entertainment.
in India? Which of the following is the implementing
A. Multi Commodity Exchange Clearing agency for the Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
Corporation Ltd. (MCXCCL) (RVY) under this scheme?
B. Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd. (ICCL) A. Ministry of Social Justice and
C. NSE Clearing Limited (formerly NSCCL) Empowerment (MoSJE)
D. Bombay Clearing Corporation of India B. Artificial Limbs Manufacturing
(BCCI) Corporation of India (ALIMCO)
Q113. With reference to the Green Climate Fund C. Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE)
(GCF), which of the following statements D. National Action Plan for Senior Citizens
is/are correct? (NAPSrC)
1. The GCF was established in 2010 under

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Q117. Consider the following statements Tithi Bhojan, where community members
regarding the SMILE Scheme (Support for provide special food to children on
Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood special occasions.
and Enterprise): B. Social Audit is made mandatory in all
1. Composite Medical Health, it provides districts to ensure transparency and
a comprehensive package for beggars in accountability in implementation.
convergence with PM-JAY. C. Cooking competitions at all levels are
2. The scheme includes a sub-scheme encouraged to promote ethnic cuisine
for the comprehensive rehabilitation and innovative menus.
of persons engaged in begging with a D. The scheme mandates the involvement
financial allocation of ₹100 Crore. of local farmers in the procurement and
3. The scheme provides scholarships only distribution of food grains.
for transgender students studying at the Q120. Which of the following statements about
undergraduate level or above. the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan
Which of the following statements is/are Yojana (PMKMY) is correct?
correct? A. A subscriber who exits the scheme before
A. Only 2 10 years will receive their contributions
B. 2 and 3 along with interest earned at the savings
C. 1 and 3 bank interest rate.
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. The scheme provides an assured monthly
pension of ₹5000 to Small and Marginal
Q118. Consider the following statements
Farmers (SMFs) upon reaching the age of
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Dakshata
60.
Aur Kushalata Sampanna Hitgrahi (PM-
C. If a subscriber dies after the vesting date,
DAKSH) Yojana:
the spouse is entitled to receive 50% of
1. It is applicable to all citizens in the age the pension as Family Pension only if
group of 18-70 yera. they are already an SMF beneficiary of
2. The scheme is applicable to all categories the scheme.
of individuals, including those from the D. The scheme allows subscribers to
General category, with no income limit. contribute on a monthly basis only, with
3. The PM-DAKSH Yojana includes no other options available.
provisions for up-skilling, short-
term courses, and entrepreneurial
development programmes for
target groups like SC, OBC, EBC, and
transgender persons.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. Only 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q119. Which of the following statements
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Poshan
Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN) Scheme is
incorrect?
A. The scheme encourages the concept of

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Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 C 26 D 51 D 76 A 101 C
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 C 102 D
3 D 28 D 53 D 78 B 103 B
4 A 29 B 54 D 79 C 104 C
5 C 30 A 55 B 80 D 105 C
6 B 31 C 56 B 81 D 106 C
7 B 32 B 57 D 82 C 107 C
8 C 33 B 58 C 83 B 108 A
9 B 34 A 59 A 84 B 109 C
10 B 35 A 60 B 85 B 110 A
11 B 36 B 61 D 86 C 111 B
12 C 37 B 62 A 87 B 112 D
13 C 38 D 63 B 88 B 113 C
14 B 39 C 64 D 89 C 114 C
15 B 40 C 65 A 90 B 115 B
16 B 41 D 66 B 91 C 116 B
17 B 42 B 67 D 92 C 117 A
18 A 43 C 68 D 93 C 118 C
19 A 44 C 69 C 94 B 119 D
20 B 45 D 70 C 95 D 120 A
21 A 46 C 71 B 96 A
22 D 47 B 72 C 97 C
23 C 48 B 73 D 98 C
24 A 49 A 74 D 99 B
25 B 50 B 75 B 100 B

Detailed Explanation

Q1. (A) Intricate - This means something that is • (D) Repudiate - This means to reject or disown
complex or detailed. It does not match the meaning of something. It has no relation to exaggeration or
“exaggerate,” which involves overstating something. overstating achievements.
• (B) Complicate - To make something more difficult Hence, option C is the correct answer.
or complex. While exaggerating can sometimes
complicate a situation, it does not directly mean Q2. (A) Flamboyant - This means strikingly bold,
to complicate. colorful, or extravagant, often in a way that attracts
• (C) Exaggerate - This means to overstate or make attention. This is a perfect fit because the sentence
something seem larger, better, or more important describes a costume with glittering feathers and
than it actually is. This matches the meaning of bright colors, which is meant to stand out.
the underlined word perfectly.

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• (B) Malignant - This means harmful or very customs. It does not relate to tools or objects.
dangerous, often used in a medical context (e.g., • (B) Incantations - This means chants or spells, often
malignant tumor). It does not relate to being spoken to invoke magical effects. While this could
colorful or attention-grabbing. relate to magic, it does not match “paraphernalia,”
• (C) Valiant - This means brave or courageous. which refers to physical objects.
It refers to a person’s character, especially in • (C) Implements - This means tools or instruments
challenging situations, not to an appearance or used for a particular purpose. This is a perfect
style. match because “paraphernalia” refers to the
• (D) Truculent - This means aggressively defiant or various tools and items the magician carries.
hostile. It describes someone’s behavior, not their • (D) Ephemeral - This means something short-lived
appearance or costume. or temporary. It does not relate to tools or objects,
Hence, option A is the correct answer so it doesn’t match the meaning of “paraphernalia.”
Hence, option C the correct answer.
Q3. (A) Garrulous - This means talkative or excessively
chatty. It does not relate to being careless or indifferent Q6. (A) Two positive choices - This would imply
about something, which is what “lackadaisical” means. having two good or favorable options, but “Scylla and
• (B) Virtuous - This means morally good or having Charybdis” refers to a situation where both choices are
high ethical standards. It is the opposite of being dangerous or unfavorable. So, this option is unrelated.
indifferent or careless in approach. • (B) Two equally bad options - This is the correct
• (C) Phlegmatic - This refers to someone who is answer. “Scylla and Charybdis” is an allusion to
calm, slow to respond, or unemotional, but it does Greek mythology, representing two dangers
not fully capture the sense of being lazy or careless or difficult choices with no good outcome. The
in action. phrase is used to describe a situation where both
• (D) Lackadaisical - This means showing little choices are undesirable or harmful.
interest or energy, often in a careless or lazy • (C) A moment of clarity - This means a sudden
manner. It perfectly describes the actor’s realization or understanding, which is the opposite
approach, where the person is not putting in of feeling trapped between bad options. “Scylla
much effort despite the urgency. and Charybdis” suggests confusion, not clarity, so
Hence, option D is the correct answer. this option is not relevant.
• (D) A path of easy decisions - This would imply that
Q4. (A) Conundrums - This means confusing and the person has clear, simple choices. However, the
difficult problems or puzzles. It fits well with phrase “trapped between Scylla and Charybdis”
“imbroglios,” as both words describe complicated or implies a struggle and difficulty, not an easy
tangled situations. decision. Therefore, this option is unrelated.
• (B) Epiphanies - This refers to sudden realizations Hence, option B the correct answer.
or insights. It is the opposite of confusion or
complexity, so it does not fit with “imbroglios.” Q7. (A) Understanding one’s priorities - While this
• (C) Axioms - This means self-evident truths or might seem somewhat related, “which side the bread
principles. It has nothing to do with confusion or is buttered on” refers specifically to acting in one’s
complex situations, so it is not a good match for own self-interest or seeking an advantage, not just
“imbroglios.” understanding priorities.
• (D) Hegemonies - This refers to dominance or • (B) Seeking personal gain or advantage - This is
leadership, especially in political or social contexts. the correct answer. The phrase “which side the
It does not fit the meaning of confusion or complex bread is buttered on” means recognizing where
problems that “imbroglios” describes. your benefits or rewards lie, which in this case
Hence, option A is the correct answer. refers to flatter the manager for personal gain,
like job security.
Q5. (A) Myths - This refers to traditional stories or • (C) Acting out of principle - This would imply doing
legends, often explaining natural phenomena or something based on moral or ethical beliefs, but

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the phrase refers to actions driven by self-interest, • (C) Pursuing a leisurely hobby - This is unrelated, as
not principle. writing short stories for magazines in this context
• (D) Helping others selflessly - This is the opposite of is done to support his larger goal, not as a casual
the behavior described. “Flattering the manager” pastime.
for job security indicates personal benefit, not • (D) Working on something unnecessary - This is
selfless actions. also incorrect because writing short stories is being
Hence, option B the correct answer. portrayed as necessary to support his dream of
publishing a novel.
Q8. (A) Acting independently - This would imply making Hence, option B is the correct answer.
decisions on one’s own, but the sentence suggests the
opposite, that he is not independent. Q11. The sentence begins with (b) “INS Jatayu is a,”
• (B) Dependent on others - While this is somewhat establishing the subject. Next, (d) “strategic naval
related, “apron strings” specifically refers to being vessel” follows, explaining what INS Jatayu is specifically.
overly dependent on a mother or family, so this The following part (a) “designed to enhance India’s
option is less specific than (C). defense capabilities,” provides additional information
about the purpose of INS Jatayu. Finally, (c) “especially
• (C) Overly dependent on family - This is the
in search-and-rescue operations” elaborates on one
correct answer. The phrase “tied to the apron
of the key functions of the vessel. Therefore, the most
strings” means being overly dependent on one’s
appropriate order is (B) bdac, making the sentence
mother, unable to make independent decisions.
coherent and logical.
• (D) Seeking professional advice - This would imply
Reconstructed Sentence:
consulting experts or professionals, which is
unrelated to the concept of being overly dependent “INS Jatayu is a strategic naval vessel designed to
on family. enhance India’s defense capabilities, especially in
Hence, option C the correct answer. search-and-rescue operations.”
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q9. (A) Feeling anger - A “lump in her throat” generally
represents sadness, not anger. This option does not fit Q12. The sentence starts with (a) “operation Indravati
the emotional context of the sentence. was a military operation,” introducing the subject.
• (B) Experiencing overwhelming emotion - This is Next, (c) “launched by India” tells us who launched the
the correct answer. A lump in the throat typically operation. Then, (d) “to tackle insurgency and restore
indicates strong emotions, such as sadness or stability” gives the purpose of the operation. Finally,
sentimentality, especially when trying to hold (b) “and restore stability in conflict-prone regions”
back tears. further elaborates on the goals of the operation. Thus,
the correct sequence is (C) acdb.
• (C) Feeling indifferent - Indifference means lack
of emotion or concern, which contradicts the Reconstructed Sentence:
emotional struggle described in the sentence. “Operation Indravati was a military operation launched
• (D) Exhibiting nervousness - Nervousness might by India to tackle insurgency and restore stability in
cause physical symptoms, but the sentence conflict-prone regions.”
describes emotional difficulty, not anxiety or fear. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q13. The sentence begins with (d) “geospatial
Q10. (A) Avoiding hard work - “Keep the pot boiling” intelligence analyzes geographic data,” which
suggests maintaining a necessary or steady effort, not establishes the main subject of the sentence. Next, (b)
avoiding work, so this is incorrect. “to support decision-making “ explains the purpose of
analyzing geographic data. Following that, (a) “ in areas
• (B) Maintaining a steady income - This is the like defense, disaster management, “ lists the specific
correct answer. “Keep the pot boiling” refers to areas where decision-making is supported. Finally, (c)
doing something to sustain oneself, like earning “ and urban development “ completes the idea. Thus,
money while working toward a larger goal, such the correct order is (C) dbac.
as publishing a novel.

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Reconstructed-Sentence: exploring language change with descriptivist

“Geospatial intelligence analyzes geographic data to openness. This dual engagement reflects reconciliation
support decision-making in areas like defense, disaster of the two positions. Option (A) is incorrect since no
management, and urban development.” new framework is proposed. Option (C) ignores the
descriptivist role, and option (D) contradicts the
Hence, option C is the correct answer. editor’s responsibility.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q14. The sentence starts with (b) “the Uniform Civil
Code aims to create,” which introduces the main
Q18. The example of “decimate” illustrates a broader
objective. Next, (c) “a common legal framework “
conflict: prescriptivists dislike the shift from its Roman
explains what the code aims to create. Then, (d) “for
origin to “destroy,” while descriptivists see it as natural
all citizens” provides further clarification about the
semantic evolution. Option (B) is too literal, ignoring
scope of the legal framework. Finally, (a) “irrespective
the debate. Option (C) is not claimed, since dictionaries
of their religious beliefs” explains that the code applies
like OED simply document changes. Option (D)
to all citizens, regardless of religion. Therefore, the
oversimplifies, as figurative usage isn’t always framed
correct sequence is (B) bcda.
as negative.
Reconstructed Sentence:
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
“The Uniform Civil Code aims to create a common legal
framework for all citizens, irrespective of their religious Q19. The author personally prefers the traditional
beliefs.” meaning of “literally,” as it emphasizes clarity and
Hence, option B is the correct answer. precision. The figurative use as an intensifier, while
widespread and even used by great writers, is seen
Q15. The sentence starts with (a) “patents provide as reducing accuracy. Option (B) misrepresents
legal protection,” which introduces the main idea. the passage, since Joyce and Nabokov are cited to
Then, (c) “to inventors, granting them exclusive rights” acknowledge figurative use, not oppose it. Options (C)
explains to whom this legal protection is granted and and (D) are not directly mentioned.
what it entails. After that, (b) “to their inventions and Hence, option A is the correct answer.
creativity” further clarifies what the protection covers.
Finally, (d) “thereby encouraging innovation” explains Q20. The passage recognizes that language change
the purpose or effect of granting patents. The correct cannot be avoided and is part of linguistic evolution.
order is (B) acbd. However, the author warns it can result in some losses,
Reconstructed Sentence: particularly in clarity and expressive richness, though
“Patents provide legal protection to inventors, granting not catastrophic. Option (A) exaggerates the negativity,
them exclusive rights to their inventions and creativity, (C) gives undue credit to prescriptivists alone, and (D)
thereby encouraging innovation.” ignores the author’s balanced reconciliation.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q16. The passage emphasizes the divide between Q21. For the minimum number of rows, the number of
prescriptivists and descriptivists. Prescriptivists focus trees in each row must be maximum.
on correctness and strict rules, while descriptivists Number of trees in each row = HCF of 27, 48, and 63
argue that language change is natural and inevitable. Factors of 27 = 3 × 3 × 3
This opposition is presented as the central polarization
in language debates. Though options (A), (C), and (D) Factors of 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
touch on related ideas, they are narrower in focus and Factors of 63 = 3 × 3 × 7
miss the main contrast the passage develops. HCF of 27, 48, 63 = 3
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Hence, number of rows = (27 + 48 + 63)/3 = 138/3
Q17. The author describes holding two roles: as Number of Rows = 46
an editor, applying prescriptivist rules to maintain Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
correctness and house style; and as a columnist,

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Q22. Height of the cone = h1 common divisor is 1).

Height of the cylinder = h2 The pairs (x,y) such that x + y = 21 are:
Radius of cone is double the radius of cylinder (1, 20), (2, 19), (3, 18), (4, 17), (5, 16), (6, 15), (7, 14),
Radius of the cylinder = a (8,13), (9, 12), (10, 11)
Radius of the cone = 2a Now, we check which of these pairs have an HCF of 1:
The volume of cone and cylinder is 2:1 HCF (1, 20) = 1
1 22 HCF (2, 19) = 1
× × 2a × 2a × h1
3 7 =2 HCF (3, 18) = 3 (not valid)
22
× a × a × h2
7 HCF (4, 17) = 1
4h1 HCF (5, 16) = 1
=2
3h2
HCF (6, 15) = 3 (not valid)
2h1 = 3h2 HCF (7, 14) = 7 (not valid)
2 × (x + 6) = 3h2 HCF (8, 13) = 1
2x
h2 = 2/3 × (x + 6) = 3
+4
HCF (9, 12) = 3 (not valid)
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. HCF (10, 11) = 1
Valid pairs:
Q23. Total number of arrangements, when any 3 boys
are selected out of 5 = 5C3. Now, when groups contains The valid pairs where HCF(x, y) = 1 are:
both C and D, then their selection is fixed and the (1, 20), (2, 19), (4, 17), (5, 16), (8, 13), (10, 11)
remaining 1 boy can be selected out of the remaining 3 Thus, the maximum number of pairs that satisfy these
boys. It can be done in 3C1 ways. conditions is 6.
So, number of groups, when none contains both C Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
and D = total number of arrangements- number of
arrangements when group contains both C and D = 5C3- Q25. Let the time taken by pipes X and Y to fill the tank
3
C1 = 10 - 3 = 7 individually be x minutes and y minutes respectively.
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. When one-fourth of the tank is filled by pipe Y and the
remaining three-fourth is filled by pipe X, then
Q24. Let the two numbers be a and b.
x (3/4) + y (1/4) = 35
a+ b = 462
or 3x + y = 35 × 4 = 140 ............(i)
HCF(a,b) = 22
When one-fourth of the tank is filled by pipe X and the
This means both a and b are divisible by 22. We can remaining three-fourth of the tank is filled by pipe
express a and b as:
Y, then
a = 22x and b = 22y
x (1/4) + y (3/4) = 25
where x and y are integers such that HCF(x,y)=1 (since or x + 3y = 25 × 4 = 100 ...............(ii)
the HCF of a and b is 22, and the HCF of x and y must
be 1). Multiplying equation (ii) by 3, we get:
Now, substitute into the equation a + b = 462 3x + 9y = 300 ............(iii)
22x + 22y = 462 Subtracting equation (i) from equation (iii), we get:
8y = 160
x + y = 21
or y = 20
We now need to find the number of pairs of integers
(x, y) such that x + y = 21 and HCF(x,y) = 1 Putting value of y in equation of (i), we get:
We need to find pairs of integers x and y such that x + 3x + 20 = 140
y = 21 and HCF(x,y) = 1. The valid pairs are those where or 3x = 120
the two numbers are coprime (i.e., their greatest or x = 40

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Thus, y = 20 minutes, x = 40 minutes From Statement II,

Now, pipes X and Y together can fill the tank in [xy/ The amount of milk in A = 40L.
(x+y)] = [(40 × 20)/ (40 + 20)] = 40/3 minutes The amount of milk in B = (40/4) ×5 = 50L
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. Amount of water in B is 40L
We cannot calculate the quantity of vessel C because
Q26. Let x be the average marks of the class.
the amount of water in vessel A is missing.
Number of students in the class = 51
From Statement I and II,
Total marks of class = Number of students in the class
× average marks of the class = 51x The amount of water in A is (70-40) =30L

If marks of Vaibhav are excluded, the average marks of Amount of water in C is (40+30)/2 =35L
class are decreased by 3. Amount of milk in C is (40+50)/2 =45L
Rahul’s score = 51x - 50 (x - 3) = 51x - 50x + 150 = x + The total quantity of mixture in vessel C = 80L
150 Both Statement I and statement II are sufficient to
Also, if marks of Prashant are excluded, the average answer the question.
marks of the class are increased by 2. Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
Prashant’s score = 51x - 50 (x + 2) = 51x - 50x – 100 =
x – 100 Q29. Ratio of work done by a child, a woman and a
Ratio of marks of Rahul and Prashant = 11: 9 man = 2:3:4
Now, according to the question To get the ratio of work done by 10 men, 20 women
and 30 children, the ratio of work done by one man,
(x + 150)/ (x - 100) = 11/9 one woman and one child need to be multiplied by the
or 9x + 1350 = 11x - 1100 number of men, women and children
or 2x = 2450 respectively.
or x = 1225 Ratio of work done by 30 children, 20 women and 10
Hence, the average marks of the class are 1225. men = (2 × 30): (3 × 20): (4 × 10) = 60:60:40 = 3:3:2
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. Daily wage = Rs. 1600.
So, share of 10 men = 1600 × 2/8 = Rs. 400
Q27. Let 5 kg of coffee be mixed with 2 kg of chicory.
Share of one man = 1/10 × 400 = Rs. 40
C.P. of the mixture = Rs. (5 × a + 2 × b) = Rs. (5a + 2b)
Similarly, share of 20 women = 1600 × 3/8 = Rs. 600
S.P. of the mixture = (5 + 2) c = Rs. 7c
Share of one woman = 1/20 × 600 = Rs. 30
Since the seller registers a gain, therefore S.P. > C.P.
Wage of one man and two women for 2 days = [40 +
Gain/Profit = S.P. – C.P. = 7c – (5a + 2b) = Rs. (7c – 5a (30 × 2)] × 2 = Rs. 200.
– 2b)
Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
Q30. (A) Both x and y have factors other than 1 and
Q28. From statement I, itself, so both (x and y) are composite numbers.
The ratio of the total quantity of A to B vessels is 7:9. • (B) None of the x or y is prime; also, the difference
Difference of quantity of A and B is 20. between the two numbers (x and y) is not 2. Hence,
9x-7x = 20 they are not twin primes.
x = 10 • (C) HCF (of x and y) = 17! 1. Hence, they are not
co-primes.
The total amount of quantity in A and B is 70L and 90L
respectively. • (D) Statement in option (B) is not correct. So, this
option (D) is not correct.
From the above statement, we cannot find the quantity
of vessel C because we could not know the milk and Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
water level of A and B

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Q31. Bowling Average of cricketer = 18.6 runs per Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
wicket
Bowling Figure in the last match = 6 wickets for 39 runs Q34. Small triangles = 5
Decrease in bowling Average = 0.6 Triangles formed by combination of 2 triangles = 3
So, new average = 18.6 – 0.6 = 18 runs per wicket Triangles formed by combination of 3 triangles = 1
Let the total number of wickets taken till the last match Thus, total triangles = 5 + 3 + 1 = 9
be x. Then, Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
Total number of Runs before last match = Average x
Total number of wickets = 18.6 x Q35. The standard deviation is a measure of the
Therefore, (18.6x + 39)/ (x + 6) = 18 spread or dispersion of a dataset from its mean. It is
not affected by adding or subtracting a constant value
Or 18.6x + 39 = 18 (x + 6) from all data points. In this case, a uniform bonus of
Or 18.6x + 39 = 18x + 108 ₹5,000 is added to every employee’s salary.
Or 18.6x - 18x = 108 - 39 • Adding a constant to every value in a dataset shifts
Or x (18.6 - 18) = 69 the entire distribution along the number line, but
it does not change the spread or distance between
Or 0.6x = 69
the values.
Or x = 69/0.6
• The mean of the new dataset will increase by
Or x = 115 ₹5,000 (new mean = ₹45,000 + ₹5,000 = ₹50,000).
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. • However, the standard deviation remains
unchanged because the distance of each data point
Q32. The solid cone fits exactly in the hollow cylinder. from the new mean is the same as the distance of
Thus, height and radius of the cylinder will be the same the old data point from the old mean.
as that of the cone. Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
Volume of cone = (1/3) × volume of cylinder
It means that the cone occupies 1/3rd volume of Q36. Under India’s Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT)
cylinder and 2/3rd volume of cylinder is vacant. framework, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) aims to
maintain a Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation target
Volume of water in the vacant space of the cylinder =
of 4%, with a tolerance band of ±2%. This means the
100 ml (which is 2/3rd volume of the cylinder)
acceptable inflation range is 2% to 6%.​
So, Volume of cylinder = 100 × 3/2 = 150 ml
Key Details:
Hence 150 ml water could have been filled in the
cylinder if there was no cone. • Adoption of FIT: India adopted the FIT framework
in 2016, formalized through an amendment to the
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.​
Q33. As per the given condition in the question, each • Mandate Duration: The current inflation target of
letter represents a different digit 4% ± 2% is set to remain in effect until March 31,
2026.
3546A + B3135 = 12A603
• RBI’s Approach: The RBI continues to be a flexible
Step 1:
inflation target responding to both inflation and
A+5=3 output gap when setting policy rates.
It means value of A can be 8. Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
3 + B = 12
There is no carry forward from thousands place. So, 3 Q37. Monetary policy tools are broadly classified into
+ B = 12 two categories:
Value of B will be 9. Quantitative Tools (also called General tools):
So, A = 8 and B = 9. These affect the overall supply of credit in the economy
Thus, product of A and B = 8 x 9 = 72 and include:

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• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Q39. Types of Strike Based on Tactics Used to Halt
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Work
• Bank Rate • Ordinary Strike:
• Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate o Workers quit their workplace during prescribed
working hours.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
o Striking workers prevent others from coming
• Open Market Operations (OMO) to work.
Qualitative Tools (also called Selective tools): o Includes rallies, picketing, and demonstrations
These influence specific sectors or types of credit in the to draw attention to grievances and demands.
economy and aim at the quality and direction of credit. • Slow-Down Strike:
Examples include:
o Workers remain on the job but intentionally
• Moral Suasion: reduce the volume of output in an organized
o A persuasive method used by RBI to influence manner.
banks’ lending decisions. o Harmful as machinery operates at reduced
o RBI “requests” or “advises” banks to align speed, potentially damaging machinery parts.
credit flows with policy priorities. • Quickie Strike:
• Selective Credit Control: o Workers stay at their workstations but halt
o RBI restricts or regulates credit for specific work for a brief period (a few minutes to
purposes or sectors (e.g., hoarding of food hours).
grains or speculative activities). o Particularly impactful in industries like
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. assembly-line production.
• Sit-Down Strike:
Q38. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a
composite index developed by the United Nations o Workers stop production and refuse access to
Development Programme (UNDP) to measure and owners or other workers.
compare the overall development and well-being of o Workers do not leave the workplace, adding
people in different countries. an element of trespass.
Health – Life Expectancy at Birth o Also known as a “pen-down” or “tool-down”
• It measures the average number of years a person strike.
is expected to live from birth. • Sit-In Strike:
• This reflects the quality of healthcare, nutrition, o Workers occupy an area where they are not
and living standards in a country. wanted and refuse to leave until demands are
Education – Educational Index met.
• Mean years of schooling (average number of years • Stay-In Strike:
of education received by people ages 25 and older). o Workers report to their duties but refuse to
• Expected years of schooling (how many years of work and do not leave the plant premises.
schooling a child entering school is expected to o Halts operations while forcing the owner to
receive). incur additional expenditure on safety and
Standard of Living – Income Index security.
• Measured using Gross National Income (GNI) per • Work-to-Rule Strike:
capita (adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity – o Workers strictly adhere to prescribed rules
PPP). and perform tasks exactly as stated.
• Reflects the ability of people to access goods, o Decline to perform anything not mentioned in
services, and a decent standard of life the rules, resulting in slowed work.
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. • Sick-In Strike:

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o Workers call in sick on the same day, availing Q42. Rege Committee: Appointed in 1944 to investigate
their entitled sick leave. labour welfare measures, it is also known as the Labour
o Cannot be penalized by employers as no rules Investigation Committee. In 1946, it submitted a report
are broken, signaling potential repercussions recommending an extension of welfare measures to
of a full strike. include education, healthcare, and relief for old age
and death.
Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
• Sarkaria Committee: Pertains to center-state
relations, not labour welfare.
Q40. Definition: Arbitration is a method of resolving
disputes where both parties present their case to • Malhotra Committee: Focused on insurance-
a neutral third party who reaches and enforces a related matters, unrelated to labour welfare.
decision. Conciliation involves an independent third • Mehta Committee: Known for education reform,
party assisting the disputing parties in reaching a not labour welfare.
mutually agreeable outcome. Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
• Enforceability: An arbitrator’s decision is
enforceable, similar to a court judgment, whereas Q43. Subsistence Theory is associated with David
a conciliator does not have the authority to enforce Ricardo, as it focuses on the price of labor depending
decisions. on the subsistence of labor.
• Process: Arbitration follows a formal process, often • Wages Fund Theory was proposed by J. S. Mill,
similar to court proceedings, including witnesses emphasizing that wages are derived from a pre-
and evidence presentation. In contrast, conciliation determined fund.
is an informal process, typically involving a “round • Residual Claimant Theory was introduced by
table” discussion. Walker, stating that labor receives the residual
• Role of Third Party: Arbitrators do not directly after other factors of production are compensated.
discuss issues with the parties or generate • Marginal Productivity Theory is attributed to
settlement options. However, conciliators can John Bates Clark, linking wages to the marginal
discuss issues, develop options, and suggest productivity of labor.
alternatives to help parties achieve a mutual
Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
agreement.
• Outcome: The arbitrator’s award is final, binding, Q44. [A]: The Act applies to every factory and
and terminates the proceedings. On the other establishments with 20 or more employees, not limited
hand, conciliation does not guarantee a mutually to factories employing more than 50 persons.
agreeable outcome between the parties.
• [B]: Employees earning a salary exceeding ₹21,000
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. per month are not eligible for a bonus.
• [D]: The minimum bonus is 8.33% of the salary or
Q41. Article 38: Directs the State to secure a social
₹100, whichever is higher, not 5%.
order for the promotion of the welfare of people,
which includes labour welfare. Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
• Article 41: Requires the State to make provisions
Q45. The Building and Other Construction Workers
for securing the right to work, education, and
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of
public assistance in cases like unemployment, old
Service) Act, 1996 includes the provision for creating
age, sickness, and disablement, contributing to
State Welfare Boards by state governments to
labour welfare.
implement welfare measures and address the needs of
• Article 43: Encourages the State to secure workers’ construction workers.
living wages, decent working condition Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
• Article 44: Does not pertain to labour welfare; it
deals with the uniform civil code for citizens. Q46. As per the Building and Other Construction
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions
of Service) Act, 1996, creches must be provided in
workplaces where more than 50 female building

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workers are ordinarily employed to ensure care for Q50. Payment of Subsistence Allowance
children under the age of six. • When any workman is suspended by the employer
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. pending investigation of misconduct, the employer
shall pay subsistence allowance as follows:
Q47. Under the Mines Act, 1952, the Central o 50% of the workman’s preceding wages for
Government is empowered to appoint certifying the first 90 days of suspension.
surgeons, who are qualified medical practitioners, to
perform duties related to the health and safety of mine o 75% of such wages for the remaining
workers. suspension period if the delay in disciplinary
proceedings is not due to the workman’s fault.
Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
• In case of a dispute regarding the subsistence
Q48. Payment of Wages Act, 1936: Deductions for allowance:
Absence from Duty o Either party can refer the matter to a Labor
• Deductions are permissible only for the absence of Court constituted under the Industrial Disputes
an employee from their designated workplace, as Act, 1947.
required by their employment terms, for all or part o If any state law provides a more beneficial
of the period they are supposed to work. subsistence allowance, that law shall override
• The deduction amount must not exceed the this section.
proportion of wages for the wage period in which Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
the deduction is made, equivalent to the duration
of the absence in relation to the total period the Q51. [A]: Individuals aged 15 or more can become
employee was required to work during that wage members of a registered Trade Union unless the
period. union’s rules specify otherwise.
• Unless stated otherwise by rules established by the • [B]: A registered Trade Union can change its name
appropriate Government, if 10 or more employees with the approval of at least 2/3rd of its total
collectively absent themselves without proper members, not 3/4th.
notice, as required by their employment contracts, • [C]: Two or more registered Trade Unions can
and without valid reasons, the deduction from amalgamate if at least 1/2 of the members vote,
any such employee may include an amount not and 60% of those votes favor the proposal, not
exceeding 8 days’ wages, as specified in their 75%.
contracts as compensation to the employer for the
Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
lack of due notice.
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. Q52. Provision of Creche for Women Workers
o Factories employing more than 30 women
Q49. Central Advisory Board workers must provide and maintain suitable
• To advise the Central and State Governments rooms for children under 6 years of age
on the fixation and revision of minimum rates of belonging to these workers.
wages and to coordinate the work of the Advisory • Appointment of Welfare Officers
Boards, the Central Government shall appoint a
Central Advisory Board. o Factories with 500 or more regular workers
are required to appoint a specified number
• Composition: of welfare officers, as prescribed by the State
o The Central Advisory Board comprises Government.
equal numbers of employer and employee • Working Hours for Adult Workers
representatives, along with a maximum of
o The Factories Act specifies that no adult
1/3rd independent members (nominated by
worker shall work for more than 48 hours in
the Central Government).
any week, not 54 hours.
o An independent person shall be the Chairman
Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
of the Board.
Hence, option A is the Correct answer.

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Q53. Penalty for Illegal Strikes and Lock-outs impure blood (high in carbon dioxide) from the body
• For Workmen: Any workman who initiates, carries towards the heart, with the exception of the pulmonary
on, or advances an illegal strike under this Act can vein, which carries pure oxygenated blood from the
face penalties, which may include imprisonment lungs to the left auricle.
for up to one month, a fine of up to 50 rupees, or • Statement 2 is correct: Arteries generally carry
both. pure blood (oxygen-rich) from the heart to the
• For Employers: Any employer who initiates, body, with the exception of the pulmonary artery,
continues, or advances an illegal lock-out under which carries impure blood from the right ventricle
this Act can face penalties, which may include to the lungs for oxygenation.
imprisonment for up to one month, a fine of up to • Statement 3 is incorrect: The pulmonary vein does
1000 rupees, or both. not carry blood from the right ventricle. It carries
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left auricle.
The pulmonary artery carries blood from the right
Q54. Mitochondria were discovered by Altman in ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation.
1886. These structures are cylindrical, rod-shaped, or Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
spherical and are found in the cytoplasm.
• They are surrounded by a double-layered Q57. Dynamite: Discovered by Alfred Nobel in 1863, it
membrane, and the inner membrane has folds is an explosive made by the absorption of raw dust with
called cristae. nitroglycerine. In modern dynamite, sodium nitrate is
used in place of nitroglycerine.
• The matrix is the fluid inside the mitochondria,
containing many enzymes and coenzymes. • TNT (Tri Nitro Toluene): A highly explosive
compound.
• Mitochondria are also called the “powerhouse of
the cell” because they generate energy in the form • TNP (Tri Nitro Phenol): Known as picric acid, this is
of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is essential also an explosive.
for various cellular functions. • Sodium Nitrate: While it is used in dynamite
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. production as a substitute for nitroglycerine, it is
not itself an explosive.
Q55. Red Blood Corpuscles (RBC) Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
• RBCs of mammals are biconcave and lack a nucleus
(except Camel and Lama). They are formed in the Q58. Hard and Soft Water
bone marrow, while during the embryonic stage, • Hard Water: Contains soluble impurities such as
their formation occurs in the liver. Their lifespan bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulphates of calcium
ranges from 20 to 120 days, and destruction occurs (Ca) and magnesium (Mg).
in the liver and spleen, making the liver the “grave o Temporary Hardness: Caused by bicarbonates
of RBCs.” of calcium and magnesium.
• RBCs contain haemoglobin, where the iron o Permanent Hardness: Caused by chlorides and
compound haeme gives blood its red color. The sulphates of calcium and magnesium.
globin part of haemoglobin binds with oxygen and
• Methods of Removal:
carbon dioxide, while the iron compound is called
haematin. o Temporary Hardness: Removed by boiling or
using Clark’s method.
• The main function of RBCs is to transport oxygen
to body cells and carry back carbon dioxide. A o Permanent Hardness: Removed by the Soda
deficiency of haemoglobin leads to anaemia. ash (Na₂CO₃) process.
During sleep, RBC count decreases by 5%, and at Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
high altitudes (e.g., 4200 meters), it increases by
30%. Q59. Ammonia (NH₃): Used as a reagent in the ice
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. factory (1-c).
• Water gas (CO + H₂): Used as fuel in welding work
Q56. Statement 1 is correct: Veins generally carry (2-b).

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• Producer gas (CO + N₂): Used in a heating furnace o An amendment was introduced, requiring a
(3-a). jury of 50% Europeans if an Indian judge was
• Coal gas: Used in an inert atmosphere (4-d). to preside over a trial involving a European.
Hence, option A is the Correct answer. Hence, option B is the Correct answer.

Q60. The refractive index (µ) is calculated using the Q64. The Zimmerman Plan was a plot orchestrated by
formula: the Yugantar party during the First World War.
µ = c/v • It aimed to import German arms and ammunition
through sympathizers and revolutionaries abroad
Rearranging to find v:
to trigger an all-India insurrection against British
v = c/µ rule.
Substituting c = 3 x 108 m/s and µ = 1.5: Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
v = 3x108 / 1.5 = 2 x 108 m/s
Thus the correct answer is [B] 2.0 x 108 m/s Q65. Gandhiji’s first racial humiliation occurred
while traveling from Durban to Pretoria, marking the
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. beginning of his fight against racial discrimination.

Q61. Myopia (Short-sightedness): Corrected using a • Formation of Natal Indian Congress and the launch
diverging lens (1-B). of the journal Indian Opinion to address issues
faced by Indians in South Africa.
• Hypermetropia (Long-sightedness): Corrected
using a converging lens (2-C). • Establishment of Phoenix Settlement in 1904 to
promote community living and self-reliance.
• Presbyopia: Corrected using a bifocal lens (3-D).
• Launch of Passive Resistance Association in 1906
• Astigmatism: Corrected using a cylindrical lens (4- to oppose the Asiatic Registration Bill.
A).
• Setting up of Tolstoy Farm in 1910 to support
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. satyagrahis’ families during the struggle.

Q62. Option A is incorrect: Ionic compounds are bad Hence, option A is the Correct answer.
conductors of electricity in solid state because the
ions are held tightly in a lattice and cannot move freely. Q66. Vedanta School
However, they are good conductors in molten state or • Fundamental Belief
when dissolved in water, as the ions can move freely. o The philosophy propounds that Brahma is the
Hence, option A is the Correct answer. reality of life, and everything else is unreal or
Maya.
Q63. Ilbert Bill Controversy o This school upholds the philosophies of life as
• Sir Ilbert was the law member of the Viceroy’s elaborated in the Upanishads.
Council. o The oldest text forming the basis of this
• The Ilbert Bill sought to give Indian members of philosophy was the Brahmasutra of
the ICS the same judicial powers as their European Badarayana.
colleagues enjoyed. • Attainment of Salvation
o As per this bill, Indian judges could try o The philosophy proposes that the atma
European accused. (consciousness of self) is similar to the Brahma.
• The bill faced severe opposition from the o If a person attains knowledge of the self, they
Europeans, who collectively stood against it. will automatically understand Brahma and
• This protest came to be known as the White achieve salvation.
Mutiny of 1883. o According to their theory, Brahma and Atma
• Due to the opposition, Lord Ripon had to modify are indestructible and eternal.
the Bill in favor of Europeans. o The Vedanta theory also gave credence to the
Theory of Karma.

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o They believed in the theory of Punarjanama or Q68. World Heritage Site in Telangana
rebirth. • Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple, Mulugu
• Advaita Vedanta District (2021) is located in the village of Palampet.
• The philosophy evolved in the 9th century AD • Known as the Ramappa Temple, it is the main
through the intervention of Shankaracharya, who Shiva temple within a walled complex built during
wrote commentaries on the Upanishads and the the Kakatiya period (1123–1323 CE) under the
Bhagavad Gita. patronage of rulers Ganapati Deva and Recharla
• The term Advaita refers to the idea that the Rudra Reddy.
true self, Atman, is the same as the highest • The construction of the sandstone temple began
metaphysical reality of the universe, Brahman. in 1213 CE and is believed to have continued for
• Another major philosopher of this school was around 40 years.
Ramanuja, who wrote in the 12th century AD. Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
• Key differences between the views of
Shankaracharya and Ramanuja: Q69. Pottery in Vedic Age
o Shankaracharya’s Views: • The Vedic Era witnessed the emergence of the
Painted Grey Ware (PGW) Culture.
 He considers Brahma to be without any
attributes. • Rig Vedic sites had PGW but lacked iron objects
and cereals, making it a pre-iron phase of PGW. In
 He considers Knowledge (Jnana/Gyan) to contrast, Later Vedic sites are considered the iron-
be the main means of attaining salvation. phase of PGW.
o Ramanuja’s Views: • PGW is an Iron Age pottery found in the Gangetic
 He considers Brahma to possess certain plain and Ghaggar–Hakra valley, lasting from
attributes. roughly 1200 BC to 600 BC. Mathura was the
 He considers love and devotion as the largest PGW site.
path to attain salvation. • The pottery is characterized by fine, grey pottery
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. painted with geometric patterns in black.
• PGW was confined to regions such as Punjab,
Q67. Lord Vardhaman Mahavir Haryana, and the upper Ganga Valley and is
• Lord Vardhaman Mahavir was born in 599 BCE associated with village and town settlements, but
at Kundagram near Vaisali to Kshatriya parents without large cities.
Siddhartha and Trisala. • By the end of the Later Vedic Age (around 6th
• He was married to Yasoda, and they had a daughter, century BC), the second phase of urbanization
Priyadarsena, who married Jamali, the first disciple emerged (the first being the Indus Valley
of Lord Mahavir. (Jamali was not Lord Mahavir’s Civilization). This era marked the beginning of the
son but his son-in-law. Mahavir and Yasoda had Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) culture.
a daughter named Priyadarsena, who married Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
Jamali.)
• At the age of 30, he renounced worldly life, became Q70. Main Elements in Stupas
an ascetic, and wandered for 12 years. • The central structure consists of a hemispherical
• In the 13th year of his penance, he attained the dome (anda) on a base, with a relic chamber deep
highest spiritual knowledge, ‘Kevala Jnana’, and within. The dome symbolizes the dome of heaven
was thereafter called Mahavira and Jina. His enclosing the earth.
followers were called Jains, and his teachings • Surmounted by a squared railing (harmika), which
formed the foundation of Jainism. represents the world mountain.
• He preached his doctrines for 30 years and passed • A central pillar (yashti) symbolizes the cosmic axis
away at the age of 72 at Pava near Rajagriha. and supports a triple umbrella structure (chattra),
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. representing the Three Jewels of Buddhism—the

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Buddha, the dharma (doctrine), and the sangha ‘unity and integrity of the nation.’
(community). • The word ‘Equality’ was already part of the
• A circular terrace (medhi), enclosed by a railing, original Preamble and was not added by the 42nd
surrounds the dome for circumambulation by the Amendment.
faithful in a clockwise direction. Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
• The toranas (gateways) of the Great Stupa at Sanchi
are the crowning achievement of its sculpture. Q73. The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
o Each gateway has two squared posts topped specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of
by capitals of sculptured animals or dwarfs, Panchayats. It was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
surmounted by three architraves. of 1992 and includes 29 matters.
o The elements are richly adorned with relief • The 12th Schedule specifies the powers, authority,
sculptures depicting events from the Buddha’s and responsibilities of Municipalities. It was added
life, Jataka stories, early Buddhism scenes, by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 and includes
and auspicious symbols. 18 matters.
• The Sanchi Stupa in Madhya Pradesh is the most Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
famous Stupa, while the Piprahwa Stupa in Uttar
Pradesh is the oldest. Q74. Dual polity consisting of the Union at the Centre
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. and the states at the periphery is a federal feature
of the Indian Constitution, not a unitary one, as it
Q71. ARTICLE 14: EQUALITY BEFORE LAW establishes a division of authority between two levels
of government.
• It states that, “the State shall not deny to any person
equality before the law or the equal protection of o The other options reflect unitary features:
the laws within the territory of India.” o Residuary powers rest with the Centre
EQUALITY BEFORE THE LAW highlights the strong central authority.
• The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element o The Union List contains more subjects than
of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’ of British origin. the State List shows the Centre’s dominance in
o As a negative concept, it connotes:
legislative matters.
1. No person is above the law. There is absolute o Unequal representation of states in the Rajya
supremacy of law as opposed to arbitrary Sabha also indicates a unitary inclination,
powers. as not all states have equal say in the upper
house.
2. Every person is subjected equally to ordinary
laws of the land. Hence, option D is the Correct answer.
3. There is no special privilege for anyone.
Q75. The Collegium system is responsible for
• It is a negative concept in the sense that it denies recommending judicial appointments to the Supreme
the State to discriminate between individuals on Court and High Courts in India.
an arbitrary basis.
• For appointments in the Supreme Court, the
• The Supreme Court held that the concept of ‘Rule Collegium consists of the Chief Justice of India (CJI)
of Law’ is a basic feature of the Constitution. and four other senior-most judges of the Supreme
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. Court.
• This system operates under the provisions of
Q72. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, referred to as Articles 124 and 217 of the Indian Constitution
the “mini-Constitution,” made significant changes to
the Indian Constitution, including amendments to the Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
Preamble.
Q76. About ISC
• It inserted the words ‘Socialist,’ ‘Secular,’ and
‘Integrity’ into the Preamble. • Purpose: A forum through which the Centre and
the states coordinate and cooperate with each
• It also changed the phrase ‘unity of the nation’ to other.

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• Genesis: o Thematic approach is based on localization of

o Established under Article 263 of the Sustainable Developmental Goals (SDGs) by
Constitution through a Presidential Order in adopting a ‘Whole of Government and Whole
1990. of Society approach.’
o Created on the recommendation of the o PDI is a multi-domain and multi-sectoral
Sarkaria Commission. index that is intended to be used to assess the
overall holistic development, performance &
• Composition: It consists of: progress of panchayats.
o Chairman: Prime Minister. • Inclusive participation: Engage the youth and the
o Members: elderly (more than 75 years) for handholding in
 Chief Ministers of all states. preparation of GPDPs.
 Chief Ministers of Union Territories o Collaboration with Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
having a Legislative Assembly. (UBA) by involving over 15,000 students this
year from Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).
 Administrators of Union Territories
without a Legislative Assembly. • The approved GPDP to be published on the e-Gram
Swaraj portal.
 Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union
Council of Ministers, nominated by the Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
Prime Minister.
Q78. The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) will be
Hence, option A is the Correct answer. effective from April 1, 2025, and will apply to all Central
government employees.
Q77. Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched the People’s
Plan Campaign (Jan Yojana Abhiyan) for the preparation • Under this scheme, employees will receive an
of Panchayat Development Plans (PDPs) for 2025–26. assured pension amounting to 50% of their
average basic pay drawn during the last 12 months
About Jan Yojana Abhiyan or People’s Plan Campaign prior to superannuation, provided they complete a
(PPC): minimum qualifying service of 25 years.
• Aim: To accelerate people’s participation in • For shorter service periods, a proportional
the process of preparation of the Panchayat pension will be provided, with a minimum service
Development Plan. requirement of 10 years.
• Launched: Rolled out as ‘Sabki Yojana Sabka Vikas’
• The scheme guarantees a minimum pension of
by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj on 2nd October
Rs. 10,000 per month upon superannuation after
2018.
completing at least 10 years of service.
• Implementation: At all three tiers of Panchayats
• In the event of an employee’s demise, their family
with the active involvement of Elected
will receive a family pension amounting to 60% of
Representatives, Government Frontline workers,
the employee’s pension before demise.
Community-Based Organizations (CBOs) like Self
Help Groups (SHGs), and other stakeholders. • Inflation indexation will be provided in the form
of Dearness Relief, which is linked to the All India
Components of the Campaign:
Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers
• Structured Ward Sabha/ Mahila Sabha/ Gram (AICPI-IW).
Sabha/ Block Sabha/ District Sabha to be held for
• While employee contributions remain unchanged,
preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plan
the government contribution has been increased
(GPDP), Block Panchayat Development Plan, and
from 14% to 18.5%
District Panchayat Development Plan for FY 2025–
26. Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
• Preparation of Gram Sabha wise calendar and
Q79. The term ‘Black Coat Syndrome’ was recently used
identification of Thematic developmental gaps
by the President to highlight the anxiety experienced
based on the Panchayat Development Index (PDI),
by ordinary citizens in court settings due to delays and
to be presented in the Gram Sabha.
complexities in the justice system.

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• The term metaphorically represents the • GRANT is a Data Control Language (DCL) command,
intimidation and stress individuals feel when not DML. It is used to assign user privileges in the
dealing with legal procedures and courts. database.
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. Hence, option C is the Correct answer.

Q80. The concept of Simultaneous Elections, Q83. The Junk Mail Filters in Microsoft Outlook help
recommended by the High-Level Committee chaired by prevent malware, phishing attacks, and spam by
Shri Ram Nath Kovind, aims to synchronize elections for filtering out suspicious emails before they reach the
the House of the People (Lok Sabha), State Legislative user’s inbox. This feature enhances security by:
Assemblies, and local bodies. • Blocking Web Bugs: Web bugs are hidden tracking
• Historically, simultaneous elections were elements (like invisible images) that notify
conducted in the years 1951-52, 1957, 1962, and spammers when an email is opened. Outlook’s
1967. Junk Mail Filters prevent these from loading,
• In 1971, elections were not held simultaneously protecting user privacy.
due to the early dissolution of assemblies and the • Filtering Spam and Phishing Emails: The filter
Lok Sabha, which disrupted the election cycle. analyses incoming emails and moves suspected
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. spam to the “Junk Email” folder.
• Blocking Images from Unknown Senders: Outlook
Q81. Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory prevents automatic image downloads in emails
(EPROM) is a type of non-volatile memory that can be from unknown senders.
erased and reprogrammed multiple times. However, Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
unlike modern EEPROM, which can be erased
electrically, EPROM requires exposure to ultraviolet Q84. Scareware is a type of cyber threat that misleads
(UV) light to erase its stored data. users into believing their system is infected with
• Masked ROM (MROM) is pre-programmed during malware or security threats, tricking them into
manufacturing and cannot be erased or rewritten. purchasing fake security software or taking unnecessary
• PROM can be programmed once but cannot be actions. It typically appears as:
erased or reprogrammed. o Fake antivirus alerts claiming that the system is at
• EEPROM can be erased and rewritten using an risk.
electrical signal, making it different from EPROM. o Pop-up warnings urging users to download a
• EPROM can be erased using ultraviolet light and “security tool” (which is malware).
then reprogrammed, making it the correct answer. o Fraudulent websites that mimic real security
Hence, option D is the Correct answer. companies to steal payment information.
Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
Q82. In SQL (Structured Query Language), the SELECT
statement is a Data Manipulation Language (DML) Q85. Secondary memory (e.g., hard drives, solid-
command used to retrieve specific records from a state drives (SSDs), and external storage devices) is
relational database based on conditions. It allows significantly slower than primary memory (RAM and
users to query data, filter records using conditions, and cache) due to additional processing steps required
display the required information without modifying before the CPU can access the data.
the stored data. • Unlike primary memory (RAM), which the CPU can
• The UPDATE statement is used to modify existing directly access, secondary memory data must first
records in a table, not retrieve them. be loaded into RAM before the processor can use
• The DELETE statement is used to remove records it.
from a table based on a condition. • Unlike primary memory (RAM), which the CPU can
directly access, secondary memory data must first
• The SELECT statement is used to retrieve records
be loaded into RAM before the processor can use
without altering the data.
it.

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• Primary memory (RAM) uses volatile in the foreign key column must match an existing value
semiconductor technology that allows near-instant in the referenced primary key column
access. • A candidate key is a potential primary key but
• Secondary memory is non-volatile, meaning it does not establish relationships between tables.
retains data when powered off, but this comes at
• A primary key uniquely identifies records within a
the cost of longer read/write access times.
table but does not reference another table.
Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
• A super key is any key that uniquely identifies a
row, but it does not necessarily reference another
Q86. The Session Layer (Layer 5) of the OSI model
table.
is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and
terminating communication sessions between Hence, option C is the Correct answer.
applications running on different devices. It ensures
synchronized data exchange and manages the dialogue Q90. A Host-based Firewall is a firewall that is
control between sender and receiver. installed directly on an individual computer or device
• However, end-to-end data encryption and to monitor, control, and filter network traffic for that
decryption is not a function of the Session Layer— specific system. It acts as a security layer between the
this function belongs to the Presentation Layer computer and the network, blocking or allowing traffic
(Layer 6). based on predefined rules.
Hence, option C is the Correct answer. • A network firewall protects an entire network by
filtering traffic between networks (e.g., corporate
Q87. The Slide Sorter View in Microsoft PowerPoint firewalls protecting an organization).
provides a thumbnail view of all slides in a presentation, • Host-based Firewall is installed on an individual
making it easier to rearrange, delete, duplicate, or device to monitor and control network traffic for
organize slides efficiently. This view is particularly that specific computer.
useful for working with large presentations where slide • A packet filtering firewall inspects individual
order needs to be adjusted. packets but does not necessarily operate at the
Hence, option B is the Correct answer. host level; it is often implemented at the network
level.
Q88. The hexadecimal number 7F3A can be broken • A proxy firewall acts as an intermediary between
down as follows: clients and servers, filtering traffic but not directly
• 7F3A = (7 *16^3) + (15 * 16^2) + (3 *16^1) + (10 monitoring host-level traffic.
*16^0). Now, let’s calculate the value: Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
• (7*16^3) = 7*4096=28672
• (15 *16^2) = 15 * 256 =3840 Q91. The insured does nothing to stop a fire,
thinking the insurer will compensate for the damage.
• (3*16^1) = 3 *16=48
The Principle of Loss Minimization requires the insured
• (10*16^0) = 10*1=10 to act prudently and reduce damage.
• Adding these values together: Neglecting action, as in option C, is a violation and may
• 28672 + 3840 + 48 + 10 = 32570 lead to denial of claim or reduced-compensation.
• So, the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal Hence, option C is correct answer.
number 7F3A is 32570.
• Therefore, the correct answer is B 32570. Q92. Consistency Principle: This principle emphasizes
that once a company adopts a specific accounting
Hence, option B is the Correct answer.
method (for example, a particular method for
depreciating assets or valuing inventory), it should
Q89. A Foreign Key is a type of database key that
continue to apply the same method for all subsequent
establishes a relationship between two tables by
accounting periods. This ensures that the financial
referencing the Primary Key of another table. It
statements are comparable over time, allowing users
ensures referential integrity, meaning that the values
to identify trends and make informed decisions. If a

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change in accounting method is necessary, it should wholly owned subsidiary of a public company.
be disclosed in the financial statements along with its The company is a subsidiary of a public company, which
impact. makes it ineligible for CARO exemption, even though
• Going Concern Principle: This principle assumes revenue, borrowings, and capital + reserves are within
that a business will continue to operate for the limits.
foreseeable future and will be able to realize its • Option A is incorrect as it satisfies all four exemption
assets and discharge its liabilities in the normal conditions for a private company: revenue ≤ ₹10
course of business. This assumption forms the crore, borrowings ≤ ₹1 crore, capital + reserves ≤
basis for many accounting practices, such as ₹1 crore, and not a subsidiary of a public company.
valuing assets at their historical cost rather than • Option C is incorrect as this company is also not a
their liquidation value.   subsidiary, and all financial thresholds are within
• Accrual Principle: This principle dictates that limits—so it is exempt.
revenues and expenses are recognized in the • Option D is incorrect as it is a small company, which
period in which they are earned or incurred, is automatically exempt from CARO requirements.
regardless of when the actual cash inflow or
Hence, option B is correct answer.
outflow takes place. For example, if a service is
provided in March but payment is received in April,
Q95. A supplier who provided goods on
the revenue is recognized in March. Similarly, if an
credit. Creditors supply goods/services on credit and
expense is incurred in May but paid in June, the
are to be paid.
expense is recognized in May.  
• Option A is incorrect as employees are not
• Matching Principle: This principle states that
creditors.
expenses should be recognized in the same
accounting period as the revenues they helped to • Option B is incorrect as Cash customers are not
generate. This ensures that the income statement creditors as no credit is extended.
accurately reflects the profitability of a business • Option C is incorrect as Owner is not a creditor; he
by matching the costs associated with earning is the provider of capital.
revenue against that revenue. For example, the Hence, option D is correct answer.
cost of goods sold is recognized in the same period
as the revenue from the sale of those goods. Q96. Cost Accounting is the branch of accounting
Hence, option C is correct answer. focused on, Calculating the cost of production of
goods or services, Analyzing costs, by elements such
Q93. To examine the accuracy and as material, labor, and overhead, Assisting in pricing
documentation of cash receipts and payments. decisions by providing accurate data on total and per-
Cash audit focuses specifically on verifying the accuracy unit production costs and helping organizations identify
and completeness of cash-related transactions. cost-saving opportunities and improve operational
It ensures all receipts and payments are properly efficiency.
recorded and backed by documentary evidence like • Option B is incorrect as Financial Accounting
vouchers and receipts. focuses on recording, summarizing, and reporting
• Option A is incorrect because tax evasion detection financial transactions of a business.
is a broader function, typically under income tax or • Option C is incorrect as Management Accounting
forensic audit. involves internal reporting to management for
• Option B is incorrect as it relates to inventory and decision-making (budgets, forecasts, etc.).
is part of cost audit or inventory audit, not cash • Option D is incorrect as Tax Accounting is concerned
audit. with tax compliance and preparation of returns as
• Option D is incorrect as it is a general accounting per laws (like Income Tax Act).
task and not specific to the cash audit objective. Hence, option A is correct answer
Hence, option C is correct answer.
Q97. An employee earns the right to 100 shares each
Q94. A private company with revenue of year over three years, becoming fully entitled to 300
₹9 crore, borrowings of ₹95 lakh, and is a shares only after three years.

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Vesting is where the right to exercise options accrues • Option A is incorrect as Depreciation on plant and
gradually over a period. machinery is Non-cash expense added back to net
• Option A is incorrect as it misunderstands vesting profit , Operating Activity (Adjustment).
as a direct financial transaction. • Option B is incorrect as Increase in accounts
• Option B is incorrect as it lacks the time-bound receivable indicates cash not received which is
earning condition that defines vesting. subtracted from net profit hence is categorised as
Operating Activity.
• Option D is incorrect as it contradicts ESOP’s
concessional pricing nature and does not involve • Option D is incorrect as Interest paid on working
vesting logic. capital loan under AS-3 (Indian Accounting
Hence, option C is correct answer. Standard) is treated as an Operating Activity for
non-financial enterprises. Working capital loans
Q98. Quick Assets are those current assets that can be are used for day-to-day operations, like inventory
quickly converted into cash without significant loss of purchase, salaries, etc. Therefore, interest on such
value. Inventory is excluded from Quick Assets because loans is treated as a cost of running the business,
it is not easily converted into cash without a loss of not a financing cost.
value. Hence, option C is correct answer.
• Option A Cash is the most liquid and part of Quick
Assets. Q102. To calculate the Debtors Turnover Ratio, we use
the formula:
• Option B Marketable Securities are considered
liquid and part of Quick Assets. Debtors Turnover Ratio = Net Credit Sales / Average
Accounts Receivable Average Accounts Receivable
• Option D Accounts Receivable are considered
= (Opening Accounts Receivable + Closing Accounts
liquid and part of Quick Assets.
Receivable) / 2
Hence, option C is correct answer.
Net Credit Sales = Rs. 12,00,000
Q99. In a bonus issue of 4:3, for every 3 shares held, 4 Average Accounts Receivable = (80,000 + 1,20,000) / 2
shares are issued. = Rs. 1,00,000
To calculate the additional shares: (6000 × 4) / 3 = 8000 Debtors Turnover Ratio = 12,00,000 / 1,00,000 = 12
shares. Number of shares issued after a bonus issue times
will be 8000 shares. ​Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q103. Bill Amount = Rs. 20,000
[Link] calculate the weighted average cost, we first Discount Rate = 10% per annum
find the total cost of goods purchased and then divide Time Period = 4 months = 4/12 = 1/3 years
it by the total number of units purchased. Since Sunil is the accommodating party, Anil is being
Total cost = (500 × Rs. 10) + (100 × Rs. 20) = Rs. 5000 + accommodated, meaning Anil receives the proceeds of
Rs. 2000 = Rs. 7000. the discounted bill.
Total units = 500 + 100 = 600. Discount = (20,000 × 10%) / 3 = 20,000 × 0.10/ 3 ​= Rs.666.67
Average cost per unit = Rs. 7000 ÷ 600 = Rs. 11.67. Amount received (Net proceeds) = 20,000 − 666.67 =
This average cost is then used to value both Rs.19,333.33
the used inventory and the closing inventory. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is correct answer.
Q104. When a company purchases net assets (assets
Q101. Under the indirect method, operating cash flows minus liabilities) worth ₹1,50,000 and issues shares
start with net profit and adjust for non-cash items and worth only ₹1,25,000, it means the company has
changes in working capital. Cash received from sale of acquired assets at a bargain price.
machinery is a cash inflow from Investing Activities, Purchase consideration (what is paid) = ₹1,25,000
not operating. Machinery is a non-current asset; thus, Net assets received = ₹1,50,000
its sale belongs under Investing Activities.
Difference = ₹25,000

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This gain to the company is not a trading profit and • The program scope was expanded to include
cannot be transferred to Statement of Profit & Loss. ground-mounted installations, increasing access
It is a capital profit and is therefore credited to the for rural institutions.
Capital Reserve Account. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Option A is incorrect because the gain is capital in
nature, not operational or revenue-based. Q107. Statement 1 is correct - Jannik Sinner claimed
• Option B is incorrect as Goodwill would be used if his maiden Wimbledon 2025 title after defending
payment was more than the value of net assets, Carlos Alcaraz in the final to become the first Italian
not less. man to win Wimbledon in the competition’s 148-year
history.
• Option D is incorrect as this relates to revaluation
• Statement 2 is correct: Iga Swiatek has demolished
reserve, which is not the case here.
Amanda Anisimova 6-0, 6-0 in the most one-sided
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
women’s Wimbledon final.
Q105. Procedures and Instructions refer to the o It is the first time a woman has won a final at
processes and protocols followed for collecting, Wimbledon without dropping a game since
recording, processing, and storing data within an AIS. 1911.
These ensure the smooth flow of financial information. o She becomes the first Polish player to win a
• Option A is incorrect as it refers to the output or singles title at Wimbledon
final function of AIS, not the procedural layer. Hence, option C is correct answer.
• Option B is incorrect as it relates to Information
Q108. About the Portal:
Technology Infrastructure, not procedures.
o Launched in 2020 to ensure transparent and
• Option D is incorrect as pertains to Internal Controls efficient handling of labour disputes.
and Security Measures, not data processing
o Managed by Regional Offices of the Central
procedures.
Industrial Relations Machinery (CIRM).
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
o Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Labour &
Employment.
Q106. The Solar Rooftop Investment Program (SRIP)
is a $500 million multi-tranche financing facility (MFF) • Acts/Issues Covered under SAMADHAN:
backed by the Asian Development Bank (ADB). o Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 → Handles
• It aims to promote residential and institutional termination and industrial disputes.
rooftop solar installations in India. o Payment of Wages Act, 1936 → Claims related
to timely wage payment.
• The MFF distribution is as follows:
o Minimum Wages Act, 1948 → Ensures
o Tranche-1: $9.5 million → Punjab National compliance with notified minimum wages.
Bank (PNB)
o Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 → Settlement
o Tranche-2: $90.5 million → State Bank of India of gratuity-related disputes.
(SBI)
o Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 → Safeguards
o Tranches-3 & 4: $150 million and $250 million maternity rights of women workers.
→ NABARD (totaling $400 million) o Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 → Ensures no
• NABARD has received the largest funding for gender-based wage discrimination.
implementing rooftop and ground-mounted solar Hence, option A is correct answer.
systems in rural and agricultural sectors.
• The availability period of the MFF was extended Q109. Background
from 30 September 2023 to 30 September 2026 o The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 was
(making it a 10-year facility). notified in April 2025.
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy o Provisions will be enforced from 1st August
(MNRE) has been designated as the oversight 2025.
authority.

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o It introduces 19 amendments across 5 o Definition of Fortnight (Cash Reserves)

legislations:  Earlier: From Saturday to the second
 Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 following Friday.
 Banking Regulation Act, 1949  New: 1st–15th and 16th–last day of each
 State Bank of India Act, 1955 month.
 Banking Companies (Acquisition and  Applies to RBI Act and Banking Regulation
Transfer of Undertakings) Acts, 1970 and Act (for non-scheduled banks).
1980  (d) is a correct feature.
• Key Amendments o Common Directors in Co-operative Banks
o Substantial Interest  Exemption extended: Directors of central
 Earlier: More than ₹5 lakh or 10% of paid- co-operative banks can also serve on
up capital (whichever is less). boards of state co-operative banks (if they
 New: Threshold increased to ₹2 crore. are members).
 (a) is a correct feature.  Similar to exemption earlier granted to
RBI-appointed directors.
o Tenure of Co-operative Bank Directors
Hence, option C is correct answer.
 Earlier: Maximum 8 years consecutively.
 New: Increased to 10 years, aligning with Q110. Statement 1 – Correct: IN-SPACe has granted
the 97th Constitutional Amendment. a five-year authorisation to Starlink’s Gen1 low-earth
 (b) is a correct feature. orbit (LEO) satellite constellation.
o Unclaimed Amounts & IEPF • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Starlink is not the only
 Broader scope of funds transferable to company. It is the third company, after Bharti-
Investor Education and Protection Fund backed Eutelsat OneWeb and Reliance Jio-SES
(IEPF). JV, to get full regulatory approval for satellite
communication services in India.
 Now also Includes:
Additional Information About Starlink
 Shares with unclaimed dividends for 7
consecutive years. • Starlink is the name of a satellite network
developed by the private spaceflight company
 Unpaid/unclaimed bond redemption or
SpaceX to provide low-cost internet to remote
interest.
locations.
 Depositors/individuals can still claim from
• A Starlink satellite has a lifespan of approximately
IEPF.
five years and SpaceX eventually hopes to have
o Auditor Remuneration as many as 42,000 satellites in this so-called
 Earlier: Decided by RBI in consultation megaconstellation.
with Central Government. • Starlink satellites orbit approximately 342 miles
 New: Banks themselves will decide the (550 kilometers) above Earth.
remuneration of their auditors. • SpaceX launched its first two Starlink test craft,
 Statement (c) is wrong and hence correct named TinTinA and TinTinB, in 2018.
answer. Hence, option A is correct answer.
o Nominee Facility
 Nominee options per bank account Q111. Statement 1 – Incorrect: India has recently
increased from 1 to 4. concluded the first BIMSTEC Traditional Music Festival
under the theme “SaptaSur: Seven Nations, One
o Regulatory Reporting
Melody”.
 Earlier: Reporting on 2nd and 4th Fridays.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Bangladesh assumed the
 New: Reporting on 15th and last day of chairmanship of the BIMSTEC for the next 2 years
each month. from Thailand.

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About BIMSTEC • MCXCCL, a wholly owned subsidiary of MCX, has

• BIMSTEC - Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi- had its recognition renewed for 3 more years (till
Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation 30 July 2028) by SEBI.
• Launch Year: 1997 What are Clearing Corporations?
• Defined under Securities Contracts (Regulation)
• Secretariat: Dhaka, Bangladesh (Established in
(Stock Exchange and Clearing Corporation)
2014 after 3rd BIMSTEC Summit)
Regulations, 2018, a clearing corporation is an
• Developed by: Bangkok Declaration entity set up to handle clearing and settlement of
• Members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and trades in securities or financial instruments traded
Thailand, later joined by Myanmar, Bhutan, and on a recognized stock exchange.
Nepal • It also includes clearing houses.
• Objective: To promote economic cooperation • Together with stock exchanges and depositories,
among countries bordering the Bay of Bengal, they form Market Infrastructure Institutions
focusing on multiple sectors for comprehensive (MIIs).
regional development • Bimal Jalan Committee (2010): Considered MIIs as
• BIMSTEC Charter was signed and adopted during systemically important institutions that provide
the 5th BIMSTEC Summit (Colombo, Sri Lanka) in the backbone for India’s securities market.
2022 Role of Clearing Corporations
• BIMSTEC pursues regional cooperation in 7 broad • Clearing:
sectors:
o Acts as an intermediary between buyers and
o Agriculture and Food Security sellers.
o Connectivity o Takes the role of both buyer and seller to
o Environment and Climate Change ensure smooth trade execution.
o People to People Contact o Covers all activities from the start of a trade till
before settlement.
o Science, Technology and Innovation
• Settlement:
o Security (includes energy security)
o Happens after clearing.
o Trade, Investment and Development.
o Involves the actual transfer:
Hence, option B is correct answer.
 Securities from the seller.

Q112. As of July 2025, SEBI recognizes the following  Cash from the buyer.
clearing corporations under its regulatory framework: o Ensures final completion of the transaction.

Sr. Name of Clearing Valid Upto Other Clearing Corporations in India

No. Corporation Under RBI:
1 Indian Clearing Corporation October 2, • Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.
Ltd. (ICCL) 2026 Under IFSCA:
2 Multi Commodity Exchange July 30, 2028 • India International Clearing Corporation
Clearing Corporation Ltd. • NSE IFSC Clearing Corporation
(MCXCCL)
Hence, option D is correct answer.
3 National Commodity September 9,
Clearing Ltd. (NCCL) 2025 Q113. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was established
in 2010 under the Cancún Agreements at the UNFCCC
4 NSE Clearing Limited October 2,
COP16 (Mexico). It is the world’s largest dedicated
(formerly NSCCL) 2026
climate fund.
5 AMC Repo Clearing Limited January 16, • Its mandate is to support developing countries by
(ARCL) 2026 financing both mitigation (emission reduction) and

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adaptation (adjusting to climate impacts) projects o Validity: A GI tag is valid for 10 years and must
in a 50:50 ratio. be renewed to remain protected.
• A key provision ensures that at least 50% of  Failure to renew leads to lapse of
adaptation finance goes to the most climate- protection.
vulnerable countries (e.g., Small Island Developing • Important Facts:
States, Least Developed Countries, African states).
o First GI-tagged product in India: Darjeeling
• Headquarters: Songdo, South Korea. Tea (2004).
• The first project approvals came in 2015. o State with the largest number of GI tags: Uttar
Hence, option C is correct answer. Pradesh.
o First globally GI-tagged product: Roquefort
Q114. The prize honoured John J. Hopfield and Cheese (France, 1955).
Geoffrey Hinton “for foundational discoveries and
inventions that enable machine learning with artificial Hence, option B is correct answer.
neural networks” i.e., for theoretical and methodical
advances that made modern neural-network based Q116. The Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) under the
machine learning possible. Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana (AVYAY) is implemented
by the Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of
• They used tools from physics to construct methods India (ALIMCO), focusing on addressing disabilities and
that helped lay the foundation for today’s powerful infirmities of senior citizens, such as low vision, hearing
machine learning. impairment, and locomotor disabilities.
• John Hopfield created a structure that can store Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana
and reconstruct information.
• Launch - National Action Plan for Senior Citizen
• Geoffrey Hinton invented a method that can (NAPSrc) had been revamped, renamed as Atal
independently discover properties in data and Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY) and subsumed in
which has become important for the large artificial April 2021
neural networks now in use.
• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Hence, option C is correct answer.
• Centrally Sponsored Scheme
Q115. Kannadippaya, also known as mirror mat, has • Objective - To improve the quality of life of Senior
become the first tribal handicraft from Kerala to Citizens by providing basic amenities like shelter,
receive a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. food, medical care and entertainment free of cost
• It is made from the soft inner layers of reed • Sub – Schemes:
bamboo. o National Action Plan for Senior Citizens
• The mat is known for its distinctive reflective (NAPSrC)
pattern resembling a mirror.  Integrated Programme for Senior Citizens
• Apart from its artistic value, it also provides natural (IPSrC)
thermal comfort across seasons.  State Action Plan for Senior Citizens
More about Geographical Indications (GI) (SAPSrC)
• A GI is a sign used on products that originate from o Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) –
a specific geographical location.  Implementing Agency - Artificial Limbs
• The product must have qualities, characteristics, or Manufacturing Corporation of India
a reputation essentially linked to that origin. (ALIMCO)
• Legal Framework in India:  To address disability/infirmity of - Low
o Governed by the Geographical Indications Vision, Hearing impairment, Loss of teeth,
of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, Locomotor disability
1999.  Target Beneficiaries – Senior citizens
o Registration provides legal protection against (aged 60 years or above) of BPL category
misuse or imitation. (monthly income not more than ₹15000).

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 30% of the beneficiaries in each district • Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive
shall be women Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of
 Maximum cost of generic devices should Begging - ₹100 Crore
not be exceeding ₹15000 per beneficiary o To make places begging-free and make a
and for special items ₹20000 per strategy for comprehensive rehabilitation of
beneficiary persons engaged in Begging
o Scheme for Awareness Generation and • Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive
Capacity Building for welfare of Senior Citizens Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons
- ₹365 Crore
• Livelihood and Skilling Initiatives for Senior
Citizens: o Scholarships for Transgender Students
studying in Class IX and till post-graduation to
o Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in
enable them to complete their education
Dignity (SACRED)
o Provisions for Skill Development and Livelihood
 IT portal for purpose of bringing
under PM-DAKSH Scheme
employment seeker senior citizens and
employment providers together. o Composite Medical Health, it provides a
comprehensive package in convergence with
o Action Groups Aimed at Social Reconstruction PM-JAY
(AGRASR Groups) - Elderly Self Help groups
o Housing facility in the form of ‘Garima Greh’
• Promoting silver economy:
• Provision of Transgender Protection Cell in each
o to encourage the entrepreneurs for to think state
about the problems of the elderly and come
Hence, option A is correct answer.
out with innovative solutions.
o through an open invitation on a portal namely Q118. Statement 1 is incorrect: The PM-DAKSH Yojana
Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) applicable to SC/OBC/EBC/DNT/Safai Karamcharis
Hence, option B is correct answer. including Waste Pickers and their dependents of Indian
Nationality age between 18-45 years
Q117. Statement 1 is incorrect: Composite Medical • Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme is not
Health, it provides a comprehensive package in applicable to all categories of individuals. It
convergence with PM-JAY under Comprehensive specifically targets SC, OBC, EBC, DNT, Safai
Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons not Karamcharis, including Waste Pickers, and the
Beggars. transgender community, with income limits for
• Statement 2 is correct: The scheme includes a certain categories.
sub-scheme for the comprehensive rehabilitation • Statement 3 is correct: The scheme includes
of persons engaged in begging, with a financial provisions for up-skilling, short-term courses
allocation of ₹100 Crore. focusing on wage/self-employment, and
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme provides entrepreneurial development programmes for the
scholarships for transgender students from target groups.
Class IX through post-graduation, not just at the Pradhan Mantri Dakshata Aur Kushalata Sampanna
undergraduate level. Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana
SMILE: Support for Marginalised Individuals for • Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Livelihood and Enterprise • Objective: To enhance competency level of target
• Launch – 2022 groups and make them employable both in self
• Ministry for Social Justice & Empowerment and wage-employment for their socio-economic
development
• Central Sector Scheme
• Central Sector Scheme
• Total financial outlay - ₹365 Crore (for FY 2021-22
• Target - Skill around 2,71,000 persons over 2021-
to FY 2025-26)
22 to 2025-26
Sub – Schemes – • Financial Outlay - ₹450.25 crore

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• Eligibility: • Concept of Tithi Bhojan will be encouraged

o applicable to SC/OBC/EBC/DNT/Safai extensively
Karamcharis including Waste Pickers and their o Tithi Bhojan is a community participation
dependents of Indian Nationality fulfilling programme in which people provide special
following conditions food to children on special occasions/festivals
 Age between 18-45 years • Promoting development of School Nutrition
 Other Backward Classes (OBCs) having Gardens in schools
Annual Family Income (AFI) below ₹3 Lakh o To give children first hand experience with
 Economically Backward Classes (EBCs) nature and gardening
having AFI below ₹1 Lakh o Harvest of these gardens used in scheme
 No income limit for Scheduled Castes providing additional micro nutrients
(SCs)/De-Notified, Nomadic, and Semi- • Social Audit is made mandatory in all the districts
Nomadic Tribe (DNT)/Safai Karamcharis • Providing supplementary nutrition items in
including Waste Pickers aspirational districts and districts with high
 Transgender (TG) community prevalence of Anemia
• Up-skilling/Recognition of Prior Learning • Cooking competitions encouraged at all levels to
(RPL), Short Term Courses (focus on wage/self- promote ethnic cuisine and innovative menus
employment), Entrepreneurial Development based on locally available ingredients and
Programmes (EDP), Long Term Courses (for Global vegetables
Class Skills) • Vocal for Local for Atmanirbhar Bharat
Hence, option C is correct answer. o Involvement of Farmers Producer
Organizations (FPO) and Women Self Help
Q119. The scheme mandates the involvement of local Groups in implementation will be encouraged
farmers in the procurement and distribution of food
grains. (This is incorrect. While the scheme encourages • Use of locally grown traditional food items for a
involvement of Farmers Producer Organizations fillip to local economic growth
(FPO) and Women Self Help Groups, it does not • Field visits for progress monitoring and inspections
specifically mandate the involvement of local farmers will be facilitated for students of eminent
in procurement and distribution.) Universities / Institutions and also trainee teachers
Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN) of Regional Institutes of Educations (RIE) and
Scheme District Institutes of Education and Training (DIET)
• Launch: 2021 • Centre to ensure Direct Beneficiary Transfer (DBT)
from states to schools
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education
• Nutrition expert to be appointed in each school to
• Aim: Providing one hot cooked meal in Government ensure that health aspects such as BMI, weight and
and Government aided schools from 2021-22 to haemoglobin levels are addressed
2025-26
• States can add extra items on menu with Centre’s
• Type: Centrally Sponsored Scheme approval so long as it falls within the allocated
• Financial Outlay: Rs 130794.90 crore budget
o Central Government: Rs 54061.73 crores Hence, option D is correct answer.
o State Governments & UT administrations: Rs
31733.17 crore Q120. A subscriber who exits the scheme before
10 years will receive their contributions along with
o Central Govt will bear additional Rs 45000
interest earned at the savings bank interest rate. (This
crore on food grains
is correct. The scheme provides for the return of a
Key Features: subscriber’s contributions along with interest at the
• Earlier known as ‘National Scheme for Mid-Day savings bank rate if they exit before 10 years.)
Meal in Schools’ (popularly called Mid-Day Meal Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana (PMKMY)
Scheme)

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• Launch – 2019 holding SMFs, on attaining age of 60 years

• Nodal Ministry – Ministry of Agriculture and • In case subscriber exits Scheme within period of
Farmers’ Welfare less than 10 years from date of joining
• Pension Fund Manager – Life Insurance o Share of contribution by him only will be
Corporation of India (LIC) returned to him with savings bank rate of
• Aim – Meant for old age protection and social interest
security of Small and Marginal Farmers • In case subscriber exits Scheme after 10 years
• Type – Central Sector Scheme from date of joining and before 60 years
• Eligibility: o Then his share of contribution only shall be
returned to him along with accumulated
o Only for Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs) interest thereon
– farmer who owns cultivable land upto 2
hectare  As actually earned by Pension Fund or
interest at savings bank interest rate
o Age of 18 years and above and upto age of 40 thereon, whichever is higher
years
• In case of death of subscriber before vesting date,
o Additional Requirement: Aadhaar card, Savings spouse of subscriber to have option of continuing
Bank Account / PM- KISAN Account
scheme by payment of remaining contributions
• Exclusions:
o Same pension would be payable to spouse
o SMFs covered under any other statutory social o Provided she/he is not already SMF beneficiary
security schemes
of Scheme
o All Institutional Land holders, Former and o Upon death of spouse after vesting date,
present holders of constitutional posts
pension corpus transferred back to Pension
o Former and present Ministers, Members of Fund
Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha/ State Legislative
• In case of death of subscriber before vesting date
Assemblies etc
if spouse does not exercise option of continuing
o All serving or retired officers; Income Tax o Subscribers’ contributions along with interest
payee; Professionals like Doctors, Engineers,
earned would be payable to spouse
Lawyers etc
• In case of death of subscriber before vesting date,
Key Features
if there is no spouse
• Voluntary and periodic contribution-based pension
o Subscribers’ contributions along with interest
system
earned payable to nominee/s
o Contribution between ₹55 to ₹200 per month o Contributions made by Government along with
till vesting date (age of 60 years)- depending
fund interest earned - credited back to Pension
upon age of entry
fund of Government
o Central Government also contributes equal • If a subscriber dies after date of vesting
amount as contributed by eligible subscriber
to pension Fund o Spouse entitled to receive 50% of pension
received by such eligible subscriber as Family
o State / UT Governments have option of sharing Pension (applicable only to spouse)
individual SMF beneficiary’s contribution
 Provided she/he is not already SMF
o Co-contributions would not be paid to beneficiary of Scheme
subscribers in case of pre-mature exits
• After death of subscriber as well as of his/her
o Option to pay contributions on quarterly, spouse – Total accumulated contributions made
4-monthly or half-yearly basis
by subscriber and Government credited back to
• Option to allow payment of voluntary contribution fund
to Scheme from benefits received from PM-KISAN
Hence, option A is correct answer.
Scheme, directly
• Assured monthly pension of ₹3000/- to all land

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Directions (Q1-Q5): Given below are five items, Directions (Q6-Q10): Each of the five items given
comprising sentences in which one word has below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one
been underlined. Choose the response A, B, from among the options A, B, C and D that best
C and D which is closest to the meaning of the describes the phrase and mark your response in
underlined word and mark your response in the the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Answer Sheet accordingly. Q6. After his mistake, he came in sackcloth and
Q1. He was forgiven for his peccadillo, a small lie ashes, sincerely apologizing to everyone for
he told out of fear, though it slightly affected his thoughtless actions and regret.
their trust. A. Showing deep remorse
A. Cataclysm B. Expressing anger
B. Infraction C. Celebrating his actions
C. Revelation D. Acting arrogantly
D. Benediction Q7. When they offered only one seat left on the
Q2. It’s presumptuous to assume someone’s plane, it was a Hobson’s choice—either take
feelings without asking, as people often hide it or wait.
emotions beneath smiles or polite behavior A. A choice with no real alternative
during conversation. B. A choice between two good options
A. Eloquent C. A random selection made by others
B. Copacetic D. A difficult decision with many options
C. Audacious Q8. Her fear of public speaking was her Achilles’
D. Didactic heel, preventing her from advancing in her
Q3. For some believers, speaking against sacred career despite many other strengths.
traditions is considered an anathema, A. A small and insignificant flaw
leading to exclusion or criticism from the B. A hidden strength
entire community. C. A skill she could easily master
A. Euphoria D. A major weakness
B. Panorama Q9. The manager hauled him over the coals for
C. Algorithm missing the deadline, criticizing his lack of
D. Abomination responsibility and poor time management.
Q4. I was completely flabbergasted when my shy A. Praised his efforts
friend suddenly sang on stage, leaving the B. Gave him a second chance
audience stunned and wildly applauding her C. Reprimanded him severely
bravery. D. Ignored the issue
A. Meticulous Q10. During the debate, the politician tried to play
B. Astonished to the gallery, making dramatic statements
C. Ambivalent to win the crowd’s favor.
D. Ubiquitous A. Appeal to a select group
Q5. The movie’s ending was poignant, touching B. Entertain the audience
hearts deeply and bringing tears to the eyes C. Manipulate public opinion
of even the most stoic viewers. D. Ignore the audience
A. Heartrending
Directions(Q11-Q15): Each of the following
B. Obstinate
five items in this section consists of a sentence,
C. Nebulous
parts of which have been jumbled. These parts
D. Fastidious
are labelled as a, b, c and d. Given below each
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sentence are four sequences, namely A, B, C and Q15.

D. You are required to rearrange the jumbled a. is widely used for cooling,
parts to form the most appropriate sentence b. the solid form of carbon dioxide,
and mark your response in the Answer Sheet c. dry ice,
accordingly. d. fog effects, and preserving perishable
Q11. items
a. misleading consumers and A. abdc
b. undermining genuine sustainability B. cbad
efforts. C. dcab
c. falsely claim to be environmentally D. bdac
friendly,
d. greenwashing occurs when companies Directions(Q16-Q20): Read the following passage
A. acbd carefully and answer the five questions that
B. abdc follow by selecting your answers based solely on
C. adbc the content of the passage and the opinion of the
D. dcab author only.
In January 2016, rapper BoB sparked a Twitter
Q12.
debate by claiming that the Earth is flat. He
a. focused on conserving wetlands and dismissed the criticisms, stating that the evidence
b. promoting their sustainable use is undeniable and challenging others to grow up.
c. the Ramsar Convention is an international Astrophysicist Neil deGrasse Tyson joined the
treaty conversation, humorously correcting BoB’s claims,
d. for environmental benefits remarking that being “five centuries regressed in
A. cabd reasoning” didn’t diminish his musical talents.
B. adbc However, the flat-Earth theory has not always been
C. acbd dismissed. In ancient Greece, philosophers like
D. dabc Pythagoras and Aristotle had already concluded
Q13. that the Earth was spherical, citing evidence such
a. for development as the curved shadow cast during lunar eclipses.
b. in public sector enterprises The flat Earth theory was largely abandoned but
c. to improve efficiency and generate funds has resurfaced recently due to the rise of internet
d. disinvestment involves the sale of platforms and individuals like Mark Sargent, who
government - owned shares has garnered millions of views with his “Flat Earth
A. dacb Clues” videos.
B. acbd Certain old ideas have been successfully
C. abdc reimagined or upgraded in the modern era, while
D. dbca others, like flat-Earthism, are simply incorrect
Q14. and should have been forgotten. These “zombie
ideas” persist even when they’ve been thoroughly
a. offering energy-efficient displays
debunked, posing a challenge to how we think
b. mimics paper appearance,
about the “marketplace of ideas.” The marketplace
c. electronic ink technology, used in
of ideas originally referred to the concept of free
e-readers,
speech, where ideas could be freely exchanged
d. that are easy on the eyes
and tested, with truth prevailing over error. While
A. cbad
competition of ideas does foster intellectual
B. abdc
growth, the belief that the best ideas will always
C. acbd
rise to the top is flawed, much like the idea that
D. adbc

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unregulated markets lead to the best economic C. Ideas that resurface despite being
outcomes. scientifically disproven.
Zombie ideas don’t exist in physical marketplaces, D. Scientific theories that are abandoned for
as outdated technologies like Betamax video being outdated.
players are no longer in use. Yet, ideas like flat- Q19. What does the “marketplace of ideas”
Earthism continue to thrive, despite being concept imply?
disproven. Economics offers some insight into A. It guarantees that the best ideas will
this phenomenon. In his book Zombie Economics, always succeed.
Australian economist John Quiggin explored how B. Ideas should be freely shared and tested
some failed economic theories, like the efficient for truth.
markets hypothesis, continue to persist despite C. It suggests that all ideas, even false ones,
being proven wrong. These theories benefit are equally valid.
influential groups, such as bankers, and hence D. It encourages the dominance of popular
continue to circulate. Similarly, the “marketplace ideas over truth.
of ideas” often perpetuates authority through
Q20. Why do disproven theories like flat-Earthism
repetition, even in science, as seen with the
still exist today?
widely circulated but false idea of a “tongue map”
A. They are promoted by influential groups
illustrating how we taste different flavors on
seeking profit.
different parts of the tongue.
B. They are commonly accepted by most
Q16. What sparked the 2016 Twitter debate people worldwide.
involving BoB? C. They are reinforced by government and
A. He challenged Neil deGrasse Tyson on the educational institutions.
shape of the Earth. D. They are repeated and spread widely on
B. He claimed the Earth was flat and dismissed the internet.
counterarguments. Q21. Following questions contain two statements
C. He released a controversial album about as statement I and statement II. You have
ancient Greece. to determine which statement/s is/are
D. He denied the existence of gravity in his necessary to answer the question and give
tweets. answer as,
Q17. Which evidence did ancient Greek A boat takes 8 hours to travel from point
philosophers use to support a spherical A to B in still water. 62.5% of the distance
Earth? between points A to B is 330 km and then
A. The curved shadow of the Earth during find the downstream speed of the boat.
lunar eclipses. Statement I: If the time taken by boat covers
B. The observation of varying star positions 540 km downstream is equal to the time
in different regions. taken by boat covers 252 km upstream.
C. The round shape of the horizon from Statement II: The downstream speed of
mountain tops. the boat is 48 km/hr more than that of the
D. The appearance of ships sailing away over upstream speed of the boat.
the horizon. A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
Q18. What is meant by the term “zombie ideas” to answer the question, while the data
in the passage? in statement II alone is not sufficient to
A. New ideas that gain widespread attention answer the question
through influencers. B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
B. Beliefs that people are unaware of due to to answer the question, while the data
lack of information. in statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question
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C. The data either in statement I alone or in A. 7

statement II alone is sufficient to answer B. 12
the question C. 14
D. The data given in both statements I and II D. 15
together are not sufficient to answer the Q25. The least multiple of 7, which leaves a
question remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and
Q22. A cylindrical cistern in an Anandham society 18 is:
in which water is stored. What is the height A. 174
of the cistern? B. 294
Statement I: The time taken to fill the C. 184
cistern through a pipe at a rate of 112 m2 of D. 364
water per minute is 22 minutes. The cost of Q26. How many numbers are there in between
the design of the curved surface area of the 100 and 1000 such that exactly one of them
cistern at Rs. 4 per m2 is Rs. 2816. digits are 3 if repetition is not allowed?
Statement II: The curved surface area of the A. 100
cistern is 704 m and the time taken by a
2
B. 200
pipe to empty the cistern is 28 minutes. C. 300
A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient D. 525
to answer the question, while the data Q27. The least number, which when divided
in statement II alone is not sufficient to by 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, leaves in each case, a
answer the question. remainder 1, but when divided by 7 leaves
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient no remainder. The number is
to answer the question, while the data A. 181
in statement I alone is not sufficient to B. 301
answer the question. C. 121
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in D. 241
statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the question. Q28. What is the cost price of the article?
D. If the data in both statements I and II Statement I: Difference between cost price
together are necessary to answer the and selling price is Rs. 20. The Marked up
question. percentage is 40%. The ratio of marked price
Q23. A volleyball team of 6 players is to be selected and selling price is 7:6.
from a group of 8 male and 7 female players. Statement II: Ratio of cost price and selling
In how many ways is the team selected such price 5:6. Discount percentage is 14.28%
that at most two female players are there in and profit is Rs. 20.
the team. A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
A. 1470 to answer the question, while the data
B. 1598 in statement II alone is not sufficient to
C. 1762 answer the question
D. 1890 B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
Q24. What will be the number of zeroes at the to answer the question, while the data
end of the following product? in statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question
i×n×v×i×s×o×s×a×i C. The data either in statement I alone or in
(Where, a = 11, i = 93, n = 145, o = 157, s = 1911, statement II alone is sufficient to answer
v = 229) the question

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D. The data given in both statements I and II A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
together are not sufficient to answer the to answer the question, while the data in
Question statements II and III are not sufficient to
Q29. The number of zeros at the end of the answer the question.
expression (5!)5! + (10!)10! + (15!)15! + B. The data in statements II and III are
(20!)20! is: [for any natural number n, n! = sufficient to answer the question, while
[Link] ... ... ... (n –1). n] the data in statement I is not sufficient to
answer the question.
A. 50
C. The data in statements I and II or
B. 100
statements II and III are sufficient to
C. 120
answer the question.
D. None of these
D. The data in all the statements I, II and III
Q30. If four pipes A, B, C and D together can fill/ are not sufficient to answer the question.
empty the tank in two hours, then in how
Q32. What is the speed of the stream?
many hours will pipe A and B fill the tank if
pipes C and D are used to empty the tank? Statement I: The speed of the boat along
with stream is double the speed of the boat
Statement I: Efficiency of Pipe A is 20% more
against stream and the speed of boat in still
than the efficiency of Pipe B. Pipe A alone
water is 36 kmph.
can fill or empty the tank in 5 hours.
Statement II: Difference between the speed
Statement II: Efficiency of pipes C and D are
of downstream and upstream is 20 kmph.
15% less than the efficiency of pipes A and B
respectively. A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
to answer the question, while the data
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
in statement II alone is not sufficient to
to answer the question, while the data
answer the question
in statement II alone is not sufficient to
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
answer the question.
to answer the question, while the data
B. The data in statements II alone is sufficient
in statement I alone is not sufficient to
to answer the question, while the data
answer the question
in statement I alone is not sufficient to
C. The data either in statement I alone or in
answer the question.
statement II alone is sufficient to answer
C. The data in either statement I alone or in
the question
statement II alone is sufficient to answer
D. The data given in both statements I and II
the question.
together are not sufficient to answer the
D. The data in both statements I and II are
Question
not sufficient to answer the question
Q31. What is the ratio of the volume of the Cuboid Direction: Consider the following relationships
to the volume of the Sphere? among members of a family of six persons X, Y, Z,
(I) The difference between the height and W, P, and Q:
the length of the cuboid is 16cm. The a) The number of males equals that of females.
length of the cuboid is three times the b) X and Z are sons of Q.
breadth of the cuboid and five times the
c) W is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
height of the cuboid.
(II) The total surface area of the sphere is d) Y is the son of X.
616. e) There is only one married couple in the family
(III) The total surface area of the cuboid is at present.
846 and the ratio of the length, breadth Q33. Which one of the following inferences can
and height of the cuboid is 5:4:3. be drawn from the above?
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A. X, Y, and Z are all females. Conference (ILC) meets as and when

B. X is the husband of W. necessary.
C. Z and Q are children of W. 3. Both these tripartite bodies consist
D. W is the daughter of Q. of representatives from the Central
Government, State and UT Governments,
Direction: Consider the following: and workers’ and employers’
Lisa, Mark, Sarah, Jake, Ryan, Emma, David, and organizations, nominated by the Central
Kate are standing in a row facing North. Government.
Mark is not a neighbour of Emma. Select the correct answer using the code
Kate is to the immediate right of Emma and given below:
neighbour of Ryan. A. 1 and 2 only
Emma is not at the extreme end. B. 1 and 3 only
Lisa is sixth to the left of Ryan. C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Jake is sixth to the right of Sarah.
Q37. According to Keynes Purchasing Power
Q34. Which one of the following is correct in Parity Theory, what is the relationship
respect to the above? between wage rate and aggregate demand?
A. Sarah is to the immediate left of Lisa. A. A high wage rate leads to lower purchasing
B. David is the immediate neighbour of Mark power and decreased aggregate demand.
and Kate. B. A low wage rate leads to higher purchasing
C. Emma is to the immediate right of David. power and increased aggregate demand.
D. Lisa and Ryan are at the extreme ends. C. A high wage rate increases purchasing
Q35. Match the following articles of the Universal power, which in turn increases aggregate
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) with demand.
their respective rights: D. A low wage rate increases purchasing
power and employment.
Column A
Column B (Rights)
(Articles) Q38. According to the Placating Theory, what
1. Right to work and equal is the key to attaining peaceful industrial
A. Article 22 relations?
pay
A. Undertaking welfare measures to appease
B. Article 23 2. Right to rest and leisure
workers and maintain peaceful relations.
C. Article 24 3. Right to social security B. Reducing workers’ wages and increasing
D. Article 25 4. Right to standard of living working hours to meet demands.
C. Ignoring workers’ demands and focusing
A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
solely on business growth.
B. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
D. Adopting a militant attitude towards
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
workers to suppress their demands.
D. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Q39. Which of the following is an incorrect
Q36. Consider the following statements regarding
statement regarding the Mines Act, 1952?
the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) and the
Standing Labour Committee (SLC): A. The Mines Act, 1952 applies to any mine
or part thereof where excavation is done
1. The Indian Labour Conference (ILC) and
for prospecting purposes.
the Standing Labour Committee (SLC)
B. The Central Government can appoint a
were established in 1942 to shape India’s
Chief Inspector of Mines and subordinate
industrial relations framework.
Inspectors of Mines, provided they meet
2. The Standing Labour Committee (SLC)
the prescribed qualifications.
meets annually, while the Indian Labour

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C. The owner, agent, or manager of a mine Q42. Which of the following is the correct
must notify the Chief Inspector, the statement regarding the Technical Advisory
Controller, and the district magistrate Committee under The Child and Adolescent
before commencing any mining operations. Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
D. A first-aid room must be provided in mines 1986?
with more than 150 employees, with A. The Technical Advisory Committee consists
prescribed medical and nursing staff. of a Chairman and 20 members, appointed
Q40. Which of the following statements regarding by the Central Government.
the Building and Other Construction Workers B. The Committee is responsible for advising
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions the Central Government on the addition
of Service) Act, 1996 is/are correct? of occupations and processes to the
1. The employer is required to constitute Schedule.
a Safety Committee in establishments C. The Committee meets only once a year
where 500 or more building workers are and does not have the power to regulate
employed. its own procedure.
2. The composition of the Safety Committee D. The Committee is not allowed to constitute
must ensure that the number of workers’ sub-committees or appoint non-members
representatives is greater than or equal to for particular matters.
the number of employer representatives. Q43. According to the Industrial Disputes Act,
3. In establishments with 500 or more 1947, the provisions relating to lay-off,
building workers, the employer is retrenchment, and closure apply to an
required to appoint a Safety Officer. industrial establishment in which not less
Select the correct answer using the code than _________ workmen were employed
given below: on an average per working day for the
preceding 12 months.
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 A. 100 workmen
C. 1 and 3 only B. 200 workmen
D. Only 3 C. 300 workmen
D. 400 workmen
Q41. Which of the following is the correct
statement regarding the Inter-State Migrant Q44. According to the Payment of Bonus Act,
Workmen (Regulation of Employment and 1965, an employee is eligible for a bonus if
Conditions of Service) Act, 1979? he has worked in the establishment for not
less than _________ working days in that
A. The Act applies to establishments where
accounting year.
10 or more inter-State migrant workmen
are employed or have been employed in A. 20 days
the last 12 months. B. 25 days
B. The contractor must pay a displacement C. 30 days
allowance equal to 25% of the monthly D. 45 days
wages or ₹75, whichever is higher. Q45. Which of the following is the correct
C. No principal employer can employ inter- statement regarding safety measures in
State migrant workmen without a valid factories as per the Factories Act, 1948?
certificate of registration issued for the A. Factories with over 500 workers must
establishment. provide cooling means for drinking water
D. The Act includes any person who, being during hot weather.
employed in a supervisory capacity, draws B. In factories with over 250 workers, sanitary
wages exceeding ₹1,000 per month. latrine and urinal accommodations are not
required.
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C. Factories with at least 1000 workers must Q49. According to Newton’s Laws of Motion,
appoint safety officers. which law states that the rate of change
D. Factories must have first-aid boxes of momentum of an object is proportional
available during working hours, but only to the applied force in the direction of the
for factories with more than 500 workers. force?
Q46. Which of the following statements regarding A. First Law
the Trade Unions Act, 1926 is/are correct? B. Second Law
1. Any individual aged 15 or more can be C. Third Law
a member of a registered Trade Union D. None of the above
unless the union’s rules specify otherwise. Q50. Which of the following is NOT an application
2. A member of a Trade Union under the age of ultrasound?
of 18 can execute all instruments and give A. Tumour and cavity detection of teeth
acquittances required under the union’s B. Milk purification
rules. C. Measuring the distance of stars
3. To be eligible for office in a registered D. Detecting cracks and flaws in metal blocks
Trade Union, the individual must be at
Q51. The sound of the heartbeat heard through
least 18 years old.
a stethoscope is due to the multiple
4. A person convicted of an offence involving
reflections of sound. This is an example of
moral turpitude and sentenced to
which phenomenon?
imprisonment is eligible to hold office in
a Trade Union after five years of release. A. Interference
B. Refraction
Select the correct answer using the code C. Doppler Effect
given below: D. Reverberation
A. 1, 3, and 4 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only Q52. Match the following alloys with their
C. 2, 3, and 4 only respective components:
D. 1, 3, and 2 only Alloy Components
Q47. Which of the following acts has a provision for 1. Brass A. Copper and Tin
the payment of subsistence allowance when 2. Bronze B. Copper and Zinc
a workman is suspended by the employer
pending investigation of misconduct? 3. Solder C. Lead and Tin
A. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) 4. Amalgam D. Mercury and Other Metal
Act, 1946 Select the correct answer using the code
B. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 given below:
C. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
D. The Trade Unions Act, 1926
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
Q48. According to the Industrial Disputes Act, C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
1947, how many members constitute the D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
Labour Court?
Q53. Which of the following phenomena is
A. 5 members, including a chairman
observed when light is scattered by particles
B. 3 members, appointed by the appropriate
in a colloid or fine suspension, such as when
Government
sunlight passes through a dense forest or
C. 2 members, one from employer and one
when light enters a room through a small
from employee
hole?
D. 1 person, appointed by the appropriate
A. Interference
Government
B. Refraction

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C. Doppler Effect Select the correct answer using the code

D. Tyndall Effect given below
Q54. Match the following hormones with their A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
functions: B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
C. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Hormone Function
D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
1. Adrenaline A. Regulates
Q57. This organ is the largest gland in the human
carbohydrate, fat, and
protein metabolism body. It converts excess amino acids into
2. Thyroxine B. Regulates growth and ammonia by deamination, which is further
development of the converted into urea and released from the
body body. It also helps in regulating the quantity
3. Growth Hormone C. Responsible for of glucose in the blood, reserves iron,
(Somatotropin) pubertal changes in copper, and vitamins, and is important in
males investigating a person’s death due to poison
4. Testosterone D. Secreted during
in food.
emergency situations, Which organ is being referred to?
increases heart rate A. Kidney
and oxygen supply B. Heart
C. Liver
Select the correct answer using the code
D. Lungs
given below
A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B Q58. Which of the following statements regarding
B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C the Individual Satyagraha is incorrect?
C. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A A. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first to offer
D. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D Satyagraha and was arrested before he
could start his campaign.
Q55. Which blood group is called the universal
B. Individual Satyagraha was a symbolic and
receptor because it does not contain any
non-violent movement led by Mahatma
antibodies?
Gandhi.
A. AB C. The movement was partly a response
B. O to ordinances that restricted freedoms,
C. A including the freedom of expression and
D. B the press.
Q56. Match the muscle with its respective D. The satyagrahis opposed the war and
description: demanded the right to free speech to
Column A Column B express their anti-war sentiments.
A. Longest 1. Sartorius muscle - Plays a role Q59. Who is popularly known as the ‘Grand Old
Muscle in flexing the knee and hip Lady’ of the Independence Movement for
hoisting the Indian flag at Gowalia Tank
B. Smallest 2. Stapedius muscle - Stabilizes
Muscle the smallest bone in the body, Maidan in Mumbai during the Quit India
the stapes Movement?
A. Sarojini Naidu
C. Largest 3. Gluteus maximus muscle
B. Sucheta Kripalani
Muscle Stabilizes the hip joint and
plays a big role in moving the C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
thighs D. Aruna Asaf Ali
D. Strongest 4. Masseter muscle - Responsible
Muscle for chewing and jaw movement

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Q60. As per historical records, Netaji Subhash D. He opposed idol worship, child marriage,
Chandra Bose played a crucial role in India’s and the caste system based on birth.
independence movement. Which of the Q63. Which of the following statements regarding
following statements about his contributions Kumbh Mela is/are correct?
is incorrect?
1. Kumbh Mela is held at four locations in
A. Bose inaugurated the All-India National India: Prayagraj, Haridwar, Nashik, and
Planning Committee in Calcutta on 17th Ujjain.
December 1928. 2. Kumbh Mela is held at any of these four
B. In 1930, Bose participated in the Civil locations every 6 years.
Disobedience Movement but opposed the 3. In Nashik and Ujjain, Kumbh Mela is
Gandhi-Irwin Pact due to its failure to save referred to as Simhastha.
Bhagat Singh and other revolutionaries.
C. In 1939, Bose was re-elected as the Select the correct answer using the code
president of INC despite Gandhiji’s given below:
opposition, but he later resigned due to A. 1 and 2 only
pressure from CWC members. B. 1 and 3 only
D. In 1941, Bose escaped house arrest C. 2 and 3 only
disguised as a Pathan named Ziauddin and D. 1, 2, and 3
fled to Peshawar before heading towards Q64. Which of the following statements regarding
Kabul. the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram
Q61. Match the following historical events with is/are correct?
their respective years: 1. The Group of Monuments at
Column A (Event) Column B (Year) Mahabalipuram was built by the Pallava
kings in the 7th and 8th centuries.
1. Cabinet Mission Plan A. 1945 2. The site includes a Shiva temple on the
2. Wavell Plan B. 1946 seashore along with a series of sculptured
3. Cripps Mission C. 1940
cave temples.
3. The Five Rathas (Pancha Pandava Rathas)
4. Individual Satyagraha D. 1942 represent the five elements of nature,
Select the correct answer using the code which is why Mahabalipuram is also
given below: called the “City of Elements.”
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D Select the correct answer using the code
B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C given below:
C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C A. 1 and 2 only
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B B. 2 and 3 only
Q62. As per historical records, Swami Dayanand C. 1 and 3 only
Saraswati was a significant scholar and D. 1, 2, and 3
social reformer. Which of the following Q65. This classical Indian dance-drama is
statements about him is incorrect? traditionally performed by males, even for
A. Swami Dayanand Saraswati was born in female roles. It is known for its elaborate
Kathiawar, Gujarat, and his original name facial expressions, dramatic storytelling, and
was Mulshankar. expressive eye and eyebrow movements.
B. He started the Shuddhi movement to bring The dance form features nine distinct facial
back Hindus who had converted to other expressions, known as ‘Navarasas,’ and is
religions. accompanied by intricate hand gestures.
C. His book Satyartha Prakash was written in Identify this dance form.
Sanskrit. A. Bharatanatyam
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B. Kuchipudi education to children aged 6 to 14 years

C. Mohiniyattam in a manner determined by law.
D. Kathakali 3. The Right of Children to Free and
Q66. The Vijayanagar School of Temple Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009
Architecture was a unique blend of various was enacted by the Parliament to
regional architectural styles. Which of the implement Article 21A.
following statements about this architectural Select the correct answer using the code
tradition is incorrect? given below:
A. The rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire A. 1 and 2 only
incorporated elements from Chola, B. 1 and 3 only
Hoysala, Pandya, and Chalukya C. 2 and 3 only
architectural styles. D. 1, 2, and 3
B. The temple complex during this period
Q69. Which of the following is not included under
was enclosed by boundaries, and secular
Article 39 of the Directive Principles of State
buildings like Lotus Mahal were introduced
Policy (DPSP)?
inside the premises.
C. Gopurams, which were previously present A. Right to adequate means of livelihood for
only on the front side of temples, were all citizens
now constructed on all sides. B. Equal pay for equal work for men and
D. The central mandap in Vijayanagar temples women
was commonly known as Garbhagriha. C. Protection of monuments and places of
historical interest
Q67. Which of the following statements regarding D. Prevention of concentration of wealth
the Panchayatan style of temple architecture and means of production in the economic
is/are correct? system
1. In the Panchayatan style, the main temple
Q70. Match the following committees with the
is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.
year in which they were constituted:
2. The main temple is always circular in
shape, with an extended mandap making Column A Column B
it elliptical. (Committee Name) (Year)
3. The Dashavatar temple at Deogarh and 1. Balwant Rai Mehta
A. 1985
the Durga temple at Aihole are examples Committee
of this architectural style. 2. Ashok Mehta Committee B. 1988
Select the correct answer using the code
3. G V K Rao Committee C. 1957
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only 4. Thungon Committee D. 1977
B. 1 and 3 only 5. L M Singhvi Committee E. 1986
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Q68. Which of the following statements regarding A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution is/are B. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D, 5-E
correct? C. 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-A, 5-C
1. Article 21A was added by the 86th D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-E, 4-B, 5-A
Constitutional Amendment Act of
2002, making elementary education a Q71. Which of the following statements regarding
Fundamental Right. the District Planning Committee (DPC) under
2. Under this Article, the State is responsible the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act is/
for providing free and compulsory are correct?

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1. The District Planning Committee is legislature of the affected state for their
responsible for consolidating the consent before introducing the Bill in
development plans prepared by Parliament.
panchayats and municipalities within the 4. Parliament can create a new state through
district. ordinary legislation, which requires only
2. The Act mandates that at least two-thirds a simple majority.
of the members of a District Planning Select the correct answer using the code
Committee should be elected by the given below:
elected members of the district panchayat
A. Only 1 and 2
and municipalities.
B. Only 1,2 and 4
3. The representation of members in the
C. Only 1,2 and 3
committee should be in proportion to
D. All of the above
the ratio between the rural and urban
populations in the district. Q74. Which of the following statements is
incorrect about the State Reorganization
Select the correct answer using the code
Commissions/Committees?
given below:
A. The S.K. Dhar Commission, 1948,
A. 1 and 2 only
recommended re-organization based on
B. 1 and 3 only
administrative convenience rather than
C. 2 and 3 only
linguistic factors.
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. The JVP Committee, 1948, rejected
Q72. Which of the following statements about language as the basis for state
coalition governments in India is incorrect? reorganization.
A. The first coalition government at the C. The Fazal Ali Commission, 1953, identified
Union level in India was formed in 1977 six factors for state reorganization, including
under the Janta Government. linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
B. Coalition governments in India can form D. The Fazal Ali Commission recommended
through both pre-election and post- the formation of 14 states and 6 Union
election alliances. Territories.
C. The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) Q75. Which of the following combinations
was the first coalition government to of statements is correct based on the
complete a 5-year term from 1999 to characteristics of the First-Past-The-Post
2004. and Proportional Representation systems?
D. None of the above
1. In the First-Past-The-Post system, a
Q73. Which of the following statements about the country is divided into small geographical
procedure for the formation of new states units called constituencies.
in India, as per Article 3 of Constitution of 2. The voter votes for a party in the First-
India is/are correct? Past-The-Post system.
1. Parliament can form a new state by 3. In Proportional Representation, the party
separating territory from any state, secures seats based on the percentage of
uniting two or more states, or altering the votes it receives.
boundaries or names of existing states. Select the correct answer using the code
2. A Bill related to the formation of a new given below:
state can be introduced in either House
A. 1 and 2
of Parliament only with the President’s
B. 1 Only
recommendation.
C. 1 and 3 Only
3. The President must refer the Bill to the
D. All of the above

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Q76. Match the following new criminal laws with Q79. Which of the following best describes a
their corresponding details: “population pyramid”?
A. Graph showing land-use pattern
New Act Replacing Act
B. Graph showing age and gender distribution
A. Bharatiya Nyaya 1. Indian Penal Code, C. Graph showing birth and death rates
Sanhita 2023 1860 D. Graph showing urban and rural population
B. Bharatiya Nagarik
Suraksha Sanhita
2. Criminal Procedure Q80. Consider the following statements regarding
Code, 1973 the impact of globalisation on different
2023
sectors of the Indian economy:
C. Bharatiya Sakshya 3. Indian Evidence
Adhiniyam 2023 Act, 1872 1. The services sector, especially IT and
ITeS, witnessed exponential growth due
Select the correct answer using the code to increased outsourcing and foreign
given below: investment.
A. A - 1, B - 2, C – 3 2. Agriculture in India benefitted the most
B. A - 2, B - 3, C – 1 from globalisation due to increased
C. A - 3, B - 1, C – 2 exports and high global prices.
D. A - 1, B - 3, C – 2 3. The manufacturing sector has seen a
Q77. Consider the following statements regarding significant rise in foreign direct investment
the Balance of Payments (BoP): (FDI) inflows post-globalisation.
1. The Balance of Payments is a systematic Which of the above statements is/are
record of all economic transactions correct?
between the residents of a country and A. 1 and 2 only
the rest of the world during a given B. 1 and 3 only
period. C. 2 and 3 only
2. A BoP surplus implies that the country’s D. 1, 2 and 3
foreign exchange reserves are depleting.
3. The Capital Account component of BoP Q81. Which scheduling algorithm ensures that
records transactions related to financial each process gets an equal share of the
investments, loans, and banking capital. CPU?
A. First Come First Serve (FCFS)
Which of the statements given above is/are B. Shortest Job Next (SJN)
correct? C. Round Robin (RR)
A. 1 and 2 only D. Priority Scheduling
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only Q82. What is the primary function of a firewall in
D. 1, 2 and 3 network security?
A. Encrypting network traffic
Q78. Which of the following are considered B. Preventing unauthorized access
expansionary fiscal policies? C. Monitoring internal file systems
1. Increase in government expenditure D. Managing user authentication
2. Reduction in personal income tax
3. Increase in repo rate by RBI Q83. In object-oriented programming, which of
the following best describes polymorphism?
Choose the correct answer from the options A. Encapsulation of data within a class
given below: B. The ability to hide implementation details
A. 1 and 2 only C. Allowing a single interface to be used for
B. 2 and 3 only different types
C. 1 and 3 only D. Creating new objects based on existing
D. 1, 2 and 3 ones

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Q84. Which of the following protocols is used for A. Trojan Horse

secure file transfer over the internet? B. Worm
A. FTP C. Ransomware
B. SFTP D. Spyware.
C. HTTP Q91. As per double-entry system of accounting,
D. Telnet. which of the following is correct?
Q85. Which type of cyberattack exploits A. Every debit has a corresponding debit.
vulnerabilities in software before developers B. Every debit has a corresponding credit.
can create a fix? C. Every credit has no corresponding entry.
A. Phishing D. Debit is always equal to liabilities.
B. Man-in-the-middle attack Q92. A company’s current assets are made up
C. Zero-day attack of Inventory Rs 60,000, Trade Receivables
D. Ransomware. Rs 1,00,000 and Cash & Bank Rs 80,000. Its
Q86. In database management, which normal current liabilities consist of Trade Payables
form eliminates transitive dependencies? Rs 1,20,000 and Bank Overdraft Rs 30,000.
A. First Normal Form (1NF) What is the Current Ratio?
B. Second Normal Form (2NF) A. 1.6:1
C. Third Normal Form (3NF) B. 1.2:1
D. Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF). C. 2:1
D. 1.4:1
Q87. Which of the following is a characteristic of
RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computing) Q93. Which of the following is a real account?
architecture? A. Salary A/c
A. Complex instructions executed in a single B. Cash A/c
cycle C. Rent A/c
B. A large instruction set with multiple D. Capital A/c
addressing modes Q94. Which of the following audit evidences is
C. Simple instructions that execute in a single generally considered most reliable?
clock cycle A. Oral representations by management
D. Dependence on microcode for instruction B. Internal memorandum prepared by the
execution. client
Q88. Which shortcut key is used to create a new C. External confirmations received directly
document in Microsoft Word? by the auditor (e.g., bank confirmations)
A. Ctrl + N D. Analytical review procedures performed
B. Ctrl + S by the auditor
C. Ctrl + O Q95. A business purchased goods worth Rs 50,000
D. Ctrl + P on credit. What is the correct journal entry?
Q89. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary A. Purchases A/c Dr. 50,000; To Cash A/c
number 1011? 50,000
A. 9 B. Purchases A/c Dr. 50,000; To Creditors A/c
B. 10 50,000
C. 11 C. Cash A/c Dr. 50,000; To Purchases A/c
D. 12 50,000
D. Creditors A/c Dr. 50,000; To Purchases A/c
Q90. Which type of malware disguises itself as
50,000
a legitimate software program to deceive
users?

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Q96. Outstanding salary at year-end should be A. Marine Hull Policy

classified as: B. Fire Insurance Policy
A. Asset C. Endowment Policy
B. Liability D. Motor Insurance Policy
C. Income Q104. Which of the following is the primary
D. Expenses paid objective of audit?
Q97. Which accounting principle requires revenue A. Detection of fraud
be recognized when earned and not when B. Verification of assets
received? C. Expression of opinion on true & fair view
A. Consistency of financial statements
B. Going Concern D. Preparation of accounts
C. Accrual Concept Q105. Vouching in auditing refers to:
D. Conservatism A. Checking of assets physically.
Q98. In trial balance, if the debit and credit sides B. Examination of supporting documents
do not agree, the difference is placed in: for transactions.
A. Suspense A/c C. Checking balances with bank.
B. Capital A/c D. Comparing trial balance with ledger.
C. Profit & Loss A/c Q106. Which of the following statements is
D. Cash A/c correct regarding the National Health
Q99. Depreciation on machinery is classified as: Mission (NHM)?
A. Capital Expenditure A. The NHM was launched in 2005 with the
B. Revenue Expenditure aim of reducing Maternal Mortality Rate
C. Deferred Revenue Expenditure (MMR) to below 50 per 1 lakh live births
D. Asset by 2026.
B. NHM comprises six sub-missions,
Q100. Which error will not affect trial balance?
including the Reproductive-Maternal-
A. Error of commission Neonatal-Child-Adolescent Health
B. Error of omission (RMNCH+A) Mission.
C. Error of principle C. The NHM aims to operationalize 1.5 lakh
D. Compensating error Health and Wellness Centres (Ayushman
Q101. Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared Arogya Mandirs) as part of its extended
to: targets for 2021–26.
A. Show bank balance in trial balance. D. One of the key programmatic components
B. Rectify cash book errors. of NHM is increasing health insurance
C. Reconcile difference between Cash Book penetration in aspirational districts.
and Pass Book. Q107. Which of the following statement(s)
D. Record all bank transactions. is/are correct regarding the National
Q102. The principle of Uberrimae Fidei (Utmost Apprenticeship Scheme (NAPS-2)?
Good Faith) in insurance requires: 1. The scheme encourages apprenticeship
A. Only insurer to disclose facts. enrolment particularly in underserved
B. Only insured to disclose facts. regions such as aspirational districts and
C. Both insurer and insured to disclose all the North-East region.
material facts. 2. Optional trades under the scheme can
D. Neither party to disclose facts. extend beyond 12 months duration
with prior approval from the Ministry of
Q103. Which of the following is an example of a
Labour and Employment.
life insurance policy?
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3. esignated trades include subject fields 3. OSCs are also known as “Sakhi Centres”.
notified by the Central Government A. 1 and 2
in consultation with the Central B. 1 only
Apprenticeship Council (CAC). C. 2 and 3
A. Only 1 and 2 D. All of the above
B. Only 1 and 3 Q111. Russia launched the first nuclear-powered
C. Only 2 and 3 submarine to be equipped with Zircon
D. All 1, 2 and 3 missiles as a standard feature. What is the
Q108. Consider the following statements name of the submarine?
regarding the PM Vishwakarma Yojana: A. Tsar Vladimir
1. The skilling component of the scheme B. Perm
is handled solely by the Ministry of C. Moscow
Finance. D. Aurora
2. The e-Shram database is to be used Q112. Kumbakonam betel leaf from Thanjavur
primarily for identifying potential district was in the news. It refers to:
beneficiaries.
A. It is the first agricultural product from
3. Only one family member is eligible for
the delta region to receive a GI tag
registration under the scheme, with
B. It is the first GI-tagged product from
‘family’ including husband, wife, and
Tamil Nadu
unmarried children.
C. It is the first agricultural product from
Which of the above statements is the Eastern Ghats to receive a GI tag
INCORRECT? D. It is the 1,000th GI tag assigned in India.
A. Only 1 Q113. Which of the following players won
B. Only 2 the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna
C. Only 3 Award 2023 was awarded to two Indian
D. 1 and 3 badminton stars. Who were the winners
Q109. Which of the following statements is of this prestigious award?
incorrect regarding Mission Shakti? A. Saina Nehwal and PV Sindhu
A. The Nari Adalat under Mission Shakti B. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag
provides alternate grievance redressal to Shetty
women at the grassroots level. C. Kidambi Srikanth and Lakshya Sen
B. The scheme subsumes older schemes D. Prannoy H.S. and B Sai Praneeth
like Mahila Shakti Kendra and Mahila Q114. The International Thermonuclear
Police Volunteers. Experimental Reactor (ITER), a large-scale
C. Under the Sambal component, women nuclear fusion project aimed at replicating
can receive free legal aid for property the energy of the sun through fusion, has
disputes through Gram Panchayat seen significant contributions from various
Courts. countries.
D. All of the above statements are correct.
Which country is not directly involved in
Q110. Identify the incorrect statements about the development of the ITER reactor?
the One Stop Centre (OSC) Scheme:
A. India
1. OSCs only assist women aged 18 years B. United States
and above and do not cater to minors. C. China
2. The scheme integrates services such D. Brazil
as FIR filing assistance, psycho-social
support, and legal counselling.

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Q115. The Government of India launched the Which of the above statements are
NAVYA initiative for skilling adolescent correct?
girls. In this regard, consider the following A. Only One
states covered in its pilot phase: B. Only Two
1. Maharashtra C. All of the above
2. Gujarat D. None of the above
3. Assam Q118. Consider the following statements
4. Rajasthan regarding India’s participation in the
5. Jharkhand Axiom-4 Mission (June 2025):
Which of the above are covered under the 1. The Axiom-4 Mission was launched
pilot phase of the NAVYA initiative? using the Crew Dragon capsule named
A. 1, 2, 3 Grace, carried by SpaceX’s Falcon 9
B. 1, 2, 5 rocket.
C. 1, 3, 4 2. The launch of Axiom-4 marked India’s
D. 2, 4, 5 first human spaceflight mission since
Q116. Based on the BioE3 (Biotechnology Kalpana Chawla’s return from the ISS in
for Economy, Environment, and 2003.
Employment) Policy launched in 2024, Which of the above statements are
which of the following is NOT one of the correct?
6 priority thematic sectors identified for A. Only 1
implementation? B. Only 2
1. Bio-based chemicals and enzymes C. Both 1 and 2
2. Functional foods and Smart proteins D. None of the above
3. Precision biotherapeutics Q119. During the 113th Session of the
4. Climate resilient agriculture International Labour Conference held
5. Carbon capture and its utilization in Geneva, which of the following
6. Space tourism research Conventions was adopted as the first-ever
Options: international labour standard specifically
A. 1, 2, and 3 aimed at preventing exposure to and
B. 4, 5, and 6 protecting workers from biological hazards
C. 6 only in the workplace?
D. 1, 2, and 4 A. Convention on Occupational Safety and
Health (COSH)
Q117. The RBI’s Central Bank Digital Currency
B. Convention on Biological Risk
(CBDC), the e-rupee, surpassed ₹1,000
Preparedness
crore in circulation. In this context,
C. Workplace Disease Prevention
consider the following statements:
Convention
1. The e-rupee can be used for interbank D. Convention on Biological Hazards in the
settlements but does not earn interest Working Environment
like conventional bank deposits.
2. Any digital rupee donation exceeding Q120. The Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
₹2,000 is eligible for income tax continues to serve as India’s online
deduction under Section 80G. marketplace for public procurement,
3. Businesses receiving or repaying loans launched in 2016 under the Ministry of
over ₹20,000 per day using e-rupee may Commerce and Industry as part of the
face restrictions similar to cash-based Digital India initiative. The platform is
transactions. run by a consortium of companies. Which

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of the following is NOT a member of the

consortium managing GeM?
1. Intellect Design Arena
2. Infibeam
3. Tata Communications
4. HCL Technologies
A. Only 4
B. Only 1
C. Only 3
D. All of the above

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Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 B 26 B 51 D 76 A 101 C
2 C 27 B 52 A 77 C 102 C
3 D 28 C 53 D 78 A 103 C
4 B 29 C 54 B 79 B 104 C
5 A 30 C 55 A 80 B 105 B
6 A 31 C 56 A 81 C 106 C
7 A 32 B 57 C 82 B 107 B
8 D 33 B 58 A 83 C 108 A
9 C 34 C 59 D 84 B 109 C
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 C 110 B
11 D 36 B 61 B 86 C 111 B
12 A 37 C 62 C 87 C 112 A
13 D 38 A 63 B 88 A 113 B
14 A 39 A 64 A 89 C 114 D
15 B 40 A 65 D 90 A 115 B
16 B 41 C 66 D 91 B 116 C
17 A 42 B 67 B 92 A 117 B
18 C 43 A 68 D 93 B 118 A
19 B 44 C 69 C 94 C 119 D
20 D 45 C 70 A 95 B 120 A
21 C 46 A 71 B 96 B
22 A 47 A 72 D 97 C
23 D 48 D 73 B 98 A
24 A 49 B 74 C 99 B
25 D 50 C 75 C 100 D

Detailed Explanation

Q1. Option A – Cataclysm: This means a large and • Option D – Benediction: This means a blessing or
violent event like a disaster or sudden change. It is too kind words, especially at the end of a religious
serious to match peccadillo. service. It is the opposite of a fault.
• Option B – Infraction: This means a small breaking Hence, option B is the correct answer.
of a rule or law. It is often minor and matches the
idea of a small lie or mistake. It is the closest in Q2. Option A – Eloquent: This means someone who
meaning to peccadillo. speaks clearly and beautifully. It does not relate to
boldness or assumption.
• Option C – Revelation: This means something that
is revealed or made known, often a surprising fact. • Option B – Copacetic: This means everything is fine
It has no connection with a mistake or fault. or in good order. It does not match the meaning of
presumptuous.

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• Option C – Audacious: This means bold, daring, Hence, option A is the correct answer.
or showing a lack of respect. It closely matches
presumptuous, as both suggest overconfidence Q6. (A) Showing deep remorse - This is the correct
or boldness. answer. The phrase “sackcloth and ashes” is a biblical
allusion, representing an outward expression of deep
• Option D – Didactic: This means teaching or
sorrow and repentance.
instructive, often in a boring or bossy way. It does
not fit the meaning here. • (B) Expressing anger - The phrase “sackcloth and
ashes” represents remorse, not anger, so this
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
option is incorrect.
Q3. Option A – Euphoria: This means a feeling of great • (C) Celebrating his actions - This contradicts
happiness or joy. It is the opposite of anathema. the idea of regret and apology expressed in
the sentence. “Sackcloth and ashes” is about
• Option B – Panorama: This means a wide or
repentance, not celebration.
complete view of a place or scene. It is not related
to hatred or disapproval. • (D) Acting arrogantly - Arrogance would involve
not acknowledging mistakes or apologizing, which
• Option C – Algorithm: This is a step-by-step method
is the opposite of the humble act described in the
or formula, usually for solving problems in math or
sentence.
computers. It is not related to emotions or beliefs.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• Option D – Abomination: This means something
hated or disgusting, often in a moral or religious
Q7. (A) A choice with no real alternative - This is
context. It matches the meaning of anathema
the correct answer. “Hobson’s choice” refers to a
very closely.
situation where there is technically a choice, but in
Hence, option D is the correct answer. reality, it is no choice at all because one option is the
only one available.
Q4. Option A – Meticulous: This means being very
• (B) A choice between two good options - This
careful and paying attention to details. It does not
contradicts the meaning of “Hobson’s choice,”
match the meaning of being surprised.
which involves having only one option, not two.
• Option B – Astonished: This means greatly
• (C) A random selection made by others - While the
surprised or amazed. It is very close in meaning to
choice might seem random, it doesn’t capture the
flabbergasted and fits the sentence well.
lack of real alternatives as implied by “Hobson’s
• Option C – Ambivalent: This means having mixed choice.”
or unclear feelings about something. It is unrelated
• (D) A difficult decision with many options
to surprise.
- “Hobson’s choice” refers to having no real
• Option D – Ubiquitous: This means something that alternatives, not a difficult decision with many
is present everywhere. It has no connection to the options.
feeling of shock or amazement.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q8. (A) A small and insignificant flaw - This is incorrect
Q5. Option A – Heartrending: This means very sad or because “Achilles’ heel” refers to a major weakness,
emotionally painful, causing deep sorrow. It closely not something small or insignificant.
matches the meaning of poignant.
• (B) A hidden strength - This is the opposite of
• Option B – Obstinate: This means stubborn or the meaning. An “Achilles’ heel” represents a
unwilling to change. It does not relate to emotions weakness, not a strength.
or sadness. • (C) A skill she could easily master - This contradicts
• Option C – Nebulous: This means unclear or vague. the idea of a “major weakness.” The fear of public
It is not related to emotional impact. speaking was something she struggled with and
• Option D – Fastidious: This means being very couldn’t easily overcome.
careful or hard to please. It does not match the • (D) A major weakness - This is the correct answer.
meaning of poignant. The phrase “Achilles’ heel” refers to a fatal or

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major weakness, which is preventing her from • Part a follows, describing one of the primary goals
advancing despite her other strengths. of the Ramsar Convention: “focused on conserving
Hence, option D is the correct answer. wetlands and.”
• Part b continues, explaining what the convention
Q9. (A) Praised his efforts - This is the opposite of what promotes: “promoting their sustainable use.”
is described in the sentence. “Hauling over the coals”
• Part d concludes the sentence by emphasizing the
means to criticize severely, not praise.
purpose: “for environmental benefits.”
• (B) Gave him a second chance - “Hauling over the
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
coals” implies punishment or strong criticism, not
offering another opportunity.
Q13. Part c should start the sentence by introducing the
• (C) Reprimanded him severely - This is the correct subject: “The Ramsar Convention is an international
answer. The phrase “hauled him over the coals” treaty.”
means to scold or criticize someone harshly for a
• Part a then describes one of the primary goals of
mistake or failure.
the Ramsar Convention: “focused on conserving
• (D) Ignored the issue - This contradicts the wetlands and.”
sentence, as “hauled over the coals” indicates a
• Part b follows, explaining what the convention
strong response to the issue, not ignoring it.
promotes: “promoting their sustainable use.”
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Part d ends the sentence by emphasizing the
Q10. (A) Appeal to a select group - This suggests purpose: “for environmental benefits.”
targeting a specific group, which is not what the phrase Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
implies. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
• (B) Entertain the audience - This is the correct
answer. “Play to the gallery” refers to entertaining Q14. Part c should begin the sentence by introducing
or appealing to the crowd. the main subject: “electronic ink technology, used in
• (C) Manipulate public opinion - While playing to e-readers.”
the gallery may influence the crowd, it focuses • Part b then explains a key characteristic of this
more on entertainment than manipulation. technology: “mimics paper appearance.”
• (D) Ignore the audience - This contradicts the • Part a continues by describing one of its benefits:
phrase, as it suggests disregarding the crowd’s “offering energy-efficient displays.”
interests.
• Part d concludes the sentence by noting another
Hence, option B is the correct answer. benefit: “that are easy on the eyes.”
Q11. Part d starts the sentence appropriately by Hence, option A is the correct answer.
defining what greenwashing is:”greenwashing occurs
when companies.” Q15. Part c should begin the sentence by identifying
the subject: “dry ice.”
• Part c follows, explaining what companies do in
greenwashing: “falsely claim to be environmentally • Part b follows by explaining what dry ice is: “the
friendly.” solid form of carbon dioxide.”
• Part a then continues with the negative impact: • Part a continues by describing one of its uses: “is
“misleading consumers.” widely used for cooling.”
• Part b concludes the sentence, highlighting the • Part d concludes with other uses: “fog effects, and
consequence: “undermining genuine sustainability preserving perishable items.”
efforts.” Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Q16. In January 2016, rapper BoB created a stir on
Q12. Part c should start the sentence by introducing the Twitter by claiming that the Earth is flat. He dismissed
subject: “The Ramsar Convention is an international the criticisms and even challenged others to “grow up”
treaty.” instead of questioning his beliefs. This sparked a heated

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debate on social media, drawing responses from them. The internet allows such theories to reach large
various people, including well-known astrophysicist audiences, even though they have been thoroughly
Neil deGrasse Tyson, who humorously corrected debunked. Repetition of these ideas and the ability
BoB’s incorrect claims. The debate highlighted how to reach millions of people through online platforms
BoB’s flat-Earth idea persisted despite overwhelming helps keep them alive in public discourse, making
scientific evidence to the contrary. them seem more credible than they really are.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Q17. Ancient Greek philosophers, including Aristotle, Q21. Distance between point A to B = 330 × 8/5 = 528
used the curved shadow of the Earth cast on the Moon km
during lunar eclipses as strong evidence that the Earth Speed of the boat = 528/8 = 66 km/hr.
was spherical. This observation showed that Earth’s
From statement I,
shadow consistently appeared round, no matter the
position of the Moon, suggesting that the Earth itself Downstream speed of the boat = (66+x) km/hr
was a sphere. Additionally, Greek philosophers also Upstream speed of the boat = (66-x) km/hr
noted the difference in star positions depending on the 540/(66 + x) = 252/(66 - x)
traveler’s location, which further supported the idea of
540 × (66 - x) = 252 × (66 + x)
a spherical Earth.
35640 - 540x = 16632 + 252x
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
792x = 19008
Q18. The term “zombie ideas” refers to beliefs or x = 24
concepts that continue to resurface and persist, even Downstream speed of the boat = 66 + 24 = 90 km/hr
after being proven wrong by scientific evidence. In
So, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
the context of the passage, the flat-Earth theory is an
question.
example of a zombie idea. Despite being debunked for
centuries, this idea continues to find new audiences, From statement II,
largely due to social media platforms and individuals Speed of the stream = 48/2 = 24 km/hr
who promote it. Such ideas survive because of their Downstream speed of the boat = 66 + 24 = 90 km/hr
repeated circulation, not because they hold any
scientific merit. Upstream speed of the boat = 66 - 24 = 42 km/hr
So, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
question.
Q19. The “marketplace of ideas” is a concept that Therefore, the data in either in statement I alone or in
suggests that ideas should be freely exchanged, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
discussed, and tested to allow the truth to eventually Hence, option C is the correct answer.
prevail. It is based on the belief that, through open
debate and rigorous testing, the most valid and Q22. From Statement I
truthful ideas will emerge as the winners. This concept Volume of the tank = 112 × 22 = 2464 m3
promotes intellectual freedom and the idea that truth
is reached through collective reasoning and evidence. ⇒ πr2h = 2464 m3
However, the passage also critiques this concept by Curved surface area of the tank = 2816/4 = 704 m2
showing that false ideas can continue to circulate, 2πrh = 704 m2
even when debunked, especially in unregulated
environments like the internet. So, πr2h/2πrh = 2464/704
Hence, option B is the correct answer. ⇒ r/2 = 3.5
⇒r=7
Q20. Disproven theories like flat-Earthism continue Since,
to exist today because they are repeated and spread
widely on the internet, particularly on social media ⇒ 2πrh = 704 m2
platforms. These ideas are propagated by individuals or ⇒ h = 704 × 7/ (2 × 22 × 7) = 16 m
groups who gain attention and followers by promoting

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Therefore, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the Least value of k for which (90k + 4) is divisible by 7 is
question. k = 4.
From statement II: Required number = (90 x 4) + 4 = 364.
The curved surface area of the tank = 704 m2 Hence, option D is the correct answer.
2πrh = 704 m 2
Q26. Surely 3 can occur at either hundred place or tens
Since the rate at which the pipe is emptying the tank place or unit’s place. So, three cases arise.
is not given
a) If 3 occurs at hundredths place then the digit at
Therefore, we cannot find the height of the tank using tens place can be chosen in only nine ways (all ten
the above information digits leaving only 3 so we are left with 9 digits) and
Therefore, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer digit at unit’s place can be chosen in only 8 ways (as
the question. 3 and digit at tens place cannot be used again)
So, the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to So, total such numbers = 1 × 9 × 8 = 72
answer the question, while the data in Statement II b) If 3 occurs at tens place then its hundreds place can
alone are not sufficient to answer the question. be only chosen in only 8 ways (because use of 3 is
Hence, option A is the correct answer. not allowed and if we use 0 out of the remaining
9 digits it will be a 2-digit number which is not
Q23. Case I: Two female players are there in the team allowed) and unit place can be chosen only in 8
ways (since digit at hundredths place and 3 is not
Number of ways to select the team = 8C4 ×7C2 = 70 × 21
allowed)
= 1470
So, total such numbers = 8 × 1 × 8 = 64
Case II: Only one female player is there in the team
c) If 3 occurs at unit’s place then its hundreds place
Number of ways to select the team = 8C5 ×7C1 = 7 × 56
can be chosen in only 8 ways (because use of 3 is
= 392
not allowed and if we use 0 out of the remaining
Case III: No female players is there in the team 9 digits it will be a 2-digit number which is not
Number of ways to select the team = 8C6 = 28 allowed) and tens place can be chosen only in 8
So, total number of ways = (1470 + 392 + 28) = 1890 ways (since digit at hundredths place and 3 is not
allowed)
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
So, total such numbers = 8 × 8 × 1 = 64
Q24. Zeros at the end means multiple of 10, i.e. (2 × 5). Hence total such numbers = 72 + 64 + 64 = 200
So, the number of 2s or the number of 5s (whichever Hence, option B is the correct answer.
is lesser) will decide the number of zeros at the end of
the expression. Q27. LCM (2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60
i × n × v × i × s × o × s × a × i = 93 × 145 × 229 × 93 × 1911 × Required number is of the form 60k + 1
157 × 1911 × 11 × 93 Least value of k for which 60k + 1 is divisible by 7 is k = 5
Now, number of 2s = 9 + 5 = 14 Therefore, the required number =60 × 5 + 1 = 301
And, number of 5s = 7 Hence, option B is the correct answer.
The lesser of the two will determine the number of
zeros. Q28. Let us consider, the selling price is 6x and the
Hence, there will be 7 zeros at the end in the given marked price is 7x.
expression. Cost price =7x × 100/140 = 5x
Hence, option A is the correct answer. So, Profit = Selling Price – Cost Price = 6x - 5x = 20
Or, x = 20
Q25. Detailed Solution:
Cost price is 20 × 5 = Rs.100
L.C.M. of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is 90.
The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
Let required number be 90k + 4, which is multiple of 7. the question

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From Statement II, Pipe C filled or emptied the tank in one hour = 85y/100
Cost price is 5a and the selling price is 6a. = 17y/20
So, profit is a. Total time taken by all the pipes together to filled the
tank = 1/2
Given profit = Rs.20.
x + y + 17x/20 + 17y/20 = 1/2
So, a = 20
(20x + 20y + 17x + 17y)/20 = 1/2
Cost price is 20 x 5 = 100.
37(x + y) = 10
The data in statement II also is sufficient to answer the
question. x + y = 10/37
Hence, option C is the correct answer. C + D = 17x/20 + 17y/20
=17/20(x + y)
Q29. The number of zeros at the end of (5!)5! = 120 =17/20 x 10/37
(∵ 5! = 120 and thus 120120 will give 120 zeros) =17/74
Number of zeros at the end of (10!)10! , (50!)50! and Required time = 10/37 - 17/74
(100!)100! will be greater than 120.
= 3/74 = 74/3 hours
Now since the number of zeros at the end of the whole
expression will depend on the number which has least So, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
number of zeros at the end of the number among the question.
other given numbers. So, the number of zeros at the Hence, option C is the correct answer.
end of the given expression is 120.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. Q31. From Statement I:
Height of the cuboid = x cm, length = 5x,
Q30. Statement I breadth = 3x
Pipe A alone fill or empty the tank in one hour = 1/5 Difference = 5x – x = 16
Pipe B filled or emptied the tank in one hour = 1/5 × 4x = 16
100/120 = 1/6
x = 4.
Pipe A, B, C and D filled or emptied the tank in one hour
= 1/2 Length = 20, breadth = 12, height = 4.
A and B filled or emptied the tank in one hour = 1/5 + Volume of cuboid =
1/6 = 11/30 Length x breadth x height = 20 x 12 x 4 = 960
C and D filled or emptied the tank in one hour = 1/2 - Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer.
11/30 = 2/15 From Statement II:
From question, Total surface area of sphere = 616
A and B are filled the tank in one hour = 11/30 Total surface area of sphere=4πr2 = 616
C and D have emptied the tank in one
4 × 22/7 × r2 = 1232
hour = 2/15
r=7
Required time = 11/30 - 2/15
Volume of the sphere = 4/3 πr3
= 7/30 = 30/7 hours.
= 4/3 × 22/7 × 7 × 7 × 7 = 1437.33 cm3
So, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
Statement II alone is not sufficient to give the
question.
answer.
Statement II,
From Statement III:
Pipe A filled or emptied the tank in one hour = x
Pipe C filled or emptied the tank in one Total surface area of cuboid = 2(lb + bh +hl)
hour = 85x/100 = 17x/20 From ratio, length = 5x, breadth = 4x, height = 3x
Pipe B filled or emptied the tank in one hour = y 846 = 2(5x x 4x + 4x x 3x + 3x x 5x)

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846 = 2(20x2 + 12x2 + 15x2) + male

47x2 = 423
- female
x2 = 9
= couple
x=3
I Generation gap
Length = 15 cm, breadth = 12cm, height = 9 cm
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Volume of cuboid = length × breadth × height = 15 × 12
× 9 = 1620 cm3
Q34. Lisa is sixth to the left of Ryan. Kate is to the
Statement III alone is not sufficient to give the answer. immediate right of Emma and neighbour of Ryan.
From Statement I and II, Emma is not at the extreme end.
Volume of cuboid = 960 cm3 Lisa I I I Emma Kate Ryan
Volume of the sphere = 1437.33 cm3 Mark is not a neighbour of Emma. Jake is sixth to the
Required ratio = 960:1437.33 right of Sarah.
From Statement II and III, Lisa Sarah Mark David Emma Kate Ryan Jake
Volume of the sphere = 1437.33 cm 3
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Volume of cuboid = 1620 cm3
Q35. Article 22 grants the right to social security,
Required ratio = 1620:1437.33
ensuring economic, social, and cultural rights necessary
We can solve this question with the help of either for dignity.
statement I and II or statement II and III.
• Article 23 guarantees the right to work, equal
Hence, option C is the correct answer. pay, just working conditions, and the right to form
trade unions.
Q32. From statement I,
• Article 24 establishes the right to rest and leisure,
Speed of the boat against stream = x including reasonable working hours and paid
Speed of the boat along with stream = 2x holidays.
36 = (x + 2x)/2 • Article 25 ensures the right to an adequate standard
3x = 72 of living, including food, clothing, housing, medical
care, and security in cases of unemployment,
x = 24 kmph sickness, or disability.
Speed of the stream = (24 × 2 – 24)/2 = 12 kmph Hence, option B is the correct answer.
So, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question. Q36. Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Labour
From statement II, Conference (ILC) and the Standing Labour Committee
(SLC) were established in 1942 to promote uniformity in
Speed of the stream = 20/2 = 10 kmph labor laws, resolve industrial disputes, and encourage
So, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the employer-employee dialogue.
question. • Statement 2 is incorrect: The ILC meets annually,
Hence, option C is the correct answer. whereas the SLC meets as and when necessary,
not the other way around.
Q33.
Q+ • Statement 3 is correct: Both bodies include
representatives from the Central Government,
State/UT Governments, and employer & worker
W- X+ Z+ organizations, who are nominated by the Central
Government in consultation with all-India
organizations of workers and employers.
P- Y+
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

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Q37. Keynes’ perspective: According to Keynes, Q41. INTER-STATE MIGRANT WORKMEN

when the wage rate is high, the purchasing power of (REGULATION OF EMPLOYMENT AND CONDITIONS
workers increases, which boosts aggregate demand OF SERVICE) ACT, 1979
for goods and services. • Applies to:
• Low wage rate: On the other hand, a low wage rate o Every establishment in which 5 or more inter-
reduces the purchasing power of workers, leading State migrant workmen are employed, or who
to lower aggregate demand, which negatively were employed on any day of the preceding
affects employment and output. 12 months.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • Definition of “Workman”:
o Does not include any person who, being
Q38. Placating Theory: The theory states that as
employed in a supervisory capacity, draws
workers become more aware of their rights, they may
wages exceeding ₹500 per mensem/per
adopt a militant attitude to pressure employers for
month or exercises powers and functions
better wages and working conditions.
mainly of a managerial nature.
• Solution: To resolve such conflicts and establish
peaceful industrial relations, the theory suggests • Displacement Allowance:
that employers should implement welfare o The contractor shall pay to every inter-State
measures to appease the workers and reduce migrant workman at the time of recruitment:
tensions.  A displacement allowance equal to 50%
Hence, option A is the correct answer. of the monthly wages payable to him, or
₹75, whichever is higher.
Q39. Statement A is incorrect: The Mines Act does • Journey Allowance:
not apply to a mine being used solely for prospecting
purposes, provided that no more than 20 persons are o A sum not less than the fare from the place of
employed on any one day for excavation. residence of the inter-State migrant workman
in his State to the place of work in the other
• Statement B is correct: The Central Government can State.
appoint a Chief Inspector of Mines and Inspectors
of Mines who meet the prescribed qualifications. • Grant of Licenses:
• Statement C is correct: The owner, agent, or o Every application for the grant of a licence
manager must notify the Chief Inspector, the shall contain the following particulars:
Controller, and the district magistrate before  The location of the establishment.
starting mining operations.  The nature of process, operation, or work
• Statement D is correct: A first-aid room must be for which inter-State migrant workmen
maintained in mines employing more than 150 are to be employed.
workers, with the necessary medical and nursing • Prohibition Against Employment of Inter-State
staff. Migrant Workmen Without Registration:
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
o No principal employer of an establishment
shall employ inter-State migrant workmen
Q40. Statement 1 is correct: The Safety Committee
unless a certificate of registration in respect
must be constituted in any establishment where 500
of such establishment is in force.
or more building workers are employed.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Safety Committee’s
composition must include more worker
Q42. Statement A is incorrect: The Technical Advisory
representatives than employer representatives, as
Committee consists of a Chairman and up to 10
prescribed by the State Government.
members, not 20.
• Statement 3 is correct: The employer must also
• Statement B is correct: The Committee advises the
appoint a Safety Officer in establishments where
Central Government on adding occupations and
500 or more building workers are employed.
processes to the Schedule of the Act.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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• Statement C is incorrect: The Committee meets Q46. Statement 1 is correct: Anyone aged 15 or more
frequently and has the power to regulate its own can be a member of a registered Trade Union, unless
procedure. the union’s rules specify otherwise.
• Statement D is incorrect: The Committee can • Statement 2 is incorrect: A member under the age
constitute sub-committees and appoint non- of 18 can enjoy rights of membership but cannot
members to consider specific matters. execute instruments or give acquittances under
Hence, option B is the correct answer. the union’s rules.
• Statement 3 is correct: To hold office in a Trade
Q43. Application of Special Provisions Relating Union, the individual must be at least 18 years old.
to Lay-Off, Retrenchment, and Closure in Certain • Statement 4 is correct: A person convicted of an
Establishments offence involving moral turpitude is eligible to hold
• Applicability: office after five years of release.
o The provisions of this Chapter shall apply to Hence, option A is the correct answer.
an industrial establishment that:
 Is not of a seasonal character. Q47. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
 Does not perform work only 1946
intermittently. • Payment of Subsistence Allowance
 In which not less than 100 workmen were Where any workman is suspended by the employer
employed on an average per working day pending investigation of misconduct against
for the preceding 12 months. him, the employer shall pay to such workman
subsistence allowance:
• Decision on Seasonal Character or Intermittent
Work: o 50% of the workman’s preceding wages for
the first 90 days of suspension.
o If a question arises regarding whether an
industrial establishment is of a seasonal o 75% of such wages for the remaining
character or whether work is performed suspension period if the delay in disciplinary
intermittently, the decision of the appropriate proceedings is not due to the workman’s fault.
Government on the matter shall be final. • If there is a dispute regarding the subsistence
Hence, option A is the correct answer. allowance, either party can refer it to a Labor Court
constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Q44. As per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, an • If any other law in a state provides a more beneficial
employee is entitled to receive a bonus if they have subsistence allowance, that law shall apply in the
worked for not less than 30 working days in the place of this section.
establishment during the accounting year.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q48. Labour Court
Q45. Statement A is incorrect: Cooling means for
Composition: Labour Court Consists of 1 person only
drinking water must be provided in factories with over
to be appointed by the appropriate Government.
250 workers, not 500.
Qualification: A person shall not be qualified for
• Statement B is incorrect: Sanitary latrine and urinal
appointment as the presiding officer of a Labour
accommodations are required in factories with
over 250 workers. Court, unless:
• Statement C is correct: Factories with at least 1000 • He is, or has been, a Judge of a High Court
workers must appoint safety officers to ensure • He has, for a period of not less than 3 years, been a
safety measures are implemented. District Judge or an Additional District Judge
• Statement D is incorrect: First-aid boxes must be • He has held any judicial office in India for not less
available in every factory, with at least one box per than 7 years.
150 workers, regardless of the number of workers.
• He has been the presiding officer of a Labour Court
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

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constituted under any Provincial Act or State Act • It is a device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure
for not less than 5 years. the distance, direction, and speed of underwater
• He is or has been a Deputy Chief Labour objects.
Commissioner (Central) or Joint Commissioner of • Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws
the State Labour Department, having a degree in in metal blocks.
law and at least 7 years’ experience in the labour • Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various
department including 3 years of experience as parts of the heart to form the image of the heart.
Conciliation Officer This technique is called ‘echocardiography’.
• He is an officer of Indian Legal Service in Grade II • A doctor may image the patient’s organs such as
with 3 years’ experience in the grade the liver, gall bladder, uterus, kidney, etc., using
Hence, option D is the correct answer. ultrasonic waves.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q49. NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION
• FIRST LAW Q51. The sound of the heartbeat heard through a
stethoscope is due to multiple reflections of sound,
o It states that an object continues to remain
which is known as the reverberation phenomenon.
in a state of rest or of uniform motion in a
straight line unless compelled to change that • In this phenomenon, sound bounces off various
state by an applied force. surfaces and is repeatedly reflected, allowing the
doctor to hear the sounds clearly.
• SECOND LAW
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
o It states that the rate of change of momentum
of an object is proportional to the applied
Q52. Brass is made from copper and zinc (1-B)
force in the direction of force.
• Bronze is made from copper and tin (2-A)
• THIRD LAW
• Solder is made from lead and tin (3-C)
o To every action, there is an equal and opposite
reaction and they act on two different bodies. • Amalgam is made from mercury and other metals
(4-D)
o If we fire a bullet, it exerts a backward push.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
o Rocket propulsion is based on the third law of
Newton. Q53. The Tyndall effect occurs when light is scattered
Hence, option B is the correct answer. by particles in a colloid or in a very fine suspension.
• It can be observed when sunlight passes through
Q50. APPLICATION OF ULTRASOUNDS the canopy of a dense forest, where tiny droplets
• In medical science, ultrasound is used in bloodless of water in the mist act as particles of colloid
surgical operations, tumor and cavity detection of dispersed in air.
teeth, etc. • It is also visible when a fine beam of light enters a
• By ultrasonic radiation, various neurological room through a small hole, causing scattering by
diseases and arthritis are being cured. dust and smoke particles in the air.
• It is also used in milk purification. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
• Ultrasonic coagulates the dust particles in the
winter season, thus removing the mists and fogs Q54. Adrenaline is secreted during emergency
from airports and facilitating aircraft (aeroplane) situations, increases heart rate, and oxygen supply (1-
landings. D).
• Ultrasonic is also utilized in measuring sea depth • Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, fat, and protein
and locating some commodities spread inside the metabolism (2-A).
sea. • Growth Hormone (Somatotropin) regulates the
• SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) is a growth and development of the body (3-B).
technique by which objects located inside the sea • Testosterone is responsible for pubertic changes in
are detected. males (4-C).

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Hence, option B is the correct answer. that could turn violent and embarrass the
United Kingdom, especially as they were
Q55. Blood group AB is called the universal receptor fighting for principles of freedom and basic
because it does not contain any antibodies, making it rights against Nazi Germany and Fascism.
capable of receiving blood from any other group. • Nature and Demand of the Movement:
• This is due to the presence of both A and B antigens o Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic,
on the surface of red blood cells, and the absence and non-violent.
of antibodies in the plasma against A or B antigens.
o It was led by Mahatma Gandhi, who personally
Hence, option A is the correct answer. chose the Satyagrahis.
Q56. A-1: Longest Muscle – Sartorius muscle: The o The main demand of the Satyagrahis was the
Sartorius is the longest muscle, running along the right to use freedom of speech to oppose the
length of the thigh, helping with knee and hip flexion. war by issuing an anti-war declaration.
• B-2: Smallest Muscle – Stapedius muscle: The • Notable Satyagrahis:
Stapedius, at just over a millimeter, stabilizes the o Acharya Vinoba Bhave: The first to offer
stapes, the smallest bone in the body. Satyagraha; he was sentenced to three months
• C-3: Largest Muscle – Gluteus maximus muscle: of imprisonment. He began his campaign on
The Gluteus maximus is the largest muscle, October 17, 1940, at Paunar, near Wardha.
responsible for stabilizing the hip joint and aiding  In a speech, he cited three reasons for the
thigh movement. people not to support the government’s
• D-4: Strongest Muscle – Masseter muscle: The war effort:
Masseter is the strongest muscle in relation to its 1. The government’s refusal to establish
size and is responsible for jaw movement during a Provisional National Government.
chewing. 2. Dragging India into the war without
Hence, option A is the correct answer. her consent or consultation.
3. Denial of freedom to preach against
Q57. The Liver is the largest gland in the human body. the war.
• It plays a crucial role in converting excess amino o Jawaharlal Nehru: The second Satyagrahi,
acids into ammonia, which is then converted into arrested on October 31, 1940, at the Cheoki
urea and excreted from the body. railway station near Allahabad for violating
• It also regulates the quantity of glucose in the the Defence of India Rules before he could
blood and reserves essential nutrients like iron, launch his campaign.
copper, and vitamins. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• Additionally, the liver is vital for investigating
deaths caused by poisoning from food. Q59. Aruna Asaf Ali earned the title ‘Grand Old Lady’
Hence, option C is the correct answer. of the Independence Movement due to her iconic role
in hoisting the Indian flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan in
Q58. Individual Satyagraha: Gandhiji launched Mumbai during the Quit India Movement.
Individual Satyagraha because he was not satisfied • This act was a significant moment in the history
with the August offer. Key reasons include: of the Indian independence struggle, symbolizing
o The British government was adamant that no defiance against British rule.
constitutional progress could be made until • Other options such as Sarojini Naidu, Sucheta
Congress reached an agreement with Muslim Kripalani, and Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit, though
leaders. prominent figures in the Indian independence
o The government passed multiple ordinances movement, are not associated with this specific
restricting freedom of expression, freedom of event.
the press, and the right to form associations. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
o Gandhiji wanted to avoid a mass movement

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Q60. Born in Cuttack, Orissa, Subhash Chandra the allies in June 1941, he escaped to Berlin and
Bose rose to prominence as a leader of the Indian met Hitler.
Independence Movement. • In Germany, with Hitler’s support, Bose set up
• He resigned from the ICS to join the Freedom the “Free India Centre” and “Free India Radio” in
struggle, but his attempts during World War 2 Berlin (also known as Berlin Radio), and also raised
to secure India’s freedom by allying with Nazi a 3000-strong “Free Indian Legion” comprising of
Germany and imperialist Japan left behind a prisoners of war, including soldiers who had fallen
troubled legacy. into the hands of Germany in Italy.
• December 1921: Bose went to jail for the first time Hence, option A is the correct answer.
for his nationalist activities.
• In 1923, he was elected as Mayor of Calcutta but Q61. Cabinet Mission Plan → 1946 (Correct match:
was soon arrested and deported to Mandalay Jail 1-B)
in Burma (1924-27). Upon his release, he helped • Wavell Plan → 1945 (Correct match: 2-A)
form the Indian Independence League (1927). • Cripps Mission → 1942 (Correct match: 3-D)
• In 1928, at the Congress session in Calcutta, • Individual Satyagraha → 1940 (Correct match:
Gandhiji himself moved the resolution demanding 4-C)
“Dominion Status Constitution for India”; Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Bose sought an amendment demanding full
independence for India. Q62. Statement A is correct: Swami Dayanand Saraswati
• Bose served as the president of All India Trade was born in Kathiawar, Gujarat, and his original name
Union Congress (AITUC) during 1929-31, emerging was Mulshankar.
as a prominent left-wing leader of the INC, giving • Statement B is correct: He started the Shuddhi
dynamic leadership to the youth, students, and movement to bring back Hindus who had converted
workers of India. to other religions.
• In 1930, Bose participated in the Civil Disobedience • Statement C is incorrect: The book Satyartha
Movement but opposed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact Prakash was written in Hindi, not in Sanskrit.
due to its failure to save Bhagat Singh and other
revolutionaries. • Statement D is correct: He opposed idol worship,
child marriage, and caste system based on birth
• In 1938, he presided over the Haripura session and encouraged inter-caste marriages and widow
of INC, where he, alongside Jawaharlal Nehru, remarriage.
emphasized economic planning and the formation
of a planning committee. He also inaugurated the Hence, option C is the correct answer.
All-Indian National Planning Committee on 17th
December 1928 in Bombay. Q63. Statement 1 is correct: Kumbh Mela is held at four
locations—Prayagraj, Haridwar, Nashik, and Ujjain.
• In 1939, Bose was re-elected as the president of
the INC despite Gandhiji’s opposition but had to • Statement 2 is incorrect: Kumbh Mela at any of
resign due to continuous and organized opposition these four locations is held every 12 years, not 6
by the CWC members, who were staunch followers years. However, Ardha Kumbh is held every 6 years
of Gandhi. in Prayagraj and Haridwar only.
• After his resignation, he formed the Forward Bloc • Statement 3 is correct: In Nashik and Ujjain, Kumbh
in the same year (1939), and in 1940, he was placed Mela is called Simhastha.
under house arrest. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• However, in January 1941, he escaped from house
arrest disguised as a Pathan named Ziauddin and Q64. Statement 1 is correct: The Pallava kings built
reached Peshawar from Calcutta. the monuments in the 7th and 8th centuries, with
Narasimhavarman (Mamalla) founding the religious
• From there, he went with the help of a friend to center.
Bhagat Ram, and then headed towards Soviet
Russia. However, when the Soviet Union joined • Statement 2 is correct: The site contains a Shiva
temple on the seashore along with sculptured cave

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temples such as Arjuna’s Penance (also known as • Statement 3 is correct: Examples of Panchayatan
Descent of the Ganges). architecture include the Dashavatar temple at
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Five Rathas (Pancha Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh) and the Durga temple at
Pandava Rathas) are monolithic temples, but they Aihole (Karnataka).
do not represent the five elements of nature, nor Hence, option B is the correct answer.
is Mahabalipuram called the “City of Elements.”
Instead, the town was historically referred to Q68. Statement 1 is correct: Article 21A was added
as “Seven Pagodas” due to the belief that seven by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002,
temples once existed there, though only a few establishing elementary education as a Fundamental
remain today. Right.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. • Statement 2 is correct: It mandates that the State
shall provide free and compulsory education to
Q65. Kathakali is a classical dance-drama from Kerala, children aged 6 to 14 years as per the manner
traditionally performed only by male artists, including prescribed by law.
female roles.
• Statement 3 is correct: To give effect to Article
• It is renowned for its elaborate facial expressions, 21A, the Parliament enacted the Right of Children
hand gestures (mudras), and the depiction of to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
mythological themes.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
• The dance form is distinguished by the use of
‘Navarasas’—nine fundamental facial expressions Q69. Statement A is correct: Article 39(a) ensures the
used to convey emotions. right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
• It involves dramatic storytelling through eye and • Statement B is correct: Article 39(d) promotes equal
eyebrow movements combined with intricate pay for equal work for men and women, though it
gestures and postures. is a constitutional goal, not a fundamental right.
Hence, option D is the correct answer. • Statement C is incorrect: Protection of monuments
and places of historical interest is not part of
Q66. Statement A is correct: The Vijayanagar rulers Article 39; it falls under Article 49 of the Directive
integrated architectural elements from the Chola, Principles of State Policy.
Hoysala, Pandya, and Chalukya traditions.
• Statement D is correct: Article 39(c) aims to
• Statement B is correct: Temple complexes were prevent the concentration of wealth and means of
enclosed by boundary walls, and secular buildings production to ensure economic fairness.
like the Lotus Mahal were introduced inside temple
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
premises.
• Statement C is correct: Gopurams, which were Q70. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee → 1957 (Correct
earlier only on the front side, were now built on all match: 1-C)
sides of the temple complex.
• Ashok Mehta Committee → 1977 (Correct match:
• Statement D is incorrect: The central mandap in 2-D)
Vijayanagar temples was known as Kalyan Mandap,
• G V K Rao Committee → 1985 (Correct match: 3-A)
not Garbhagriha. The Garbhagriha is the innermost
sanctum where the main deity is enshrined. • Thungon Committee → 1988 (Correct match: 4-B)
Hence, option D is the correct answer. • L M Singhvi Committee → 1986 (Correct match:
5-E)
Q67. Statement 1 is correct: The Panchayatan style Hence, option A is the correct answer.
features a main temple surrounded by four subsidiary
shrines, forming a quincunx layout. Q71. Statement 1 is correct: The District Planning
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The main temple is Committee (DPC) is responsible for consolidating the
square, not circular. It has an elongated mandap, development plans formulated by panchayats and
making the overall layout rectangular, not elliptical. municipalities within the district.

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• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act mandates that Hence, option C is the correct answer.
four-fifths (not two-thirds) of the members of the
DPC should be elected by the elected members of Q75. Statement 1: Correct. In the First-Past-The-
the district panchayat and municipalities. Post system, the country is indeed divided into small
• Statement 3 is correct: The representation of geographical units called constituencies or districts.
these members in the committee should be in • Statement 2: Incorrect. In the First-Past-The-Post
proportion to the ratio between the rural and system, the voter votes for a candidate, not the
urban populations in the district. party.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. • Statement 3: Correct. In Proportional
Representation, seats are allocated based on the
Q72. A. Correct: The first coalition government at the percentage of votes a party receives.
Union level was the Janta Government formed in 1977.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• B. Correct: Coalition governments in India form
through pre-election alliances (parties unite before Q76. A - 1: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 replaces
elections) or post-election coalitions (parties the Indian Penal Code, 1860, and includes community
negotiate after election results). service for petty offenses, classification of sexual
• C. Correct: The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) acts against women under 18, and terrorist acts as a
was the first coalition government to successfully separate offense.
complete a 5-year term from 1999 to 2004. • B - 2: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023
Hence, option D is the correct answer. replaces the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, and
includes provisions for detention of undertrials
Q73. Statement 1 is correct: Parliament has the power and signatures/finger impressions.
to form a new state by separating territories, uniting • C - 3: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 replaces
states, or altering the boundaries or names of existing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and addresses the
states as per Article 3. treatment of electronic records as legally valid and
• Statement 2 is correct: A Bill related to the includes oral evidence as a form of legal testimony.
formation of a new state can only be introduced in Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Parliament with the President’s recommendation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The President must Q77. BoP is a comprehensive and systematic
refer the Bill to the legislature of the affected accounting of all financial and economic transactions
state, but this is for consultation purposes (not for made between the residents of a country and the rest
consent), and they must express their views within of the world over a specific period (usually a quarter
a specified time. or a year).
• Statement 4 is correct: Parliament can indeed These transactions include:
create a new state through ordinary legislation,
• Exports and imports of goods and services
which requires only a simple majority in Parliament.
• Cross-border investments and loans
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Remittances
Q74. A: The S.K. Dhar Commission, 1948, indeed • Aid and grants
recommended re-organization based on administrative It helps assess the external economic health of a
convenience, not linguistic factors. nation.
• B: The JVP Committee, 1948, rejected language as A BoP surplus actually means the country is earning
the basis for reorganization, which is correct. more foreign exchange than it is spending. This could
• C: This statement is incorrect because the Fazal Ali be through higher exports, capital inflows, or both.
Commission, 1953, identified four factors, not six, In such a scenario, the foreign exchange
for state reorganization. reserves of the country increase, not decrease.
• D: The Fazal Ali Commission recommended the Conversely, a BoP deficit implies a shortfall of foreign
formation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories, exchange and may lead to depletion of reserves.
which is correct.

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Remember: • BPOs, call centers, software development, and

• Surplus = Net inflow → Reserves rise data processing became large employment
generators.
• Deficit = Net outflow → Reserves fall
Statement 2: “Agriculture in India benefitted the most
The Capital Account of BoP covers: from globalisation due to increased exports and high
• Foreign direct investments (FDI) global prices.”
• Portfolio investments • Agriculture was not the biggest beneficiary of
• External commercial borrowings (ECBs) globalisation.
• Loans and banking capital • Although there were some increases in exports,
small and marginal farmers struggled with price
It reflects the flow of capital into and out of the
volatility, competition from subsidised imports,
country, and is crucial for financing current account
and lack of market access.
deficits.
• Globalisation increased inequality in the
Hence, option C is the correct answer. agriculture sector and exposed it to global price
shocks.
Q78. Expansionary fiscal policy is used by the
government to stimulate economic growth—especially • Industrial and service sectors gained much more
during a slowdown or recession. It aims to increase comparatively.
aggregate demand by: Statement 3: “The manufacturing sector has seen
• Increasing government spending a significant rise in foreign direct investment (FDI)
inflows post-globalisation.”
• Reducing taxes
• After 1991 liberalisation, India opened up to FDI,
This boosts consumer and business spending and leads particularly in automobiles, consumer electronics,
to higher economic activity. and telecom equipment.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. • Make in India, Special Economic Zones (SEZs),
and industrial corridors further enhanced
Q79. A Population Pyramid is a graphical illustration manufacturing investments.
that shows the distribution of various age groups in
• Though India still faces challenges in manufacturing
a population, typically that of a country or region,
competitiveness, FDI inflows and multinational
divided by gender.
company participation increased substantially.
• The x-axis usually represents the percentage or
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
absolute number of people.
• The y-axis represents age groups, usually in 5-year Q81. The Round Robin (RR) scheduling algorithm
intervals (0–4, 5–9, 10–14, etc.). ensures that each process gets an equal share of the
• The left side represents males, and the right side CPU by assigning a fixed time quantum (or time slice)
represents females. to each process in a cyclic order. When a process’s time
quantum expires, it is moved to the end of the queue,
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
and the next process gets the CPU.
Q80. Statement 1: “The services sector, especially • This ensures fairness and prevents any single
IT and ITeS, witnessed exponential growth due to process from monopolizing the CPU. Unlike
increased outsourcing and foreign investment.” First Come First Serve (FCFS), which executes
processes in the order they arrive, Shortest Job
• Globalisation led to a boom in the Indian services
Next (SJN), which prioritizes shorter tasks, and
sector, especially Information Technology (IT) and
Priority Scheduling, which gives preference to
Information Technology Enabled Services (ITeS).
higher-priority processes, Round Robin treats all
• India became a global hub for outsourcing due processes equally, making it ideal for time-sharing
to its skilled, English-speaking workforce and cost systems where multiple users or tasks require
advantages. equal CPU time.
• Companies like Infosys, TCS, and Wipro flourished Hence, option C is the correct answer.
and expanded globally.

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Q82. A firewall is a crucial security component in Transfer Protocol), are primarily used for web
networking that acts as a barrier between a trusted page access and do not offer file transfer security,
internal network and untrusted external networks, and (d) Telnet is a protocol used for remote
such as the internet. Its primary function is to monitor command-line access but lacks encryption, making
and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based it insecure. Therefore, SFTP is the best choice for
on predefined security rules, allowing or blocking data securely transferring files over the internet while
packets to prevent unauthorized access to the system. maintaining data confidentiality and integrity.
• Firewalls help protect against cyber threats such Hence, option B is the correct answer.
as hackers, malware, and unauthorized users
attempting to exploit network vulnerabilities. Q85. A zero-day attack is a type of cyberattack that
• Unlike (a) Encrypting network traffic, which is exploits unknown vulnerabilities in software before
handled by encryption protocols, (c) Monitoring developers can identify and fix them. Since the
internal file systems, which is the role of security vulnerability is not yet patched, attackers can use
software like intrusion detection systems, or (d) it to gain unauthorized access, steal data, or disrupt
Managing user authentication, which is done by systems. These attacks are highly dangerous because
authentication mechanisms such as passwords they target security flaws that have no existing
or biometrics, the firewall specifically focuses on defenses, leaving organizations and users exposed
controlling network traffic to safeguard systems • Unlike (a) Phishing, which involves tricking users
from external threats. into revealing sensitive information, (b) Man-in-the-
middle attacks, which intercept communications,
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
and (d) Ransomware, which encrypts files and
demands payment for decryption, zero-day attacks
Q83. Polymorphism is a key concept in object-oriented
specifically take advantage of undiscovered
programming (OOP) that enables a single interface,
software flaws, making them difficult to detect and
such as a method or function, to be used with different
prevent until a security patch is released.
data types or classes. This allows objects of different
classes to be treated as instances of a common Hence, option C is the correct answer.
superclass, making code more flexible and reusable.
Q86. In database normalization, Third Normal Form
• Polymorphism can be achieved in two main ways:
(3NF) is designed to eliminate transitive dependencies,
o Method Overloading (Compile-time ensuring that non-key attributes are only dependent
Polymorphism) – Multiple methods with the on the primary key and not on other non-key
same name but different parameters exist attributes. A transitive dependency occurs when
within the same class. a non-key attribute depends on another non-key
o Method Overriding (Runtime Polymorphism) attribute rather than the primary key, leading to data
– A subclass provides a specific implementation redundancy and update anomalies.
of a method that is already defined in its • To achieve 3NF, a database must first satisfy
superclass. Second Normal Form (2NF) (i.e., it must be in
Hence, option C is the correct answer. 1NF and have no partial dependencies) and then
ensure that every non-key column is functionally
Q84. The correct answer is (b) SFTP (Secure File dependent only on the primary key. This improves
Transfer Protocol). SFTP is a secure protocol used data integrity, consistency, and efficiency.
for transferring files over the internet, providing Hence, option C is the correct answer.
encryption and authentication to protect data from
unauthorized access and interception. Q87. RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computing)
• Unlike FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which transfers architecture is designed to use a small and optimized set
files in plaintext and is vulnerable to security of simple instructions that can be executed in a single
threats, SFTP operates over SSH (Secure Shell), clock cycle. This approach improves performance,
ensuring a secure connection by encrypting both efficiency, and speed, making RISC processors ideal
commands and data during transmission. for applications requiring fast processing and high
efficiency, such as embedded systems and mobile
• Other options, such as (c) HTTP (Hypertext
devices.

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• Other options describe characteristics of CISC payment, a Trojan relies on social engineering to
(Complex Instruction Set Computing): deceive users into downloading and running it.
• Complex instructions executed in a single cycle • Spyware, on the other hand, secretly gathers
– CISC architectures use complex, multi-step information without the user’s knowledge. Since
instructions that take multiple cycles. a Trojan appears harmless but carries hidden
• A large instruction set with multiple addressing threats, it is named after the ancient Greek Trojan
modes – CISC processors support many instructions Horse, which was used to infiltrate the city of Troy.
and addressing modes, unlike RISC, which has a Hence, option A is the correct answer.
limited set of instructions.
• Dependence on microcode for instruction Q91. The double-entry system is built on the dual
execution – CISC relies on microcode to interpret aspect concept: every transaction affects two (or
and execute complex instructions, while RISC more) accounts so that total debits = total credits.
avoids microcode for simpler, faster execution. For example, if the business purchases machinery for
Rs 1,00,000 in cash: Machinery A/c Dr Rs 1,00,000;
Hence, option C is the correct answer. To Cash A/c Rs 1,00,000. The debit to Machinery is
matched by a credit to Cash.
Q88. In Microsoft Word, the shortcut Ctrl + N is used
to create a new document quickly. This allows users • Option A: “Every debit has a corresponding debit”
to open a blank document without navigating through contradicts the dual-aspect principle; debits are
the menu options, improving efficiency and workflow. balanced by credits, not by other debits.
• Other options perform different functions: • Option C: Credits always have corresponding
debits; otherwise accounts would not balance.
o (b) Ctrl + S – Saves the current document.
• Option D: Debit does not always mean liabilities—
o (c) Ctrl + O – Opens an existing document. debits can represent expenses, losses, increases in
o (d) Ctrl + P – Prints the current document. assets, or decreases in liabilities/equity depending
Hence, option A is the correct answer. on the account.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q89. The correct answer is (c) 11. To convert the binary
number 1011 to decimal, each digit is multiplied by Q92. Current Asset= 60,000 + 1,00,000 + 80,000 =
powers of 2, starting from the rightmost digit. 2,40,000
• The leftmost 1 represents 8 (since it is in the 2³ Current Liabilities = 1,20,000 + 30,000
place). Current Ratio = 2,40,000/1,50,000
• The next 0 represents 0 (since it is in the 2² place). = 1.6:1
• The next 1 represents 2 (since it is in the 2¹ place). Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• The rightmost 1 represents 1 (since it is in the 2⁰
place). Q93. Real accounts represent assets (tangible or
• Adding these values together: 8 + 0 + 2 + 1 = 11. intangible) and are carried forward from year to year.
Cash is a classic example of an asset that appears on
• Thus, the decimal equivalent of 1011 is 11 the balance sheet. Cash A/c records an asset — it’s not
Hence, option C is the correct answer. closed at year-end; its balance is carried forward.
Salary, Rent: Both are nominal accounts representing
Q90. Trojan Horse is a type of malware that disguises expenses. They are closed to Profit & Loss at year-end.
itself as a legitimate or useful software program to
trick users into installing it. Capital: Capital A/c is a personal account representing
owner’s equity, not a real account.
• Once executed, it can perform malicious activities
such as stealing sensitive data, creating backdoor Hence, option B is the correct answer.
access for hackers, or damaging system files.
Q94. The reliability of audit evidence is a cornerstone
• Unlike worms, which spread independently, or of auditing standards. The general rule is that evidence
ransomware, which encrypts files and demands is more reliable when it comes from an independent

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source and is obtained directly by the auditor. External Going concern assumption that entity will continue
confirmations meet both of these criteria, making operations, unrelated to revenue timing.
them a very strong form of evidence. Conservatism/Prudence advises recognizing losses
A. Oral representations by management: This is early and gains only when reasonably certain, not the
considered the least reliable form of evidence. It’s a timing of earned revenue per se.
statement from an interested party (management) Hence, option C is the correct answer.
and is not supported by any independent
documentation. While auditors do make inquiries Q98. When a trial balance does not tally and we cannot
of management, these oral statements must be immediately locate the error(s), we temporarily post
corroborated by more reliable evidence. the difference to a Suspense Account to force the trial
B. Internal memorandum prepared by the client: This balance to balance. This allows preparation of financial
is more reliable than an oral statement but still statements while investigation continues. Once errors
ranks below external evidence. The reliability of are found, entries are passed to clear the Suspense
internal documents depends on the effectiveness A/c.
of the client’s internal controls. If controls are Example: If debit total = Rs 1,00,000 and credit total = Rs
weak, the internal document is less trustworthy. 98,000, the difference Rs 2,000 is credited to Suspense
D. Analytical review procedures performed by the A/c (so totals match). Later you find an omitted debit
auditor: Analytical procedures are useful for of Rs 2,000; you correct it and clear the Suspense A/c.
identifying potential risks and unusual fluctuations Hence, option A is the correct answer.
in data. However, they are not a substitute for
substantive, detailed testing. They provide a high- Q99. Depreciation is the systematic allocation of the
level view but don’t offer the same level of direct, cost of a fixed asset over its useful life. It reflects wear
concrete evidence as an external confirmation. and tear/obsolescence and is treated as an expense in
Hence, option C is the correct answer. each accounting period - hence a revenue expense. It
reduces profit for the period and reduces the carrying
Q95. When goods are bought on credit, Purchases amount of the asset on the balance sheet.
(an expense/inventory increase) increases — debit Capital Expenditure- It is the cost incurred to acquire or
Purchases. The business also incurs a liability to improve an asset (e.g., buying machinery). Depreciation
the supplier (Creditors/Accounts Payable) — credit is not acquisition cost; it’s periodic allocation.
Creditors. So: Purchases A/c Dr Rs 50,000; To Creditors
A/c Rs 50,000. Deferred Revenue Expenditure- relates to expenditures
capitalized to be written off over future periods (e.g.,
Hence, option B is the correct answer. heavy advertising pre-opening). Depreciation is not
deferred revenue.
Q96. Outstanding salary is an amount the business
owes employees for work already performed but not Asset- Depreciation itself is not an asset; it’s an expense
yet paid. It’s an obligation to be settled in the future, so (though it reduces asset carrying value).
it’s a current liability on the balance sheet. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q100. Error of commission: A correct amount is posted
Q97. Revenue is recognized when the earning process to the wrong account of the same class (e.g., paid Rs
is complete or substantially complete and the amount 5,000 to X but posted to Y). This usually still keeps trial
can be measured reliably- not necessarily when cash balance equal because debit and credit were made,
is received. Similarly, expenses are recognized when though classification is wrong - so trial balance may still
incurred. This is fundamental to accrual accounting agree but ledgers are wrong. (Note: some commission
and to the matching principle (match revenues with errors do not affect Trial Balance if both sides are
related expenses). Example: A service rendered in recorded.)
March but paid in April is recognized as revenue in Error of omission: Transaction completely omitted
March under accrual basis. - will affect trial balance if only one side omitted? If
Consistency requires using the same accounting both sides omitted, TB still balances but accounts
policies period-to-period, not recognition timing. incomplete. However commonly omission leads to

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mismatch in subsidiary records but may or may not three are non-life/general insurance, not life insurance.
affect TB depending on omission specifics. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Error of principle: Wrong treatment violating
accounting principle (e.g., capital expense treated as Q104. While an audit may lead to the detection of
revenue). This usually keeps TB balanced (equal debits errors and fraud, these are considered secondary
and credits) but financial statements are misstated. objectives. The main goal is to give stakeholders-like
Compensating error: Two or more independent errors investors, creditors, and the public-assurance that the
that cancel each other out (e.g., overstatement of one financial statements are reliable.
debit and understatement of another debit by equal A. Detection of fraud: This is a secondary objective.
amounts). Because they offset, the trial balance totals Auditors are not responsible for finding all fraud,
remain equal. especially if it is not material. Their primary focus is
Hence, option D is the correct answer. to ensure the financial statements as a whole are
free from material misstatement, whether due to
Q101. Differences arise between the company’s cash error or fraud.
book and the bank’s pass book due to timing differences, B. Verification of assets: This is a part of the audit
bank charges, dishonored cheques, deposits in transit, process, but not the primary objective. Auditors
outstanding cheques, direct credits by customers, etc. verify assets to help form their overall opinion on
A Bank Reconciliation Statement (BRS) identifies and the financial statements’ accuracy.
reconciles these differences and shows the adjusted C. Expression of opinion on true & fair view of
bank balance. financial statements: This is the primary and
Hence, option C is the correct answer. overarching objective of an audit. The auditor’s
final report expresses a professional opinion on
Q102. Insurance contracts are contracts of utmost whether the financial statements accurately and
good faith (uberrimae fidei). This requires full and fairly represent the company’s financial position,
honest disclosure of all material facts by both parties- performance, and cash flows.
the insured must disclose facts that would influence D. Preparation of accounts: This is the responsibility
the insurer’s decision to accept risk or the premium; of the company’s accountant, not the auditor. The
the insurer must disclose the terms, exclusions, and auditor examines the accounts that have already
material conditions. been prepared.
Consequences of nondisclosure/misrepresentation: If Hence, option C is the correct answer.
the insured conceals or misrepresents material facts,
the insurer may avoid/void the contract or refuse Q105. Vouching means verifying the authenticity and
claims. For example, nondisclosure of a prior medical validity of entries recorded in the books by examining
condition in life insurance may lead to repudiation of supporting documents such as invoices, receipts,
claim. contracts, delivery challans, vouchers, bills, etc. It’s a
Hence, option C is the correct answer. core audit procedure aimed at establishing occurrence,
accuracy, and authorization of transactions.
Q103. Endowment policy: It’s a life insurance policy Examples: To vouch a sales entry, an auditor would
that pays a lump sum either on maturity (if the inspect sales invoices, delivery records, and customer
insured survives) or on death during the policy term. It order. For purchase, check supplier invoice and
combines protection and savings/investment element. payment evidence.
Common life products: term assurance, whole life,
endowment, ULIPs. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Other options: Q106. A is incorrect: NHM was launched in 2013, while
A (Marine Hull) - general insurance covering ship hulls NRHM was launched in 2005. The MMR target is 87
(marine risk). per 1 lakh live births, not below 50.
B (Fire) - general insurance covering fire/perils to • B is incorrect: NHM has two sub-schemes—
property. NRHM and NUHM. RMNCH+A is a programmatic
D (Motor) - general insurance covering vehicles. All component, not a sub-mission or sub-scheme.

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• C is correct: NHM aims to operationalize 1.5 lakh Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Ayushman Arogya Mandirs, earlier known as AB-
HWCs, by 2026. Q111. The Perm is the first nuclear-powered submarine
• D is incorrect: Health insurance is not listed as a to be equipped with Zircon hypersonic missiles as a
programmatic component in the NHM structure. standard feature.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • It was launched by Russia from the Arctic port of
Murmansk.
Q107. Statement 1 is correct: The scheme indeed Hence, option B is the correct answer.
focuses on encouraging enrolment in underserved
areas including aspirational districts and the NE region. Q112. The Kumbakonam betel leaf from Thanjavur
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of SKILL district received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag,
DEVELOPMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP making it the first agricultural product from the delta
(MSDE), not the Ministry of Labour and region to be awarded this recognition.
Employment, grants approval for durations beyond • With this, Tamil Nadu became India’s second-
1 year in optional trades. highest GI-awarded state after Uttar Pradesh.
• Statement 3 is correct: Designated trades are Hence, option A is the correct answer.
clearly defined in coordination with the CAC.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Q113. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
2023 was conferred upon Indian badminton stars
Q108. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Skill Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty, popularly
Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) handles known as the ‘Brothers of Destruction’.
the skilling component, NOT the Ministry of Finance. • The award was presented by the Ministry of Youth
• Statement 2 is correct: The e-Shram database is Affairs and Sports.
indeed used for identifying potential beneficiaries. • The duo was recognized for their historic
• Statement 3 is correct: The scheme restricts achievements in badminton during 2023 and 2024:
registration to 1 family member, with FAMILY o They clinched three BWF titles in 2023 – the
defined as husband, wife, and unmarried children. Swiss Open, Indonesia Open, and Korea Open.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. o They secured India’s first-ever gold medal
in badminton at the Asian Games 2023
Q109. A is correct. Nari Adalat is a new component to (Hangzhou).
provide alternate grievance redressal. o They also created history by becoming the first
• B is correct. Mahila Shakti Kendra and MPV Indian doubles pair to achieve World No. 1
schemes have been discontinued. ranking.
• C is incorrect. While Nari Adalat provides grievance Hence, option B is the correct answer.
redressal for petty disputes at Gram Panchayat
level, there is no mention of free legal aid for Q114. ITER is the world’s largest nuclear fusion project
property disputes or Gram Panchayat Courts as a designed to replicate the energy of the sun by fusing
judicial forum under the scheme. hydrogen atoms to produce clean, carbon-free power.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • The final module of the ITER Central Solenoid,
manufactured in the United States, is set to be
Q110. Statement 1 is incorrect: OSCs cater to all installed in the Tokamak reactor.
women, including girls below 18 years, affected by • India has played a critical role by developing
violence. several major components of the Central Solenoid,
• Statement 2 is correct: Services include assistance a magnet that drives the fusion process.
with FIR/NCR/DIR, legal aid, psycho-social • ITER is a collaborative effort of over 30 countries,
support, etc. including India, the US, China, Russia, Japan, South
• Statement 3 is correct: OSCs are also known as Korea, and EU nations.
Sakhi Centres.

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• It is headquartered at Saint-Paul-lès-Durance, • Plans to establish biomanufacturing hubs, bio-AI

France. hubs, and biofoundries to accelerate technology
• The project aims to generate 500 megawatts of development and commercialization.
power from just 50 megawatts of input, eventually • India’s bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014
achieving burning plasma (a self-sustaining fusion to $165.7 billion in 2024, targeting $300 billion by
reaction). 2030 under the BioE3 Policy.
• Brazil, however, is not a direct participant in ITER. • India ranks 12th globally and 3rd in the Asia-Pacific
Hence, option D is the correct answer. for biotechnology.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q115. NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through
Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls) Q117. Statement 1 – Correct
was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child o The e-rupee is used in interbank settlements
Development (MoWCD) in collaboration with the and secondary market transactions in
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship government securities.
(MSDE).
o It does not earn interest, unlike conventional
• Objective: To skill and empower adolescent savings in bank deposits.
girls aged 16–18 years (Class 10 pass) through
vocational training under PMKVY. • Statement 2 – Incorrect
• Pilot phase: Implemented in 9 districts across 9 o Donations exceeding ₹2,000 made in e-rupee
states, namely: are not eligible for tax deduction under
Section 80G, as they are treated the same as
o Maharashtra
cash donations.
o Gujarat
• Statement 3 – Correct
o Karnataka
o Transactions involving loans or deposits over
o Punjab ₹20,000 per day using e-rupee may attract
o Uttar Pradesh restrictions and penalties, since compliance
o Bihar rules treat e-rupee similar to cash in such
cases.
o Madhya Pradesh
About the e-Rupee (CBDC):
o Jharkhand
o Himachal Pradesh
• Launch & Growth: Introduced in 2022, initially as a
pilot for wholesale and retail segments; by March
• From the given list, the covered states are 2025, circulation crossed ₹1,000 crore.
Maharashtra (1), Gujarat (2), and Jharkhand (5).
• Nature: A fungible digital token issued in
Hence, option B is the correct answer. denominations equivalent to notes and coins,
accessed via digital wallets of participating banks.
Q116. The 6 priority thematic sectors identified under
the BioE3 Policy include: • Usage:
1. Bio-based chemicals and enzymes o Wholesale: Interbank settlements, G-Sec
transactions.
2. Functional foods and Smart proteins
o Retail: Payments by individuals and businesses.
3. Precision biotherapeutics
• Tax & Compliance:
4. Climate resilient agriculture
o Classified as sovereign legal tender, not as a
5. Carbon capture and its utilization capital asset or virtual digital asset.
6. Futuristic marine and space research o Donations above ₹2,000 in e-rupee, health
Bio- E3 policy: insurance premiums, or large loan/deposit
• Launched in 2024 by Department of Biotechnology transactions are treated as cash-equivalent,
(established in 1986), Ministry of Science & and hence not eligible for tax benefits.
Technology. o Restrictions apply to expenditure above

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₹10,000 and loan/deposit transactions above the “Convention on Biological Hazards in the Working
₹20,000, if made in e-rupee. Environment (C 192)”.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. • This Convention is legally binding and obligates
member states to:
Q118. Statement 1 – Correct: The Axiom-4 Mission was o Frame national policies to prevent workplace
launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket, carrying exposure to biological hazards.
the Crew Dragon capsule named Grace.
o Strengthen preparedness for accidents,
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: India’s last human outbreaks, epidemics, and pandemics.
spaceflight was undertaken by Rakesh Sharma in
1984, not by Kalpana Chawla in 2003. Complementary Recommendation:
o Chawla was part of NASA’s space shuttle • Accompanied by a detailed recommendation on:
program and tragically lost her life in the o Risk assessments and early warning systems.
Columbia disaster. Therefore, Axiom-4 marks o Response strategies, worker training, and
India’s return to human spaceflight after 41 information-sharing measures.
years, not since 2003.
Other outcomes of the 113th ILC (2025):
o Shubhanshu Shukla became the first Indian
astronaut to visit the ISS through a privately • Resolution on decent work in the platform
contracted mission. economy, paving the way for a new Convention
and Recommendation in 2026.
About the Axiom-4 Mission:
• Palestine approved as a non-member observer
• Conducted by Axiom Space (USA) in collaboration state.
with SpaceX and NASA.
• Amendments adopted to the Maritime Labour
• Fourth all-private astronaut mission to the ISS. Convention (2006).
• Launch Site: NASA Kennedy Space Center, Cape • Resolution passed to reduce informal employment
Canaveral, Florida. and to support the Second World Summit for
• Duration: 14-day stay at the ISS. Social Development in Doha (Nov 2025).
• Objectives: Conduct about 60 scientific About the ILO:
experiments from 31 countries, including 8 key • Established in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles.
experiments by ISRO in microgravity, human
physiology, Earth observation, and space • Became a specialized UN agency in 1946.
technology. • HQ: Geneva, Switzerland.
• Crew Composition: • Members: 187 states.
o Commander: Peggy Whitson (USA) – veteran • Unique as a tripartite UN body, bringing together
astronaut, on her fifth space mission. governments, employers, and workers.
o Crew: Shubhanshu Shukla (India), Slawosz • Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.
Uznański (Poland), and Tibor Kapu (Hungary). Hence, option D is the correct answer.
• Historic Firsts:
o First time astronauts from India, Poland, and Q120. Statement 1: Correct - Intellect Design Arena is a
Hungary flew together on a commercial ISS member of the consortium managing GeM.
mission. • Statement 2: Correct - Infibeam is a member of the
o First ISS visits for Poland and Hungary. consortium managing GeM.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. • Statement 3: Correct - Tata Communications is
also a member of the consortium managing GeM.
Q119. The 113th International Labour Conference More about Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
(ILC), held in Geneva from 2–13 June 2025, adopted • India’s online marketplace for public procurement.
the first-ever international labour standard on
biological hazards in the workplace, formally titled • Launch: 2016

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• Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(Department for Promotion of Industry and
Internal Trade)
• Launched as a part of Digital India initiative
• Aim: To enhance transparency, efficiency and
speed in public procurement
• Three Pillars: Efficiency, Transparency and
Inclusivity
• Owner: GeM SPV (Special Purpose Vehicle),
registered under section 8, Companies Act 2013
• Run by consortium of Intellect Design Arena,
Infibeam and Tata Communications.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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Directions (Q1-Q5): Given below are five items, Directions (Q6-Q10): Each of the five items given
comprising sentences in which one word has below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one
been underlined. Choose the response A, B, from among the options A, B, C and D that best
C and D which is closest to the meaning of the describes the phrase and mark your response in
underlined word and mark your response in the the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Answer Sheet accordingly. Q6. She tended to have a jaundiced eye when
Q1. The two families maintained a secret it came to new ideas, always skeptical and
vendetta for years, seeking revenge over an doubting their potential.
old insult that no one clearly remembered A. A positive perspective
anymore. B. An objective view
A. Quandary C. An open mind
B. Epitome D. A biased or skeptical perspective
C. Mirage Q7. The rank and file of the organization were
D. Feud not consulted about the decision, leading to
Q2. A zealot for environmental protection, she dissatisfaction and protests.
refused plastic completely and actively A. The top leaders
educated others on sustainable ways to live B. The ordinary members
daily. C. The external stakeholders
A. Fanatic D. The management team
B. Cynic Q8. Though the team won the match, it was
C. Stoic a Pyrrhic victory, as several players were
D. Nihilist injured and unable to continue.
Q3. His growing senility caused him to forget A. A decisive and easy victory
names, places, and familiar faces, making B. A victory with no consequences
everyday activities confusing and sometimes C. A victory achieved at too great a cost
even dangerous. D. A victory won by cheating
A. Audacity Q9. His parents tried to hold him in leash, limiting
B. Serenity his freedom, but he longed for independence
C. Tenacity and adventure.
D. Dementia A. Encourage his behavior
Q4. Vandalizing religious symbols is a form of B. Give him complete freedom
sacrilege, deeply hurting the sentiments of C. Control or restrain his actions
those who hold such places in reverence. D. Protect him from danger
A. Epiphany Q10. The claims about the new product being
B. Alchemy revolutionary were all moonshine, as it
C. Blasphemy failed to deliver any promised results.
D. Syntax A. Genuine and true
Q5. Her supercilious attitude annoyed everyone; B. Unbelievable but true
she acted superior and dismissed others’ C. False and deceptive
opinions as if only her thoughts truly D. Scientific and well-researched
mattered.
A. Arrogant Directions(Q11-Q15): Each of the following
B. Gregarious five items in this section consists of a sentence,
C. Misanthropic parts of which have been jumbled. These parts
D. Obsequious are labelled as a, b, c and d. Given below each
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sentence are four sequences, namely A, B, C and d. global economic uncertainty

D. You are required to rearrange the jumbled A. acbd
parts to form the most appropriate sentence B. cabd
and mark your response in the Answer Sheet C. abdc
accordingly. D. dbac
Q11.
a. and reducing carbon emissions Directions (Q16-Q20): Read the following passage
b. reducing energy costs while promoting carefully and answer the five questions that
sustainability follow by selecting your answers based solely on
c. convert sunlight into electricity, the content of the passage and the opinion of the
d. solar rooftop power systems author only.
A. acbd Ins Arighaat is a significant historical and cultural
B. adbc site that holds deep value in the history of the
C. dcba region. Located in a prominent area, this spot is
D. dcab a symbol of rich heritage and historical events.
Though not as widely known in contemporary
Q12.
discussions, its importance is embedded in local
a. a convict’s sentence,
lore and historical records.
b. remission refers to the reduction of
c. typically granted based on good behavior, The term “Arighaat” translates to a place where
d. health, or special circumstances boats docked, a common practice along the
A. bacd riverbanks of ancient civilizations. Arighaat, as the
B. acdb name suggests, was once a vital dock or landing
C. dcab place for trade, transport, and communication,
D. bcad primarily involving river or sea transport.
Historically, these sites served as crucial points
Q13. for the movement of goods and people, acting as
a. enabling space exploration capabilities economic and social hubs.
b. and precise solar observations
c. advanced satellite formation flying, Ins Arighaat, however, is not just a place for
d. the Proba-3 mission aims to demonstrate transport but also a site of historical significance.
A. acbd Over the years, it has witnessed significant political,
B. dcab social, and economic activities. It is believed to
C. dabc have played a crucial role during trade routes
D. bcad that spanned various regions, fostering cultural
exchanges and economic prosperity. This place
Q14. was instrumental in shaping the development of
a. Sudan’s civil war, excluding the surrounding area.
b. Sudanese factions, focusing
c. a UK-hosted conference aims to end In addition to its historical value, Ins Arighaat holds
d. on humanitarian aid and diplomacy cultural importance. Over centuries, it has been
A. acbd a gathering spot for traders, travelers, and local
B. cabd communities. The river that once fed the bustling
C. abdc activities of the ghat is now a quiet witness to
D. dbac the changes the region has gone through. Today,
Arighaat is a symbol of resilience and the enduring
Q15. spirit of the people who have called it home.
a. the U.S.-China trade war escalates, with
Modern times have altered much of the landscape
b. tariffs on U.S. goods, heightening
around Arighaat. Urbanization and industrialization
c. China imposing 125%
have impacted the traditional activities that once
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thrived here. However, the essence of Arighaat Q20. What role did Ins Arighaat play in historical
remains intact in the memories of the locals and trade routes?
the records of historians. This historic landmark A. It acted as a key center for trade, culture,
continues to serve as a reminder of the past and a and communication.
symbol of cultural richness that contributes to the B. It was a site of economic decline and loss
identity of the region. of trade.
Q16. What does the term “Arighaat” refer to in C. It served as a symbol for political power
the passage? during ancient rule.
A. A place where boats are docked for trade D. It facilitated cultural exchanges but not
and communication. economic activities.
B. A historical site where travelers meet and Q21. 8 members are to be selected from a group
exchange ideas. of 9 males and 7 females. In how many ways
C. A cultural site where political events were will the members with at most 3 females
held in the past. and at least 4 males be selected?
D. A landmark associated with ancient A. 6472 ways
religious practices and ceremonies. B. 6286 ways
Q17. Which activity primarily took place at Ins C. 6435 ways
Arighaat in ancient times? D. 6225 ways
A. Cultural exchange and social gatherings of Q22. For what value of n, the sum of digits in the
travelers and traders. number (6n+1) is 1 (keep on adding the digits
B. The movement of goods and people via till you get a single digit)
river or sea transport. A. For n = 0 only
C. Religious ceremonies that honored the B. For any whole number
region’s cultural heritage. C. For any natural number
D. The establishment of political power and D. For any natural number greater than 1
leadership for trade routes.
Q23. Find the total number of students in the
Q18. What is the significance of Ins Arighaat in class.
modern times? Statement I: Average age of boys is 18 years
A. It represents the resilience of the people and average age of total students of the
in the region. class is 17 years. Ratio of boys and girls is
B. It is a thriving trade and transport hub like 3:2.
in the past.
C. It is now primarily a tourist attraction and Statement II: 40% boys and 30% girls are
shopping hub. absent in the class. Total number of students
D. It serves as a major political center for the present in the class is 320.
region. A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
to answer the question, while the data
Q19. What impact has modern urbanization had in statement II alone is not sufficient to
on Ins Arighaat? answer the question
A. It has increased trade and made Arighaat B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
more accessible. to answer the question, while the data
B. It has significantly impacted traditional in statement I alone is not sufficient to
activities that once thrived there. answer the question
C. It has led to the destruction of the Arighaat C. The data either in statement I alone or in
region’s historical importance. statement II alone is sufficient to answer
D. It has preserved the original customs and the question
made it a tourist center.

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D. The data given in both statements I and the tank in 17(1/7) hours and Pipe A and B
II together are necessary to answer the together can fill the tank in 24 hours.
question Statement II: Pipe A, B and C together can fill
Q24. A hollow pipe which has a diameter of the tank in 13(1/3) hours and the efficiency
0.75inches is cut into 3 equal parts. The of B is 50% more than that of A and the
resulting portions are then cut into 12, 18 efficiency of B is 25% less than that of C.
and 32 equal parts, respectively. If each of A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
the resulting portions have integer length, to answer the question, while the data
then the minimum length of the original in statement II alone is not sufficient to
pipe must be answer the question
A. 6912 units B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
B. 864 units to answer the question, while the data
C. 288 units in statement I alone is not sufficient to
D. 240 unit answer the question
C. The data either in statement I alone or in
Q25. Six persons sitting in a row are given one statement II alone is sufficient to answer
toffee each from three types of toffees such the question
that no two adjacent persons gets same D. The data given in both statements I and II
type of toffee. In how many ways can the together are not sufficient to answer the
toffees be distributed among the students? question
A. 120
B. 24 Q29. Five people out of whom only two can drive
C. 96 are to be seated in a five-seater car with
D. 48 two seats in front and three in the rear. The
people who know driving don’t sit together.
Q26. The greatest five-digit number which is Only someone who knows driving can sit on
exactly divisible by each one of the numbers the driver’s seat. Find the number of ways
12, 18, 21 and 28 is the five people can be seated.
A. 98286 A. 30
B. 92888 B. 50
C. 99284 C. 38
D. 99792 D. 36
Q27. The average weight of the boys in the class Q30. What is side of the rhombus?
is 30 kg and the number of girls in the class
Statement I: Perimeter of the rhombus is
is 18. If the average weight of the class is
equal to the perimeter of the square whose
36 kg and the one new student joined the
area is 400 cm2
class, then the average weight of the class
is increased by 4 kg. If the weight of the Statement II: Area of the rhombus is 216 cm2
new student is 160 kg, then find the average and the one of the diagonals of the rhombus
weight of the girls in the class? is 24 cm.
A. 30 kg A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient
B. 36 kg to answer the question, while the data
C. 40 kg in statement II alone is not sufficient to
D. 42 kg answer the question
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
Q28. In how many hours pipe A and C together to answer the question, while the data
can fill the tank? in statement I alone is not sufficient to
Statement I: Pipe B and C together can fill answer the question

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C. The data either in statement I alone or in Q33. A person started their journey from home at
statement II alone is sufficient to answer 14:30 hours and drove to a village, reaching
the question there when the village clock indicated 15:15
D. The data given in both statements I and II hours. After a 25-minute stay, they drove
together are not sufficient to answer the back using a different route, 1.25 times the
Question length of the first route, at a speed twice
Q31. Find the profit percent earned by shopkeeper as fast, reaching home at 16:00 hours. In
after selling two items A and B together. relation to the home clock, what time does
the village clock show?
Statement I: Ratio of cost price of items A. 5 minutes fast
A and B is 3: 5 and profit percent earned B. 7 minutes fast
after selling items A and B is 20% and 8% C. 5 minutes slow
respectively. D. 10 minutes fast
Statement II: Total cost price of items A and Q34. In a certain code, ‘756’ means ‘red chair
B is Rs.800. The ratio of selling price of items walk’, ‘532’ means ‘cup chair fruit’ and ‘754’
A to B is 2: 3 and difference between its means ‘white chair walk’. The digit in the
selling prices is Rs.180. code that indicates `fruit’ is
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient A. 2
to answer the question, while the data B. 5
in statement II alone is not sufficient to C. 3
answer the question D. Cannot be determined
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient
to answer the question, while the data Q35. Which of the following statements
in statement I alone is not sufficient to regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
answer the question Management (FRBM) Act is/are correct?
C. The data either in statement I alone or in 1. It aims to bring transparency in fiscal
statement II alone is sufficient to answer operations.
the question 2. It prohibits RBI from buying government
D. The data given in both statements I and II securities in the primary market.
together are not sufficient to answer the 3. It sets a target for inflation management
Question by the RBI.
Choose the correct answer from the options
Q32. Two statements are given followed by two
given below?
conclusions:
A. 1 and 2 only
Statements: B. 2 and 3 only
All numbers are divisible by 5 C. 1 and 3 only
All numbers are divisible by 11 D. 1, 2 and 3
Conclusion-I: All numbers are divisible by 10 Q36. Which of the following statements regarding
Conclusion-II: All numbers are divisible by Demand and Price Elasticity of Demand is/
55 are correct?
Which of the above conclusions logically 1. Price elasticity of demand measures the
follow/follows from the above given responsiveness of quantity demanded to
statement? a change in the price of the good.
A. Only conclusion I 2. If the demand for a good is perfectly
B. Only conclusion II elastic, a small increase in price will lead
C. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II to zero demand.
D. Both conclusions I and conclusion II 3. Necessities usually have more elastic
demand than luxuries.

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Which of the statements given above is/are C. Transport Layer

correct? D. Application Layer
A. 1 only Q42. Which programming paradigm is most
B. 1 and 2 only associated with functions and immutability?
C. 2 and 3 only A. Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. Procedural Programming
Q37. Consider the following statements regarding C. Functional Programming
the “Primary Deficit”: D. Logic Programming.
1. It is the difference between Fiscal Deficit Q43. Which of the following reflects the status of
and Revenue Deficit. a person as belonging to the labour force,
2. A zero primary deficit indicates that the if they have been working or looking for
government is borrowing only to meet work during the majority of the 365 days
interest obligations. preceding a survey?
3. A rising primary deficit suggests increasing A. Current Status
fiscal stress. B. Usual Status
Which of the following statements is/are C. Temporary Employment Status
correct? D. Potential Employment Status
A. 1 and 2 only Q44. The Pilot’s Association is an example of
B. 1 and 3 only which type of union?
C. 2 and 3 only A. Industrial Unions
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. General Unions
Q38. According to the 2011 Census, which Indian C. Occupational/Craft Unions
state has the highest urban population in D. Mixed Unions
absolute numbers? Q45. Who is known as the “Father of Trade Union
A. Maharashtra Movement” in India and led the agitation
B. Uttar Pradesh for trade union legislation?
C. Tamil Nadu A. Lala Lajpat Rai
D. Gujrat B. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q39. The Gender Related Development C. B.R Ambedkar
Index (GDI) was included in the UNDP D. N.M Lokhande
Human Development Report in which year? Q46. Which of the following statements regarding
A. 1992 the Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) is incorrect?
B. 1993 A. HMS was founded in Calcutta during a
C. 1994 trade union conference held from 24th to
D. 1995 26th December 1948.
Q40. In machine learning, which algorithm is best B. R.S. Ruikar was the first president of the
suited for categorical target variables? Hind Mazdoor Sabha.
A. Linear Regression C. The HMS is affiliated with the International
B. Decision Tree Trade Union Confederation (ITUC), which
C. K-Means Clustering represents 175 million workers in 153
D. Principal Component Analysis (PCA) countries.
D. The HMS has been a politically aligned
Q41. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible
trade union, heavily influenced by political
for reliable data transfer and error detection?
parties.
A. Network Layer
B. Data Link Layer

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Q47. Which of the following individuals is (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986,
credited with first using the term “collective allows the Central Government to amend
bargaining” in 1891 in Britain, which has the Schedule by adding or omitting
since become a key process in industrial hazardous occupations with a notice
relations for managing conflicts and fostering period of at least 6 months.
harmonious relationships between workers D. The Trade Unions Act, 1926, mandates
and employers? that a notice of dissolution signed by
A. Karl Marx 7 members and the Secretary must be
B. Beatrice Webb submitted to the Registrar within 14 days
C. John Maynard Keynes of the dissolution.
D. George Bernard Shaw Q50. Which of the following is a correct statement
Q48. As per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, regarding the Industrial Employment
Section 3, which of the following statements (Standing Orders) Act, 1946?
regarding the responsibility for the payment A. The Act applies only to industrial
of wages is/are correct? establishments where 50 or more
1. The manager is responsible for paying workmen are employed.
wages in factories. B. The Act applies to industrial establishments
2. In industrial establishments, the person where 100 or more workmen are employed
responsible for supervision and control is or were employed on any day during the
accountable for paying wages. preceding 12 months.
3. Railway administration or a nominated C. The Act applies only to establishments in
person is responsible for the payment of the public sector.
wages on railways. D. The Act does not apply to factories
4. If a contractor fails to make the required engaged in manufacturing activities.
payments, the contractor is the only one Q51. Which of the following is a correct statement
held accountable. regarding The Trade Unions Act, 1926?
Select the correct answer using the code A. The individual must be at least 18 years
given below: old to be eligible for office in a registered
A. 1 and 2 Trade Union.
B. 1, 2, and 3 B. Anyone aged 14 or more can be a member
C. 2, 3, and 4 of a registered Trade Union.
D. All of the above C. A registered Trade Union can change its
name with the approval of at least half of
Q49. Which of the following statements is
its total members.
incorrect according to the laws mentioned?
D. At least one-fourth of the total number of
A. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, office-bearers in every registered Trade
if an employee works beyond normal Union must work in the industry associated
hours, the employer is required to pay the with the union.
overtime rate fixed under the Act or by
any applicable law in force, whichever is Q52. According to The Factories Act, 1948, which
higher. of the following statements is correct?
B. The Certifying Officer under the Industrial A. A factory is defined as any premises with
Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, 5 or more workers where manufacturing
is typically the Labor Commissioner or a takes place.
Regional Labor Commissioner, designated B. The exemption from provisions of the Act
by the appropriate Government. during a public emergency can be made
C. The Child and Adolescent Labour for more than three months at a time.

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C. In factories where at least 1000 workers adjudicating industrial disputes related to

are employed, the occupier must employ matters specified in the Second Schedule.
Safety Officers. 2. The presiding officer of a Labour Court
D. A factory cannot be exempted must have been a District Judge for at
during a public emergency under any least 7 years.
circumstances. 3. The presiding officer of a Labour Court
Q53. What is the primary purpose of a subnet can be appointed if they have been the
mask in networking? presiding officer of a Labour Court under
any Provincial Act or State Act for at least
A. To assign unique MAC addresses to devices
5 years.
B. To determine the network and host
portions of an IP address Select the correct answer using the code
C. To encrypt data packets during given below:
transmission A. Only 1
D. To manage DNS queries. B. 1 and 2
Q54. In relational databases, which type of JOIN C. 1 and 3
returns only matching records from both D. All of the above
tables? Q59. Under The Child and Adolescent Labour
A. LEFT JOIN (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986,
B. RIGHT JOIN which of the following is included under the
C. INNER JOIN term “establishment”?
D. FULL OUTER JOIN. A. Only factories and workshops
Q55. Which technology is used to create virtual B. Only restaurants and hotels
machines on a single physical server? C. Only commercial establishments and
shops
A. Cloud Computing
D. A shop, commercial establishment,
B. Virtualization
workshop, farm, residential hotel,
C. Edge Computing
restaurant, eating house, theatre or
D. Load Balancing
other place of public amusement or
Q56. Which component of a CPU is responsible entertainment
for performing arithmetic and logical
Q60. Which of the following statements
operations?
regarding The Inter-State Migrant Workmen
A. Control Unit (Regulation of Employment and Conditions
B. Register Unit of Service) Act, 1979 is correct?
C. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
A. The Act applies to establishments
D. Memory Management Unit (MMU)
employing 3 or more inter-State migrant
Q57. What is the main function of an operating workmen.
system’s kernel? B. Inter-State migrant workman” refers to
A. Managing hardware resources any person recruited by a contractor in one
B. Providing a graphical user interface State for employment in another State,
C. Handling external user requests regardless of the principal employer’s
D. Managing internet connections. knowledge.
Q58. Which of the following statements regarding C. Registers and records of inter-State
the Labour Court under The Industrial migrant workmen are only required for
Disputes Act, 1947 is/are correct? contractors, not principal employers.
D. The Act applies only to establishments
1. The appropriate Government may
where workmen are recruited for work
constitute one or more Labour Courts for
within the same State.
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Q61. Which of the following statements regarding B. Barometer

The Contract Labour (Regulation and C. Anemometer
Abolition) Act, 1970 is/are correct? D. Odometer
1. The Act applies to every establishment in Q64. Which of the following statements regarding
which 20 or more workmen are employed viscosity is incorrect?
as contract labour. A. Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to flow,
2. The Act does not apply to establishments caused by internal friction.
where work is of an intermittent or casual B. Water is more viscous than honey, which
nature. makes it flow more readily.
3. Work in an establishment is deemed C. Viscosity results from the interaction
intermittent if performed for more than among identical molecules within the
120 days in the preceding 12 months. same material.
Select the correct answer using the code D. The SI unit of viscosity is Poiseuille (Pl),
given below: and its other units include N·s/m² or Pa·s.
A. Only 1 Q65. Which of the following laws states that the
B. 1 and 2 heat produced per unit time in a conductor,
C. 1 and 3 when an electric current passes through it,
D. All of the above is directly proportional to the square of the
Q62. As per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, current?
which of the following statements is A. Ohm’s Law
incorrect? B. Faraday’s Law
A. The Act applies to every factory and every C. Joule’s Law
other establishment employing twenty or D. Kirchhoff’s Law
more persons during an accounting year. Q66. Which of the following statements regarding
B. The term “Allocable Surplus” refers to 67% acids is correct?
of the available surplus for companies A. Acids turn blue litmus paper green.
other than banking companies that have B. Acids are substances that taste sweet and
not made arrangements for declaration do not react with metals.
and payment within India, while it is 60% C. Acids have a pH value of less than 7 and
in other cases. can donate H⁺ ions.
C. The definition of “Employee” under the D. Acids cannot neutralize alkalis and are
Act includes apprentices employed on chemically unreactive.
a salary or wage not exceeding ₹21,000
per month in any industry for skilled or Q67. Which of the following statements regarding
unskilled work. Graphene is/are correct?
D. The minimum bonus shall be 8.33% of the 1. Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms
salary or wage earned by the employee arranged in a hexagonal honeycomb
during the accounting year or ₹100, lattice.
whichever is higher, regardless of whether 2. It is the strongest compound known,
the employer has allocable surplus. being 100-300 times stronger than steel.
3. Graphene is an excellent conductor of
Q63. In automobiles, a specific device is installed
heat and electricity, making it highly
to measure the total distance traveled by the
useful in electronic applications.
vehicle over time. This device plays a crucial
role in tracking vehicle usage, scheduling Select the correct answer using the code
maintenance, and assessing fuel efficiency. given below:
What is the name of this device? A. Only 1 and 2
A. Speedometer B. Only 2 and 3
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C. Only 1 and 3 3. Hepatitis D always occurs independently

D. 1, 2, and 3 of Hepatitis B.
Q68. Which of the following statements is Select the correct answer using the code
incorrect regarding the features of an atom? given below:
A. All matter is made up of very tiny particles A. 1 and 2
called atoms. B. Only 1
B. Atoms cannot be created or destroyed in a C. 1 and 3
chemical reaction. D. 2 and 3
C. Atoms of a given element are identical in Q72. Match the following B vitamins with their
mass and chemical properties. corresponding chemical names:
D. Atoms of different elements have different
masses and chemical properties. Column A Column B
Q69. Which of the following terms refers to 1. Vitamin B1 A. Pyridoxine
the immunity that is pathogen-specific 2. Vitamin B2 B. Riboflavin
and comes after birth through means like
3. Vitamin B3 C. Thiamine
vaccination, antibiotics, and immunization?
A. Innate Immunity 4. Vitamin B5 D. Niacinamide or Niacin
B. Passive Immunity 5. Vitamin B6 E. Pantothenic acid
C. Natural Immunity
D. Acquired Immunity Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Q70. Which of the following statements is
A. 1-B, 2-C, 3-E, 4-D, 5-A
incorrect regarding Haemophilia, Sickle Cell
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B, 5-D
Anaemia, and Thalassemia?
C. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A
A. In Haemophilia, a single protein in the D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-C
blood clotting cascade is affected, leading
to non-stop bleeding. Q73. Which of the following statements regarding
B. In Sickle Cell Anaemia, the defect is caused the August Offer of 1940 is/are correct?
by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) 1. The August Offer proposed the formation
with Valine (Val) in the haemoglobin chain, of a representative Indian body after the
causing sickle-shaped RBCs. war to frame a constitution for India and
C. Thalassemia is caused by a genetic aimed at granting India Dominion status.
abnormality that affects the production 2. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was
of haemoglobin and leads to improper expanded to include more Indians
oxygen transport and red blood cell than whites, but the British retained
destruction. control over defence, finance, and home
D. None of the above portfolios.
3. The August Offer was rejected by Congress
Q71. The statements below pertain to different
but was accepted by the Muslim League
types of hepatitis. Which of the following
without reservations.
combinations of statements is/are correct?
1. Hepatitis A is caused by Hepatitis A virus Select the correct answer using the code
and is usually acute, with symptoms not given below:
recognized in young people. A. 1 and 2
2. Hepatitis B can be contracted through B. Only 1
contact with blood, saliva, and fluids C. 2 and 3
from an infected person and is 50 to 100 D. All of the above
times more infectious than HIV.

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Q74. Match the following Congress sessions with D. All of the above
their corresponding presidents: Q77. Which of the following statements is
Column A (Session) Column B (President) incorrect regarding Mahayana Buddhism?
1. 2nd, Calcutta, 1886 A. Badruddin Tyabji A. The ultimate goal of Mahayana Buddhism
is spiritual upliftment.
2. 3rd, Madras, 1887 B. Shri Dadabhai
B. Mahayana Buddhism is also known as
Naoroji
“Bodhisattvayana,” or the “Bodhisattva
3. 4th, Allahabad, C. Sir William Vehicle.”
1888 Wedderburn C. Mahayana Buddhism believes in universal
4. 5th, Bombay, 1889 D. George Yule liberation from suffering for all beings.
D. The Mahayana scholars predominantly
Select the correct answer using the code
used Pali as a language.
given below:
A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C Q78. Which of the following statements correctly
B. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A describe the characteristics of Indo-Islamic
C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D architecture?
D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B 1. The use of arches and domes in
construction is a feature of the arcuate
Q75. Which of the following statements regarding
style.
the Aligarh Movement is/are correct?
2. The use of sculptures as decoration was
1. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the encouraged in Indo-Islamic architecture.
Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College 3. Pietra-Dura is a technique that involves
in 1875 at Aligarh to promote English inlaying precious stones into stone walls.
education among Muslims. 4. Water in the premises was used for
2. The Aligarh Movement helped establish religious, cooling, and decorative
the Aligarh Muslim University, which purposes.
grew from the Mohammadan Anglo-
Oriental College. Select the correct answer using the code
3. In the later stages, the Aligarh Movement given below:
became strongly pro-Congress and A. 1, 3, and 4
supported the Indian freedom struggle. B. Only 1 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code C. 2, 3, and 4
given below: D. 1, 2, 4
A. 1 and 2 Q79. Which of the following statements is
B. 2 and 3 incorrect regarding the characteristics of the
C. Only 1 Gandhara, Mathura, and Amravati Schools
D. 1 and 3 of Art?
Q76. Which of the following statement(s) about 1. The Gandhara School was heavily
Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s literary works is/are influenced by Greek and Hellenistic
incorrect? elements.
A. He translated the Vedas and Upanishads 2. The Mathura School developed in regions
into Bengali to demonstrate that ancient influenced by external cultures.
Hindu texts support monotheism. 3. The Amravati School primarily used white
B. His work Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin was marble for sculpture making.
written in English in 1809. 4. The Gandhara School is known for its
C. Roy separated the moral and philosophical Buddhist imagery, while the Mathura
message of the New Testament from its School’s theme involved Hinduism,
miracle stories in Percepts of Jesus. Buddhism, and Jainism.

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Select the correct answer using the code B. Till 1958, it dealt with both urban and rural
given below: local governments, but after 1958, it dealt
A. 1 and 2 with matters of urban local government
B. Only 2 only.
C. 1 and 3 C. The Council is a decision-making body and
D. 3 and 4 has executive powers.
D. It consists of the Minister for Urban
Q80. Which of the following statements about
Development in the Government of India
the Pottery in Vedic Age is incorrect?
and the ministers for local self-government
A. The Rig Vedic sites have Painted Grey in States.
Ware (PGW), but iron objects and cereals
are absent. Q83. Which of the following statements regarding
B. The Later Vedic sites are considered to be the constitutional status of India is/are
the iron-phase of PGW. correct?
C. Mathura was the smallest PGW site during 1. The term ‘federation’ has been used in
the Vedic Age. the Indian Constitution to describe India’s
D. The Painted Grey Ware culture was political structure.
confined to the Gangetic plain and 2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar stated that the phrase
Ghaggar–Hakra valley. ‘Union of States’ was chosen to indicate
that no state has the right to secede from
Q81. Which of the following combinations of
the Union.
statements is/are correct?
3. As per Article 1 of the Indian Constitution,
1. Article 44 - State shall endeavour to “India is a Union of States.”
secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil
Code throughout the territory of India. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Article 45 - State shall provide early given below:
childhood care and education for all A. 1 and 2
children until they complete the age of B. 2 and 3
six years. This Directive was changed by C. 1 and 3
the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act D. 1, 2, and 3
of 2002. Q84. Which of the following statements about
3. Article 48A - State shall endeavour to the National Commission for Backward
protect and improve the environment Classes (NCBC) is correct?
and to safeguard the forests and wildlife A. The NCBC was established as a
of the country. This Directive was added constitutional body in 1993 under Article
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 340 of the Indian Constitution.
Act of 1976. B. The NCBC comprises a Chairperson, Vice-
Select the correct answer using the code Chairperson, and five other members
given below: appointed by the Prime Minister.
A. 1 and 2 C. The NCBC has the authority to enforce laws
B. 2 and 3 and implement policies for the welfare of
C. 1 and 3 Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
D. 1, 2, and 3 D. The NCBC has all the powers of a civil court
while investigating complaints related to
Q82. Which of the following statements is the deprivation of rights of socially and
incorrect regarding the Central Council of educationally backward classes.
Local Government?
Q85. Which of the following statements is
A. It was set up in 1954 under Article 263 of
incorrect regarding the World Press Freedom
the Constitution of India.
Index (WPFI) 2024?
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A. India ranked 159 among 180 countries in provisions related to marriage and live-in
the annual WPFI 2024. relationships.
B. WPFI is based on 3 indicators- Political, 3. The UCC mandates the registration
Economic, Security of marriages within 90 days of their
C. The top three countries in the WPFI 2024 occurrence.
are Norway, Denmark, and Sweden. Select the correct answer using the code
D. The WPFI 2024 is released by Reporters given below
Without Borders (RSF), based in Paris.
A. Only 1
Q86. Select the correct statements regarding the B. Only 2
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): C. 1 and 2
1. The NHRC is a statutory body established D. All of the above
under the Protection of Human Rights Act Q89. Goods costing Rs 10,000 were destroyed by
(PHRA), 1993. fire, but no entry was recorded in the books.
2. The NHRC Chairperson and members are This error:
appointed by the President of India on
A. will not affect the net profit
the recommendation of the committee
B. will affect the net profit
headed by the Chief Justice of India.
C. will not affect the trial balance
3. The tenure of the NHRC Chairperson and
D. Both B and C
members is five years or till the age of
seventy-five years, whichever is earlier. Q90. When total assets are subtracted by
outside liabilities, the result will be equal to
Select the correct answer using the code
___________.
given below
A. Capital
A. Only 1
B. Net Income
B. 1 and 2
C. Gross Working Capital
C. 2 and 3
D. Goodwill
D. All of the above
Q91. Which of the following best states the
Q87. As per the Citizenship Amendment Act
primary purpose of an insurance contract?
(CAA), 2019, which of the following groups
of people are not considered as illegal A. To generate regular income for the insured
migrants under the Act if they fulfill the B. To indemnify financial losses from
conditions? unforeseen events
C. To increase the wealth of the insured
A. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists,
D. To eliminate all risks from life
Jains, and Parsis
B. Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, or Q92. Which of the following statements is/are
Christians incorrect?
C. Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Muslims, 1. Error of recording arises when a
and Parsis transaction is incorrectly recorded in the
D. Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Buddhists, and books of original entry.
Parsis 2. Error of Casting is also known as the error
Q88. Select the correct combination regarding of totalling.
the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) passed by 3. Error in Carrying forward is a type of error
Uttarakhand: of omission.
A. 1 and 2 only
1. Uttarakhand is the first state in India to
B. 2 and 3 only
pass a law on Uniform Civil Code (UCC).
C. 1 and 3 only
2. The UCC in Uttarakhand excludes
D. Only 3
the LGBTQIA+ community from its

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Q93. To which account is the gain or loss on Q99. Premium received on issue of shares is
disposal of fixed assets transferred? shown on ________________.
A. Profit & Loss A/c A. liability side of the balance sheet
B. Capital Reserve A/c B. asset side of the balance sheet
C. Revaluation Reserve A/c C. credit side of the p&l a/c
D. Capital A/c D. credit side of the p&l a/c
Q94. If a cashbook is prepared then there is no Q100. In a share of Rs 50, on which Rs 30 has
need to prepare ___________________. been paid, is forfeited, it can be issued at a
A. Cash A/c minimum price of ____.
B. Journal Proper A. Rs 20 per share
C. Purchases Book B. Rs 30 per share
D. Sales Book C. Rs 50 per share
D. Rs 40 per share
Q95. Which of the following is an example of an
external user of accounting information? Q101. Realisation account is opened at the time
A. CEO of ________________.
B. Labour Unions A. Admission of a new partner
C. Plant managers B. Retirement of a partner
D. Financial Officer C. Dissolution of the Firm
D. In all the above situations
Q96. Which of the following correctly
differentiates Capital Expenditure from Q102. A private company had a turnover of ₹195
Revenue Expenditure? crore and borrowings of ₹90 crore from a
A. Capital Expenditure is recurring; Revenue bank during the preceding financial year. Is
Expenditure is non-recurring it required to appoint an internal auditor?
B. Capital Expenditure is transferred to A. Yes, because internal auditor to be
P&L; Revenue Expenditure is recorded in appointed by all Private Companies
balance sheet B. No, Private Companies are exempted
C. Capital Expenditure benefits more than from appointing Internal Auditor
one year; Revenue Expenditure benefits C. Yes, because borrowings exceeded ₹50
only one year crore
D. Capital Expenditure is for daily business D. No, because the turnover is below ₹200
conduct; Revenue Expenditure is for fixed crore and borrowings are below ₹100
asset purchase crore
Q97. Par value of shares means the __________ Q103. Which of the following vouchers is issued
value of the shares. by the seller during a cash sale to document
A. market the transaction and provide proof to the
B. actual buyer?
C. face A. NEFT/IMPS transfer receipt
D. intrinsic B. Purchase Bill
C. Cash Memo
Q98. A fixed asset costing Rs 30,000 is depreciated D. Bank Statement
over its estimated useful life of 15 years.
This action is related to _______________. Q104. Which of the following are part of the
A. Matching Principle Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
B. Money Measurement Concept adopted by the UN in 2015?
C. Cost Concept 1. No Poverty
D. None of the above 2. Zero Hunger
3. Gender Equality

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4. Climate Action 1. Sahibganj (Jharkhand)

Choose the correct answer from the 2. Reasi (Jammu & Kashmir)
options given below: 3. Rajouri (Jammu & Kashmir)
A. 1, 2 and 3 only 4. North Garo Hills (Meghalaya)
B. 2, 3 and 4 only 5. Shi Yomi (Arunachal Pradesh)
C. 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the above were identified as the
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 low-performing districts in Grade 3?
A. 1, 2 and 3
Q105. Which of the following rights is not granted
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5
under Article 19 of the Constitution of
C. 2, 3 and 4
India?
D. 1, 3 and 5
A. Right to freedom of speech and
expression Q109. Consider the following statements
B. Right to assemble peacefully without regarding the M.S. Swaminathan Award
arms for Food and Peace awarded on the M.S.
C. Right to form associations or unions Swaminathan Centenary International
D. Right to own property Conference:
1. It is instituted by the M.S. Swaminathan
Q106. Consider the following statements about Research Foundation (MSSRF) in
the definition of “Dependent” under The collaboration with The World Academy
Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923. of Sciences (TWAS).
Identify the incorrect statement: 2. The first recipient of the award
A. A widowed mother is considered a was Professor Ademola Adenele, in
dependent. combating hunger in Africa.
B. A son or daughter over the age of 18
Which of the statements given above is/
years can be a dependent if infirm and
are correct?
fully dependent on the employee’s
A. 1 only
earnings.
B. 2 only
C. A paternal grandparent can be considered
C. 1 and 2 Only
dependent even if the parents of the
D. Neither 1 nor 2
employee are alive.
D. An unmarried legitimate or adopted Q110. Consider the following statements
daughter is considered a dependent. regarding Smriti Mandhana’s achievement
in women’s cricket:
Q107. In July 2025, the G7 under Canada’s
1. She became the fastest Indian to score
presidency proposed an exemption for
an ODI century, breaking the previous
U.S. multinational firms from the Global
record held by Virat Kohli against
Minimum Tax (GMT). Which among the
Australia.
following is not a member of G7?
2. Her century is now the second-fastest in
A. USA Women’s ODIs.
B. UK 3. She scored the fastest fifty by an Indian
C. Japan woman in ODIs.
D. China
How many of the given statements
Q108. As per the Performance Assessment, highlight the achievement made by Smriti
Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Mandhana?
Holistic Development (PARAKH) Rashtriya A. 1 only
Sarvekshan 2025 report, consider the B. 2 only
following list of districts for Grade 3 C. 3 only
performance: D. None of the Above

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Q111. Under The Employee’s Compensation Act, Q114. Consider the following features of the
1923, the appropriate Government can IndiaAI Mission:
extend the provisions of this Act to any 1. The mission is spearheaded by the
establishment by giving a notice of how Ministry of Electronics and Information
many days in the Official Gazette? Technology (MeitY) and implemented
A. 15 days by the Digital India Corporation (DIC).
B. 30 days 2. A key pillar of the mission is the creation
C. 45 days of a unified datasets platform to support
D. 60 days the development of foundational AI
models.
Q112. In light of Namibia’s entry into the Global
3. The mission aims to establish a high-
Biofuels Alliance (GBA) in July 2025,
end AI computing infrastructure of over
consider the following countries in relation
5,000 GPUs.
to their status as founding members of the
GBA, which was launched during the 18th Which of the statements given above are
G20 Summit in New Delhi (September correct?
2023): A. 1 and 2 only
1. India B. 2 and 3 only
2. Brazil C. 1,2 and 3 only
3. Singapore D. 1 only
4. Germany Q115. Following the GST rate revision effective
Which of the above were NOT among the 22nd September 2025, the Ministry
founding members of the Global Biofuels of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public
Alliance? Distribution allowed manufacturers,
A. Only 4 packers, and importers to continue using
B. 3 and 4 old packaging or wrappers printed before
C. Only 3 the revision. Until which date can this old
D. 2 and 4 packaging be legally used?
A. 31st December 2025
Q113. Consider the following statements B. 31st March 2026
regarding the applicability of the C. 30th June 2026
Employees’ Provident Funds and D. 30th September 2026
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952:
1. The Act applies to factories engaged in Q116. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the
industries listed in Schedule I having 20 Act applies to every shop or establishment
or more workers. recognized under state laws where ____ or
2. It applies to other establishments more persons are employed or have been
employing 20 or more individuals, or employed at any time during the last 12
specific categories as notified by the months.
Central Government. A. 5
3. The Central Government cannot extend B. 10
the Act to establishments with fewer C. 15
than 20 employees. D. 20
Which of the above statements is/are Q117. Consider the following statements about
correct? the applicability of the Payment of Gratuity
A. 1 and 2 only Act, 1972. Identify the incorrect statement:
B. 2 and 3 only A. The Act applies to every factory, mine,
C. 1 and 3 only oilfield, plantation, port, and railway
D. All of the above company.
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B. The Act applies to shops or establishments C. 2, 3 and 3

with 10 or more employees, or where 10 D. 1, 2 and 3
or more were employed on any day in Q120. With reference to benefits under the
the preceding 12 months. Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Scheme,
C. The Act ceases to apply to a shop or which of the above statements is correct?
establishment once the number of
1. Temporary disablement benefit is
employees falls below 10 after initial
payable at 90% of the wage, but only
application.
after the employee has contributed
D. The Central Government can notify
for at least 78 days in the contribution
other establishments with 10 or more
period.
employees to be covered under the Act.
2. Dependants’ benefit is payable to
Q118. Which of the following statements is family members at 90% of the wage
incorrect regarding the Pradhan Mantri when an insured worker dies due to an
Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana? employment injury.
A. The scheme is available to unorganized 3. Extended sickness benefit is available up
workers with monthly income of ₹15,000 to 180 days in case of certified sickness
or below. for common seasonal diseases.
B. Family pension is applicable to the A. 1 only
spouse upon death of the beneficiary. B. 3 only
C. An unorganized worker enrolled under C. 1 and 3
NPS or EPFO is also eligible to join the D. 2 only
scheme.
D. Subscribers must contribute monthly till
the age of 60, based on their entry age.
Q119. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding the structure and
implementation of the ‘Pradhan Mantri
Viksit Bharat Rojgar Yojana’?
1. Employees under Part A must serve
continuously for at least 12 months to
receive the first installment of their EPF
wage incentive.
2. Employers with exactly 50 employees
must hire a minimum of two additional
workers to become eligible for
incentives.
3. Employer incentives under Part B are
disbursed based on the EPF wage
slabs of new hires, with proportional
incentives for wages up to ₹10,000.
4. Incentives to employees are directly
credited into PAN-linked bank accounts
through the Aadhaar Bridge Payment
System.
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4

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Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 D 26 D 51 A 76 B 101 C
2 A 27 C 52 C 77 D 102 D
3 D 28 B 53 B 78 A 103 C
4 C 29 D 54 C 79 B 104 D
5 A 30 C 55 B 80 C 105 D
6 D 31 C 56 C 81 D 106 C
7 B 32 B 57 A 82 C 107 D
8 C 33 A 58 C 83 B 108 A
9 C 34 D 59 D 84 D 109 C
10 B 35 A 60 B 85 B 110 C
11 C 36 B 61 B 86 A 111 B
12 A 37 C 62 C 87 B 112 A
13 B 38 A 63 D 88 C 113 A
14 B 39 D 64 B 89 D 114 A
15 A 40 B 65 C 90 A 115 B
16 A 41 C 66 C 91 B 116 B
17 B 42 C 67 D 92 D 117 C
18 A 43 B 68 C 93 A 118 C
19 B 44 C 69 D 94 A 119 B
20 A 45 D 70 D 95 B 120 D
21 C 46 D 71 A 96 C
22 D 47 B 72 C 97 C
23 D 48 B 73 A 98 A
24 B 49 C 74 A 99 A
25 C 50 B 75 A 100 A

Detailed Explanation

Q1. (A) Quandary – This refers to a state of confusion to something illusory, it doesn’t fit the context
or uncertainty about what to do. It is unrelated to the of ongoing conflict and revenge, making it an
idea of long-standing conflict or revenge, making it an incorrect option.
incorrect choice. • (D) Feud – This is the correct answer. A “vendetta”
• (B) Epitome – Epitome means a perfect example of refers to a long-standing, often bitter feud or
something. It does not relate to a prolonged feud conflict, especially one involving revenge. The
or desire for revenge, so it is not a suitable answer. word “feud” matches the meaning of “vendetta”
• (C) Mirage – A mirage is an illusion or something perfectly.
that appears real but isn’t. While it can relate Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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Q2. (A) Fanatic – This is the correct answer. A “zealot” religious desecration or sacrilege, so this option is
refers to someone who is very passionate and fervent, not suitable.
often to an extreme degree. “Fanatic” has a similar • (C) Blasphemy – This is the correct answer.
meaning, referring to someone with an intense and Blasphemy refers to speech or actions that show
often excessive devotion to a cause. disrespect or irreverence toward something
• (B) Cynic – A cynic is someone who believes that sacred, particularly religious symbols or figures.
people are motivated purely by self-interest and It aligns perfectly with the concept of sacrilege,
often questions others’ motives. This is unrelated making it the best choice.
to passionate advocacy for a cause, so it’s not the • (D) Syntax – Syntax refers to the arrangement of
correct choice. words and phrases in a sentence. It has nothing
• (C) Stoic – A stoic refers to someone who is to do with the desecration of religious symbols,
indifferent to pleasure or pain and remains making it an incorrect answer.
unaffected by emotional experiences. This contrasts Hence, option C is the correct answer.
with the idea of someone who is passionate about
a cause, so this option is incorrect. Q5. (A) Arrogant – This is the correct answer.
• (D) Nihilist – A nihilist believes that life is “Supercilious” refers to someone who behaves in
meaningless and rejects all religious, moral, and a way that shows they think they are superior to
social principles. This is the opposite of someone others, often dismissing others’ opinions. “Arrogant”
who passionately advocates for a cause like has a similar meaning, describing someone with
environmental protection, making it the wrong an exaggerated sense of their own importance or
choice. superiority.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. • (B) Gregarious – Gregarious refers to someone
who enjoys the company of others, sociable, and
Q3. (A) Audacity – Audacity refers to boldness or friendly. It is the opposite of having a superior or
courage, often in a disrespectful or daring way. It has dismissive attitude, so this option is not correct.
no relation to memory loss or confusion, so it’s not the • (C) Misanthropic – Misanthropic refers to a general
correct choice. dislike or distrust of humanity. While a supercilious
• (B) Serenity – Serenity means a state of calm or person may be dismissive, they are not necessarily
peacefulness, which is the opposite of confusion or misanthropic, so this is not the right choice.
memory loss. This option doesn’t fit the context, so • (D) Obsequious – Obsequious refers to someone
it’s incorrect. who is excessively eager to please or serve others,
• (C) Tenacity – Tenacity refers to determination or often to the point of being insincere. It is the
persistence in achieving something. It’s unrelated opposite of “supercilious,” making this option
to the idea of memory loss or mental confusion, so incorrect.
it’s also not the correct answer. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• (D) Dementia – This is the correct answer.
Dementia refers to a decline in mental ability, Q6. (A) A positive perspective - This is the opposite of
including memory loss, which matches the what “jaundiced eye” means. It implies skepticism or a
description of the person forgetting names, negative view, not positivity.
places, and faces, and experiencing confusion. • (B) An objective view - “Jaundiced eye” refers to
Hence, option D is the correct answer. bias or skepticism, not objectivity, so this option
does not fit.
Q4. (A) Epiphany – An epiphany is a sudden realization • (C) An open mind - Having an open mind would
or insight, often a moment of clarity. It is unrelated mean being receptive to new ideas, whereas
to the desecration of religious symbols, making it an “jaundiced eye” suggests doubt or cynicism, so this
incorrect choice. option is incorrect.
• (B) Alchemy – Alchemy refers to the ancient practice • (D) A biased or skeptical perspective - This is the
of attempting to transform base metals into gold correct answer. The phrase “jaundiced eye” is
or find the elixir of life. It has no connection to often used to describe a view that is colored by

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bias, skepticism, or cynicism, especially toward main idea here is about controlling or restraining,
new or unfamiliar ideas. not necessarily protecting.
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Q7. (A) The top leaders - The phrase “rank and file” Q10. (A) Genuine and true - This is incorrect because
refers to the regular members or employees, not the “moonshine” means something that is false or
top leaders, so this option is incorrect. deceptive, not true.
• (B) The ordinary members - This is the correct • (B) Unbelievable but true - This is the correct
answer. “Rank and file” refers to the general answer in this context. “Moonshine” is often
members or employees in an organization, as used to describe something that is far-fetched
opposed to the leaders or higher-ups. or unrealistic, but the sentence seems to imply
• (C) The external stakeholders - This is unrelated to that the claims were exaggerated or difficult to
“rank and file,” which refers specifically to internal believe, even though they were promoted as true.
members of the organization. • (C) False and deceptive - While this could be a
• (D) The management team - The management plausible answer, “moonshine” here is more about
team would be the leaders, not the “rank and file,” something that is unbelievable rather than entirely
so this option doesn’t fit the meaning. false and deceptive, making this option less fitting.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. • (D) Scientific and well-researched - This is
completely incorrect because “moonshine” implies
Q8. (A) A decisive and easy victory - This is the opposite the opposite of being scientifically based or well-
of a Pyrrhic victory. A Pyrrhic victory refers to a win researched.
that comes at such a significant cost that it outweighs Hence, option B is the correct answer.
the benefit of the win.
• (B) A victory with no consequences - A Pyrrhic Q11. d: “solar rooftop power systems” begins the
victory involves severe consequences, such as sentence by introducing the subject of the sentence —
injuries or losses, so this option is incorrect. solar rooftop power systems.
• (C) A victory achieved at too great a cost - This is • c: “convert sunlight into electricity,” follows
the correct answer. A Pyrrhic victory refers to a logically to explain what these systems do — they
win that comes at a significant cost, such as losses convert sunlight into electricity.
or sacrifices, making the victory less sweet. • b: “reducing energy costs while promoting
• (D) A victory won by cheating - This is unrelated to sustainability” comes next, detailing the benefits
the meaning of a Pyrrhic victory, which does not of solar rooftop power systems, which reduce
imply dishonesty but rather a costly victory. energy costs and promote sustainability.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • a: “and reducing carbon emissions” concludes
by adding another significant benefit — reducing
Q9. (A) Encourage his behavior - “Hold him in leash” carbon emissions, which ties back to the
implies restriction, not encouragement, so this option environmental advantages of solar energy.
is incorrect. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• (B) Give him complete freedom - This is the
opposite of what “hold him in leash” means. The Q12. b: “remission refers to the reduction of” begins
phrase refers to limiting or restraining, not granting the sentence, explaining what remission means — a
freedom. reduction of something.
• (C) Control or restrain his actions - This is the • a: “a convict’s sentence,” follows logically,
correct answer. To “hold in leash” means to specifying what remission applies to — a convict’s
control, limit, or restrain someone’s actions, sentence.
which fits the context of the sentence where the
parents are limiting his freedom. • c: “typically granted based on good behavior,”
further explains when remission is granted —
• (D) Protect him from danger - While “holding in usually based on good behavior.
leash” could imply some level of protection, the

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• d: “health, or special circumstances” concludes Q16. The passage directly explains that “Arighaat”
by mentioning additional reasons why remission translates to a place where boats docked. It was a
may be granted, such as health issues or special location used for trade, transport, and communication,
circumstances. which was essential in ancient civilizations, particularly
Hence, option A is the correct answer. along riverbanks. The term relates to the practical
function of the site rather than being a social gathering
Q13. d: “the Proba-3 mission aims to demonstrate” point (option B), a political site (option C), or a religious
begins the sentence by introducing the subject — the landmark (option D). Hence, option (A) is the most
mission’s goal. accurate based on the passage.
• c: “advanced satellite formation flying,” follows Hence, option A is the correct answer.
logically, specifying what the mission aims to
demonstrate — advanced satellite formation Q17. The passage specifically mentions that Arighaat
flying. was a vital dock or landing place where boats were
used for trade and transport. It was a hub for the
• a: “enabling space exploration capabilities” further movement of goods and people, which made this
explains the purpose of the mission — to enable option (B) the most accurate. The other options are
space exploration capabilities. incorrect because they focus on different aspects that
• b: “and precise solar observations,” concludes by were not highlighted in the context of Arighaat, such
adding another objective of the mission, which is as social gatherings (option A), religious ceremonies
to make precise solar observations. (option C), or political power (option D).
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q14. c: “a UK-hosted conference aims to end” starts Q18. The passage states that despite the changes
the sentence by introducing the subject — a UK-hosted brought on by urbanization and industrialization, Ins
conference and its goal. Arighaat remains a symbol of the resilience and enduring
• a: “Sudan’s civil war, excluding” follows logically, spirit of the people who live there. It emphasizes the
specifying what the conference aims to end — cultural significance of the place, not its economic or
Sudan’s civil war. political functions in the modern era. Therefore, option
• b: “Sudanese factions, focusing” explains that the (A) is correct. The other options (B), (C), and (D) are
focus is on the Sudanese factions involved in the incorrect because they suggest functions that the
civil war. passage does not attribute to modern Arighaat.
• d: “on humanitarian aid and diplomacy” concludes Hence, option A is the correct answer.
by describing the main focus areas of the
conference — humanitarian aid and diplomacy. Q19. The passage explicitly mentions that urbanization
and industrialization have impacted the traditional
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
activities that once thrived at Ins Arighaat. This is
the most accurate reflection of how modern changes
Q15. a: “the U.S.-China trade war escalates, with”
have altered the site’s original function. Option (A) is
starts the sentence by introducing the subject and the
incorrect because there is no mention of increased
context — the escalating trade war between the U.S.
trade or accessibility. Option (C) is wrong because it
and China.
suggests complete destruction, which the passage
• c: “China imposing 125%” follows logically, does not imply. Option (D) is also incorrect, as the
explaining what is happening in the trade war — passage doesn’t state that original customs have been
China is imposing a 125% tariff. preserved or that Arighaat has turned into a tourist
• b: “tariffs on U.S. goods, heightening” continues by hub.
specifying the effects of the tariffs on U.S. goods
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
and the escalating situation.
• d: “global economic uncertainty” concludes by Q20. The passage explains that Ins Arighaat was
explaining the result of the escalation — global instrumental in the development of trade routes and
economic uncertainty. was crucial for economic and social activities. It was
Hence, option A is the correct answer. not just a site of cultural exchanges (option D) but

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also facilitated trade and communication, which were So, we can say,
essential to the surrounding area’s growth. Option (B) 3X × 18 + 2X × A = 17 × 5X
is incorrect because there is no mention of economic
decline. Option (C) wrongly attributes political Therefore, data in statement I is not sufficient to
power to Arighaat, which was not a focal point in the answer the question
passage. Therefore, option (A) is the correct one, as it From Statement II,
encompasses trade, culture, and communication. 40% boys and 30% girls are absent in the class.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. Total number of students present in the class is 320.
Q21. Case I: 5 males and 3 females can be selected We could not know the ratio of boys and girls
Number of ways of selection = 9C5 ×7C3 = 126 × 35 = so, Statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
4410 By combining Statement, I and II
Case II: 6 males and 2 females can be selected But from both statements, we can say,
Number of ways of selection = C6 × C2 = 84 × 21 = 1764
9 7 3X×60/100+2X×70/100=320
Case III: 7 males and 1 female can be selected So, we can get the answer by combining statement I
Number of ways of selection = 9C7 ×7C1 = 36 × 7 = 252 and statement II.
Case IV: 8 males can be selected Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Number of ways of selection = 9C8 = 9 Q24. The pipe is cut into 3 equal parts; thus, the length
So, total number of ways of selecting the members = of the pipe will be a multiple of 3.
4410 + 1764 + 252 + 9 = 6435 ways Each part is then cut into
Hence, option C is the correct answer. 12 = 22× 3, 18 = 2 × 32 and 32 = 25 parts
Q22. Let given number, N = (6n+ 1) Thus, each part of pipe has to be a multiple of 25× 32
i.e., 288.
On putting n = 0, we get:
Thus, the pipe will be a multiple of = 288 × 3 = 864
N = 60+ 1 = 1 + 1 = 2 {sum of digits is 2}
Thus, the minimum length of the pipe must be 864
On putting n = 1, we get: units.
N = 61+ 1 = 6 + 1 =7 {sum of digits is 7} Hence, option B is the correct answer.
On putting n = 2, we get:
N = 62+ 1 = 36 + 1 = 37 {sum of digits is 1} Q25. Let the persons be S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6 and
On putting n = 3, we get: A, B and C be three types of toffee
N = 63+ 1 = 216 + 1 = 217 {sum of digits is 1} S1 can get any of the 3 from A, B, and C in 3 ways
On putting n = 4, we get: S2 can get any of the 2, other than what A got in 2 ways
N = 64+ 1 = 1296 + 1 = 1297 {sum of digits is 1} S3, S4, S5, S6 each can get different toffee in 2 ways
Hence, sum of digits of number N will always be 1 if n Total numbers of ways in which distribution can be
= 2, 3, 4 ...... done
Or we can say that the sum of digits of number N will 3 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 96
always be 1 if n is any natural number greater than 1 Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Q26. LCM of 12, 18, 21 and 28 = 252
Q23. From statement I When we divide greatest five-digit no. 99,999 by 252,
Let the average age of girls is A. we get 207 remainder.
Ratio of boys and girls is 3:2. Now, subtracting 207 by 99,999, we get
Boys is 3x and girls is 2X = 99999 – 207 = 99,792.

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99,792 is largest five-digit number divisible by 12, 18, Hence, option B is the correct answer.
21 and 28.
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Q29. Number of people who can drive = 2
Number of ways of selecting driver = 2C1
Q27. Number of girls = 18 The other person who knows driving can be seated
Number of students in the class = X only in the rear three seats in 3 ways
Number of boys in the class = X – 18 Total number of ways of seating the two persons = 2C1
Average weight of the class = 36 kg ×3
Total weight of the class = X × 36 = 36x Number of ways of seating remaining = 3!
36X + 160 = (X + 1) × 40 Total number of all five can be seated = 2C1 × 3 × 3! = 36
36X + 160 = 40X + 40 Hence, correct answer is 36
4X = 120 Hence, option D is the correct answer.
X = 30
Q30. From Statement I,
Number of students = 30
Side of the square = 20 cm
Number of girls = 18
Perimeter of the square = 4 * 20 = 80
Number of boys = 30 – 18 = 12
Side of the rhombus = 80/4 = 20 cm
Total weight of the class = 36 × 30 = 1080 kg
So, Statement I alone is sufficient to the answer
Total weight of the boys = 30 × 12 = 360
the question.
Total weight of the girls = 1080 – 360 = 720
From Statement II,
Average weight of the girls = 720/18 = 40 kg
Area of the Rhombus = 216
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Area of Rhombus = ×d1×d2
Q28. From statement I, Diagonals of the rhombus = 216 × 2/24 = 18 cm
B + C = 7/120 Side of the rhombus = √ (24/2)2 + (18/2)2 = 15 cm
A + B = 1/24 So, Statement II alone is sufficient to the answer the
So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
question. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
From statement II,
Q31. From Statement I
A + B + C = 3/40
Let CP of items A and B is ‘3x’ and ‘5x’ respectively.
Efficiency of A and B = 100:150 = 2:3
SP of item A = 120% of 3x = 3.6x
Time ratio of A and B = 3:2
Efficiency of B and C = 75:100 = 3:4 SP of item B = 108% of 5x = 5.4x

Time ratio of B and C = 4:3 Total CP of items A and B = 3x + 5x = 8x

Time ratio of A, B and C = 6:4:3 Total SP of items A and B = 3.6x + 5.4x = 9x
1/6x + 1/4x + 1/3x = 3/40 Profit amount = 9x – 8x = x
(2 + 3 + 4) /12x = 3/40 Required profit percent = (x/8x) × 100 = 12.5%
x = 10 Statement I alone is sufficient.
Pipe A alone fill the tank = 6 × 10 = 60 hours From Statement II:
Pipe C alone fill the tank = 3 ×10 = 30 hours Total cost price of items A and B = Rs.800
A + C = 1/60 + 1/30 = 1/20 Let SP of items A and B is ‘2y’ and ‘3y’
So, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the respectively.
question. 3y – 2y = 180

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y = 180 Code for ‘chair’ - 5

Total SP of items A and B together = 2y + 3y Hence, code for ‘fruit’ is either 3 or 2.
5y = Rs.900 Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Profit amount = 900 – 800 = Rs.100
Required percent = (100/800) × 100 = 12.5% Q35. Statement 1: “It aims to bring transparency in
fiscal operations.”
Therefore, Statement II alone is sufficient
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • This is one of the core objectives of the FRBM Act,
enacted in 2003.
Q32. The divisibility rule of 10 needs 5 as well as 2. • The Act was introduced to ensure fiscal discipline,
Similarly, the divisibility rule of 55 needs macroeconomic stability, and transparency in
5 and 11. So, by this logic, we can understand if there government finances.
are numbers which are divisible by 5 and 11 then in • It mandates the government to reduce fiscal and
these set of numbers, we cannot find numbers which revenue deficits and publish medium-term fiscal
has 2 as a factor. So, conclusion-I is not correct. policy statements.
Conclusion-II is possible as 55 has both 5 and 11 as • Transparency helps in building investor confidence
factors. and ensures parliamentary accountability.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Statement 2: “It prohibits the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) from buying government securities in the
Q33. Total time taken by the person to come back primary market.”
home = 16 – 14.5 = 1.5 hours = 90 minutes • Under the FRBM Act, direct monetization of fiscal
Out of which person stayed in the village for 25 deficit by the RBI was disallowed.
minutes. • This means that the RBI cannot buy government
So, his total travelling time = 90 – 25 = 65 minutes bonds directly from the government (i.e., primary
The return route was 1.25 times the initial route. So, market purchases are prohibited).
time taken must have increased by 25% too. So, if the • This ensures that fiscal policy is not monetized
initial time was 100 units, now it must be 125 units. irresponsibly, which could otherwise lead to high
But it is also given that while returning, the person inflation and macroeconomic imbalance.
drove twice as fast. So, time taken must have been • RBI, however, can buy and sell bonds in the
halved. secondary market as part of its open market
So, time taken while returning back = 125/2 = 62.5 operations (OMO).
units Statement 3: “It sets a target for inflation management
So, 100 + 62.5 = 65 minutes by the RBI.”
Or 162.5 units = 65 minutes • Inflation targeting is not under the FRBM Act.
So, 100 units = (65/162.5) × 100 = 40 minutes • Instead, it is governed by the amended RBI Act,
So, the person took 40 minutes to reach the village. 1934 (Section 45ZA), which was modified in 2016
to provide for the Monetary Policy Framework
So, the actual time at that moment = 14:30 + 40
Agreement.
minutes = 15:10 hours
It’s pretty evident that the village clock is 15:15 – 15:10 • This led to the formation of the Monetary Policy
= 5 minutes fast Committee (MPC), which sets the inflation target
(currently 4% ± 2%).
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
[Link] a certain code:
Q36. Statement 1: “Price elasticity of demand
‘756’ means ‘red chair walk’ …………..(i) measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded
‘532’ means ‘cup chair fruit’ ……………(ii) to a change in the price of the good.”
‘754’ means ‘white chair walk’ …………..(iii) • This is the core definition of price elasticity of
Comparing (i), (ii) and (iii), we get: demand (PED).

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• It shows how much the quantity demanded Hence, option A is the correct answer.
changes when there is a percentage change in
price. Q39. The GDI was introduced alongside the Gender
• High elasticity means demand is very responsive to Empowerment Measure (GEM) in the 1995 Human
price changes, and vice versa. Development Report, with the goal of adding a gender-
sensitive dimension to the existing Human Development
Statement 2: “If the demand for a good is perfectly Index (HDI). The 1995 report was dedicated to the
elastic, a small increase in price will lead to zero theme of gender and human development.
demand.”
Hence, option D is correct answer
• In the case of perfectly elastic demand, the
demand curve is horizontal. Q40. In machine learning, when the target variable
• This means consumers are only willing to buy at is categorical (i.e., it has discrete values such as “Yes/
one specific price, and any increase in price causes No,” “Spam/Not Spam,” or different classes), Decision
quantity demanded to fall to zero. Trees are one of the most suitable algorithms for
• This is a theoretical extreme, but it illustrates classification tasks.
markets with perfect substitutes. • A Decision Tree works by recursively splitting the
Statement 3: “Necessities usually have more elastic dataset based on feature values, forming a tree-
demand than luxuries.” like structure where each internal node represents
a decision based on a feature, and each leaf node
• The opposite is true. represents a class label.
• Necessities like food, salt, and basic medicine have • Linear Regression is used for continuous target
inelastic demand because people continue to buy variables, making it unsuitable for classification
them even if prices rise. tasks.
• Luxuries, on the other hand, tend to have more • K-Means Clustering is an unsupervised learning
elastic demand—if the price goes up, people can algorithm used for grouping similar data points,
cut back or delay consumption. not classification.
Hence, option B is the correct answer. • PCA is used for dimensionality reduction
and feature extraction but does not perform
Q37. Statement 1 is incorrect: Primary Deficit = Fiscal classification.
Deficit – Interest Payments. It is not the difference
between Fiscal Deficit and Revenue Deficit. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Statement 2 is correct: A zero primary deficit implies Q41. The Transport Layer (Layer 4) of the OSI Model
that the government is borrowing only to pay interest is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer and
on past loans, not to fund new expenditure. error detection between devices communicating over
Statement 3 is correct: A rising primary deficit a network. It establishes end-to-end communication,
indicates the government is borrowing more even handles data segmentation, and ensures error recovery
after accounting for interest, hence a sign of fiscal to provide seamless and accurate data transmission.
stress. • Functions of the Transport Layer:
Hence, option C is the correct answer. o Reliable Data Transmission: Ensures that all
packets arrive correctly and in order.
Q38. Urban Population by 2011 Census:
o Error Detection and Recovery: Uses checksums
State Urban Population (in millions) and acknowledgments to detect and correct
Maharashtra 50.83 million errors.
Uttar Pradesh 44.49 million o Flow Control: Prevents data overload by
managing the rate of data transfer.
Tamil Nadu 34.95 million
o Multiplexing: Allows multiple applications to
West Bengal 29.13 million send and receive data simultaneously.
Gujarat 25.71 million Hence, option C is the correct answer.

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Q42. Functional Programming (FP) is a programming particular industry, not a specific craft, and are
paradigm that emphasizes the use of pure functions, broader in membership.
immutability, and declarative programming. In • General Unions are inclusive of various trades and
FP, functions are treated as first-class citizens, occupations, not just one craft.
meaning they can be assigned to variables, passed as
arguments, and returned from other functions. The • Mixed Unions typically represent both skilled and
core principle of FP is that functions should not modify unskilled workers, unlike the specialized nature of
state or rely on side effects, ensuring predictable and craft unions.
maintainable code. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Key Features of Functional Programming:
Q45. N.M Lokhande is recognized as the “Father
o Pure Functions – Functions always return the of Trade Union Movement” in India. He led the
same output for a given input, with no side movement for trade union legislation, which led to the
effects. introduction of the Trade Unions Act of 1926.
o Immutability – Data structures cannot be Hence, option D is the correct answer.
modified after creation, reducing bugs and
increasing predictability. Q46. HMS was founded in Calcutta during a trade
o First-Class Functions – Functions can be union conference from 24th to 26th December 1948,
assigned to variables, passed as arguments, as stated in [A].
and returned from other functions. • R.S. Ruikar was the first president of the Hind
o Higher-Order Functions – Functions that take Mazdoor Sabha, which is confirmed in [B].
other functions as arguments or return them • The HMS is affiliated with the International Trade
as results. Union Confederation (ITUC), representing 175
o Recursion Over Loops – Instead of iterative million workers in 153 countries, as mentioned in
loops, recursion is used for repeated [C].
operations. • The HMS has been functioning as an independent
Hence, option C is the correct answer. and democratic trade union centre, free from the
influence of political parties, making statement [D]
Q43. Usual Status refers to a person’s classification as incorrect.
part of the labour force based on whether they were Hence, option D is the correct answer.
working or looking for work during the major part of
the 365 days before a survey by the NSSO. Q47. Beatrice Webb, an economic theorist, is credited
• Current Status typically refers to the status of with first using the term “collective bargaining” in
employment or job-seeking at the time of the 1891 in Britain. This concept refers to the formal
survey, not the entire 365 days. and voluntary process of negotiations between labor
• Temporary Employment Status is a more specific and management to resolve issues related to work,
term referring to short-term job assignments, conditions, and terms of employment.
which is not the focus of this definition. • Karl Marx is known for his theories on class
• Potential Employment Status does not reflect the struggles and labor but did not coin the term
actual labour force status but rather a theoretical “collective bargaining.”
categorization. • John Maynard Keynes is renowned for his
Hence, option B is the correct answer. contributions to economic theory, especially in
macroeconomics, but was not involved in the
Q44. Occupational/Craft Unions refer to the earliest development of the collective bargaining process.
form of trade unions that comprised members from • George Bernard Shaw was a famous playwright
the same craft or trade. These unions are typically and social critic, not an economist associated with
small in size and membership is restricted to those the development of collective bargaining.
belonging to a specific craft. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• Industrial Unions consist of workers from a

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Q48. Statement 1. The manager is indeed responsible • Option C is incorrect because a registered Trade
for the payment of wages to employees working in Union can change its name with the approval of at
factories. least 2/3rd of its total members, not half.
• Statement 2. In industrial establishments, the • Option D is incorrect as the required proportion of
person responsible for supervision and control office-bearers connected to the industry is at least
holds the responsibility for wage payments. half, not one-fourth.
• Statement 3. Railway administration or the Hence, option A is the correct answer.
nominated person is responsible for ensuring the
payment of wages to railway employees. Q52. Option C is correct, as The Factories Act, 1948
• Statement 4. Even if a contractor or the designated mandates that in factories where at least 1000
person fails to make the required payments, the workers are employed or where certain manufacturing
employer remains responsible for ensuring wage processes pose risks to health, safety, or well-being of
payments are made, as per the Act. Therefore, the workers, the occupier must employ Safety Officers.
statement in option 4 is incorrect. • Option A is incorrect because a factory is defined
Hence, option B is the correct answer. as premises where there are 10 or more workers
involved in a manufacturing process with power,
Q49. Statement C is incorrect. The Child and not 5.
Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, • Option B is incorrect because exemptions granted
1986, stipulates that the Central Government can during a public emergency cannot exceed three
amend the Schedule with a notice period of 3 months, months at a time.
not 6 months as mentioned. • Option D is incorrect because exemptions are
o Statements A, B, and D are correct: possible during a public emergency, but they
o Statement A: Under the Minimum Wages Act, cannot exceed the specified period.
1948, the employer must pay an overtime rate Hence, option C is the correct answer.
for excess hours worked, based on the rate in
force. Q53. The primary purpose of a subnet mask in
o Statement B: The Certifying Officer under the networking is to determine the network and host
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, portions of an IP address.
1946, is indeed the Labor Commissioner or a • An IP address consists of two parts: the network
Regional Labor Commissioner, as appointed by portion, which identifies the network, and the
the Government. host portion, which identifies a specific device
o Statement D: The Trade Unions Act, 1926, within that network. The subnet mask is used to
correctly mandates that the notice of differentiate these parts by masking the network
dissolution, signed by 7 members and the portion with a series of consecutive 1s and the
Secretary, must be sent to the Registrar within host portion with 0s in binary form.
14 days. • This helps in efficient IP address allocation, network
Hence, option C is the correct answer. segmentation, and routing by ensuring that devices
within the same subnet can communicate directly
Q50. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) while separating different networks.
Act, 1946 applies to all industrial establishments with • Unlike options a, c, and d, a subnet mask does not
100 or more workmen, either currently employed or assign MAC addresses, encrypt data, or manage
employed in the previous 12 months. DNS queries—it strictly functions to define network
Hence, option B is the correct answer. boundaries within an IP addressing scheme.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q51. As per Section 21A of The Trade Unions Act, 1926,
to be eligible for office in a registered Trade Union, the Q54. In relational databases, an INNER JOIN returns
individual must be at least 18 years old. only the matching records from both tables based on a
• Option B is incorrect as the minimum age for specified condition, typically using a common column.
membership is 15, not 14. • If a record in one table does not have a

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corresponding match in the other table, it is Hence, option C is the correct answer.
excluded from the result set. This makes INNER
JOIN useful for retrieving data that exists in both Q57. The kernel is the core component of an operating
tables, ensuring that only relevant and linked system (OS) that directly interacts with the hardware
information is displayed. and manages essential system resources such as
• In contrast, LEFT JOIN and RIGHT JOIN include the CPU, memory, storage, and input/output (I/O)
unmatched records from one of the tables, while devices.
a FULL OUTER JOIN includes all records from both • It acts as a bridge between the hardware and
tables, regardless of whether they have matches. software, ensuring that multiple applications can
Hence, option C is the correct answer. run efficiently by allocating system resources and
managing processes.
Q55. Virtualization is a technology that allows multiple • Unlike (b) Providing a graphical user interface
virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical (GUI), which is handled by the OS’s user interface
server by creating virtual instances of computing layer, (c) Handling external user requests, which
resources such as CPU, memory, and storage. is managed by system utilities and applications,
• This is achieved using hypervisors, which act as or (d) Managing internet connections, which is
a layer between the hardware and the virtual typically controlled by network protocols and
machines, enabling efficient resource allocation drivers, the kernel’s primary role is to control and
and isolation. allocate hardware resources to ensure smooth
system operation.
• Virtualization helps optimize hardware utilization,
reduce costs, and improve scalability by allowing Hence, option A is the correct answer.
multiple operating systems and applications to run
independently on the same server. Q58. Section 7 - Labour Courts
• Unlike cloud computing (a), which provides on- • The appropriate Government may constitute one
demand remote services, edge computing (c), or more Labour Courts for the adjudication of
which processes data closer to users, or load industrial disputes relating to any matter specified
balancing (d), which distributes network traffic, in the Second Schedule and for performing such
virtualization specifically focuses on creating other functions as may be assigned to them under
multiple virtual environments on a single physical this Act.
machine. • Labour Court consists of 1 person only, appointed
Hence, option B is the correct answer. by the appropriate Government.
• A person shall not be qualified for appointment as
Q56. The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is a critical the presiding officer of a Labour Court unless:
component of the CPU (Central Processing Unit) o He is, or has been, a Judge of a High Court.
responsible for performing arithmetic and logical
operations. o He has, for a period of not less than 3 years,
been a District Judge or an Additional District
• It handles basic mathematical calculations such as Judge.
addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division,
as well as logical operations like AND, OR, NOT, o He has held any judicial office in India for not
and XOR. less than 7 years.
• The ALU works closely with the Control Unit (CU), o He has been the presiding officer of a Labour
which directs its operations, and the Register Unit, Court constituted under any Provincial Act or
which temporarily stores data for processing. State Act for not less than 5 years.
• Unlike the Memory Management Unit (MMU), o He is or has been a Deputy Chief Labour
which manages memory and addresses, or the Commissioner (Central) or Joint Commissioner
Control Unit, which directs overall CPU operations, of the State Labour Department, with:
the ALU specifically executes computational tasks,  A law degree.
making it essential for processing and decision-  At least 7 years of experience in the
making in a computer system.

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labour department, including 3 years as a considered intermittent. Additionally, work of a

Conciliation Officer. seasonal character performed for more than 60
o He is an officer of the Indian Legal Service in days in a year also does not count as intermittent
Grade III with 3 years of experience in the work.
grade. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q62. The incorrect statement is option [C] because
Q59. The term “establishment” as per The Child and apprentices are explicitly excluded from the definition
Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) of “Employee” under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.
Act, 1986 includes a wide range of places, such • Option [A] is correct: The Act applies to every
as shops, commercial establishments, workshops, factory and every other establishment where
farms, residential hotels, restaurants, eating houses, twenty or more persons are employed during an
theatres, and other places of public amusement or accounting year.
entertainment. • Option [B] is correct: The term “Allocable Surplus”
Hence, option D is the correct answer. is defined as 67% of the available surplus for
companies other than banking companies that
Q60. Statement B is correct: As per The Inter-State have not made arrangements for declaration and
Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and payment within India, and 60% in all other cases.
Conditions of Service) Act, 1979, an inter-State migrant • Option [D] is correct: The minimum bonus to be
workman is anyone recruited by a contractor in one paid is 8.33% of the salary/wage earned by the
state for employment in another state, whether the employee or ₹100, whichever is higher, whether
principal employer knows about the recruitment or or not there is an allocable surplus in that year.
not.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Statement A is incorrect because the Act applies
to establishments employing 5 or more inter-State Q63. An odometer is an instrument used in vehicles
migrant workmen, not 3. to measure the total distance traveled.
• Statement C is incorrect because both the • It is located on the dashboard and can be
principal employer and contractor are required mechanical, electronic, or digital.
to maintain registers and records of inter-State
migrant workmen, including details like nature of • Key Functions:
work and wages. o Helps track vehicle mileage for maintenance
• Statement D is incorrect as the Act applies and servicing.
specifically to establishments employing inter- o Assists in calculating fuel efficiency and resale
State migrant workmen, which involves work value.
across different states. o Works using rotational motion of the wheels,
Hence, option B is the correct answer. converting it into numerical readings.
• Other related instruments include:
Q61. Statement 1 is correct: The Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to every o Speedometer – Measures the speed of the
establishment employing 20 or more workmen as vehicle.
contract labour or who have been employed on any o Tachometer – Displays the engine’s RPM
day of the preceding 12 months. (revolutions per minute).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Act does not apply to o Fuel gauge – Indicates the fuel level in the tank.
establishments where the work performed is of an Hence, option D is the correct answer.
intermittent or casual nature.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Work is not deemed Q64. Viscosity results from the interaction among
intermittent if performed for more than 120 identical molecules within the same material.
days in the preceding 12 months. In fact, if work • It is defined as the resistance of a fluid to flow
is performed for more than 120 days, it is not and represents a property that opposes the force

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tending to cause movement. conductor of heat at room temperature and an

• This resistance to fluid motion acts like internal excellent conductor of electricity, making it widely
friction, similar to the friction experienced when a used in electronics, nanotechnology, and energy
solid moves on a surface. storage devices.
• Comparison of Viscosity: • Additional Facts about Graphene:
o Water (less viscous) flows more readily than o It is the thinnest known material, being just
honey (more viscous). one atom thick.
o Thin liquids (e.g., water, alcohol) are less o It is lightweight yet highly durable, making it
viscous than thick liquids (e.g., coal tar, blood, suitable for flexible electronics, aerospace,
glycerine). and biomedical applications.
• Units of Viscosity: Hence, option D is the correct answer.
o SI unit: Poiseuille (Pl) Q68. Statement C is incorrect because atoms of a given
o Other units: N·s·m⁻² or Pa·s element are not identical in mass due to the presence
Hence, option B is the correct answer. of isotopes. Isotopes of an element have the same
number of protons but different numbers of neutrons,
Q65. Joule’s Law leading to variations in atomic mass.
• According to Joule’s Law, “The heat produced per • While the chemical properties of atoms of the
unit time, when an electric current passes through same element are identical, the mass can vary
a conductor at a given temperature, is directly among different isotopes of the same element.
proportional to the square of the electric current.” • A) All matter is made up of very tiny particles called
Hence, option C is the correct answer. atoms: This statement is correct as it aligns with
the fundamental theory of atomic composition.
Q66. Acids are substances that have a pH value less • B) Atoms cannot be created or destroyed in a
than 7, indicating their sour taste and reactivity. chemical reaction: This statement is correct as it
• Option A is incorrect: Acids turn blue litmus red, reflects the principle of conservation of mass in
not green, and have a pH less than 7, not greater. chemical reactions.
• Option B is incorrect: Acids taste sour, not sweet, • D) Atoms of different elements have different
and they react with metals to produce hydrogen masses and chemical properties: This statement is
gas. correct because atoms of different elements have
distinct numbers of protons, leading to different
• Option D is incorrect: Acids are highly reactive and masses and chemical properties.
participate in various chemical reactions, including
metal corrosion and neutralization with bases. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Common examples of acids include: Q69. Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and
o Acetic acid (in vinegar) activates when the body encounters a pathogen. It is
o Sulphuric acid (in car batteries) also known as adaptive immunity because it develops
after birth in response to exposure to pathogens or
o Tartaric acid (used in baking) through vaccination, antibiotics, and immunization.
Hence, option C is the correct answer. • This type of immunity improves over time and is
more efficient in responding to future exposures to
Q67. Statement 1 is correct: Graphene is composed of the same pathogen.
a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal
honeycomb lattice. • A) Innate Immunity: Innate immunity is non-
specific and present at birth. It includes general
• Statement 2 is correct: It is the strongest defense mechanisms like physical barriers (skin)
compound ever discovered, with a strength 100- and immune cells that protect against a wide range
300 times greater than steel. of pathogens.
• Statement 3 is correct: Graphene is the best • B) Passive Immunity: Passive immunity is acquired

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when antibodies are passed from one individual to • Hepatitis C is caused by the Hepatitis C virus and
another (e.g., from mother to child). It provides spreads mainly through body fluids of an infected
temporary protection but does not activate person.
the body’s immune system to produce its own • Hepatitis D is a severe liver disease caused by the
antibodies. Hepatitis D virus, which spreads from infected
• D) Natural Immunity: Natural immunity typically blood or wounds and may occur alongside
refers to immunity acquired through natural Hepatitis B.
infection or contact with pathogens. However, • Hepatitis E is a waterborne disease spread by the
it is not as specific as acquired immunity, which Hepatitis E virus, circulated through food, water,
includes both natural and artificial immunity. and contaminated blood. It can be either acute or
Hence, option D is the correct answer. chronic.
• Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A, B, and E, but
Q70. In Haemophilia, a single protein in the blood there is no vaccine for Hepatitis C.
clotting cascade is affected, leading to non-stop
bleeding: This statement is correct as Haemophilia Hence, option A is the correct answer.
results from the deficiency or dysfunction of clotting
proteins, leading to prolonged bleeding. Q72. 1-C: Vitamin B1 corresponds to Thiamine.
• In Sickle Cell Anaemia, the defect is caused by the • 2-B: Vitamin B2 corresponds to Riboflavin.
substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) with Valine (Val) • 3-D: Vitamin B3 corresponds to Niacinamide or
in the haemoglobin chain, causing sickle-shaped Niacin.
RBCs: This statement is correct as the mutation in • 4-E: Vitamin B5 corresponds to Pantothenic acid.
the haemoglobin gene leads to the production of
abnormal haemoglobin, causing RBCs to change • 5-A: Vitamin B6 corresponds to Pyridoxine.
shape under low oxygen conditions. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Thalassemia is caused by a genetic abnormality
that affects the production of haemoglobin and Q73. August Offer
leads to improper oxygen transport and red During the course of the Second World War, in order
blood cell destruction: This statement is correct to secure the cooperation of the Indians, Viceroy
as Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects Linlithgow made an announcement on 8 August 1940,
the synthesis of haemoglobin, leading to the which came to be known as the ‘August Offer’.
destruction of red blood cells and inadequate • It envisaged that after the war, a representative
oxygen delivery. body of Indians would be set up to frame the new
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Constitution and include five more Indians in the
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
Q71. HEPATITIS The terms of the August Offer were:
Hepatitis is an inflammatory condition of the liver, which • A representative Indian body would be formed
imbalances the normal functioning of bile production, after the war to frame a constitution for India, with
excretion of drugs and hormones, metabolism of fats, Dominion status as the objective.
proteins, synthesis of proteins, and enzyme activation.
There are 5 main hepatitis viruses, referred to as types • The Viceroy’s Executive Council would be
A, B, C, D, and E. expanded right away to include, for the first time,
more Indians than whites; however, the defence,
• Hepatitis A is caused by the Hepatitis A virus and finance, and home portfolios were to remain with
is acute. In most cases, symptoms may not be the British.
recognized in young people.
• An advisory war council was to be established.
• Hepatitis B is an infectious disease caused by the
Hepatitis B virus, contracted through contact with • An assurance was given to the minorities that no
blood, saliva, and fluids of an infected body. It transfer of power would take place “to any system
increases the risk of liver cancer and is 50 to 100 of government whose authority is directly denied
times more infectious than HIV. by large and powerful elements in Indian national
life.”

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• The August Offer was rejected by both Congress he wrote Percepts of Jesus in English (1820), in
and the Muslim League. which Roy separated the moral and philosophical
Hence, option A is the correct answer. message of the ‘New Testament’ from its miracle
stories.
Q74. 1-B: 2nd Congress, Calcutta, 1886 was presided Hence, option B is the correct answer.
over by Shri Dadabhai Naoroji.
• 2-A: 3rd Congress, Madras, 1887 was presided Q77. MAHAYANA BUDDHISM
over by Badruddin Tyabji. • It means the greater vehicle. The school is more
• 3-D: 4th Congress, Allahabad, 1888 was presided liberal and believes in the heavenliness of Buddha
over by George Yule. and Bodhisattvas embodying Buddha Nature.
• 4-C: 5th Congress, Bombay, 1889 was presided • The ultimate goal under Mahayana is “spiritual
over by Sir William Wedderburn. upliftment.” The Mahayana followers believe in
idol or image worship of Buddha.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• The concept of Bodhisattva is the result of
Q75. Aligarh Movement Mahayana Buddhism. Mahayana is also called
“Bodhisattvayana,” or the “Bodhisattva Vehicle.”
• The Aligarh Movement was started by Sir
Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-98) for the social and • Followers believe in the Bodhisattva concept of
educational advancement of Muslims in India. He the salvation of all conscious individuals. In other
fought against the medieval backwardness and words, they believe in universal liberation from
advocated a rational approach towards religion. suffering of all beings.
Major Activities • A Bodhisattva seeks complete enlightenment
for the benefit of all beings. A Bodhisattva
• In 1866, he started the Mohammadan Educational who has accomplished this goal is called a
Conference as a general forum for spreading liberal Samyaksaṃbuddha.
ideas among Muslims.
• Prominent Mahayana texts include the Lotus Sutra,
• In 1875, he founded a modern school at Aligarh to Mahavamsa, etc. As per the Lotus Sutra, Mahayana
promote English education among Muslims. This school believes in six perfections (or paramitas) to
later grew into the Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental be followed by an individual:
College and eventually became the Aligarh Muslim
University. 1. Dana (generosity)
Limitations 2. Sila (virtue, morality, discipline, and proper
conduct)
• Unfortunately, in the later stages, this movement
became anti-Congress and anti-Hindu, and pro- 3. Kṣanti (patience, tolerance, acceptance)
British due to some misconceived fears of Hindu 4. Virya (energy, diligence, vigor, effort)
domination. 5. Dhyana (one-pointed concentration)
Hence, option A is the correct answer. 6. Prajna (wisdom and insight)
Q76. Raja Ram’s Literary Works • As per scholars, one of the sub-sects of Mahayana
developed in later periods was Vajrayana.
• Roy’s ideas on monotheism and Vedanta were
put into his literary works, such as Tuhfat-ul- • The Mahayana scholars predominantly used
Muwahhidin in Persian in 1809 (English: ‘Gift to Sanskrit as a language.
Monotheists’). • Emperor Kanishka of the Kushana dynasty is said to
• He also translated the Vedas and Upanishads into be the founder of the Mahayana sect of Buddhism
Bengali to prove his conviction that ancient Hindu in the 1st century AD.
texts support monotheism. • Presently, the majority of Buddhist followers in the
• Roy believed that principles of rationalism applied world belong to the Mahayana sect (around 53.2%
to other sects as well, particularly to the elements as per the 2010 report). Other countries following
of blind faith in them. In pursuit of this belief, it include Nepal, Bangladesh, Japan, Vietnam,

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Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Mongolia, China, was the use of the foreshortening technique in the
Bhutan, Tibet, etc. buildings, such that the inscriptions appear to be
Hence, option D is the correct answer. closer than they really are.
• Symmetry of Structure: The architecture of this
Q78. CHARACTERISTIC FEATURES OF INDO-ISLAMIC period heavily used the principles of geometry,
STYLE from decorative patterns to imbibing a sense of
• ARCUATE STYLE: The use of arches and domes symmetry.
gained prominence during this period. It was • Charbagh Style: The Islamic rulers introduced the
known as the ‘arcuate’ style of architecture. Charbagh style of gardening, in which a square
• MINARS: The Islamic rulers introduced the use of block was divided into four adjacent identical
minars around mosques and mausoleums. gardens.
• USE OF MORTAR: Mortar was used as a cementing Hence, option A is the correct answer.
agent in their constructions.
Q79. Gandhara School
• Spaciousness: While Hindu architecture had
become too congested, the Indo-Islamic • Associated Region of Development: It developed
architecture introduced spaciousness, in the North-west frontiers of India.
massiveness, and breadth to it. • External Influence: Known as Indo-Greek Art due
• Jali Work: The buildings had intricate jaali works, to the heavy influence of Greek or Hellenistic
which signify the importance of light in Islamic elements.
religion. • Material Used: Initially used bluish-grey sandstone,
• Water in Premises: An important feature of the but later incorporated mud and stucco.
architecture during this period was the use of water • Theme: The theme was mainly Buddhist Imagery.
in the premises of the constructions in the form of • Patrons: It was patronized by Kushana rulers.
courtyard pools, fountains, and small drains. Water
was used primarily for three purposes: • Features of Buddha: Buddha is in a spiritual state.
Buddha has wavy hair with fewer ornaments and
o Religious purpose is seated in a Yogi posture. Eyes of Buddha are half
o Cooling the premises closed, and a protuberance is shown on the head,
o Decorative purpose signifying the omniscience of Buddha.
• General Means of Decoration: While previous Mathura School
structures used sculptures as means of decoration, • Associated Region of Development: It developed
Indo-Islamic architecture used calligraphy as a in and around Mathura, Sonkh, and Kankalitila.
means of decoration. Use of human and animal • External Influence: It was developed indigenously
figures was avoided in Indo-Islamic architecture. and not influenced by external cultures.
• Arabesque Method: Another alluring technique • Material Used: Spotted red sandstone was used as
commonly used for decoration was the “Arabesque material.
Method.” Arabesque incorporated the use of
geometrical vegetal ornamentation and was • Theme: Its theme had an influence of all three
characterized by a continuous stem, which split religions—Hinduism, Buddhism, and Jainism.
regularly, producing a series of counterpoised, • Patrons: It was patronized by Kushana rulers.
leafy, secondary stems. • Features of Buddha: Buddha is shown in a
• Pietra-Dura: The architectures of these times also delighted mood with a smiling face.
used the pietra-dura technique for the inlay of Amravati School
precious stones and gems into stone walls. Pietra
Dura is an inlay technique using cut and fitted, • Associated Region of Development: It developed
highly polished colored stones to create images. It in the Krishna-Godavari lower valley, in and around
is considered a decorative art. Vengi, Amravati, and Nagarjunakonda.
• Foreshortening Technique: Another unique feature • External Influence: It was developed indigenously
and was not influenced by external influence.

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• Material Used: Sculptures were made using white Hence, option D is the correct answer.
marbles.
• Theme: The theme mainly had Buddhist influence. Q82. The Central Council of Local Government was
set up in 1954 under Article 263 of the Constitution of
• Patrons: It was patronized by Satvahana rulers. India by an order of the President.
• Features of Buddha: Sculptures were generally • Initially, it dealt with both urban and rural local
a part of narrative art. There is less emphasis on governments, but after 1958, its focus shifted to
individual features of Buddha, and it generally urban local governments only.
depicts life stories of Buddha.
• The Council is an advisory body, not a decision-
Hence, option B is the correct answer. making body, and it does not have executive
powers.
Q80. Pottery in Vedic Age
• The Council includes the Minister for Urban
• The Vedic Era saw the emergence of Painted Grey Development in the Government of India and
Ware (PGW) Culture. the ministers for local self-government from the
• The Rig Vedic sites have PGW, but iron objects and states.
cereals are absent. Hence, it is considered a pre- Hence, option C is the correct answer.
iron phase of PGW. On the other hand, the Later
Vedic sites are considered the iron-phase of PGW. Q83. Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘federation’ is
• This pottery is an Iron Age pottery found in the not mentioned anywhere in the Indian Constitution.
Gangetic Plain and Ghaggar-Hakra Valley, lasting Instead, the Constitution refers to India as a ‘Union of
from roughly 1200 BC – 600 BC. Mathura was the States’ under Article 1.
largest PGW site. • Statement 2 is correct: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
• Characterized by a style of fine, grey pottery explained that ‘Union of States’ was preferred over
painted with geometric patterns in black. ‘Federation of States’ to emphasize that India is an
• It is confined to a few geographical locations, indestructible union, and no state has the right to
namely Punjab, Haryana, and Upper Ganga Valley. secede.
This culture is associated with village and town • Statement 3 is correct: Article 1 of the Indian
settlements (but without large cities). Constitution explicitly states that “India is a Union
• Towards the very end of the Later Vedic Age, of States.”
around the 6th century BC, the emergence of the Hence, option B is the correct answer.
2nd phase of urbanization (1st being the Indus
Valley Civilization) is observed. This era marked Q84. Establishment and Constitutional Status: The
the beginning of the Northern Black Polished Ware NCBC was initially established as a statutory body in
(NBPW). 1993 under the National Commission for Backward
Hence, option C is the correct answer. Classes Act, 1993. It was later granted constitutional
status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
Q81. Article 44 advocates for a Uniform Civil Code for 2018, which introduced Article 338B into the Indian
all citizens of India, as stated in the Directive Principles Constitution.
of State Policy. • Composition: As per Article 338B, the Commission
• Article 45 provides for early childhood care and consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson,
education for children until the age of six years. This and three other members, all appointed by the
provision was amended by the 86th Constitutional President of India.
Amendment Act of 2002, which made education a • Powers: The NCBC is vested with all the powers
fundamental right. of a civil court while investigating matters related
• Article 48A directs the state to safeguard the to the safeguards provided for socially and
environment, forests, and wildlife. This directive educationally backward classes. These powers
was introduced by the 42nd Constitutional include summoning individuals, requiring the
Amendment Act of 1976, focusing on environmental production of documents, and receiving evidence
protection. on affidavits.

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• Role and Functions: The Commission’s primary  Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and
role is to investigate and monitor all matters Rajya Sabha
concerning the safeguards for socially and  Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
educationally backward classes and to advise on
• Tenure:
their socio-economic development. However, it
does not have the authority to enforce laws or o Chairperson and members of NHRC will hold
implement policies; it functions as an advisory and office for three years or till the age of seventy
investigative body. years, whichever is earlier. The Chairperson and
members both are eligible for reappointment.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
• Removal:
Q85. India ranked 159 among 180 countries in the o Both Chairperson and members can be
annual WPFI 2024. removed from office by order of the President
• It is released by Paris-based Reporters Without on the ground of proved misbehaviour or
Borders (RSF), one of the world’s leading NGOs incapacity after consultation with the Supreme
in the defense and promotion of freedom of Court.
information. • Powers of NHRC:
• It is published on World Press Freedom Day (3 o It has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit
May). under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and in
• Theme: “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in the particular in respect of the following matters:
face of the Environmental Crisis.”  Summoning and enforcing the attendance
About WPFI 2024: of witnesses and examining them on oath;
• Top 3 rankers are Norway, Denmark, and Sweden.  Discovery and production of any document;
• Based on 5 indicators: Political, Economic,  Receiving evidence on affidavits;
Legislative, Social, and Security.  Requisitioning any public record or copy
Hence, option B is the correct answer. thereof from any court or office;
 Issuing commissions for the examination
Q86. About the National Human Rights Commission of witnesses or documents.
(NHRC)
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Genesis:
Q87. As per the CAA, 2019, illegal migrants who are
o It is a statutory body, established under the Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, or Christians
Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, are not considered illegal under the Act if they meet
as amended in 2006 and in 2019. the specified conditions.
o PHRA defines Human Rights as the rights • The conditions are:
relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of
o they are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis
the individual. These rights are guaranteed by
or Christians
the Constitution or embodied in International
Covenants and are enforceable by courts in o they are from Afghanistan, Bangladesh or
India. Pakistan they entered India on or before
December 31, 2014
• Appointment:
o they are not in certain tribal areas of Assam,
o Chairperson and Members of the Commission
Meghalaya, Mizoram, or Tripura included in
are appointed by the President of India, on the
the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution, or areas
recommendations of a committee, headed by
under the “Inner Line” permit, i.e., Arunachal
the Prime Minister, consisting of:
Pradesh, Mizoram, and Nagaland.
 Speaker of Lok Sabha
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
 Minister-in-Charge of Ministry of Home
Affairs

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Q88. Uttarakhand became the first State in the country It is based on the basic accounting equation:
to pass a law on Uniform Civil Code (UCC): Assets = Liabilities + Capital
• Assam and Gujarat are the other states working on Rearranging, we get:
the implementation of UCC.
Capital = Assets – Liabilities
• Goa is the only place in India where a form of
common civil code is in practice, the Portuguese Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Civil Code of 1867.
Q91. The core idea behind insurance is indemnification—
Key Highlights of Uttarakhand UCC: that is, compensating the insured for financial losses
• Applicability: resulting from uncertain events. It does not eliminate
o Applies to all residents of Uttarakhand except risk entirely, nor is it primarily intended to generate
the tribal community and those protected income or wealth.
under Part XXI of the Constitution. • The main objective of an insurance contract is to
• Marriage and Live-in Relationships: provide financial protection.
o Mandates registration of all live-in relationships • It compensates the insured against unexpected
within one month and marriages within 60 losses like death, accident, fire, theft, etc.
days, applicable to all residents. • Insurance does not aim to generate income or
o Excludes the LGBTQIA+ community. eliminate all risks. It only manages the financial
consequences of risks.
o Grants legal recognition to children from
voidable marriages and live-in relationships. • Indemnity means putting the insured back in the
same financial position as before the loss (as far as
• Criminalization of Some Marriage Practices: possible).
o Bans practices like nikah-halala and triple Hence, option B is the correct answer.
talaq.
• Prohibition of Bigamy or Polygamy. Q92. Errors of Commission are those errors that arise
Hence, option C is the correct answer. due to wrong recording, wrong posting, wrong carrying
forward, wrong casting (totalling) of subsidiary books,
Q89. When goods are destroyed by fire and the wrong balancing, etc.
transaction is not recorded, this is known as error of • Errors of Commission may be classified as follows:
omission. Error of omission is when a transaction is not o Error of Recording: It arises when a transaction
recorded in the books at all, or recorded in journal but is incorrectly recorded in the books of original
not posted in the ledger accounts. Since transaction entry. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
is not recorded at all, the effect is one debit as well
as credit side. This implies trial balance will not be o Error of Casting: The process of totalling the
affected because both debit and credit aspect of the transactions at the end of the period is called
entry is missing. casting. If there is an error in totalling, it is
called an error of casting or totalling. Hence,
The omission of the transaction affects the net profit. Statement 2 is correct.
This is because, the entry for goods lost on fire affects
the purchases account balance, and purchases account o Error in Carrying Forward: It arises if a mistake
is included in trading account for calculating gross is committed in carrying forward a total of
profit which is affected by any increase or decrease one page to the next page. It is classified as
in the value of purchases account. The gross profit is an error of commission. Hence, Statement 3
transferred to profit and loss account for calculation is incorrect.
of net profit. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Q93. The profit and loss account reflects a company’s
Q90. Total Assets – Outside Liabilities = Capital operating income and expenses over a specific period.
When a fixed asset is sold, the difference between
This represents the owner’s equity or net worth of the the selling price and the net book value (original cost
business.

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minus accumulated depreciation) represents a gain or o Capital Expenditure is recurring; Revenue

loss from the sale. This gain or loss is considered part Expenditure is non-recurring. This is the reverse
of the company’s overall operating performance and is of the truth. Capital expenditure is typically non-
therefore recorded in the profit and loss account. recurring, while revenue expenditure is recurring.
All other options are incorrect. o Capital Expenditure is transferred to P&L; Revenue
• Capital Reserve A/c: Capital reserves are typically Expenditure is recorded in balance sheet. This is
used to record surpluses from the issue of shares or again opposite. Capital expenditure is recorded in
revaluation of assets. Hence, option B is incorrect. the balance sheet, while revenue expenditure is
recorded in the profit and loss account.
• Revaluation Reserve A/c: This account reflects the
difference between the revalued amount of an o Capital Expenditure is for daily business
asset and its original cost. It might be impacted by conduct; Revenue Expenditure is for fixed asset
the sale of a revalued asset, but not directly. Hence, purchase. This is incorrect. Capital expenditure
option C is incorrect. is for fixed assets, while revenue expenditure
supports daily operations.
• Capital A/c: Capital account represents the
owner’s equity in the business. It’s not directly Hence, option C is the correct answer.
affected by the sale of fixed assets. Hence, option
D is incorrect. Q97. The par value (also known as face value) of a
share is its nominal value, which is typically set when
Hence, option A is the correct answer. the share is issued.
Q94. When cashbook is prepared, there is no need to It’s the value stated in the company’s charter or the
prepare cash account because question of recording share certificate, and it doesn’t change with market
credit transaction does not arise, as it records only fluctuations.
cash transactions. Hence, the balances of cashbook are Hence, option C is the correct answer.
directly entered in the trial balance.
Journal Proper is needed for other entries (adjustments, Q98. The matching principle requires that revenues
non-cash transactions). and any related expenses be recognized together in
the same reporting period. Thus, if there is a cause-
Purchases Book and Sales Book are for credit and-effect relationship between revenue and certain
transactions, not cash. expenses, then record them at the same time. If there
Hence, option A is the correct answer. is no such relationship, then charge the cost to expense
at once. This is one of the most essential concepts in
Q95. External users are individuals or groups who accrual basis accounting, since it mandates that the
do not have direct involvement in the day-to-day entire effect of a transaction be recorded within the
operations of the business but use its accounting same reporting period.
information. Here are several examples of the matching principle:
Labour unions are external users as they assess • Commission. A salesman earns a 5% commission
financial statements to negotiate wages, benefits, and on sales shipped and recorded in January. The
working conditions. commission of Rs 5,000 is paid in February. You
Internal users (e.g., CEO, Plant Managers, Financial should record the commission expense in January.
Officer) are those who are directly involved in managing • Depreciation. A company acquires production
and operating the business. equipment for Rs 30000 that has a projected
Hence, option B is the correct answer. useful life of 15 years. It should charge the cost of
the equipment to depreciation expense at the rate
Q96. Capital expenditure is used to purchase or of Rs 2,000 per year for 15 years.
improve long-term assets, so the benefits derived from • Employee bonuses. Under a bonus plan, an
it span multiple accounting years. On the other hand, employee earns a Rs 50,000 bonus based on
revenue expenditure is used to maintain daily business measurable aspects of her performance within a
operations and is consumed within the same financial year. The bonus is paid in the following year. You
year, offering short-term benefits.

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should record the bonus expense within the year Q101. Realisation Account is opened at the time of
when the employee earned it. dissolution of a partnership firm. In this account, the
• Wages. The pay period for hourly employees ends assets and liabilities are transferred at their book
on March 28, but employees continue to earn values. Also, the firm’s assets are realised and liabilities
wages through March 31, which are paid to them are paid off.
on April 4. The employer should record an expense Hence, option C is the correct answer.
in March for those wages earned from March 29
to March 31. Q102. For a private company, internal audit becomes
• Option B. Money Measurement Concept: This applicable under Section 138 of the Companies Act,
concept states that only transactions measurable 2013 only if either:
in money are recorded in accounts. While • turnover is ₹200 crore or more during the preceding
relevant in financial accounting, it doesn’t explain financial year; or
depreciation. • outstanding loans or borrowings from banks/
• Option C. Cost Concept: This concept implies that public financial institutions exceed ₹100 crore at
assets are recorded at their original purchase price. any point of time during the preceding financial
It doesn’t deal with how that cost is expensed over year.
time. Option A and B are incorrect because only private
• Option D. Materiality Concept: This principle companies meting either of the following above criteria
allows for ignoring minor items if their impact need to appoint internal auditor.
is insignificant. Depreciation of a fixed asset is Option C is incorrect as the borrowing threshold is
material and thus systematically recorded—not ₹100 crore, not ₹50 crore.
applicable here.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Q103. In a cash sale, the seller issues a cash memo to
Q99. In case shares are issued at a premium, i.e. at an document the transaction. It acts as a proof of sale for
amount more than the nominal or par value of shares, the buyer and serves as a primary voucher in cash-
the amount of premium is credited to a separate based retail transactions.
account called ‘Securities Premium Reserve Account’
under the head Reserves and surplus in the liabilities • Option A is incorrect as it does not indicate cash
side of the balance sheet. transaction.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. • Option B is incorrect because a Purchase Bill is
issued by the seller to the buyer in credit purchases,
Q100. Reissue of shares is merely a sale of Forfeited not cash sales.
Shares and not an allotment of shares. • Option D is incorrect as Bank Statements are
• The forfeited shares can be reissued as per the summaries of bank account activity and not used
provisions of the Articles of the company. specifically for cash sales.
• The Re-issue price of forfeited shares must be at Hence, option C is the correct answer.
least equal to the difference between the paid-
up value of Re-issued Shares and the Amount Q104. The SDGs (2015–2030) consist of 17 Goals and
Forfeited on Re-issue Shares. 169 Targets. Goals include:
• In other words, the Re-issue price must not be less • End poverty (Goal 1),
than the amount unpaid on Forfeited Shares.
• End hunger (Goal 2),
• Therefore, the difference between paid up value
of reissued shares and the amount forfeited = Rs. • Achieve gender equality (Goal 5),
50 - 30 = Rs. 20. • Combat climate change (Goal 13).
Hence, option A is the correct answer. Hence, option D is correct answer

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Q105. Article 19 of the Constitution of India grants 200 million women joining the workforce by
six fundamental rights related to freedom, such as the 2035 through investments in childcare.
right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom to o Related Organizations: The Financial Action
assemble peacefully without arms, and the freedom to Task Force (FATF) was established during the
form associations or unions. G7 Summit held in Paris in 1989.
• However, the right to own property is not granted News on G7
under Article 19; it was removed by the 44th
Amendment Act, 1978 and is now covered under • The Global Minimum Tax (GMT) regime was
Article 300A as a constitutional right. proposed by the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD) and was
Hence, option D is correct answer approved in 2021, with an effective date of 2024.
Q106. A widowed mother is explicitly listed as a • The framework was designed to prevent base
dependent under the Act. erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) by multinational
enterprises and to ensure a level playing field in
• A son or daughter above 18 years, if infirm and global taxation.
fully dependent, qualifies as a dependent.
It operates under a two-pillar structure:
• A paternal grandparent is considered dependent
only if no parent of the employee is alive; therefore, • Pillar One reallocates taxing rights based on
the statement is incorrect. market presence.
• An unmarried daughter (legitimate or adopted) is • Pillar Two mandates a 15% minimum tax on
recognized as a dependent. corporations with revenue exceeding €750 million
(approx. $812 million).
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
The agreement includes a top-up tax mechanism:
Q107. About G7 • If a country’s effective tax rate is below 15%,
• The Group of Seven (G7) is an intergovernmental other countries where the company operates are
organization that originated in response to the allowed to impose an additional tax to meet the
1973 energy crisis, aiming to discuss and address minimum.
major global issues. • In June 2025, the G7 proposed that U.S.
• Membership and Structure multinational firms be exempted from taxation
by foreign jurisdictions under GMT, with taxation
o Members: The G7 consists of seven member limited to the United States only.
countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy,
Japan, the UK, and the USA. • However, this exemption still requires formal
approval from the OECD to be implemented.
o Participation: The European Union participates
in G7 discussions but does not hold the rotating Hence, option D is the correct answer.
presidency, a tradition that has been in place
since 1977. Q108. Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis
of Knowledge for Holistic Development Rashtriya
o Secretariat: The nation holding the presidency Sarvekshen (PARAKH RS):
serves as a temporary secretariat for the
group. Released by: Performance Assessment, Review, and
Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development
• History and Goals (PARAKH), an autonomous institution under the
o Foundation: The foundation and first summit National Council of Educational Research and Training
of the G7 were held in France in 1975, with (NCERT)
Canada joining the group in 1976. • Low-performing Districts:
o Expansion to G8: The G7 temporarily expanded o Grade 3: Sahebganj (Jharkhand), Reasi &
to the G8 with the inclusion of Russia in 1997, Rajouri (Jammu and Kashmir)
but Russia was suspended in 2014 following
the annexation of Crimea. o Grade 6: North Garo Hills, South Garo Hills and
Southwest Garo Hills of Meghalaya
o Initiatives: The G7 aims to support the goal of

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o Grade 9: Shi Yomi of Arunachal Pradesh, • Equalled Suzie Bates with 13 Women’s ODI
Southwest Garo Hills and North Garo Hills of centuries, joint second-most after Meg Lanning
Meghalaya (15).
Hence, option A is correct. • Scored the fastest ton in the format by an Indian.
• She also scored the fastest fifty by an Indian
Q109. Statement 1 is correct as the award is instituted woman in ODIs. (Statement 3 is correct)
by M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) Hence, option C is the correct answer.
and The World Academy of Sciences (TWAS).
Statement 2 is correct: Professor Ademola Adenele, Q111. The Act allows the appropriate Government,
Nigerian scientist, honoured for efforts in combating after consulting the Corporation and with Central
hunger in Nigeria is the first recipient of the award. Government approval (in case of a State Government),
About M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace to extend the provisions to any establishment.
• Instituted during M.S. Swaminathan Centenary • This extension must be notified through publication
International Conference. in the Official Gazette.
• Instituted by M.S. Swaminathan Research • The notice period specified in the Act is one month,
Foundation (MSSRF) and The World Academy of i.e., 30 days.
Sciences (TWAS). • Hence, the correct answer is 30 days.
• First Recipient: Professor Ademola Adenele, Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Nigerian scientist, honoured for efforts in
combating hunger in Nigeria. Q112. The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) was officially
• Purpose: To recognise contributions of scientists launched on September 9, 2023, during the 18th G20
from the developing world who have worked Summit in New Delhi, as a major multilateral initiative
towards Food and Peace. to advance the adoption of biofuels for sustainable
energy transitions.
About M.S. Swaminathan Centenary International
Conference. • Founding countries included:
• Organizers: M.S. Swaminathan Research o India, USA, Brazil, Italy, Argentina, Singapore,
Foundation, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Bangladesh, Mauritius, and UAE
Welfare, Indian Council of Agricultural Research • The objective was to promote biofuel-based
(ICAR), and National Academy of Agricultural technologies, investments, and trade, particularly
Sciences. among developing and major energy-consuming
• Theme: Evergreen Revolution – The Path to Bio- nations.
Happiness. • In July 2025, Namibia joined the alliance during
• Commemorated the birth centenary of Prof. PM Modi’s visit, expanding the coalition’s reach
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, pioneer of India’s Green into Africa.
Revolution and food security initiatives. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Q113. The Act indeed applies to factories engaged in
Q110. Smriti Mandana’s Achievement: industries listed in Schedule I with 20 or more workers.
• Smriti Mandhana Became the fastest Indian • It also applies to other establishments employing
to score an ODI century, smashing a 50-ball 20 or more individuals, or those specifically notified
ton against Australia in New Delhi by the Central Government.
• Virat Kohli held the record with a 52-ball • The Central Government can extend the Act’s
hundred against Australia in 2013 (Statement 1 is provisions to establishments with fewer than 20
correct). employees by giving a 2-month notice. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
• Her century is now the second-fastest in
Women’s ODIs, behind Meg Lanning’s 45-ball ton. • Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(Statement 2 is correct). Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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Q114. Statement 1 is correct: The mission is  Advanced AI courses and certifications in

spearheaded by the Ministry of Electronics and collaboration with academia and industry.
Information Technology (MeitY) and implemented by • IndiaAI Startup Financing
the Digital India Corporation (DIC).
 Financial support to AI startups via a dedicated
Statement 2 is correct: A key pillar of the mission is the fund, including risk capital, venture support,
creation of a unified datasets platform to support the and mentoring.
development of foundational AI models.
• Safe & Trusted AI
Statement 3 is incorrect as the mission aims to
establish a high-end AI computing infrastructure of  Framework for ethical, responsible, and
over 10,000 GPUs. unbiased AI development and deployment.
About India AI Mission Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• Launch Year: 2024 Q115. As per the Legal Metrology (Packaged
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Commodities) Rules, 2011, following the GST rate
Information Technology (MeitY) revision:
• Implementing Body: Digital India Corporation o Manufacturers, packers, and importers
(DIC) may voluntarily affix revised MRP stickers on
• Objectives: To develop a robust artificial unsold stock produced before the GST change.
intelligence ecosystem in India that supports o Re-stickering is optional and not mandatory.
innovation, research, compute infrastructure, and o The earlier requirement to publish revised
entrepreneurship, while ensuring responsible and MRP in newspapers (Rule 18(3)) has been
inclusive AI use across sectors. relaxed; revised price lists only need to be
• Tenure: 5 years shared with wholesale dealers and retailers,
IndiaAI Mission Pillars: Mission has 7 core pillars – with copies endorsed to the Director of Legal
Metrology and State/UT Controllers.
• IndiaAI Compute Capacity
• Old packaging is permitted until 31st March
 Establish a high-end AI computing 2026 or until the stock is exhausted, whichever
infrastructure of over 18,693 GPUs (Graphics occurs earlier. This provides businesses flexibility
Processing Units). to manage inventory without unnecessary financial
 Public-private partnership model to enable burden due to re-packaging.
affordable access (up to 40% reduced cost). Hence, option B is the correct answer.
• IndiaAI Innovation Centre
 Focused R&D hub to develop foundational and Q116. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 applies to
large-scale AI models. factories, mines, plantations (including those owned
by the government), and establishments involving
 Includes multilingual and domain-specific performances like equestrian or acrobatics.
Indian models.
• It also extends to every shop or establishment
• IndiaAI Datasets Platform recognized under the relevant state laws.
 Creation of a unified data platform with • The Act becomes applicable if 10 or more persons
standardized, high-quality datasets for AI are employed, or have been employed, at any time
model training. in the last 12 months.
• IndiaAI Application Development Initiative • Therefore, the correct answer is 10.
 Funding and support to develop AI-based Hence, option B is the correct answer.
societal impact solutions in agriculture,
healthcare, governance, education, etc. Q117. The Act covers all factories, mines, oilfields,
• IndiaAI FutureSkills plantations, ports, and railway companies.
 Capacity building and skilling of AI professionals, • It also applies to shops or establishments where 10
students, and government staff. or more employees are, or have been, employed

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on any day in the preceding 12 months. Q119. Statement 3 is correct: Employer incentives are
• The Central Government holds the authority to tiered based on EPF wage slabs, and employees earning
extend its applicability to other establishments or up to ₹10,000 receive a proportional incentive.
classes of establishments meeting the 10-employee • Statement 1 is incorrect: First installment is paid
condition. after 6 months of continuous service, not 12.
• Once a shop or establishment comes under the • Statement 2 is incorrect: For 50 or more employees,
Act, it continues to remain covered even if the employers must hire at least 5 additional workers.
number of employees later falls below 10. • Statement 4 is incorrect: Employee incentives go
Hence, option C is the correct answer. via Aadhaar Bridge Payment System (ABPS); PAN-
linked accounts apply to employers.
Q118. Option C is incorrect: The scheme excludes Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
members of NPS, EPFO, and ESIC from eligibility.
• Announced by: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi
• Other options are factually correct per scheme on 12th Independence Day address from Red Fort
guidelines.
• Outlay: ₹1 lakh crore
Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
Yojana • Objective: Creation of over 3.5 crore jobs in 2 years
• Launch – 2019 • Part A – Support to First-Time Employees
• Ministry of Labour and Employment o Target Group: First-time employees registered
with EPFO
• Central Sector Scheme
o Eligibility: Employees with salary up to ₹1 lakh
• Eligibility –
o Incentive:
o Unorganized Worker (UW)
 One-month EPF wage (max ₹15,000), in 2
o Entry age between 18 to 40 years instalments
o Monthly Income ₹15000 or below  1st instalment – after 6 months of service
o Should not be income tax payer  2nd instalment – after 12 months +
o Should not be members of NPS, EPFO, and completion of financial literacy programme
ESIC o Savings Habit: Part of incentive to be deposited
• Minimum assured pension of ₹3000 per month in savings instrument, withdrawable later
after attaining the age of 60 years o Expected Beneficiaries: ~1.92 crore first-time
• Monthly contribution varies from ₹55 per month employees
at the age of 18 years to ₹200 per month at the • Part B – Incentives for Employers
age of 40 years
o Target Group: Employers creating new jobs
• Family pension is applicable only to spouse (with salaries up to ₹1 lakh)
• Contribution – o Incentive:
o 50% by pensioner  ₹3,000 per month per new employee
o 50% by Central government  Duration: 2 years (extended to 3rd & 4th
• Implemented through - Life Insurance Corporation years for manufacturing sector)
of India and CSC eGovernance Services India  Condition: Employee must be retained for
Limited (CSC SPV). at least 6 months
• In case of death of beneficiary -Spouse shall be o Expected Beneficiaries: ~2.60 crore additional
entitled to receive 50% of the pension employments
• Subscriber gives regular contribution and died - • Incentive Payment Mechanism
Spouse can continue scheme.
o Part A (Employees): DBT through Aadhaar
Hence, option C is the correct answer. Based Payment System (ABPS)

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o Part B (Employers): Direct transfer to PAN- o Extended coverage by Central Government to

linked accounts sectors employing 20 or more persons in:
• Expected Outcomes  Shops, Hotels, Restaurants, Road Motor
o Job creation in all sectors, with focus on Transport establishments, Cinema
manufacturing including preview theatres
o Incentivizing youth entering workforce for the  Newspaper establishments, establishment
first time engaged in Insurance Business
o Formalization of workforce via EPFO  Non-Banking Financial Companies, Port
registration Trust, Airport Authorities, Warehousing
establishments
• Extension of social security coverage to crores of
youth Key Features:
Hence, option B is the correct answer. • Existing wage limit for coverage is ₹21,000/- per
month (₹25,000/- per month in case of Persons
Q120. Statement 1 is incorrect: Temporary with Disability)
disablement benefit starts from day one of injury and • Financed by contributions from employers and
is not dependent on contribution days. employees:
• Statement 2 is correct: Dependants’ benefit is o Employer’s Contribution – 3.25% of wages
90% of wage, provided death occurred due to paid/payable
employment injury/occupational hazard. o Employee Contribution – 0.75% of wages
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Extended sickness benefit paid/payable
is up to 2 years but only for 34 notified long-term o Employees in receipt of daily average wage
and malignant diseases, not for seasonal illness. up to ₹176/- are exempted from payment of
Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) scheme contribution
• Launch – 1952 o Employers contribute their own share in
• Nodal Ministry – Ministry of Labour & Employment respect of these employees
• Administration – By Employees’ State Insurance o State Governments also bear 1/8th share of
Corporation (ESIC) the cost of Medical Benefits within a per capita
limit of ₹1,500 per insured person per year
• Objective – To protect employees against the
impact of incidences of sickness, maternity, • 6 social security benefits:
disablement, and death due to employment injury o Medical Benefit:
and to provide medical care to insured persons  Full medical care to an Insured person and
and their families his family members from the day he enters
• Applicability: insurable employment
o To all non-seasonal factories employing 10 or  No ceiling on expenditure on the treatment
more persons of an Insured Person or his family member
o Extended coverage by some States/UTs to  Medical care also to retired and
sectors employing 10 or more persons in: permanently disabled insured persons
 Shops, Hotel, Restaurants, Cinema and their spouses on payment of a token
including preview theatres, Road-motor annual premium of ₹120/-
transport undertakings o Sickness Benefit:
 Newspaper establishments, Private  Cash compensation at the rate of 70% of
Medical Institutions, Educational wages payable to insured workers during
Institutions periods of certified sickness for a maximum
 Contract and casual employees of of 91 days in a year
Municipal Corporation/Municipal Bodies  In order to qualify for sickness benefit, an
Insured Person is required to contribute

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for 78 days in a contribution period of 6

months
o Extended Sickness Benefit:
 Extendable up to 2 years in case of 34
malignant and long-term diseases at an
enhanced rate of 80% of wages
o Enhanced Sickness Benefit:
 Equal to full wage is payable to insured
persons undergoing sterilization for
family planning up to 7 days/14 days for
Vasectomy and Tubectomy respectively
o Maternity Benefit:
 For confinement/pregnancy is payable
for 26 weeks, extendable by a further 1
month on medical advice at the rate of full
wage subject to contribution for 70 days in
preceding 2 Contribution Periods
o Disablement Benefit:
 Temporary disablement benefit:
 From day 1 of entering insurable
employment & irrespective of having
paid any contribution in case of
employment injury
 At the rate of 90% of wage is payable
as long as disability continues
 Permanent disablement benefit:
 Benefit at the rate of 90% of wage
in the form of monthly payment
depending upon the extent of loss
of earning capacity as certified by a
Medical Board
o Dependants’ Benefit:
 At 90% of wage in the form of monthly
payment to dependants of a deceased
Insured person in cases where death
occurs due to employment injury or
occupational hazards
o Other Benefits:
 Funeral Expenses, Confinement Expenses
 Some other need-based benefits to insured
workers: Vocational Rehabilitation,
Physical Rehabilitation, Unemployment
allowance
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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