31-08-2025

1902CMD303031250014 MD

PHYSICS

1) The vector sum of two force is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces:-

(1) Cannot be predicted

(2) Are perpendicular to each other
(3) Are equal to each other in magnitude
(4) Are not equal to each other in magnitude

2) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

3) Six vectors, through have magnitudes and direction as indicated in the figure. Which of the
following statements is true :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The vector that must be added to the vector and so that the resultant vector
is a unit vector along the Y-axis :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Null vector
5) If = = , the angle between and is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 0°
(3) 120°
(4) 90°

6) The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is 18 N and the magnitude of their
resultant is 12 N. If the resultant is at 90° with the smaller force, the magnitude of the forces (in
Newton) are :-

(1) 6, 12
(2) 11, 7
(3) 5, 13
(4) 14, 4

7) What is the projection of on y axis :-

(1)
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) –5

8) For given y–x curve value of at point P will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) The angle between the vectors and is θ.

The value of is -

(1) A2B
(2) zero
(3) A2Bsinθ
(4) A2Bcosθ

10) The vector component of vector along vector is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) A vector makes 60° angle with x-axis and 30° with y-axis then find the angle between the vector
and z-axis :

(1)

(2)

(3) 90°
(4) 0°

12) The angle between the two vectors and will be :-

(1) zero
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

13) If the resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle of 60° is Q then is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 4

14) If is along East direction and is along vertically Down-ward direction. Find the direction of
?
(1) towards North
(2) towards South
(3) towards West
(4) towards up-ward direction

15) If direction cosines of a vector are respectively then write the vector in the form of
if magnitude of vector is 9-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Figure shows three vectors and , where R is the mid-point of PQ. Then which of the

following relations is correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) The diagonals of a parallelogram are represented by vectors and .

Then the area of the parallelogram is :-

(1) unit
(2) unit
(3) 171 unit
(4) 72 unit

18) Find unit vector perpendicular to and where and

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) What is the angle between and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

20) Vector(s) perpendicular to (a cosθ + b sinθ ) may be :-

(1) (b sinθ – a cosθ )

(2)

(3)
(4) All of above

21) and then angle between is :

(1) θ
(2) 2θ
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

22) Find the magnitude of the unknown forces X and Y if sum of all forces is zero.

(1) 4, 8
(2) 5, 10
(3) 4, 10
(4) 5, 5

23) What is the angle between and ?

(1) 0
(2) π/4
(3) π/2
(4) π

24) A physical quantity which has a direction :-

(1) must be a vector

(2) may be a scaler
(3) must be a scaler
(4) Tensor

25) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) one fourth
(4) remain unaffected

26) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

27) Density of wood is 0.5 gm/cc in the CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS units
is

(1) 500
(2) 5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5000

28) The velocity of a particle depends upon as ; if the velocity is in m/sec, the unit of
a will be

(1) m/sec
(2) m/sec2
(3) m2/sec
(4) m/sec3

29) If α = sin βt, find dimensions of α/β [Here V = velocity, F = force, t = time]

(1) ML–1T–1
(2) M–1LT
(3) ML–1T
(4) M–1L–1T–1

30) If area (A), velocity (v) and denisty (ρ) are taken as fundamental units, what is the dimensional
formula for force?

(1) [Av2ρ]
(2) [A2 vρ]
(3) [Avρ2]
(4) [Avρ]

31)

A dimensionless quantity

(1) never has a unit

(2) always has a unit
(3) may have a unit
(4) does not exist

32) Number of significant figures in expression is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

33) If L = 3.331 cm, B = 3.1 cm, then value of L + B upto correct significant figures :

(1) 6.431cm
(2) 6.43 cm
(3) 6.4 cm
(4) 6 cm

34)

Number of significant digits in 0.01230 is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

35) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
the dimensional formula :-
(1) [P1 A–1 T1]
(2) [P2 A1 T1]
(3) [P1 A–1/2 T1]
(4) [P1 A1/2 T–1]

36)

value of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) (0.996)1/4 = ........ :-

(1) 0.992
(2) 1.002
(3) 0.999
(4) 1.001

38) Value of ............

(1) - 2
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

39)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)
If , find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)

If y = 5sinx + 2 cosx then maximum value of y is :-

5+2
(1)

(2) 7
(3) 10
(4) 5 – 2

42) Find minimum value of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Slope of straight line is -

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) -2
(4) -4

44) =?

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) None
45) The equation of straight line shown in figure is :-

(1) 6x + 8y = 15
(2) 4x + 3y = 18
(3) 2y + 6x = 7
(4) 3y + 4x = 24

CHEMISTRY

1) The probability of finding an electron residing in a px orbital is zero

(1) in the yz plane

(2) in the xy plane
(3) in the xz plane
(4) in the x-direction

2) Correct electronic configuration of Cr is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The correct relation according to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is/are :-

Δx . Δp ≥
(1)

ΔE × Δt ≥
(2)

Δx × Δv ≥
(3)

(4) All of the above

4)
An element has 18 electrons when its charge is –2 and it also has 20 neutron. What is its mass
number ?

(1) 38
(2) 39
(3) 40
(4) 36

5) The orbital diagraram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated
is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) In H-atom, electron transits from 6th orbit to 1st orbit in multistep. Then total spectral lines will be
:-

(1) 15
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 5

8) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen
atom :-

(1) He+ (n=2)

(2) Li2+ (n=2)
(3) Li2+ (n=3)
(4) Be3+ (n=2)

9) The number of angular and spherical nodes for 4py orbital will be :-

(1) 1, 3
(2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 2
(4) 3, 1

10) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in p-subshell will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Spin magnetic moment of 5.91 B.M. is given by :-

(1) Fe+3
(2) Co+2
(3) Mn+2
(4) Both (1) and (3)

12) Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the

(1) Nucleus
(2) Atom
(3) Neutron
(4) Electron

13) According to Bohr’s theory, then angular momentum for an electron of fifth orbit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) In hydrogen atom energy of electron in 2nd Bohr’s orbit is –3.4 eV. The kinetic energy of
electron in this orbit is

(1) –3.4 eV
(2) +3.4 eV
(3) –6.8 eV
(4) +1.7 eV

15) If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ions is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit
of Li2+ ion?

(1) 1.587 pm
(2) 158.7 Å
(3) 158.7 pm
(4) 15.87 pm

16) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. will be

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

17) The correct order of energy difference between adjacent energy levels in H–atom

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18)

In the Bohr's orbit, what is the ratio of the total kinetic energy and the total energy of the electron ?

(1) –1
(2) –2
(3) +1
(4) +2

19) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not possible :-

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = – 1/2
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = – 1/2
(3) n = 3, l = 3, m = –3, s = + 1/2
(4) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = + 1/2

20) If the shortest wavelength of H atom in Lyman series is x. then longest wavelength in Balmer
series of He+ is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) For which transition in H-atom, the amount of energy released will be maximum?

(1) n = 4 to n = 2
(2) n = 5 to n = 2
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(4) n = 7 to n = 2

22) If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The ratio of the wave lengths of last lines of Balmer and Lyman series is –

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 27 : 5
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 9 : 4

24) If ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then ionisation potential of He+ will be

(1) 54.4 eV
(2) 6.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(4) 24.5 eV

25) Velocity of light (c), frequency (v) and wavelength (λ) are related to one another as:

(1) c = vλ
(2) v = cλ
(3) λ = cv

(4)

26) For which species, Bohr's atomic theory does not apply?
(1) H
(2) Be
(3) He+
(4) Li2+

27)

Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II
(a) Number of orbitals in a subshell (i) n
(b) Number of subshells in a shell (ii) 2l + 1
(c) Maximum number of electrons in a shell (iii) 4l + 2
(d) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell (iv) 2n²
Which of the following options has all correct pair?
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

28) Given below are the two statements

Statement I : Azimuthal quantum number (ℓ) give information about the spatial orientation of the
orbital with respect to standard set of co-ordinate axis.
Statement II : For a given value of n, ℓ can have (n + 1) values ranging from 0 to n
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

29) Statement I: Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles, called electrons.
Statement II: The characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the
cathode ray tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

30) If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is halved and mass of electron is doubled, find out
the % change of atomic weight of C12

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

31) Which of the following order of energies of subshell is correct :-

(1) 2s < 3s < 3p < 2p

(2) 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p
(3) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
(4) 3s < 3d < 3p < 4s

32) In R = R0A1/3. The value of R0 is:

(1) 1.33 × 10–13 cm

(2) 1.33 × 10–15 cm
(3) 1.33 × 10–17 m
(4) 1.33 × 10–12 cm

33) As electron moves away from the nucleus, its potential energy:

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
(4) None of these

34) If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased four times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie
wave associated with it would become :-

(1) Two times

(2) Half
(3) One fourth
(4) Four times

35) How many electrons can be accomodate in, n=5, l=0, m=0 ?

(1) 50
(2) 10
(3) 2
(4) 6

36) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched :

(1) Isotopes ,
(2) Isotones

(3) Isobars
(4) Isoelectronic

37) The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is :-

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 4

38) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

39) Statement I : As we move away from nucleus in hydrogen atom velocity decreases.
Statement II : As we move away from nucleus in hydrogen atom total energy increases.

(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

40) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function

(1) 4d
(2) 3d
(3) 4p
(4) 4s

41) The quantum number not obtained from the Schrodinger’s wave equation is -

(1) n
(2) 1
(3) m
(4) s

42) If the diameter of two different nuclei are in the ratio 1 : 2 then their mass number are in the
ratio :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 4
43) An electron is in one of the 3d-orbitals. What are the possible values of n, ℓ and m for this
electron :-

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = –1, 0, + 1
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = –2, –1, 0, + 1, + 2,
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 3, mℓ = –3, –2, –1, 0, + 1, + 2, + 3

44) What will be the number of nodal surfaces in 3d subshell :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 0

45) Four quantum numbers for last electron of sodium (Na) atom :-

(1)
3, 0, 0, +

(2)
4, 0, 0, –

(3)
3, 1, 0, +

(4)
4, 1, 1, –

BIOLOGY

1) “The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
centromeres.” This quote can apply to :

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Telophase-I

2) Fill in the blanks.

In some organism karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which ....A.... condition
arises leading to the formation of .....B.....

(1) A – uninucleated, B – syncytium

(2) A – multinucleated, B – syncytium
(3) A – uninucleated, B – coenocytic
(4) A – enucleated, B – syncytium

3) Prophase is marked by :-
(1) Complete formation of nuclear envelop
(2) initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) Condensation of chromosomes is completed.
(4) Alignment of the chromosome at equatorial plate

4) Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which proteins

(1) Tubulin
(2) Myosin
(3) Actomyosin
(4) Myoglobin

5) Which stage represents transition to metaphase-I?

(1) Diakinesis
(2) Leptotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Both (1) and (2)

6) Which of the following phase of cell cycle is reverse of prophase :-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Dikaryophase

7) Identify the stage from the following events:-

(i) Bivalent chromosomes now clearly appears as tetrads.
(ii) Stage is characterized by appearance of nodules.
(iii) Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosome

(1) Metaphase II
(2) Prophase II
(3) Prophase I
(4) Anaphase

8) What is the average cell cycle span for a mammalian cell ?

(1) 24 hrs.
(2) 90 minutes
(3) 95 hrs.
(4) 24 minutes

9) G1, S and G2 are stages of

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

10) Identify the following figure of a stage of mitosis and choose the correct statement about it :

(1) Reform of nuclear envelope, nucleolus, ER and Golgi body

(2) Shows transition to metaphase
(3) Centromere split
(4) Chromosomes are moving towards opposite poles

11) Read the following statements and select the correct option that bears true statements :-
(i) During S-phase, amount of DNA per cell doubles, but chromosome number remains same.
(ii) A cell in G0 phase is metabolically inactive but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so
depending on the requirement of the organisms
(iii) Meiosis is called equational division.
(iv) At the end of prophase, golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope
get disappear

(1) only i, ii and iv

(2) only i, ii and iii
(3) only ii, iii and iv
(4) Only i and iv

12)

Correct sequence of substages of prophase I is :

(1) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Diakinesis

(2) Leptotene →Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis
(3) Leptotene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Pachytene → Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene → Diakenesis → Diplotene

13) Which of the following graph correctly represents DNA content (2C) and chromosome number
(2n) of a diploid cell undergoing different stages of cell cycle ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) How many events in the list given below occurs in M-phase of meiosis-I.
Replication of DNA, synapsis, bivalent formation, crossing over, terminalization of chiasmata, tubulin
protein synthesis, centriole duplication, seperation of homologous chromosomes, nuclear membrane
disappear, nucleolus disappear.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

15)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of Anaphase.
Statement II : Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I
and meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I and statement II both are true

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Statement I and statement II both are false

16) Assertion : We come across meiosis during gametogenesis in animals, this leads the formation
of haploid gametes.
Reason : Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material on the two homologous
chromosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Which one of the following correctly indicates the stages of mitosis at which particular events
occur.

Disappear Nuclear Division of

DNA Replication
Membrane centromere

(1) Interphase Prophase Anaphase

(2) Interphase Prophase Prophase

(3) Prophase Prophase Anaphase

(4) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) What will be the DNA content of the cells at G1, G2 and prophase if the content in G0 is 2C.

(1) 2C, 2C, 2C

(2) 4C, 4C, 4C
(3) 2C, 4C, 2C
(4) 2C, 4C, 4C

19) The total number of chromatids in a cell respectively during Anaphase I & II (where n = 23) are :

(1) 92 & 46
(2) 92 & 23
(3) 23 & 92
(4) 46 & 92

20) Read the following statements about cilium or flagellum and select the option which includes
correct statements-
(a) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are structurally similar
(b) Cilia work like oars and comparatively longer than flagella.
(c) Peripheral doublets are interconnected by A-B linker.
(d) Nine radial spokes are present.
(e) The core of cilium or flagellum is called axoneme.
Options :-

(1) b, d & e
(2) c, d & e
(3) a, b & c
(4) b, c & e

21) Fill up the blanks in the following statements with appropriate options :-
(I) Thylakoids are arranged is stacks like the pile of coin called ___(A)___.
(II) Ribosomes, are non-membrane bound granular structure first discovered by ____(B)____.
(III) The stroma of chloroplast contain enzymes required for the synthesis of ___(C)___.
(IV) Mitochondria produces cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they are called ___(D)___.

A B C D

(1) Grana Power house of the cell George palade Carbohydrate & protein

(2) Grana Power house of the cell Carbohydrate & protein George palade

(3) Grana George palade Carbohydrate & protein Power house of the cell

Power house
(4) Carbohydrate & protein Grana George palade
of the cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22)

Read the following statements (A to D) carefully-

(A) Nuclear envelope forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of
the cytoplasm.
(B) Both cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the basal bodies.
(C) The content of nucleolus is continuous with rest of the cytoplasm.
(D) In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of number of ions and other material along the
concentration gradient into the vacuole.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

23) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option-
 Column-I Column-II

(A) Chromatin (i) Present only in plant cells

(B) Centromere (ii) Loose & indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres.

(C) Metacentric (iii) Centromere is located at mid of the chromosome

(D) Kinetochore (iv) Primary constriction

(E) Microbodies (v) Site of attachment of spindle fibre

(vi) Minute vesicle bounded by membrane

Options -
(1) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - v, E - vi
(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - v, E - vi
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - v, E - vi
(4) A - v, B - i, C - iii, D - iv, E - ii

24) Assertion : RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and
secretion.
Reason : The RER shows ribosomes attached to their surface.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Read the statements carefully-

(a) Double membrane bounded cell organelle.
(b) Contain circular double stranded DNA.
(c) Contain 80S type ribosome
Select the correct option which is true for both mitochondria and chloroplast-

(1) Both (a) & (c) are correct

(2) Only (a) is correct and (b) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Only (b) & (c) are correct
(4) Both (a) & (b) are correct.

26) Given below are the two statements-

Statement-I : At number of places the nuclear envelop is interrupted by minute pores.
Statement-II : Materials of the nucleus is stained by the acidic dye was given the name chromatin
by Flemming.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
27) Assertion : Polar molecule require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their
transport across the membrane.
Reason : Polar molecule cannot pass through non-polar lipid bilayer.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Given below are the two statements-

Statement-I : Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction.
Statement-II : A few chromosome have non-staining secondary constriction at a constant location.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

29) Select the correct statements-

(A) According to Schleiden presence of cell wall is unique character of the plant cells.
(B) Cell theory was formulated by Schleiden & Schwann.
(C) Singer & Nicolson proposed that all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(D) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden & Schwann to gave cell theory a final
shape.
Option -

(1) Only (A), (B) & (C) are correct

(2) Only (A) & (B) are correct
(3) Only (A) & (D) are correct
(4) Only (B) & (D) are correct

30) Identify the given diagram & select the incorrect statement with respect to diagram

(1) It divide by fission

(2) Its number depend on physiological activities of cell.
(3) The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called cisternae
(4) It is considered as a site of aerobic respiration

31)
How many statements are correct with respect to given diagram.
(A) Varied number of cisternae are present.
(B) It act as important site of formation of glycolipids and glycoprotein.
(C) Cis-face and trans-face of the organelle are entirely similar but connected.
(D) It is densely stained reticular structure present near the nucleus.
Options-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

32) The vacuole is a membrane bounded structure found in cytoplasm of plant cells. The membrane
of vacuole is termed as-

(1) Cristae
(2) Grana
(3) Tonoplast
(4) Cisternae

33) Unicellular organism are capable of -

(1) Independent existance

(2) Perform the essential functions of life
(3) Sexual reproduction only
(4) Both (1) & (2)

34) Select the correct option with respect to A to D given in the diagram

A B C D

(1) Protein Integral protein Sugar Cholesterol

(2) Peripheral protein Integral protein Sugar Cholesterol

(3) Sugar Cholesterol Phospholipid bilayer Integral protein

(4) Cholesterol Sugar Phospholipid bilayer Integral protein

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
35) Match the column-I and column-II and select the correct option-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutral solutes (I) Active transport

(B) Water (II) Facilitated diffusion

(C) Polar molecules (III) Osmosis

(D) Na+/K+ Pump (IV) Simple diffusion

Options-
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(3) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(4) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

36) Which of the following structure gives shape to cell and protect the cell from mechanical damage
and infection ?

(1) Cell Wall

(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Golgi bodies

37) Which one of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, mitochondria and vacuoles
(2) RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum is important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.
(4) SER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in starch synthesis and secretion.

38) Given below are the two statement-

Statement-I : The Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables the lateral movement of protein within the
overall bilayer.
Statement-II : The cell wall of a young plant cell, the primary cell wall is capable of growth and it
gradually diminishes as the cell mature.

(1) Both statement I & statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I & statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

39) Select the incorrect pair ?

(1) Golgi apparatus → Digestion of protein, lipid, carbohydrate and nucleic acid.
(2) Amyloplast → Storage of Carbohydrate
(3) Aleuroplast → Storage of proteins
(4) Elaioplast → Storage of fats/oils

40) When green tomato converted into red tomato then :-

(1) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into leucoplasts.

(2) Leucoplasts converted into chloroplasts.
(3) Chloroplasts converted into chromoplasts
(4) Both (1) and (2)

41) Svedberg unit in ribosome is a measure of

(1) Volume & velocity

(2) Size & density
(3) Size & molecular weight
(4) Size & Specific gravity

42) Functions like mechanical support, motility and maintenance of shape of cell are performed by-

(1) Cytoskeleton
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Centriole

43) Which of the following statement is incorrect for centrioles ?

(1) Both the centriole in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.

(2) Central proteinaceous "Hub" is absent in centriole.
(3) Each centriole has an organisation like that of cart wheel.
(4) Centrosome usually contain two cylindrical centriole.

44) Large & more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out ________.

(1) Lipid synthesis

(2) Protein synthesis
(3) Vitamin synthesis
(4) Carbohydrate synthesis

45) Select the correct match -

(1) Nucleus → Discovered by Robert Brown

(2) Golgi complex → Discovered by Robert Brown
(3) Chromatin → Discovered by Singer & Nicolson
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum → Discovered by George Palade

46) Cartilagenous rings in trachea are incomplete at which surface :-

(1) Dorsal
(2) Ventral
(3) Lateral
(4) Ventrolateral

47) Which is the correct sequence of air passages in man ?

External nostril → Nasal passage → Internal nostril → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi →
(1)
Bronchioles ® Alveoli
(2) Nose → Larynx → Pharynx → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Alveoli
(3) Nose → Pharynx → Trachea → Larynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(4) Nose → Larynx → Bronchi → Pharynx →Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveoli

48) Mammalian lungs contain an enormous number of minute alveoli. This is to allow :

(1) more space for increasing the total volume of inspired air
(2) more surface area for diffusion of gases
(3) more spongy texture for keeping lungs in proper shape
(4) more nerve supply to keep, the organs working more efficiently

49) In the given statements choose the odd one :-

(1) Thoracic chamber is anatomically an air-tight chamber

(2) Any change in volume of the thoracic cavity is reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity
(3) The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining
(4) The inner pleural membrane is in cotact with the lung surface

50) Muscle of expiration are :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) EICM
(3) Diaphragm and EICM
(4) Abdomen muscle and IICM

51) Which of the following can be termed as opposite of Bohr's effect :-

(1) Hering-Breuer reflex

(2) Haldane's effect
(3) Chloride shift
(4) Hamburger's phenomenon

52)

Read the following statements :-

(A) It is a chronic disorder
(B) Major cause of it, is cigarette smoking
(C) It is an Allergy
(D) Alveolar walls are damaged
(E) Respiratory surface is decreased
(F) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

How many of the above statements are correct about Emphysema disorder ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

53) Maximum CO2 is transported in the form of :-

(1) Dissolve state with plasma water

(2) Carbonate salts through RBCs
(3) Bicarbonate
(4) Carbamino compound through RBC

54) Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) is incorrect

55) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing

(1) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active

(2) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive
(3) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(4) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes

56) In mammals how much CO2 is transported as bicarbonates in the blood ?

(1) 5-10%
(2) 10-90%
(3) 70-72%
(4) 90-95%

57) Select the correct labelling for given diagram.

(1) A–decreased, B–Relaxed
(2) A–Increased, B–Contraction
(3) A–Constant, B–Relaxed
(4) A–Increased, B–Relaxed

58) The partial pressure of CO2 in atmospheric air, oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood is
respectively :- (in mm of Hg)

(1) 104, 45, 40

(2) 95, 40, 45
(3) 0.3, 40, 45
(4) 0.3, 45, 40

59) Read the following statements :-

(a) Respiratory rhythm centre Present in Medulla region
(b) A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
(c) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant
(d) Pneumotaxic centre Present in Pons region.
(e) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can recognise changes in CO2 and H+
Concentration.
(f) Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate.
How many statements are correct about regulation of respiration.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

60) (i) High

(ii) High
(iii) High temperature
(iv) High H+ concentration
(v) Low
(vi) Low pH
Out of (i) to (vi) which factors are favourable for the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin ?

(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi)

(2) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(3) (ii), (iv), (v)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi)

61) Rate of breathing is directly affected by :-

(1) Concentration of CO2 in blood

(2) Concentration of O2 in blood
(3) Concentration of O2 in lung alveoli
(4) Expansion of diaphragm

62) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi & bronchioles take
place in ?

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Emphysema
(3) Asthma
(4) Occupational respiratory disorders

63) The contraction of external intercoastal muscles lift up the ribs and the sternum causing :-

(1) An increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis

(2) An increase in the volume of abdominal cavity in the dorsoventral axis
(3) An increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis
(4) An increase in the volume of abdominal cavity in the antero-posterior axis

64) Amount of O2 delivered to tissue per 1 litre of blood is :-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 10 ml
(4) 40 ml

65) What will be pO2 and pCO2 in atmospheric air compared to those in alveolar air ?

(1) pO2 lesser ; pCO2 higher

(2) pO2 higher ; pCO2 lesser
(3) pO2 higher ; pCO2 higher
(4) pO2 lesser ; pCO2 lesser

66) Four statements (A-D) are given. How many statements are correct ?
(A) O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(B) Each haemoglobin molecule can carry maximum of four molecules of O2.
(C) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2.
(D) About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBC in the blood.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

67) Assertion :- The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit
difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.
Reason :- Solubility of CO2 is 20–25 times higher than that of O2.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

68) A small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place is diagrammatically
represented below. Select the option which represents labelled part (A, B, C or D) correctly
identified along with its function :-

(1) C : Arterial capillary Passes oxygen to tissues

(2) D : Capillary wall Exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here

(3) A : Alveolar cavity Main site of exchange of respiratory gases

(4) B : Red blood cells Transport of CO2 as carboxyhemoglobin

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

69) What percentage of CO2 is transported by RBC?

(1) 70%
(2) 20–25%
(3) 7%
(4) 97%

70) Respiratory rhythm centre is regulated by :-

(1) Chemosensitive area present in the wall of lungs

(2) Diencephalon and brain stem
(3) Difference between diffusion capacity of gases
(4) Chemosensitive area present in medulla oblongata for and pH

71) Maximum volume of air that a person can expire after maximum inspiration is represented as

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Vital capacity
(3) Inspiratory capacity
(4) Expiratory reserve volume

72) The switch off point of breathing which can moderate the function of respiratory rhythm centre
in medulla is situated in

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Midbrain

73) All of the following structures present in our respiratory system are supported by incomplete
cartilaginous rings except

(1) Trachea
(2) Secondary bronchi
(3) Respiratory bronchioles
(4) Initial bronchioles

74) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. larynx.

(1) It is a bony box situated in the region of neck

(2) Pharynx opens into the trachea through the larynx
(3) During swallowing of food, glottis is covered by epiglottis
(4) This is a sound producing organ in both males and females

75) A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately _____ ml air per minute. Choose the option
which fills the blank correctly.

(1) 500 - 600

(2) 600 - 800
(3) 800 - 1000
(4) 6000 - 8000

76) Match column I, II and III and choose the correct options
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) What is true about diffusion capacity?

(1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is much higher than O2

(2) Diffusion capacity of O2 is much higher than CO2
(3) Diffusion capacity of O2 and CO2 is the same
(4) Diffusion capacity of CO is less than O2

78) If RV is 1100 ml and ERV is 1000 ml then. Find at the value of FRC ?

(1) 6000 ml
(2) 3000 ml
(3) 2100 ml
(4) 500 ml

79) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of

(1) 2nd cervical vertebra

(2) 5th cervical vertebra
(3) 5th thoracic vertebra
(4) 5th lumbar vertebra

80) Alveoli are :-

(1) Thin, regular walled, vascularized

(2) Thin, irregular walled, non vascularized
(3) Thick, regular walled, vascularized
(4) Thin, irregular walled, vascularized

81) In human the contraction of external inter-costal muscles help in :

(1) Lifts up the ribs and the sternum

(2) Increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis
(3) Decrease the pressure in the thoracic chamber
(4) All of these

82) Match Column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Asthma (I) Fibrosis

Respiratory
(b) Bronchitis (II) surface
decreased

Regular
(c) Emphysema (III)
coughing

Occupational Respiratory
(d) (IV) Wheezing
disorders
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) I II III IV
(2) IV III II I
(3) II III IV I
(4) III II IV I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally, ventrally and laterally by :-

(1) Sternum, Vertebral column and Ribs

(2) Vertebral column, Ribs and Sternum
(3) Ribs, Vertebral column and Sternum
(4) Vertebral column, Sternum and Ribs

84) Total lung capacity is -

(1) E.R.V. + R.V.

(2) T.V + E.R.V. + R.V
(3) V.C + R.V
(4) I.C + R.V

85) Refer the given figure and answer the question :-

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the above figure ?

When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a
(1)
sigmoid curve is obtained.
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of carbon monoxide.
(3) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2 as similar to Hb at different pCO2.
(4) All of the above

86) Mark the correct order of lung volumes

(1) TV < ERV < RV < IRV

(2) TV < RV < ERV < IRV
(3) IRV < RV < TV < ERV
(4) ERV < TV < RV < IRV

87) Binding of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide leads to formation of :-

(1) Oxy haemoglobin

(2) Methemoglobin
(3) Carboxy haemoglobin
(4) Carbamino haemoglobin

88) After the normal expiration, how much amount of air remains in our lungs :-

(1) 2300 ml
(2) 4600 ml
(3) 1200 ml
(4) 1600 ml

89) During unloading of CO2 .....................

(1) Cl– moves from plasma to RBCs

–
(2) HCO3 moves from RBCs to plasma
(3) Cl– moves from RBCs to plasma
–
(4) HCO3 move from plasma to alveoli
90)

Which enzyme is present in RBCs to catalyse the given reactions ?

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3–

(1) Catalase
(2) Peroxidase
(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Carbonic anhydrase
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 1 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 4 1 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 3 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 4 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 4 4 1 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) and
As two vectors are perpendicular to each other, hence .

or

or

or

or

or

2) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

3)

correct answer is

4)

5)

correct answer is 60°

6)

correct answer is 5, 13

7)

correct answer is 3

8)

Correct answer is
 9)

correct answer is zero.

10)

Projection of and =
here = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12

so projection

11) cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ = 1

α = 60° , β = 30°
cosγ = 0
γ = 90°

12)

correct answer is 90°

13)

correct answer is 2.

14)

correct answer is towards South.

15)

correct answer is

16)

correct answer is

17)

correct answer is unit.

18)
correct answer is .

19)

Angle between two vector

20)

It two vector are perpendicular then

(1) ab (cosθsinθ – sinθcosθ) = 0

(2) sinθcosθ – sinθcosθ = 0
(3) 0

21)

correct answer is 2θ.

22) ΣFx = 0
⇒ x + 5 cos53° – y sin53° = 0

⇒x+3– = 0 ⇒ 5x + 15 – 4y = 0
ΣFy = 0
10 – 5 sin53° – y cos53° = 0

⇒ 10 – 4 – =0⇒ 6= ⇒ y = 10
∴ x = 5.

23)

correct answer is π/2.

24)
 correct answer is may be a scaler.

25) P =

F→ ; v→

Then P →

26) 1. Question Explanation:

We are asked to determine which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same
dimensions. We need to check the dimensional formulas of each pair and compare them.

2. Concept-Based:
The subtopic is Dimensional Analysis. Dimensional analysis helps us understand the
relationship between physical quantities by comparing their dimensions. The dimensions of
physical quantities are expressed in terms of fundamental quantities like mass (M), length (L),
and time (T)

3. Formulas for Dimensional Analysis:

A. Force (F): The dimension of force is given by

B. Power (P): Power is the rate of doing work and its dimension is
C. Torque(฀): Torque is the product of force and distance, so its dimension is
D. Energy (E): Energy is the work done, and its dimension is

4. Calculation:
Let's check the dimensions of each pain

A. Option 1 (Force and Power):

B. Force:
C. Power:
D. Not the same dimensions.
E. Option 2 (Torque and Energy):
F. Torque:
G. Energy:
H. Same dimensions.
I. Option 3 (Torque and Power):
J. Torque:
K. Power:
L. Not the same dimensions.
M. Option 4 (Force and Torque):
N. Force:
O. Torque:
P. Not the same dimensions.

Answer:
Option 2: Torque and Energy have the same dimensions .
27)

correct answer is 500.

28)

correct answer is m/sec.

29)

correct answer is ML–1T.

30) F = Aαvβργ
or [MLT]–2 = [L2]α[LT–1]β[ML–3]γ
= [MγL2α+β–3γT–β]
This gives: γ = 1, β = 2
and 2α + β – 3γ = 1
or α = 1; F = Av2ρ

31)

may have a unit

32)

correct answer is 3

33)

correct answer is 6.4 cm.

34)

correct answer is 4.

35)

[ML2T–2] = [MLT–1]X[L2]Y[T]Z
X=1
–X+Z=–2⇒Z=–1

X + 2Y = 2 ⇒ Y =

36)
 correct answer is .

37)

y = (.996)1/4 = (1 – .004)1/4
= 1 – .001 = .999

38)

correct answer is 2.

39)

correct answer is

40)

correct answer is

41)

correct answer is 7.

42)

correct answer is

43)

correct answer is 2

44)

correct answer is Zero

45)

correct answer is 3y + 4x = 24.

CHEMISTRY
46)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks where the probability of finding an electron in a pâ‚“
atomic orbital is zero. In simpler terms, it wants to know on which plane or direction the
electron cannot be found if it is in the pâ‚“ orbital.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the shape and spatial orientation of atomic
orbitals, specifically the pâ‚“ orbital. The p orbitals have directional dependent wavefunctions,
and the electron probability density depends on the value of the wavefunction. If the
wavefunction is zero at some locations, the probability of finding the electron there is zero.

Relevant Formulas: The wavefunction for a pâ‚“ orbital can be represented as:

where: - is the coordinate along the x-axis, - is the radial distance, - is a constant related
to the atomic orbital size.
Since the probability density is proportional to , if at any point, the probability of
finding the electron there is zero.

Step-by-Step Calculation: The wavefunction for a pâ‚“ orbital involves the factor . On the

yz-plane, . Plugging this into the wavefunction: Thus, the probability

density in the yz-plane, meaning the electron cannot be found there.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that p orbitals have a nodal plane where the probability of
finding an electron is zero. For the pâ‚“ orbital, this nodal plane is the yz-plane.

Common Mistakes: Confusing which plane defines zero probability for p orbitals. For
example, thinking the zero probability is in the xy or xz plane instead of the correct yz plane
for the pâ‚“ orbital.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: • 'In the xy plane' or 'in the xz plane' are incorrect
because on these planes; hence the wavefunction is not zero. • 'In the x-direction' is
incorrect because the probability is zero on an entire plane, not just along a direction.

47)

Higher exchange energy gives more stability to 3d5 4s1 configuration over 3d4 4s2.

48)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given mathematical relations correctly
represent Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. It wants to know if the principle applies to
position and momentum, energy and time, and position and velocity and if all these forms are
valid.
Underlying Concept: Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is a fundamental concept in
quantum mechanics that states it is impossible to simultaneously know certain pairs of
physical properties (like position and momentum or energy and time) of a particle with perfect
accuracy. The more precisely one property is measured, the less precisely the other can be
known. This principle highlights the intrinsic limitations on measurement at the quantum
scale.

Relevant Formulas: 1. 2. 3.
Where: - = uncertainty in position - = uncertainty in momentum - = uncertainty in
energy - = uncertainty in time - = uncertainty in velocity - = mass of the particle - =
Planck's constant

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Heisenberg's uncertainty principle has multiple forms
depending on which pair of variables is being considered. It's helpful to memorize the common
pairs: position-momentum and energy-time and relate velocity through momentum divided by
mass.

Common Mistakes: Confusing classical uncertainties with quantum uncertainties, or

assuming the uncertainty product can be zero. Also, mixing up variables or not recognizing
that all forms given are valid expressions of the principle.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The options listing only one or two forms are
incomplete because the principle extends to multiple variable pairs. Each of the relations is a
valid expression; thus, 'All of the above' is the correct comprehensive choice.

49) Explanation : find Mass Number (A)

given data No. of electrons = 18 ,No. of neutrons = 20
charge on ion = -2
Concept :
No of electrons = z -(change on ion)
18 = z -(-2)
z = 18 - z = 16 = No. of protons
Mars No. (A) = No. of protons (2) + No. of neutrons (n)
= 16 + 20
= 36
Final answer 36
Correct option (4)

50)

correct answer is

51)
 correct answer is

52)

Question Explanation:
Calculate the total number of spectral lines produced when an electron falls from the 6th orbit
to the 1st orbit of a hydrogen atom via multiple steps.
Concept:
The total number of spectral lines formed when an electron transitions between energy levels
from n to 1 is given by:

Number of lines =
Solution:
Here, n = 6, so

53)

correct answer is Be3+ (n=2)

54)

Number of angular node = l

Number of spherical node = n – ℓ – 1 = 1

55)

correct answer is

56)

correct answer is Both (1) and (3)

57)

correct answer is Nucleus

58)

Explanation

A. Bohr's model states that the angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is quantized.
 Given Data:

A. n = 5 (fifth orbit)

Concept

A. L = n(h/2π), where:

A. L is the angular momentum.

B. n is the principal quantum number (orbit number).

C. h is Planck's constant.

Calculation

A. L = 5(h/2π)

B. L = 2.5(h/π)

Answer option 2, {2.5(h/π)}.

59)

correct answer is +3.4 eV

60)

correct answer is 158.7 pm

61)

Explanation

A. Relation between wavelengths by using energies of different photons.

Given Data

A. E₁ = 25 eV

B. E₂ = 50 eV
 Concept

A. Energy of a photon (E) is inversely proportional to its wavelength (λ): E = hc/λ, where h
is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light.

Calculation

A. Relationship:

A. E₁ = hc/λ₁

B. E₂ = hc/λ₂

B. Ratio:

A. E₂/E₁ = (hc/λ₂) / (hc/λ₁) = λ₁/λ₂

B. 50 eV / 25 eV = λ₁/λ₂

C. 2 = λ₁/λ₂

C. Wavelength relation:

A. λ₁ = 2λ₂

Answer option 3, (λ₁ = 2λ₂).

62)

correct answer is

63)

T·E=–K·E

64)

n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2
l = 0, n = 0
l = 1, m = +1, 0, –1

l = 2, n = – 2, –1, 0, +1, +2
65)

correct answer is

66)

correct answer is n = 2 to n = 1

67)

correct answer is

68) The wavelength of a spectral line may be given by the following expression

For Lyman series = 1, For Balmer series =2

For the last line in both the series =∞

For Lyman series

For Balmer series

69)

correct answer is 54.4 eV

70)

correct answer is c = vλ

71)

correct answer is Be

72)
correct answer is (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

73)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

74)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

75)

Proton 6 M →
Neutron 6 M → 6 × 2 M = 12 M
= 12 M + 3 M = 15 M = 15 amu

% Change

76)

Asking for: Identify the correct order of energies of subshells.

Concept:

A. (n+l) rule: The subshell with the lower (n+l) value has lower energy. If two subshells
have the same (n+l) value, the subshell with the lower 'n' value has lower energy.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Option 1: 2s < 3s < 3p < 2p

A. 2s: n+l = 2+0 = 2

B. 3s: n+l = 3+0 = 3

C. 3p: n+l = 3+1 = 4

D. 2p: n+l = 2+1 = 3

E. The order should be 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

B. Option 2: 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p

 A. 2s: n+l = 2+0 = 2

B. 2p: n+l = 2+1 = 3

C. 3s: n+l = 3+0 = 3

D. 3p: n+l = 3+1 = 4

E. Since 2p and 3s both have n+l = 3, the one with the lower n value is lower in
energy, therefore 2p<3s.

F. This option correctly follows the (n+l) rule.

C. Option 3: 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s

A. 3s: n+l = 3+0 = 3

B. 3p: n+l = 3+1 = 4

C. 3d: n+l = 3+2 = 5

D. 4s: n+l = 4+0 = 4

E. Since 3p and 4s both have n+l = 4, the one with the lower n value is lower in
energy, therefore 3p<4s.

F. This option is incorrect.

D. Option 4: 3s < 3d < 3p < 4s

A. As shown in option 3, 3p has a lower energy than 3d. Therefore this option is
incorrect.

Answer:
Hence, option (2) is correct

77)

correct answer is 1.33 × 10–13 cm.

 78)

correct answer is Increases.

79)

correct answer is Half

80)

correct answer is 2

81) Explanation :
Question is asking about identify the pair where the relationship isotopes, isotones, isobars,
isoelectronic.

Concept :
This question is based on corretly describes the given nuclides/ions

Solution :
Isotones → n same ⇒ 30 – 14 = 16
⇒ 31 – 15 = 16 ⇒ 32 – 16 = 16

Final Answer :
Option (2)

82)

Total no. of atomic orbitals in 4th energy level

= n2 = (4)2 = 16

83)

correct answer is 1 : 27.

84)

correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

85) 1. Question Explanation:

A. The question asks to identify the orbital represented by a given complete wave function,
specifically Ψ420.

2. Given Data:

A. The given wave function is Ψ420.

 3. Concept:

A. Wave functions for atomic orbitals are typically represented as ψnlm, where:

A. n is the principal quantum number (energy level)

B. l is the azimuthal quantum number (orbital shape: s, p, d, f, etc.)
C. m is the magnetic quantum number (orbital orientation)
B. For I = 0, the orbital is s
C. For I = 1, the orbital is p
D. For I = 2, the orbital is d
E. For I = 3, the orbital is f

4. Mathematical Calculation:

A. In the given wave function ψ420.

A. n = 4 (principal quantum number)

B. l = 2 (azimuthal quantum number)

B. Since l = 2, the orbital is a d-orbital.

5. Final Answer:
The orbital represented by the complete wave function ψ420. is 4d.

86)

correct answer is s

87)

correct answer is

88)

correct answer is n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = –2, –1, 0, + 1, + 2,

89)

correct answer is 0.

90) 11Na → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

for last electron of sodium (Na) atom,
4 Quantum numbers are → n = 3
For s-orbital ℓ = 0
 ms = +

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI Pg. No. : 127

92)

NCERT XI Pg. No. : 125

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 122

94)

Nurture Module # 1, Pg. # 190

95)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

96) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 124

97)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

98) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121

99) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121

100) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 123

101)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121, 122

102)
NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

103) If number of chromosomes is 2n in G1 phase then till metaphase of M-phase it remains 2n

but in anaphase of M-phase due to splitting of centromere number of chromosomes become
double i.e., 4n then due to division of cell the number of chromosome again become 2n in each
daughter cell.
If amount of DNA is 2C in G1 phase, it become double i.e., 4C during S-phase due to DNA
replication. The amount of DNA remains 4C till the end of M-phase but when mother cell
divides into two then amount of DNA become 2C again in each daughter cell.
G1 ावथा म यिद गु णसूा की सं या 2n है तो M-ावथा की मे टाफेज तक यह 2n ही रहती है परतु M-ावथा
की एनाफेज म से ट ोमीयर के टू टने से गु णसूा की सं या दुगुनी अथात् 4n हो जाती है उसके बाद कोिशका के
िवभाजन के कारण ये क पु ी कोिशका म गु णसूा की सं या पु नः 2n हो जाती है ।
G1 ावथा म यिद DNA की माा 2C है तो DNA ितकृितकरण के कारण S-ावथा के दौरान यह दुगुनी अथात्
4C हो जाती है । M-ावथा के अं त तक DNA की माा 4C बनी रहती है परतु जब मातृ कोिशका, दो कोिशकाओं
म िवभािजत होती है तो यके पु ी कोिशका म DNA की माा पु नः 2C हो जाती है ।

104) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 125,126,127,128

105)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 125

106)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 125

107)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 122,123

108)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121,122

109)

NCERT XI Pg.# 127 (Figure 10.3),128 (Figure 10.4)

Given in question ⇒ n = 23 so 2n = 46
Anaphase - I = 2n = 46 chromosomes
Each chromosome is with two chromatids so total = 92 chromatids
Anaphase-II = n = 23 chromosomes which splits into 46 chromosomes. Each chromosome
contains 1 chromatid so total = 46 chromatids.
न म िदया गया है ⇒ n = 23 अतः 2n = 46
पचावथा - I = 2n = 46 गु णसू
ये क गु णसू म दो ोमे िटड्स अतः कुल = 92 ोमे िटड्स
पचावथा-II = n = 23 गु णसू जो 46 गु णसूा म टू ट जाते है । ये क गु णसू एक ोमे िटड रखता है अतः कुल =
46 ोमे िटड

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97, 98

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96, 98, 100

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100, 101 & 102

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97 & 98

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101 & 102

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87 & 88

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96, 97

130)

In tomato, chloroplasts convert into chromoplasts during ripening of tomato

131) NCERT-XI, Pg # 98

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99, 100

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 97, 100

136)

correct answer is Dorsal

137)

External nostril → Nasal passage → Internal nostril → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi
→ Bronchioles ® Alveoli

138)

more surface area for diffusion of gases

139) Explanation:
To identify the statement that is different or does not fit with the other statements regarding
the thoracic cavity and pleural membranes.
Solution:
The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining: This is incorrect. The
outer pleural membrane also known as the parietal pleura lines the thoracic. The inner
pleural membrane. (visceral pleura) is in contact with the lung surface, and the outer pleural
membrane (parietal pleura) is in contact with the thoracic lining. There the inner and outer
pleural membrane.

Conclusion:
This answer is option (3): The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining
 140)

Abdomen muscle and IICM

141)

Haldane's effect

142) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 275

143)

Explain Question : Maximum CO2 is transported in the form of ?

Concept : This question is based on CO2 Transported

Solution : Maximum CO2 is Transported in the form of Bicarbonate.

Final Answer : option (3)

144)

The correct answer is: 4 Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in the atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

A. This is incorrect. The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) in the atmosphere at sea level is
approximately 160 mm Hg, not 0.3 mm Hg. The value of 0.3 mm Hg is far too low for
atmospheric oxygen.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

A. This is also incorrect. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the alveoli is typically
around 40 mm Hg, not 104 mm Hg. A partial pressure of 104 mm Hg would be more typical
for CO2 in venous blood, not in the alveoli.

145)

Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive

146)

correct answer is 70-72%

147)

A–Increased, B–Contraction
148)

correct answer is 0.3, 40, 45

149)

correct answer is six

150) NCERT XI Pg.# 274 (E)

151) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 275

152) NCERT, Page#276

153)

An increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis

154) NCERT Pg. # 274

155) NCERT Pg. # 277

156)

Correct answer is Four

157) NCERT XI Pg. # 273, para-17.3

158)

Correct answer is (3)

159)

Correct answer is 20–25%

160) NCERT XI Pg # 275

161)

Correct answer is Vital capacity

162)

Correct answer is Pons

163)

Correct answer is Respiratory bronchioles.

164)

It is a bony box situated in the region of neck

165)

correct answer is 6000 - 8000

166)

167)

correct answer is Diffusion capacity of CO2 is much higher than O2

168)

correct answer is 2100 ml

169)

correct answer is 5th thoracic vertebra

170) NCERT Pg. # 184

171)

correct answer is All of these

172)

Correct answer is 2.

173) NCERT Pg. # 270

174)
correct answer is V.C + R.V .

175)

When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen,
a sigmoid curve is obtained.

176)

correct answer is TV < ERV < RV < IRV

177)

correct answer is Carboxy haemoglobin

178)

correct answer is 2300 ml

179)

correct answer is Cl– moves from RBCs to plasma.

180)

correct answer is Carbonic anhydrase