Dropper NEET

ROI Milestone Test-05 Phase-3

DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 21/09/2025 [Link]: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Rotational Motion and Gravitation

Chemistry: Thermodynamics
Biology: Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation (Part)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45 questions in
each subjects.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks
are 720.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 Rotational Motion, Gravitation

1. Two identical uniform rods each of mass m and 6. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its
length l are joined perpendicular to each other. An midpoint into two halves so that the angle between
axis passes through junction and lies in the plane of them is 90°. The moment of inertia of the bent rod
rods. Then M.I. of system about the axis is: about an axis passing through the bending point
and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two
halves of the rod is;
2 ML2 ML2
(1) (2)
24 24
ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
12 6

1 2 1
(1) ml (2) ml 2 7. What is the intensity of gravitational field at the
3 3 2 centre of a spherical shell
ml 2 (1) Gm / r 2 (2) g
(3) ml2 (4)
2 (3) Zero (4) None of these

2. The radius of gyration of a uniform solid 8. A uniform rod of mass 10 kg is hanging in a

hemisphere of mass M and radius R about an axis horizontal position with the help of two threads of
parallel to the base diameter and directly above it equal lengths fixed at the ends of the rod. The rod
3 also supports a mass of 20 kg as shown in figure.
at a distance R from this plane is given by
4 T 
The ratio of the tensions  1  as shown in the
 T2 
figure is:

3R 5R
(1) (2)
10 4
5R 2
(3) (4) R
8 5

3. If the radius of earth contracts 1/n of its present (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1

value, the length of the day will be approximately (3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
24 24
(1) h (2) h
n n2 9. Match the List I and II.
List-I List-II
(3) 24nh (4) 24n 2 h
(A) Force between (I) Maximum at
any two bodies the earth’s
4. The torque (in Nm) required to provide an angular surface
acceleration of 5 rad/s2 to a uniform solid sphere of (B) Acceleration due (II) Always
mass M kg and radius R m is: to gravity attractive
2 2 (C) Escape velocity (III) gR
(1) MR2 (2) MR2
3 5
(D) Orbital velocity (IV) 2. gR
(3) 2 MR2 (4) 3 MR2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
5. The dimensional formula for moment of couple is: below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1)  M 1L2T −1  (2)  M 1L2T −2 
    (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3)  M −1L2T −2  (4)  M 1L1T −2 
    (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 14. Three thin uniform rods each of mass M and length
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: L are placed along the three axis of a cartesian
Assertion A: If two different axes are parallel and coordinate system with one end of each rod at the
at same distance from centre of mass of a rigid origin. The M.I. of the system about x-axis is
body, then moment of inertia of the given body ML2
(1)
about both the axes will always be same. 3
Reason R: From parallel axes theorem,
2ML2
(2)
I = I COM + mr 2 where symbols have same 3
meaning. ML2
(3)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 6
correct answer from the options given below: (4) ML2
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 15. Four-point masses (each of mass m) are arranged in
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct the X-Y plane. The moment of inertia of this array
explanation of A. of masses about Y-axis is;
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

11. A particle with the position vector r has linear

momentum p. Which of the following statements is
true in respect of its angular momentum L about the
origin?
(1) L acts along p. (1) 6 ma2 (2) 12 ma2
(2) L acts along r. (3) 18 ma2 (4) 24 ma2
(3) L is maximum when p and r are parallel.
(4) L is maximum when p is perpendicular to r. 16. If orbital radius is increased, what happens to K, U
& respectively.
12. If a body describes a circular motion under inverse (K is kinetic energy, U is potential energy, E is total
square attractive field only, the time taken to energy)
complete one revolution T is related to the radius of (1) increases, decreases, increases
the circular orbit r as: (Body is revolving around (2) decreases, decreases, decreases
the origin of field as centre) (3) increases, increases, increases
(1) T  r (2) T  r2 (4) decreases, increases, increases
(3) T2  r3 (4) T  r4
17. A wheel has circumference C. If it makes of f r.p.s.,
13. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more the linear speed of a point on the circumference is:
massive than the earth and is radius is 10 times (1) 2πfC (2) fC
smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the (3) fC/2π (4) fC/60
earth is 11 km s–1, the escape velocity from the
surface of the planet would be 18. The atmosphere is held to the earth by:
(1) 11 km s–1 (1) Gravity
(2) 110 km s–1 (2) Wind
(3) 0.1 km s –1 (3) Clouds
(4) 1.1 km s–1 (4) Earth’s Magnetic Field
19. Two uniform rings have their moment of inertia in 24. In the three figures, each wire has a mass M, radius
the ratio of 2:1 and their diameters in the ratio of R and a uniform mass distribution. If they form part
4 : 1. The ratio of their respective masses will be of a circle of radius R, then about an axis
 m1  perpendicular to the plane and passing through the
 : centre (shown by crosses), their moment of inertia
 m2 
is in the order:
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 1 : 8

20. A missile is launched with a velocity less than the

escape velocity. Sum of its kinetic energy and
potential energy is
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) May be negative or positive depending upon
its initial velocity (1) IA > IB > IC (2) IA = IB = IC
(4) Zero (3) IA < IB < IC (4) IA < IC < IB

21. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a uniform 25. Moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of length L
circular disc about an axis passing through center and diameter D about an axis passing through its
and perpendicular to the plane of the disc and of a centre of gravity and perpendicular to its geometric
circular ring of the same radius about an axis axis is
passing through centre and perpendicular to the  D 2 L2 
(1) M  +
plane of the ring is:  4 12 
 
(1) 1: 2 (2) 1 : 3
 L2 D 2 
(2) M  +
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 5: 6  16 8 
 

22. What is the initial angular acceleration of the  D 2 L2 

(3) M  + 
uniform rod of mass m and length l when released  4 6 

from rest at the instant shown below?
 L2 D 2 
(4) M  +
 12 16 
 

26. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 0.2m is

2g rotating about its own axis without friction with
(1)
l angular velocity 3rad / s . A particle of mass 0.5 kg
g and moving with a velocity 5 m/s strikes the cylinder
(2)
l and sticks to it as shown in figure. The angular
g momentum of the cylinder before collision will be:
(3)
2l
3g
(4)
2l

23. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a

rotating wheel is given by the equation (t) = 2t3 – 6t2.
The torque on the wheel becomes zero at: (1) 0.12 J-s (2) 12 J-s
(1) t = 1s (2) t = 0.5 s (3) 1.2 J-s (4) 1.12 J-s
(3) t = 0.25 s (4) t = 2 s
27. The moment of inertia in rotational motion is 33. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
equivalent to: Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) Angular velocity of linear motion Assertion A: If angular velocity increases two
(2) Mass of linear motion times, then moment of inertia of a rotating rigid
(3) Frequency of linear motion body becomes halved.
(4) Current Reason R: During this rotation, neither mass of
rigid body nor distances of particles of rigid body
28. Two satellites of masses m and 2m are revolving in from axis of rotation changes.
a circular orbit of radius r, around the earth. The In the light of the above statements, choose the
ratio of their frequencies of revolution will be correct answer from the options given below:
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3 explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
29. The mass of the earth is 6.00 × 1024 kg and that of the correct explanation of A.
moon is 7.40 × 1022 kg. The constant of gravitation G (3) A is true but R is false.
= 6.67 × 10–11 N-m2/kg2. The potential energy of the (4) A is false but R is true.
system is –7.79 × 1028 joules. The mean distance
between the earth and moon is: 34. If gravitational force between two masses is
(1) 3.80 × 108 meters 1
assumed to vary as F  where r is separation
(2) 3.37 × 106 meters r3
(3) 7.60 × 104 meters between the masses, then orbital speed (v) of
(4) 1.90 × 102 meters satellite varies with radius r of circular orbit as:
1
30. If mass of a planet is M, radius is x, then the work (1) v  (2) v  r 0
r
to be done to slowly take a 2 kg mass from surface 1
to a height 4x is (3) v  (4) v  r
r2
8 GM 2 GM
(1) (2)
5x x 35. A satellite of mass m is circulating around the
5 GM 4 GM earth with constant angular velocity. If radius of the
(3) (4)
x 3x
orbit is R0 and mass of the earth is M , the angular
momentum about the centre of the earth is
31. Two satellites, A and B, have masses m and 2m
respectively. A is in a circular orbit of radius R, and (1) m GMR0 (2) M GmR0
B is in a circular orbit of radius 2R around the earth. GM Gm
(3) m (4) M
T R0 R0
The ratio of their kinetic energies A is;
TB
1 36. At what height from the ground will the value of g
(1) (2) 1 : 1
2 be the same as that in 10 km deep mine below the
1 surface of earth?
(3) 2 : 1 (4)
2 (1) 20 km (2) 10 km
(3) 15 km (4) 5 km
32. Two satellites A and B go round a planet P in
circular orbits having radii 4R and R respectively. 37. Gravitational potential at the surface of a uniform
If the speed of the satellite A is 3V, the speed of the isolated solid sphere is V. Gravitational potential at
satellite B will be- its center is;
(1) 12V (2) 6V (1) V (2) Zero
4 3 3V
(3) V (4) V (3) (4) 2V
3 2 2
38. If Ek is rotational K.E. and L is angular momentum, 42. A uniform rod of length ‘ l ’ is pivoted at point ‘A’.
then graph between log L and log EK will be: It is struck by a horizontal force which delivers an
impulse ‘J’ at a distance ‘x’ from point ‘A’ as
shown in figure, impulse delivered by pivot is zero
if ‘x’ is equal to:

(1)

(2) l
(1)
2
l
(2)
3
2l
(3)
3
(3)
3l
(4)
4

43. Keplers third law is

(1) mvr = L = constant
(4)
(2) T2  r3
ΔA
39. Two planets have the same average density but (3) = constant
Δt
their radii are R1 and R2. If acceleration due to
(4) None of these
gravity on these planets be g1 and g2 respectively,
then
44. We are a given a disc of mass 10 kg and radius 100
g1 R1 g1 R2
(1) = (2) = cm which is rolling on a ground with a speed of 10
g 2 R2 g 2 R1
m/s Calculate the kinetic energy of the disc.
g1 R12 g1 R13 (1) 500 J (2) 250 J
(3) = (4) =
g2 R22 g2 R23 (3) 750 J (4) 1000 J

40. An object weights 72 N on earth. Its weight at a 45. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a
height of R/2 from earth is circular orbit at a height equal to the radius R of
(1) 32 N (2) 56 N the earth. Suddenly due to internal explosion the
(3) 72 N (4) Zero satellite breaks into two parts of equal masses. One
part of the satellite stops just after the explosion.
41. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite The increase in the mechanical energy of the
of mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and system (satellite + earth) due to explosion will be:
radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from (Given: acceleration due to gravity on the surface
the surface of the earth is: of earth is g )

5GmM 2GmM mgR

(1) (2) (1) mgR (2)
6R 3R 2
GmM GmM mgR 3mgR
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2R 3R 4 4
 Thermodynamics

46. For the given reaction : 51. Which of the following is correct option for free
CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + H2O(g); ∆H = 40 kJ expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic
condition?
The ∆H is called;
(1) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0
(1) Heat of formation of CO
(2) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
(2) Heat of combustion
(3) q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
(3) Heat of reaction
(4) q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0
(4) Heat of hydrogenation of C = O bond
52. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
47. When 229 J of energy is supplied as heat at when:
constant pressure to 3 mol Ar(g), the temperature (1) surroundings and system change into each
of the sample is increased by 2.55K. Calculate the other
molar heat capacity at constant volume; (2) there is no boundary between system and
surroundings.
(1) 30 kJ K–1 mol–1
(3) the surroundings are always in equilibrium
(2) 30 J K–1 mol–1 with system.
(3) 21.7 J K–1 mol–1 (4) the system changes into the surroundings
(4) 21.7 kJ K–1 mol–1 spontaneously.

48. In the combustion of 0.4 g of CH4, 0.25 kCal. of 53. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid
heat is liberated. The heat of combustion of CH4 is water to steam is 300 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the
entropy change for the process would be:
(1) –20 kCal (2) –10 kCal
(1) 1000 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 10 JK–1 mol–1
(3) –2.5 kCal (4) –5 kCal (3) 1 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 0.1 JK–1 mol–1

49. Hess’s law states that; 54. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) The standard enthalpy of an overall reaction List-I List-II
is the sum of the enthalpy changes in (A) Isothermal process (I) ∆T = 0
individual reactions at the same temperature. (B) Isobaric process (II) ∆V = 0
(2) Enthalpy of formation of a compound is same (C) Adiabatic process (III) ∆P = 0
as the enthalpy of decomposition of the (D) Isochoric process (IV) q=0
compound into constituent elements, but with Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
opposite sign.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) At constant temperature the pressure of a gas
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
is inversely proportional to its volume. (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) The mass of a gas dissolved per litre of a (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
solvent is proportional to the pressure of the
gas in equilibrium with the solution. 55. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If work is done on the system then
50. In which of the following reactions, standard work is positive.
Statement II: If the work is done by the system
reaction entropy change (∆S°) is positive and
then work is negative.
standard Gibb’s energy change (∆G°) decreases In the light of the above statements, choose the
sharply with increasing temperature? most appropriate answer from the options given
1 below:
(1) Mg(s) + O 2 (g) → MgO(s) (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
2
incorrect.
1 1 1
(2) C(graphite) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2 2 2
correct.
1 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) C(graphite) + O 2 (g) → CO(g)
2 correct.
1 (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) incorrect.
2
56. The difference between enthalpy of reaction and 62. Hess’s law is used in the determination of
change in internal energy at constant volume for (1) heat of reaction
the reaction given below at 25°C in kJ is: (2) heat of combustion
2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) (3) heat of formation
(1) –7.43 (2) +3.72 (4) all of these.
(3) –3.72 (4) +7.43
63. The property, which can be classified as an
57. Two moles of an ideal gas are allowed to expand intensive property, is;
reversibly and isothermally at 300 K from a (1) volume
pressure of 1 atm to a pressure of 0.1 atm. The (2) mass
change in Gibbs free energy is: (3) heat capacity
(1) –11.488 J (2) +11.488 J
(4) temperature.
(3) –11.488 kJ (4) zero.
64. When 1 mol of gas is heated at constant volume,
58. Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO2 is –393.52 temperature is raised from 298 to 308 K. Heat
kJ/mol. The heat released upon the formation of supplied to the gas is 500 J. Then which statement
11 g of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen is: is correct?
(1) 35.77 kJ (2) 98.38 kJ
(1) q = w = 500 J, ∆U ≠ 0
(3) 1574.08 kJ (4) 393.52 kJ
(2) q = ∆U = 500 J, w = 0
59. Calculate entropy change when 5 moles of an (3) q = w = 500 J, ∆U = 0
ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally (4) ∆U = 0, q = w = –500 J
from an initial volume of 5 litre to 50 litre at
27°C. 65. Which of the following reactions correctly
(1) 190.15 J K–1 (2) 95.74 J K–1 indicates the process of atomization?
(3) 87.25 J K–1 (4) 90.13 J K–1 (1) CH4(g) → CH3(g) + H(g)
(2) CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g)
60. The incorrect option in the following table is: (3) C(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
∆H ∆S Nature of reaction
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(1) – + spontaneous at all
temperatures
Cp
(2) + – non-spontaneous at all 66. The value of γ = for a monoatomic gas is;
temperatures Cv
(3) + + spontaneous at low (1) 1.66 (2) 1.4
temperatures (3) 1.33 (4) 0.33
(4) – – spontaneous at low
temperatures 67. ∆H and ∆S for a reaction are 4500 J mol–1 and 4.5
J K–1 mol–1 respectively. The reaction will be
61. Given below are two statements: spontaneous;
Statement I: System and surroundings together (1) Above 1000 K
constitute the universe. (2) At 900 K
Statement II: The wall that separates the system (3) Below 1000 K
from the surroundings is called boundary. (4) Below 900 K
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
68. Consider the reaction,
below:
2X(s) + Y(g) → 2Z(g) + 700 kJ
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
The signs of ΔH, ΔS and ΔG respectively are;
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) ∆H = –ve, ∆S = –ve, ∆G = –ve
correct. (2) ∆H = –ve, ∆S = +ve, ∆G = +ve
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (3) ∆H = –ve, ∆S = –ve, ∆G = +ve
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (4) ∆H = –ve, ∆S = +ve, ∆G = –ve
69. Given below are two statements: 73. Which of the following is not a state function?
Statement I: First law of thermodynamics is able (1) Internal energy
to predict the spontaneity of a chemical reaction. (2) Gibbs free energy
Statement II: For chemical reactions, heat (3) Heat
absorbed at constant volume, is measured in a (4) Enthalpy
bomb calorimeter.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 74. Lattice and hydration energies of NaCl are +777.8
correct answer from the options given below: kJ mol–1 and –774.1kJ mol–1 respectively. Heat of
solution of NaCl will be;
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) +1551.9 kJ mol–1
incorrect.
(2) –15519 kJ mol–1
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) –37 kJ mol–1
correct.
(4) +3.7 kJ mol–1
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
75. A gas expands from a volume of 1 m3 to a volume
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are of 2 m3 against an external pressure of 105 N m–2.
incorrect. The work done by the gas will be;
(1) 105 kJ (2) 102 kJ
70. Given below are two statements: (3) 102 J (4) 103 J
Statement I: A process or change is said to be
reversible, if a change is brought out in such a 76. ∆U is always positive when;
way that the process could be reversed by an (1) system absorbs heat and work is done on it
infinitesimal change. (2) system emits heat and work is done by it.
Statement II: A reversible process proceeds (3) system emits heat and no work is done on it.
infinitely slowly by a series of equilibrium states (4) system absorbs heat and work is done by it.
such that system and the surroundings are always
in near equilibrium with each other. 77. In an adiabatic process which of the following is
In the light of the above statements, choose the true :–
correct answer from the options given below: (1) q = +w (2) –ΔU = –w
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) PΔV = 0 (4) q = ΔU
incorrect.
78. Thermochemical reactions
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
1
correct. C(graphite)+ O 2 ( g ) → CO ( g ) ; ∆H =−110.5kJ …(i)
2
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
1
correct. CO(g)+ O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H =−283.2kJ …(ii)
2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are From the above reaction, the heat of reaction for
incorrect. C(graphite)+O2(g) → CO2(g) will be
(1) –393.7 kJ
71. Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of (2) +393.7 kJ
a substances by 1°C is called: (3) –172.7 kJ
(1) specific heat. (4) +172.7 kJ
(2) molar heat capacity.
(3) water equivalent. 79. The ∆H Of for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are –393.5,
(4) specific gravity. –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol–1 respectively the standard
enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction
72. ∆Hneutralisation is; CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + H2O(g) is:
(1) always positive. (1) 524.1
(2) always negative. (2) 41.2
(3) always zero. (3) – 262.5
(4) positive or negative. (4) – 41.2
80. Heat evolved in the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl is 84. Which of the following relations are correct?
182 kJ. Bond energies of H—H and Cl—Cl are A. ∆U = q + P∆V
430 and 242 kJ mol–1 respectively. The H–Cl B. ∆G =∆H − T∆S
bond energy is : q
C. ∆S = rev
(1) 245 kJ mol–1 T
(2) 427 kJ mol–1 D. ∆H = ∆U − ∆nRT
(3) 336 kJ mol–1 Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(4) 154 kJ mol–1
(1) C and D only (2) B and C only
(3) A and B only (4) B and D only
81. Formation of ozone takes place as
O 2 (g) + O(g) → O3 (g), ∆H° = −107.2 kJ 85. The temperature of an ideal gas increases in an:
Assuming O = O bond energy as 498.8 kJ mol , –1 (1) adiabatic expansion.
the average bond energy of ozone is; (2) isothermal expansion.
(3) adiabatic compression.
(1) 391.6 kJ mol–1
(4) isothermal compression.
(2) 606.0 kJ mol–1
(3) 107.2 kJ mol–1 86. Calculate the work done when 1 mole of an ideal
(4) 303 kJ mol–1 gas is compressed reversibly from 1.0 bar to 4.00
bar at constant temperature of 300 K.
82. The hydration energies of K+ and Cl– are - x and -y (1) 3.46 kJ (2) –8.20 kJ
kJ/mol respectively. If lattice energy of KCl is -z (3) 18.02 kJ (4) –14.01 kJ
kJ/mol, then the heat of solution of KCl is :
87. A well stoppered thermos flask contains some ice
(1) + x − y − z
cubes. This is an example of:
(2) x + y + z (1) Closed system
(3) z − (x + y) (2) Open system
(3) Isolated system
(4) − z − (x + y)
(4) Non-thermodynamic system

83. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which 88. Identify the correct statement regarding entropy.
of the following plots does not correctly describe (1) At 0°C the entropy of a perfectly crystalline
the relation between various thermodynamic substance is taken to be zero.
quantities? (2) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy
of a perfectly crystalline substance is +ve.
(3) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy
(1) of all crystalline substances is taken to be
zero.
(4) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy
of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to
be zero.
(2)
89. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10–3 m3
to 1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure
1 × 105 Nm–2. The work done is;
(1) –900 J (2) –900 kJ
(3)
(3) 270 kJ (4) 900 kJ

90. In which of the following cases entropy

decreases?
(1) Solid changing to liquid
(4)
(2) Expansion of a gas
(3) Dissolution of crystals
(4) Polymerisation
 Biology: Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation (Part)

91. During a normal respiration, a healthy man can 97. In May 2006, the last of the 24 human
inspire or expire how much volume of air per chromosomes to be sequenced was;
minute? (1) chromosome 1.
(1) 6000 - 8000 ml/min (2) chromosome X.
(2) 1000 -1100 ml/min (3) chromosome 22.
(3) 2500 - 3000 ml/min
(4) chromosome Y.
(4) 8000 -12000 ml/min

98. The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or rRNA

92. What is the approximate pitch length of the DNA
molecule defines a/an;
double helix as described by the Watson and
Crick model? (1) intron.
(1) 3.4 mm (2) 3.4 cm (2) promoter.
(3) 3.4 m (4) 3.4 nm (3) gene.
(4) chromosome.
93. The credit for developing method for
determination of amino acid sequences in proteins 99. Transcription and translation take place in the
goes to; same compartment in;
(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan. (1) fungi.
(2) Frederick Sanger.
(2) bacteria.
(3) Walter Sutton.
(3) animal.
(4) George Gamow.
(4) plant.
94. All of the following are the important goals of
HGP, except to; 100. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(1) identify all the approximately 2,000-5,000 as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
genes in human DNA. Reason R:
(2) improve tools for data analysis. Assertion A: Inspiration occurs when the
(3) transfer related technologies to other sectors, intrapulmonary pressure becomes lower than the
such as pharma industries. atmospheric pressure.
(4) store the information of sequences of human Reason R: The contraction of the diaphragm and
DNA into databases. external intercostal muscles increases the thoracic
cavity volume, decreasing the intrapulmonary
95. Which of the following blood group can act as a pressure.
donor for the person who has “anti-A” and “anti- In the light of the above statements, choose the
B” antibody in its plasma?
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) O (2) AB
(1) A is true but R is false.
(3) B (4) A
(2) A is false but R is true.
96. Identify the incorrect statement from the (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
following. explanation of A.
(1) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
catalyse polymerisation only in one explanation of A.
direction, that is 3'→5'.
(2) The process of copying genetic information 101. DNA is structurally composed of repeated units
from one strand of the DNA into RNA is known as;
termed as transcription. (1) ribonucleosides.
(3) Both the strands of DNA are not copied (2) deoxyribonucleotides.
during transcription.
(3) deoxyribonucleosides.
(4) A gene is defined as the functional unit of
(4) ribonucleotides.
inheritance.
102. In E. coli, the process of replication completes 109. Precursor of mRNA is;
within; (1) snRNA.
(1) 30 minutes. (2) 5S rRNA.
(2) 90 minutes. (3) tRNA.
(3) 18 minutes. (4) hnRNA.
(4) 24 minutes.
110. A 24-year-old athlete is participating in a
103. All the given features are true for genetic code, marathon. After running for several kilometers,
except; he begins to breathe more rapidly and deeply.
(1) the code is nearly universal. What is the primary cause of the athlete’s
increased respiratory rate?
(2) the code is degenerate.
(1) Low pCO₂ levels
(3) the codon is triplet.
(2) Low body temperature
(4) 64 codons code for amino acids. (3) High pCO₂ levels and low blood pH
(4) High pO₂ levels
104. If the template strand of DNA has sequence 3'-
ATGCATGCAT-5' then the sequence of coding 111. Given below are two statements:
strand will be; Statement I: In the first phase of translation
(1) 3'-TACGTACGTA-5' amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP
(2) 5'-TACGTACGTA-3' and linked to their cognate tRNA.
(3) 5'-UACGUAGGUA-3' Statement II: During translation, if two charged
(4) 3'-UACGUAGGUA-5' tRNAs are brought close enough, the formation of
peptide bond between them would be favoured
105. Which type of white blood cells are concerned energetically.
with the release of histamine? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Eosinophils most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) Monocytes below:
(3) Neutrophils (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) Basophils incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
106. Identify the correct statement about lac operon in correct.
presence of inducer. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) The repressor protein binds to the operator (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
region of the operon.
(2) Repressor is inactivated. 112. In lac operon, the y gene codes for;
(3) Inducer prevents RNA polymerase to (1) transacetylase.
transcribe the operon. (2) beta-galactosidase.
(4) RNA polymerase could not get the access to (3) permease.
the promoter. (4) repressor protein.

107. In Hershey and Chase experiment, bacteriophage 113. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
nucleic acid was labelled with radioactive; Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) 32P. Assertion A: RNA can directly code for the
(2) 3H. synthesis of proteins.
(3) 35S. Reason R: RNA cannot easily express the
(4) 14C. characters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
108. With reference to the polarity of coding strand of correct answer from the options given below:
DNA, in a transcription unit, promoter is located (1) A is true but R is false.
at _____ of the structural gene. (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) 5' –end (downstream) (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) 3' –end (upstream) explanation of A.
(3) 5' –end (upstream) (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) 3' –end (downstream) correct explanation of A.
114. All of the following are pyrimidines, except; 119. In the given figure, A represents;
(1) Cytosine.
(2) Thymine.
(3) Guanine.
(4) Uracil.
(1) sigma factor.
115. Read the following statements and choose the (2) rho factor.
correct option. (3) RNA polymerase.
A. The base pairing confers a very unique (4) DNA polymerase.
property to the polynucleotide chains.
120. Given below are two statements:
B. DNA is an acidic substance. Statement I: Project of human genome
C. The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large sequencing was launched in the year 1980.
loops held by proteins. Statement II: Human Genome Project (HGP)
D. Histones are rich in the acidic amino acid was a mega project.
residues lysine and arginine. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) A, B and D are incorrect. most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(2) A, C and D are correct.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Only D is incorrect. incorrect.
(4) B, C and D are incorrect. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
116. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
List-I List-II correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(A)  × 174 (I) 48502 base pairs incorrect.
(B) Escherichia (II) 3.3 × 109 bp
coli 121. Identify the correct statement.
(C) Bacteriophage (III) 5386 nucleotides (1) UAA, UUG, UGA are stop terminator
codons.
lambda
(2) AUG codes for Methionine (met).
(D) Haploid (IV) 4.6 × 106 bp (3) AUG act as terminator codon.
content of (4) UUU codes for Tyrosine.
human DNA
Choose the correct answer from the options 122. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an
given below: additional –OH group present at;
(1) 2' -position in the deoxyribose.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) 3' -position in the ribose.
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) 2' -position in the ribose.
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) 3' -position in the deoxyribose.
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
123. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
117. Caenorhabditis elegans is; Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) a free-living non-pathogenic nematode. Assertion A: DNA chemically is less reactive
and structurally more stable when compared to
(2) a symbiotic non-pathogenic nematode.
RNA.
(3) a free-living pathogenic nematode. Reason R: The presence of uracil at the place of
(4) a symbiotic pathogenic nematode. thymine confers additional stability to DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
118. In eukaryotes, snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs) are correct answer from the options given below:
transcribed by; (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(1) RNA polymerase III.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) DNA polymerase.
explanation of A.
(3) RNA polymerase II. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) RNA polymerase I. correct explanation of A.
124. Identify the correct statement from the following. 130. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
(1) There is no definite region in E. coli DNA fulfill all the given criteria, except;
where the replication can originate. (1) it should be structurally and chemically
(2) The replication occurs within a small unstable.
opening of the DNA helix, referred to as (2) it should have the ability to generate its
replication fork. replica.
(3) On one strand of DNA that has polarity in (3) it should facilitate slow changes necessary
5'→3' direction, the replication is continuous. for evolution.
(4) On the other strand of DNA that has polarity (4) it should be able to express itself in the form
in 3'→5' direction, replication is of Mendelian characters.
discontinuous.
131. In a typical nucleus, euchromatins are those
125. In Griffith’s experiment; regions of chromatin that are;
(1) R-strain transformed to S-strain and became (1) densely packed and stains dark.
virulent. (2) loosely packed and stains light.
(2) R-strain transformed to S-strain and lost (3) densely packed and stains light.
virulence. (4) loosely packed and stains dark.
(3) S-strain transformed to R-strain and became
virulent. 132. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(4) S-strain transformed to R-strain and lost Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
virulence. Assertion A: In eukaryotes, the replication of
DNA takes place at S-phase of the cell-cycle.
Reason R: The replication of DNA and cell
126. In which of the following, during tailing process,
division cycle should be highly coordinated.
adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3'-end
In the light of the above statements, choose the
in a template independent manner?
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) rRNA
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) tRNA
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) mRNA
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) hnRNA
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
127. Identify the incorrect statement.
correct explanation of A.
(1) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite
DNA referred to as mini-satellite.
133. In bacteria, the number of DNA-dependent RNA
(2) More than 2 per cent of the human genome
polymerase(s) that catalyse transcription of all
codes for proteins.
types of RNA is/are;
(3) The human genome contains 3164.7 million
(1) one.
bp. (2) two.
(4) Repeated sequences make up very large (3) three.
portion of the human genome. (4) four.

128. In the beginning of the HGP, the approximate 134. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing
cost of project was estimated to be; proteins is the;
(1) 90 million US dollars. (1) DNA. (2) ribosome.
(2) 90 billion US dollars. (3) RNA. (4) nucleus.
(3) 9 million US dollars.
(4) 9 billion US dollars. 135. In Meselson and Stahl’s Experiment, the heavy
DNA molecule containing heavy isotope of N
129. The size of VNTR varies in size from; was distinguished from normal DNA by;
(1) 1 to 20 kb. (1) UV rays.
(2) 0.1 to 20 kb. (2) X-ray diffraction.
(3) 0.1 to 20 Mb. (3) centrifugation in CsCl density gradient.
(4) 1.0 to 2.0 Mb. (4) PCR technique.
136. The region responsible for the exchange of gases 141. In the DNA double helix, which type of chemical
in the human respiratory system comprises: interaction specifically stabilizes the complementary
(1) external nostrils to alveolar sacs. base pairing between guanine and cytosine?
(2) nasal cavity to terminal bronchioles. (1) Phosphodiester bond
(3) alveoli and their ducts. (2) Hydrogen bond
(4) trachea to primary bronchi. (3) Peptide bond
(4) N-glycosidic bond
137. A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with
complaints of wheezing, shortness of breath, and 142. Which of the following organ is graveyard of
chest tightness. His medical history reveals that he RBCs?
has frequent cough attacks and uses an inhaler. (1) Bone marrow
Based on the patient's symptoms, what is the most (2) Spleen
(3) Liver
likely diagnosis?
(4) Kidney
(1) Pneumonia
(2) Asthma
143. Read the following statements (A-D).
(3) Emphysema
A. pO2 is a major factor which could affect the
(4) Lung fibrosis
binding of CO2 with haemoglobin.
B. Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can
138. Read the statements given below and choose the
reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby
correct sequence of events leading the formation
alter the respiratory rate.
of a blood clot. C. Flatworms exchange O2 with CO2 by simple
A. Prothrombin is converted into thrombin. diffusion.
B. Fibrin traps formed elements to form a D. Larynx is a bony box which helps in sound
‘plug’. production and hence called the sound box.
C. Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
D. Thrombokinase, is released. options given below:
(1) A  B  C  D (1) Only A, B and C are correct.
(2) B  A  C  D (2) Only C and D are correct.
(3) C  D  A  B (3) Only A, B and D are correct.
(4) D  A  C  B (4) A, B, C, and D are correct.

139. Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of 144. During inhalation, the diaphragm:
thoracic chamber in the; (1) relaxes and moves upward.
(1) antero-posterior axis. (2) contracts and moves downward.
(2) dorso-ventral axis. (3) becomes dome-shaped.
(3) ventro-lateral axis. (4) pushes the ribs downward.
(4) dorso-lateral axis.
145. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
140. Match the List-I with List-II. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
List-I List-II
serve dual purposes.
(A) Inspiratory Capacity (I) ERV +RV
Reason R: In addition to acting as substrates,
(B) Expiratory Capacity (II) VC + RV
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates provide
(C) Functional Residual (III) TV + ERV energy for polymerisation reaction.
Capacity In the light of the above statements, choose the
(D) Total Lung Capacity (IV) TV + IRV correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) A is true but R is false.
below: (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III explanation of A.
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II correct explanation of A.
146. What is the function of carbonic anhydrase in red 152. Which of the following are the functions of
blood cells? conducting part of the respiratory system?
(1) Increases pH of blood A. Transportation of the atmospheric air to the
(2) Converts CO₂ to bicarbonate ions alveoli.
B. Clears atmospheric air from foreign particles.
(3) Transports oxygen to tissues
C. Humidifies atmospheric air.
(4) Binds oxygen
D. Brings the atmospheric air to body
temperature.
147. Select the incorrect option. E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(1) Oxygen dissociation curve - Sigmoid in atmospheric air.
shape (1) A, B and C only
(2) Gaseous transport - WBCs (2) A, B, C and D only
(3) Respiratory rhythm centre - Medulla (3) A, B, C, D and E
(4) Haemoglobin-Respiratory pigment (4) A, B, C and E only

153. Which of the following is correct w.r.t relative

148. How many of the following blood components
abundance of different types of WBCs?
have their role in clotting of blood? (1) Eosinophils > Monocyte
Plasma, RBCs, Neutrophil, Monocyte, (2) Neutrophils < Lymphocyte
Eosinophils, Thrombocytes (3) Eosinophils < Basophil
(1) Four (4) Eosinophils < Monocyte
(2) Three
(3) Two 154. Given below are two statements.
(4) Five Statement I: Haemoglobin is a red coloured iron
containing pigment present in the RBCs.
Statement II: O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a
149. Which of the following factors primarily accounts
reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
for the faster diffusion of CO₂ across the alveolar In the light of the above statements, choose the
membrane compared to O₂? most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) Higher molecular weight of CO₂ than O₂ below:
(2) Greater solubility of CO₂ in plasma than O₂ (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Higher partial pressure gradient of CO₂ than incorrect.
O₂ (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Presence of haemoglobin in red blood cells correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
150. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, DNA
incorrect.
extracted from the culture at generation II was
composed of ‘hybrid’ DNA and of ‘light' DNA,
155. The process of polymerisation of amino acids to
respectively in a proportion of; form a polypeptide is known as;
(1) 25% and 75%. (1) replication.
(2) 40% and 60%. (2) transcription.
(3) 60% and 40%. (3) translation.
(4) 50% and 50%. (4) mutation.

156. Receptors located in the aortic arch and carotid

151. A person with blood group AB+ can receive blood
artery are sensitive to fluctuations in the
from:
concentration of:
(1) A (1) Oxygen (O₂) only
(2) B (2) Hydrogen ions (H⁺) only
(3) O (3) Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and hydrogen ions.
(4) All of these (4) Both oxygen (O₂) and carbon dioxide (CO₂)
157. Breathing involves two stages: inspiration during 162. Which of the following animal use network of
which atmospheric air is drawn in and expiration tubes to transport atmospheric air within the body?
by which the alveolar air is released out. The (1) Reptiles (2) Flatworm
diagram below shows mechanism of inspiration. (3) Earthworm (4) Insects
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
163. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A) RBCs (I) 55% of total blood.
(B) WBCs (II) 1,50,000-3,50,000 mm–3
of blood.
(C) Platelets (III) 5 - 5.5 million mm–3 of
blood.
(D) Plasma (IV) 6000 - 8000 mm–3 of
blood.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) (X): Volume of thorax decreased, (Y):
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Diaphragm relaxes
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) (X): Volume of thorax decreased, (Y):
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-II
Diaphragm contracts
(3) (X): Volume of thorax increased, (Y):
164. Which of the following structures forms the lateral
Diaphragm contracts
boundary of the thoracic cavity?
(4) (X): Volume of thorax increased, (Y): (1) Ribs (2) Sternum
Diaphragm relaxes (3) Diaphragm (4) Vertebral column

158. The thin diffusion membrane in the human lungs 165. About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBCs, the
facilitates efficient gas exchange due to its remaining 3% is;
thickness, which is approximately: (1) retained in lungs.
(1) 1.5 mm (2) less than a mm (2) transported in dissolved state through
(3) 2–5 mm (4) 1–2 cm plasma.
(3) attached to cell membrane.
159. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (4) inside mitochondria.
(1) Neutrophils Phagocytic cells
166. __________ stimulates the platelets in the blood
(2) Eosinophils Resist infections and are
to release certain factors to activate the
also associated with
mechanism of coagulation.
allergic reactions
(1) Thrombin (2) Magnesium
(3) Basophils Least abundant leucocytes
(3) Thrombokinase (4) Injury
(4) Erythrocytes Helps in coagulation of
blood. 167. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
160. Frederick Griffith in 1928 performed experiments Assertion A: The trachea is supported by C-
of transforming principle with; shaped cartilaginous rings.
(1) bacteriophage. (2) bacterium. Reason R: These rings prevent the trachea from
(3) fungi. (4) plant. collapsing during inhalation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
161. The oxygen dissociation curve shows the correct answer from the options given below.
relationship between: (1) A is true but R is false.
(1) pCO₂ and haemoglobin saturation. (2) A is false but R is true.
(2) pO₂ and the percentage of oxyhaemoglobin (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
saturation. explanation of A.
(3) pH and the rate of oxygen transport. (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) temperature and carbon dioxide solubility. explanation of A.
168. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by 173. We can increase the strength of inspiration and
administering _____ to the mother immediately expiration with the help of additional muscles in
after the delivery of first child. the;
(1) vitamins (1) ribs. (2) diaphragm.
(2) antibiotics (3) abdomen. (4) thorax.
(3) anti-Rh antibodies
(4) Rh-antigens 174. Read the following (A - D) statements:
A. Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid.
169. Given below are two statements. B. 90-92% of plasma is water.
Statement I: Every 100 ml of deoxygenated C. Globulins are needed for clotting or
blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the coagulation of blood
alveoli. D. Fibrinogens are primarily involved in
Statement II: CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as defense mechanism of the body.
carboxyhaemoglobin. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) Four (2) Three
most appropriate answer from the options given (3) Two (4) One
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 175. The volume of air that cannot be expelled from the
incorrect. lungs even after a forceful expiration, and helps to
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is prevent lung collapse is called:
correct. (1) Tidal volume (TV)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(3) Residual volume (RV)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
incorrect.

176. Given below are two statements.

170. The double membrane covering of the lung is
Statement I: Humans can directly alter the
called;
pulmonary volume.
(1) pericardium.
Statement II: The volume of air involved in
(2) perichondrium.
breathing movements can be estimated by using a
(3) peritoneum.
spirometer.
(4) pleural membrane.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
171. Which of the following will not coagulate, if a
below:
drop of each of the following is placed on different (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
slides? incorrect.
(1) Blood (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) Plasma correct.
(3) Serum (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) All of these (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
172. Refer to the diagram given below. Identify the
structure which forms the site of gaseous 177. Which of the following chronic respiratory
exchange. disorders is characterised by the destruction of
alveolar walls, leading to reduced surface area for
gas exchange?
(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Pneumoniae
(4) Occupational lung disease

178. What is the amount of haemoglobin present in 100

ml of blood?
(1) D (2) A
(1) 20-24 gms (2) 40-44 gms
(3) B (4) C
(3) 12-16 gms (4) 30-34 gms
179. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 180. Which one of the following statements is correct
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: regarding lymph?
Assertion A: The majority of carbon dioxide is (1) It contains RBCs but no platelets
transported in the blood as bicarbonate ions. (2) It is almost similar to blood except for the
Reason R: Carbon dioxide reacts with water in protein content and the formed elements
RBCs to form carbonic acid, which dissociates (3) It is similar to serum along with Rbcs.
into bicarbonate and H⁺ ions. (4) It is formed by the breakdown of RBCs
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
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