19-10-2025

9610WMD802065250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) Imagine a new system of units used in the ALLEN lab. Here, the standard unit of length is chosen
to be 1 cm, the unit of mass is 100 g, and the unit of time is 10 s. A student measures a kinetic
energy value. What would be the unit of kinetic energy in this new system?

(1) 0.1 erg

(2) 1 erg
(3) 10 erg
(4) None of these

2) The force F is given in terms of time 't' and displacement 'x' by the equation
F = Acos(Bx) + Csin(Dt). The dimensional formula of D/B is :-

(1) [M°L°T°]
(2) [M°L°T–1]
(3) [M°L–1T°]
(4) [M°L1T–1]

3) In the ALLEN lab, a teacher explains a scenario where force (F), work (W), and velocity (V) are
considered the fundamental quantities instead of the usual length, mass, and time. In this unique
system, what is the dimensional formula for time (t)?

(1) [WFV]
(2) [WFV –1]
(3) [W –1F –1V –1]
(4) [WF –1V –1]

4) Find the maximum possible percentage error in Z, if Z = .

(Given that percentage error in measurement of A, B, C & D is 2%, 1% , 4% and 2% respectively)

(1) 2%
(2) 10%
(3) 8%
(4) 4%

5) Order of magnitude in 7.86 × 10–15

(1) –15
(2) +15
(3) –14
(4) +14

6) The ratio of angle of minimum deviation produced by a thin prism in air to that in liquid

of refractive index is :

(1)

(2) 3

(3)

(4) 4

7) The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm. Where an object be placed so that its image is two
times and inverted :-

(1) 75 cm
(2) 72 cm
(3) 63 cm
(4) 50 cm

8) Concave and convex lenses are placed touching each other. The ratio of magnitudes of their
power is 2 : 3. The focal length of the system is 30 cm. Then the focal lengths of individual lenses are
:-

(1) –75, 50
(2) –15, 10
(3) 75, 50
(4) 75, –50

9) A compound microscope has a magnifying power 30. The focal length of its eyepiece is 5cm.
Assuming the final image to be at the least distance of distinct vision (25cm). The magnification
produced by objective is :-

(1) +5
(2) –5
(3) +6
(4) –6

10) When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index

(1) Equal to that of glass

(2) Less than one
(3) Greater than that of glass
(4) Less than that of glass
11) In Young's double slit experiment how many maximas can be obtained including the central
maxima if λ = 2000Å and d = 7000Å.

(1) 12
(2) 7
(3) 18
(4) 4

12) A single slit of width 0.20 mm is illuminated with light of wavelength 500 nm. The observing
screen is placed 80 cm from the slit. The width of the central bright fringe will be :-

(1) 1 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 4 mm
(4) 5 mm

13) Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization
are seen through a polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam
B has zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30° makes the two beams appear equally bright.

If the initial intensitites of the two beams are IA and IB respectively, then equals :

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

14) Ratio of intensities of two waves is given by 4 : 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of the waves is :-

(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 4:1
(4) 1:4

15) The amplitude of light depends upon the distance of the point from the axis of a cylinderical
source as follows -

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

16) The equations of two interferring waves are Y1 = b cos ωt and Y2 = b cos (ωt+ϕ) respectively.
Destructive interference will take place at the point of observation for the following value of ϕ :–
(1) 0°
(2) 360°
(3) 180°
(4) 720°

17) If wavelength of electron and photon is same, then

(1) energy of photon is less than kinetic energy of electron

(2) energy of photon is equal to kinetic energy of electron
(3) energy of photon is greater than kinetic energy of electron
(4) energy of photon is two times of kinetic energy of electron

18) Fringe width observed in the Young’s double slit experiment is β. If the frequency of the source
is doubled, the fringe width will –

(1) remain β
(2) become β/2
(3) become 2β
(4) remain 3β/2

19) In single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction width of slit is 1000 nm and wavelength of light is 500 nm.
Distance between the slit and the screen is 2 m. Angular width of the central maxima will be :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 70°

20) How will the diffraction pattern change when yellow light is replaced by blue light ? The fringe
will be :-

(1) Wider
(2) Narrower
(3) Brighter
(4) Fainter

21)

Choose the correct ray diagram of an equi convex thin lens which is cut as shown
(paraxial condition satisfied) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) A double convex lens made of a material of refractive index µ1, is placed inside two liquids or
refractive indices µ2 & µ3, as shown (µ2 > µ1 > µ3). wide, parallel beam of light is incident on the lens

from the left. The lens will give rise to :-

(1) A single convergent beam

(2) Two different convergent beam
(3) Two different divergent beam
(4) A convergent and a divergent beam

23) Intensity of central fringe in interference pattern is 0.01 W/m2 then find intensity at a point
having path difference λ/3 on screen from centre (in mW/m2)

(1) 2.5
(2) 5
(3) 7.5
(4) 10

24) In YDSE wavelength of light used is 600 nm. At a point intensity is 50% of maximum value. What
is path difference at that point :-

(1) 150 nm
(2) 200 nm
(3) 300 nm
(4) 600 nm

25) The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission in tungsten is 400 nm. The wavelength of
light that must be used in order to eject electrons with a maximum energy of 0.9 eV to be :-

(1) 120 nm
(2) 310 nm
(3) 380 nm
(4) 400 nm

26) Figure shows position versus time graph of two rabbits running opposite to each other between
two trees. Which of the following statement is true.
(1) Rabbit A has greater magnitude of average velocity.
(2) Rabbit B has greater magnitude of average velocity.
(3) Both the Rabbits have same displacement.
(4) Both the Rabbits have same constant speed.

27) Considering the point of projection as origin. The trajectory of a projectile fired horizontally with
certain velocity is parabola given by : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A bird moves from point (1, –2) to (4, 2). If the speed of the bird is 20 m/s, then the average
velocity vector of the bird is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction
along a straight line. The velocity time graph of two cars is shown in figure. The time when the car B

will catch the car A, will be :-

(1) t = 21 sec
(2) t =
(3) 20 sec
(4) 10 sec

30) Two identical metal spheres are held above the ground as shown. The separation between them
is small compared to their distance above the ground. Both the spheres are released simultaneously.
If effects of air drag is negligible, the separation of the spheres before any one of them hits the
ground will :

(1) Remain constant.

(2) Decrease continuously.
(3) Increase continuously
(4) Increase initially and then remain constant

31) If a body losses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it
penetrate more before coming to rest :-

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm

32) One particle is dropped while another particle is thrown downward with an initial velocity of 2
m/s simultaneously from same position. Both of these particles are at a separation of 18 m after time
:

(1) 4.5 s
(2) 9 s
(3) 9.8 s
(4) 18 s

33) Three elephants A, B and C are moving along a straight line with constant speed in same
direction as shown in the figure. Speed of A is 5 m/s and speed of C is 10 m/s. Initially separation
between A & B is ‘d’ and between B and C is also d. When B catches C separation between A and C

becomes 3d. Then the speed of B will be :

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

34) The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is shown in the figure. Choose
correct option.

(1) Acceleration of particle for 0 to10s is positive and for 10 to 30s is negative.
(2) The particle has never turned around.
(3) The particle has zero displacement in given time interval.
The average speed in the interval 0 to 10 s is the same as the average speed in interval 10s to
(4)
20 s.

35)

For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height reached to the square of flight time is (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 5 : 4
(2) 5 : 2
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 10 : 1

36) The displacement x of a particle moving in one dimension is related to time t by the equation
where x is in meters and t in seconds. The displacement of the particle when its velocity is
zero is :-

(1) zero
(2) 4 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 0.5 m

37) Two particles are moving along x-axis. Particle-1 starts from x = −10m with velocity 4m/s along
negative x-direction and acceleration 2 m/s2 along positive x-direction. Particle-2 starts from x =
+2m with velocity 6 m/s along positive x-direction and acceleration 2 m/s2 along negative x-direction.
Find the time when they collide.

(1) 6 sec
(2) 3 sec
(3) 1 sec
(4) 4 sec

38) When an AC source of emf e = E0 sin (100t) is connected across a circuit, the phase difference
between the emf e and the current in the circuit is observed to be π/4, as shown in the diagram. If
the circuit consists possibly only of R–C or R–L or L–C in series, find the relationship between the

two elements.

(1) R = 1kΩ, C = 1μF

(2) R = 1kΩ, L = 10H
(3) R = 1kΩ, C = 10μF
(4) R = 1kΩ, L = 1H

39) Assertion :- For series RLC network, power factor of circuit in region (1) is positive and in
region (2) is negative.
Reason :- Overall nature of circuit in region (1) is inductive while in region (2) is capacitive.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

40) As given in the figure, a series circuit connected across a 200 V, 60 Hz line consists of a
capacitor of capacitive reactance 30 Ω, a non-inductive resistor of 44 Ω, and a coil of inductive
reactance 90Ω and resistance 36Ω. The power dissipated in the coil is

(1) 320 W
(2) 176 W
(3) 144 W
(4) 0 W

41) Resonance occurs in a series LCR circuit when the frequency of the applied e.m.f. is 1000 Hz.
Then:
(1) when f = 900 Hz, the circuit behaves as a capacitive circuit.
(2) the impedance of the circuit is maximum at f = 1000 Hz.
(3) at resonance the voltage across L and current in C differ in phase by 180°.
(4) If the value of C is doubled resonance occurs at f = 2000 Hz.

42) If current I1 = 6 sin ωt, I2 = 8 cos ωt then I3 will be :

(1) 10 sin (ωt + 53°)

(2) 10 sin (ωt + 37°)
(3) 10 sin (ωt + 45°)
(4) 10 sin (ωt + 30°)

43) The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is

where c = 3 × 108 ms–1 is the speed of light. The corresponding electric field is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

44) The correct match between the entries in column I and column II are

I II

Radiation Wavelength

(a) Microwave (i) 100 m

(b) Gamma rays (ii) 10-15 m

(c) A.M. radio (iii) 10-10 m

(d) X-rays (iv) 10-3 m

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

45) A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is
(C = velocity of light) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,
A. [Co(NH3)6]3+ B. [Co(CN)6]3–
C. [Cu(H2O)4]2+ D. [Ti(H2O)6]3+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B < D < A < C

(2) B < A < D < C
(3) C < D < B < A
(4) C < A < D < B

2)

Which of the following are paramagnetic?

A. [NiCl4]2– B. Ni(CO)4
2–
C. [Ni(CN)4] D. [Ni(H2O)6]2+
E. K4[Fe(CN)6]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and C only

(2) B and E only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, D and E only

3) Statement-1 : [CoF6]3– is paramagnetic.

Statement-2 : Co3+ has 3d6 outer electronic configuration. The unpaired electrons do not pair up
because of weak field provided by F–.

(1) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false.

(2) If statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true.
(3) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1.
(4) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1.

4) Statement-1 : [Ti(H2O)6]4+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.

Statement-2 : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+ complex.

(1) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false.

(2) If statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true.
(3) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1.
(4) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1.

5) The ligands in anti-cancer drug cis platin are :

(1) NH3, Cl
(2)
(3) Cl, H2O
(4) NO, Cl

6) A platinum complex of ammonia and chlorine produces four ions per molecule in the solution. It
is:

(1) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(2) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2

7) What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM

(B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM

(C) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM

(D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM

Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

9) Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light ?

 4+
(1) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]
3+
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]
2+
(3) [Zn(NH3)6]
[Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
(4)
[At. no. : Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24]

10) Which of the following complex has minimum magnitude of Δ0?

3–
(1) [Cr(CN)6]
3+
(2) [Co(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [CoCl6]
3+
(4) [Cr(H2O)6]

11) IUPAC name of [Fe(O2)(CN)4Cl]4– is :

(1) chlorotetracyano dioxoferrate (IV)ion

(2) chlorotetracyano peroxoferrate (II)ion
(3) chlorotetracyano superoxoferrate (II)ion
(4) tetracyanochloro superoxoferrate (II)ion

12) Which of the following pair the EAN of central metal atom is not same ?

3– 3+
(1) [Fe(CN)6] and [Fe(NH3)6]
3+ 3–
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]
3– 3–
(3) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN)6]
2–
(4) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]

13)
Complex-A and Complex-B are respectively:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) What is the order of spin only magnetic moment of the following system?
(I) Mn2+ in presence of weak field ligand in octahedral field
(II) Ni2+ in presence of strong field ligand in octahedral field
(III) Cr3+ in presence of weak field ligand in octahedral field
(IV) Sc3+ in presence of weak field ligand in octahedral field
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) I > III > IV > II
(4) I > IV > III > II

15)

Magnetic behaviouir of complex is changed in :

(1) Step - I
(2) Step - II
(3) Step - III
(4) Step - IV

16) Select the CORRECT order of number of unpaired electrons in given complexes:
(I) A tetrahedral with d6 ion
(II)
(III) A co-ordination compound with magnetic moment B.M.

(1) III > II > I

(2) I > III > II
(3) III > I > II
(4) II > I > III

17) The colour of KMnO4 is due to:

(1) L M charge transfer transition

(2)
(3) M L charge transfer transition
(4) d–d transition

18) "Dichlorido bis(triphenyl phosphine) nickel(II)" is a :

(1) cationic complex ion

(2) anionic complex ion
(3) neutral complex
(4) Any of the three

19) The octahedral complex of metal ion M3+ with four monodentate ligand L1, L2, L3 and L4 absorb
wavelength in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligands is:

(1) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1

(2) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
(3) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1
(4) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4

20) A complex has magnetic moment 4.9 B.M. What will be the oxidation state of Mn and
the value of n?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Which of the following cannot show linkage isomerism ?

(1) H2O
(2) CN–
(3) SCN–
–
(4) NO2

22) The number of geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

23) Hybridisation of [Ni(NH3)6]2+ and [Zn(NH3)6]2+ are

(1) d2sp3 and sp3d2 respectively

(2) sp3d2 and d2sp3 respectively
(3) Both sp3d2
(4) Both d2sp3

24) The hybridisation of [CoF6]3– and [Co(C2O4)3]3– are

(1) Both sp3d2

(2) Both d2sp3
(3) sp3d2 and d2sp3
(4) d2sp3 and sp3d2

25) Hybridisation of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] and K4[Fe(CN)6] respectively are

(1) d2sp3 and sp3d2

(2) sp3d2 and sp3d2
(3) d2sp3 and d2sp3
(4) sp3d2 and d2sp3
26) Oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CO)4]– is

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) –1
(4) –2

27) The IUPAC name of the complex ion [Cr(NO2)(NH3)(CN)4]2– is

(1) Amminetetracyanidonitrito-O-chromate (IV).

(2) Amminetetracyanidonitrito-N-chromate(III)
(3) Amminetetracyanidonitrito-N-chromium(III)
(4) Amminetetracyanidonitrito-N-chromate(II)

28) The most stable complex among the following is

(1) K3[Al(C2O4)3]
(2) [Pt(en)2]Cl2
(3) [Ag(NII3)2]Cl
(4) K2[Ni(EDTA)]

29) An ambidentate ligand is one which :

(1) has two donor atoms but either of the two can form a coordinate bond.
(2) has two donor atoms but only one of them has the capacity to form a coordinate bond.
(3) is linked to the metal atom at two points.
(4) forms chelate rings.

30) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr2+ ion is the same as that of a Nd3+ ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statements I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statements II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statements II is true

31) Which of the following element is transition metal ?

(1) Pt
(2) Zn
(3) Hg
(4) Cd

32) Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property
indicated against it ?

(1) Ti<V<Cr<Mn: Increasing number of oxidation states

(2) Ti3+<V3+<Cr3+<Mn3+:increasing magnetic moment
(3) Ti<V<Cr<Mn: Increasing melting points
(4) Ti<V<Mn<Cr: Increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

33) Which of the following is not due to back bonding?

(1) State of hybridisation may change

(2) Bond order increases
(3) Bond angle always increases
(4) Bond energy increase

34) How many of the following molecules are polar?

CH4, CCl4, CH2Cl2, H2O, NH3, H2O2, O2F2

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 7

35) Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle?

(1) OH2
(2) SH2
(3) XeF2
(4) CO2

36) Compound formed by sp3d hybridization will have structure

(1) Distorted octahedral

(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Angular
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal

37) Assertion : The electronic structure of O3 is as given below-

Reason : Structure is not allowed because octet around O cannot be expanded.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

38) Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment ?

(1) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

(2) Ammonia, Benzene, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(4) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

39) N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions and respectively. Which of the following
statements is wrong ?

(1) In , N–N bond weakens

(2) In , O–O bond order increases
(3) In , O–O bond order decreases
(4) becomes paramagnetic

40) NH3 and BF3 combine readily because of the formation of

(1) Bridge bond

(2) A weak bond
(3) A coordinate bond
(4) An Ionic bond

41) Which of the following statement are correct?

(a) In PCl5 hybridisation is sp3d and it has a trigonal pyramidal structure.
(b) The angle between the P-Cl bonds is 180º, which is same for all the P and Cl bond present in PCl5
(c) The bond length of P-Cl in axial position is higher than in equitorial position
(d) PCl5 have zero dipole moment
Choose the correct option.

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) c & d
(4) d & a

42) [SiF6]2– is known where as [SiCl6]2– not. Reason is

(1) Six large chloride ions can not be accommodated around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
(2) Interaction between lone pair of chloride ion and Si4+ is not very strong.
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Presence of d-orbitals in chlorine
43) Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment ?

(1) SiF4
(2) SF4
(3) XeF4
(4) CO2

44) In which of the following molecules all the bonds are not equal ?

(1) NF3
(2) ClF3
(3) BCl3
(4) PF3

45) S-I : Xe-atom in XeF2 assume sp–hybrid state.

S-II : XeF2 molecule does not follow octet rule.

(1) Both S-I and S-II are false

(2) Both S-I and S-II are true.
(3) S-I is true but S-II is false.
(4) S-I is false but S-II is true.

BIOLOGY

1) Why is respiration considered both catabolic and anabolic in nature?

(1) It is involved in oxidation and reduction reactions.

(2) It provides both energy and carbon skeletons for biosynthesis.
(3) It forms glucose and breaks it simultaneously.
(4) It is independent of photosynthesis.

2) In lactic acid fermentation of 3 molecules of glucose, total ATP yield will be:

(1) 3 ATP
(2) 6 ATP
(3) 9 ATP
(4) 12 ATP

3) A sealed dough mixture rises and becomes spongy after a few hours. This is due to:

(1) Bacterial aerobic respiration

(2) Anaerobic fermentation by yeast producing CO2
(3) Denitrification
(4) Anaerobic breakdown of starch
4) Assertion (A): Accumulation of lactic acid in muscles causes fatigue.
Reason (R): Lactic acid increase pH and interferes with enzymatic activity during intense exercise.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

5) Which of the following organisms can perform both aerobic respiration and fermentation
depending on O2 availability?

(1) Yeast
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Chlorella
(4) Penicillium

6) Assertion (A): In lactic acid fermentation, no CO2 is released.

Reason (R): The carbon of pyruvate is incorporated into ethanol without decarboxylation.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

7) Match the Columns -

Type of Fermentation End Products

A. Alcoholic P. Ethanol, acetic acid, H₂, CO₂
B. Lactic acid Q. Ethanol + CO₂
C. Mixed acid R. Lactic acid
D. Butyric acid S. Butyric acid + H₂
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(2) A–Q, B–R, C–P, D–S
(3) A–S, B–R, C–Q, D–P
(4) A–R, B–Q, C–S, D–P

8) If a yeast culture ferments 10 moles of glucose anaerobically, how many moles of CO2 are
released?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 15

9) In alcoholic fermentation, the immediate product formed from pyruvate before ethanol is:
(1) Lactic acid
(2) Acetyl-CoA
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

10) Select the correct statements:

A. Glycolysis proceeds only in presence of mitochondria.
B. NADH produced in glycolysis can enter electron transport only in aerobic conditions.
C. Each glucose molecule forms two pyruvates.
D. ATP generation is independent of electron transport.

(1) A, B, and C
(2) A and C only
(3) B, C, and D
(4) All of these

11) Assertion (A): ATP is generated at two distinct points during glycolysis.
Reason (R): These ATPs are formed through oxidative phosphorylation linked to NADH oxidation.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

12) During glycolysis, if the enzyme glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is inhibited,

which of the following immediate effects will occur?

(1) Accumulation of PGAL and NADH depletion

(2) Increase in BPGA formation
(3) Increase in ATP yield
(4) Enhanced pyruvate production

13) Assertion (A): In glycolysis, fructose can serve as an initial substrate.

Reason (R): Both glucose and fructose are converted into fructose-6-phosphate before further
metabolism.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

14) Match the Columns -

Enzyme Function
A. Aldolase P. Cleaves fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two 3-carbon molecules
B. Enolase Q. Forms ATP during BPGA to PGA conversion
C. Triose phosphate isomerase R. Interconverts DHAP and PGAL
D. Phosphoglycerate kinase S. Converts 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(2) A–R, B–S, C–P, D–Q
(3) A–Q, B–R, C–S, D–P
(4) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q

15) Assertion (A): Glycolysis continues in cells even when oxygen supply is stopped.
Reason (R): Pyruvate formed in glycolysis can be reduced aerobically only to regenerate NAD⁺
required for glycolysis.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

16) Assertion (A): Photosynthetic cells never face a shortage of oxygen.

Reason (R): CO2 is released within the same cell during photosynthesis.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) A is true, R is false
(3) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(4) Both A and R are false

17) Match the Columns -

Plant Part Gas Exchange Structure

A. Leaves P. Lenticels
B. Roots Q. Stomata
C. Woody stems R. Diffusion through root hairs
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R
(2) A–Q, B–R, C–P
(3) A–R, B–P, C–Q
(4) A–P, B–R, C–Q

18) Gaseous diffusion in plants is sufficient because:

(1) All cells contain chloroplasts

(2) Plant metabolism is slow
(3) Each cell is close to air spaces
(4) They have haemoglobin

19) Who proposed the EMP pathway of glycolysis?

(1) Fischer and Krebs

(2) Embden, Meyerhof, and Parnas
(3) Calvin and Benson
(4) Pasteur and Buchner

20) Match the Columns -

Step Enzyme
A. Glucose → Glucose-6-P P. Pyruvate kinase
B. Fructose-6-P → Fructose-1,6-BP Q. Dehydrogenase
C. PGAL → BPGA R. Hexokinase
D. PEP → Pyruvate S. Phosphofructokinase
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(2) A–Q, B–P, C–S, D–R
(3) A–R, B–S, C–Q, D–P
(4) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q

21) The first phosphorylation step in glycolysis is catalysed by:

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Aldolase
(3) Enolase
(4) Pyruvate kinase

22) Assertion (A): The fate of pyruvate depends on oxygen availability.

Reason (R): Pyruvate is converted to ethanol under aerobic conditions.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) A is true, R is false
(3) Both A and R are false
(4) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

23) A yeast culture kept in an oxygen-free container releases bubbles. The bubbles contain:

(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) Ethanol vapour
(4) N2

24) Identify the ATP-producing steps in glycolysis.

A. BPGA → PGA
B. PEP → Pyruvate
C. PGAL → BPGA
D. Glucose → G6P

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and D
(4) C and D

25) Assertion (A): Pyruvate is the key end product of glycolysis.

Reason (R): It acts as a metabolic link between link reaction and kreb's cycle.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) A is true, R is false
(3) Both A and R are false
(4) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

26) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Several processes occur simultaneously during decomposition of detritus. choose incorrect
option for catabolism and fragmentation :-

Features Catabolism Fragmentation

Organism
A Sapotrophs Detrivores
involved

B Example Bacteria Earthworm

Breakdown Organic
of large substance
C Function
organic change in to
matter inorganic
(1) A and B
(2) C only
(3) B and C
(4) A only

28) Stratification is :-

(1) Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of an ecosystem

(2) Species composition
(3) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels
(4) Active nature of all the components of the ecosystem as a unit

29) Ecosystem are not exempt from the :-

(1) First law of thermodynamics

(2) Second law of thermodynamics
(3) Unidirectional flow of minerals
(4) Both (1) and (2)

30)
Above pyramid reperesent.

(1) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of biomass.

(2) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of number.
(3) Pyramid of aquatic ecosystem on basis of biomass
(4) Pyramid of energy

31) What is true for following food web ?

(1) B, C, D, E are primary producers

(2) E, F, G, H are carnivores
(3) K is herbivore
(4) I and J are secondary consumers

32) Read the following and find out which one is incorrect about ecological pyramids :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Identify the correct match from the column-I and II :

Column-I Column-II

i Producer a Herbivore

Biotic component of
ii Primary consumer b
Ecosystem

All producers
iii c Plants
and consumers

iv Micro consumer d Bacteria

(1) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
(3) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
(4) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a

34) The four pyramids (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different type of ecosystem
ecological pyramids, which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its
correct ecosystem & type of pyramid :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
 Type of pyramid Ecosystem

1 A Pyramid of number Tree ecosystem

2 B Pyramid of biomass Grassland ecosystem

3 C Pyramid of Energy Grassland ecosystem

4 D Pyramid of biomass Aquatic ecosystem

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) The amount of Inorganic substances present at any given time in an ecosystem is known as :-
(a) Standing state
(b) Standing crop
(c) Biomass
(d) Primary productivity

(1) a
(2) b
(3) b, c
(4) b,d

36) With respect to Tilman's outdoor plots experiment, identify the correct statement from the below
statements.

(1) Plots with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass.
(2) Decreased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(3) Increased diversity contributed to lower productivity.
(4) Plots with less species show less year to year variation in total biomass.

37) Match the column I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Global animal diversity (%) (i) 1200

(b) Global plant diversity (%) (ii) 8.1

(c) Species diversity in India (%) (iii) 22

(d) Bird species in India (iv) 70

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

38) Read the given statements and select the correct option regarding this.
(i) Ecosystem services provided by nature to human beings such as oxygen for respiration, aesthetic
value, etc.
(ii) Direct economic benefits derived from nature by human beings such as food, medicines, etc.
(iii) Every species has an intrinsic value, even if it is not of any economic use to us.
With respect to above given codes (i), (ii) and (iii) choose the correct option.
Narrowly Broadly Ethical
utilitarian utilitarian
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) According to IUCN total plant and animal species described so far is :

(1) More than 1.5 million

(2) More than 7 million
(3) More than 20 million
(4) More than 50 million

40) Identify species area relationship graph :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

41) Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of economic importance is
called:-

(1) Biodiversity
(2) Bioprospecting
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Bioremediation

42) Match the column I and coloumn II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Dodo (i) Africa

(b) Quagga (ii) Bali, Javan, Caspian

(c) Thylacine (iii) Mauritius

(d) Steller's Sea Cow (iv) Australia

(e) Tiger sub species (v) Russia

(1) (a)- iv (b)- ii (c)- i (d)- v (e) -iii
(2) (a)- iii (b)- iv (c)- ii (d)- i (e) -v
(3) (a)- iii (b)- i (c)- iv (d)- v (e) -ii
(4) (a)- iii (b)- v (c)- iv (d)- i (e) -ii

43) Which is not a criteria used for determining hot spots :-

(1) Number of endemic species

(2) Degree to habitat destruction
(3) Having traditional strategy for protection of biodiversity
(4) Degree of exploitation

44) In the following pie chart of global vertebrates diversity, what do A, B and C represent

respectively?
(1) Birds, Fishes, Amphibians
(2) Mammals, Reptiles, Birds
(3) Reptiles, Birds, Amphibians
(4) Amphibians, Fishes, Reptiles

45) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Biodiversity Hot spot Accelerated habitat loss High Biodiversity regions

Last refuges for a large number of rare &

ii Sacred groves Meghalaya
threatened species

Plants are taken out from

iii Botanical garden Ex-situ conservation
natural habitat for protection

(1) only (i)

(2) only (ii)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

46) Oxygen evolved by the green plants comes from H2O, not from CO2. This was proved with the
help of:

(1) Ganong screen method

(2) Paper chromatography method
(3) Radioisotopic technique
(4) Half leaf experiment

47) In C4 plants, RuBisCO is found in :

(1) Bundle sheath cell

(2) Mesophyll cell
(3) Endodermis of roots cell
(4) All of the above

48)

Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 and C4 plants are respectively :

(1) PGA, OAA

(2) PEP, RuBP
(3) OAA, PGA
(4) RuBP, PEP

49)

In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is :-
(1) Phosphoglycereldehyde
(2) Malic acid
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
(4) 3–phosphoglyceric acid

50)

How many ATP and NADPH are used per CO2 molecule in reduction step of Calvin cycle ?

(1) 3 ATP, 2 NADPH

(2) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH
(3) 2 ATP, 2 NADPH
(4) 12 ATP, 18 NADPH

51) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) In PS I the reaction centre chl-a has an absorption peak at 700 nm.
(2) The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to lipids.
(3) The splitting of water is associated with PS II.
(4) The primary electron acceptor of PS II is the plastoquinone.

52) Which of the following processes is not the part of photochemical phase of photosynthesis?

(1) Light absorption

(2) Formation of high energy chemical intermediates ATP and NADPH.
(3) Release of oxygen
(4) Enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into the plant leading to the synthesis of sugar.

53) During light reaction in higher plants, the light energy is absorbed by the pigment present in
___A___ and transfer energy to ___B___.

A B

(1) Antenna Reaction center

(2) Antenna Special chlorophyll b

(3) Reaction centre Antenna

(4) Reaction centre Special chlorophyll a

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Plant factors affecting photosynthesis include:

 number, age, size and orientation of leaves, mesophyll cells and chloroplast, internal CO2 conc.,
(1)
the amount of chlorophyll.
(2) nature of leaves, size of mesophyll cells and light.
(3) mesophyll cells, distribution and temperature.
(4) quantity of chlorophyll, size of leaves and CO2.

55) How many of the following are required for chemiosmosis ?

Proton gradient, Proton pump, ATPase, a membrane, electron gradient.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

56) Four carbon compound in mesophyll cells which is transported to bundle sheath cells is :-

(1) OAA
(2) Aspartic acid
(3) Malic acid or Aspartic acid
(4) Pyruvic Acid

57) What is the correct ratio of ATP utilisation in steps of Calvin cycle?

(1) Reduction : Regeneration :: 1 : 1

(2) Reduction : Regeneration :: 2 : 1
(3) Reduction : Regeneration :: 2 : 2
(4) Reduction : Regeneration :: 1 : 2

58) Read the following character of C4 plants :-

A. Bundle sheath cell have large number of chloroplast, thick walls & no intercellular space.
B. Oxaloacetic acid formed in Bundle sheath cells.
C. Primary CO2 acceptor is PEP present in mesophyll cell.
D. Mesophyll cell lack RuBisCo enzyme.
Select correct statements :-

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, C & D
(3) B, C & D
(4) A, B & D

59) The following (P through U) are the main steps of chemiosmotic ATP synthesis in the light
reaction.
Which option places them in correct order ?
(P) H+ concentration gradient established.
(Q) H+ diffuses through ATP synthase.
(R) Carriers use energy to move H+ across the membrane.
(S) Electrons from PSII pass along electron transport chain.
(T) Light excites electrons in PSII.
(U) Energy of H+ flow is used by ATP synthase to make ATP.

(1) P→Q→T→S→R→U
(2) S→T→P→Q→R→U
(3) T→S→R→P→Q→U
(4) T→S→R→U→Q→P

60) Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of:

(1) Potato
(2) Sorghum
(3) Maize
(4) Both (2) and (3)

61) In grana lamellae, presence of which of the following specify that 'z' scheme found only in grana
lamellae ?

(1) PS-I, PS-II

(2) PS-II & NADP reductase
(3) Presence of PS-I & NADP reductase
(4) Presence of Mg++ in lumen

62) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) RuBisCO is present in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants

(2) RuBisCO is present in the mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(3) PEPcase is present in the bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
(4) Both RuBisCO and PEPcase are present in mesophyll cells of C4 plant

63) Hatch and Slack pathway (HSK pathway) is otherwise known as C4-cycle because:

(1) the first stable product is oxaloacetic acid / OAA which is a C4-compound.
(2) the primary CO2 acceptor is OAA, a C4-compounds.
(3) all intermediate metabolites are C4-compound.
(4) at one time 4CO2 molecules take part in carboxylation pathway.

64) Statement I: The pigments are organised into two discrete photochemical light harvesting
complexes within the Photosystem I (PS-I) and Photosystem II (PS II).
Statement II: PS I and PS II are named in the sequence in which they function during the light
reaction not in the sequence of their discovery.

(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is not correct.

(2) Statement I is not correct and Statement II is correct.
(3) Both the statements are correct.
(4) Both the statements are not correct.
65) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in:

(1) stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts.

(2) grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts.
(3) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts.
(4) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts.

66) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d)

correctly identified.

a b c d
(1) Photosystem-II Thylakoid membrane Photosystem-I ATP synthetase
(2) Photosystem-I Thylakoid membrane Photosystem-II CF1
Inner chloroplast
(3) Photosystem-I Photosystem-II CF0
membrane
(4) Photosystem-II Thylakoid membrane Cytochrome b & f CF1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Assertion : Tomato plants are allowed to grow in carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere that
leads to higher yields.
Reason : Tomato plants does not respond to higher CO2 concentration by showing increased rates of
photosynthesis leading to higher productivity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

68) Assertion : Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to the C4 plants.

Reason : C3 plants responds to increased CO2 concentration and saturation is seen only below 450
μ1L–1.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

69) Statement I: The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack PEP carboxylase enzyme.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

70) Statement-I : The binding of CO2 or O2 to RuBisCO enzyme is competitive, relative

concentration of O2 and CO2 determines which of the two will bind to the enzyme.
Statement-II : In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur because they have a mechanism that
increases the concentration of CO2 at the RuBisCO enzyme site.
Regarding the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

71) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane.
Statement-II : Splitting of water molecule take place on the outer side of the thylakoid membrane.
In the light of the above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below
:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

72) Which one is incorrect ?

(1) The C3 and C4 plants respond similarly to CO2 concentration.

(2) At low light conditions neither C3 nor C4 plants respond to high CO2 concentration.

C4 plants attain saturation at much lower CO2 concentration (about 360 ) than C3
(3)
plants (only beyond 450 )
(4) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to the C3 plants

73) Read the following statements :-

(i) PS-I and PS-II were numbered I and II according to the sequence in which they function during
light reaction.
(ii) The LHC are made of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to the proteins.
(iii) Many chlorophyll-a molecules form one reaction centre.
(iv) The reaction centre is different in PS–I and PS-II but with the same absorption peak of
wavelength of light.
(v) In PS-II the reaction centre chlorophyll-a gives out 685 nm wavelength of red light causing
electrons to become excited and jump into an orbit farther from the atomic nucleus.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii) only
(3) (v) only
(4) (iii), (iv) and (v)

74) Match the following :-

A B

(A) 5-carbon sugar (M) Glucose

(B) Most crucial step of the calvin cycle (N) Carboxylation

Number of CO2 molecule that enter the calvin

(C) (O) 6
cycle for one glucose

(D) Product of calvin cycle (P) RuBP

(1) A–P, B–N, C–O, D–M
(2) A–P, B–N, C–O, D–M
(3) A–P, B–N, C–M, D–O
(4) A–P, B–O, C–M, D–N

75)

Identify A, B, C and D in the table given below :-

Characters C3 Plant C4 Plant

CO2 fixation rate

A High
under high light intensity

Photorespiration at
B Negligible
low light intensity

Photorespiration at
High C
high light intensity

Photorespiration if CO2
Negligible D
concentration is high

A B C D

(1) Medium High Negligible High

 (2) High High Negligible Negligible

(3) Negligible Negligible High High

(4) Medium Negligible Negligible Negligible

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Which of the following techniques is used in separating leaf pigments?

(1) X-Ray crystallography

(2) Moll's half leaf experiment
(3) Paper chromatography
(4) None of the above

77) In the given diagram x, y and z respectively represent the absorption spectrum of :-

(1) x = Chlorophyll a, y = Chlorophyll b, z = Carotenoids

(2) x = Chlorophyll b, y = Chlorophyll a, z = Carotenoids
(3) x = Chlorophyll b, y = Carotenoids, z = Chlorophyll a
(4) x = Chlorophyll a, y = Carotenoids, z = Chlorophyll b
78)
In Given diagrammatic representation of the hatch and slack pathway identify the a, b, c, d.

(1) a–Fixation, b–Decarboxylation, c–Regeneration, d–phosphoenol pyruvate.

(2) a–Regeneration, b–Fixation, c–Decarboxylation, d–phosphoenol pyruvate.
(3) a–Fixation, b–Regeneration, c–Decarboxylation, d–phosphoenol pyruvate.
(4) a–Regeneration, b–Decarboxylation, c–Fixation, d–phosphoenol pyruvate.

79) Photorespiration is a wasteful process for the plants in which CO2 is evolved without fixation.
Find out the correct combination for the process :-

Initial Final
ATP consumption CO2 evolved
O2 consumption O2 consumption

(1) Mitochondria Chloroplast Peroxisome Mitochondria

(2) Peroxisome Chloroplast Mitochondria Chloroplast

(3) Chloroplast Mitochondria Chloroplast Peroxisome

(4) Chloroplast Peroxisome Chloroplast Mitochondria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
80)

Optimum temperature for C3 plant is :-

(1) 20°C – 25°C

(2) 30°C – 40°C
(3) 40°C – 50°C
(4) 0°C – 10°C

81) Which of these causes the proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?

(1) Splitting of water in the stroma.

(2) Removal of e– from stroma to outside during ETS.
(3) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+ by NADP reductase.
(4) Both (1) & (3)

82) The primary acceptor of e– in Photosystem-II (PS-II) is :-

(1) Plastoquinone
(2) FRS
(3) Pheophytin
(4) Ferrodoxin

83) Minerals involved in photolysis of water is :-

(1) Mn, Cl, Ca

(2) Mg, Fe, Mn
(3) Mn, Fe, Ca
(4) N, P, K

84) In C3 plants, when RUBP binds with CO2, it form:-

(1) Two molecules of phosphoglycerate.

(2) Two molecules of phosphoglycolate.
(3) One molecule of phosphoglycerate and one molecule of triose phosphate.
(4) One molecule of phosphoglycerate and one molecule of phosphoglycolate.

85) During photosynthesis excited electrons of photosystem II are picked up by an electron acceptor
which passes them to an ETS. The movement of electrons in ETS :-

(1) Is uphill in terms of redox potential scale.

(2) Is downhill in terms of redox potential scale.
(3) Is either uphill or downhill in terms of redox potential scale.
(4) Is neither uphill nor downhill in terms of redox potential scale.

86) In the synthesis of one molecule of glucose by C3 and C4 plants, the number of molecules of ATP
used by C3 and C4 plants is respectively:

(1) 15 and 30
(2) 10 and 20
(3) 18 and 30
(4) 15 and 20

87) How many extra ATP are consumed in C4 pathway as compared to C3 pathway for the fixation of
one CO2 molecule :-

(1) 12 ATP
(2) 6 ATP
(3) 2 ATP
(4) 3 ATP

88) Statement-I : Plant factors depends on the genetic predisposition and growth of the plant.
Statement-II : Rate of photosynthesis saturates at 10% of the full sunlight.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

89)

How many plants in given box require

CO2 conc > 450 μℓL–1 for optimum photosynthesis:-

(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 5

90)

Given graph showing overlapping of action spectrum of photosynthesis with absorption spectrum of
chlorophyll 'a' :
 Which of the following is not a correct conclusion regarding
this overlapping ?
(1) Chlorophyll 'a' shows absorption peaks in the blue and red regions of visible spectrum.
This is complete one to one overlap because both the graphs (absorption & action) have same
(2)
peaks i.e. in the blue and red regions of visible spectrum.
(3) Chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
This is not a complete one to one overlap because there are many wavelength in visible
(4)
spectrum at which there is difference between absorption & action.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 2 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 4 4 3 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 1 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 1 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : The question gives a new system of units for length, mass, and time and asks
for the equivalent unit of kinetic energy in this new system.
Concept : The solution involves using the dimensional formula for kinetic energy, which is
[ML2T−2]. You then substitute the values of the new units for mass (M), length (L), and time (T)
into this formula to find the new unit of kinetic energy.
Solution : [KE] = [ML2T–2]

K.E. = (100 g) =1 g cm2/s2

= 1 erg
Final Answer : (2)

2) Explaining : The question provides a force equation with trigonometric functions and asks
for the dimensional formula of the ratio of two constants, D and B.
Concept : The core concept is that the arguments of trigonometric functions (like sine and
0 0 0
cosine) must be dimensionless quantities. By setting the dimensions of Bx and Dt to [M L T ],
you can determine the dimensional formulas for constants B and D and then calculate the
dimensional formula for their ratio, D/B.
Solution :
cos (Bx) sin (Dt)
\→ Dimensionless

B=

Final Answer : (4)

3) Explaining : This question redefines the fundamental quantities as force (F), work (W), and
velocity (V) and asks for the dimensional formula of time (t) in this new system.
Concept : You can express the dimension of time as a product of powers of the new
fundamental quantities: [T]=[F]a[W]b[V]c. By writing out the standard dimensions of F, W, and
V ([MLT−2], [ML2T−2], and [LT−1] respectively) and equating the powers of M, L, and T on both
sides of the equation, you can solve a system of linear equations to find the values of a, b, and
c.
Solution : [T1] = k[M1 L1 T –2]a [ML2 T –2]b [L1 T –1]c
comparing
a + b = 0 ; a + 2b + c = 0, –2a –2b – c = 1
Final Answer : (4)

4) Explaining : The question asks for the maximum possible percentage error in a quantity Z,
which is defined in terms of other quantities (A, B, C, D) with known percentage errors.
Concept : To find the maximum percentage error, you use the principle of propagation of
errors. You multiply the percentage error of each variable by the absolute value of its power in
the given formula for Z, and then you add all these terms together to get the total maximum
percentage error.

Solution : =2 +

= 2 × 2% + 3 × 1% + × 4% + × 2% = 10%
Final Answer : (2)

5) Explaining : The question asks for the order of magnitude of a given number, 7.86×10−15.
Concept : To determine the order of magnitude, you first write the number in scientific
notation, N×10x. If the value of N is less than 5, the order of magnitude is x. If N is 5 or
greater, you increase the exponent x by one to get the order of magnitude.
Solution : Since 7.86 is more then 5 So, power of 10 must be increased by 1.
Final Answer : (3)

6) Explaining : To find ratio of minimum deviation in air to liquid.

Concept :
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

7) Explaining : To find focal length of mirror

Concept : m =
Solution :

m=

–2 =
u = –75 cm
Final Answer : (1)

8) Explaining : To find focal length of lens

Concept :
Solution :
Let f1 is the focal length of convex lens and f2 is the focal length of concave lens.

or
f is +ve, |P1| > |P2|
Hence, P1 = 3, P2 = 2
 ∴
∴ f1 = 10 and f2 = –15 cm
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
Final Answer : (2)

9) Explaining : To find magnification by objective lens

Concept : M.P. = m0 × me
Solution :

0
m.p = m

m0 = –5
Final Answer : (2)

10) Explaining : To find refractive index of liquid

Concept :
Solution :

Here So ∴
Final Answer : (1)

11) Explaining : To find no. of maxima

Concept :
Solution :
dsinθ = nλ

sinθ =
n can be 0,1,2,3 because sinθ cannot be more than 1 so total 7 maxima are formed (central
maxima, 2 first maxima 2 second maxima, 2 third maxima)
Final Answer : (2)

12)

Explaining : To find width of CBF

Concept :
Solution :Width of central bright fringe.

= 4 × 10–3 m = 4 mm.
Final Answer : (3)
13) Explaining : To find ratio of intensity
Concept : Malus Law, If = Ii cos2θ
Solution :

IA cos2 30 = IB cos2 60 =
Final Answer : (2)

14) Explaining : To find ratio of amplitudes of wowe

Concept : I ∝ a2
Solution :
I ∝ a2

So,

Final Answer : (1)

15) Explaining : To find dependence of amplitude upon distance.

Concept : For cylindrical source,

Solution :
For Cylindrical source

Intensity , I =
where I = kA2 P → power

kA2 =

⇒A∝
Final Answer : (4)

16) Explaining : To find condition for destructive interference

Concept :
Solution :
When Δϕ = (2n – 1)π then destructive interference take place.
Final Answer : (3)

17) Explaining : To compare energy of electron & photon

Concept : Ep = p.c
Solution :

= constant (∵ λ = constant)
Energy of photon Ep = p.c.

Kinetic energy of electron

(∵ c > v)
Ep > Ek
Final Answer : (3)

18) Explaining : To calculate fringe width

Concept :
Solution :
Increasing frequency reduces wavelength.
Final Answer : (2)

19) Explaining : To find angular width of central maxima

Concept :
Solution :

= 2 × 30º = 60º
Final Answer : (3)

20) Explaining : To find change in fringe

Concept :
Solution :

and λB < λy , So, θB < θy

Final Answer : (2)

21) Explaining : To find correct ray diagram

Concept : On cutting perpendicular to principal axis, focal length will be double.
Solution :
As the upper half will have focal length twice that of lower half, rays coming from upper half of
planoconvex will be focused at more distance from lens.
Final Answer : (2)

22) Explaining : To find focus of lens in different medium.

Concept : If

Solution :
µ2 > µ1 the upper half of the lens will become diverging.
µ1 > µ3 the lower half of the lens will become converging.
Final Answer : (4)

23) Explaining : To find intensity on screen at Δx = λ/3

Concept :
Solution :

0
I = I cos2 ϕ/2 ϕ= Δx

I = 0.01 cos2 (π/3) = λ/3 = 2π/3

I = 2.5 mW/m2
Final Answer : (1)

24) Explaining : To find path difference

Concept :

Solution :

I = Imax cos2

⇒
Final Answer : (1)

25) Explaining : To find λ

Concept : KEmax = hv –
Solution :
E = ϕ0 + KEmax KEmax = 0.9 eV

0
E = 3.1 + 0.9 ϕ =
E = 4 eV ϕ0 = 3.1 eV

E= λ= = 3100 Å or 310 nm
Final Answer : (2)

26) Explaining : x - t graph is shown having information about positions of two rabbits in one
graph correct statement to be chosen.
Concept : This question is based on Reading of position time graph, slope of x - t graph
gives velocity.
Solution :
initially both rabbit are at different position at t = 0, by the end they exchange their position
slope are different, so their velocity and speed time for both are different.

|slopeA| < |slopeB| ⇒ vA < vB

distance is same but magnitude of displacement is equal & opposite in direction.

Final Answer : (2)

27) Explaining :
The question asks for the equation of the trajectory (a parabola) of a projectile fired
horizontally with velocity u.
Concept : This question is based on
This involves deriving the trajectory equation for a projectile launched horizontally parabola.
Assume the launch point is the origin (0,0), x is horizontal, and y is vertical.
Solution :
Let the projectile be fired from the origin (0,0).
· Initial horizontal velocity ux​=u.
· Initial vertical velocity uy​=0.

Horizontal motion: x=ux​t=ut⟹t= ​.

Vertical motion

Substitute :

.
Final Answer : (2)

28) Explaining :
A bird moves from an initial point (1, –2) to a final point (4, 2). The speed of the bird is given
as 20 m/s. The question asks for the velocity vector of the bird.
Concept : This question is based on
Velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude (speed) and direction. The
direction of the velocity vector is the same as the direction of the bird's displacement. The
velocity vector can be found by multiplying the speed by the unit vector in the direction of
displacement. Velocity vector = speed × (unit vector of displacement).
Solution :
1. Find the displacement vector (AB):
 Initial position r1​=(1,−2)= .
Final position r2​=(4,2)= .
Displacement vector AB=r2​−r1​= .
2. Find the magnitude of the displacement (|AB|):
=5 units.
3. Find the unit vector in the direction of displacement ( ):

​.
4. Calculate the velocity vector (v):
Speed v=20 m/s.

v=speed× .
Final Answer : (4)

29)

Explaining :
Initially, car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both cars start moving at t=0 in the same direction
along a straight line. A velocity-time graph for both cars is provided.
Concept : This question is based on
This is a problem of kinematics involving relative motion, specifically finding when two
objects meet. Car B catches car A when their positions are the same. We'll use equations for
displacement under constant velocity and constant acceleration or solve by graph.
Solution :
When B catches A at some time 't', let A moved x so B has moved x + 10.5
From graph, Area gives displacement
SA = 10t

SB = B×H= t×t

Now
t2−20t−21=0
This quadratic equation can be solved by factoring. We need two numbers that multiply to –21
and add to –20. These numbers are –21 and +1.
(t−21)(t+1)=0
The possible solutions for t are:
t−21=0⟹t=21 s
t+1=0⟹t=−1 s
Since time cannot be negative in this context, we take the positive solution.
t=21 s.
Final Answer : (1)

30) Explaining :
Two identical metal spheres are held above the ground with a small initial horizontal
separation. They are released simultaneously. Neglecting air drag, what happens to their
separation before one hits the ground?
Concept : This question is based on
Motion under gravity (free fall). Horizontal and vertical motions are independent. With no air
drag, vertical acceleration is g for both.
Solution :
Since arel is O, therefore Vrel = constant = 0
So their separation remains same.
Final Answer : (1)

31) Explaining : discuss about retarding body which loses some velocity in penetrating
wooden block it ask about additional distance to be covered for body to come at rest
Concept : This question is based on Equation of motion / stopping distance
Solution :

By stopping distance for B to C

A to C

4x = 3 + x
x = 1cm
Alternative method
For the first condition
Initial velocity = u, Final velocity = u/2.
s = 3 cm
v2 = u2 – 2as

2as =
Second condition initial velocity = u/2
Final velocity = 0

0=

Final Answer : (1)

32) Explaining :
One particle is dropped (initial velocity 0) while another is thrown downward with an initial
velocity of 2 m/s simultaneously from the same position. The question asks for the time after
which these particles are separated by 18 m.
Concept : This question is based on
This problem can be solved using relative motion under gravity. The relative acceleration
between two objects falling freely under gravity is zero.
Solution :
Let the first particle be P1 (dropped, u1​=0) and the second be P2 (thrown, u2​=2 m/s
downwards).
· Relative initial velocity of P2 with respect to P1: ur​=u2​−u1​=2−0=2 m/s (downwards).
· Relative acceleration: ar​=a2​−a1​=g−g=0 m/s2.
· Relative displacement (separation) sr​=18 m. Using the relative motion equation sr​=ur​t+ ​ar

t2: 18 m=(2 m/s)t+ ​(0)t2 18=2t

t= ​=9 s.
Final Answer : (2)

33) Explaining :
Three elephants A, B, C move in a straight line with constant speeds. vA​=5 m/s, vC​=10 m/s.
Initially, A-B separation is 'd', B-C separation is 'd'. When B catches C, the A-C separation
becomes 3d. Find speed of B (vB​).
Concept : This question is based on
This problem uses relative speed and equations of motion for constant velocity.
Solution :
For B to catch C

In same time A and C are separated by 3d.

∴ They have moved d distance apart (3d – 2d)

t2 =
t1 = t2
u – 10 = 10 – 5
u = 15 m/s
Final Answer : (2)

34) Explaining : given vt graph, various parameter to be commented upon.

Concept : This question is based on slope of vt graph gives acceleration area gives
displacement
Solution :
slope is -ve at all time,
acceleration is negative
particle turned around at 10 sec as sign of velocity changed
Areas of upper and lower triangle are not equal
displacement is non zero
distance travelled in t = 0 to t = 10 sec

=
distance travelled t = 10 to t = 20 sec

=
Avg. speed is same in t = 0 to t = 10.
& t = 10 to t = 20 sec
Final Answer : (4)

35) Explaining :
For a projectile, the question asks for the ratio of the maximum height reached (H) to the
square of the flight time (T2). It's given that g=10 ms−2.
Concept : This question is based on
This requires the standard formulas for maximum height and time of flight in projectile
motion.

· (where uy​=usinθ)

·
Solution :
Let uy​ be the initial vertical component of velocity.

Maximum height ​.

Time of flight .

Then, .

Now, find the ratio :

.
Given g=10 ms−2:

The ratio is 5:4.

Final Answer : (1)

36)

Explaining : Given : . Here x is displacement, t is time

Ask : displacement when velocity is zero.

Concept : This question is based on Key point .

Solution :
x = (t – 3)2
x = t2 – 6t + 9
v = 2t – 6
v = 0 at t = 3 sec
x = 0 at t = 3 sec
Final Answer : (1)

37) Explanation: To find when will two particle collide.

Concept: For two particle moving with different Parameter, we apply relative motion to find
time to collide.
Solution:
 Solving in frame of particle-2
= –4 – 6 = –10 m/s
= 2 – (–2) = 4 m/s2
= 12 m

12 = –10t + × 4 × t2
t2 – 5t – 6 = 0
t = 6.
Final Answer: (1)

38)

Question Asking About:

The problem present an AC circuit with an unknown combination of R.C.L given that then
e.m.f E = E0 sin/ωt and phase differenece π/4 we have to find combination of circuit.

Key Concept:
Th concept involved is the phase relation between voltage and current.

Formula

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
[R–C circuit (science voltage logs by current)].

So,
From options, option (3) is correct.

39) Explaining the Question: To decide about the sign of power factor of RLC circuit and the
nature of circuit from graph.
Concept :

• Power factor,
• ω = ω0 resistive
ω > ω0 inductive
ω < ω0 capacitive
Solution :
In region (1) : ω < ωr ⇒ XL < XC ⇒ IXC > IXL
⇒ VC > V L circuit with be capacitive (C–R)

In region (2) : ω > ωr ⇒ XL > XC ⇒ VL > VC

circuit with be capacitive (L–R)
The power factor :

always positive which is also true on the ohmic resistance, here power factor
cannot be negative because the circuit cannot absorb power.
Final Answer : (4)

40) Explaining the Question: To find power dissipated in coil.

Concept : Pavg = Ιrms2R
Solution :
P = i2rms R2

where

P = 22 (36) = 144W.
Final Answer : (3)

41) Explaining the Question: To choose the correct statement regarding RLC series circuit
at resonance.
Concept : Resonance in LCR circuit
Solution :
(1) At resonance fr = 1000 Hz

If f < 1000 Hz, circuit is capacitive as becomes more than XL = ωL

(2) At resonance impedance is minimum.
(3) Phase difference between VL and VC is 180°.
But current at 90° phase difference.
(4) At resonance

If C is doubled
Final Answer : (1)

42) Explaining the Question: To find resultant of i1 and i2.

Concept : Phasor analysis.
Solution :
I3 = I1 + I2
I3 = 6 sin ωt + 8 cos ωt
Suppose
6 = A cos θ ...(1)
8 = A sin θ ....(2)
I3 = A [sin ωt cos θ + cos ωt sin θ]
= A sin (ωt + θ)
A=
 tan θ = =
θ = 53°
Final Answer : (1)

43) Explaining the Question: To solve for the equation of electric field from the equation of
magnetic field in EMW.
Concept : Equation of EMW
Solution :
E0 = cB0 = 3 × 108 × 3 × 10–8 = 9 Vm–1

⇒
–1
∴
Final Answer : (1)

44) Explaining the Question: To match the current radiation to its wavelength value.
Concept : Electromagnetic spectrum.
Solution :
λAM radio > λmicrowave > λx-ray > λgamma.
Final Answer : (1)

45) Explaining : To find the momentum transferred to surface when radiation hits perfectly
reflecting surface normally.

Concept: Momentum associated with EMW,

Solution:
For a perfectly reflecting surface
change in momentum,

Final Answer: (1).

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : Application of CFT.

Concept : This question is based on Application of CFT.
Solution :
Strength of ligand ↑ Δ0 ↑
Absorbed Energy ↑ λabsorbed ↓
Final Answer : (2)

47)
Explaining : Electronic configuration.
Concept : This question is based on Electronic configuration.
Solution :
(A) [NiCl4]2– ⇒ Oxidation state = +2
0
Electronic configuration = 3d8 4s
Cl = W.F.L. No Pairing
2 unpaired electrons
2+
(D) [Ni(H2O)6]
Oxidation state = +2, configuration = 3d8
H2O is W.F.L. No pairing

2 unpaired electrons
Hence both are paramagnetic
Final Answer : (3)

48)

Explaining : Crystal field theory.

Concept : This question is based on Crystal field theory.
Solution :
In complex [CoF6]3–,
Oxidation number of Co = +3
Electronic configuration of
Co3+ = 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p63d6

In Co3+ number of unpaired electrons is four, and F– is the ligand of weak field. Hence, it does
not pair up the electrons of d-orbital.

So, In[CoF6]3– is paramagnetic

Co3+ has 3d6 outer electronic configuration, but four unpaired electrons do not pair up because
of weak field provided by F–.
Final Answer : (3)

49)

Explaining : Color in coordination compounds.

Concept : This question is based on applications of coordination chemistry.
Solution :
Both [Ti(H2O)6]4+ and [Sc(H2O)6]3+ are colourless, due to absence of free electrons in 3d
subshell.
Final Answer : (2)

50)
Explaining : Cis platin formula.
Concept : This question is based on application of coordination compounds.
Solution : The complex cis-platin, [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is anti-cancer.
Final Answer : (1)

51)

Explaining : No. of ions.

Concept : This question is based on Werner's Theory
Solution :
[Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 produces four ions per molecule
[Pt(NH3)6Cl]Cl4 produces five ions per molecule
[Pt(NH3)2Cl4] produces 0 ions per molecule
[Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 produces three ions per molecule in the solution.
Final Answer : (1)

52)

Explaining : Crystal field theory.

Concept : This question is based on Crystal field theory.
Solution :
In K4[Fe(CN)6] is complex, Fe is in +2 oxidation state.

As CN– is a strong field ligand, it causes pairing of electrons therefore, electronic configuration
of Fe2+ in K4[Fe(CN)6] is .
Final Answer : (3)

53)

Explaining : - Magnetic moment

Concept : This question is based on Magnetic moment
Solution :
(A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
Formula :
where n = number of unpaired electron.
Final Answer : (4)

54)

Explaining : - Applications of Crystal field theory

Concept : This question is based on Applications of Crystal field theory
Solution :
0
Ti4+ and Sc3+ have d configuration whereas Zn2+ has d10 configuration. These are colourless
species. Cr3+ has d3 configuration. Due to d-d transitions, it is coloured.
Final Answer : (2)
55)

Explaining : - C.F.S.E.
Concept : This question is based on Crystal field theory
Solution :
In[Cr(CN)6]3– complex ion, Cr3+ = d3 =

In[Co(NH3)6]3+ complex ion, Co3+ = d6 = (low spin)

In[CoCl6]3– complex ion, Co3+ = d6 =

In[Co(H2O)6]3+ complex ion, Co3+ = d6 =

Final Answer : (3)

56)

Explaining : IUPAC Nomenclature.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC Nomenclature.
Solution :
[Fe(O2)(CN)4Cl]4– ion
IUPAC name – chlorotetracyano superoxo ferrate (II) ion.
Final Answer : (3)

57)

Explaining : - Effective atomic number

Concept : This question is based on Effective atomic number
Solution :
EAN = Z–O.S. + 2 × C.N.
[Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(NH3)6]3+
EAN 35 35
[Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]3–
3+

EAN 33 33
[FeF6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]3–
EAN 35 35
[Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2–
EAN 36 34
Final Answer : (4)

58) Explaining : - Crystal field theory

Concept : This question is based on Crystal field theory
Solution : Different ways of filling electrons.
Final Answer : (4)

59) Explaining : - Spin only magnetic movement

Concept : This question is based on Spin only magnetic movement
Solution : - B.M. n = no. of unpaired e–
Final Answer : (2)
60) Explaining : - Magnetic behaviour
Concept : This question is based on Crystal field theory
Solution : H2O acts as a SFL with Co+3.
Final Answer : (2)

61) Explaining : - Electronic Configuration

Concept : This question is based on C.F.T.
Solution : - As par electronic arrangement
Final Answer : (3)

62) Explaining : - Colour in compounds

Concept : This question is based on Application of C.F.T.
Solution : - L M charge transfer transition
Final Answer : (1)

63) Explaining : IUPAC nomenclature

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature
Solution : - [NiCl2(PPh3)2]
Final Answer : (3)

64) Explaining : - Applications of C.F.T.

Concept : This question is based on Applications of C.F.T.

Solution : -
Final Answer : (4)

65) Explaining : - Oxidation number.

Concept : This question is based on Oxidation number.
Solution : - Mn+3 - [Ar]3d4
Final Answer : (2)

66) Explaining : - Linkage Isomerism

Concept : This question is based on Linkage Isomerism
Solution : - H2O is not an ambidentate ligand
Final Answer : (1)

67) Explaining : - Isomerism

Concept : This question is based on Isomerism

Solution : -
Final Answer : (4)
68) Explaining : Hybridisation
Concept : This question is based on C.F.T.
Solution : As per C.F.T.
Final Answer : (3)

69) Explaining : Hybridisation

Concept : This question is based on C.F.T.
Solution : Co+3 with oxalato acts as S.F.L.
Final Answer : (3)

70) Explaining : Hybridisation

Concept : This question is based on C.F.T.
Solution : d2sp3
Final Answer : (3)

71) Explaining : Oxidation number.

Concept : This question is based on Oxidation number.
Solution : x + 0 = –1, So Fe ⇒ –1
Final Answer : (3)

72) Explaining : IUPAC Nomenclature

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC Nomenclature
Solution : Amminetetracyanidonitrito-N-chromate(III)
Final Answer : (2)

73) Explaining : - Stability of complex

Concept : This question is based on C.F.T.
Solution : - EDTA forms 5-5 member rings.
Final Answer : (4)

74) Explaining : Types of Ligand.

Concept : This question is based on Types of Ligand.
Solution : Has two donor atoms but either of the two can form a coordinate bond.
Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : - Magnetic Character

Concept : This question is based on Magnetic Character
Solution :
Ferromagnetism > Paramagnetism
Statement-I is true

Cr+2 = 3d4
4 unpaired electrons
Nd+3 = 4f3
3 unpaired electrons
Statement-II is false.
Final Answer : (3)

76)

Explaining : - Properties of element

Concept : This question is based on Properties of element
Solution :
Group 12 elements (Zn, Cd, Hg) are d-block elements but not transition element due to their
full filled (n–1)d10ns2 electronic configuration.
Final Answer : (1)

77) Explaining : - Properties of 'd' Block elements

Concept : This question is based on Properties of 'd' Block elements
Solution :
The incorrect order of increasing melting point is
Ti<V<Cr<Mn
Melting point increases from T1 to chromium but decreases in case of Mn. Mn has melting
point even lower than that of Ti.
Final Answer : (3)

78) Explaining : - Back bonding

Concept : This question is based on Back bonding
Solution : - In BF3 bond angle not changes
Final Answer : (3)

79) Explaining : Polarity.

Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution :
CH4, CCl4 → non–polar (μnet = 0)
CH2Cl2, H2O, NH3, H2O2, O2F2 → polar (μnet ≠ 0)
Final Answer : (3)

80) Explaining : Bond angle.

Concept : This question is based on bond parameters.
Solution : Bond angle depends on E.N. of central atom if surrounding atom is same.
Final Answer : (2)

81) Explaining : Shape of molecules.

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR Theory.
Solution : Structure of sp3d hybridized compound is trigonal bipyramidal.
Final Answer : (4)
82) Explaining : Coordinate bond.
Concept : This question is based on Covalency.
Solution :
Ozone is considered to be a resonance hybrid of the following two forms.

Final Answer : (1)

83) Explaining : Dipole moment.

Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution :
BF3, BeF2, CO2 and 4,4-dichloro benzene all are symmetrical structure.

Final Answer : (1)

84) Explaining : Bond parameters.

Concept : This question is based on molecular orbital theory.
Solution : In electron centres to anti-bonding molecular orbital.
Final Answer : (2)

85) Explaining : ADDUCT.

Concept : This question is based on coordinate bond.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

86) Explaining : Hybridisation.

Concept : This question is based on Hybridisation.
Solution :
In PCl5

The bond length in P-Cl in axial position is higher than in equatorial position.
Therefore, is possess zero dipole moment.
 Final Answer : (3)

87) Explaining : Existence of molecule.

Concept : This question is based on steric crowding.
Solution :
Six large chloride ions can not be accommodated around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
Interaction between lone pair of chloride ion and Si4+ is not very strong.
Final Answer : (3)

88) Explaining : Polarity.

Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution : 'SF4' net dipole moment ≠ 0
Final Answer : (2)

89) Explaining : Bond parameters.

Concept : This question is based on bond length.
Solution : Axial > Equatorial [Bond length]
Final Answer : (2)

90) Explaining : - Hybridisation

Concept : This question is based on Hybridisation
Solution : - XeF2 → sp3d
Final Answer : (4)

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation: Respiration is catabolic because it breaks substrates for energy, and
anabolic because intermediates serve as precursors for biosynthetic reactions.
Final Answer : (2)

92) Concept: Energy Yield in Anaerobic Pathway

Explanation: Each glucose → 2 ATP; 3 glucose = 6 ATP (from glycolysis only).
Final Answer : (2)

93) Concept: Application of Fermentation

Explanation: Yeast ferments sugars in dough, producing CO2 which causes it to rise.
Final Answer : (2)

94) Concept: Muscle Fatigue and Anaerobiosis

Explanation: During oxygen deficit, lactic acid accumulates, causing acidic pH and
temporary fatigue.
Final Answer : (3)
 95) Explanation: Yeast is a facultative anaerobe — it ferments sugar in absence of O2 and
respires aerobically when O2 is present.
Final Answer : (1)

96) Concept: Anaerobic Pathway in Muscles

Explanation: Pyruvate is directly reduced to lactic acid; thus no carbon atom is lost as CO2.
Final Answer : (3)

97) Concept: Types of Fermentation

Explanation: Each type has specific microbial end products, depending on the organism
and pathway.

ype of Fermentation End Products

A. Alcoholic Q. Ethanol + CO₂
B. Lactic acid R. Lactic acid
C. Mixed acid P. Ethanol, acetic acid, H₂, CO₂
D. Butyric acid S. Butyric acid + H₂

Final Answer : (2)

98) Concept: Stoichiometry of Alcoholic Fermentation

Explanation: Each glucose produces 2 CO2 molecules:
Glucose → 2 ethanol + 2 CO2 → 10 glucose = 20 CO2.
Final Answer : (2)

99) Explanation: Pyruvate → acetaldehyde + CO2 (by pyruvate decarboxylase) → ethanol (by
alcohol dehydrogenase).
Final Answer : (3)

100) Explanation: A is incorrect- Glycolysis proceeds even in the absence of mitochondria.

Final Answer : (3)

101) Concept: Substrate-level phosphorylation

Explanation: ATP in glycolysis forms by substrate-level phosphorylation, not oxidative
phosphorylation (which occurs in mitochondria).
Final Answer : (3)

102) Concept: Enzymatic control point

Explanation: Without this enzyme, PGAL oxidation halts, NAD⁺ cannot convert to NADH,
and downstream ATP-yielding steps stop.
Final Answer : (1)

103) Concept: Entry of different monosaccharides

Explanation: Fructose is phosphorylated to fructose-6-phosphate or fructose-1-phosphate
(depending on tissue), but entry route differs slightly from glucose.
 Final Answer : (2)

104) Concept: Functional enzyme classification in glycolysis

Explanation: Each enzyme catalyses a distinct glycolytic reaction—aldolase cleaves, enolase
removes water, triose isomerase interconverts, and phosphoglycerate kinase yields ATP.
Final Answer : (4)

105) Concept: Anaerobic continuation of glycolysis

Explanation: Pyruvate formed in glycolysis can be reduced anaerobically to regenerate NAD⁺
required for glycolysis.
Final Answer : (3)

106) Concept : Relationship Between Photosynthesis and Respiration

Explanation: O2 generated during photosynthesis ensures adequate internal supply for
respiratory processes.
Final Answer : (2)

107) Concept : Structural Adaptations

Explanation: Each plant organ has its own gas exchange structure — leaves (stomata), roots
(diffusion), stems (lenticels).
Final Answer : (2)

108) Concept : Plant Anatomy and Diffusion

Explanation: Loose packing of parenchyma creates an interconnected air space system that
ensures diffusion throughout.
Final Answer : (3)

109) Concept : Discovery of Glycolysis

Explanation: The glycolytic pathway was described by Embden, Meyerhof, and Parnas —
hence, EMP pathway.
Final Answer : (2)

110) Concept : Enzymes of Glycolysis

Explanation: A–R, B–S, C–Q, D–P

Step Enzyme
A. Glucose → Glucose-6-P R. Hexokinase
B. Fructose-6-P → Fructose-1,6-BP S. Phosphofructokinase
C. PGAL → BPGA Q. Dehydrogenase
D. PEP → Pyruvate P. Pyruvate kinase
Final Answer : (3)

111) Concept : Glycolytic Enzymes

Explanation: Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose using one ATP molecule to produce
glucose-6-phosphate.
Final Answer : (1)

112) Concept: Fate of Pyruvate

Explanation: Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate enters Krebs’ cycle; ethanol forms under
anaerobic conditions.
Final Answer : (2)

113) Concept : Fermentation

Explanation: In anaerobic fermentation, yeast converts glucose to ethanol and CO2.
Final Answer : (2)

114) Concept : Substrate-Level Phosphorylation

Explanation: BPGA → PGA and PEP → Pyruvate yield ATP directly.
Final Answer : (1)

115) Concept : Fate of Pyruvate

Explanation: Acetyl Co-A acts as a metabolic link between link reaction and kreb's cycle.
Final Answer : (2)

116) Question Explanation : Which of the following is correctly matched regarding

decomposition.
Concept : Decomposition.
Solution :
• Decomposition : The breakdown of organic matter into simpler forms.
• Fragmentation : Physical breaking down of detritus into smaller particles.
• Humification : Formation of dark colored amorphous substances like humus.
• Leaching : Movement of soluble substances like nutrients down through soil layers.
• Minerlisation : Release of inorganic nutrients from organic matter by microbes.
Final Answer : Option (3)

117) Question Explanation : Choose incorrect option for catabolism and fragmentation.
Concept : Decomposition.
Solution : Fragmentation - It is the process in which detritivores break down detritus smaller
particles.
Final Answer : (2)

118) Question Explanation : What is stratification?

Concept : Ecosystem.
Solution : Stratification is vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels.
Final Answer : Option (3)

119)

Explaining the Question :-

 This question asks whether ecosystems are exempt from the laws of thermodynamics.
Concept :- Energy flow
Solution :-
Ecosystems follow basic laws of physics, including:

A. First law of thermodynamics: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

B. Second law of thermodynamics: Every energy transfer leads to loss of energy (usually as heat),
increasing entropy.

Final Answer :- (4) Both (1) and (2)

120) Question Explanation : What does the given pyramid represent.

Concept : Ecological Pyramids.

Solution : The given pyramid represents the Pyramid of aquatic ecosystems on the basis of
biomass.
Final Answer : Option (3)

121) Question Explanation : Give the correct statement for the given food wed.

Concept : Food Web.

Solution : The correct statements is : 4. I and J are secondary consumers.
Final Answer : Option (4)

122) Question Explanation : To find which is the incorrect option

Concept : Ecological Pyramids.

Solution : Ocean - pyramid biomass - inverted.
Final Answer: (3)
123)

Explain Question: To Match Column I with Column II.

Concept: Ecosystem (Structural Component)

Solution:

[Link] : Plants.

[Link] Consumer: Herbivore.

iii. All Producers and consumers: Biotic component of ecosystem.

iv. Microconsumers: Bacteria.

So, the correct answer is: i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d

Final answer: 3.

124) Explanation: In the given four pyramids (A, B, C and D) given below represent four
different type of ecosystem ecological pyramids, option 3 and 4 correctly identified in the
options given, along with its correct ecosystem & type of pyramid :-
Pyramid of Biomass: Pyramids of biomass represent the total amount of biomass of each
trophic level of ecosystem, mostly these pyramids are also upright (erect) e.g. (tree
ecosystem), forest ecosystem.
Pyramids of energy-: It represents the amount of energy at different trophic levels, energy
pyramids are always upright or erect because there is a gradual decrease in energy at
successive trophic levels.
Final Answer : (3)

125)

Explain Question: The question is asking about the standing state in an ecosystem.
Concept: Standing state.
Solution: The amount of inorganic substances present at any given time in an ecosystem is
known as Standing State.
Final answer: (1)

126)

Question Explanation: Relationship between diversity and stability.

Concept: Diversity-stability hypothesis.
Solution: According to David Tilman's research, a species-rich community is more stable
because it shows less year-to-year variation in biomass, has higher productivity, and is more
resistant to invasions by alien species.
Final Answer: (1)
 127)

Question Explanation: Matching global/Indian biodiversity statistics with correct values.

Concept: Global and Indian Biodiversity Data

Solution: The correct matches are:

(a) Global animal diversity (%) → (iv) 70: Animals account for over 70% of all recorded species.
(b) Global plant diversity (%) → (iii) 22: Plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, etc.)
comprise about 22% of the total.
(c) Species diversity in India (%) → (ii) 8.1: India's share of global species diversity is an
impressive 8.1%.
(d) Bird species in India → (i) 1200: India has over 1,200 species of birds.

A. Option A, B, and D are incorrect based on the percentages and counts.

Final Answer: Option-3

128) Question Explanation: Matching the rationales for biodiversity conservation with their
correct categories.

Concept: Reasons for Biodiversity Conservation

Solution: The reasons for conserving biodiversity are grouped into three categories:

A. Narrowly utilitarian: Direct economic benefits like food, firewood, and medicines. → (ii) Direct
economic benefits.
B. Broadly utilitarian: Indirect, major ecosystem services like oxygen production, pollination, and
aesthetic pleasure. → (i) Ecosystem services (oxygen, aesthetic value).
C. Ethical: Based on moral duty to protect every species, acknowledging their intrinsic value. →
(iii) Intrinsic value (moral duty).

Final Answer: Option -2

129) Question Explanation :

According to IUCN, total plant and animal species described so far is :

Concept :
Diversity in the living world.

Solution :
The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) reports that more than 1.5 million
species of plants and animals have been scientifically described so far.
However, it's estimated that the total number of species on Earth (including those not yet
discovered or described) could be more than 8 million.
So, while described species = > 1.5 million,
total estimated species = possibly 8 to 10 million or more.

Final Answer :
Option (1)
130) Question Explanation : The question asked to identify the correct graph representing
the species-area relationship
Concept :
This question is based on Patterns of Biodiversity.

Solution :
Only option 3 shows a correct species - area relationship : logC + ZlogA
• X - axis : Area
• Y - Axis : Species richness
• Shape : steep rise followed by gradual leveling.

Final Answer: Option (3)

131)

Question Explanation:

Identifying a term for exploring diversity.

Concept:

Bioprospecting.

Solution:

Bioprospecting is the exploration of biodiversity for new genetic resources and chemical
compounds of economic importance, such as medicines, enzymes, and other commercially
valuable products. This process involves searching for and studying plants, animals, and
microorganisms to discover useful biological materials.

Final Answer:

Bioprospecting

132)

Question Explanation : The question asked to correctly match extinct animals in Column-I
with their native regions or extinction areas listed in Column-II

Concept : Biodiversity loss.

Solution :
(a) Dodo – Native to Mauritius → (iii)
(b) Quagga – A zebra subspecies once found in Africa → (i)
(c) Thylacine – Also called the Tasmanian tiger, native to Australia/Tasmania → (iv)
(d) Steller's Sea Cow – Extinct marine mammal from Russia (Bering Sea) → (v)
(e) Tiger sub species – Some extinct ones like Bali, Javan, Caspian → (ii)

Final Answer : Option (3)

133)

Question Explanation: Identify the criteria not used for biodiversity hotspots

Concept: Biodiversity Conservation

Solution: The criteria for determining biodiversity hotspots are: high levels of species
endemism (number of endemic species) and high degree of threat or habitat loss (degree to
habitat destruction/exploitation).
Traditional strategies are a factor considered for conservation methods, not for defining the
hotspot itself.

Final Answer: Option-3

134) Question Explanation :

The question asks what groups of animals A, B and C represent in a pie chart showing global
vertebrate diversity.

Concept :
How many species are there on Earth and how many in India.

Solution :
A - Reptiles B-Birds C-Amphibians.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

135) Question Explanation: Determine the correctness of statements matching conservation

sites with their characteristics.

Concept: In situ and ex situ conservation

Solution: (i) Biodiversity Hotspot: Correctly described as high biodiversity regions facing
accelerated habitat loss.
(ii) Sacred grove: Correctly described as last refuges for threatened species, with Meghalaya
being a known location.
(iii) Botanical garden: Correctly described as an Ex-situ conservation method where plants are
taken out from their natural habitat for protection.
All three statements and their descriptions are correct.

Final Answer: Option 4

136) Concept : Oxygen released during photosynthesis by green plants originates from water
(H2O) and not from carbon dioxide (CO2).
Solution : This was experimentally proven using the radioisotopic technique where oxygen
atoms from labeled water molecules were traced to the oxygen evolved, confirming the source
as H2O.
Final Answer : (3)
137) Concept : Localization of the enzyme RuBisCO in C4 plants.
Solution : Solution: In C4 plants, RuBisCO is predominantly found in the bundle sheath cells
where the Calvin cycle occurs.
Final Answer : (1)

138) Concept : Primary CO2 acceptor molecules in C3 and C4 plants.

Solution : In C3 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor is RuBP (Ribulose bisphosphate), while in C4
plants it is PEP (Phosphoenolpyruvate).
Final Answer : (4)

139) Concept : First stable product of photosynthesis in C3 plants during the dark reaction.
Solution : The first stable product formed in the Calvin cycle (dark reaction) in C3 plants is 3-
phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA).
Final Answer : (4)

140) Concept : ATP and NADPH requirement in the reduction step of the Calvin cycle.
Solution : Per molecule of CO2 reduced in the Calvin cycle, 2 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules
are used in the reduction phase.
Final Answer : (3)

141) Concept : Photosystem structure and function.

Solution : The incorrect statement is: (2) "The LHC (Light Harvesting Complex) are made up
of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to lipids" – This is incorrect because LHCs are
protein-pigment complexes, not pigment-lipid complexes.
Correct facts:
• PS I reaction center chl-a absorbs at 700 nm
• Water splitting is associated with PS II
• The primary electron acceptor of PS II is plastoquinone
Final Answer : (2)

142) Concept : Phases of photosynthesis - photochemical vs. enzymatic reactions.

Solution : The photochemical phase includes light absorption, formation of ATP and NADPH,
and oxygen release. The enzymatic reactions incorporating CO2 to synthesize sugar occur in
the dark (biosynthetic) phase, not the photochemical phase.
Final Answer : (4)

143) Concept : Energy transfer during light reaction in photosynthesis.

Solution : Light energy is absorbed by the antenna pigments, which transfer the energy to
the reaction center where the photochemical reactions occur.
Final Answer : (1)

144) Concept : Plant factors affecting photosynthesis.

Solution : Photosynthesis is influenced by multiple plant factors including number, age, size,
and orientation of leaves; mesophyll cells and chloroplasts; internal CO2 concentration; and
chlorophyll amount.
Final Answer : (1)

145) Concept : Components required for chemiosmosis in photosynthesis.

Solution : Chemiosmosis requires:
• Proton gradient
• Proton pump
• ATPase enzyme
• A membrane (thylakoid membrane) Electron gradient is not directly involved in
chemiosmosis (it's involved in electron transport). So, four components are essential.
Final Answer : (3)

146) Concept : Four-carbon compound transported from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells in
C₄ plants.
Solution : The main four-carbon compound transported is malic acid.
Final Answer : (3)

147) Concept : ATP utilization ratio in different steps of the Calvin cycle.
Solution : The correct ratio of ATP used in the Reduction phase to the Regeneration phase of
Calvin cycle is 2 : 1.
Final Answer : (2)

148) Concept : Characteristics of C4 plants.

Solution : Correct statements are A, C, and D.
• A: Correct — Bundle sheath cells have many chloroplasts, thick walls, no intercellular
spaces.
• B: Incorrect — Oxaloacetic acid is formed in mesophyll cells, not bundle sheath.
• C: Correct — PEP (Phosphoenolpyruvate) is the primary CO₂ acceptor in mesophyll cells.
• D: Correct — Mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme in C₄ plants.
Final Answer : (2)

149) Concept : Sequence of steps in chemiosmotic ATP synthesis during light reaction.
Solution : The correct order of steps:
• (T) Light excites electrons in PSII.
• (S) Electrons from PSII pass along electron transport chain.
• (R) Carriers use energy to move H⁺ across the membrane.
• (P) H⁺ concentration gradient established.
• (Q) H⁺ diffuses through ATP synthase.
• (U) Energy of H⁺ flow used by ATP synthase to make ATP.
Final Answer : (3)

150) Solution : Maize and sorghum are C4 plant it has Kranz Anatomy.
Final Answer : (4)

151) Concept : Components of the grana lamellae related to the Z-scheme of electron
transport.
Solution : The presence of PS-II and NADP reductase in grana lamellae specifies that the
Z-scheme electron transport happens only there.
Final Answer : (2)

152) Concept : Localization of RuBisCO and PEP carboxylase in C3 and C4 plants.

Solution : RuBisCO is present in the mesophyll cells of C3 plants, not in C4 mesophyll cells.
Final Answer : (2)

153) Concept : Why Hatch and Slack pathway (C4 cycle) is named so.
Solution : It is called the C4 cycle because the first stable product formed is oxaloacetic acid
(OAA), which is a 4-carbon compound.
Final Answer : (1)

154) Concept : Accuracy of statements about photosystems and their naming.

Solution :
• Statement I is correct — pigments are organized into photochemical light-harvesting
complexes in both PS-I and PS-II.
• Statement II is incorrect — PS-I and PS-II are named based on their discovery, not the
sequence of their function.
Final Answer : (1)

155) Concept : Location of Calvin cycle in C4 plants.

Solution : In C4 plants, the Calvin cycle operates in the stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts
where RuBisCO is located and CO2 fixation occurs.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Concept : Identification of parts in the photosynthesis-related chloroplast structure.

Solution : The correct identification of parts a, b, c, d is:
• a = Photosystem-I
• b = Thylakoid membrane
• c = Photosystem-II
• d = CF₀-CF₁ complex (ATP synthase)
Final Answer : (2)

157) Concept : Effect of increased CO2 concentration on tomato plants.

Solution :
Assertion: Tomato plants grown in CO2-enriched atmospheres show higher yields — this is
true because increased CO2 can enhance photosynthesis in C3 plants like tomato.
Reason: Tomato plants do respond to higher CO2 concentration with increased photosynthesis
and productivity — so the reason is false.
Final Answer : (3)

158) Concept : CO2 availability and its effect on C3 plants.

Solution : Current atmospheric CO2 levels are not limiting to C3 plants because they tend to
saturate photosynthesis below about 450 μL/L (ppm). Thus, the assertion and reason both are
false.
Final Answer : (4)

159) Concept : Primary CO2 acceptor and presence of enzymes in C3 plants.

Solution :
• Statement I is incorrect — In C3 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor is RuBP, not
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP).
• Statement II is correct — Mesophyll cells of C3 plants lack PEP carboxylase enzyme (which is
characteristic of C4 plants).
Final Answer : (2)

160) Concept : Binding competition between CO2 and O2 to RuBisCO, and photorespiration in
C3 plants.
Solution :
• Statement I is correct — CO2 and O2 compete for the active site of RuBisCO.
• Statement II is incorrect — Photorespiration does occur in C3 plants because they lack
mechanisms to concentrate CO2 at RuBisCO sites.
Final Answer : (2)

161) Concept : ATP synthesis via proton gradient and water splitting location.
Solution :
• Statement I is correct — ATP synthesis is linked to the proton gradient across the thylakoid
membrane (chemiosmosis).
• Statement II is incorrect — Splitting of water occurs on the inner side (lumen side) of the
thylakoid membrane, not the outer side.
Final Answer : (3)

162) Concept : Response of C3 and C4 plants to CO2 concentration.

Solution :
• Statement (1) is incorrect because C3 and C4 plants do not respond similarly to CO2
concentration; C4 plants saturate photosynthesis at lower CO2 levels compared to C3 plants.
• Other statements are correct.
Final Answer : (1)

163) Concept : Correct statements about Photosystems and Light Harvesting Complex.
Solution : Analysis:
(i) Incorrect — PS I and PS II were numbered based on their order of discovery, not the
sequence of function.
(ii) Correct — Light Harvesting Complex (LHC) is made of pigment molecules bound to
proteins.
(iii) Incorrect — Each reaction center has one special chlorophyll-a molecule, not many.
(iv) Incorrect — Reaction centers in PS I and PS II have different absorption peaks (P700 and
P680 respectively).
(v) Correct — PS II reaction center chlorophyll-a absorbs at 685 nm (P680).
Only statement (ii) is correct
Final Answer : (2)
164) Concept : Matching terms related to Calvin cycle and photosynthesis.
Solution :
• (A) 5-carbon sugar = RuBP (P)
• (B) Most crucial step of Calvin cycle = Carboxylation (N)
• (C) Number of CO₂ molecules entering cycle for one glucose = 6 (O)
• (D) Product of Calvin cycle = Glucose (M)
Final Answer : (1)

165) Concept : Characteristics comparison between C3 and C4 plants.

Solution : Given:
• CO2 fixation rate under high light: C4 plant = High (A)
• Photorespiration at low light: C4 plant = Negligible (B)
• Photorespiration at high light: C4 plant = Negligible (D)
• Photorespiration at high CO2: C4 plant = Negligible (D)
For C3 plants:
• CO2 fixation rate under high light = Medium (A)
• Photorespiration at low light = High (B)
• Photorespiration at high light = High (C)
• Photorespiration at high CO2 = High (C)
Therefore, the correct sequence is:
Answer: (4) Medium, Negligible, Negligible, Negligible
(Note: The question and answers seem to describe the C4 column specifically for B, C, and D
being negligible, while C3 shows medium CO2 fixation and higher photorespiration.)
Final Answer : (4)

166) Concept : Technique used for separation of leaf pigments.

Solution : Paper chromatography is the classical technique used to separate plant pigments
such as chlorophyll, carotenoids, and xanthophylls.
Final Answer : (3)

167) Concept : Identification of absorption spectra of pigments in photosynthesis.

Solution :
• x corresponds to Chlorophyll b
• y corresponds to Carotenoids
• z corresponds to Chlorophyll a
Final Answer : (3)

168) Concept : Steps in the Hatch and Slack (C4) pathway.

Solution :
• a = Regeneration
• b = Fixation
• c = Decarboxylation
• d = Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
Final Answer : (2)

169) Concept : Organelle involvement in photorespiration steps.

Solution :
• Initial O₂ consumption occurs in the chloroplast
• Final O₂ consumption occurs in the peroxisome
• ATP consumption occurs in the chloroplast
• CO₂ evolved occurs in the mitochondria
Final Answer : (4)

170) Concept : Optimum temperature for photosynthesis in C3 plants.

Solution : The optimum temperature for C₃ plants is 20°C – 25°C.
Final Answer : (1)

171) Concept : Cause of proton gradient across thylakoid membrane.

Solution : Proton gradient is mainly caused by the reduction of NADP to NADPH + H⁺ by
NADP reductase, which consumes protons from the stroma, increasing proton concentration
inside the thylakoid lumen.
Final Answer : (3)

172) Concept : Primary electron acceptor in Photosystem II (PS-II).

Solution : The primary electron acceptor of PS-II is Pheophytin.
Final Answer : (3)

173) Concept : Minerals involved in photolysis (splitting) of water.

Solution : Manganese (Mn), Chlorine (Cl), and Calcium (Ca) are essential for water
photolysis.
Final Answer : (1)

174) Concept : Product formed when RuBP binds with CO2 in C3 plants.
Solution : RuBP combines with CO2 to form two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA).
Final Answer : (1)

175) Concept : Electron movement in the Electron Transport System (ETS) during
photosynthesis.
Solution : Electrons move downhill in terms of redox potential, meaning from a higher to a
lower energy state, releasing energy used for ATP synthesis.
Final Answer : (2)

176) Concept : ATP molecules used in glucose synthesis by C3 and C4 plants.

Solution : • C3 plants use 18 ATP molecules
• C4 plants use 30 ATP molecules (more due to extra steps in C4 pathway)
Final Answer : (3)

177) Concept : Extra ATP consumed by C4 plants compared to C3 plants per CO2 fixed.
Solution : C4 plants consume 2 extra ATP molecules per CO2 fixed due to the ATP-dependent
regeneration of PEP.
Final Answer : (3)
178) Concept : Plant factors affecting photosynthesis and light saturation point.
Solution :
• Statement I is correct (plant factors depend on genetics and growth).
• Statement II is correct (photosynthesis saturates at about 10% full sunlight).
Final Answer : (1)

179) Concept : Number of plants requiring CO2 concentration > 450 μL/L for optimum
photosynthesis (based on provided data box).
Solution : 4 plants require CO2 concentration above 450 μL/L.
Final Answer : (1)

180) Solution : In graph 13.3(c) if we consider wavelength of 500nm then we can see that this
wavelength is almost hot absorbed by chlorophyll 'a' but significant action (rate of
photosynthesis) occurs at this wavelength. This happen because accessory pigments absorb
this wavelength and transfer light energy to chlorophyll 'a' for utilisation. Such difference
between absorption & action can also be observed at few. other wavelengths also so this
overlapping is not complete one to one overlap (because only chlorophyll 'a' is not working but
ther accessory pigments are also involved in the process).
Final Answer : (2)