02-11-2025

1015CMD303057250030 MD

PHYSICS

1) Correct equation for given graph is (a,b are positive constants)

(1) y = ax – bx2
(2) y = ax + bx2
(3) y = ax

(4)

2) The volume of cube is increasing at a rate of 7 cm3/sec. How fast is the surface area increasing
when the length of an edge is 12 cm ?

(1)
cm2/sec

(2)
cm2/sec

(3)
cm2/sec
(4) None of these

3)

Four vectors are as shown in the graph.

List-I List-II
(P) (1)
(Q) (2)
(R) (3)
(S) (4)
(1) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(2) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
(3) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 3
(4) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 2

4) The diagonals of a parallelogram are and then area of parallelogram is -

(1)
(2)
(3) 171
(4) 72

5) Position of a particle moving along x–axis is given by x = (8t – 4t2) m. The distance travelled by the
particle from t = 0s to t = 2s is :-

(1) 0
(2) 8 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 16 m

6) For the given velocity-displacement (v-x) graph, correct acceleration displacement (a-x) graph is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
7) Two trains, each 50 m long, are travelling in opposite directions with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s.
The time of crossing is :

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3)
(4)

8) A girl riding a bicycle with a speed of 5 ms–1 towards north direction, observes rain falling
vertically down. If she increases her speed to 10 ms–1, rain appears to meet her at 45° to the vertical.
What is the speed of the rain ?

(1)
(2) 5 ms–1
(3)
(4) 10 ms–1

9) A ball is thrown vertically upward It has a speed of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of its
maximum height. How high does the ball rise? Take g = 10ms–1.

(1) 10m
(2) 5m
(3) 6m
(4) 7m

10) A ball is dropped from a height and falls due to gravity and wind simultaneously imparts it a
uniform horizontal acceleration. Which one of the following figures best represents its path?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two marbles A & B roll along two horizontal track with same initial speed. A moves on the track
which has a dip and B moves on the track which has a bump of the same shape. Which marble wins?
(Assume no marble leaves contact at any point.)

(1) B
(2) A
(3) Both will reach at the same time
(4) None of these

12) A ball of mass 400 gm is dropped from a height of 5m. A boy on the ground hits the ball
vertically upwards with a bat with an average force of 100 N so that it attains a vertical height of
20m. The time for which the ball remains in contact with bat is
(g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 0.12 s
(2) 1.2 s
(3) 0.012 s
(4) None

13) A man of mass m is standing on a weighing machine Which is placed on a

block. Surface between the block and inclined plane is smooth. Find reading of machine.

(1) mg cosθ sinθ

(2) mg cos2θ
(3) mg sin2θ
(4) 2 mg sinθ.cosθ

14) A force F is applied on the free end of a string such that 18 kg block remains at rest. The value

of F is:-

(1) 180 N
(2) 90 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 30 N
15) A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a speed of 20 m/s. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s, the magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is :

(1) 150 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 300 N

16) A man is standing at a spring platform. Reading of spring balance is 60 kg wt. If man jumps
outside platform, then reading of spring balance-

(1) First increases then decreases to zero

(2) decreases
(3) increases
(4) remains same

17) All surfaces are smooth. Find value of F so that there is no relative motion between 2 kg and 10

kg.

(1) 200 N
(2) 225 N
(3) 125 N
(4) None of these

18) A block of mass 2 kg is having velocity 6 m/s in the positive x-direction at the origin. The only
force acting on it is F = (3x2 – 6) N. its velocity when it is at x = 2m is :

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 6 m/s

19) The potential energy of a body of mass 2.5 kg is given by U = 3x – 4y, where x,y are the co-
ordinates of the body. The magnitude of acceleration of the body is -

(1) 2m / s2
(2) 4m / s2
(3) 1 m / s2
(4) 10 m / s2

20) Find out speed of the ring at point B when released from point A in given figure. Natural length
of spring is L.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
L

21) A car of mass 1250 kg is moving at 30 m/s. Its engine delivers 30 kW while resistive force due to
surface is 750 N. What max acceleration can be given in the car ?

(1)
m/s2

(2)
m/s2

(3)
m/s2

(4)
m/s2

22) An imaginary closed spherical surface of radius R is centred at origin. A positive charge +q is
originally at origin and flux through surface is ϕ. Three additional charges are now added along the

x axis –3q at x = –R/2, +5q at x = R/2 and +4q at then flux through the surface :-

(1) 2ϕ
(2) 3ϕ
(3) 6ϕ
(4) 7ϕ

23) A proton and an α-particle are initially at a distance 'r' apart. Find the KE of α-particle at a large
separation from proton after being released.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) A uniform electric field points in the positive x direction, as shown below. Along the two lines f1,
f2 , we plot the electric potentials as a function of distance. Choose the correct plot.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) F1 = Force on q1 due to q2

F2 = Force on q1 due to q3

Find

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Statement-I: Both the Coulomb force and the gravitational force follow the inverse-square law,
decreasing with the square of the distance between the objects.
Statement-II: Despite being a much weaker force than the Coulomb force, gravity is often the
dominating and more pervasive force in nature.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

27) Find the dipole moment of given configuration if P = QR (where R is the radius of the circle and

P is magnitude of dipole moment) :

(1) 3P
(2)
(3)
(4) 4P

28) Surface density of charge on a sphere of radius R in terms of electric field intensity E at a
distance r (r > R) in free space is : (ε0 = permittivity of free space)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)

A point charge Q is placed in uniform electric field at position (a, b). Find work done in
moving it to position (c, d) :-

(1) Zero
(2) {E1(c – a) + E2(d-b)}Q
(3) {E1 ac + E2 bd}Q
(4) {E1c + E2d}Q

30) A conducting charged sheet having charge density σ & its surface potential is V0. Now a neutral
conductor is placed in front of sheet then potential at point 'P' will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

31) Minimum possible electric field due to a point charge at a distance of 4 × 10–5 m will be :-

(1) 0.9 V/m

(2) 9 V/m
(3) 0.09 V/m
(4) 1.44 V/m

32) Circular ring of radius 0.5 m carries a charge of 1C. If a gap of 0.02 m is cut in the ring then
electric field at the centre due to remaining part is :-

(1) 1.1 × 106 N/C

(2) 2.3 × 106 N/C
(3) 1.1 × 108 N/C
(4) 2.3 × 108 N/C

33) Two concentric thin shells of radii R & 2R have charges +Q & –3Q respectively. Potential
difference between surface of two shells is V. If charge on inner shell is now doubled, then potential
difference between the two shells will become :

(1) V
(2) 2V
(3) 3V
(4) 4V

34) A non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a net charge '+q' uniformly distributed throughout its
volume. A hollow spherical conductor having inner and outer, radii 'b' and 'c' respectively and net
charge '–q' is concentric with the sphere (see the figure) Read the following
statements

(i) The electric field at a distance r from the centre of the sphere = for r < a
(ii) The electric field at distance r (a < r < b) from the centre of the sphere is zero
(iii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for b < r < c is zero
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the hollow sphere = –q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the hollow sphere = +q Which of the above statements are
true ?

(1) (i) , (ii) and (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

35) In the given diagrams the direction of electric field at point O is given in list-II (O
is circumcenter of the given regular polygon).
Charge Q is positive. Match the direction of electric field at point 'O', for the given arrangement:-

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

(Q) (2)

(R) (3)

(S) (4)

Code :-
P Q R S

(1) 2 1 4 3
 (2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 1 4 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) A copper wire is drawn through a die to double its length. If the original reistance was r then the
new reistance of the wire will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 4r
(4) 16 r

37) Two resistance R1 and R2 are made of different materials. The temperature coefficient of the
material of R1 is α and of the material of R2 is –β. The resistance of the series combination of R1 and
R2 will not change with temperature, if R1/R2 equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The equivalent resistance between points A and B is:

(1) 32.5 Ω
(2) 22.5 Ω
(3) 2.5 Ω
(4) 42.5 Ω

39) In given circuit diagram potential at point a

(1) 10 V
(2) –6 V
(3) +6 V
(4) –14 V

40) Water boils in an electric kettle in 15 minutes after switching on. If the length of the heating
wire is decreased to 2/3 of its initial value, then the same amount of water will boil with the same
supply voltage in

(1) 15 minutes
(2) 12 minutes
(3) 10 minutes
(4) 8 minutes

41) Two shopkeepers A and B having their shops side by side, decided to economies by connecting
their bulb in series. They agreed that each will install a 100W bulb in their own shops and that they
would pay equal shares of the electricity bill. However both decided to try to get better lighting of
the other expense. A installed a 200 W bulb and B installed a 50W bulb which shopkeeper will be in
advantage :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both A and B because connection is in series
(4) None of these

42) The diagram shows a circuit with two identical resistors. The battery has a negligible internal
resistance. What will be the effect on the ammeter & voltmeter if the switch S is closed?

Column-I Column-II

(a) Ammeter reading (p) Increases

(b) Voltmeter reading (q) decreases

(c) Equivalent resistance of circuit (r) does not change

 (d) Power dissipated in circuit (s) becomes zero
(1) (a)→(p), (b)→(q), (c)→(r), (d)→(s)
(2) (a)→(p), (b)→(p), (c)→(q), (d)→(p)
(3) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(s), (d)→(r)
(4) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(q), (d)→(r)

43) Three copper wires A,B,C of length ratio 2 : 3 : 4 and mass ratio 1 : 3 : 2 are connected in series
then find ratio of potential drop across wires :-

(1) 3 : 4 : 8
(2) 4 : 3 : 8
(3) 2 : 3 : 4
(4) 1 : 1 : 5

44) n cells each of emf E and internal resistance r send the same current through an external
resistance R whether the cells are connected in series or in parallel. Then :-

(1) R = nr
(2) R = r
(3) r = nR
(4)

45) In a metre bridge experiment, null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when
resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y, then where will be the new position
of the null point from the same end, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4X against Y ?

(1) 50 cm
(2) 80 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 70 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) Identify the incorrect statement in the following

(1) d block element show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves.
(2) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbital and no other partially filled orbital.
(3) The chemistry of various Lanthanoids are similar.
(4) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded.

2) If structure of Be(BH4)2 is :- Then total 2C – 2e– & 3C – 2e– bonds are

respectively :-

(1) 6, 4
(2) 4, 6
(3) 4, 4
(4) 4, 8

3) Which of the following element show + 7 oxidation state?

(1) Cl
(2) Mn
(3) Np
(4) All of these

4) Statement-1 : K3[Fe(CN)6] is a low spin complex.

Statement-2 : Fe+2 ion in this complex undergoes sp3d2 hybridisation.

(1) Only Statement-1 is correct.

(2) Only Statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement-1 & 2 is correct.
(4) Both Statement-1 & 2 is incorrect.

5)

[SiF6]–2 is known where as [SiCl6]–2 not because

–2 +4
(1) In [SiCl6] interaction between lone pair of chloride ion and Si is very strong
–2
(2) In [SiCl6] back bonding is not possible
(3) Six large chloride ions cannot be accomodated around Si+4 due to limitation of its size
(4) Si has no vacant orbital for accepting lone pair

6) Statement-I : [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is a heteroleptic

complex.
Statement-II : Complex [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only one kind of ligand but [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has more than
one kind of ligand

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

7) Assertion : Ferrocene is a π-bonded organometallic compound. Reason : Ferrocene is a

sandwich compound.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is incorrect Reason is correct
(4) Assertion is correct Reason is incorrect

8) Cation 'X' has pseudo inert gas configuration and cation 'Y' has (18 + 2e–) gas configuration (both
are of same period) then incorrect statement is :

(1) Cation 'Y' has two more electron than the cation 'X'
(2) Positive charge on cation 'Y' must be more than cation 'X'
(3) Cation 'X' needed 8 more electron to convert into noble gas configuration
(4) Cation 'Y' needed 6 more electrons to convert into noble gas configuration

9) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeO4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

10) Which of the following is not oxidised by MnO2?

(1) F–
(2) Cl–
(3) Br–
(4) I–

11) Which is correct entry in for underline alphabet :

Orbitals Internuclear Bond
axis
(i) dxy, dxy A π
(ii) px, px y B
(iii) px, C z π
(iv) dxy, py D π

(1) A - all axis

(2) B = σ bond
(3) C = px or dxz orbitals
(4) D = z axis

12) Correct match is :-

Column I Column II
(Molecule/ion) (Hybridisation)
 (A) H3O+ ion (P) sp

(B) NO2+ ion (Q) sp2

(C) NO3– ion (R) sp3

(D) ClF3 (S) sp3d

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(2) A-R, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-Q, D-S
(4) A-R, B-R, C-Q, D-S

13) Assertion : has perfectly tetrahedral structure with bond angle of 109°.28'.
Reason : has all four equal bond angles due to resonance.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true gives correct explanation.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true it doesn't give correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and Reason are false.

14) Select the correct order of stability :-

(1) [Fe(en)3]Cl3 > [Fe(en) (H2O)4]Cl3

(2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 < [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
+3 –3
(3) [Co(H2O)6] < [Co(Cl)6]
– +3
(4) [Fe(edta)] < [Fe(H2O)6]

15) Which of the following pair contains all diamagnetic ions.

(1) Yb+2 & Lu+3

(2) Ce+4 & Pr+4
(3) Dy+3 & Lu+3
(4) Lu+3 & Gd+3

16) Which of the following statements are correct for [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] :

(A) IUPAC name - diamminesilver (I) dicyanidosilver (I)
(B) Number of coordination isomer = 2
(C) Hybridisation of Ag in each ion = sp.
(D) Shape around central atom in each ion = linear.
(E) Complex is paramagnetic (attracted by magnetic field)
Choose the correct option from given below :

(1) Only A,B,C and D

(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A,C and E
17) Which of the following order is CORRECT for their indicated properties ?

(1) bond angle : CH3F < CH2F2

(2) % p-character in C – F bond : CH3F < CHF3
(3) % s-character in the orbital containing lone pair : PH3 < PF3
(4) % s-character in E – H bonds (E = central atom) : NH3 < AsH3

18) Select the correct answer :-

(1) La+3 > Nd+3 > Pm+3 > Sm+3 > Tm+3 (order of size)
(2) All actinones are radioactive.
(3) La+3 and Lu+3 colourless and diamagnetic.
(4) All are correct.

19) If complex entity [Co(NH3)6]+3, absorbed wavelength is 475 nanometer than absorbed wavelength
of [Co(CN)6]–3.

(1) 535 nm
(2) 500 nm
(3) 600 nm
(4) 310 nm

20)

Stability of the species B2, B2–, B2+ .

+ –
(1) B2 < B2 < B2
+ –
(2) B2 < B2 < B2
– +
(3) B2 < B2 < B2
– +
(4) B2 < B2 < B2

21) Which of the following compound consist of peroxide bond

(1) Perchloric acid

(2) Permagnic acid
(3) O2F2
(4) Caro's acid (H2SO5)

22) Correct Statement is _______.

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical isomerism
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium
(D) Ethylenediamine is a monodentate ligand.

(1) (A),(B),(C),(D) are correct options

(2) (A),(B),(C) are correct options
(3) (A),(B),(D) are correct options
(4) (A),(D) are correct options

23) Statement–1 : I2Cl6 is planar but Al2Cl6 is non planar.

Statement–2 : Both compounds are having A - X bonds of identical length. (A → I & Al, X → Cl)

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation
(2)
for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

24) Which of the following compounds is not formed when lanthanides are made to react with
carbon?

(1) LnC2
(2) Ln2C3
(3) Ln3C
(4) Ln3C2

25) Which of the following options is/are correct :-

Molecules Type of over lapping in bridge bond

(1) Be2(Me)4 sp3–s–sp3

(2) Be2H4 sp2–s–sp2

(3) B2H6 sp2–sp2–sp3

(4) Al2(CH3)6 sp3–sp3–sp2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) In which of the following statement is correct for PO43–.

(1) Number of resonating structures are 3

(2) Bond order of P–O bond is 1.25
(3) Number of identical P–O bonds are 3
(4) Maximum number of atoms are in one plane is 4

27) Correct statement about crystal field theory ?

For octahedral complex d4 to d7 coordination entities are more stable for strong field as
(1)
compared to weak field.
(2) For tetrahedral complex high spin complex are rarely observed.
(3) Splitting in tetrahedral complex more than octahedral complex.
In the octahedral complex to yield three orbitals of higher energy t2g set and two orbital of lower
(4)
energy, eg set

28) Assertion : Cu can liberate hydrogen from acids.

Reason : Copper has positive electrode potential. (E° : M+2/M)

(1) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is not true but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

29) Which of following is adequately represented by a single lewis structure :-

(1) O3
(2) NOCl
(3) SO2
(4) N2O

30) Highest atomic volume element is :-

(1) Kr
(2) Ra
(3) Cs
(4) Xe

31) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(Position of element
(Atomic number)
in Periodic table)

(A) Z = 37 (P) p-block

(B) Z = 42 (Q) f-block

(C) Z = 34 (R) d-block

(D) Z = 92 (S) s-block

(1) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

32) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about transition elements ?

(1) The last electron enters in the (n-1) d-subshell

(2) Their properties are in between those of s-block elements and p-block elements
(3) The transition elements with smallest atomic number is scandium
(4) Lanthanum is not a transition element but is a lanthanoid

33) Which of the following is CORRECT order :-

(1) → Basic strength

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
(4) All of these

34) Assertion : Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason : Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not the correct
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

35) Assertion : Cr(VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium is a strong oxidising agent where
as MoO3 & WO3 are not.
Reason : Mo(VI) & W(VI) are found to be more stable than Cr(VI).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) In which of the following statement is/are correct -

(1) C-F bond length ⇒ CH3F < CHF3

(2) In PCl3F2 , P–Fa bond length is greater than P–Cle bond length.
(3) bond angle ⇒ OCF2 < OCCl2
(4) None of these

37) Ionic potential shows :-

(1) Ionization potential

(2) Charge to radius ratio of a cation
(3) Amount of charge on cation
(4) Charge to radius ratio of anion

38) P2O5 is heated with water to give :-

(1) Hypophosphorous acid

(2) Phosphorous acid
(3) Hypophosphoric acid
(4) Orthophosphoric acid

39) Statement-1: The complex ions that can be superimposed are called chiral.
Statement-2: The two forms are called dextro(d) and laevo(ℓ) depending upon the direction they
rotate polarised light.

(1) Both Statement-1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Both Statement-1 and 2 are incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.

40) Which d orbital is not involved in π bond formation in XeO3F2 molecule :-

(1) dz2

(2) dxz
(3) dyz
(4) dxy

41) The hybridisation of atomic orbital of Nitrogen in NO2+, NH4+, NO3– respectively are :-

(1) sp, sp3, sp2

(2) sp3, sp3, sp2
(3) sp, sp, sp2
(4) sp2, sp, sp3

42) Which of the following is correct trend for the viscosity ?

(1) H3PO4 > H2SO4 > HNO3 > HCl

(2) H2SO4 > H3PO4 > HNO3 > HCl
(3) HCl > H3PO4 > HNO3 > H2SO4
(4) HNO3 > HCl > H2SO4 > H3PO4

43) Which of the following pair of chalcogen group have minimum and maximum electron affinity
respectively :-

(1) O, S
(2) S, Po
(3) Po, O
(4) Se, O

44) Smallest cation & smallest anion are respectively:-

(1) H+ & H–
(2) H+ & F–
(3) Li+ & H–
(4) Li+ & F–

45) Basic properties of hydroxides of lanthanoides is-

(1) greater than Al(OH)3 but less than Ca(OH)2.

(2) greater than Ca(OH)2 but less than Al (OH)3.
(3) greater than both Ca(OH)2 and Al(OH)3
(4) less than both Ca(OH)2 and Al(OH)3

BIOLOGY

1) Under which of the following conditions there will be the presence of abnormally high ketone
bodies in urine ?

(1) Excessive breakdown of proteins

(2) Excessive breakdown of nucleic acids
(3) Starvation and diabetes mellitus
(4) Fasting and diabetes insipidus

2) Find the true or false statements from the given below list of statements.
A. If the diameter of efferent arterioles of the nephrons is morethan the afferent arterioles then ultra
filtration of blood is stopped
B. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule and the loop of Henle lead to dilution of urine
C. During muscle contraction ATP breaksdown and attachment of myosin head to the exposed site of
actin filament occurs
D. Cranial bones are 8 and facial bones are 14 in number

A B C D

(1) T T F T

(2) T F T F

(3) F T T T

(4) T T T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) The peritubular capillaries of the nephron arise from the :-

(1) Afferent arterioles

(2) Renal artery
(3) Efferent arterioles
(4) Vasa Recta
4) Which substances are reabsorbed in collecting duct?

(1) Glucose, Water

(2) Water, Urea
(3) H+, K+ ions
(4) Water and NaCl

5) Vasa Recta is absent or highly reduced in :-

(1) Cortical nephrons

(2) Medullary nephrons
(3) Juxtamedullary nephrons
(4) Juxtaglomerular nephrons

6) Shape of Henle's loop and vasa recta are:-

(1) 'C' shaped and 'U' shaped respectively

(2) U shaped and 'C' shaped respectively
(3) Hair pin shaped and U shaped respectively
(4) 'C' Shaped and hairpin shaped respectively

7) Which of the following Statement is/are true about Atrial Natriuretic factor (ANF)?
(A)An increase in blood volume and B.P. stimulates atria to release ANF.
(B) ANF promotes vasoconstriction and thereby decreases B.P.
(C) ANF acts as a check on RAAS.
(D) It work with renin.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & D
(4) A & C

8) Effective filtration pressure in glomerulus is caused due to :-

(1) Powerful pumping action of the heart

(2) Secretion of adrenaline
(3) Afferent arteriole is slightly wider than efferent arteriole
(4) Afferent arteriole is slightly narrower than efferent arteriole

9) Which of the following structure have stretch receptors for micturition?

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Ureters
(3) Renal pelvis
(4) Column of Bertini

10) Choose the incorrect statements :-

(1) Reabsorption is minimum in ascending limb of loop of Henle
(2) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle allows passage of electrolytes actively or passively.
(4) Reabsorption is minimum in descending limb of loop of Henle

11) Choose the correct one for the nephron :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Urine is always fluid, except in ______

(1) Reptiles and amphibians

(2) Birds and mammals
(3) Birds and reptiles
(4) Reptiles and mammals

13) In response to decrease in blood volume and blood pressure, which of the following do not occur
?

(1) Secretion of renin

(2) Secretion of aldosterone
(3) Secretion of vassopressin
(4) Secretion of ANF

14) Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the nephron are shown in
the given figure. In this figure A, B, C and D are respectively:-

(1) , nutrients, urea, NaCl

(2) NaCl, urea, K+,
(3) NaCl, urea, , ammonia
H2O, urea, NaCl,
(4)

15) Match the abnormal conditions given in Column I with their explanations given in Column II and
choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

(A) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

(B) Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in Glomerulus

Mass of crystallised salts within the

(C) Glomerular nephritis (iii)
kidney

(D) Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i

16) We can produce a concentrated urine. This is facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify the
mechanism-

(1) Reabsorption from PCT

(2) Reabsorption from collecting duct
(3) Reabsorption/secretion in DCT
(4) Counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop & vasa recta

17) A man has taken large amount of protein in his diet. He will excrete more of :-

(1) Urea
(2) Uric acid
(3) Sugar
(4) Salt and water

18) Tubular secretion of NH3 is :-

(1) Active process

(2) Passive process
(3) Diffusion process
(4) None of the above

19) Dialysis is done when a person is suffering from:-

(1) Diabetes
(2) Uremia
(3) Polyurea
(4) Haemolysis

20) Which segment does not play a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by
selective secretion :-

(1) PCT
(2) Henle's loop
(3) DCT
(4) Collecting duct

21) Assertion :- Most of all essential nutrients, 70-80% electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
through distal convoluted tubules of nephron.
Reason :- Wall of distal convoluted tubules is made up by simple squamous epithelium.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

22) Match the following columns & select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Carries blood Ascending &

(A) (i)
to kidneys Descending Limb

Carries urine
(B) (ii) Renal artery
to pelvis

Collects filtrate
(C) from (iii) Collecting Duct
Bowman's capsule

Proximal convoluted
(D) Henle's Loop (iv)
tubule
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

23) Identify the correct match from column I and column II :–

Column–I Column–II

(A) Origin of Universe (i) 4 bya

(B) Origin of earth (ii) 4.5 bya

(C) Origin of first cellular form of life (iii) 3 bya

(D) Origin of first non-cellular form of life (iv) 13.8 bya

(E) Life appeared (v) 2 bya

(1) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – v
(2) A – iv, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E – iii
(3) A – iv, B – ii, C – v, D – iii, E – i
(4) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – i

24) Which one of the following statement is not related with theory of special creation?

(1) Earth is about 4000 years old.

(2) Diversity was always same since creation and will be same in future.
(3) All living organism that we see today were created as such.
(4) Units of life "Spores" were transferred to different planets including earth.

25) According to Oparin and Haldane first form of life is originated from -

(1) Pre-existing living beings

(2) Non-living objects like mud and straw etc.
(3) Pre–existing non living organic molecule like R.N.A and protein
(4) Pre–existing non living organic molecule like Fat

26) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Weismann (i) Inheritance of acquired character

(B) Hugo de Vries (ii) Biogenetic law

(C) Ernst Haeckel (iii) Theory of continuity of germplasm

(D) Lamarck (iv) Mutation theory

(1) A - iii B-i C - iv D - ii
(2) A - ii B - iii C - iv D-i
(3) A - iv B - ii C-i D - iii
(4) A - iii B - iv C - ii D-i

27) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A) :- New forms of life arose at different times in the history of earth.
Reason (R) :- The fossil study showed that life forms varied over time and certain life forms are
restricted to certain geological time-spans of earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

28) The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar
function. This is an example of :

(1) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

29) Assertion : The aquatic mammals like Dolphins whales etc. do not contain gill slits.
Reason : Their adaptation to aquatic life is secondary.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

30) Assertion :- Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.

Reason :- Different structures evolving for the same function and hence having similarity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

31) Wings of kiwi and ostrich are an example of

(1) Same structure developed along different directions

(2) Vestigial organs
(3) Analogy
(4) Different structures evolving for the same function

32) A baby is born with tail is example of :-

(1) Retrogressive evolution
(2) Mutation
(3) Atavism
(4) Metamorphosis

33)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Homologous organ I. Elongated canine teeth

B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform appendix

C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna

D. Atavism IV. Vertebrate heart

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

34) The presence of embryonic features such as tail and gill slits, in the embryo of all vertebrates
supports the theory of :

(1) Recapitulation
(2) Atavism
(3) Retrogressive metamorphosis
(4) Germplasm

35) Match the hominids with their correct brain size :

(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc

(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1400 cc

(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc

Select the correct option:

(a) (b) (c)

(1) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Evolution by anthropogenic action includes :

(1) Natural selection of herbicide and pesticide resistant varities of weeds and insects respectively
(2) Drug resistant microorganisms
(3) Antibiotic resistant microbes
(4) All of the above

37) In which type of natural selection two peaks observed?

(1) Stabilizing evolution

(2) Disruptive evolution
(3) Directional evolution
(4) Cyclic evolution

38) Dark coloured peppered moth is able to survive in an industrial areas as compared to light
coloured form because of

(1) Low rate of reproduction

(2) Metamerism
(3) Natural selection
(4) Lethal mutation

39) Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called :

(1) Founder effect

(2) Saltation
(3) Branching descent
(4) Natural selection

40) Which of following factors affect Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium ?

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Natural selection
(3) Gene migration
(4) All the above

41) Human ancestors who used hides to protect their body and buried their dead ?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus

42) The agriculture and human settlements started around:

(1) 18000 years ago

(2) 10000 years ago
(3) 50000 years ago
(4) 75000 years ago

43) According to chemical evolution, the condition on primitive earth were :

(a) High temperature
(b) Volcanic stroms
(c) Reducing atmosphere
(d) Low temperature
(e) Oxidizing atmosphere

(1) a, b and e
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, c and e

44) Life can not originate from inorganic materials at present because :

(1) High pollution

(2) High amount of oxygen in atmosphere
(3) Very high atmospheric temperature
(4) Absence of raw materials

45) Assertion (A): RBCs in mammals are enucleated.

Reason (R) : This increases oxygen carrying capacity.

(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation of A

(2) A true, R true, R not correct explanation of A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

46) Assertion (A) : Plasma forms major fluid portion of blood.

Reason (R) : Plasma contains mainly water and proteins.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

47) Arrange the following in correct sequence of blood clotting:

(i) Prothrombin → (ii) Fibrinogen →
(iii) Thrombin → (iv) Fibrin

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) i → iii → ii → iv
(3) ii → i → iii → iv
(4) iii → ii → i → iv

48) Assertion (A) : WBCs defend the body from infection.

Reason (R) : They can engulf pathogens by phagocytosis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

49) Assertion (A) : Veins do not have valves.

Reason (R) : Valves prevent backflow of blood.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

50) Arrange the following events of cardiac cycle:

(i) Atrial systole → (ii) Ventricular systole →
(iii) Ventricular diastole → (iv) Joint diastole

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) iv → i → ii → iii
(3) i → iii → ii → iv
(4) ii → i → iv → iii

51) Assertion (A) : "Dub" sound is produced by closure of semilunar valves.

Reason (R) : It occurs at end of ventricular diastole.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

52) Arrange the blood vessels carrying blood from intestine to liver:
(i) Intestinal veins → (ii) Hepatic portal vein →
(iii) Liver → (iv) Hepatic vein

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) ii → i → iii → iv
(3) iii → i → ii → iv
(4) i → iii → ii → iv

53) Assertion (A): Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood.

Reason (R): It brings blood from lungs to left atrium.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

54) Assertion (A) : Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood.

Reason (R) : It carries blood from left ventricle to lungs.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

55) Arrange the correct path of systemic circulation :

(i) Left ventricle → (ii) Body organs →
(iii) Aorta → (iv) Right atrium

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) ii → i → iii → iv
(3) iii → ii → i → iv
(4) i → iii → ii → iv

56) Assertion (A) : Double circulation occurs in humans.

Reason (R) : Blood passes twice through heart in one complete cardiac cycle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

57) Assertion (A) : SA node is pacemaker of the heart.

Reason (R) : It initiates heartbeat by producing action potential.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

58) Arrange the following for passage of RBC through heart (systemic to pulmonary):
(i) Right atrium (ii) Right ventricle
(iii) Lungs (iv) Pulmonary artery
(1) i → ii → iv → iii
(2) ii → i → iv → iii
(3) i → iii → ii → iv
(4) i → ii → iii → iv

59) Assertion (A) : SA node delays impulse conduction to ventricles.

Reason (R) : SA node ensures atrial contraction after ventricular systole.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

60) Arrange the conduction pathway:

(i) SA node → (ii) AV node →
(iii) Bundle of His → (iv) Purkinje fibres

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) ii → i → iv → iii
(3) i → iii → ii → iv
(4) iv → iii → ii → i

61) Assertion (A): Purkinje fibres rapidly conduct impulse.

Reason (R): They are with high conduction velocity.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

62) Assertion (A) : Bundle of His is located in interventricular septum.

Reason (R) : It transmits impulse from AV node to ventricles.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

63) Arrange the conduction velocity (fastest to slowest):

(i) Purkinje fibres → (ii) Bundle of His →
(iii) AV node → (iv) Atrial muscle →

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) iv → iii → ii → i
(3) i → ii → iv → iii
(4) ii → i → iii → iv
64) Assertion (A) : AV node acts as a pacesetter.
Reason (R): It can generate action potentials in absence of SA node.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

65) Assertion (A): Conduction velocity is slowest in AV node.

Reason (R): Delay allows complete filling of ventricles.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

66) Assertion (A): The left ventricle of the human heart possesses much thicker muscular walls
compared to the right ventricle because it must contract strongly to generate high pressure.
Reason (R): This high pressure is required since the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the
aorta for distribution throughout the entire body, not just to the lungs.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

67) Arrange the sequence of blood flow in fetal circulation:

(i) Placenta → (ii) Umbilical vein →
(iii) Right atrium → (iv) Foramen ovale →
(v) Left atrium

(1) i → ii → iii → iv → v
(2) ii → i → iii → v → iv
(3) i → iii → ii → iv → v
(4) iii → ii → i → v → iv

68) The role of ______ in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

(1) H+
(2) CO2
(3) O2
(4) N2

69) Assertion : Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the function of the respiratory rhythm centre.
Reason : Neural signal arises from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

70) Select correct statement :-

(1) Role of CO2 in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

(2) Pneumotaxic centre present in medulla.
+
(3) CO2 & H concentration send signal to pons.
(4) Role of O2 in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

71) Receptor associated to aortic arch & carotid artery can recognise.

(1) CO2
(2) H+
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only (2)

72) The respiratory centre of brain is sensitive to :

(1) More O2 concentration in blood

(2) More CO2 concentration in blood
(3) Decrease in acidity of blood
(4) Increase in pH of blood

73) Read the following statements :

(A) Centre which can moderate the function of the respiratory rhythm centre is present in pons.
(B) Breathing rate in human is controlled by medulla oblongata.
(C) Increase CO2 and H+ concentration recognised by carotid artery and aortic body receptors only
can activate rhythm centre.
(D) Respiratory centre of cerebrum send signals to diaphragm and rib cage.
Select the correct statements and choose the correct answer :

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) B, C and D only

74) Oxyhaemoglobin is more likely to release oxygen, when :-

(1) There is a decrease is PCO2

(2) There is a decrease in temperature
(3) There is a decrease in PO2
(4) pH is alkaline in blood

75)
The oxygen dissociation curve shift towards right is due to :-

(1) H+ ion concentration decrease

(2) Decrease in acidity
(3) Decrease in 2, 3 DPG/BPG in RBC
(4) Increased in PCO2 in blood

76) Read the following statements and select the incorrect one :

(1) O2 dissociation curve shift to left by rise in pH.

(2) P50 is PO2 (30 mmHg) at which haemoglobin is 50% saturated.
(3) O2 dissociation curve shift to right means decrease Hb affinity for O2 cause O2 unloading.
(4) Left shift of curve means increase O2 offload to tissue so more O2 will be available for body.

77) Which of the following is correct for vital capacity ?

(1) ERV + RV
(2) TV + IRV + RV
(3) TLC - RV
(4) TV + IRV

78) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmosphere air and tissue will be

(1) 40, 159, 45

(2) 40, 0.3, 45
(3) 104, 159, 40
104, 0.3, 45
(4)

79) Statement-I : The trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are
supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.
Statement-II : The part starting with the external nostrils up to the initial bronchioles constitute
the conducting part.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

80) Read the following Statement carefully-

(i) At tissue level, CO2 diffuse into blood and forms and H+
(ii) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximactely 4 ml of CO2 to tissues.
(iii) Carbonic anhydrase mainly present in plasma and minute quantities of the same is present in
RBC too.
(iv) CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue level and transported to alveoli is released out as CO2
Choose the not incorrect statement/s with respect to CO2 transport
(1) i, iii & iv
(2) ii, & iii only
(3) i, & ii only
(4) i, & iv only

81) Dissociation of CO2 from carb-amino hemoglobin due to

(1) PO2 is low and PCO2 is high

+
(2) PO2 is high and more conc. of H
(3) PCO2 is low and PO2 is high
(4) Not depend upon partial pressure of gases

82) Statement-I : An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the intrapulmonary pressure to less
than the atmospheric pressure which forces the air from outside to move into the lungs, i.e.,
inspiration
Statement-II : An decrease in pulmonary volume increases the intrapulmonary pressure to more
than the atmospheric pressure which forces the air from inside to move out of the lungs, i.e.,
expiration.

(1) Statement I is true and statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false and statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and II are true.
(4) Both statement I and II are false.

83) Assertion : We cannot directly alter pulmonary volume.

Reason : The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

84) Some statements are given, read them and choose disorder :-
(i) Allergic condition
(ii) Difficulty in breathing
(iii) Increased IgE
(iv) Wheezing sound

(1) Emphysema
(2) Anthracis
(3) Silicosis
(4) Asthma

85) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in lungs of stone mine workers is characterstic feature of :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Occupational Respiratory Disorder
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pleurisy

86)

Carbon dioxide is carried in blood mainly as:-

(1) Sodium Carbonate

(2) Sodium Bicarbonate
(3) Potassium Carbonate
(4) Magnesium Carbonate

87) Carbonic anhydrase enzyme is found in :-

(1) Only RBCs

(2) Only WBCs
(3) Only Plasma
(4) Both RBCs and Plasma

88) Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates and flatworms etc. exchange O2 with CO2 by :-

(1) Tracheal tubes

(2) Gills
(3) Lungs
(4) Entire body surface

89) Fill in the blanks from the options given below :-

Breakdown of glucose is a __A__ reaction in which harmful __B__ is released.

(1) A–Anabolic, B–CO2

(2) A–Catabolic, B–CO2
(3) A–Metabolic, B–CO2
(4) A–Catabolic, B–O2

90) Why we cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume ?

(1) Because lungs are the spongy structure

(2) Because muscles are absent in lungs
(3) Because after inhalation of gases changes occured in volume of pulmonary
(4) Because inhalation is the voluntary process & exhalation is involuntary process
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 4 4 1 1 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 4 3 4 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 4 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 1 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For y = ax – bx2,

slope, = a – 2bx

is positive when

when

is negative when

Also, for x = 0 and , y = 0.

2)

or ...(1)
Now

= (from eqn (1))

= {a = 12}

3)

4)

So ,
Now area of parallelogram =

5)

∵ x = 8t – 4t2
at t = 0 , x = 0

∴ if v = 0, t = 1
at t = 1, x = 8 – 4 = 4m
at t = 2, x = 8(2) – 4(2)2 = 0
so, travelled distance = |(4–0)| + |(0 – 4)|
= 4 + 4 = 8m

6)

From given graph

V=

a=

a=
this is equation of straight line of positive slope and negative intercept so option (3) is correct

7)

8)

(i) VGirl = 5 m/s (towards North)

VRain =
(ii) When girl more with speed 10 km/h

x = 5 m/s

9)
10) If initial velocity is zero then particle moves along the direction of total acceleration.

11) For marble A, its speed increases more, so it will reach earlier

12)

100 = 0.4

13)
N = mg sinθ cos(90–θ) = mg
N = mg (1 – sin2θ)
= mg cos2θ

14) Ques explanation:

Solution: Observe the forces acting on pulley are applying 2T in upward direction
and mg in downward, so for block to be at rest, accelaration of pulley must be zero.
Hence:
2T - 18g = 18a
T = 90N
Concept: Motion Of Bodies Connected With Pulley Systems Without Spring
Formula: Net force = mass x acceleration

15)

16) When man jumps, he gets acclerated upwards so reading increases.

17) Let a = acceleration

F = 15 a

T = 2a
T = 3g
2a = 3g
2a = 3g

a= = 15 m/s2
F = 225 N

18)

= (8 – 12)
= –4 J
By work energy theorem

19) =–

=–

a= = = 2 m/s2

20)
L + x = 2L
X=L

21) Force produced by the

 engine F = = 103 N

Acceleration =

= m/s2

22)

Initial state: The charge enclosed is +q, and the flux is .

Final state: (After adding charges)
Charges added:

A. –3q at x = –R/2 (inside the surface)

B. +5q at x = R/2 (inside the surface)
C. +4q at x = 3R/2 (outside the surface)

The charges inside the surface are +q and +5q and –3q.
Qenclosed new = +q +5q = 3q = +3q

The new flux is:

Since the initial flux was , we find:

Therefore, the correct answer is 3ϕ.

23) MPVP = mαVα

KP =

=
= 4Kα
Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf

= Kα + 4Kα

Kα =

24) Since electric field lines point in the direction of decreasing electric potential, the potential
decreases as one travels from initial point to final point on each line. Since the electric field is
uniform and in the x-direction, equipotential lines will be perpendicular to the x-axis.
Therefore, since the final position of each line has the same x-coordinate, each will have the
same final potential. Plot c best describes this situation.

25)

26) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

27)
Pnet =
where P1 =
P2 = 2QR = 2P

28)

E= ⇒E=

⇒E=

0
⇒σ=∈ E

29) = (Q)
= [E1(c-a) + E2(d-b)Q]

30)
due to induction potential at point P decreases.

31) For minimum possible electric field take minimum charge (e)

E = 0.9 V/m

32)

By symmetry E at centre due to

remaining part =

⇒ = 2.3 × 108 N/C

33)
ΔV ∝ Q1; if Q1 is doubled ; ΔV is doubled
Hence, p-d will become 2V.

34)
b < r < c, E = 0 (Inside conductor E = 0)

35)

Based on simple concept of resultant of vectors.

36)

If length of conductor is increased by stretching then r ∝ ℓ2

⇒
⇒ r2 = 4r1
37)

R = R0 (1 + α ΔT)
Given :
R'1 + R'2 = R1 + R2
⇒ R'1 = R1(1 + αΔT) ; R'2 = R2[1 + (–β)ΔT]
⇒ R1(1 + αΔT) + R2[1 + (–β)ΔT] = R1 + R2
⇒ R1 + R1 α ΔT + R2 – R2 βΔΤ= R1 + R2
⇒ R1 α ΔT = R2βΔΤ

38)

Question Explanation:

Given circuit question is asking for equivalent resistance between A & B.

Concept:

Nodal Method

Solution:

RAB = 2 + 12.5 + 8 = 22.5 Ω

Final Answer:

The correct option is (2).

39) i = 2A
Applying KVL in loop
Vb = –4V
so Va = +6V
40)

By using where

t∝ℓ
Which gives

41) PA = 8W; PB = 32W

As PB > PA
and bill is equally distributed so, shopkeeper B will be in advantage.

42) On closing the switch, right branch resistance will get short circuited ; Thus Req = R (Req.
→ decreases)

, Req. ↓ ; I ↑; ammeter reading will increases

Voltmeter = V1 = IR ; I ↑, V ↑, voltmeter reading increases

(Req ↓ ; P ↑)

43)

V1 : V2 : V3 = 4 : 3 : 8

44) ;
IS = IP ⇒ R = r

45) As balance length is 20 cm so from another end it is 80 cm.

so we can write

..(1)
now if resistance 4X and Y are used then balance length is ℓ so we can write
 ..(2)
using (1) & (2)
ℓ = 50 cm.

CHEMISTRY

46)

4f belongs to 6th pd while 5f belongs to 7th pd i.e. why shielding effect is different.

47)
a = 2e – 2C = 4
b = 2e – 3C = 4

48) Question Explanation: Identifying the element(s) that show the +7 oxidation state.
Concept: Maximum Oxidation States.
Solution: Cl (in HClO4​), Mn (in Mn2​O7​), and Np (Neptunium, an Actinide) all show the +7
oxidation state. Final Answer: All of these.

49)

Fe+3 = 3d5 with CN– SFL = t2g eg

5
0

Hybridisation = d2sp3 - low spin

Fe+2 = 3d6 with CN– SFL = t2g eg
6
0

Hybridisation - d2sp3

50)

[SiCl6]2– not exist due to steric repulsion beween Cl – Cl atom.

51) • Homoleptic complexes contain only one type of ligand.

• Heteroleptic complexes contain more than one type of ligand.
• [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only NH3 ligands, making it homoleptic.
• [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has both NH3 and Cl- ligands, making it heteroleptic.
• Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Final Answer - Option (4)

52)

[Fe(η5–C5H5)2]
53)

For example - Pb
Pb = 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p2
Y = Pb+2 = 4f14 5d10 6s2 - (18+2)
X = Pb+4 = 4f14 5d10 - pseudo inert gas.

54)

(I) NH₃
•Nitrogen: 5 valence electrons
3 single bonds with H (3 electrons used)
• Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
(II) SF₄
• Sulfur: 6 valence electrons
• 4 bonds with F → 4 electrons used
• Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
• Molecular geometry: See-saw
(IV) XeF₆
• Xenon: 8 valence electrons
6 bonds with F (6 electrons used)
• Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
Shape: Distorted octahedral
Correct Answer: (2) I, II, IV

55)

F– is stronger oxidising agent than MnO2.

56) z-axis
π-bond

57)

(A) H3O+ → sp3 (R)

(B) NO2+ → sp (P)
(C) NO3– → sp2 (Q)
(D) ClF3 → sp3d (S)

58)

NCERT XII Pg # 233 Part-I

59)

No. of Chelate Rings α stability

(2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 > [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 - due to chelation.
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 > [Co(Cl)6]–3 - H2O is stronger ligand than Cl.
(4) [Fe(edta)]– > [Fe(H2O)6]+3 - due to chelation.
2, 3, 4 are incorrect.

60)

Yb+2 = [Xe]. 4f14

Lu+3 = [Xe]. 4f14

61)

(A) IUPAC name diamminesilver (I) dicyanido argentate (I)

(B) Number of coordination isomer = 1
(E) Complex is diamagnetic.

62)

CH3F < CH2F2

(107-108°) (112.3°)

63)

(i) across the period (left to right) radius decreases.

(iii) La+3 and Lu+3 due to absence of unpaired e– diamagnetic and colourless.

64)

CN– is SFL than NH3 i.e. more energy will be absorbed hence wavelength will be less than 475
nm.

65)

Stability ∝ bond order

B2+ < B2 < B2–
0.5 1.0 1.5
66)

Concept: (Peroxide bond presence in compounds - HClO4, HMnO4, O2F2, H2SO5)

Perchloric acid

(1)
Permagnic acid

(2)
O2F2

(3)
Caro's acid (H2SO5)

(4)

Conclusion: Hence, option (4) is correct.

67)

NCERT Pg. No. 245

68)
Hybridisation of I in I2Cl6 = sp3d2 (2 L.P.)
while Al2Cl6 having sp3 hybridisation of Al.

69)

It do not form Ln3C2.

70) sp2 – s – sp2

71)

PO4–3

Formal charge =
Bond order = 2 – | F.C. | = 2 – 0.75 = 1.25

72) d4 to d7 metal ions in presence of SFL undergoes pairing of electrons leading to form low
spin complex this lower energy state forms complex is more stable.

73)

Due to +ve E° Value Cu Can't displace H+ from acids.

74)

Due to absence of π.bond.

75)

Cs has largest size.

76)

A – Z = 37 – 36[Kr] s-s′ → s-block

B – Z = 42 – 36[Kr] 4d5 ss′ → d-block
C – Z = 34 – 18[Ar] 3d104s24p4 → p-block
D – Z = 92 – 86[Rn]5f36d17s2 f – block

77)

"Lanthanum is not a transition element but is a lanthanoid." Lanthanum (La) is classified as a

transition element, specifically a d-block element. Lanthanoids begin with Cerium (Ce),
following Lanthanum.
Final Answer : Option (4)

78)

Acidic strength of [Link] Hydride ∝ B.L.

Basic strength of Hydroxide ∝

79)

Chelating ligand on combination with metal ion form stable complex compound.
80)

In d-block element on moving down the group stability of higher oxidation state increases.
Hence Cr(VI) is less stable.

81)
CH3F > CHF3

(B) a < e due to large size of Cl

82)

Ionic potential means polarising power of cation.

83) P2O5 + 3H2O 2H3PO4

84)

Chiral → Complex ion can not be superimposed.

85)

π bond are not formed by axial d orbital.

86)
 NO2+ → sp
NH4+ → sp3
NO3– → sp2

87)

Viscosity α Inter molecular H-bond.

88)

EA → S > Se > Te > O

89)

Anion size → F– < Cl–< Br– < H– < I–

90)

NCERT

BIOLOGY

91)

During use of substances such as amino acids, fats reproduction as in case of starvation and
diabetes mellitus.

92)

NCERT Pg. # 293

93)

Explain Question : peritubular capillaries of the nephron arise from the ?

Concept : This question is based on Structure of Nephron.

Solution : Peritubular capillaries of Nephron arise from efferent arterioles.

Final Answer : option (3)

94)

Explanation :
The collecting duct is the key site for ADH-regulated water reabsorption and also plays a role
in urea reabsorption.
 Final Answer (2) Water, Urea

95)

Explain Question : Vasa Recta is absent or highly reduced in ?

Concept : This question is based on Types of Nephron

Solution : Vasa Recta is absent or highly reduced in Cortical nephron

Final Answer : option (1)

96)

Question Asking About:

Shape of Henle's loop and vasa recta are:-
Key Concept:
This question tests knowledge of kidney anatomy, specifically the shapes of these two
structures crucial for urine concentration.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Henle's Loop: The loop of Henle has a characteristic hairpin shape. It descends into the renal
medulla and then ascends back towards the cortex. This hairpin shape is essential for the
countercurrent multiplication system.
B. Vasa Recta: The vasa recta are specialized capillaries that run parallel to the loop of Henle in
the medulla. They also have a U shape, mirroring the loop of Henle. This U shape is crucial for
the countercurrent exchange system that maintains the concentration gradient in the renal
medulla.
Final Answer: 3. Hair pin shaped and U shaped respectively

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

97) Question Explanation: Identify. Correct about ANF

Concept : RAAS.

Solution :
ANF → it is released by Heart to check the effect of RAAS mechenism. when blood volume &
blood pressure increases in body due to RAAS., Atrial got Stimulated & Secrete ANF. Which
then intibit the RAAS.
So A & C are correct.

Final Answer : option (4).

98)

Explain Question : Effective filtration pressure in glomerulus is caused due to ?

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution : Effective filtration pressure in glomerulus is because Afferent arteriole is slightly

wider than efferent arteriole.

Final Answer : option (3)

99)

Explain Question : Which structure have stretch receptors for micturition?

Concept : This question is based on Micturition

Solution : The wall of urinary Bladder Have stretch Receptors for micturition.

Final Answer : option (1)

100) Question Explanation :

The question is asking for the incorrect statement regarding the function of different limbs of
the loop of Henle in the nephron.

Concept :
This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution :
Reabsorption is minimum in descending limb – Incorrect, the descending limb reabsorbs water
efficiently, especially in the presence of a hyperosmotic medulla.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

101)

Explain Question : Choose the correct one for the nephron ?

Concept : This question is based on Structure of Nephron.

Solution : Option (1) is correct since diameter of Affiant arteriole is greater than effect
arteriole.

Final Answer : option (1)

102)

Class XI Ncert page 205.

103) Question Explanation:

Asks which of the listed hormonal responses does not occur when blood volume and blood
pressure decreases.
 Solution/Explanation:

A. ANF Secretion: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is released by the heart's atria in response to
high blood volume and pressure. ANF's effects are opposite to what is needed when blood
volume/pressure is low. It promotes sodium and water excretion, leading to decreased blood
volume and pressure.

Answer:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

104) Question Explanation : This question asks about reabsorption and secretion of major
substances at different parts of the nephron are shown in the given figure. In this figure A, B,
C and D are respectively.

Concept :This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution :
A: NaCl(Significant reabsorption in the ascending limb and PCT)
B: urea (some reabsorption and secretion throughout, especially in the collecting duct and PCT)
C: K+ (Secretion in the DCT)
D: Ammonia (secretion in the DCT and PCT)

Final Answer : Option (2)

105)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 299

106) Question Explanation :

The question is asking which mechanism is responsible for producing concentrated urine in
the human body.

Concept :
This question is based on Counter-current mechanism.

Solution :
The ability to concentrate urine is mainly due to the counter-current mechanism between. The
loop of Henle and the vasa recta.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

107) Question Explanation: Determine which compound increases in excretion after high
protein intake.

Concept: The question is based on nitrogen metabolism and excretory products in humans.

Solution:

A. Proteins are broken down into amino acids, which undergo [Link] produces
ammonia, which is toxic and is converted into urea in the liver.
 B. Urea is then excreted by the [Link], high protein intake leads to increased urea
production and excretion.

Final answer: Option 1

108) Explanation: Ammonia secretion involves active transport mechanisms to effectively

eliminate this toxic waste product and regulate acid-base balance.
The correct answer is option 1: Active process.

109) Explanation :Dialysis is a medical procedure used to remove waste products and excess
fluid from the blood when the kidneys are no longer able to perform this function adequately.
Uremia is a condition that occurs when the kidneys fail, leading to a buildup of urea and other
waste products in the bloodstream.
Therefore, dialysis is specifically performed to treat uremia.
The correct answer is option (2)

110)

NCERT Page # 209

111) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294 (H)

112) NCERT Pg. # 292, Para-IV

113)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 111, 112

A. Query successful

Question Explanation: Matching major events to their [Link]: Timeline of Evolution

Solution: Here's the correct timeline matching:

A. (A) The Origin of the Universe (Big Bang) occurred approximately 20 billion years ago (iv).
B. (B) The Origin of Earth occurred about 4.5 billion years ago (ii).
C. (C) The first cellular forms of life appeared around 2 billion years ago (v).
D. (D) The first non-cellular forms of life (e.g., RNA, proteins) appeared around 3 billion
years ago (iii).
E. (E) Life appeared about 4 billion years ago (i), as non-cellular forms.

Final Answer: A - iv, B - ii, C - v, D - iii, E - i

114)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 112

 115) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 111
Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-
living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation of life was preceded by
chemical evolution, i.e., formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.

116) Question Explanation: Matching evolution theories and scientists.

Concept: Evolutionary Theories
Solution: Here's the correct matching:

A. Weismann is known for his Theory of continuity of germplasm (iii), which states that germ
cells transmit hereditary information, not somatic cells.
B. Hugo de Vries proposed the Mutation theory (iv), suggesting that evolution occurs in sudden
jumps.
C. Ernst Haeckel is associated with the Biogenetic law (ii), which states that 'ontogeny
recapitulates phylogeny.'
D. Lamarck proposed the Inheritance of acquired characters (i), suggesting traits acquired
during an organism's life are passed on.

Final Answer: A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i

117) NCERT-XII, Pg # 129(E), 142(H)

118) The correct answer is 4 Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent
evolution.
Here's the reasoning:

A. Analogous organs are organs that perform the same function but have a different
evolutionary origin and structure. In the case of the eye of an octopus and a cat, they both
serve the function of vision but evolved separately in different species (octopus is a mollusk,
cat is a mammal), meaning their structure and developmental origin are different.
B. Convergent evolution occurs when organisms that are not closely related independently
evolve similar traits or features because they adapt to similar environments or functions, as is
the case with the eyes of !he octopus and cat.

The eye of an octopus and the eye of a cat evolved independently to fulfill the same function
(vision), which is why they are considered analogous and evolved through convergent evolution.
Thus, the correct answer is Option 4: Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent
evolution.

119)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 124

120)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 115

 121)

Module-Evolution vestigeal organs

122)

Module-Evolution-Atavism

OR Explain Question : To identify the biological phenomenon that explains the birth of a body with
a tail.
Concept : This question is based on Atavism.
Solution : Atavism is the reappearance of a characteristic that had disappeared from earlier
generations and reappears after several generations.
Final Answer : option (3) Atavism

123)

Module-Evolution

124)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 113

125) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 124, 125

126)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 116

127)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 120

128)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 115

129)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 119

130)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 121

131)
NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 125
Homo erectus: also called Java man, fossils discovered in 1891, now extinct, Cranial capacity
: 900cc.

132) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 125

133)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 111

134)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 111

135) Mammalian RBCs lack nuclei → more space for Hb - ↑ O2 transport.

136) Plasma ≈ 55% of blood, mostly water (90-92%) + proteins (7%).

137) Clotting sequence: Prothrombin → Thrombin → Fibrinogen → Fibrin

138) WBCs defend body; neutrophils/macrophages do phagocytosis.

139) Valves in veins stop backflow, maintain unidirectional flow.

140)

Cardiac cycle order : Atrial systole → Ventricular systole → Ventricular diastole → Joint
diastole.

141) "Dub" sound = closure of semi lunar valves at start of ventricular diastole.

142) Intestinal veins → Hepatic portal vein → Liver → Hepatic vein → Heart.

143) Pulmonary vein= only vein with oxygenated blood (from lungs to LA).

144) Pulmonary artery= only artery with deoxygenated blood (RV - lungs).

145) Systemic circulation: LV → Aorta → Body → RA.

146) Double circulation =pulmonary+ systemic; heart crossed twice.

147) SA node (RA wall) = primary pacemaker; initiates heartbeat.

148) RBC path: RA → RV → Pulmonary artery → Lungs

149) AV node delays impulse (0.1 s), allowing atrial contraction before ventricles.

150) Conduction path: SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres.

151) Purkinje fibres are fastest conductors → rapid ventricular contraction.

152) Bundle of His in IV septum → carries impulse from AV node to ventricles.

153) Velocity: Purkinje >His> Atrial muscle> AV node (slowest).

154) AV node= secondary pacemaker (40-60 bpm) if SA fails.

155) AV node slow conduction - ensures ventricles fill before contraction.

156) LV wall is thick (muscular) to pump systemic blood at high pressure.

157) Fetal path: Placenta → Umbilical vein → RA - Foramen ovale → LA.

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 190

159) NCERT Pg. # 190

160) NCERT Pg. # 190

161) NCERT Pg. # 190

162) NCERT XI Pg # 190

163) NCERT XI Pg # 190

164) NCERT XI Pg # 189

165) NCERT XII Pg # 189

166) Module Pg # 189

167) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271

168)

Module-6 Page No.#19,20

169) NCERT Page No. – 269 & 270

170) NCERT Page No. – 274, 275

171) XIth NCERT Page No. – 274, 275

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270

174) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 275, Para-4

175) NCERT-XI, Pg#276

176)

Allen Module

177) NCERT-XIth Pg # 190 [E]

178) NCERT Pg. # 17.1

179) XI NCERT Page. No :- 268

180) NCERT Pg. # 184, 191