Application Seq

IBACIO250667133
No
Roll Number 138587301026
Participant
KHATAL CHETAN DIPAK
Name
Test Center
iON Digital Zone Chikalthana
Name
Test Date 17/09/2025
Test Time 3:00 PM - 4:00 PM
ASSISTANT CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE OFFICER-
Post Name
GRADE-II/EXECUTIVE

Section : Current Affairs

Q.1 According to the Union Budget 2025–26, what is the enhanced loan limit under the Modified
Interest Subvention Scheme through KCC?
Ans 1. ₹6 lakh

2. ₹4 lakh

3. ₹5 lakh

4. ₹3 lakh

Question ID : 441009140640
Option 1 ID : 441009558771
Option 2 ID : 441009558769
Option 3 ID : 441009558770
Option 4 ID : 441009558768
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.2 Which Indian state launched its inaugural wine production unit in 2024?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Meghalaya

3. Nagaland

4. Uttarakhand

Question ID : 441009258595
Option 1 ID : 4410091008227
Option 2 ID : 4410091008226
Option 3 ID : 4410091008224
Option 4 ID : 4410091008225
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.3 Which organisation fabricated the VIKRAM3201 processor using 180nm CMOS
(Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) technology in 2025?
Ans 1. Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh

2. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)

3. Bharat Electronics Limited

4. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

Question ID : 441009136230
Option 1 ID : 441009541352
Option 2 ID : 441009541354
Option 3 ID : 441009541351
Option 4 ID : 441009541353
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 Former Delhi Chief Minister Atishi won from which assembly constituency in February 2025
elections?
Ans 1. Deoli

2. Kondli

3. Kalkaji

4. Kirari

Question ID : 441009130644
Option 1 ID : 441009519113
Option 2 ID : 441009519115
Option 3 ID : 441009519114
Option 4 ID : 441009519116
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.5 Which organisation’s R&D wing, NETRA, developed an indigenous catalyst for the
hydrogenation of CO2 to methanol in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Petroleum (IIP),
Dehradun, in October 2024?
Ans 1. SAIL

2. DRDO

3. NTPC

4. ISRO

Question ID : 441009159886
Option 1 ID : 441009634190
Option 2 ID : 441009634189
Option 3 ID : 441009634187
Option 4 ID : 441009634188
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 As per the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, with an objective of making quality generic
medicines available at affordable prices to all, the number of Jan Aushadhi Kendras under
the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) crossed which mark on 28
February 2025?
Ans 1. 15,000

2. 10,000

3. 13,000

4. 11,000

Question ID : 441009131068
Option 1 ID : 441009520883
Option 2 ID : 441009520880
Option 3 ID : 441009520882
Option 4 ID : 441009520881
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.7 What was India’s ranking in the 2024 Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI)?
Ans 1. 89

2. 96

3. 99

4. 93

Question ID : 441009260926
Option 1 ID : 4410091017102
Option 2 ID : 4410091017103
Option 3 ID : 4410091017104
Option 4 ID : 4410091017101
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.8 Who compiled the book 'I AM' launched in February 2025?
Ans 1. Sachchidanand Joshi

2. Ram Nath Kovind

3. Gopichand P Hinduja

4. Jagdeep Dhankhar

Question ID : 441009122904
Option 1 ID : 441009488528
Option 2 ID : 441009488526
Option 3 ID : 441009488527
Option 4 ID : 441009488525
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 Released in October 2024, the book ‘Speaking with Nature: The Origins of Indian
Environmentalism’, was authored by ________________.
Ans 1. Piyush Goyal

2. Shaktikantha Das

3. Narendra Modi

4. Ramachandra Guha

Question ID : 441009152880
Option 1 ID : 441009606673
Option 2 ID : 441009606674
Option 3 ID : 441009606672
Option 4 ID : 441009606671
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 How many riverine dolphins were estimated to be present across the Ganga, Brahmaputra,
and Indus River systems in India according to the country’s first-ever detailed dolphin
population survey released in March 2025?
Ans 1. 6,227

2. 6,327

3. 6,687

4. 6,200

Question ID : 441009158585
Option 1 ID : 441009629275
Option 2 ID : 441009629276
Option 3 ID : 441009629277
Option 4 ID : 441009629278
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 Which of the following countries partnered with India for the maritime exercise AIKEYME in
2025?
Ans 1. Tanzania

2. Vietnam

3. Indonesia

4. Maldives

Question ID : 441009257135
Option 1 ID : 4410091002389
Option 2 ID : 4410091002392
Option 3 ID : 4410091002390
Option 4 ID : 4410091002391
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.12 Which state showed the highest increase in forest cover (excluding tree cover) as per the
India State of Forest Report 2023?
Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Odisha

3. Nagaland

4. Madhya Pradesh

Question ID : 441009159038
Option 1 ID : 441009631049
Option 2 ID : 441009631048
Option 3 ID : 441009631050
Option 4 ID : 441009631047
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 India became the fourth country to achieve which technological feat with SpaDeX?
Ans 1. Human spaceflight

2. Mars landing

3. Space docking

4. Space tourism

Question ID : 441009136243
Option 1 ID : 441009541405
Option 2 ID : 441009541406
Option 3 ID : 441009541404
Option 4 ID : 441009541403
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.14 Which state was the venue of the 39th Junior National Athletics Championships?

Ans 1. Assam

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Odisha

4. Manipur

Question ID : 441009157322
Option 1 ID : 441009624457
Option 2 ID : 441009624458
Option 3 ID : 441009624455
Option 4 ID : 441009624456
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.15 In which sports discipline was Annu Rani honoured with the Arjuna Award 2024?
Ans 1. Archery

2. Swimming

3. Weightlifting

4. Athletics

Question ID : 441009249819
Option 1 ID : 441009973210
Option 2 ID : 441009973208
Option 3 ID : 441009973211
Option 4 ID : 441009973209
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 Who among the following was awarded with the Col. C. K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement
Award in the Men's category in 2025?
Ans 1. Sunil Gavaskar

2. Sourav Ganguly

3. Sachin Tendulkar

4. Rahul Dravid

Question ID : 441009150632
Option 1 ID : 441009597765
Option 2 ID : 441009597767
Option 3 ID : 441009597766
Option 4 ID : 441009597764
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 Operation Brahma, initiated by India in 2025, was a disaster-relief operation in response to an
earthquake in which country?
Ans 1. Indonesia

2. Myanmar

3. Nepal

4. Bangladesh

Question ID : 441009144082
Option 1 ID : 441009572324
Option 2 ID : 441009572322
Option 3 ID : 441009572321
Option 4 ID : 441009572323
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 'Perfection', a satire on modern life, is the first English-translated novel of which Italian
author?
Ans 1. Dahlia de la Cerda

2. Vincent Delecroix

3. Vincenzo Latronico

4. Saou Ichikawa

Question ID : 441009149462
Option 1 ID : 441009593603
Option 2 ID : 441009593601
Option 3 ID : 441009593600
Option 4 ID : 441009593602
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 Which political party won the maximum number of seats after the Bhartiya Janata Party
(BJP), in Maharashtra Assembly Elections 2024?
Ans 1. Shiv Sena (Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray) - SHSUBT

2. Nationalist Congress Party - NCP

3. Indian National Congress - INC

4. Shiv Sena - SHS

Question ID : 441009130636
Option 1 ID : 441009519082
Option 2 ID : 441009519080
Option 3 ID : 441009519081
Option 4 ID : 441009519079
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.20 In September 2024, what was R Vithya Ramraj’s new meet record time in the 400 m hurdles,
breaking PT Usha's 39-year-old record?
Ans 1. 57.10 seconds

2. 56.23 seconds

3. 55.60 seconds

4. 58.05 seconds

Question ID : 441009123039
Option 1 ID : 441009489063
Option 2 ID : 441009489062
Option 3 ID : 441009489061
Option 4 ID : 441009489064
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : General Studies

Q.1 The Government of India formally proposed the Second Green Revolution in which year?
Ans 1. 2005

2. 1996

3. 2002

4. 2000

Question ID : 441009308667
Option 1 ID : 4410091201347
Option 2 ID : 4410091201344
Option 3 ID : 4410091201346
Option 4 ID : 4410091201345
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2 Who became the principal of the Sanskrit College in 1851 and opened its gates to non-
Brahmin students?
Ans 1. Dayanand Saraswati

2. Swami Vivekananda

3. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

4. Bipin Chandra Pal

Question ID : 441009161908
Option 1 ID : 441009641285
Option 2 ID : 441009641286
Option 3 ID : 441009641287
Option 4 ID : 441009641288
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3 What is the implication of Article 239AA in the context of the National Capital Territory of
Delhi?
Ans 1. Provides Legislative Assembly for Delhi

2. Merged Delhi Assembly with Indian Parliament

3. Grants full statehood rights to Delhi

4. Grants full control over police to Delhi government

Question ID : 441009136809
Option 1 ID : 441009543503
Option 2 ID : 441009543504
Option 3 ID : 441009543501
Option 4 ID : 441009543502
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional Body?

Ans 1. Finance Commission

2. National Green Tribunal

3. Union Public Service Commission

4. State Public Service Commission

Question ID : 441009132176
Option 1 ID : 441009525332
Option 2 ID : 441009525333
Option 3 ID : 441009525330
Option 4 ID : 441009525331
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.5 What was the immediate political consequence of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in 1919?
.
Ans 1. Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement.

2. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest.

3. The Rowlatt Act was repealed immediately by the British government.

4. The Indian National Congress boycotted the Simon Commission.

Question ID : 441009171332
Option 1 ID : 441009678209
Option 2 ID : 441009678211
Option 3 ID : 441009678212
Option 4 ID : 441009678210
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 What was India's reform model described as, in contrast to the 'shock therapy' of Eastern
Europe?
Ans 1. Gradualist stabilisation

2. Direct monetisation route

3. Keynesian shortfall correction

4. Nehruvian mixed model

Question ID : 441009308422
Option 1 ID : 4410091200327
Option 2 ID : 4410091200328
Option 3 ID : 4410091200329
Option 4 ID : 4410091200326
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.7 As of 2021, what is India’s estimated GDP, marking its growth since the reforms of 1991?
Ans 1. $3.1 trillion

2. $2 trillion

3. $5 trillion

4. $1 trillion

Question ID : 441009152754
Option 1 ID : 441009606178
Option 2 ID : 441009606176
Option 3 ID : 441009606177
Option 4 ID : 441009606175
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.8 What is the primary objective of Panchayati Raj Institutions?

Ans 1. Judicial reforms

2. Rural governance and development

3. Economic liberalisation

4. Urban development

Question ID : 441009136462
Option 1 ID : 441009542253
Option 2 ID : 441009542252
Option 3 ID : 441009542254
Option 4 ID : 441009542251
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.9 What powers does the Parliament have over Union Territories, under Article 241(1)?
Ans 1. To create or declare a High Court

2. To grant statehood

3. To merge with states

4. To appoint Governor

Question ID : 441009154191
Option 1 ID : 441009611923
Option 2 ID : 441009611924
Option 3 ID : 441009611925
Option 4 ID : 441009611922
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.10 Which of the following is a tool used by the RBI to control inflation through monetary policy?
Ans 1. Income tax rate

2. Reverse repo rate

3. Fiscal deficit

4. Subsidy allocation

Question ID : 441009152744
Option 1 ID : 441009606136
Option 2 ID : 441009606137
Option 3 ID : 441009606135
Option 4 ID : 441009606138
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 Which of the following statements about the influence of physiography on the climate of
India are correct?

1. Physiography of India significantly influences climatic factors like temperature, rainfall,

wind direction, and pressure.
2. Higher altitudes experience warmer climates regardless of location, including Peninsular
India.
3. Western Ghats cause heavy rainfall on the windward side due to the perpendicular strike of
the south-west monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal.
4. Leeward side of the Western Ghats lies in the rain-shadow zone and remains
comparatively dry.
Ans 1. 1 and 2 only

2. 1 and 4 only

3. 3 and 4 only

4. 1, 2, and 3 only

Question ID : 441009154851
Option 1 ID : 441009614555
Option 2 ID : 441009614554
Option 3 ID : 441009614556
Option 4 ID : 441009614557
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.12 The larger Harappan cities were built according to precise plans and were separated in how
many distinct parts?
Ans 1. Five

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Question ID : 441009159340
Option 1 ID : 441009632230
Option 2 ID : 441009632228
Option 3 ID : 441009632229
Option 4 ID : 441009632227
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.13 The Sun Temple at Konark, though earlier in origin, saw major medieval renovations under:
Ans 1. Narasimhadeva I

2. Raja Raja Chola I

3. Harsha

4. Bukka Raya

Question ID : 441009159514
Option 1 ID : 441009632873
Option 2 ID : 441009632872
Option 3 ID : 441009632875
Option 4 ID : 441009632874
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Which Amendment to the Constitution added Article 39A, ensuring free legal aid to the poor?
Ans 1. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

2. 44th Amendment Act, 1978

3. 86th Amendment Act, 2002

4. 97th Amendment Act, 2011

Question ID : 441009148824
Option 1 ID : 441009591103
Option 2 ID : 441009591104
Option 3 ID : 441009591105
Option 4 ID : 441009591106
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.15 What is the primary geological composition of the Lakshadweep and Minicoy Islands?
Ans 1. Volcanic rocks

2. Granite and basalt

3. Coral deposits

4. Sandstone and shale

Question ID : 441009144728
Option 1 ID : 441009574905
Option 2 ID : 441009574908
Option 3 ID : 441009574906
Option 4 ID : 441009574907
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.16 Which of the following statements regarding National Parks and Biodiversity-related
conservation in India are correct?

1. A State Government may declare an area as a National Park, but boundary changes need
the National Board for Wildlife’s recommendation.
2. According to IUCN (1969), National Parks should not allow any form of human visitation.
3. The Central Government may notify Biodiversity Heritage Sites in consultation with local
bodies.
4. In Biosphere Reserves, tourism is prohibited in the core zone but allowed in buffer and
transition zones.
Ans 1. 1 and 3 only

2. 1 and 4 only

3. 2 only

4. 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Question ID : 441009154810
Option 1 ID : 441009614395
Option 2 ID : 441009614394
Option 3 ID : 441009614397
Option 4 ID : 441009614396
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.17 Who was the first Mauryan king to maintain a standing army?
Ans 1. Dasharatha

2. Chandragupta Maurya

3. Ashoka

4. Bindusara

Question ID : 441009171593
Option 1 ID : 441009679149
Option 2 ID : 441009679147
Option 3 ID : 441009679146
Option 4 ID : 441009679148
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.18 What is the climatic factor that favours the location of cotton mills in Mumbai?
Ans 1. High rainfall and flooding

2. Mild climate with enough moisture in the air

3. High temperature and low humidity

4. Extreme temperature fluctuations

Question ID : 441009144489
Option 1 ID : 441009573979
Option 2 ID : 441009573978
Option 3 ID : 441009573977
Option 4 ID : 441009573980
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.19 The Peninsular Plateau of India is one of the oldest landmasses on Earth and was once part
of the ancient supercontinent known as _________.
Ans 1. Gondwanaland

2. Laurasia

3. Eurasia

4. Angaraland

Question ID : 441009152820
Option 1 ID : 441009606437
Option 2 ID : 441009606435
Option 3 ID : 441009606436
Option 4 ID : 441009606438
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.20 Which foreign ambassador wrote 'Indica', providing detailed accounts of the Mauryan court?
Ans 1. Fa-Hien

2. Deimachus

3. Megasthenes

4. Dionysius

Question ID : 441009161425
Option 1 ID : 441009639355
Option 2 ID : 441009639356
Option 3 ID : 441009639353
Option 4 ID : 441009639354
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Numerical Aptitude

Q.1 5 chairs and 18 tables cost ₹9,300 and 3 chairs and 18 tables cost ₹7,200. What is the cost of
5 chairs and 16 tables?
Ans 1. ₹8,851

2. ₹8,853

3. ₹8,850

4. ₹8,847

Question ID : 441009237104
Option 1 ID : 441009926785
Option 2 ID : 441009926786
Option 3 ID : 441009926784
Option 4 ID : 441009926787
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 There are three containers, X, Y and Z, each having a solution of concentrated juice, sugar
solution and water. The concentrated juice is 5% in each whereas the sugar solution is 70%,
60% and 50%, respectively and the rest is water. Solutions in X, Y and Z are mixed together in
a bigger drum. Ten litres are drawn from the drum and poured in to a bucket to which 2 litres
water is added. Find the percentage of sugar solution in the bucket .
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009166318
Option 1 ID : 441009658451
Option 2 ID : 441009658453
Option 3 ID : 441009658450
Option 4 ID : 441009658452
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.3 A person borrows ₹28,400 at 15% compound interest per year, compounded annually. At the
end of every year, he pays ₹9,100 as part payment. How much does he still owe after two
such instalments?
Ans 1. ₹17,973

2. ₹17,817

3. ₹17,795

4. ₹17,994

Question ID : 441009237369
Option 1 ID : 441009927845
Option 2 ID : 441009927846
Option 3 ID : 441009927847
Option 4 ID : 441009927844
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.4 A can beat B in a race of 800 m by 72 m or 12 seconds. Find the speed of A (in km/hr,
rounded off to two decimal places).
Ans 1. 26.49

2. 23.74

3. 22.31

4. 20.98

Question ID : 441009151652
Option 1 ID : 441009601792
Option 2 ID : 441009601791
Option 3 ID : 441009601793
Option 4 ID : 441009601794
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.5

Ans 1. 1

2. a

3.

4. a2

Question ID : 441009157442
Option 1 ID : 441009624935
Option 2 ID : 441009624936
Option 3 ID : 441009624938
Option 4 ID : 441009624937
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.6 Two buses leave a station at the same time. One bus returns to the station every 20 minutes,
and the other returns every 30 minutes. After how many minutes will both buses return to the
station together?
Ans 1. 45 minutes

2. 30 minutes

3. 60 minutes

4. 90 minutes

Question ID : 441009237845
Option 1 ID : 441009929749
Option 2 ID : 441009929748
Option 3 ID : 441009929750
Option 4 ID : 441009929751
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.7 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 30 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with
water in 80 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill half of the cistern with water?
Ans 1. 24

2. 48

3. 25

4. 49

Question ID : 441009239165
Option 1 ID : 441009935028
Option 2 ID : 441009935029
Option 3 ID : 441009935030
Option 4 ID : 441009935031
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.8 Ajay, Vijay and Sujay can paint a room in 6 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours, respectively. Ajay
works in the 1st hour, Ajay and Vijay in the 2nd hour and, after 2 hours, all the three work
together until the work is completed. What part of the total work is completed by Vijay alone?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009180846
Option 1 ID : 441009714703
Option 2 ID : 441009714702
Option 3 ID : 441009714704
Option 4 ID : 441009714701
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.9 The 7-digit number 51A808B is divisible by 24. What is the minimum value of (A + B)?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 5

4. 2

Question ID : 441009238006
Option 1 ID : 441009930394
Option 2 ID : 441009930395
Option 3 ID : 441009930393
Option 4 ID : 441009930392
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 8 : 4 : 6. They invested their capitals for 8
months, 3 months and 6 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 19 : 3 : 9

2. 16 : 3 : 9

3. 14 : 3 : 9

4. 17 : 3 : 9

Question ID : 441009238492
Option 1 ID : 441009932337
Option 2 ID : 441009932336
Option 3 ID : 441009932339
Option 4 ID : 441009932338
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.11 What is the average speed of a truck that covers half the distance with a speed of 42 km/hr
and the other half with a speed of 56 km/hr?
Ans 1. 44 km/hr

2. 45 km/hr

3. 50 km/hr

4. 48 km/hr

Question ID : 441009238234
Option 1 ID : 441009931305
Option 2 ID : 441009931307
Option 3 ID : 441009931306
Option 4 ID : 441009931304
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.12 The semi perimeter of the rectangular wall of a room is (3x − 7y + 5) m, and its height is (2x +
y) m. Find the area of four walls of the room, if x = 3 and y = −2.
Ans 1. 224 m2

2. 168 m2

3. 264 m2

4. 135 m2

Question ID : 441009237233
Option 1 ID : 441009927302
Option 2 ID : 441009927301
Option 3 ID : 441009927303
Option 4 ID : 441009927300
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.13 A man receives ₹1,766 per month as salary. He saves 50% of his salary every month. His
expenditure per month is:
Ans 1. ₹934

2. ₹804

3. ₹876

4. ₹883

Question ID : 441009237619
Option 1 ID : 441009928845
Option 2 ID : 441009928847
Option 3 ID : 441009928846
Option 4 ID : 441009928844
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.14 The cost price of an article is ₹620, and its marked price is ₹800. If the seller offers a 7%
discount on the marked price, what will be his profit percentage?
Ans 1. 23%

2. 21%

3. 18%

4. 20%

Question ID : 441009237655
Option 1 ID : 441009928990
Option 2 ID : 441009928991
Option 3 ID : 441009928989
Option 4 ID : 441009928988
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.15 I bought two dresss for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 14% and the second at a gain
of 10%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of the first
dress.
Ans 1. 484

2. 524

3. 520

4. 500

Question ID : 441009239075
Option 1 ID : 441009934670
Option 2 ID : 441009934671
Option 3 ID : 441009934669
Option 4 ID : 441009934668
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 A man has invested ₹54,500 at a rate of 6% per annum simple interest for 3 years. Find the
amount (in ₹) that he will receive after 3 years.
Ans 1. 65,310

2. 10,810

3. 9,810

4. 64,310

Question ID : 441009239807
Option 1 ID : 441009937598
Option 2 ID : 441009937599
Option 3 ID : 441009937597
Option 4 ID : 441009937596
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.17 The sum of the present ages of A, B and C is 210 years. 7 years ago from now, the ratio of
their ages was 10 : 11 : 6. What is the present age of C (in years)?
Ans 1. 49

2. 51

3. 50

4. 47

Question ID : 441009238632
Option 1 ID : 441009932896
Option 2 ID : 441009932897
Option 3 ID : 441009932898
Option 4 ID : 441009932899
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.18 The number of peacocks in a bird sanctuary was P in the year 2000. The number decreased
by 10% in the next decade and increased by 50% in the decade after that. If the difference
between the number of peacocks in the years 2020 and 2000 is 5250, and it increased by
36% in the next half decade, then what is the number of peacocks in the year 2025?
Ans 1. 27,540

2. 22,740

3. 23,850

4. 25,450

Question ID : 441009168709
Option 1 ID : 441009667795
Option 2 ID : 441009667796
Option 3 ID : 441009667798
Option 4 ID : 441009667797
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.19 An article is sold at a discount of 35%, and an additional discount of 40% is allowed on cash
payment. If a customer purchased the article by paying ₹4,480 in cash, the marked price (in
₹, rounded to two decimal places) of the article was:
Ans 1. 17,178.66

2. 11,487.18

3. 17,871.53

4. 14,187.32

Question ID : 441009151480
Option 1 ID : 441009601108
Option 2 ID : 441009601105
Option 3 ID : 441009601107
Option 4 ID : 441009601106
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.20 The average of the squares of the first 150 natural numbers is:
(Rounded off to two decimal places.)
Ans 1. 7576.67

2. 7576.17

3. 7575.17

4. 7574.17

Question ID : 441009238024
Option 1 ID : 441009930467
Option 2 ID : 441009930466
Option 3 ID : 441009930464
Option 4 ID : 441009930465
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Reasoning or Logical Aptitude

Q.1 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HA-YG

2. IB-ZH

3. EX-VD

4. FI-WE

Question ID : 441009129238
Option 1 ID : 441009513550
Option 2 ID : 441009513553
Option 3 ID : 441009513552
Option 4 ID : 441009513551
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.2 A question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and select the most appropriate answer.

Six people, N, P, T, U, X, and Z are sitting in a row, facing the north. How many people sit to
the right of U?
(I) Exactly three people sit between P and N. Z sits to the immediate left of N.
(II) Only two people sit to the left of T. U sits to the immediate left of T.
Ans 1. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are
sufficient to answer the question
2. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I
is not
3. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question

4. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II
is not

Question ID : 441009166156
Option 1 ID : 441009657772
Option 2 ID : 441009657771
Option 3 ID : 441009657773
Option 4 ID : 441009657770
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

445 418 457 430 469 ?

Ans 1. 442

2. 498

3. 428

4. 477

Question ID : 441009152408
Option 1 ID : 441009604788
Option 2 ID : 441009604787
Option 3 ID : 441009604790
Option 4 ID : 441009604789
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.4 Mr. Lakhhan starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the south. He then takes a right
turn, drives 18 km, turns right and drives 32 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km,
turns right and drives 8 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 18 km. He takes a final right
turn, drives 17 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 7 km to the west

2. 8 km to the north

3. 7 km to the east

4. 18 km to the south

Question ID : 441009149644
Option 1 ID : 441009594307
Option 2 ID : 441009594308
Option 3 ID : 441009594306
Option 4 ID : 441009594309
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 Seven boxes, F, G, H, I, L, M and N, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same
order. Only two boxes are kept between I and M. Only N is kept above L. No box is kept below
M. F is kept at some place below H but at some place above G. Which box is kept third above
G?
Ans 1. H

2. I

3. M

4. F

Question ID : 441009136448
Option 1 ID : 441009542196
Option 2 ID : 441009542197
Option 3 ID : 441009542198
Option 4 ID : 441009542195
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is C related to M if ‘C+V÷R–N×M’?
Ans 1. Wife's father

2. Brother

3. Father

4. Wife's brother

Question ID : 441009130770
Option 1 ID : 441009519606
Option 2 ID : 441009519607
Option 3 ID : 441009519608
Option 4 ID : 441009519605
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.7 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

184 + 8 × 15 − 3 ÷ 26 = ?
Ans 1. 4

2. 14

3. 17

4. 23

Question ID : 441009129845
Option 1 ID : 441009515797
Option 2 ID : 441009515795
Option 3 ID : 441009515798
Option 4 ID : 441009515796
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.8 In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be
independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the
statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and select
the correct option.

Statements:
I. The government launched a new health awareness campaign across the country.
II. More people have started opting for regular health check-ups.
Ans 1. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its possible effect.

2. Both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

3. Both Statements I and II are effects of a common cause.

4. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its possible effect.

Question ID : 441009140234
Option 1 ID : 441009557137
Option 2 ID : 441009557138
Option 3 ID : 441009557139
Option 4 ID : 441009557136
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
2, 5, 22
5, 9, 92
Ans 1. 12, 2, 50

2. 10, 5, 34

3. 9, 4, 23

4. 1, 4, 34

Question ID : 441009134054
Option 1 ID : 441009532891
Option 2 ID : 441009532892
Option 3 ID : 441009532890
Option 4 ID : 441009532889
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘DROP’ is coded as ‘3275’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘4136’. What is
the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 3

4. 4

Question ID : 441009130697
Option 1 ID : 441009519323
Option 2 ID : 441009519324
Option 3 ID : 441009519321
Option 4 ID : 441009519322
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

165 148 132 117 103 ?

Ans 1. 82

2. 68

3. 90

4. 75

Question ID : 441009135286
Option 1 ID : 441009537733
Option 2 ID : 441009537735
Option 3 ID : 441009537732
Option 4 ID : 441009537734
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘FILE’ is coded as ‘9543’ and ‘LIFT’ is coded as ‘4253’. How is ‘T’
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

Question ID : 441009150710
Option 1 ID : 441009598078
Option 2 ID : 441009598076
Option 3 ID : 441009598079
Option 4 ID : 441009598077
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.13 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only 2 people sit to the
left of C. Only 3 people sit between F and D, neither of whom sits on the extreme ends. A sits
immediately to the right of G. E sits immediately to the left of F. How many people sit to the
right of D?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

Question ID : 441009135097
Option 1 ID : 441009537019
Option 2 ID : 441009537016
Option 3 ID : 441009537018
Option 4 ID : 441009537017
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.14 A question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and select the most appropriate answer.

Five boxes A, D, F, L, and R are of different weights. How many boxes are heavier than F?
(I) Only A is lighter than L. Only R is heavier than F.
(II) Exactly two boxes are heavier than D. A is lighter than R.
Ans 1. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are
sufficient to answer the question
2. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I
is not
3. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II
is not
4. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question

Question ID : 441009166018
Option 1 ID : 441009657204
Option 2 ID : 441009657203
Option 3 ID : 441009657202
Option 4 ID : 441009657205
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.15 C, D, E, K, L and M live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the
building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is
numbered 6. C lives on the topmost floor. Only three people live between C and L. M lives on
a floor below L. K lives on an even numbered floor. D lives on an odd numbered floor but not
on floor number 5. How many people live between E and L?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

Question ID : 441009136356
Option 1 ID : 441009541844
Option 2 ID : 441009541846
Option 3 ID : 441009541843
Option 4 ID : 441009541845
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All plates are earrings.
All earrings are stones.
All stones are combs.

Conclusions:
(I): All plates are combs.
(II): Some combs are earrings.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Question ID : 441009136474
Option 1 ID : 441009542295
Option 2 ID : 441009542298
Option 3 ID : 441009542296
Option 4 ID : 441009542297
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. VS - OL

2. PM - IF

3. LI - EA

4. TQ - MJ

Question ID : 441009149680
Option 1 ID : 441009594451
Option 2 ID : 441009594450
Option 3 ID : 441009594453
Option 4 ID : 441009594452
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.18 If a water source is placed along X-Y, as shown in the given figure, which of the given options
will be the water reflection of the given figure?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009153401
Option 1 ID : 441009608769
Option 2 ID : 441009608767
Option 3 ID : 441009608766
Option 4 ID : 441009608768
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.19 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,

A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is C related to M if ‘C x V – R ÷ N + M’?

Ans 1. Brother`s wife

2. Husband`s brother`s wife

3. Husband`s brother`s daughter

4. Brother`s daughter

Question ID : 441009140174
Option 1 ID : 441009556894
Option 2 ID : 441009556892
Option 3 ID : 441009556893
Option 4 ID : 441009556895
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT
allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009146541
Option 1 ID : 441009586864
Option 2 ID : 441009586862
Option 3 ID : 441009586861
Option 4 ID : 441009586863
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Section : English
Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted segment in
the given paragraph.

When confronted with injustice, Gandhi didn’t merely rely on law or tradition. Gandhi’s
decision was shaped by his strong sense of right and wrong, not by convenience.
Ans 1. disposition

2. conscience

3. aversion

4. enormity

Question ID : 441009126684
Option 1 ID : 441009503412
Option 2 ID : 441009503414
Option 3 ID : 441009503415
Option 4 ID : 441009503413
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.2 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. By arraying elements in rows and columns, placing like substances in vertical groups,
Mendeleyev accurately predicted that other elements would eventually be discovered.
B. That insight led him to outline the periodic table still in use today.
C. Charting the elements for a textbook in the late 1860’s Russian chemist Dmitry
Mendeleyev noticed similarities in groups of elements based on their atomic weight: Each
element resembled the eighth to follow it.
D. Later, the chart was recognised to reflect the proton count in an atom’s nucleus - an
elephant’s atomic number.
E. It contains 118 elements, as many as 90 of which occur naturally.
Ans 1. E, D, C, B, A

2. C, B, A, D, E

3. D, A, B, E, C

4. A, C, B, E, D

Question ID : 441009148134
Option 1 ID : 441009588407
Option 2 ID : 441009588405
Option 3 ID : 441009588408
Option 4 ID : 441009588406
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The players are accorded _______ aura that outshines the limelight of movie stars.
Ans 1. No article required

2. the

3. a

4. an

Question ID : 441009130006
Option 1 ID : 441009516422
Option 2 ID : 441009516421
Option 3 ID : 441009516419
Option 4 ID : 441009516420
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4 What does the idiom ‘hit a nerve’ mean?
Ans 1. To physically injure someone

2. To ignore someone

3. To successfully complete a difficult task without any problems

4. To provoke a reaction by referring to a sensitive topic

Question ID : 441009126734
Option 1 ID : 441009503612
Option 2 ID : 441009503613
Option 3 ID : 441009503615
Option 4 ID : 441009503614
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the underlined word.

There was a long discussion about the liason between the two departments.
Ans 1. liasion

2. liasson

3. liaison

4. liasen

Question ID : 441009148679
Option 1 ID : 441009590538
Option 2 ID : 441009590539
Option 3 ID : 441009590540
Option 4 ID : 441009590541
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.6 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence and select the option that
rectifies it.

Russians lay claim to their vodka, Americans to their fast-food hegemony and semi-
automatic brovado, while the Japanese enshrine karoshi—the morbid credo of labouring unto
death; for every self-regarding nation cultivates a self-destructive proclivity, a culturally
sanctified vice embraced with defiant fervor, as if to affirm that national identity, however
perilous, is a conviction worth perishing for in the face of foreign derision.
Ans 1. dericion

2. crado

3. bravado

4. procliviety

Question ID : 441009126880
Option 1 ID : 441009504207
Option 2 ID : 441009504205
Option 3 ID : 441009504204
Option 4 ID : 441009504206
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is needed, select 'No article
required'.

He was ______ Einstein of the class.

Ans 1. the

2. No article required

3. an

4. a

Question ID : 441009220743
Option 1 ID : 441009865690
Option 2 ID : 441009865692
Option 3 ID : 441009865691
Option 4 ID : 441009865693
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Voyager 1 mission stands as a testament to human ingenuity and ________________,

pushing the boundaries of our understanding of the cosmos and inspiring generations to
come.
Ans 1. tranquil

2. bliss

3. curiosity

4. captivity

Question ID : 441009220385
Option 1 ID : 441009864259
Option 2 ID : 441009864258
Option 3 ID : 441009864261
Option 4 ID : 441009864260
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted phrase in the
following sentence.

He was caught in (a/an) extremely confusing, complicated or difficult situation and didn’t
know how to escape it. Miscommunication and assumptions had only made things worse,
and every attempt to fix one problem seemed to create two more.
Ans 1. quandary

2. imbroglio

3. labyrinth

4. dilemma

Question ID : 441009145137
Option 1 ID : 441009576517
Option 2 ID : 441009576518
Option 3 ID : 441009576520
Option 4 ID : 441009576519
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The lack of reliable weather forecasting threw the rescue operations into turmoil during the
disaster.
Ans 1. Resistance

2. Fuss

3. Turbulence

4. Quiet

Question ID : 441009161404
Option 1 ID : 441009639272
Option 2 ID : 441009639270
Option 3 ID : 441009639269
Option 4 ID : 441009639271
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 Select the most appropriate verb to fill in the blank.

In his childhood, Gandhi often ___ the teachings of mythological figures into personal vows of
truth and sacrifice.

Ans 1. internalised

2. shivered

3. assembled

4. galloped

Question ID : 441009126583
Option 1 ID : 441009503023
Option 2 ID : 441009503022
Option 3 ID : 441009503021
Option 4 ID : 441009503020
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

You cannot make an omelette without breaking eggs.

Ans 1. It is hard to achieve important things without some unpleasantness.

2. It is always a good idea to be prepared for a big mess after a real feast.

3. It is terribly difficult to avoid mess when you want to prepare something special.

4. It is a messy affair to aspire to make a good English omlette.

Question ID : 441009220997
Option 1 ID : 441009866699
Option 2 ID : 441009866700
Option 3 ID : 441009866701
Option 4 ID : 441009866698
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The speech was intentionally vague, lacking clear arguments or conclusions.

Ans 1. Definite

2. Formal

3. Blunt

4. Critical

Question ID : 441009147467
Option 1 ID : 441009585694
Option 2 ID : 441009585696
Option 3 ID : 441009585693
Option 4 ID : 441009585695
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. Though shy, I was always punctual and regular in my school attendance.
B. In fact, school was a place of duty, not delight.
C. Moreover, I had few friends and often spent time by myself.
D. I disliked physical games and preferred solitude.
Ans 1. ABDC

2. CADB

3. DCBA

4. ADCB

Question ID : 441009126595
Option 1 ID : 441009503067
Option 2 ID : 441009503066
Option 3 ID : 441009503064
Option 4 ID : 441009503065
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The hikers set up their tents ___________ the clearing, surrounded by the dense forest.
Ans 1. in

2. at

3. around

4. on

Question ID : 441009220296
Option 1 ID : 441009863902
Option 2 ID : 441009863904
Option 3 ID : 441009863903
Option 4 ID : 441009863905
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer questions that follow.

“The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics
owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher,
presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the
imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been
questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one
who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be
misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.”

“From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of
lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward
actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or
suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent
simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of
my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and
strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth;
one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became
visible in every aspect of life.”

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 According to the passage, what effect did the incident have on the author?
Ans 1. It made him fearful of punishment.

2. It motivated him to avoid teachers.

3. It deepened his interest in physical education.

4. It reinforced his commitment to truth and careful conduct.

Question ID : 441009126928
Option 1 ID : 441009504395
Option 2 ID : 441009504394
Option 3 ID : 441009504393
Option 4 ID : 441009504392
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer questions that follow.

“The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics
owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher,
presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the
imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been
questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one
who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be
misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.”

“From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of
lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward
actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or
suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent
simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of
my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and
strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth;
one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became
visible in every aspect of life.”

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Why was the author fined by the teacher?
Ans 1. He skipped school without permission and went for a picnic.

2. He was dishonest about his absence and lied to his teacher.

3. He arrived late to gymnastics and his explanation was not accepted.

4. He failed to complete his assignment and threw his book.

Question ID : 441009126929
Option 1 ID : 441009504398
Option 2 ID : 441009504397
Option 3 ID : 441009504399
Option 4 ID : 441009504396
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer questions that follow.

“The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics
owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher,
presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the
imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been
questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one
who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be
misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.”

“From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of
lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward
actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or
suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent
simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of
my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and
strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth;
one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became
visible in every aspect of life.”

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 What can be inferred about the author's understanding of truth after the incident?
Ans 1. He started viewing truth as a complete way of life.

2. He learned that emotions should be hidden.

3. He avoided telling personal stories thereafter.

4. He believed truth is only about what is spoken.

Question ID : 441009126930
Option 1 ID : 441009504402
Option 2 ID : 441009504403
Option 3 ID : 441009504401
Option 4 ID : 441009504400
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer questions that follow.

“The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics
owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher,
presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the
imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been
questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one
who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be
misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.”

“From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of
lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward
actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or
suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent
simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of
my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and
strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth;
one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became
visible in every aspect of life.”

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘vigilant’ as used in the passage.
Ans 1. Prudent

2. Watchful

3. Distracted

4. Unremarkable

Question ID : 441009126931
Option 1 ID : 441009504407
Option 2 ID : 441009504404
Option 3 ID : 441009504406
Option 4 ID : 441009504405
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer questions that follow.

“The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics
owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher,
presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the
imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been
questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one
who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be
misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.”

“From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of
lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward
actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or
suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent
simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of
my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and
strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth;
one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became
visible in every aspect of life.”

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 What is the overall tone of the passage?
Ans 1. Bitter

2. Cynical

3. Reflective

4. Sarcastic

Question ID : 441009126932
Option 1 ID : 441009504409
Option 2 ID : 441009504408
Option 3 ID : 441009504411
Option 4 ID : 441009504410
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1