08-10-2025

6001CMD30303225006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Water waves are of the nature :

(1) Transverse
(2) Longitudinal
(3) Sometimes longitudinal and some times transverse and longitudinal both
(4) Neither transverse nor longitudinal

2) A thunder tap is heard 5.5 second after the lightning flash. The distance of the flash is (velocity of
sound in air is 330 m/sec.) :-

(1) 3560 m
(2) 300 m
(3) 1780 m
(4) 1815 m

3) If at a place the speed of a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz is V, the speed of another wave of
frequency 150 Hz at the same place will be:

(1) V
(2) V/2
(3) 2V
(4) 4V

4) Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of
amplitudes of A and B is-

(1)
(2) k1/k2
(3)
(4) k2/k1

5) The equation y = 4 + 2 sin (6t – 3x) represents a wave motion with

(1) amplitude 6 units

(2) amplitude 4 units
(3) wave speed 2 units
(4) wave speed 1/2 units
6) The equation of a progressive wave are , where x is in meter and t is in
second. The frequency and velocity of wave are

(1) 100 Hz, 5 m/s

(2) 300 Hz, 100 m/s
(3) 100 Hz, 330 m/s
(4) 30 m/s, 5 Hz

7) The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal travelling waves are given by
Wave 1 : y(x,t) = (2cm) sin(3x–6t)
Wave 2 : y(x,t) = (3cm) sin(4x–12t)
Wave 3 : y(x,t) = (4cm) sin(5x–11t)
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves :

(1) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(2)
speed.
(3) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(4)
speed.

8) Intensity ratio of two waves is 9:1 then the ratio of their maximum and minimum intensities will
be :-

(1) 10 : 8
(2) 7 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

9)

Column I Column II
Particles of the medium vibrate
A Longitudinal waves P p e r p e n d i c u l a r t o t h e w a v e
propagation.
Two progressive waves of slightly
different frequencies
B Transverse waves Q
superimpose in the same
direction
Two progressive waves of same
C Beats R frequency superimpose in the
opposite directions
Particles of the medium vibrate
D Stationary waves S
along the wave propagation
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
10) The end correction of resonance tube is 1 cm. If lowest resonant length is 15 cm then next
resonant length will be :-

(1) 36 cm
(2) 45 cm
(3) 46 cm
(4) 47 cm

11) The x - t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The

acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If the tension in a sonometer wire is made four times then fundamental frequency of vibration
changes by :

(1) 4 times
(2) (1/4) times
(3) 2 times
(4) (1/2) times

13) A set of 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that each fork gives 4 beats per second with
the previous one. The frequency of the last fork is 3 times that of first. The frequency of first fork is :

(1) 110
(2) 60
(3) 56
(4) 65

14) If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds
of a transverse wave along the string is:

(1)
(2)
(3) 1:2
(4) 1:1

15) An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27°C resonates at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled
with the same gas at 90°C, the resonance frequency at the same mode will be :-

(1) 420 Hz
(2) 440 Hz
(3) 484 Hz
(4) 512 Hz

16) The total energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass 2kg is 9 joules. If its potential energy at mean
position is 5 joules, its K.E. at the mean position will be :

(1) 9J
(2) 14J
(3) 4J
(4) 11J

17)

Newton's formula for the velocity of sound in gases is: [Symbols have their usual meaning]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of temperature of a body in degree Celsius and degree

Fahrenheit. Then

(1) slope of line AB is 9/5

(2) slope of line AB is 5/9
(3) slope of line AB is 1/9
(4) slope of line AB is 3/9

19) The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.15% when its temperature is raised by 24°C. The
coefficient of linear expansion of metal is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) The temperature of a pendulum, the time period of which is t, is raised by ΔT. The change in its
time period is:

(1)

(2) 2αtΔT

(3)

(4) 2αΔT

21) At STP a rod is hung from a frame as shown in figure, leaving a small gap between the rod and
floor. The frame and rod system is heated uniformly upto 350 K. Then

(1) The rod will never touch the floor in any case.
(2) If αrod > αframe, then rod may touch the floor.
(3) If αrod < αframe, then rod may touch the floor.
(4) None of the above

22) Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated

(1) Both d1 and d2 will decrease

(2) Both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase

23) Assertion : When a rod lying freely is heated no thermal stress is developed in it
Reason : On heating the length of the rod increases

(1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) If assertion & reason both are false.

24) A person is talking in a small room and the sound intensity level is 60 dB everywhere within the
room. If there are eight people talking simultaneously in the room, what is the sound intensity level ?

(1) 60 dB
(2) 69 dB
(3) 74 dB
(4) 81 dB

25) Statement–I: Sound waves transfer both energy and momentum.

Statement II: Both transverse and longitudinal waves propagate in a solid
Choose the correct statement

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect

26) Frequency of the wave is 50 Hz, length is 1 meter and mass of string is 10 gm. What is tension in
the string?

(1) 10 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 200 N

27) Wave pulse on a string shown in figure is moving to the right without changing shape. Consider
two particles at positions x1 = 1.5 m and x2 = 2.5 m. Their transverse velocities at the moment

shown in figure are along directions :

(1) positive y–axis and positive y–axis respectively

(2) negative y–axis and positive y–axis respectively
(3) positive y–axis and negative y–axis respectively
(4) negative y–axis and negative y–axis respectively

28) In a string transverse wave speed is 100 m/s and frequency is 500 Hz and amplitude is 2 × 10–2
m. Its wave equation is :-

Y = 2 × 10–2 sin
(1)

(2) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (1000πt – 10πx)

(3) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (500πt – πx)
(4) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (200πt – 10πx)

29) Two waves represented by :

and
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-

(1) zero
(2) 2a
(3) a
(4)

30) If then find ratio of maximum to minimum amplitude :-

(1) 11 : 1
(2) 121 : 1
(3) 6 : 5
(4) 81 : 1

31) A transverse wave is described by the equation Y = Y0 sin 2π(ft – x/λ). The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if

(1) λ = π Y0/4
(2) λ = π Y0/2
(3) λ = π Y0
(4) λ = 2π Y0

32) Sound waves of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enter into another
medium with speed of 2v m/s. Wavelength of sound waves in the second medium is :-

(1) λ

(2)

(3) 2λ
(4) 4λ
33) Two waves with same amplitude and wavelength travel in opposite directions with equal speed
in a medium. When the waves are superimposed the phenomenon observed is

(1) Stationary waves

(2) Harmonic travelling waves
(3) Beats
(4) Polarisation

34) Which of the following properties of a wave does not change with a change in medium ?

(1) Frequency
(2) Wavelength
(3) Velocity
(4) Amplitude

35) The amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency is reduced to one-fourth . The intensity of
sound at the same point will become:-

(1) 2 times
(2) 4 times

(3)
times

(4)
times

36) If the magnitude of displacement is numerically equal to that of acceleration, then the time
period is

(1) 1 second
(2) π second
(3) 2π second
(4) 4π second

37) The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is equal to the first overtone frequency of an
open organ pipe. If the length of the open pipe is 60 cm. What is the length of the closed pipe ?

(1) 15 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 7.5 cm
38) The total spring constant of the system as shown in the figure will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A particle executes simple harmonic motion according to equation 4 . Its time
period of oscillation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

Two sources have frequency 256 Hz and 258 Hz. Then time difference between two consecutive
maxima is:

(1) 1s
(2) 0.5s
(3) 2ms
(4) None

41) A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a frequency f. The frequency with which its
kinetic energy oscillates is :-

(1)

(2) f
(3) 2f
(4) 4f

42) The scale on a steel metre stick is calibrated at 15°C. What is the error in the reading of 60 cm
at 27°C? (αsteel = 1.2 × 10–5/°C)

(1) 0.00864 mm
(2) 0.00864 m
(3) 0.00864 cm
(4) 0.00864 μm

43) Match the column with scale of temperature and its range -

Column-1 Column-2

(A) Celsius scale (P) 32° to 212°

(B) Fahrenheit scale (Q) 0° to 100°

(C) Kelvin scale (R) 273.15 to 373.15

(1) A → P, B→ R, C→ Q
(2) A → Q, B→ P, C→ R
(3) A → P, B→ Q, C→ R
(4) A → R, B→ Q, C→ P

44) A bar of iron is 10 cm at 20°C. At 19°C it will be (αFe = 11 × 10–6/°C)

(1) 11 × 10–6 cm longer

(2) 11 × 10–6 cm shorter
(3) 11 × 10–5 cm shorter
(4) 11 × 10–5 cm longer

45) The phase difference between the displacement and acceleration of particle executing SHM in
radian is:-

(1)

(2)

(3) π
(4) 2π

CHEMISTRY

1) The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2–

2) What is the common name of the following structure

(1) Ethyl methyl ketone

(2) Methyl n-propyl ketone
(3) Dimethyl ketone
(4) None of these

3) The correct structural formula of the compound 1, 3-dimethylcyclohexene is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

5) In homologous series, consecutive member has difference of mol. wt. is :

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 14
(4) 15
6) In , hybridization at C1, C4 and C7 are respectively :-

(1) sp, sp2, sp2

(2) sp, sp, sp2
(3) sp2, sp2, sp
(4) sp2, sp, sp

7) The configuration of the compound is

(1) E
(2) R
(3) S
(4) Z

8) Stereoisomers of which of the following will be optically active ?

(1) Butane
(2) 4-Methylheptane
(3) 3-Methylheptane
(4) 2-Methylpentane

9) Most stable conformation of ethylene glycol among the following is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10) IUPAC name of is :-

(1) Acetic anhydride

(2) Methanoic anhydride
(3) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
(4) Ethanoic anhydride

11) Which is ring chain isomer?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

12) Number of carbon atoms in the principle carbon chain in the given compound are :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

13) IUPAC name of following :

(1) 5,6-Dimethyl-2-Ethyl dec-4-ene

(2) 5,6-Diethyl-2-methyl dec-4-ene
(3) 1, 2, 9-Trimethyl-dec-4-ene
(4) 2-methyl-5, 6-diethyl-dec-4-ene

14) Which of the following represent incorrect numbering.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Calculate total geometrical isomers in

CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = CH – Ph

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 20

16) Which of the following has/have Z-configuration :-

(1) Only A
(2) A, B & D
(3) A ,B & C
(4) B & D

17) In the given conformation, C2 is rotated about C2–C3 bond anticlockwise by an angle of 120°, then
the conformation obtained is :-

(1) Fully eclipsed

(2) Partially eclipsed
(3) Gauche
(4) Anti-Staggred

18) CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3 &

CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
are :-

(1) Position-isomer
(2) Chain-isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) None of the above

19) Which are enantiomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) Total number of structural isomers having alcohol functional group possible for C4H10O

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

21) Out of following, which has same hybridisation as that of central atom of CO2 ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3

(2)

(3) CH ≡ CH
(4) H3C–CH2–OH

22)

Which one is not a D-sugar?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) Which of the following is most stable conformer of ethane ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

24) With respect to the conformers of ethane,

Statement I : Bond angle changes.
Statement II : Bond length changes.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

25) Match the following List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Benzene (1) Heterocyclic

(B) Pyridine (2) Alicyclic

(C) Cycloalkane (3) Aliphatic

(D) Alkane (4) Aromatic

The correct match is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Match the following Column-I with Column-II.

 Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (Degree of unsaturation)

(A) (P) 2

(B) (Q) 3

(C) C4H4O4 (R) 1

(D) (S) 4

(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)

(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(Q); (D)–(S)

27) Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Position - Isomer

(2) Metamer

Functional -
(3)
Isomer

&
(4) Metamer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Which of the followings is isooctane :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None

29) Which of the following is not a pair of a homologous series ?

(1)
&

(2) &

(3)
&

(4)

30) What is the relation between 3-Ethylpentane and 3-Methylhexane ?

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) No relation

31) How many π and σ bonds are in the given compound ?

(1) 3π and 6σ bonds

(2) 3π and 7σ bonds
(3) 2π and 7σ bonds
(4) 4π and 8σ bonds

32) Which of the following pairs represent isomer?

(1) CH3–CH3, CH3–CH2–CH3

(2) H2C=CH–OH, CH3–O–CH3

(3)

(4) All of these

33) CH3 —NH— C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of Isomerism

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

34) The compound which has one isopropyl group is :

(1) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethyl pentane

(2) 2,2-Dimethyl pentane
(3) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane
(4) 2-Methyl pentane

35) Assertion: Alkanes show conformational isomerism

Reason: Due to restricted rotation around the carbon-carbon double bond in alkanes

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

36) are

(1) Position isomers only

(2) Metamers only
(3) Both position & meta isomers
(4) They are not isomers

37) Number of 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° C present in compound are respectively

(1) 7, 4, 5 and 1
(2) 7, 3, 4 and 1
(3) 7, 3, 5 and 1
(4) 7, 4, 4 and 1

38) Statement-I :- Meso compounds are optically inactive due to internal compensation.
Statement-II :- Racemic mixture is optically inactive due internal compensation.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I & Statement II both are correct
(3) Statement I & Statement II both are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
39) In structure how many hetero atoms are present ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) IUPAC name of the given compound is:

(1) Propane-1, 2, 3-triol

(2) Glycerol
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

41) What is the common name of the following structure

CH2 = CH - CH2Br

(1) Tert-butyl bromide

(2) Isobutyl bromide
(3) n-butyl bromide
(4) Allyl bromide

42) How many of the following functional groups is given priority over –CHO while naming the
compound according to IUPAC system.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 6

43) Functional group isomerism not possible in :-

(1) Alcohol
(2) Aldehyde
(3) Alkyl halide
(4) Cyanide

44) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
(Compounds) (Relation)
 (i) (P) Homologues

Functional
(ii) (Q) group
isomers

(iii) (R) Metamers

Position
(iv) (S)
isomers

(1) (i)→R; (ii)→S; (iii)→Q; (iv)→P

(2) (i)→P; (ii)→Q; (iii)→R; (iv)→S
(3) (i)→P; (ii)→R; (iii)→Q; (iv)→S
(4) (i)→S; (ii)→R; (iii)→Q; (iv)→P

45) Geometrical isomerism is not shown by-

(1) Pent 1 ene

(2) Pent 2 ene
(3) 1 Chloropent 2 ene
(4) 2 Chloropent 2 ene

BOTANY

1) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular oxygen with
synthesis of ATP, the site of this process located-

(1) In the matrix of the mitochondria

(2) In the cytoplasm
(3) In the intermembrane space of mitochondria
(4) On the inner membrane of the mitochondria

2) The common phase between aerobic & anaerobic respiration is

(1) TCA cycle

(2) Kreb's cycle
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Photorespiration

3) Which of the following is the energy yielding step of glycolysis ?

(1) Glucose Glucose - 6 - phosphate

(2) 1, 3 BPGA PGA
(3) Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate PGAL
(4) Phosphoglycerate Phosphoenolpyruvate

4) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and is present in all living organisms. Scheme of
glycolysis was given by

(1) G. Embden, [Link], [Link]

(2) G. Embden, O. Meyerhof, M. Calvin
(3) G. Embden, J Parnas, A. Benson
(4) G. Embden, O. Meyerhof, J. Parnas

5) Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A): It would be better to consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway
Reason (R): The respiratory pathway is Involved in both anabolism and catabolism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below:

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

6) Assertion (A): Plants have systems in place that ensure the availability of oxygen.
Reason (R): Plants require oxygen for respiration to occur and they also give out CO2.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) Both (A) & (R) are not correct

7) Which of the following is formed during TCA cycle?

(1) Pyruvic acid

(2) PGAL
(3) Malic acid
(4) All of these

8) Kreb's cycle starts with

(1) Condensation of malic acid with acetyl group and CO₂ to yield citric acid
(2) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA and water to yield citric acid
(3) Condensation of a-KGA with OAA and water to yield citric acid
(4) Condensation of oxalo succinic acid with acetyl CO A and water to yield citric acid.

9) RQ of Tripalmitin is

(1) More than one

(2) Less than one
(3) Zero
(4) Equal to one

10) Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is

catalyzed by:

(1) Aldolase
(2) Enolase
(3) Hexokinase
(4) Phosphofructokinase

11) Match List - I with List - II

List-I List-II

(a) ETS complex-l (i) Cyt bc1

Cyt a, a3 and 2 copper

(b) ETS complex-II (ii)
centres

(c) ETS complex-III (iii) NADH dehydrogenase

Ubiquinone and FADH

(d) ETS complex-IV (iv)
dehydrogenase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c).(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

12) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II
(Steps of respiration) (Site)

Inner mitochondrial
A Glycolysis i
membrane

B TCA cycle ii Stroma of chloroplast

C ETS iii Mitochondrial matrix

 D Link reaction iv Cytoplasm
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-iii

13) Assertion (A): ATP acts as energy currency of the cell.

Reason(R): ATP is broken down when ever energy needs to be utilized in a cell.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are not correct

14) Assertion (A): In a coupled reaction GTP is converted into GDP with simultaneous synthesis of
ATP from ADP.
Reason (R): GTP is synthesised by substrate level phosphorylation during EMP pathway.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect

15) Identify the correct labelling for the given figure:

(1) B - F1; C - Fo
D - outer mitochondrial membrane;
(2)
E - matrix
(3) C - F1; D - Inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) A - 2H+; D - matrix

16) Match the following column I with column II

Column II (No. of
Column I
carbons present in
(Name of the compound)
that compounds)
 i Ketoglutaric acid a 6C

ii Pyruvic acid b 5C

iii Citric acid c 4C

iv Fumaric acid d 3C
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

17) Match the following w.r.t. RQ

Column II
Column I
(Respiratory
R.Q
substrate)

a Fats i 0.9

b Glucose ii 0.7

c Proteins iii One

iv More than one

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i

18) Read the following statements

(a) Roots, stems and leaves respire at rates for higher than animals do.
(b) The break down of C-C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading
to release of Considerable amount of energy.
(c) Fermentation takes place under anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes.

(1) All are correct except 'a'

(2) All are correct except 'b'
(3) All are incorrect except 'a'
(4) All statements are true

19) Identify the correct set of statements:

(a) There is very little transport of gases from one plant part to another.
(b) The complete oxidation of glucose produces CO2 and H2O as end products.
(c) Yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 percent.
(d) NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather slowly in fermentation, however the reaction is very vigorous in
case of aerobic respiration.
Choose the correct answer from options given below:

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d

20) Statement-I: Cytochrome 'c' is a small protein remain attached to outer surface of inner
mitochondrial membrane.
Statement-II: Cytochrome 'c' is a mobile e carrier between complex-III and IV of mitochondrial
ETS.
Options:

(1) Only statement-l is correct

(2) Only statement-ll is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

21) The reaction

Pyruvate Acetyl CoA is called :-

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Substrate Level phosphorylation

22) Identify A-E in the given figure:

A-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid

B-Lactic acid
(1) C-3-Phosphoglyceric acid
D-Ethanol + CO2
E-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
A-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
B-3-Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) C-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
D-Ethanol + CO2
E- Lactic acid
 A-Lactic acid
B-Ethanol + CO2
(3) C-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
D-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
E-3-Phosphoglyceric acid
A-3-Phosphoglyceric acid
B-Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
(4) C-Lactic acid
D-Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
E - Ethanol + CO2

23) Enzyme of Kreb's cycle is found attached to inner mitochondrial membrane?

(1) Citrate synthase

(2) Malic dehydrogenase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

24) How many molecules of NADH2 are yielded from two TCA cycles?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

25) Who elucidated citric Acid cycle?

(1) Hans Krebs

(2) Charles Elton
(3) Meyerhoff
(4) Melvin Calvin

26) What is the net gain of ATP from one molecule of glucose in one complete glycolysis?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Term glycolysis has originated from

(1) The Greek word

(2) The Latin word
(3) The French word
(4) The Italian word

28) During EMP pathway, fructose 1, 6 bi phosphate splits into.

(1) PGA and PGAL
(2) DHAP and PGAL
(3) PEP and PGA
(4) G-3P and Pyruvic acid

29) How many redox-equivalents are removed from PGAL to form NADH+H+

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

30) What is the net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose.

(1) 28
(2) 38
(3) 40
(4) 02

31) The terminal e– acceptor in mitochondrial ETS is

(1) Cytochrome a3
(2) Cytochrome-a
(3) Oxygen
(4) FADH

32) How many molecules of ATP are produced by oxidation of 4 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 molecules
respectively?

(1) 8 and 3
(2) 16 and 9
(3) 12 and 2
(4) 4 and 3

33) Fate of pyruvic acid depends on

(1) The availability of nitrogen

(2) The cellular needs
(3) The non availability of ATP and NADPH2
(4) More than one option is correct

34) Match the column I with column II

Column I
Column II
(Final hydrogen acceptor)
 A ETS I Pyruvate

B Alcoholic fermentation II Acetaldehyde

C Lactic acid fermentation III Oxygen

(1) A-III; B-I; C-II
(2) A-I; B-III; C-II
(3) A-III; B-II; C-I
(4) A-II; B-III; C-I

35) In glycolysis, chain of how many reactions occur under the control of different enzymes?

(1) 08
(2) 05
(3) 10
(4) 20

36) Select the statement which is not related to fermentation

(1) It accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose

(2) It gives only 2ATP as net for glucose degradation upto pyruvic acid
(3) NADH is oxidized slowly as compared to aerobic respiration
(4) ETS gives 11ATP for each Krebs cycle

37) Number of acetyl Co-A formed from one molecule of glucose is

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Six

38) Complexes involve in electron transport during ETS in mitochondria?

(1) Complex I, Complex II, Complex III, Complex IV only

(2) Complex II, Complex III, Complex IV and Complex V
(3) Complex V only
(4) Complex III, Complex IV and Complex V only

39) Connecting link between EMP pathway and TCA cycle.

(1) Link reaction

(2) Formation of Acetyl Co-A
(3) Gate way reaction
(4) More than one option are correct

40) In alcohol fermentation, ____ of energy in glucose in released & not all of it is trapped as high
energy bonds of ATP.
(1) Less than 1%
(2) More than 10%
(3) Less than 7%
(4) More than 40%

41) RQ value of tripalmitin is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Select out correct sequence of glycolytic steps

(1) PGAL →13, BIPGA → 3-PGA → PEP

(2) PGAL → PEP → 1,3,BiPGA → 2-PGA
(3) PGAL → DHAP → PEP → 1,3 BiPGA
(4) Pyruvic acid → PGAL → PEP → 1,3 BiPGA

43) Enzyme enolase is involving in which of the following reaction.

3-phyosphoglyceric acid
(1)
2-phosphuglyceric acid
(2) 2-PEP pyruvic acid + CO2
2-phyosphoglyceric acid
(3)
2-PEP + H2O
(4) DHAP PGAL

44) Number of CO2 molecules are released during TCA cycle

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Ten

45) Which of the following enzymes is involved in fermentation?

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

(2) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Citrate dehydrogenase
 ZOOLOGY

1) Given below are some statements :

I. Members of this class are ectoparasite on some fishes.
II. Bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits.
III. Circular mouth without jaw.
IV. Member of this class are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
How many statements belong to class cyclostomata ?

(1) Only two

(2) Only three
(3) Only one
(4) All four

2) Read the following statements:

(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct

3) Animal belonging the phylum mollusca are : –

(1) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate.

(2) Radial symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate.
(3) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate.
(4) Radial symmetrical, diploblastic, coelomate.

4) Chordates are characterized by some specific characters. Which of the following is not true about
chordates?

(1) Notochord is present

(2) Dorsal myogenic heart is present
(3) A post-anal tail is present
(4) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits

5) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II
 Jointed
(a) Asterias (i)
appendages

Canal
(b) Sycon (ii)
system

Excretory
(c) Apis (iii) system is
absent

(d) Nereis (iv) Parapodia

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

6) In the given diagram chordata characteristics are represented. Find correct name of A,B,C and D

respectively :-

(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Gill Slits, Post anal part

(2) Nerve cord, Notochord, Gill Slits, Post anal part
(3) Notochord, Gill Slits, Nerve cord, Post anal part
(4) Nerve cord, Post anal part, Gill Slits,Notochord

7) True coelom is the space between wall of alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by the layers of

(1) Mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other

(2) Endoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other
(3) Mesoderm on both sides
(4) Ectoderm on both sides

8) Which statement is incorrect about annelids ?

(1) Members of this phylum are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and pseudocoelomates.
(2) Close type circulatory system.
(3) Nephridia helps in excretion and osmoregulation.
(4) Longitudinal and circular muscles are found

9) Out of following which animals is not vector ?

(1) Anopheles
(2) Apis
(3) Culex
(4) Aedes

10) Three pairs of legs are found in :-

(1) Crab
(2) Spider
(3) Locust
(4) Planaria

11) What is the most unique feature of mammals.

(1) Presence of diaphragm

(2) Mammary gland
(3) Warm blooded
(4) 4-chambered heart

12) Which points are correct about the given animal ? (A) Diploblastic, Radial
symmetry
(B) Sexes are separate
(C) Exclusively marine
(D) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, C
(4) B, C, D

13) Which animal has been placed in wrong habitat?

(1) Hydra - Fresh water

(2) Spongilla - Fresh water
(3) Pennatula - Sea water
(4) Ctenoplana - Fresh water

14) Identify (A, B, C) the types of animals w.r.t. the presence or absence of body cavities:-
 A B C
(1) Coelomate Pseudo-coelomate Acoelomate
(2) Acoelomate Coelomate Pseudo-coelomate
(3) Acoelomate Pseudo-coelomate Coelomate
(4) Pseudo-coelomate Coelomate Acoelomate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Heart is always four chambered in :-

(1) Mammals
(2) Aves
(3) Reptiles
(4) Both (1) and (2)

16) The digestive tract has additional chambers, the crop and gizzard in

(1) Calotes
(2) Corvus
(3) Macropus
(4) Pteropus

17) Segmentation is present in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata
(4) Echinodermata, Arthropoda, Aschelminthes

18) Identify the following animals and their classes and select the correct option ?
 A = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia
(1) B = Chelone; Class : Reptilia
C = Pteropus; Class : Mammalia
A = Calotes; Class : Reptilia
(2) B = Chelone; Class : Reptilia
C = Psittacula; Class : Aves
A = Chameleon; Class : Reptilia
(3) B = Ornithorhynchus; Class : Mammalia
C = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia
A = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia
(4) B = Ornithorhunchus; Class : Mammalia
C = Chameleon; Class : Reptilia

19) The members of phylum Arthropoda and Annelida are common in

(1) Having triploblastic and acoelomate condition

(2) Having parapodia for locomotion and open circulation
(3) Having file like rasping organ for feeding
(4) Having organ system level of organization

20) Which one of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda ?

(1) Metameric - segmentation

(2) Parapodia
(3) Jointed appendages
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton

21) Which of the following sentence is/are correct.

(1) Ascaris have well developed muscular pharynx

(2) Digestive system absent in Tape worm
(3) Nereis is an aquatic form of Annelida
(4) All the above

22) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
 Any plane passing
through central axis
(a) of body divides (1)
the organism into two
identical halves

Body can be divided

(b) into identical left and right (2)
halves in only one plane

Any plane that passes

through the centre
(c) (3)
does not divide them into
equal halves

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3

(2) a-3, b-2, c-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-3, c-1

23) Which of the following animals have feathers and hair on body respectively?

(1) Psittacula, Carcharodon

(2) Pavo, Chelone
(3) Elephas, Struthio
(4) Neophron, Pteropus

24) Which of the following is a gregareous pest ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Culex
(3) Locusta
(4) Ascaris

25) Assertion : Osteichthyes have bony endoskeleton.

Reason : They have cycloid or ctenoid scales.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
26) Identify the figure A, B and C respectively ?

(1) Euspongia, Spongilla, Sycon

(2) Spongilla, Euspongia, Sycon
(3) Spongilla, Sycon, Euspongia
(4) Sycon, Euspongia, Spongilla

27) Metagenesis is seen in ?

(1) Meandrina
(2) Adamsia
(3) Obelia
(4) Gorgonia

28) Fill in the blanks :-

In ....a...., the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates, i.e., they exhibit ....b.... of organisation.
Some division of labour (activities) occur among the cells :-

(1) a-sponges, b-cellular level

(2) a-coelentrates, b-tissue level
(3) a-platyhelminthes, b-organ level
(4) a-coelentrates, b-cellular level

29) The excretory organ present in the organism given in figure is

(1) Rennet cells

(2) Protonephridia or flame cells
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Kidney
30) Identify the following animal & this belongs to which phylum/subphylum.

(1) Ascidia, urochordata

(2) Balanoglossus, Hemichordata
(3) Nereis, Annelida
(4) Octopus, Mollusca

31) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Pinctada Pearl oyster Mollusca
ii Chaetopleura Chiton Annelida
iii Pila Tusk shell Mollusca
(1) Only i
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

32) Assertion (A) : Reptiles are the successful terrestrial chordates.

Reason (R) : Mostly reptiles depend on water for reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

33) Animal without notochord is :-

(1) Petromyzon
(2) Saccoglossus
(3) Myxine
(4) Torpedo

34) Assertion : Arthropods possess an open circulatory system.

Reason : Arthropods have jointed appendages and an exoskeleton made of chitin.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
35) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

(1) Macropus
(2) Chelone
(3) Psittacula
(4) Camelus

36) Feather like gills which helps in excretion and respiration are present in :-

(1) Pila
(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Ophiura
(4) Laccifer

37) Match the following columns :

Column-I Column-II
(A) Pennatula (1) Braincoral
(B) Meandrina (2) Sea fan
(C) Gorgonia (3) Sea pen
(D) Adamsia (4) Sea anemone
Option :

(1) A-3; B-2; C-l; D-4

(2) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(3) A-2; B-4; C-l; D-3
(4) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-l

38) Match the column A and B

Column A Column B
(i) Gills (a) Prawn
(ii) Book gills (b) Limulus
(iii) Book Lungs (c) Scorpion
(iv) Tracheal system (d) Cockroach
(1) (i)-a; (ii)-b; (iii)-c; (iv)-d
(2) (i)-b; (ii)-c; (iii)-d; (iv)-a
(3) (i)-c; (ii)-d; (iii)-a; (iv)-b
(4) (i)-d; (ii)-a; (iii)-b; (iv)-c

39) Body is divided into head, and trunk. Skin is moist without scales. Heart is three chambered.
Identify the class ?

(1) Mammal
(2) Bird
(3) Amphibian
(4) Reptile
40) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Hydra
(2) Earthworm
(3) Leech
(4) Ascaris

41) Assertion :- Aves and mammals are homeothermal animals.

Reason :- Aves and mammals are able to maintain a constant body temperature.

(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect

(2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
(4)
Assertion

42) Phylum whose organism may be endoparasites in plants

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Aschelminthis

43) What is the correct sequence of canal system ?

(1) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel

(2) Spongocoel → Osculum → Ostia
(3) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum

44) Water canal system is characteristic feature of :-

(1) Sycon
(2) Sea-urchin
(3) Hydra
(4) Pila

45) Notochord is extended from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life in

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Cephalochordata
(3) Urochordata
(4) All of these
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 1 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 3 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Problem Explanation :
The problem asks about the nature of water waves, whether they are transverse, longitudinal,
or a combination of both.

2. Concept Used : Nature of water waves

3. Formula(s) Used :

4. Calculation in Minimum Steps :

Water waves are typically a combination of both transverse and longitudinal waves, as
particles of water move both perpendicular (up and down) and parallel (forward and
backward) to the wave direction.

Answer :
Water waves are sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse and longitudinal both
(Option 3).

2) distance = speed × time

3) Speed of sound wave is medium dependent term.

4)

5)

6)
Compare general eq.
ω = 200 π ⇒ n = 100 Hz

⇒ = 330 m/s

7) vwave =
vparticle = Aω
On comparing
 vw1 = 2m/s vw2 = 3m/s vw3 =
vp1 = 12cm/s vp2 = 36cm/s vp3 = 44cm/s

8) Question Explanation :
The ratio of their maximum and minimum intensities.
Concept :
This question is based on Interference of wave.
Solution :

9) 1. Explanation (30 words):

The question asks to match types of waves and phenomena (longitudinal, transverse, beats,
and stationary waves) with their respective descriptions based on wave behavior and
characteristics.
2. Concept (20 words):
Longitudinal waves involve particle motion parallel to wave direction, while transverse waves
involve perpendicular particle motion. Beats and stationary waves are phenomena related to
wave superposition.
3. Matching the Statements:

A. A: Longitudinal waves

Longitudinal waves involve particle vibration along the direction of wave propagation. This
corresponds to S: "Particles of the medium vibrate along the wave propagation."

A. B: Transverse waves

Transverse waves involve particle vibration perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. This
corresponds to P: "Particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the wave propagation."

A. C: Beats

Beats occur when two progressive waves of slightly different frequencies superimpose in the same
direction. This corresponds to Q: "Two progressive waves of slightly different frequencies
superimpose in the same direction."

A. D: Stationary waves

Stationary waves occur when two progressive waves of the same frequency superimpose in opposite
directions. This corresponds to R: "Two progressive waves of the same frequency superimpose in the
opposite directions."
4. Conclusion:
The correct matching of Column I and Column II is:

A. A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

Final Answer:
The correct option is A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R.
 10) e = 1 cm ℓ1 = 15 cm

2 = ℓ2 – 45
ℓ2 = 47 cm

11) x = A sin (wt)

12)

13)

Explain question : Find the frequency of the first turning for K in a series of 56 forks.

Concept: This question is based on tuning fork

Solution:
Formula: fn = f1 + (n–1)d
Calculation:

n56 = n + 55 b ⇒ 3n = n + 55 × 4 ⇒ n = 110
Final answer: (1)

14)

15)
16) T.E. = (PE)min + (K.E.)max
9 = 5 + (K.E.)max
(K.E.)max = 4 J
This is KE at mean position

17)

Conceptual.

18) Slope of line AB

19)

20)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how the time period of a simple pendulum changes
when its temperature is increased by , considering that the pendulum's length changes due
to thermal expansion.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is that the length of the pendulum changes with
temperature due to linear thermal expansion, which in turn affects the pendulum's time period
because the time period depends on the square root of its length.

Relevant Formulas: The time period of a simple pendulum: Length expansion

with temperature: New time period:

Step-by-Step Calculation: Using for small , we find:

Change in time period:

Tips and Tricks: Use the binomial approximation for small thermal
expansions to simplify the expression.
Common Mistakes: Forgetting to apply the square root when substituting the expanded
length into the time period formula or ignoring the linear approximation for small expansions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options without the factor are incorrect because the
time period depends on the square root of the length, so the change is half of the relative
change in length. Answers missing the original time period or mixing up factors of and
are incorrect.

21) [Link] Explanation:

A rod is suspended from a frame with a gap between it and the floor. The system is heated
uniformly. We need to determine under what conditions the rod may touch the floor.

2. Concept: Thermal Expansion in solids.

3. Explanation:
- Rod Expansion: The rod will expand according to its coefficient of linear expansion (αrod).
- Frame Expansion: The frame also expands but at a different rate depending on its own
coefficient of expansion (αframe).
If the rod's expansion is greater than that of the frame, it may eventually touch the floor. If the
frame expands more, the gap will remain or even increase.
If the rod's coefficient of thermal expansion (αrod) is greater than that of the frame (αframe), the
rod may touch the floor.

Answer: Option 2 (If αrod > αframe, then the rod may touch the floor.)

22) (1) Asking About:

We need to determine what happens to the sizes of two holes (d1 > d2) in a metal sheet when it
is heated.
(2) Concept:
• Thermal Expansion: When a metal sheet is heated, it expands uniformly in all directions.
• The holes in the sheet behave as if they were solid material expanding outward.
• This means the diameter of each hole increases just as if the hole were made of the same
material as the sheet.
(3) Formula: The expansion of the hole follows the formula:

where:
• d = change in diameter
• d = initial diameter
• = coefficient of linear expansion of the metal
• T = temperature change
(4) Calculation/ Explanation:
• Since both holes are part of the same metal sheet they expand proportionally to their
original sizes.
• Because d1 > d2, the expansion of the larger hole will be greater in absolute terms, but both
will still increase in size.
(5) Final Answer:
Both holes increase in size as the metal sheet expands.
(6) Correct Option:2
Both d1 and d2 increase in size.

23) 1. Question Explanation:

Assessing the validity of two statements: (i) A freely lying heated rod develops no thermal
stress; (i) Heating the rod increases its length.
2. Concept Based:
Thermal stress arises when a material's expansion or contraction is restricted. A free rod can
expand without constraint, preventing stress development. Heating typically causes materials
to expand, increasing length.
3. Formula Used:
Thermal Stress (σ) = Young's Modulus (E) x Coefficient of Thermal Expansion (a) x
Temperature Change (AT).
4. Calculation:
Assertion: A free rod expands upon heating without stress.
Reason: Heating generally increases a material's length.
Answer:
Option 2-Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason does not explain the assertion.

24)

β = 10 log , 60 = 10 log

β = 10 log

= 10 log 8 + 10 log = 30 log 2 + 60 = 69 dB.

25)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to evaluate two statements about waves: first,
whether sound waves transfer both energy and momentum, and second, whether both
transverse and longitudinal waves can propagate in solids. We need to determine whether
these statements are correct or incorrect.

Underlying Concept: Sound waves are mechanical waves that carry energy through a
medium by particle oscillations. Momentum can also be transferred because waves exert
pressure on objects (acoustic radiation pressure). In solids, particles can oscillate in different
ways because of the fixed structure and restoring forces, allowing both longitudinal (particles
move parallel to wave direction) and transverse waves (particles move perpendicular to wave
direction) to propagate.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that gases and liquids typically support only longitudinal waves,
but solids can support both transverse and longitudinal waves due to their rigidity.

Common Mistakes: Assuming sound waves only transfer energy and not momentum, or
thinking transverse waves cannot propagate in solids.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers stating that either sound waves do not transfer
momentum or that solids support only one wave type ignore the physical properties of wave
propagation and the elastic nature of solids.

26)

T = 100 newton

27)

Dotted shape shows pulse position after a short time interval. Direction of the velocities are
decided according to direction of displacements of the particles.
at x = 1.5 slope is +ve x = 1.5 पर ढाल धनामक है ।
at x = 2.5 slope is –ve x = 2.5 पर ढाल ऋणामक है ।

28)

ω = 2πf = 1000π

29)

Δϕ = 90°

30)

31)
32) NCERT Pg. # 369 (15.4)
Frequency remains constant so if speed becomes double then wavelength also becomes
double.

33) Answer (1)

When two waves having same amplitude and wavelength moving in opposite direction are
superposed to each other then stationary wave will be produced.

34) Frequency is property of source.

35)

I = ρVA2ω2 = 2π2ρVA2f2

36)

x = ω2x ⇒ ω = 1

37)

nC = 2nO

ℓC =

38)

39)

40)

Conceptual.
 41) Kinetic energy K = mv2 = ma2ω2 cos2ωt

= mω2a2 (1 + cos 2ωt)

Hence, kinetic energy varies periodically with double the frequency of S.H.M. i.e. 2f

42) ΔI = I αΔT
= 60 × 1.2 × 10–5 × (27 – 15)
= 60 × 1.2 × 12 × 10–5 cm
= 0.00864 cm

43)

Celsius scale ranges from 0°C to 100°C Fahrenheit scale ranges from 32°F to 212°F Kelvin
scale ranges from 273.15 K to 373.15 K unknown scale ranges from x to y.

44) Question Explanation:

When the temperature of a material decreases, its dimensions also decrease.

Concept:
This question based on Linear Thermal Expansion.
Mathematical Calculation:
The change in length (ΔL) is given by:
ΔL = α × L0 × ΔT
Where:

A. ΔL = Change in length
B. α = Coefficient of linear expansion n (11 × 10–6 /°C)
C. L0 = Original length (10 cm)
D. ΔT= Change in temperature (19°C – 20°C = –1 °C)

Substituting the values:

ΔL = (11 × 10–6/°C) × (10 cm) × (–1°C) ΔL = –11 × 10–5 cm
The negative sign indicates a decrease in length.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : 11 × 10–5 cm shorter

45) a = –ω2x
Phase difference between displacement and acceleration is π.

CHEMISTRY

46) Iso group → If – CH3 group attached at 2nd last carbon

47)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Common name of given structure.

Key Concept:
Format Name of Radical + Suffix.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

⇒ Here functional group is having suffix ketone.

⇒ Here alkyl group are –CH2 – CH3 and –CH3. and –CH3.
⇒ Hence its name is "ethyl" and "methyl".
∴ its common name is ethyl methyl Ketone.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

48)

Conceptual.

49)

Conceptual.

50)

Conceptual.

51)

Conceptual.

52) Acc. to CIP Rule : The priority of atoms

are : Br > Cl > CH3 > H

Clockwise rotation (R) configuration

53)
Conceptual.

54)

Conceptual.

55)

56)

Conceptual.

57)
No. of carbons in PCC = 3

58)
5,6-Diethyl-2-methyl dec-4-ene

59)

Conceptual.

60)

Conceptual.

61)

Conceptual.

62)

Conceptual.
63)

Conceptual.

64)

Conceptual.

65)

Conceptual.

66)

Conceptual.

67)

Module Ex-2, [Link] 10

68)

Conceptual.

69) Bond angle & bond length remains same in conformations. But dihedral angle changes.

70) Conceptual

71)

1π bond contain 2e–

72)

Conceptual.

73)

Conceptual.

74) Concept: Members of homologous series have same functional group and different
molecular masses.
Soln/Explanation:
* & have different functional groups. They are not members of same
homologous series.
* R–OH is alcohol and R–O–R' is ether.

75)

Conceptual.

76)

Theory

77)

Conceptual.

78)

CH3 - NH - C2H5 & (CH3)3N

Secondary amine tertiary amine
Both are functional isomer.

79)

Conceptual.

80)

Conceptual.

81)
are both position & meta isomers.

82)
→ 1°C → 7
 → 2°C → 3
→ 3°C → 5
→ 4°C → 1

83)

→ Optical isomer having atleast two chiral carbon and it is optically inactive due to presence of
symmetry element POS/COS are called as Meso compound.
→ Here net rotation is zero since rotation caused by one chiral carbon is equal and opposite to
rotation caused by another chiral carbon. It is also called as internal compensation.
→ Equimolar mixture of enantiomers is called as Bacemic mixture. Bacemic mixture so
optically inactive due to rotation caused by one molecule is equal & opposite to the rotation
caused by another molecule. It is called as External compensation.

84) A. Question Explanation:

We need to identify the number of heteroatoms in the given structure.

B. Given Data

C. Concept:
Heteroatoms are atoms other than carbon present in ring of an organic compound.

D. Answer Explanation:
In the given structure, we can see one oxygen atom. This is the heteroatom present in the
compound.

E. Final Answer:
Option (1)

85)

Conceptual.

86) Question Explanation :

The question asks what is the common name of the following structure.

Concept :
This question is based on Common naming of hydrocarbon derivatives.

Solution :
Common name of hydrocarbon derivaties is given by using name of radical and suffix of
functional group.

This compound have allyl radical and bromide as F4. So common name will allyl bromide.
 Hence,
Option (4) is correct : Allyl bromide

87)

Conceptual.

88)

Alkyl halide do not show F.G. isomerism

89)

Fact.

90)

Explaining the Question :- Identify the compound that do not show geometrical isomerism
[G-I]
Concept:- conditions for G.I.
Solution :- For G.I. across >C = <
Here atom/group of atom attached to double bonded carbon [Restricted atom must be
different]

Final Answer :- 1

BOTANY
91) NCERT Pg. No - 161

92) NCERT Pg. No - 155

93) NCERT Pg. No -156

94) NCERT Pg. No - 156

95) NCERT Pg. No - 162

96) NCERT Pg. No - 154

97) NCERT Pg. No - 159

98) NCERT Pg. No - 157

99) NCERT Pg. No - 164

100) NCERT Pg. No - 156

101) NCERT Pg. No - 160

102) NCERT Pg. No - 155,158,159

103) NCERT Pg. No - 154

104) NCERT Pg. No - 159

105) NCERT Pg. No - 161

106) NCERT Pg. No - 159

107) NCERT Pg. No - 164

108) NCERT Pg. No - 154

109) NCERT Pg. No - 154, 155, 157, 162

110) NCERT Pg. No - 160

111) NCERT Pg. No - 158

112) NCERT Pg. No - 157

113) Allen module - 160

114) NCERT Pg. No -159

115) NCERT Pg. No -158

116) NCERT Pg. No -156

117) NCERT Pg. No - 155

118) NCERT Pg. No - 156

119) NCERT Pg. No - 156

120) NCERT Pg. No - 161

121) NCERT Pg. No - 160

122) Allen module-92

123) NCERT Pg. No - 81

124) NCERT Pg. No - 157

125) NCERT Pg. No - 156

126) ETS gives 11ATP for each Krebs cycle

127) NCERT Pg. No - 158

128) NCERT Pg. No - 160

 129) NCERT Pg. No - 158

130) Less than 7%

131) NCERT Pg. No - 164

132) NCERT Pg. No -156

133) NCERT Pg. No -156

134) NCERT Pg. No -159

135) NCERT Pg. No -157

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT, Pg. # 47, Para-4.2.11

137) Allen module.

138) NCERT- Pg # 53

139) Ncert page 55.

140) [NCERT Pg. 49-54]

141)

Explain Question : Identify the four fundamental characteristics of a chordate, labeled A, B,

C, and D in the provided diagram.

Concept : Chordata - fundamental character

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A. (A) – The structure lying dorsally is the Nerve cord.

B. (B) – The rod-like structure beneath the nerve cord is the Notochord.

C. (C) – The vertical openings in the pharynx are Gill slits.

 D. (D) – The tail region extending beyond the anus is the Post-anal part.

So, the correct sequence is: A → Nerve cord, B → Notochord, C → Gill Slits, D → Post anal part

Final answer : option (2)

142)

Mesoderm on both sides. This is because true body cavity is lined by mesoderm. So on both
sides i.e., towards body wall as well as towards gut wall, this space is enclosed by the layers of
mesoderm.

143)

Explain Question : Which statement is incorrect about annelids?

Concept : Based on phylum Annelida
Explanation : The incorrect option is 1 . Triploblastic, metamerically segmented and
pseudocoelomates → They are true coelomates, not pseudocoelomates.
Pseudocoelomate types of body cavity present in Aschelminthes.

144) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53, Ist - Para

145)

NCERT, Pg. # 53

146) NCERT-XII, Pg # 50

147)

Conceptual

148)

The animal placed in the wrong habitat is Ctenoplana - Fresh water.

Solution: Ctenoplana is a genus of comb jellies (phylum Ctenophora), and all known comb
jellies are exclusively marine organisms.

149) NCERT-XI, Page#48

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 58, 60

151) Corvus
152) Mollusca, Echinodermata, Aschelminthes are not segmented.

153)

Conceptual

154)

Having organ system level of organization

155) NCERT - XI Pg.# 53

156)

All the above

157)

a-3, b-1, c-2

158)

Neophron, Pteropus

159) NCERT Pg.#53, Para-4.2.7

160) NCERT Pg. # 57

161) NCERT XIth (E) Pg.#49

162)

NCERT(XI) Pg # 50

163) NCERT XIth Pg.#46, Last Para

164)

Protonephridia or flame cells

165) NCERT XI, Page # 54, Figure-4.15

 166)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Pinctada, commonly known as the pearl oyster, is a genus of bivalve mollusks known for
producing pearls. These oysters live in marine environments and are significant in the pearl
industry. The production of pearls in Pinctada is a natural defense mechanism to encase
irritants, and these pearls are harvested for their commercial value in jewelry.

167)

NCERT, Pg. # 49

168) NCERT Page No. # 48

Saccoglossus is nonchordate.

169) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

170) Chelone

171) NCERT Page No. # 44,

feather like gills present in mothusea.

172)

A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4

173)

(i)-a; (ii)-b; (iii)-c; (iv)-d

174)

Explanation:
Here's how the clues match with Amphibians:

A. Body divided into head and trunk – Amphibians have a distinct head and trunk region (some
also have a tail).
B. Skin is moist without scales – This is a key characteristic of amphibians. Their skin is smooth,
moist, and used for respiration (along with lungs).
C. Heart is three-chambered – Amphibians have a three-chambered heart (2 atria and 1
ventricle), which is typical of this class.

So, the only class that fits all the given traits is amphibia.
The correct answer is 3. Amphibian
175) NCERT, Pg. # 52

176) NCERT, Pg. # 49, [Link]

177)

Aschelminthis

178) NCERT XIth Pg.#49, Para-1

179) NCERT Pg.#54

180)

Cephalochordata