10-08-2025

9610ZMD801300254001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Evaluate :

7+1+ + + ..... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Find the value of (1 – cos2 15°) + (1 – sin2 15°) = .....

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) –1

(4)

3)

If tan θ = then value of θ are :-

(1) 30°, 150°

(2) 60°, 120°
(3) 150°, 210°
(4) 150°, 330°

4)

The slope angle of straight line 3y = + 3 is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°
5) For ellipse , the co-ordinates of point A and B are respectively :-

(1) (64, 0) & (0, 49)

(2) (0, 7) & (8, 0)
(3) (8, 0) & (0, 7)
(4) (0, 64) & (49, 0)

6) If y = x2 sin x, find :-

(1) x cos x + 2x sin x

(2) x2 sin x + 2x cos x
(3) x2 cos x + 2x sin x
(4) x2 cos x + 2 sin x

7) Consider the following statements -

(A) At macroscopic level grainy nature of charge disappears.
(B) At macroscopic level the quanta of charge is very small hence charge transfer appears
continuous.

(1) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct; (B) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct; but not co-relate.

8) Two equally charged identical metal spheres A and B repel each other with force F. A third
identical sphere initially uncharged is then brought into contact with A and then placed at the mid
point of line joining A and B. The magnitude of net force on C is :-

(1) F

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Three charge particles are in equilibrium under their electrostatics force only :-
(a) all the particles must be collinear
(b) all the particles cannot have same nature of charge.
(c) the equilibrium can not be stable
(d) all the particles have same magnitude of charge.
Then correct statement are :

(1) only a
(2) both a & b
(3) all a, b, c & d
(4) a, b, & c

10) Two charge particles are shown in the diagram. Where should a third charge particle q0 be
placed so q0 will be in equilibrium :-

(1) x = 10 a
(2) x = 8 a
(3) x = 11 a
(4) x = 12 a

11) Four equal charges q0 each, are kept fixed on the vertices of a square of side 'a'. Charge q1 is
kept at the center of the square as shown in the figure. Then which statement is correct. (here
charge q1 is restricted to move perpendicular to XY plane i.e. along z-axis)

(1) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium.

(2) charge q1 is in unstable equilibrium.
(3) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have different (opposite) signs.
(4) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have same signs.

12) Evaluate : ....

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) 1

13) For the graph shown in fig. value of is :-

(1) 5
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) Zero

14) Solve for x :-

10 x2 – 27x + 5 = 0

(1)
x1 = , x2 = 5

(2)
x1 = , x2 = 5

(3)
x1 = , x2 =

(4)
x1 = , x2 =

15) If ℓnx + ℓny = 2ℓnz, then

(1) x + y = 2z
(2) 2xy = z2
(3) z2 = x + y
(4)

16) Resultant of two vectors and is inclined at 45° to either of them. What is the magnitude of
resultant ?

(1) A + B
(2) A – B
(3)
(4)

17) Let = + then :-

(1) | | is always greater then | |

(2) It is possible to have | | < | | and | | < | |
(3) C is always equal to A + B
(4) C is never equal to A + B

18) is resultant of and . If then find θ :-

(1) 75°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

19) If and then which of the following can't be the magnitude of resultant of
:-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

20) Six vectors, through have magnitudes and direction as indicated in the figure. Which of the
following statements is true :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21)

cos2 (20°) is equal to :-

(1) 1 + cos 40°

(2) 1 – cos 40°

(3)

(4)

22)

Which of following can be correct for any value of θ :-

(1) sin θ = –2
(2) cos θ = 2
(3) tan θ = 1000
(4) All

23) The slope of straight line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 3

24) 1012 α-particles (nuclei of helium) fall per second on a neutral sphere, calculate the time in which
the sphere gets charged by 3.2 .

(1) 6.25 sec.

(2) 5 sec.
(3) 10 sec.
(4) 4 sec.

25) The repulsive force between two equal charges (Q) is F. To reduce force by 25% how much
charge is transferred from first to second :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
Q

26) Two pith balls each with mass m are suspended from insulating threads. When the pith balls are
given equal positive charge Q, they hang in equilibrium as shown. We now increase the charge on
the left pith ball from Q to 2Q while leaving its mass essentiallty unchanged. Which of the following
diagrams best represents the new equilibrium configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A charge particle q1 is at position (2, –1, 3). The electrostatic force on another charged particle
q2 at (0, 0, 0) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The projection of vector

on is :-

(1)
(2) ax – ay

(3)

(4) ax + ay + az

29) If , and , then find the angle

between the vectors and .

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

30) If two vectors and are parallel to each other then value of λ be

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Three charges are placed at corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The magnitude
of electric field at centre 'O' due to q is E and total field at centre O is 3E then :-

(1) Q = + 4q
(2) Q = – 2q
(3) Q = – 3q
(4) Both (1) & (2) are possible

32) Variation of electric field along the line joining two charges is given in list-I. Relation between
charges is given in list-II. Match the proper variation. Take electric field along right as positive

List-I List-II

|q1| > |q2|

(P) (1)
q1 < 0; q2 > 0

|q1| = |q2|
(Q) (2)
q1 > 0; q2 > 0

|q1| = |q2|
(R) (3)
q1 < 0; q2 > 0
 |q2| > |q1|
(S) (4)
q1 > 0; q2 > 0

(1) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 4
(2) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3
(3) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
(4) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1

33)

If linear charge density of a wire of length L depends on distance x from one end as λ = . Find
total charge of wire.

(1) λ0L
(2) λ0L/2
(3) λ0L/4
(4) None of the above

34) In the figure shown, find the ratio of the linear charge densities λ1 (on semi-infinite straight wire)
and λ2 (on semi-circular part) that is λ1/λ2 so that the field at O is along y direction.

(1) 2
(2) 1.5
(3) 3
(4) 2.5

35) A block of mass m (= 10 kg) and charge Q (= 2 C) is kept on smooth incline plane as shown. It is

in equilibrium when a horizontal electric field is switched on in the region, then the angle

of inclination of the incline plane is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A long thin rod with charge of λ per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a. The
maximum flux of the electric field through the cube will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Electric field at x = 10 m is 100 V/m and at x = –10 m is –100 V/m. The magnitude of charge

enclosed by the cube of side 20 cm is : (centre of cube is at origin)

(1) 8 ε0
(2) 2 ε0
(3) 3 ε0
(4) 5 ε0

38) The curve represents the distribution of potential along the straight line joining the two charges
Q1 and Q2 (separarted by a distance r), then which is of the following statements are correct ?

1. |Q1| > |Q2|

2. Q1 is positive in nature
3. A and B are equilibrium points
4. C is a point of equilibrium
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

39) A solid, uncharged conducting sphere of radius 3a contains a concentric hollowed spherical

cavity of radius a. A point charge +Q is placed at the center of the sphere. Taking V
= 0 at r → ∞, the potential at position r = 2a from the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

Electric potential at a point is: ϕ = x2y + yz. The electric field at the point (1, 3, 1) is

(1) 7 units
(2) 70 units
(3) 49 units
(4) 490 units

41) A uniform electric field of 400 V/m is directed at 45° above the x-axis as shown in the figure. The

potential difference VA –VB is given by :

(1) 0
(2) 4V
(3) 6.4 V
(4) 2.8 V
42) An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure.

The electric potential (in 102 V) at point P due to the dipole is ( = permittivity of free space and

):

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Figure shows some equipotential lines distributed in space. A charged object is moved from

point A to point B :

(1) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest

(2) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least
(3) The work done is the same in Fig. (i), Fig. (ii) and Fig. (iii)
(4) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greatest

44) A solid non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a net charge '+q' uniformly distributed
throughout its volume. A hollow spherical conductor having inner and outer, radii 'b' and 'c' and net
charge '–q' is concentric with the sphere (see the figure) Read the following statements.
 (i) The electric field at a distance r from the centre of the

sphere = for r < a.

(ii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for a < r < b = 0
(iii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for b < r < c = 0
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the hollow sphere = –q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the hollow sphere = +q
Choose the correct options from below.

(1) (i) , (ii) and (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

45) The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an

external electric field is switched on then :

(1) only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute

(2) only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute
(3) Both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute
(4) force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change

CHEMISTRY

1) For the reaction N2O5 (g) 2NO2(g) + O2(g), the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is
–3 –1 –1
given as 6·25×10 mol L s . The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as :

(1) 1·25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 6·25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 6·25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 6·25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1·25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 3·125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 6·25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 3·125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

2) For a chemical reaction A —→ P rate of reaction is 2 × 10–3 mol dm–3 s–1 when the initial
concentration is 0·05 mol dm–3. The rate of the same reaction is 1·6 × 10–2 mol dm–3 s–1 when the
initial concentration is 0·1 mol dm–3. The order of the reaction is
(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

3) For the reaction, Cl2 + 2I– I2 + 2 Cl–, the initial concentration of I– was 0.20 mol Iit–1 and the
concentration after 20 min was 0.18 mol lit–1. Then, the rate of formation of I2 in mol lit–1 min–1 would
be

(1) 1 × 10–3
(2) 5 × 10–4
(3) 1 × 10–4
(4) 5 × 10–3

4) The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr

NO (g) + Br2 (g) NOBr2 (g) ;

NOBr2 (g) + NO (g) 2 NOBr (g)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO (g) is

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

5) A hypothetical reaction, A2 + B2 2 AB, follows the mechanism as given below :

A2 A+A (Fast)
A + B2 → AB + B (Slow)
A + B → AB (Fast)
The overall order of reaction is

(1) zero
(2) 1

(3)

(4) 2

6) The plot between concentration versus time for a zero order reaction is represented by

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) For a first order reaction, the time taken to reduce the initial concentration by a factor of is 20
minutes. The time required to reduce initial concentration by a factor of 1/16 is

(1) 20 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 80 min
(4) 40 min

8) Rate constant of a reaction is 0·0693 min–1. Starting with 10 mol L–1, rate of reaction after 10
minutes will be

(1) 0·0693 M min–1

(2) 0·0693 × 2·5 M min–1
(3) 0·0693 × 5 M min–1
(4) 0·0693 × 10 M min–1

9) At 500 K, the half-life period of a gaseous reaction at the initial pressure of 80 kPa is 350 sec.
When the pressure is 40 kPa, the half-life period is 175 sec. The order of the reaction is

(1) zero
(2) one
(3) two
(4) three

10) t1/4 can be taken as the time taken for concentration of a reactant to drop to of its initial value.
If the rate constant for a first order reaction is K, then t1/4 can be written as

(1) 0·10/K
(2) 0·29/K
(3) 0·69/K
(4) 0·75/K

0
11) For a reaction A + B Products, rate law is = k [A] . The concentration of A left after

time t when t = is

(1)

(2) [A]0 × e

(3)

(4)

12) For an endothermic reaction, where ΔH represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mol, the
minimum value for the energy of activation will be

(1) less than ΔH

(2) zero
(3) more than ΔH
(4) equal to ΔH

13) The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different reactions are 1016· e–2000/T and 1015 . e–1000/T
respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2 is

(1) 1000 K

(2)

(3) 2000 K

(4)

14) For a first order reaction A P, the temperature (T) dependent rate constant (k) was found
to follow the equation

log k = – (2000) + 60
The pre-exponential factor A and the activation energy Ea , respectively, are

(1) 1·0 × 106 s–1 and 9.2 kJ mo1–1

(2) 6·0 s–1 and 16·6 kJ mol–1
(3) 1·0 × 10–1 s–1 and 16·6 kJ mol–1
(4) 1·0 × 106 s–1 and 38·3 kJ mol–1

15) The half-lives of two samples are 0·1 and 0·4 second. Their respective concentrations are 200
and 50 respectively. What is the order of the reaction?

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

16) Kinetics of the reaction A (g) 2 B (g) + C (g) is followed by measuring the total pressure at
different times. It is given that Initial pressure of A = 0·5 atm.
Total pressure of A after 2 hours = 0·7 atm.
Rate constant of the reaction = 1 × 10–3 s–1

What is the rate of reaction when the total pressure is 0·7 atm ?

(1) 2·0 × 40–4 M s–1

(2) 4·0 × 10–4 M s–1
(3) 5·0 × 10–4 M s–1
(4) 7·0 × 10–4 M s–1

17) Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL.
The molarity of the solution is

(1) 1.78 M
(2) 3.5 M
(3) 2.05 M
(4) 3.22 M

18) The molality of a urea solution in which 0.0100 g of urea, [(NH2)2CO] is added to 0.3000 dm3 of
water at STP is

(1) 0.555 m
(2) 5.55 × 10–4m
(3) 33.3 m
(4) 3.33 × 10–2m

19) Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

(1) 1.7700
(2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177
(4) 0.0344

20) Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl solutions are mixed. The concentration of
ions in the mixed solution will be

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.05 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 0.15 M

21) Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL–1.
Volume of the acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is

(1) 5.55 mL
(2) 11.10 mL
(3) 16.65 mL
(4) 22.20 mL

22) An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. the value
of X is nearly

(1) 14
(2) 3.2
(3) 1.4
(4) 2

23) The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298
K and 5 atm pressure is

(1) 4.0 × 10–4

(2) 4.0 × 10–5
(3) 5.0 × 10–4
(4) 4.0 × 10–6

24) The amount of solute (molar mass 60 g mol–1) that must be added to 180 g of water so that the
vapour pressure of water is lowered by 10% is

(1) 30 g
(2) 60 g
(3) 120 g
(4) 12 g

25) At 80°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’ is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000
mm Hg. If a mixture solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils at 80°C and 1 atm pressure, then amount of ‘A’ in
the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg)

(1) 48 mol percent

(2) 50 mol percent
(3) 52 mol percent
(4) 34 mol percent

26) Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. The mixture has a vapour pressure of 400 mm at 300
K when mixed in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 and a vapour pressure of 350 mm when mixed in the molar
ratio of 1 : 2 at the same temperature. The vapour pressure of the two pure liquids X and Y
respectively are

(1) 250 mm, 550 mm

(2) 350 mm, 450 mm
(3) 350 mm, 700 mm
(4) 550 mm, 250 mm

27) If two substances A and B have pA° : pB° = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2, then
mole fraction of A in vapours is

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.52
(4) 0.2

28) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing non-volatile solute is
0.0125. The moles of solute in the solution is.

(1) 0.70
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.60
(4) 0.80

29) On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressure of the two
liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of
the solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane
= 100 g mol–1 and of octane = 114 g mol–1)

(1) 96.2 kPa

(2) 144.5 kPa
(3) 72.0 kPa
(4) 36.1 kPa

30) 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this
solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar
mol–1 K–1) :

(1) 51022 g mol–1

(2) 122044 g mol–1
(3) 31011 g mol–1
(4) 61038 g mol–1

31) The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an
aqueous NaCl solution that could be used in the blood stream?

(1) 0.15 mol/L

(2) 0.30 mol/L
(3) 0.60 mol/L
(4) 0.45 mol/L

32) An aqueous solution of urea is found to boil at 100.52°C. Given Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1,
the mole fraction of urea in the solution is

(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.018
(4) 0.25

33) A solution containing 1.8 g of a compound (empirical formula CH2O) in 40 g of water is observed
to freeze at –0.465°C. The molecular formula of the compound is (Kf of water = 1.86 kg K mol–1)

(1) C2H4O2
(2) C3H6
(3) C4H8O4
(4) C6H12O6

34) A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol–1) boils at 100.18°C at the atmospheric pressure. If Kf and
Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol–1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at

(1) –6.54°C
(2) –0.654°C
(3) 6.54°C
(4) 0.654°C

35) When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide

(1) freezing point is raised

(2) freezing point is lowered
(3) freezing point does not change
(4) boiling point does not change

36) A solution containing 50 g of ethylene glycol in 200 g water is cooled to –9.3°C. The amount of
ice that will separate out will be (Kf = l ·86 Km–1) ·

(1) 18·71 g
(2) 28.71 g
(3) 38.71 g
(4) 48.71 g

37) The freezing point of water is depressed by 0.37°C in a 0.01 molal NaCl solution. The freezing
point of 0.02 molal solution of urea is depressed by

(1) 0.37°C
(2) 0.74°C
(3) 0.185°C
(4) 0°C

38) The molar mass of the solute sodium hydroxide obtained from the measurement of osmotic
pressure of its aqueous solution at 27°C is 25 g mol–1. Therefore, its ionization percentage in this
solution is

(1) 75
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 70

39) The freezing point (in °C) of a solution containing 0.1 g of K3[Fe(CN)6] (Mol. Wt. 329) in 100 g of
water (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) is

(1) – 2.3 × 10–2

(2) – 5.7 × 10–2
(3) – 5.7 × 10–3
(4) – 1.2 × 10–2

40) The concentration of reactant decreases linearly with time what is the order of the reaction :-

(1) Ist order

(2) IInd order
(3) Zero order
(4) Fractional order

41) 99% of first order was completed in 64 minutes. When 99.9% of the reaction will complete :-

(1) 50 min
(2) 48 min
(3) 32 min
(4) 96 min
42) The rate law of the reaction
A + 2B → product,

is given by = K[A]2·[B]. If A is taken in large excess, the order of the reaction will be :-

(1) zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

43) A first order reaction has half life of 12 hours. What percentage of the reactant will remain after
24 hours ?

(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 87.5%
(4) 93.75%

44) For a reaction the initial rate is given as :

2 2
R0 = K[A]0 [B]0 , by what factor, the initial rate of reaction will increase if initial concentration of A
is made 1.5 times and of B is tripled?

(1) 20.25
(2) 2.25
(3) 6.75
(4) None

45) Given that K is the rate constant for some order of any reaction at temperature T, then the value

of log K will be :

(1)

(2) A
(3) 2.303 A
(4) log A

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion (A): Mesosome helps in DNA replication in prokaryotes.

Reason (R): Mesosome is a specialized structure of nuclear envelope.

(1) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation.

(2) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.
2) Statement I: Ribosomes are present in mitochondria, chloroplasts, and cytoplasm.
Statement II: Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

3)

Which of the following are correct?

1. Centrosomes are absent in plant cells.
2. Plasmodesmata allow cytoplasmic continuity between plant cells.
3. Eukaryotes ribosomes consist of 30S and 50S subunits.
4. Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall.

(1) 1, 2, 4
(2) 1, 2, 3
(3) 2, 3, 4
(4) 1, 3, 4

4) Which organelle functions in protein glycosylation and packaging?

(1) Smooth ER
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Rough ER
(4) Lysosome

5) Match Column-I (Structure) with Column-II (Function):

Column-I Column-II
(Structure) (Function)

A Ribosome 1 Protein synthesis

B Lysosome 2 Intracellular digestion

C Golgi apparatus 3 Packaging of materials

D Mitochondria 4 Energy production

(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(3) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(4) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

6) Match the bacterial structures with their features:

Column-I Column-II

A Flagellum 1 Locomotion
 B Pili 2 Conjugation

C Plasmid 3 Extra-chromosomal DNA

D Fimbriae 4 Attachment
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(3) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3
(4) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1

7) Which organism lacks a cell wall?

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacillus
(3) Spirillum
(4) Vibrio

8) Choose correct order of the prokaryotic cell envelope:

1. Plasma membrane
2. Glycocalyx
3. Cell wall

(1) 2 → 3 → 1
(2) 1 → 2 → 3
(3) 3 → 2 → 1
(4) 1 → 3 → 2

9) Assertion (A): Chromoplasts impart red, yellow, or orange colour to plant parts.
Reason (R): They contain chlorophyll pigment only.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

10) Statement I: Plasma membrane has proteins embedded in lipid bilayer.

Statement II: Cell wall is selectively permeable.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Only statement-I is true
(3) Only statement-II is true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

11) Select the correct statements about mitochondria:

1. Outer membrane is folded into cristae.
2. Matrix contains DNA and 70S ribosomes.
3. Mitochondria are double-membrane bound organelles.
4. Inner membrane is site of oxidative enzymes.

(1) 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2, 3
(3) 1, 3, 4
(4) 1, 2, 4

12) What is the function of peroxisomes?

(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Fatty acid oxidation and detoxification
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Glucose breakdown

13) Which organelle forms lysosomes by packaging hydrolytic enzymes?

(1) RER
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) SER
(4) Nucleus

14) The cis face of golgi bodies face the _______ and the trans face is oriented toward the ______.

(1) ER, Nucleus

(2) Nucleus, ER
(3) Nucleus, Plasma membrane
(4) Plasma membrane, Nucleus

15) Which cell lacks membrane-bound organelles?

(1) Fungal cell

(2) Algal cell
(3) Bacterial cell
(4) Animal cell

16) Assertion (A): Rough ER is more prominent in actively secreting cells.

Reason (R): Ribosomes on RER synthesize proteins for secretion.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

17) Statement I: The nucleolus is the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis.
Statement II: The nucleolus is bounded by a double membrane.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

18) Which is the correct flow of proteins secreted from a cell?

1. Golgi apparatus
2. Ribosome on RER
3. Plasma membrane
4. Transport vesicles

(1) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1
(2) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
(3) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
(4) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1

19) Choose correct order of parts in the nucleus:

1. Nucleoplasm
2. Chromatin
3. Nucleolus
4. Nuclear envelope

(1) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
(2) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
(3) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(4) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3

20) Tonoplast is involved in:

(1) DNA replication

(2) Membrane synthesis
(3) Active transport of ions into vacuole
(4) Glycolysis

21) Assertion (A): Fluidity of membrane is important for endocytosis..

Reason (R): Lipid bilayer is rigid and does not allow lateral movement.

(1) Both true, R is correct explanation

(2) Both true, R is incorrect explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) Both false

22) Identify the incorrect statements:

1. Chloroplasts have 80S ribosomes.
2. Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called grana.
3. Mitochondria possess circular DNA.
4. Chromoplasts contain carotenoid pigments.

(1) Only 1
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 2 and 4
(4) All are correct

23) Assertion (A): Cilia and flagella have a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules in eukaryotic cell.
Reason (R): This arrangement is absent in bacterial flagella.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

24) Statement I: Plasmodesmata help in transport of materials between plant cells.

Statement II: Desmosomes are plant cell junctions.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Only statement-I is true.
(3) Only statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

25) Which of the following organelles is involved in autophagy?

(1) Peroxisome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Nucleolus

26) ________ are small bristle-like structures on bacteria that help in attachment.

(1) Cilia
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Flagella
(4) Pilli

27) Which of the following is a membrane-less organelle?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Ribosome
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Lysosome

28) Statement I: Prokaryotic ribosomes are larger than eukaryotic ribosomes.

Statement II: 80S ribosomes are found in cytoplasm of eukaryotes.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(2) Statement-I true, statement-II false.
(3) Statement-I false, statement-II true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

29) Pick the correct ones:

1. Dictyosomes are Golgi bodies in plant cells.
2. ER is absent in prokaryotes.
3. Nucleoid contains circular DNA.
4. All eukaryotic cells have plastids.

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 2, 4
(3) 2, 3, 4
(4) All correct

30) Which of the following lacks a defined nucleus?

(1) Blue-green algae

(2) Amoeba
(3) Paramecium
(4) Fungi

31) Read the following statement.

Statement I: In all connective tissue including blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins
called collagen or elastin.
Statement II: Blood is a fluid connective tissue and is the main circulating fluid that helps in the
transport of gases.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

32)

How many statements among the following is/are correct.

(i) Squamous epithelium is found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
(ii) Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
(iii) Microvilli are present on the epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule of nephron.
(iv) Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian
tubes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
33) Which of the following is correctly matched:-

Column I Column II
(1) Adhering junctions (i) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(2) Gap junctions (ii) Helps to stop substances from leaking across the tissue
(3) Tight junctions (iii) Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
(4) Compound epithelium (iv) Major role in secretion and absorption.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which of the following is correct about the figure given below

A B

(1) A is bone having solid and pliable ground substance which resists compression.
B is Dense regular connective tissue and collagen fibres are present in rows between many
(2)
parallel bundles of fibres.
(3) A is cartilage provides structural frame to the body.
(4) B is dense irregular where fibroblast and many fibres are oriented differently.

35) Statement I: Epithelial tissue has a free surface which faces either a body fluid or the outside
environment.
Statement II: In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells alongwith intercellular substances
perform a specific function.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

36) Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) Smooth muscle fibres are taper at both ends and do not show striations.
(2) Smooth muscles are involuntary as their functioning can be directly controlled by our will.
(3) Smooth muscle are found in the walls of internal organs.
Cell junctions hold smooth muscle together and they are bundled together in connective tissue
(4)
sheath.
37) Read the following statement.
I. In cardiac muscles when one cell receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated
to contract.
II. Biceps muscles are striated and involuntary.
III. Our heart consists of only three types of tissues.
IV. Cell junctions fuse the plasma membrane of cardiac muscles cells and make them stick together.
Choose the correct statements –

(1) I only
(2) I, II and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) III and IV

38) Which one of the following is correctly labelled-

(1) Collagen fibres and fibroblast.

(2) Fibroblast and mast cell.
(3) Macrophage and collagen fibres.
(4) Mast cell and macrophage.

39) Which of the following is incorrect about simple columnar epithelium?

(1) It is a multilayered epithelium composed of tall and slender cells.

(2) Nucleus is located at the base.
(3) Free surface may have microvilli.
(4) Help in secretion and absorption.

40) Ground substance in bone is rich in -

(1) Calcium salts

(2) Collagen fibres
(3) Elastin fibres
(4) Both (1) and (2)

41) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding compound epithelium?
 It is made of more than one layer of cells and thus has a limited role in secretion and
(1)
absorption.
(2) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
They cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of
(3)
ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.
(4) All of the above.

42) Which of the following is correct about the figure given below -

(1) Represents the structure having a hard and non-pliable matrix.

(2) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) It is the main tissue which provides structural frame to the body.
(4) All of these.

43) Which of the following type of muscle tissue is being described on the basis of given statements
?
(i) These muscle fibres taper at both ends and do not show striations.
(ii) The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine contain this type of
muscle tissue.
(iii) They are ‘involuntary’ as their function cannot be directly controlled.

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) All of these

44) Which of the following is incorrect about simple columnar epithelium-

(1) Help in secretion and absorption.

(2) Nucleus is located at the base.
(3) Free surface may have microvilli.
(4) None of these.

45) How many statements among the following is/are incorrect.

(i) Squamous epithelium is found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
(ii) Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
(iii) Microvilli are present on the epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule of nephron.
(iv) Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian
tubes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

46) Statement I: In all connective tissue excluding blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural
proteins called collagen or elastin.
Statement II: Blood is a fluid connective tissue and is the main circulating fluid that helps in the
transport of gases.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

47) Match column-I with column-II.

Column -I Column -II

(a) Adhering Junction (i) Ear wax, oil, milk
(b) Gap Junction (ii) Hormones
(c) Exocrine (iii) Keep neighboring cells together
(d) Endocrine (iv) Facilitate rapid transfer of ions
(1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

48) Mark the incorrectly matched pair :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium – They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium – This is commonly found in ducts of glands.
(3) Simple columnar epithelium – They are found in lining of Nephron.
(4) Simple cuboidal ciliated – Function is move particle in a specific direction over the epithelium.

49) Mark the incorrect with respect to functions?

(1) Squamous epithelium – diffusion boundary

(2) Adhering junction – cementing of cells
(3) Compound epithelium – Only absorption
(4) Glandular epithelium – Only secretion
50) Identify the diagram given below & its features in our body.

(1) Areolar tissue → Located mainly beneath the skin.

(2) Dense connective tissue → Specialised to store fats.
(3) Adipose tissue → Cells of this tissue specialised to store fats.
(4) Adipose t issue → Serve as support framework for epithelium.

51) How many of the following is/are not the part of S-phase of cell cycle
(A) Dna replication
(B) Tubulin protein sysnthesis
(C) Increase in number of chromosomes
(D) Centriole duplication in nucleus

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

52) If a species has 2n = 46 chromosomes in its somatic cells, how many chromatids would be
present in a cell at Metaphase I of meiosis?

(1) 23
(2) 46
(3) 92
(4) 184

53) The conservation of a specific chromosome number across generations in sexually reproducing
organisms is primarily achieved through

(1) Mitosis, which maintains the diploid state.

(2) Meiosis, which reduces the chromosome number by half in gametes.
(3) Fertilization, which restores the diploid state.
(4) Both meiosis and fertilization acting in coordination

54) Statement I: Small disc shaped structures at the surface of centromere are kinetochores.
Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal
complex.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement II is true but statement I is false

55) Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene
stage.
Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by formation of synaptonemal
complex.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement II is true but statement I is false

56) Statement I: The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes during
zygotene is called a bivalent or a tetrad, and these structures are most clearly visible in the
subsequent pachytene stage.
Statement II: The enzyme involved in the process of crossing over between non-sister chromatids
of homologous chromosomes is called recombinase, and this process leads to recombination of
genetic material.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement II is true but statement I is false

57) Statement 1- In Telophase, chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is
lost as discrete elements.
Statement 2- Cells no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of
the organism in G0 phase.

(1) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

(2) Both statements are correct.
(3) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

58) A scientist observes a particular cell type that is metabolically active but does not show any
signs of cell division over extended periods. Upon further investigation, it's found that these cells
can re-enter the proliferative cycle under specific stimuli, such as tissue injury. Which phase of the
cell cycle are these cells most likely in?

(1) G1 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) G0 phase

59) Consider the following events:

I. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.
II. Appearance of X-shaped structures called chiasmata.
III. Terminalisation of chiasmata.
IV. Homologous chromosomes separate but sister chromatids remain associated.
In which correct sequence do these events occur during Meiosis I?

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, I, III, IV
(3) II, IV, I, III
(4) I, IV, II, III

60) Beyond maintaining chromosome number and increasing genetic variability, what other
significant role does meiosis play in sexually reproducing organisms?

(1) It is primarily responsible for growth and repair of tissues

(2) It helps in the replacement of lost cells in adult animals.
(3) It enables the formation of specialized reproductive cells (gametes).
(4) It ensures continuous growth throughout the life cycle, especially in plants.

61) Which of the following option is correct?

I. DNA replication and cell growth take place during cell division.
II. Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process
III. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesizes other cell constituents,
and divides into two daughter cells is termed the cell cycle.
IV. The replicated chromosomes are distributed to daughter nuclei during interphase

(1) Statement 1,3,4 are correct , but statement 2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement 1,3, are correct , but statement 2,4 are incorrect
(3) Statement 3,4 are correct , but statement1, 2 are incorrect
(4) Statement 2,3 are correct , but statement 1 ,4 are incorrect

62) Identify the incorrect pairing of a meiotic stage with its event:

(1) Zygotene: Formation of synaptonemal complex.

(2) Diplotene: Appearance of recombination nodules.
(3) Pachytene: Crossing over between non-sister chromatids
(4) Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata

63) Assertion: In S and G2 phases the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct but intertwined.
Reason: Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

64) Assertion (A): The process of crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes is an enzyme-mediated process.
Reason (R): This enzymatic process, facilitated by recombinase, leads to the recombination of
genetic material, which is a key source of variation in sexually reproducing organisms.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

65) Which of the following statements about Mitosis is INCORRECT

It is also called equational division because the chromosome number in parent and progeny
(1)
cells is the same.
Cell repair is a significant contribution of mitosis, constantly replacing cells like those in the
(2)
upper layer of the epidermis
Mitotic divisions in meristematic tissues result in continuous growth of plants throughout their
(3)
life.
(4) The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear during anaphase

66) Consider the following statements comparing Anaphase of Mitosis and Anaphase I of Meiosis:
I. In Anaphase of Mitosis, centromeres split, and sister chromatids separate.
II. In Anaphase I of Meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate, but sister chromatids remain
attached at their centromeres.
III. Both stages involve the movement of genetic material towards opposite poles.
IV. Reduction in chromosome number per cell occurs during Anaphase of Mitosis.
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

(1) I, II, and III only

(2) I, III, and IV only
(3) II, III, and IV only
(4) I, II, III, and IV

67) Given below are some statements regarding this diagram. Find out the correct answer.
A. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
B. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
C. Number of chromosomes become double in cell.
D. Centromeres split and chromatids separate
(1) A and C
(2) A, B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and B

68) If a cell successfully completes its S phase, which of the following statements would be true for
the G2 phase that follows, assuming no aberrations?
I. DNA content per cell would be 4C (if G1 had 2C).
II. Chromosome number per cell would have doubled.
III. Proteins essential for spindle formation would be synthesized.
IV. Centrioles would have completed their duplication.

(1) I, II, and III only

(2) I, III, and IV only
(3) II, III, and IV only
(4) I, II, III, and IV

69) What would be the most immediate consequence if a cell in a developing embryo failed to
properly form a cell plate after karyokinesis, specifically in a plant cell?

(1) Formation of two genetically identical but smaller daughter cells.

(2) Development of a multinucleate syncytium.
(3) Abnormal chromosome segregation leading to aneuploidy
(4) All of the above

70) Match the following :-

Column I Column II
(a) Diakinesis (i) Pairing of Homologous chromosome.
(b) Zygotene (ii) Non sister chromatid exchange their part
(c) Pachytene (iii) Chiasmata formed
(d) Diplotene (iv) Terminalisation of Chiasmata
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
71) Pick out the correct statement.

(1) Chitin is a homopolymer.

(2) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(3) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by glycosidic bonds.
(4) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.

72) Read the following statements and mark the correct option:
Assertion: Glycosidic bonds are formed by dehydration.
Reason: In polysaccharides, individual monosaccharide is linked by glycosidic bond.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

73) Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Cotton fibre I Chitin

B Exoskeleton of cockroach II Glycogen

C Liver III Starch

D Peeled potato IV Cellulose

(1) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(2) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III

74) Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Chitin, a complex homopolysaccharide occurring in exoskeleton consists of NAG.
(ii) Glucosamine and N-acetyl glucosamine are modified sugar.
(iii) Cellulose shows blue colour when treated with I2.
(iv) Starch in plants and glycogen in animals are store houses of energy.
(v) Right end of polysaccharide is called reducing end while left end is called non-reducing end.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) All except (iii)
(4) All except (v)

75) Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(1) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.

(2) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(3) Glucose - Polysaccharide
(4) Chitin - Heteropolysaccharide

76) In the composition of cellular mass, arrange the components- proteins(P), carbohydrates(C),
lipids(L) and nucleic acids(N) in decreasing order of mass percentage.

(1) C > N > P > L

(2) P > N > C > L
(3) P > C > L > N
(4) P > N > L > C

77) Which of the following represents the structure of Ribose ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

78) Which of the following statements about carbohydrates is/are correct?

A) Carbohydrates are primarily composed of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen atoms.
B) Starch is a polysaccharide that can hold iodine molecules in the helical portion.
C) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
D) Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates and are typically sweet tasting.

(1) A, B, and C only

(2) B, C, and D only
(3) A, C, and D only
(4) A, B, and D only

79) Which of the following statements about lipids is/are correct?

A) Lipids are primarily composed of fatty acids and glycerol.
B) Phospholipids are the major components of the cell membrane and have a hydrophilic head and
hydrophobic tail.
C) Lipids are soluble in water due to their polar nature.
D) Triglycerides consist of three fatty acids bound to a single glycerol molecule.

(1) A, B, and D only

(2) A, B, and C only
(3) B, C, and D only
(4) A, C, and D only

80) The simplest carbohydrates are called __________, which include sugars like glucose and fructose.
When two monosaccharides join, they form a __________, such as sucrose. Fill in the blanks with
appropriate words.

(1) disaccharides, disaccharide

(2) monosaccharides, polysaccharide
(3) disaccharides, monosaccharide
(4) monosaccharides, disaccharide

81) Match column I with column II:

Column I Column II

A Monosaccharide i Energy storage in animals

B Starch ii Sugar units

C Glycogen iii Energy storage in plants

D Phospholipid iv Lecithin
(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D - i
(2) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D - ii
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D - iv
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv

82) Statement 1: Saturated fatty acids have at least one double bond between carbon atoms.
Statement 2: Unsaturated fatty acids contain one or more double bonds in their hydrocarbon
chains, which makes them liquid at room temperature.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
(3) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.
(4) Both statements are false.

83) Statement 1: Cellulose is a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants, providing structural
support.
Statement 2: Chitin, found in exoskeletons of arthropods, is a homopolymer.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

84) Mark the statements as true or false:

A. Cell membrane and other membranes are broken into pieces, and form vesicles which are not
water soluble.
B. Lipids are not strictly macromolecules.
C. Oils are solid at room temperature.
D. Triglycerides are made up of 3 fatty acid and 1 glycerol molecules.

(1) T T F T
(2) T T F F
(3) F T F T
(4) F T T F

85) How many of the following statements are true?

A. Primary metabolites usually have physiological roles.
B. Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose.
C. Acid insoluble fraction apart from lipids have molecular weights in the range of ten thousand
Daltons and above.
D. Lipids are found in acid insoluble pool.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

86) Read the following statements and mark the correct option:
A. Living organisms have got only organic elements and compounds in them.
B. Based on the nature of R group there are many amino acids. However, those which occur in
proteins are only of twenty types.
C. Lipids can be monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides.
D. Oils have lower melting point and hence remain as solid in winters.

(1) Only A is incorrect

(2) Only A and D are incorrect
(3) All are correct
(4) C and D are incorrect

87) Assertion - Polysaccharides are components of cell wall in animals, fungi and of the exoskeleton
of arthropods.
Reason - Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

88) Assertion (A): Secondary metabolites such as alkaloids, flavonoids, and pigments have no
known physiological role in the host organism.
Reason (R): Secondary metabolites are considered useless by-products of metabolism.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

89) Which of the following statements about secondary metabolites is/are correct?
1. Secondary metabolites include compounds such as spices, alkaloids, flavonoids, rubber, and
antibiotics.
2. All secondary metabolites are essential for the growth and development of the organism
producing them.
3. Many secondary metabolites are useful to humans in the form of drugs, pigments, scents.
4. The ecological functions of some secondary metabolites are not yet fully understood.

(1) Statement 1, 2, and 3 are correct

(2) Statement 1, 3, and 4 are correct
(3) Statement 2, 3, and 4 are correct
(4) All four statements are correct

90) Match column I and column II -

Column I Column II
(Compound Type) (Example)

A Monosaccharide 1 Glucose

B Disaccharide 2 Sucrose

C Polysaccharide 3 Cellulose

D Lipid 4 Palmitic acid

E Nucleic acid 5 DNA and RNA

(1) A–1, B–2, C–5, D–4, E–3
(2) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4, E–5
(3) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5
(4) A–5, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–1
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 2 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 4 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

B. Concept:

A. Infinite Geometric Series: A series where each term after the first is found by
multiplying the previous one by a constant factor (common ratio).

B. Convergence: An infinite geometric series converges if the absolute value of the common
ratio is less than 1.

C. Sum of Convergent Geometric Series: The sum of an infinite converging geometric series
can be calculated using a specific formula.

C. Formula:

A. Sum (S) = a / (1 - r) where: a = first term of the series r = common ratio

D. Calculation:

A. Identify a and r:

a = 7 (first term)

A. r = 1/7 (common ratio)

B. Check for Convergence: |r| = |1/7| = 1/7 < 1 Therefore, the series converges.

C. Calculate the Sum: S = 7 / (1 - 1/7) , S = 7 / (6/7) , S = 49/6

E. Final Answer:

The sum of the infinite series is 49/6 Option 2

2) Explaining : Based on trigonometric identities.

Concept : This question is based on trigonometric identities.
Solution :
1+1-(cos215+sin215)
Final Answer : (2)

3) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on trignometric ratios.

Solution :
Since it is negative, must lie in second or fourth quadrant
tan150 = tan (90+60)

tan 330 = tan (270+60)

Final Answer : (4)

4)

Explaining :
Asking About :
Angle of inclination (slope angle) of a straight line.
Concept :
The slope angle θ is the angle a line makes with the positive x-axis.
Solution :
Formula :
tanθ = m, where m is the slope of the line.

Calculation/Explanation :
• Given 3y =

• Rewrite in slope-intercept form y =

• So,

•
Final Answer : (1)

5) (1) Asking About:

The question asks to determine the coordinates of specific points A and B on the ellipse.
From the diagram, A lies on the major axis (horizontal), and B lies on the minor axis (vertical).
(2) Concept:
The equation of an ellipse in standard form is:

Where:
• a is the semi-major axis (along the x-axis for a horizontal ellipse).
 • b is the semi-minor axis (along the y-axis for a horizontal ellipse).
The extreme points of the ellipse are:
• Along the major axis: ( ±a, 0)
• Along the minor axis: (0, ±b)
(3) Formula:

• Semi-major axis: a =
• Semi-minor axis: b =
So, the coordinates of the extreme points are:
• A(±a, 0) or (±8, 0).
• B(0, ±b) or (0, ±7).
(4) Solution / Explanation:

1. The equation of the ellipse is, indicating a horizontal ellipse since a2 > b2.
2. From the formula, the coordinates of point A on the major axis are (8, 0) (positive a-value).
3. Similarly, the coordinates of point Bon the minor axis are (0, 7) {positive b-value).
(5) Final Answer:
The coordinates of points A and B are:
Option 3: (8, 0) & (0, 7).

6) Explanation:
We are asked to find the derivative of y = x2 sin x with respect to x.
Concept:
This problem involves using the product rule for differentiation, as the given function is
product of two functions x2 and sin x.
Formula:

The product rule for differentiation states:

where u(x) = x2 and v(x) = sin x.
Calculation: =

A. Let u(x) x2 and v(x) = sin x.

B. The derivatives are: u'(x) = 2x, v'(x) = cos x
C. Applying the product rule:

Final Answer:
The correct answer is Option 3: x2 cos x + 2x sin x.

7) Concept : This question is based on quantisation of charge.

Solution :
Statement (A) :
At macroscopic level grainy nature of charge disappears.

A. This is true.
 B. At large scales, charge looks continuous because it involves an enormous number of discrete
charges (electrons or protons), so the discrete "graininess" isn’t noticeable.

Statement (B) :
At macroscopic level the quanta of charge (e) is very small hence charge transfer appears
continuous.

A. This is also true.

B. The elementary charge e – 1.6 × 10−19 C is very tiny.
C. Due to the huge number of charges involved in macroscopic objects, the change in charge
seems smooth and continuous.

Relationship between (A) and (B):

A. (B) explains (A): because charge quanta are so small, the grainy nature disappears
macroscopically.

Correct choice: (2) Both (A) and (B) are correct; (B) is the correct explanation of (A).

Final Answer : (2)

8)

Explaining : To find net force on C due to A and B.

Concept : This question is based on Coulomb's law.
Solution :

Before redistribution - ...(1)

After redistribution
FC = F2 – F1

=
Final Answer : (1)

9) Concept : This question is based on equilibrium of charges.

Solution :
Given:

A. Three charged particles are in equilibrium under their electrostatic forces only.

Analyze statements : A. The particles must be collinear.

A. For three charges to be in equilibrium under electrostatic forces alone, they must lie on a
straight line (collinear).
B. Because in two or three dimensions, balancing forces exactly is difficult unless collinear.
C. So, (A) is generally true.
 B. All the charges cannot have the same magnitude.

A. It's possible to have equilibrium with equal charges but only if the arrangement and signs
differ.
B. Usually, having all charges equal and collinear won't result in equilibrium, except trivial
zero force cases.
C. So, (B) is generally true because equal magnitudes usually can’t balance unless signs differ.

C. All the charges cannot have the same sign.

A. If all charges have the same sign (all positive or all negative), they will repel each other.
B. It’s impossible to have electrostatic equilibrium with all charges of the same sign unless
external forces are applied.
C. So, (C) is true.

D. The equilibrium is unstable.

A. Electrostatic equilibrium among point charges is generally unstable.

B. Small disturbances will move particles away from equilibrium positions.
C. So, (D) is true.

Final Answer : (4)

10)

Explaining : To locate the location of charge q0

So that it experiences zero net force.

Concept : This question is based on equilibrium of charges.

Solution :

For q0 to be in equilibrium

taking square root both sides

72a – 4r = 5r
8a = r
x = 10a

Final Answer : (1)

11)

Explaining : To discuss nature of equilibrium.

Concept : This question is based on nature of equilibrium.
Solution :

A. q1 is in unstable equilibrium if q0 & q1 have same signs.

 As charge moves toward the (+) ve z-axis or –ve z-
axis, then net force on charge will be along the displaced direction.

A. q1 is in stable equilibrium if q1 & q0 have different signs

In this case as charge moves away from centre then net force on the charge opposite to displaced
direction.
Final Answer : (3)

12)

Concept : This question is based on definate integration.

Solution :

=
= –1 + 1 = 0
Final Answer : (1)

13)

Explaining : To find area under graph from x = 0 to x = 4.

Concept : This question is based on area under graph.
Solution :

= area under the curve from x = 0 to x = 4

Final Answer : (2)

14) Explaining : To solve for the roots of equation.

Concept : This question is based on roots of quadratic equations.
Solution : 10x2–27x+5 = 0
10x2 – 25x – 2x + 5 = 0
5x(2x–5) –1(2x–5)

Final Answer : (3)

15) Explaining : Here we have to find the relation between x, y and z.

Concept : This question is based on logarithms.
Solution :
ℓn x + ℓn y = 2 ℓn z
⇒ ℓn xy = ℓn z2
 ⇒ xy = z2 ⇒ z =
Final Answer : (4)

16) Explaining : We ae asked to find resultant of two vectors and .

Concept : This question is based on resultant of vectors.
Solution :
If resultant makes 45° angle with and then angle between A and B is 90°
Final Answer : (3)

17) Explaining : We are asked to pick correct options.

Concept : This question is based on resultant of vectors.
Solution :
Given:

Let's analyze each option carefully:

(A) is always greater than

A. This is not always true.

B. Example: If , then , so .
C. So, (A) is false.

(B) It is possible to have and

A. Yes! If and point roughly in opposite directions and have similar magnitudes, the resultant

vector's magnitude can be less than both.

B. Example: Then = |5 – 4.9| = 0.1 < 5 and 0.1 < 4.9.
C. So, (B) is true.

(C) is always equal to

A. This is false.
B. Magnitudes do not simply add unless and are in the same direction.
C. Usually, (triangle inequality).
D. So, (C) is false.

(D) is never equal to

A. This is also false.

B. If and are along the same line and in the same direction, then
C. So, (D) is false.

Final Answer : (2)

18) Explaining : We are asked to find angle θ.

Concept : This question is based on triangle law of vector addition.
Solution :

Use sinθ =
θ = 60°
Final Answer : (3)

19) Explaining : We are asked to determine that which of the options can represent resultant
of and .
Concept : This question is based on resultant of vectors.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

20) Explaining : To determine which of the given vector addition statements is true, we need
to analyze the directions and magnitudes of the vectors provided in the figure. We will break
down each statement and check if the vector addition results in the given vector. Concept :
Step by Step Solution:
Step 1 Analyze the directions and magnitudes of vectors b, e, and f​. Vectors b and e are
perpendicular to each other, and their resultant will not match the direction of f​.

Step 2

Analyze the directions and magnitudes of vectors b, c, and f​. Vectors b and c are both
horizontal and vertical, respectively, and their resultant will not match the direction of f​.

Step 3

Analyze the directions and magnitudes of vectors d, c, and f​. Vectors d and c are perpendicular
to each other, and their resultant will not match the direction of f​.

Step 4

Analyze the directions and magnitudes of vectors d, e, and f​. Vectors d and e are perpendicular
to each other, and their resultant will match the direction of f​ if their magnitudes are
appropriate.

Final Answer:

The correct statement is (4) d + e = f

21)

Explaining : Using double and half angle formula for cosine

Concept : This question is based on formula cos2θ = 2 cos2θ – 1
Solution :
∵ cos 2θ = 2 cos2θ – 1
∴
Final Answer : (3)

22)

Explaining : Range of Trigonometric function.

Concept : This question is based on formula

Solution :
sinθ = –2 (out of range)
cosθ = +2 (out of range)
tanθ = 1000 (inside range)
Final Answer : (3)

23) Explaining : Finding slope by comparing equation of straight line.

Concept : This question is based on general equation of straight line

y = mx + c ; where m = slope ; c = intercept

Solution :

slope = m =

Final Answer : (1)

24) Explaining : We are asked to find the time in which the sphere attains a charge of 3.2 µC.
Concept : This question is based on amount of charge developed due to absorption of α-
particles by neutral sphere.
Solution :
Q = ne
⇒ for α-particle charge per α-particle = 2e
⇒ Q = n(2e) t (n = Rate of fall of α particle)

t = 10 sec.
Final Answer : (3)

25) Explaining : We are asked about the amount of charge transferred.

Concept : This question is based on electric force or coulomb's law.
Solution :
Let charges = Q ⇒
To get reduced force by 25%

F1 = 75% of F =
⇒ if q amount of charge is transferred then

⇒ Q2 – q2 = or ⇒ q = ±
Because , Q is +ve

⇒ q=
Final Answer : (3)

26)

Explaining : To determine the correct equilibrium configuration.

Concept : This question is based on suspended charge system

Here
Solution :
When the charge on one pith ball is doubled, the repulsive force between the balls increases,
causing them to move further apart until a new equilibrium is reached, and the angle of the
thread with the vertical will increase.
Explanation:
1. Equal Charges:
When both pith balls have an equal positive charge (Q), they repel each other. The repulsive
force is balanced by the tension in the suspension threads and the force of gravity on each
ball.
2. Increased Charge:
If the charge on one ball is doubled to 2Q, the repulsive force between the balls increases
because the force is directly proportional to the product of the charges.
3. Increased Separation:
The stronger repulsive force pushes the balls further apart to achieve a new equilibrium where
the forces are again balanced.
4. Angle Increase:
Since the balls are now further apart, the angle each thread makes with the vertical will
increase to maintain the balance of forces.

Final Answer : (4)

27) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Coulomb’s Law (Vector Form):

Where:
• is the displacement vector from q2 to q1
• is the distance between the charges
• is the force on q2​ due to q1​
Step-by-Step:
1. Position Vectors:
•
•

2. Distance r:

3. Unit vector:

4. Coulomb Force Vector:

Final Answer : (4)

28) Explaining : We are asked to find projection of on .

Concept : This question is based on Projection of on

=
Solution :

Projection = =
Final Answer : (3)

29) Explaining : We are asked to find angle between and .

Concept : This question is based on Angle between &

cosθ =
Solution :

cosθ =

Angle between is given by

= = 0 ⇒ θ = 90°
Final Answer : (3)

30) Explaining : We are asked to find value of λ so that two vector are parallel to each
other.
Concept : This question is based on for parallel vectors.

Solution :
Let

are parallel to each other

Final Answer : (2)

31) Explaining : To solve for value of Q in terms of q.

Concept : This question is based on to get the net field at centre O as 3E, we have to consider
two cause as resultant field at point O can point in two directions.
Solution :
If Q is +ve

⇒ Q = + 4q
If Q is –ve
⇒ Q = – 2q
Final Answer : (4)

32) Explaining : Variation of electric field along the line joining two charges is given in list-I.
We have to match it with list-II showing possible charge configuration.
Concept : This question is based on variation of electric field with distance.
Solution :
Apply the following tests :-
(1) Electric field will be zero in between the charges only if the charges are of same nature.
(2) E.F. will be zero in between the charges, closer to the smaller charge
(3) E.F. may be zero on outer side of charges (on the line joining them), if they are unequal,
closer to the smaller charge.
Final Answer : (3)

33) Explaining : To find total charge on wire.

Concept : This question is based on linear charge distribution.
Solution :
Let us assume an element of length dx at a distance x from O. charge on element

dQ = λ dx =

x dx

⇒Q= ⇒Q=
Hence option (2)
Final Answer : (2)

34) Explaining : For net field at O to be along y direction calculate .

Concept : This question is based on field due to semi-infinite wire

field due to semi-circular arc

Solution :
λ1=2λ2
Final Answer : (1)

35) Explaining : The question is asking about θ when block under equilibrium. Concept
: This question is based on electrostatic force i.e. force on block due to electric field is F = qE.
Solution :
Formula : F = qE
Visual -Aid:-

Solution / Calculation
For equilibrium

Conclusion : Hence, option (2) is correct.

Final Answer : (2)

36) Explaining : Find maximum flux

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
To get maximum flux, maximum length of rod should be in the cube, if we place wire along
diagonal of cube, length of wire inside cube

Final Answer : (4)

37) Explaining : To find charge enclosed inside the cube.
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

⇒
2 × 100 × 400 × 10–4 (ε0) = qin ⇒ qin = 8ε0
Final Answer : (1)

38) Explaining : You are given:

• A potential vs. position graph for two charges Q1 and Q2, separated by a distance r.
• At points A and B, the electric potential is zero; both these points are near Q2 – one on the
left and one on the right.
• There is a point C (on the right side of Q2) where the potential is maximum.
• You need to verify which of the following statements are correct:
1. ∣Q1∣ > ∣Q2∣
2. Q1 is positive in nature
3. A and B are equilibrium points
4. C is a point of equilibrium

Concept : This question is based on

• Electric potential (V) is a scalar, and is the algebraic sum of potentials due to each charge.
• Equilibrium points are found where the electric field is zero, i.e., where the slope of the
potential curve.

- At potential = 0, the electric field may not be zero.

• A point of maximum or minimum potential can be an equilibrium point (since slope =
0 there).
• A positive charge contributes positive potential, and a negative charge contributes
negative potential.

Solution :
Statement 1: ∣Q1∣ > ∣Q2∣
If two potentials (A and B) cancel each other near Q2, it implies Q1 is stronger, because its
influence reaches far enough to cancel Q2’s potential in both directions.
Correct

Statement 2: Q1 is positive
Since the potential reaches a maximum at point C (near Q2), and if Q2 is negative, it implies
the other charge (Q1) must be positive for their potentials to oppose and create a maximum.
Also, having a positive potential contribution confirms Q1 is positive.
Correct

Statement 3: A and B are equilibrium points

A and B are points where potential = 0, but for equilibrium, electric field must be zero

(i.e., ).
But if potential just crosses zero (not flat), electric field is not zero — so they are not
equilibrium points.
Incorrect

Statement 4: C is a point of equilibrium

At a maximum point in a potential vs. position graph, the slope , so electric field is
zero, making it a point of equilibrium.
Correct

Final Answer : (3)

39) Explaining : We are given:

• A solid uncharged conducting sphere of radius 3a.
• It contains a spherical cavity of radius aa at its center.
• A point charge +Q is placed at the center of the cavity.
• The entire conductor is neutral (i.e., has no net charge).
• We are asked to find the electric potential at a point located at distance r = 2a from the
center, taking V = 0 at infinity.

Concept : This question is based on

To solve for the electric potential at a point due to a charge configuration, we use the
principle of superposition.
The total electric potential at a point is the algebraic sum of the potentials due to all
individual charges:
V = V1 + V2 + V3
Where:
• V = Electric potential at point of interest

• (Coulomb's constant)

• for a point charge at distance r

Important electrostatic results:
• Outside a spherical shell, it behaves like a point charge at center.
• Inside a conducting shell, electric field is zero, and potential is constant.
• For a conducting sphere in electrostatic equilibrium:
- Induced charge −Q appears on inner surface of the cavity.
- Induced charge +Q appears on outer surface (to keep total charge zero).

Solution : Let’s compute the potential at r = 2a due to each source:

(i) Point charge +Q at center

• Distance from point: r = 2a

• Potential:
(ii) Induced charge −Q on inner cavity (spherical shell at r = a)
We're outside this shell (2a > a), so it acts like a point charge at center:

(iii) Induced charge +Q on outer surface at r = 3a

• We're inside this shell (2a < 3a)
• Inside a spherical shell, potential is constant and equal to surface potential:

Add them all:

V = V1 + V2 + V3 =

Final Answer : (3)

40) Explaining : You're given an electric potential function:

ϕ(x, y, z) = x2y + yz
You are asked to find the magnitude of the electric field at the point (1,3,1).

Concept : This question is based on

The electric field is the negative gradient of the potential function:

We’ll:
• Compute the partial derivatives,
• Evaluate them at the given point,
• Find the magnitude of the vector.

Solution : Given:
ϕ(x, y, z) = x2y + yz
Compute partial derivatives:

•
At point (1, 3, 1):

•
Now calculate magnitude:

Final Answer : (1)

41) Explaining : We are given:
• A uniform electric field of magnitude 400 V/m directed at 45° above the x-axis.
• Two points:
- Point A=(0,2) cm
- Point B=(3,0) cm
We are to find the potential difference VA − VB, using the fact that the positions are in
centimeters.
Concept :
In a uniform electric field, the potential difference between two points is given by:
ΔV = VA − VB =
Where:
• is the electric field vector,
•
• The dot product

Solution :
Step 1: Convert Coordinates from cm to m

• A = (0,2) cm =

• B = (3,0) cm =
Step 2: Displacement vector

Step 3: Electric field vector

Electric field is 400 V/m at 45° above x-axis

Step 4: Dot product

Step 5: Potential difference

Final Answer : (4)

42) Explaining : We are given:

• A dipole consisting of two charges:
- −q on the left,
- +q on the right,
• Distance between the charges = 6 cm, so each charge is 3 cm from the midpoint O.
• Point P lies 5 cm to the right of center O.
We are to find the electric potential at point P in terms of K, Q, and expressed as a multiple
of 102 V.
Concept : This question is based on
The electric potential due to a point charge at a distance r is:

Electric potential is a scalar quantity, so the total potential at a point is the algebraic sum of
potentials due to individual charges.
So, the total potential at point P due to both charges is:

VP = V+Q + V−Q = KQ
Where:
• r+ = distance from +q to point P
• r− = distance from −q to point P

Solution : Given
• Distance from O to each charge = 3 cm
• Distance from O to point P = 5 cm
So:

• r+ = 5 − 3 = 2 cm =

• r− = 5 + 3 = 8 cm =
Now calculate:

Now convert to a multiple of 102 V

Final Answer : (4)

43) Explaining : The question is asking about the work done in moving the charge from A to B

Concept : This question is based on work done in moving a charge

W = q [Vf – Vi]

Solution : The work done by a electrostatic force is given by W12 = q(V2 – V1). Here initial and
final potentials are same in all three cases and same charge is moved, so work done is same in
all three cases.

Final Answer : (3)

44) Explaining : We are given:

• A solid non-conducting sphere of radius a, carrying uniform positive charge +q in its
volume.
• A hollow spherical conductor (a spherical shell) with:
- Inner radius = b
- Outer radius = c
- Net charge = −q
• The two spheres are concentric.
We are to analyze 5 statements about electric fields and surface charges and identify which
 of them are true.

Concept : This question is based on

• Electric field inside a uniformly charged solid sphere (non-conducting):

for r < a
• Electric field inside a conductor is always zero in electrostatics.
• Charge induction on conductors:
If a charge +q is placed inside a neutral conducting shell, it induces a charge −q on the
inner surface of the shell.
Since the shell has a net charge of −q, the outer surface must carry charge +q to balance the
total.

Solution : Let’s verify each statement.

(i) The electric field for r < a:
This is inside the uniformly charged non-conducting sphere:

(ii) Electric field for a < r < b :

This region lies outside the solid sphere but inside the cavity of the conductor (no charge
here).
Using Gauss’s law, the field is due to charge +q enclosed:
E ≠ 0 → FALSE
(iii) Electric field for b < r < c :

This is inside the conductor, and electrostatic field inside a conductor is always:
E = 0→ TRUE
(iv) Charge on the inner surface of the conducting shell:
Since a + q charge is inside the shell, it induces –q on the inner surface.
→ TRUE
(v) Charge on the outer surface of the shell:
Net charge on shell = −q, and inner surface has –q, so outer surface must have zero charge.
→ FALSE

Final Answer : (2)

45) QUESTION EXPLANATION:

You're given:

A. A charge q is placed inside a cavity in a neutral conductor.

B. An external electric field is now applied.
You are to determine what happens as a result. CONCEPT:
฀ Before the field is applied:

A. A charge q inside the cavity induces a charge − q on the inner surface of the cavity.
B. To keep the conductor neutral, a charge +q is induced on the outer surface.

฀ When an external electric field is applied:

A. Electric field cannot exist inside the conductor’s bulk, so:

A. Charges redistribute on the outer surface to cancel the field inside.
B. However, the inner surface charges remain unchanged because the field from
external sources does not penetrate into the cavity (due to electrostatic shielding).
B. The electric field inside the cavity depends only on the enclosed charge (Gauss's law).
A. The field inside the cavity remains unchanged.
B. Hence, no new force acts on the charge q inside.

SOLUTION:

A. The inner surface charge distribution remains the same.

B. The outer surface charges redistribute to cancel the external field inside the conductor.

FINAL ANSWER:
(1) Only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : Find rate of formation of NO2 & O2 ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of disappearance & appearance.
Solution :

Rate = – =+ =2

Given = 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

Rate of formation of NO2

= =–2
= 2 × 6·25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
= 12·50 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
= 1·25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1
Rate of formation of O2
= 6·25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
= 3·125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
Final Answer : (3)

47)

Explaining : Find order of reaction ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :
Suppose order of reaction is n. Then
 Rate = k [A]n
2 × 10–3 = k (0 ·05)n ... (i)
and 1·6 × 10–2 = k (0·1)n ... (ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i);
8 = 2n or 23 = 2n or n = 3.
Final Answer : (2)

48)

Explaining : Find rate of formation of I2 ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of disappearance & appearance.
Solution :
Rate of disappearance of I–,

– =
= 10 mol L–1 min–1
–3

Rate of reaction = – =+
∴ Rate of formation of I2,

= =– =
= 5 × 10 mol L–1 min–1
–4

Final Answer : (2)

49)

Explaining : Find order of reaction wrt NO(g) ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :
Rate = k [NOBr2] [NO] ... (i)

From step I, Keq =

or [NOBr2] = Keq [NO] [Br2]
Substituting in eqn. (i), we get
Rate = k Keq [NO]2 [Br2] = k′ [NO]2 [Br2]
Hence, order with respect to NO is 2.
Final Answer : (3)

50)

Explaining : Find order of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on complex reaction.
Solution :
As rate depends upon the slow step,
Rate = k [A] [B2]

For the equilibrium, A2 2 A, Kc =

or [A] =
∴ Rate = [A2]1/2 [B2] = k′ [A2]1/2 [B2]

Hence, order = + 1 = 1
Final Answer : (3)

51)

Explaining : Find correct graph ?

Concept : This question is based on graph calculation.
Solution :

0
For zero order reaction, k = {[A] – [A]}
or [A]t = – kt + [A]0. Thus, plot of [A] vs 1 is
linear with –ve slope (= – k).
Final Answer : (2)

52)

Explaining : Find time required to reduce initial concentration by a factor .

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :

Time taken to reduce by factor of = 20 min.

∴ Time taken to reduce by factor of ,

i.e. , t1/2 = 10 min

Total time required = 4 × t1/2 = 4 × 10 min

= 40 min
Final Answer : (4)

53)

Explaining : Find rate of reaction ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :
To calculate concentration after 10 mm :

k= log

∴ 0·0693 = log

or log = 0.3010 or =2
or [A] = 5 mol L–1
Rate of reaction after 10 min = k [A]
= 0·0693 × 5 mol L–1 min–1
Final Answer : (3)

54)

Explaining : Find order of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on zero order reaction.
Solution :
When initial pressure is halved, the half-life period is also halved. This shows that t1/2 ∞ initial
pressure. This is so for reactions of zero order.
Final Answer : (1)

55)

Explaining : Find t1/4 ?

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :

t1/4 = log = log

= =
Final Answer : (2)

56)

Explaining : Find concentration of A left after time t.

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :
The given rate law shows that it is a reaction of 1st order. For 1st order reactions, [A]t = [A]0

0
When t = , [A] = [A]0 = [A] e–1 =
Final Answer : (1)

57)

Explaining : Find minimum value for Ea ?

Concept : This question is based on activation energy.
Solution :
Ea > ΔH

Final Answer : (3)

58)

Explaining : Find temperature at which k1 = k2 ?

Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius concept / equation.
Solution :
k1 = 1016 e–2000/T, k2 = 1015 e–1000/ T
When k1 = k2, 1016 e–2000/T = 1015 e–1000/T
or 10 e–2000/T = e–1000/T
Taking natural logarithm of both sides, we get

ln 10 – =

or 2.303 – =

or = 2·303 or T =
Final Answer : (4)

59)

Explaining : Find activation energy ?

Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius equation.
Solution :

Given log k = 6 –

Comparing with log k = log A –

log A = 6, i.e. , A = 106 and = 2000

–1
or Ea = 2000 × 2·303 × 8·314 J moI
= 38294 J mol–1 = 38·3 kJ mol–1
Final Answer : (4)

60)

Explaining : Find order of reaction ?

Concept : This question is based on half-life.
Solution :

∴ = =

∴ = (4)1–n or (4)–1 = (4)1–n

or –1 = I – n or n = 2.
Final Answer : (2)

61)

Explaining : Find rate of reaction ?

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :
A (g) 2 B (g) + C (g)
Initial 0·5 atm - -
After 2 hrs 0·5 – p 2p p
Total pressure after 2 hours = (0·5 – p) + 2p + p
= 0·5 + 2p
∴ 0·5 + 2p = 0·7 or p = 0·1 atm
∴ Pressure of A after 2 hours = 0·5 – 0·1
= 0·4 atm
Rate constant in s-1 shows that it is a reaction of 1st order.
∴ Rate after 2 hours = k [A] = k P
= (10–3 s–1) (0·4 atm)
= 4·0 × 10–4 atm s–1.
Final Answer : (2)

62)

Explaining : Find molarity of the solution ?

Concept : This question is based on concentration term.
Solution :
Total mass of the solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g

Total volume of the solution =

= 2.05 M
Final Answer : (3)

63)

Explaining : Find molality of solution ?

Concept : This question is based on concentration term.
Solution :
Molar mass of urea, (NH2)2CO = 32 + 12 + 16 = 60 g mol–1

= 5.55 × 10–4 mol dm–3

= 5.55 × 10–4 m.
Final Answer : (2)

64)

Explaining : Find mole fraction of solute ?

Concept : This question is based on concentration term.
Solution :
1.0 molal aqueous solution means that 1 mole of the solute is present in 1000 g of water, i.e.,
1000/18 mole or 5.55 mole of water
∴ Mole fraction of the solute

Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : Find concentration ?

Concept : This question is based on concentration term.
Solution :
Suppose 1 L of 0.1 M AgNO3 is mixed with 1 L of 0.2 M NaCl solution. Then, 0.1 mol of AgNO3
will react with 0.1 mol of NaCl to form 0.1 and of NaNO3 in the solution which will ionize to
produce 0.1 mol ions. But now volume after mixing = 2 L. Hence, concentration of
ions in the mixed solution = 0.1/2 = 0.05 M.
Final Answer : (2)

66)

Explaining : Find volume of acid ?

Concept : This question is based on concentration term.
Solution :
98% H2SO4 by mass means 98 g H2SO4 present in 100 g of the solution,
i.e., 100/1.80 mL = 55.5 mL
Also 98 g H2SO4 = 1 mole H2SO4

∴ Molarity of 98% H2SO4 solution

Now, M1V1 = M2V2

Hence,
or V1 = 5.55 mL.
Final Answer : (1)

67)

Explaining : Find volume of X ?

Concept : This question is based on mole fraction calculation.
Solution :

∴
Taking n1 = 1000/78 moles (Mol. mass of C6H6 = 78)

Final Answer : (2)

68)

Explaining : Find number of moles of N2 ?

Concept : This question is based on Henry's law.
Solution :

= mole fraction of N2 in air × Total pressure of air

= 0.8 × 5 atm = 4 atm
∴ or
This means that in one mole of water, no. of moles of N2 dissolved = 4 × 10–5
∴ In 10 moles of water, no. of moles of N2 dissolved = 4 × 10–4.
Final Answer : (1)

69)

Explaining : Find amount of solute ?

Concept : This question is based on RLVP.
Solution :
If po = 100 mm, ps = 100 – 10 = 90 mm

or
Final Answer : (2)

70)

Explaining : Find mole (amount of A).

Concept : This question is based on Roult's law.
Solution :
ptotal (at 80°C) = 760 mm

∴ 1000 + xA(520 – 1000) = 760

∴ 480 xA = 240
or xA = 0.50, i.e., 50 mol percent.
Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Find vapour pressure of two pure liquids X & Y.

Concept : This question is based on Raoult's law.
Solution :
Molar ratio of 1 : 1 means xX = xY = 0.5

∴
or …(i)

Molar ratio of 1 : 2 means, ,

∴
or …(ii)
Eqn. (ii) – Eqn. (i) gives
Putting in (i), we get
Final Answer : (4)

72)

Explaining : Find mole fraction in vapour phase ?

Concept : This question is based on mole fraction.
Solution :
In solution, if xA = x, xB = 2x
and if ,
∴ pA = x × p, pB = 2x × 2p = 4x × p
∴ Ptotal = 5xp
Mole fraction in vapour phase

Final Answer : (4)

73)

Explaining : Find moles of solute ?

Concept : This question is based on RLVP.
Solution :
Relative lowering of vapour pressure = mole fraction of the solute in the solution,

i.e.,
Moles of solute = n2 when n1 = 1000/18 mole
= 55.55 mole

or or

or
Final Answer : (1)

74)

Explaining : Find vapour pressure of solution ?

Concept : This question is based on Raoult's law.
Solution :
 ,

∴ xoct = 1 – 0.45 = 0.55

Ptotal = 0.45 × 105 + 0.55 × 45 kPa
= 47.25 + 24.75 = 72 kPa.
Final Answer : (3)

75)

Explaining : Find osmotic pressure.

Concept : This question is based on colligative properties.
Solution :

or

= 61038 g mol–1
Final Answer : (4)

76)

Explaining : Find osmotic pressure.

Concept : This question is based on osmotic pressure.
Solution :
NaCl sol. used should be isotonic with blood stream. For NaCl, i = 2. π = i CRT

= 0.15 mol L–1.

Final Answer : (1)

77)

Explaining : Find mole fraction of Urea ?

Concept : This question is based on colligative property.
Solution :
ΔTb = Kb × m

Hence, molality,
Molality = 1 means 1 mole of solute in 1000 g of solvent.
But 1000 g of solvent (water)

moles = 55.55 moles

∴ Mole fraction of urea =

Final Answer : (3)

78)

Explaining : Find molecular formula of compound.

Concept : This question is based on depression in freezing point.
Solution :

E.F. mass CH2O = 30 ∴

∴ Molecular formula = 6 × CH2O = C6H12O6
Final Answer : (4)

79)

Explaining : Find freezing point of solution ?

Concept : This question is based on colligative property.
Solution :
ΔTb = Kb × m ∴ 0.18 = 0.512 × m

∴ Tf = –0.654°C
Final Answer : (2)

80)

Explaining : Find freezing point of solution ?

Concept : This question is based on depression in freezing point.
Solution :
KI reacts with HgI2 to form a complex as

Thus, number of ions decreases in the solution.

Hence, depression in freezing point is less, i.e., actual freezing point is raised.
Final Answer : (1)

81)

Explaining : Find amount of ice separated ?

Concept : This question is based on depression in freezing point.
Solution :
We have to calculate mass of liquid water that is present in the solution. The remaining will
freeze as ice.
or w1 = 161.29 g
∴ Ice separated out = 200 – 161.29 = 38.71 g
Final Answer : (3)

82)

Explaining : Find ΔTf ?

Concept : This question is based on colligative property.
Solution :
(ΔTf)NaCl = i Kfm
∴ 0.37 = 2 × Kf × 0.01 (For NaCl, i = 2 …(i)
(ΔTf)urea = Kfm = Kf × 0.02
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get

or (ΔTf)urea = 0.37°C
Final Answer : (1)

83)

Explaining : Find ionization percentage ?

Concept : This question is based on colligative property.
Solution :

NaOH —→ Na+ + OH–

1 mol 0 0
1–α α α Toal = 1 + α
i = 1 + α or α = i – 1 = 0.6 = 60%
Final Answer : (2)

84)

Explaining : Find freezing point of solution.

Concept : This question is based on colligative property.
Solution :
K3[Fe(CN)6] —→ 3 K+ + [Fe(CN)6]3– ∴i=4

= 0.023 = 2.3 × 10–2 °C or K

Final Answer : (1)
85)

Explaining : Find order of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on zero order reaction.
Solution : [At] = (–k)t + [A0]
Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining : Find t99.9%

Concept : This question is based on first order reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

87)

Explaining : Find order of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on rate law.
Solution :
If one of the reactant is taken in excess then rate of reaction does not depend upon excess
reactant and reaction becomes zeroth order with respect to excess reactant and reaction
becomes pseudo first order reaction.
R = K(A)2(B)
if A is in excess
R = K[A]°[B]
Total order of reaction = 1
Final Answer : (2)

88)

Explaining : Find percentage of the reactant will remain after 24 hours.

Concept : This question is based on First order reaction.
Solution :

remaining = = 25 % after 24 hr
Final Answer : (2)

89)

Explaining : Find rate of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction.
Solution :
 Final Answer : (1)

90)

Explaining : Find value of log K will be :

Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius equation.
Solution :

logK = logA

Final Answer : (4)

BIOLOGY

91) Explaining : Mesosome is formed by plasma membrane, not the nuclear envelope (which
is absent in prokaryotes).
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

92) Explaining : Ribosomes are non-membranous organelles found in various parts of cells.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

93) Explaining : Ribosomes in eukaryotes are 60S and 40S. The 30S + 50S combo is
prokaryotic (70S).
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

94) Explaining :Golgi modifies proteins (like glycosylation) and packages them for secretion
or transport.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

95) Explaining : Each function matches directly with its organelle.

Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

96) Explaining : Structures of prokaryotes have specific roles — plasmid (DNA), pili (mating),
fimbriae (adhesion).
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)
97) Explaining : Mycoplasma is the smallest and lacks a cell wall, allowing shape variation.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

98) Explaining : Outermost to innermost in bacteria: Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Plasma

membrane.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

99) Explaining : Chromoplasts contain carotenoids, not chlorophyll.

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

100) Explaining : Plasma membrane is selectively permeable; cell wall is freely permeable to
small molecules.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

101) Explaining : Inner membrane forms cristae. Not the outer membrane.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

102) Explaining : Peroxisomes have oxidative enzymes that degrade fatty acids and detoxify
H₂O₂ using catalase.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

103) Explaining : Golgi processes and packages lysosomal enzymes into vesicles.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

104) Explaining : Golgi is polarized; cis face is toward nucleus, trans face sends toward
membrane.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

105) Explaining : Bacteria are prokaryotic and have no true membrane-bound organelles.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

106) Explaining : Secretory proteins are synthesized by RER-bound ribosomes and processed
for export.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)
107) Explaining : Nucleolus is non-membranous but involved in rRNA synthesis and ribosome
assembly.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

108) Explaining : Ribosomes synthesize → vesicles transport to Golgi → processed → secreted

out via plasma membrane.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

109) Explaining : Outer boundary is envelope → inside is nucleoplasm → contains nucleolus +

chromatin.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

110) Explaining : Tonoplast is the vacuolar membrane; it actively transports ions and
substances inside vacuole.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

111) Explaining : Fluidity is crucial; but lipid bilayer allows movement — it’s not rigid.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

112) Explaining : Chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes like mitochondria and prokaryotes.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

113) Explaining : Prokaryotic flagella are made of flagellin and do not have 9+2
microtubules.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

114) Explaining : Desmosomes are junctions in animal cells; plasmodesmata are unique to
plant cells.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

115) Explaining : Lysosomes digest damaged organelles and macromolecules via hydrolytic
enzymes.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

116) Explaining : Fimbriae help bacteria adhere to surfaces or host cells.

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

117) Explaining : Ribosomes are protein-RNA complexes without any surrounding membrane.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

118) Explaining : Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S (smaller), while eukaryotic ones are 80S.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

119) Explaining : Only plant cells and euglenoids have plastids, not all eukaryotes (e.g.,
animals lack them).
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

120) Explaining : Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) are prokaryotes without a true nucleus.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

121) Explaining : In all connective tissue EXCEPT blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural
proteins called collagen or elastin.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

122) Explaining : Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube like cells.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

123) Explaining : Gap junctions- Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
Tight junctions- Helps to stop substances from leaking across the tissue. Compound
epithelium- Limited role in secretion and absorption.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

124) Explaining : A is bone having solid and non-pliable ground substance which resists
compression.
B is Dense irregular connective tissue and collagen fibres are oriented differently. A is bone
provides structural frame to the body.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

125) Explaining : Epithelial tissue has a free surface which faces either a body fluid or the
outside environment. In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells along with intercellular
substances perform a specific function such an organization is tissue.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

126) Explaining : Smooth muscles are involuntary as their functioning cannot be directly
controlled by our will.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

127) Explaining : Biceps muscles are striated and voluntary.

Our heart consists of all four types of tissues.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

128) Explaining : Incorrect- Collagen fibre- Correct Fibroblast cell.

Incorrect- Fibroblast cell- Correct- Collagen fibres.
Correctly labelled are Mast cell and Macrophage.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

129) Explaining : Simple columnar epithelium is a unlayered epithelium composed of tall and
slender cells.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

130) Explaining : Ground substance (Matrix) in bone is rich in Calcium salts & Collagen
fibres.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

131) Explaining : All are correct regarding compound epithelium.

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

132) Explaining : Given structure is of bone having a hard and non-pliable matrix. Rich in
calcium salts and collagen fibres and It is the main tissue which provides structural frame to
the body.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

133) Explaining : Smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends and do not show striations.
Present in the wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine and
these are involuntary’ as their function cannot be directly controlled.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)
134) Explaining : Simple columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

135) Explaining : Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube like cells.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

136) Explaining : In all connective tissue excluding blood, the cells secrete fibres of
structural proteins called collagen or elastin fibres. Blood is a fluid connective tissue
(Specialised connective tissue) and is the main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of
gases.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

137) Explaining : Adhering Junction- Keep neighboring cells together

Gap Junction- Facilitate rapid transfer of ions
Exocrine- Ear wax, oil, milk
Endocrine- Hormones
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

138) Explaining : Simple Cuboidal Epithelium – They are found in lining of Nephron
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

139) Explaining : Compound epithelium – Limited role in secretion & absorption.

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

140) Explaining : Given picture- Adipose tissue- Contain Adipocytes- specialised to store fats.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

141) Explaining : Tubulin protein synthesis (B), Increase in number of chromosomes (C), and
Centriole duplication in nucleus (D) are not part of the S-phase. Centriole duplicates in
cytoplasm.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

142) Explaining : Total number of chromatids = Number of chromosomes × 2 = 46 × 2 = 92

chromatids
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)
143) Explaining : Meiosis halves the chromosome number (2n to n) in gametes, and
fertilization restores it (n + n to 2n) when gametes fuse. Both processes are essential for
maintaining the species-specific chromosome count across generations.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

144) Explaining : Both statement I and statement II are true.

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

145) Explaining : Statement I is true because Leptotene is when chromosomes become

visible. Statement II is true as Diplotene starts with the dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

146) Explaining : Statement I is true as bivalents/tetrads form in Zygotene and are clearer in
Pachytene. Statement II is true because recombinase mediates crossing over, leading to
genetic recombination
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

147) Explaining : Statement 1 is true (chromosomes decondense in Telophase). Statement 2

is true, describing cells in the G0 (quiescent) phase.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

148) Explaining : Cells in the G0 phase are metabolically active but do not proliferate unless
signaled to do so, fitting the description
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

149) Explaining : Diplotene: Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (I) and appearance of

chiasmata (II).
Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata (III).
Anaphase I: Homologous chromosomes separate (IV).
The option I, II, III, IV provides the listed events in their closest sequential order within the
given choices, acknowledging that terminalisation (Diakinesis) technically precedes Anaphase
I.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

150) Explaining :Meiosis produces haploid cells (gametes) essential for sexual reproduction,
ensuring the genetic continuity while allowing for variation.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

151) Explaining :Statement 1 is false (DNA replication/growth are mostly interphase events,
not cell division itself).
Statement 4 is false (replicated chromosomes are distributed during M-phase, not interphase
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

152) Explaining :Recombination nodules appear during the Pachytene stage, not Diplotene.
Diplotene is characterized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the visibility of
chiasmata.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

153) Explaining :Both Assertion (DNA remains intertwined after replication) and Reason
(chromosomal condensation in Prophase) are true statements. However, the Reason does not
explain the Assertion; they are independent fact
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

154) Explaining :Both Assertion (crossing over is enzyme-mediated) and Reason (recombinase
causes recombination and variation) are true. The Reason directly explains the Assertion and
its significance
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

155) Explaining The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear during Telophase, not
Anaphase
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

156) Explaining Sol. I, II, and III are correct descriptions of these anaphase stages. IV is
incorrect because mitosis is equational, so no reduction in chromosome number occurs during
mitotic anaphase
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

157) Explaining : Following is the figure of metaphase where spindle fibres are attach to the
kinetochores of chromosomes and chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

158) Explaining : I, III, and IV are true for G2 phase. II is false because the chromosome
number does not double after S phase; only DNA content does (from 2C to 4C), with
chromosomes still counted as 2n but each having two chromatids.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

159) Explaining : If cytokinesis (cell plate formation) fails after karyokinesis, multiple nuclear
divisions will occur within a single shared cytoplasm, leading to a multinucleate condition
called a syncytium.:
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

160) Explaining : (a) Diakinesis is characterized by Terminalisation of Chiasmata (iv).

• (b) Zygotene is where Pairing of Homologous chromosomes (Synapsis) occurs (i).
• (c) Pachytene is when Non-sister chromatids exchange their part (Crossing over) (ii).
• (d) Diplotene is when Chiasmata are formed and become visible (iii).
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

161) Explaining : RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. In a polysaccharide, the
individual monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

162) Explaining : Formation of glycosidic bonds is a dehydration synthesis reaction

(formation of bond with removal of water).
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

163) Explaining : Cotton fibre - Cellulose

Exoskeleton of cockroach - Chitin
Liver - Glycogen
Peeled potato - Starch
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

164) Explaining : Cellulose does not show blue colour with iodine because it does not have
helical structure while starch shows blue black colouration with iodine.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

165) Explaining : Palmitic acid – A saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
Glucose - Monosaccharide.
Chitin - Homopolymer.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)
166) Explaining : Proteins – 10-15%; Nucleic acids – 5-7%; Carbohydrates – 3%; Lipids – 2%.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

167) Explaining :

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

168) Explaining : Carbohydrates are composed of carbon and hydrogen only

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

169) Explaining : Lipids are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

170) Concept :
Solution : The simplest carbohydrates are called monosaccharides, which include sugars like
glucose and fructose. When two monosaccharides join, they form a disaccharide, such as
sucrose.
Final Answer : (4)

171)

Explaining : Monosaccharide – Sugar units

Starch – Energy storage in plants
Glycogen – Energy storage in animals
Phospholipid - Lecithin
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

172) Explaining : Saturated fatty acids have only single bonds.

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

173) Explaining : Both are true statements.

Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

174) Explaining : Oils are liquid at room temperature.

Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

175) Explaining : All are true statements

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

176) Explaining : Living organisms have got both organic and inorganic elements and
compounds in them. Oils have lower melting point and hence remain as liquid in winters.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

177) Explaining : Cell wall is absent in animals. Collagen is the most abundant protein in
animal world.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

178) Concept :
Solution : The Reason is false: Secondary metabolites are not useless; many have
significant ecological and economic importance (e.g. antibiotics, rubber, spices, scents).
Final Answer : (3)

179) Explaining : Statement 2 – Incorrect: Unlike primary metabolites, secondary

metabolites are not essential for growth or development.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

180)

Explaining : Monosaccharide - Glucose

Disaccharide - Sucrose
Polysaccharide - Cellulose
Lipid - Palmitic acid
Nucleic acid - DNA and RNA
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)