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Tough DGCA Air Regulations Exam Paper

The document contains a tough multiple-choice question paper for the DGCA Air Regulations exam, featuring 50 questions that cover various aspects of aviation regulations and procedures. Each question is designed to test advanced knowledge and application of air regulations, with topics ranging from ICAO annexes to aircraft operation protocols. An answer key is provided at the end for reference.

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Akhil Sharma
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
138 views10 pages

Tough DGCA Air Regulations Exam Paper

The document contains a tough multiple-choice question paper for the DGCA Air Regulations exam, featuring 50 questions that cover various aspects of aviation regulations and procedures. Each question is designed to test advanced knowledge and application of air regulations, with topics ranging from ICAO annexes to aircraft operation protocols. An answer key is provided at the end for reference.

Uploaded by

Akhil Sharma
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

using that pdf create another tough

question paper for dgca exam air


regulations
Here is a brand new tough DGCA Air Regulations exam paper. Only the questions are
listed first; all answers are at the end. These are advanced, application, scenario, and
regulatory interpretation questions drawn from your R.K. Bali PDF[attached_file:1f9e3f1f-
b71c-43cd-b1b8-11ebedfd284c].

DGCA Air Regulations – Tough MCQ Paper (Questions Only)

1. ICAO Annex 17 relates primarily to:


A) Aircraft accident investigation
B) Security measures
C) Facilitation procedures

2. In case of technical landing for fuel at a foreign state while carrying no passengers,
which freedom of the air is invoked?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third

3. What is the minimum vertical separation for non-RVSM traffic above FL290?
A) 1000 ft
B) 2000 ft
C) 4000 ft

4. The ICAO convention regulating responsibility for international carriage of


passengers and goods is:
A) Tokyo
B) Warsaw
C) Rome
5. A black letter “C” on yellow background at an aerodrome indicates:
A) Control tower location
B) Aerodrome reference point
C) Reporting office for pilots

6. When a pilot receives a steady red light signal while taxiing, it means:
A) Stop
B) Return to apron
C) Hold position and call ready

7. The minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR outside controlled airspace
above 3000ft AMSL is:
A) Clear of cloud and in sight of surface
B) 1.5 km
C) 2.0 km

8. Alert phase (ALERFA) is initiated when:


A) Aircraft reported overdue
B) Concern for safety without evidence of distress
C) Aircraft has declared MAYDAY

9. Taxiway edge lights are colored:


A) Blue
B) Green
C) White

10. Pilots must notify ATC of changes to ETA at destination if variation exceeds:
A) 2 minutes
B) 3 minutes
C) 5 minutes

11. A red square panel with yellow diagonals signals:


A) Aerodrome unsafe for landing
B) Special care to be taken when landing
C) Taxiway under maintenance

12. Which ICAO annex covers Aerodrome standards?


A) Annex 6
B) Annex 14
C) Annex 11

13. The requirement for minimum sector altitude on approach charts is coverage within:
A) 10 NM
B) 20 NM
C) 25 NM

14. What does QNH mean?


A) Altimeter setting to get field elevation
B) Altimeter setting for pressure altitude
C) Altimeter subscale at highest obstacle

15. Minimum visibility for special VFR clearance is:


A) 1000 m
B) 1500 m
C) 500 m

16. During wake turbulence separation, a medium aircraft taking off behind heavy on
same runway requires:
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes

17. RVR must be at least what value for public transport takeoff?
A) 150 m
B) 200 m
C) 250 m

18. ICAO Doc 8168 contains:


A) NOTAM procedures
B) Instrument procedure standards
C) Licensing requirements

19. The registration mark prefix for Indian civil aircraft is:
A) VT
B) IN
C) IC
20. The definition of “Flight visibility” is:
A) Visibility from pilot’s cabin in flight
B) ATC determined visibility
C) Meteorological visibility at airport

21. When two aircraft are approaching head-on on the ground, each must:
A) Stop or alter course to right
B) Yield to the smaller aircraft
C) Alter course to the left

22. OCA is associated with:


A) Minimum obstacle clearance altitude
B) Maximum allowable cruising altitude
C) Oceanic crossing altitude

23. Who is finally responsible for the disposition of an aircraft?


A) Instructor
B) Commander
C) DGCA

24. Special VFR may be authorized solely in:


A) Controlled zones
B) Uncontrolled airspace
C) Upper airspace

25. The minimum safe altitude above populated areas is:


A) 500 ft
B) 1000 ft
C) 1500 ft

26. What does the ATIS broadcast provide?


A) Routine information for arrivals/departures
B) En-route weather phenomena
C) Weather for FIRs only

27. During decompression at altitudes above 33,000 ft, crew must breathe 100%
oxygen with added pressure above:
A) 22,000 ft
B) 33,000 ft
C) 45,000 ft

28. Minimum cabin oxygen is required when cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
A) 700 mb
B) 620 mb
C) 800 mb

29. Taxiway centerline lights are generally colored:


A) White
B) Green
C) Yellow

30. The minimum equipment list (MEL) is:


A) Prepared by the manufacturer
B) Prepared by the operator, attached to Flight Manual
C) In the AIP

31. When a pilot receives a flashing green to aircraft on ground, it means:


A) Cleared to taxi
B) Return to starting point
C) Hold position

32. Which ICAO annex covers the transport of dangerous goods?


A) Annex 13
B) Annex 16
C) Annex 18

33. For formation flight, permission must be obtained between:


A) PICs
B) Operator and DGCA
C) ATC

34. The phrase “transmitting blind” relates to:


A) No response expected
B) Unable to see the receiver
C) Communication but not sure recipient is listening
35. METAR “CAVOK” reports:
A) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 ft
B) Cloud base at 1000 ft
C) Visibility less than 5 km

36. QDR means:


A) True bearing to the station
B) Magnetic bearing from station
C) Altimeter subscale setting

37. In controlled airspace, minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR is:
A) 300 m
B) 500 ft
C) 1000 ft

38. When a white dumbbell is displayed with a black bar at aerodrome, it indicates:
A) Use runways/taxiways only for landing/takeoff/taxi
B) Unmarked landing zones authorized
C) Follow specific ATC clearance

39. The squawk code for unlawful interference (hijack) is:


A) 7700
B) 7500
C) 7600

40. For public transport reciprocating aircraft, final reserve fuel is calculated as:
A) 30 min cruise
B) 45 min at specified speed/altitude
C) 2 hours cruise

41. Which phase involves actual distress?


A) INCERFA
B) ALERFA
C) DETRESFA

42. Wake turbulence risk is highest when:


A) Heavy aircraft takes off/lands just before light
B) Crosswind >20 kt
C) Light aircraft precedes heavy
43. When a message is preceded by “CORRECTION”, it means:
A) Message disregarded
B) Error made, corrected message follows
C) Message in error, repeat for clarity

44. The color of runway threshold lights is:


A) Blue
B) White
C) Green

45. “Rome Convention” mainly deals with:


A) Compensation for surface damage
B) Dangerous goods
C) Boarding procedures

46. SVFR authorization requires visibility not less than:


A) 1500 m
B) 1800 m
C) 1000 m

47. The approach control service is provided for:


A) All arriving/departing flights
B) Only IFR arrivals/departures
C) IFR and VFR flights in CTR

48. Flights into India must generally land at:


A) Any civil aerodrome
B) Notified customs airport
C) Nearest military base

49. Oxyhemoglobin in blood is transported by:


A) Platelets
B) White blood cells
C) Red blood cells

50. ICAO’s main goal is:


A) Regulate international ticket prices
B) Safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation
C) Authorize aircraft manufacturing
Answer Key

1. B

2. B

3. B

4. B

5. C

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. B

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. A

15. A

16. C

17. A

18. B

19. A

20. A

21. A

22. A

23. B

24. A

25. B
26. A

27. B

28. A

29. B

30. B

31. A

32. C

33. B

34. C

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. A

39. B

40. B

41. C

42. A

43. B

44. C

45. A

46. A

47. A

48. B

49. C

50. B


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