31-08-2025

5301CMD303001250007 MD

PHYSICS

1) The displacement of a body of mass 2 kg varies with time t as s = t2 + 2t, where s is in metres
and t is in seconds. The work done by all the forces acting on the body during the time interval t = 2
s to t = 4 s is :-

(1) 36 J
(2) 64 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 120 J

2) A mass M is lowered with the help of a string by a distance h at a constant downward acceleration
g/2. The work done by the tension in string will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A spring of force constant k is cut in two parts at its one third length. When both the parts are
stretched by same amount, the work done in the two parts, will be

(1) equal in both

(2) greater for the longer part
(3) greater for the shorter part
(4) data insufficient

4)

The force F acting on a particle moving in a straight line as shown in figure. What is the work done
by the force on the particle in the 1 m of the displacement ?

(1) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 2.5 J

5) A body of mass m dropped from a height h reaches the ground with a speed of 1.4 . The work
done by air drag is-

(1) –0.2 mgh

(2) –0.02 mgh
(3) –0.04 mgh
(4) mgh

6) In the track shown in figure section AB is a quadrant of a circle of 1 metre radius in vertical
plane. A block is released at A and slides without friction until it reaches at B. After B it moves on a
rough horizontal floor and comes to rest at D, 3 metres from B. The coefficient of friction between

floor and the body will be :

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 1/4
(4) 3/8

7) The work done in moving a particle under the effect of a conservative force, from position A to B
is 3 joule and from B to C is 4 joule. The work done in moving the particle from A to C is :-

(1) 5 joule
(2) 7 joule
(3) 1 joule
(4) – 1 joule

8) Work done by frictional force

(1) Is always positive

(2) Is always negative
(3) May be positive or negative or zero
(4) Always zero

9) SI. Unit of work done is same as

(1) Energy
(2) Time
(3) Force
(4) Length

10) If F = 2x2 – 3x – 2, then choose correct option

(1)
x= is position of stable equilibrium
(2) x = 2 is position of stable equilibrium

(3)
x= is position of unstable equilibrium
(4) x = 2 is position of neutral equilibrium

11) The variation of potential energy U of a system is shown in figure. The force acting on the

system is best represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The force acting on a body moving along the x-axis varies with the position of the particle as
shown in the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2

13) A man of mass 50 kg is standing in an elevator. If elevator is moving downwards with an

acceleration then work done by normal reaction of elevator floor on man when elevator moves by a
distance 12 m is (g = 10 m/s2) :- :-

(1) –2000 J
(2) –4000 J
(3) –6000 J
(4) –8000 J

14) An elastic string of unstretched length ℓ and force constant k is stretched by a small length x. It
is further stretched by another small length y. The work done in the second stretching is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If a spring extends by x on loading then energy stored by the spring is -

(T is tension in spring, K is spring constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The force constant of a wire is k and that of another wire is 2k. When both the wires are
stretched through same distance, then the work done :-

(1) W2 = 3W1
(2) W2 = 2W1
(3) W2 = W1
(4) W2 = 0.5 W1

17) A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height of 4m on a curved smooth surface. On the
horizontal smooth surface, it collides with a spring of force constant 800 N/m. The maximum

compression in spring will be (g=10 m/s2) :-

(1) 1 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 20 cm

18) A body is falling freely under the action of gravity (no other forces act on this body). Which of
the following quantities remain constants during the fall ?

(1) Kinetic energy

(2) Potential energy
(3) Total mechanical energy
(4) Total linear momentum

19) In the figure the block A is released from rest when the spring is at its natural length. For the
block B of mass M to leave contact with the ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A must be:-

(1) 2M
(2) M

(3)

(4) a function of M and the force constant of the spring

20) A m kg block drops vertically from a height of h on a massless spring of K N/m. Then the
maximum compression of the spring is given using the equations:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) A simple pendulum is released from A as shown. If m and ℓ represent the mass of the bob and

length of the pendulum, the gain in kinetic energy at B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity v and an initial kinetic energy E. When half
way to the top of its flight, it can have velocity and kinetic energy respectively of :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) SI unit of power is

(1) Watt
(2) J
(3) hp
(4) Sec

24) Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = (3t2 – 2t + 1) watt, where t is in second. Find
the change in its kinetic energy between time t = 2sec and t = 4 sec :-

(1) 32 J
(2) 46 J
(3) 61 J
(4) 102 J

25) A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain thrice as
much water from the pipe in the same time power of the motor has to be increased :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 27 times
(4) 81 times

26) An engine pumps up 100 kg of water through a height of 10 m in 5 sec. If efficiency of the engine
is 60%. Find out power input of the engine (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3.33 kw
(2) 4.44 kw
(3) 5 kw
(4) 6 kw

27) Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15kg/sec to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine (g = 10m/s2)?

(1) 12.3 KW
(2) 7 KW
(3) 8.1 KW
(4) 10.2 KW

28) A particle moves with a velocity under the influence of a constant force
. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is

(1) 200 J-s–1

(2) 40 J-s–1
(3) 140 J-s–1
(4) 170 J-s–1

29) Work done by all the forces on the body is equal to change in it's

(1) K.E.
(2) P.E.
(3) Total mechanical energy
(4) None of these

30) Work done is a

(1) Scalar quantity

(2) Vector quantity
(3) Tensor quantity
(4) None of these

31) Largest unit of energy among the following is

(1) kWh
(2) erg
(3) 10erg
(4) J

32) If momentum of a body increases by 50% then its kinetic energy will increase by :-

(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 125%
(4) 150%

33) If the momentum of a body increases by 0.01%, its kinetic energy will increase by

(1) 0.01%
(2) 0.02 %
(3) 0.04 %
(4) 0.08 %

34) A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which one has greater K.E.?

(1) The light body

(2) Both have equal K.E.
(3) The heavy body
(4) Data given is incomplete

35) A body at rest may have non zero

(1) speed
(2) velocity
(3) momentum
(4) energy

36) Work done by gravity on a body projected vertically upward during it's ascent is

(1) Negative
(2) Positive
(3) Zero
(4) None of these

37) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Kinetic energy of a system can be changed without changing it's momentum
(2) Momentum of a system can't be changed without changing it's kinetic energy
(3) A system cannot have energy without having momentum
(4) None of these

38) Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio of 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum.
The ratio of their masses is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

39) A person draws water from a 5m deep well in a bucket of mass 2 kg of capacity 8 litre by a rope
of mass 1 kg. What is the total work done by the person ? [g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 550 J
(2) 525 J
(3) 125 J
(4) 500 J

40) The work done by the frictional force on a surface in drawing a circle of radius r on the surface
by a pencil of negligible mass with a normal pressing force N (coefficient of friction µk) is :

(1) 4πr μK N
2

(2) –2πr μK N
2

(3) –2π r μK N
(4) zero

41) A body of mass m is displaced from a point A(3,1,2) to point B(4,3,3) under the effect of a force
N. Calculate work done by the force.

(1) 57 J
(2) 11 J
(3) 0
(4) 22 J

42) A body of mass 5 kg is placed at the origin, and can move only on the x-axis. A force of 10 N is
acting on it in a direction making an angle of 60° with the x-axis and displaces it along the x-axis by
4 metres. The work done by the force is :-

(1) 2.5 J
(2) 7.25 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 20 J
43) Work done by static friction on an object:

(1) may be positive

(2) may be negative
(3) may be zero
(4) All of these

44) The potential energy- position graph of a particle is shown in figure. Then particle :-

(1) is in stable equilibrium at x1

(2) is in stable equilibrium at x2
(3) is in unstable equilibrium at x2
(4) is in stable equilibrium at x3

45)

A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work done by force of gravity in first, second
and third second of the motion of the ball is :

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 3 : 5
(4) 1 : 5 : 3

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which gas is responsible for green house effect :

(1) CO2
(2) SO2
(3) CO
(4) SO3

2) CO is :

(1) Reductant
(2) Poisonous gas
(3) Neutral to litmus
(4) all

3) Structures of metaboric acid and orthoboric acid respectively are :

(1)
, HO—B = O

(2)
HO — B= O,
(3) Both the above
(4) None

4) Which of the following statements is correct :

(1) Aluminium carbide as well as beryllium carbide produce methane gas on treatment with water
On reacting with water, calcium carbide (CaC2) produces acetylene while magnesium carbide
(2)
(Mg2C3) gives propyne
(3) Both of these
(4) None of these

5) The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:

(1) Chain and dimer, respectively

(2) Linear in both
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(4) Chain in both

6) Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis

(1) Al4C3
(2) Mg2C3
(3) B4C
(4) La4C3

7) Which of the following does not act as lewis acid ?

(1) BF3
(2) SnCl4
(3) CCl4
(4) BeCl2

8) The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is :-

(1) One sigma, two pi

(2) One sigma, one pi
(3) Two sigma, one pi
(4) Two sigma, two pi

9) Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to the structure of diborane

(1) All the terminal B-H bond length are equal

(2) The terminal B–H bond is a 2-centre 3-electron bond
(3) The terminal B–H bond is a 2-centre 2-electron bond

(4)
The bridge is a 3-centre 2-electron bond

10) Which of the following does not exist in free form ?

(1) BF3
(2) BCl3
(3) BBr3
(4) BH3

11) There is a tendency for the elements of groups 13 to 15 of higher periods, particularly period 6,
to form compounds with ions having a positive charge of _________ less than the group oxidation
number.

(1) one
(2) three
(3) four
(4) two

12) Select the element (M) whose trihalides cannot be hydrolysed to produce an ion of the form
[M(H2O)6]3+

(1) Ga
(2) In
(3) Al
(4) B

13) Which oxide is more stable than the other two :

(1) Tℓ2O3
(2) Tℓ2O
(3) Ga2O
(4) All have same stability

14) The hydrolysis of PCl3, produces :

(1) H3PO3 + HClO

(2) H3PO3 + HCl
(3) H3PO4 + HCl
(4) PH3 + HClO

15) Which of the following statements is incorrect in the context of the B–F bond in BF3 :-

All the three B–F bond lengths are equal and each of them is shorter than the sum of the
(1)
covalent radii of boron and fluorine.
(2) The bond energy of the B–F bond is very high, higher than for any other single bond
The unusual shortness and strength of the B–F bond may be explained by a pπ-pπ interaction
(3)
between boron and fluorine atoms.
The unusual shortness and strength of the bonds may be explained by a pπ-dπ interaction
(4)
between the atoms of boron and fluorine.

16) Which of the following structures correctly represents the boron trifluoride molecule :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Trisilylamine [ (SiH3)3] has a

(1) Planar geometry

(2) Tetrahedral geometry
(3) Pyramidal geometry
(4) None of these

18) Which one of the following statement regarding BF3 is not correct?

(1) it is a Lewis acid

(2) it is an ionic compound
(3) it is an electron deficient compound
(4) it forms adducts

19)

In diborane :-
(1) 3 bridged hydrogen and three terminal hydrogens are present
(2) 4 bridged hydrogens and two terminal hydrogens are present
(3) 2 bridged hydrogens and four terminal hydrogens
(4) None of these

20) In [Ni(CO)4], the oxidation state of Ni is :

(1) 4
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 8

21) Of the following elements, which one has the same oxidation state in all of its compounds ?

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Fluorine
(3) Carbon
(4) Oxygen

22) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Oxidation state of S in (NH4)2S2O8 is +6

(2) Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 is +8
(3) Oxidation state of S in H2SO5 is +8

(4)
Oxidation number of O in KO2 is –

23) Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam(Na-Hg) is :

(1) +2
(2) +1
(3) –3
(4) Zero

24) Oxidation number of Fe in Fe0.94 O is :

(1) 200
(2) 200/94
(3) 94/200
(4) None

25) Two oxidation states for chlorine are found in the compound :

(1) CaOCl2
(2) KCl
(3) KClO3
(4) Cl2O7

26) Iodine shows the highest oxidation state in the compound :–

(1) KI
(2) KI3
(3) IF5
(4) KIO4

27) Oxidation number of carbon in graphite is :-

(1) Zero
(2) +1
(3) +4
(4) +2

28)

In the reaction 6Li + N2 ——→ 2Li3N

(1) Li undergoes reduction

(2) Li undergoes oxidation
(3) N undergoes oxidation
(4) Li is oxidant

29) In the equation NO2– + H2O → NO3– + 2H+ + ne–, value of n is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

30) Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction ?

0
(a) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
(b) 3MnO42– + 4H+ → 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
(c) 2KMnO4 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(d) 2MnO4– + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H⊕
Select the correct option from the following :-

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d) only

31) The correct option for a redox couple is :

(1) Both are oxidised forms involving same element.
(2) Both are reduced forms involving same element.
(3) Both the reduced and oxidized forms involving same element.
(4) Cathode and anode together.

32) Equivalent weight of N2 in the change N2 → NH3 is

(1)

(2) 25

(3)

(4)

33) Molecular weight of BrO3– is M. What is its equivalent weight, if the reaction is :
BrO3– → Br– (acidic medium)

(1) M
(2) M/4
(3) M/6
(4) 6M

34)

In the reaction:
MnO4– + xH+ + ne– → Mn2+ + yH2O
What is the value of n :

(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) None of these

35) Assertion (A): In dioxygen difluoride, oxidation number of oxygen is +1.

Reason (R): The oxidation number of oxygen in H2O is –2.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

36) Assertion (A): All decomposition reactions are redox reactions.

Reason (R): Decomposition reactions lead to break down of compounds into two or more
components.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

37) Assertion : H2SO4 can not act as reducing agent.

Reason : Sulphur can not increase its oxidation number beyond +6.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

38) Statement-1 : K2Cr2O7 can work as oxidizing agent and reducing agent both.
Statement-2 : H2S is a reducing agent.

(1) Only Statement-1 is correct.

(2) Only Statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement-1 & 2 is correct.
(4) Both Statement-1 & 2 is incorrect.

39) Statement-1 : In CrO5 oxidation number of Cr is +6.

Statement-2 : CrO5 has butterfly structure in which peroxide bonds are present.

(1) Only Statement-1 is correct.

(2) Only Statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement-1 & 2 is correct.
(4) Both Statement-1 & 2 is incorrect.

40) Assertion (A): In a disproportionation reaction an element is simultaneously oxidised and

reduced.
Reason (R): Disproportionation reaction contains an element in its intermediate oxidation state.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

41) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Reactions) (Name of reaction)

(A) KClO3 → KCl + O2 (P) Intermolecular redox

(B) (Q) Intramolecular redox

(C) (R) Disproportnation reaction

 (D) (S) Comproportnation reaction

(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)

(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
(4) (A)–(Q); (B)–(R); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)

42) Match the following Column-I to Column-II (oxidation state of sulphur).

Column-I Column-II

(A) S8 (P) +1

(B) S2F2 (Q) 0

(C) H2S (R) +6

(D) H2SO4 (S) –2

(1) (A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(R)
(2) (A)–(Q); (B)–(R); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(S); (C)–(P); (D)–(Q)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(Q); (D)–(S)

43) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.(Oxidation state of nitrogen)

Column-I Column-II

(a) NaN3 (i) +5

(b) N2H2 (ii) +2

(c) NO (iii) –1/3

(d) N2O5 (iv) –1

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

44) Match the following Column-I to Column-II. (Oxidation state of Chlorine)

Column-II
Column-I
(Oxidation
(Compound)
State)

(a) KCl (i) +7

(b) HClO4 (ii) +3

(c) HClO3 (iii) +5

 (d) HClO2 (iv) –1
(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)

45) The number of moles of oxalate ions oxidised by one mole of MnO4- in acidic medium is

(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 5/2
(4) 5

BIOLOGY

1) Seedless vascular plants belongs to

(1) Pteridophyte
(2) Bryophyta
(3) Angiosperms
(4) Gymnosperm

2) In mosses, the predominant stage of life cycle is :-

(1) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage sporophyte.
(2) The sporophytic green protonema and the green leafy stage.
(3) The gametophytic green protonema and the gametophytic leafy stage.
(4) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage gametophyte.

3) The sporophytes in pteridophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like appendages
called :-

(1) Stipe
(2) Sporophylls
(3) Sori
(4) Fronds

4) What is the unique feature of bryophytes ?

(1) Vascular bundles

(2) Medicinal importance
(3) Gametophyte is parasitic
(4) Sporophyte attached to gametophyte

5) Pyrenoids are made up of :

(1) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein
(2) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
(3) Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
(4) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath

6)

Bryophytes differ from algae in having :-

(1) Thalloid body

(2) Chlorophyll 'a'
(3) Vascular tissue
(4) Archegonia

7) In mosses, during sexual reproduction sex organs antheridia and archegonia are produced at the
apex of :-

(1) Protonema
(2) Prothallus
(3) Leafy shoot
(4) Capsule

8) In gymnosperms, main body of ovule is made of a diploid tissue known as :-

(1) Endosperm
(2) Integument
(3) Nucellus
(4) Embryosac

9) In a moss the gametophyte :

(1) arises from a spore produced from the sporophyte

(2) can not manufacture food for itself
(3) is partially parasitic on the sporophyte
(4) produces spores that give rise to the new gametophyte

10) Gametophyte __(a)___ gametes A —→ ___(b)___ spore B.

Fill in the blanks for bryophyte ?

A a B b
(1) Sporophyte Mitosis Gametophyte Meiosis
(2) Gametophyte Meiosis Sporophyte Mitosis
(3) Sporophyte Mitosis Gametophyte Fusion
(4) Fusion Sporophyte Gametophyte Mitosi
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following algae is used as food ?

(1) Porphyra
(2) Laminaria
(3) Sargassum
(4) More than one option is correct

12) Which of the following is a moss ?

(1) Funaria
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Sphagnum
(4) All are correct

13) Pteridophyta have advancement over bryophyta in :-

(1) Presence of vascular tissues

(2) Presence of roots
(3) Necessity of water for fertilisation
(4) (1) and (2) both

14) Which of the following do not have a free living gametophyte ?

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Pteridophyte
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Gymnosperm

15) Fill in the blanks :-

In phaeophyta-zoospore and gametes are __A__ and have __B__ attached flagella.

A B

(1) Pear shape pyriform two equal laterally

(2) Globular shaped two unequal laterally

(3) Pear shape pyriform two unequal laterally

(4) Rectangular shaped two unequal proximal

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
16) Vegetative cells of brown algae have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the outside by a
gelatinous coating of :-

(1) Pellicle
(2) Algin
(3) Carrageen
(4) Chitin

17) In bryophytes :-

(1) Meiosis occurs in zygote

(2) Meiosis occurs in spore mother cell
(3) Meiosis occurs in sex organs
(4) Meiosis occurs in spore

18)

Hydrocolloids are mainly present in vegetative body of :-

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Mosses
(4) Liver worts

19) Protonema, multicellular rhizoids, dominant gametophyte and sporophyte made of foot, seta and
capsule. These characters are most relevant for :-

(1) Liver worts

(2) Dicots
(3) Mosses
(4) Club mosses

20) Sexual reproduction is oogamous type and accompanied by complex post fertilization
developments :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Cyanophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae

21) Evolutionary, the first terrestrial plants to posses vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) is :

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms
22) The leaves of gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
and wind. In conifers, what are the xerophytic characters?

(1) Needle-like leaves

(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Sunken stomata
(4) All of these

23) Which one of the following option is not a part of Pteridophytes life cycle ?

(1) Archaegonia
(2) Protonema
(3) Sporophyll
(4) Motile gamete

24) Megasporangium is equivalent to :-

(1) Ovule
(2) Embryo sac
(3) Pollen sac
(4) Nucellus

25) Which of the following organism do not develop embryo in their life cycle ?

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Algae

26) First land inhabiting plants are :-

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

27) Seeds of gymnosperms are :-

(1) Covered by ovary wall

(2) Not covered by any ovary wall but after fertilization they are covered by ovary wall
(3) Covered by ovary wall before fertilization
(4) Not covered by any ovary wall before and after fertilization

28) Plant body of brown algae is divided into :-

(1) Root, stem, leaf

(2) Stipe, hold fast, frond
(3) Foot, seta, capsule
(4) Rhizoid, protonema, mesosome

29) Prothallus in pteridophyte is -

(1) Nonvascular, haploid, multicellular, small mostly photosynthetic thalloid body

(2) Vascular, diploid, Multicellular sporophyte
(3) 2n, free-living gametophyte generation
(4) A thallus/plant body in some primitive pteridophytes

30) Majority of pteridophyte are ?

(1) Homosporous
(2) Heterosporous
(3) Anisosporous
(4) Isogamous

31) Which one of the following is pteridophyte ?

(1) Cycas
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Adiantum
(4) All of these

32) Identify the given diagram and select the correct option:-

(1) Ulothrix
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Fucus
(4) Nostoc

33) Identify the diagram and label parts a, b and c.

(1) Chara; a - Branches, b - Stipe, c - Fronds
(2) Dictyota; a - Frond, b - Midrib, c - Stipe
(3) Laminaria; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c- Holdfast
(4) Fucus; a- Air bladder, b - Midrib, c- stipe

34)

Identify the part labelled a, b, c and d in given diagram and select the right option about them?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 Sporophyte Gametophyte Rhizoids Capsule

2 Gametophyte Sporophyte Rhizoids Capsule

3 Sporophyte Gametophyte Roots Fruit

4 Sporophyte Gametophyte Rhizoids Sporophyll

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Mark the correct statement with respect to the plant given below:-

(1) The root of the plant show symbiotic association with BGA.
(2) It has unbranched stem.
(3) It is heterosporous.
(4) It has seed inside the fruit

36) Identify A, B and C in the following figure and choose the correct option
(1) A- Strobilus, B- Node, C- Leaves
(2) A- Strobilus, B- Node, C- Branch
(3) A- Sporophyll, B- Node, C- Internode
(4) A- Sporophyll, B- Internode, C- Node

37) Identify A, B, C in this fucus alga.

(1) A - midrib, B - air bladder, C - hold fast

(2) A - Air bladder, B - frond, C - midrib
(3) A - Hold fast, B - midrib, C - trond
(4) A - midrib, B - holdfast, C - air bladder
38) Which of the following structures are related to given diagram?

(1) Seed, Vascular tissue, Leaf

(2) Seed, Vascular tissue, Fruit
(3) Seed, Fruit, Leaf
(4) Protonema, Seed, Stem

39) Which of the statement is true for the plant given in the figure?

(1) It is angiosperm - Ginkgo

(2) It is fern plant - Adiantum
(3) It is a gymnosperm - Ginkgo
(4) It is an angiosperm - Sequioa

40) Study the given algae and answer the following questions :- (a)
Name of algae ?
(b) Type of sexual reproduction ?
(c) Name of division ?
(d) Stored food ?

(1) Laminaria : Isogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch

(2) Volvox : Oogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch
(3) Fucus : Isogamous : Rhodophyta : Floridian starch
(4) Chara : Oogamous : Rhodophyta : Glycogen

41) Assertion : Gelidium and Gracilaria are member of rhodophyceae.

Reason : They are autotrophic, marine organism and they have predominance of the red pigment r-
phycoerythrin in their body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Assertion : Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil erosion.
Reason : Mosses form dense mats on the soil.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

43) Assertion A: Members of chlorophyceae are called green algae because they exhibit a variety of
colors.
Reason R: The dominance of chlorophyll a and b pigments, which are localized in chloroplasts, gives
them a grass green color.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

44) Assertion A: Gemmae are asexual reproductive structures that can form new individuals when
detached from the parent body.
Reason R: Gemmae are produced within the capsule after meiosis.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

45) The smallest angiosperm plant is

(1) Eucalyptus
(2) Wolffia
(3) Kelp
(4) Pinus
 ZOOLOGY

1) Correct match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutrophils I. 20-25% of WBC

(B) Basophils II. 2-3% of WBC

(C) Monocytes III. 6-8% of WBC

(D) Eosinophils IV. 0.5-1% of WBC

(E) Lymphocytes V. 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I

2) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an

A Heart failure I
inadequate blood supply.

Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching the heart

B Cardiac arrest II
muscles.

C Heart attack III Atherosclerosis.

Coronary Artery Heart not pumping blood effectively enough to

D IV
Disease (CAD) meet the needs of the body

E Angina pectoris V Heart stops beating

(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

3) "Serum" is :-

(1) Plasma - Clotting factors

(2) Plasma + Clotting factors
(3) Blood - Clotting factors
(4) Lympth + Clotting factors

4) The pH of blood is maintained balancing the ratio of :-

(1) Lactic acid and pyruvic acid

(2) NaHCO3 and H2CO3
(3) CO2 and H2O
(4) Pyruvic acid and H2CO3

5) Special fluid helps in transportation of substances in complex animals is / are :-

(1) Blood & Lymph

(2) Only Blood
(3) Only Lymph
(4) RBC, WBC and Platelets.

6) Most abundant protein of blood plasma is :-

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Globulin

7)

Platelets are derived from –

(1) Dust cell

(2) Kupffer cell
(3) Megakaryocyte
(4) R.B.C.

8)

Packed cell volume is almost equal to -

(1) Total volume of RBCs in blood

(2) Total volume of WBCs in blood
(3) Total volume of platelets in blood
(4) Total volume of plasma in blood

9) Assertion : Annelids and chordates have circulatory system in which. Blood is pumped by heart
into closed network of blood vessels.
Reason : Because they have closed circulatory system.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

10) Systemic heart refers to :-

(1) The two ventricles together in humans
(2) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
(3) Left atrium and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
(4) The heart that contracts under stimulation form nervous system

11) Statement-I:- Contraction of ventricles starts shortly after Q- wave.

Statement-II:-T- wave represents return of ventricles from excited state.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

12) If cardiac output of a person is 6 litres and his heart rate is 60 beats per minute then stroke
volume is :

(1) 100 ml. approx.

(2) 84 ml. approx.
(3) 75 ml. approx.
(4) 90 ml. approx.

13) Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The
second sound is heard when:

(1) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria

(2) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
(3) AV node receives signal from SA node
(4) AV valves open up

14) The Agranulocytes responsible for immune response of the body

(1) Basophils
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Lymphocytes

15) When a leopard runs after you, the increase in heart rate is probably due to the __________.

(1) Parasympathetic nervous system

(2) Sympathetic nervous system
(3) Increase in blood pressure
(4) Chemosensitive area

16) Assertion : Saline water is not given to patients with hypertension.

Reason: Saline water can cause vomiting and may drop blood pressure suddenly causing cardiac
arrest.
(1) Both assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

17) Mature RBC of human lacks :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosomes
(4) All of these

18) What is the main difference in human and frog RBC?

(1) Human RBC are non-nucleated

(2) Haemoglobin is found only in human RBC
(3) Human RBC have nucleus
(4) Human RBC are multinucleated

19) Hormone erythropoietin is synthesized by :-

(1) Liver
(2) Heart
(3) Red bone marrow
(4) Kidney

20) If RBC's are kept in hypotonic solution, they will:

(1) Stick together

(2) remain normal
(3) shrink and collapse
(4) increase in size and burst

21) Most active phagocytic cells of blood are :-

(1) Monocytes and Lymphocytes

(2) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(3) Neutrophils and Lymphocytes
(4) Basophils and Monocytes

22) Following diagram of a structure represent how much percentage of WBCs ?

(1) 60–65%
(2) 0.5–1%
(3) 2–3%
(4) 20–25%

23) Blood clotting requires :-

(1) Na+ K+
(2) Na+ + Prothrombin
(3) Na+ + Thromboplastin
(4) Ca++ + Thromboplastin

24) Which of the following is a correct reaction regarding blood clotting ?

(1)
Fibrinogen Fibrin

(2)
Prothrombin Thrombin

(3)
Prothrombin Thrombin

(4)
Thromboplastin Prothrombin

25) What all substances are present in the interstitial or tissue fluid.
a. Some water.
b. many water soluble substances.
c. formed elements.
d. Large proteins.

(1) a, b
(2) a,b and c
(3) c,d
(4) a,c

26) Assertion : Blood clot or coagulum formed mainly of a network of threads called fibrins in which
dead and damaged formed elements of blood are trapped. Reason : Fibrinogens are formed by the
conversion of inactive fibrins

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

27) Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has:

(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

(2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma.
(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

28)

Statement-I:- During blood transfusion ,any blood can be used.

Statement-II:- Group ‘O’ blood can be donated to person with blood group 'A'.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

29) A reduction in the number of blood platelets is called

(1) Thrombocytopenia
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Anaemia
(4) Hypertension

30) A special case of Rh incompatibility (mismatching) has been observed between the Rh –ve blood
of a pregnant mother with Rh +ve blood of the foetus.
(i) Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh– blood of the mother in the first pregnancy
as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta.
(ii) During the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood to
small amounts of the Rh+ blood from the foetus.
(iii) Mother starts preparing antibodies against Rh antigen in her blood after 1st exposure.
(iv) In case of her subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh–) can leak into the
blood of the foetus (Rh+) and destroy the foetal RBCs.
(v) This could be fatal to the foetus and mother or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to
the baby and mother.
(vi) This condition may be called erythroblastosis foetalis and erythroblastosis maternalis.
Which statement is wrong for above condition ?

(1) (v) and (vi)

(2) (iii), (v) and (vi)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) None of these

31) Statement I :- Nearly 80% of humans are Rh⊕

Statement II :- Rh antibodies from mother can leak into the blood of foetus.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(4) Statement I & II both are incorrect

32) Assertion : Open circulatory system is present in Earthworm and molluscs.

Reason : In Earthworm and molluscs blood pumped by the heart passes through large vessels into
open spaces or body cavities called sinuses.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.

33) In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must
flow through:
I. Right ventricle
II. Pummonary veins
III. Left artrium
IV. Lungs
V. Pulmonary arteries

(1) I - V - IV - II - III
(2) I - II - III - IV - V
(3) III - V - I - II - IV
(4) V- IV - II - III - I

34)

Match the columns

Column I Column II

Superior Carries deoxygenated blood

a p
Vena Cava to lungs

Inferior Carries oxygenated

b q
Vena Cava blood from lungs

Brings deoxygenated
c Pulmonary Artery r blood from lower parts of
body to right atrium

Brings deoxygentaed
d Pumonary Vein s blood from upper parts of
body into right atrium
(1) a—q, b—s, c—r, d—p
(2) a—s, b—p, c—q, d—r
(3) a—s, b—r, c—p, d—q
(4) a—s, b—p, c—r, d—q

35) Which of the following has thickest wall ?

(1) Left auricle

(2) Left ventricle
(3) Right auricle
(4) Right ventricle

36) Assertion : Total number of cusp present in mitral value is three

Reason : Mitral valve is semi-lunar valve

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion and Reason are incorrect

37) 'Bundle of His' is network of :

(1) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls.

(2) Muscle fibres found in the ventricle wall.
(3) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles.
(4) Nerve fibres found throughout heart.

38) Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during :

(1) Diastole of the right ventricle

(2) Systole of the left ventricle
(3) Diastole of the right atrium
(4) Systole of the left atrium

39) Match the Column-I and Column-II pick out the correct answer from the option given below

Column-I Column-II

(A) SA Node (I) Ventricular wall

(B) AV Node (II) Inter-ventricular septum

(C) BOH (Bundle of His) (III) Lower left corner of right atrium

(D) Purkinje fibres (IV) Right atrium upper corner

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
40) Chemicals that can induce immune response :-

(1) Antibody
(2) Agglutinin
(3) Antigen
(4) Intracellular lipids

41) Statement-I:-megakaryocytes are special cells in bone marrow.

Statement-II:-Blood normally contains 1,500,000-3,500,000 platelets per mm

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

42) Which one of the following statements is correct?

The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous
(1)
contraction of the atria
(2) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
(3) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
(4) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

43) Pulmonary aorta in mammalian embryo communicates with systemic aorta by a thin vessel called
ductus arteriosus which later closes and remains in adult as :-

(1) carotico - pulmonary aperture

(2) ligamentum arteriosum
(3) fossa ovalis
(4) None of the above

44) The end of ventricular systole can be represented in ECG by:-

(1) End of QRS complex

(2) End of P wave
(3) The gap between QRS complex and T wave
(4) End of T wave

45) Which blood vessel transports nutrients from small intestine to liver ?

(1) Hepatic vein

(2) Vena cava
(3) Hepatic artery
(4) Hepatic portal vein
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 1 4 1 1 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 2 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 1 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 4 3 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 1 4 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 4 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) s = t2 + 2t

V= = 2t + 2
V1 = 2 × 2 + 2 = 6 m/s
V2 = 2 × 4 + 2 = 10 m/s

W = ΔKE = MV22 – MV12

= 64 Joule

2) Mg –T =

W = F S cos θ = × h cos 180° =

3)

When a spring is cut into two parts each part has spring constant more than that of original
spring. If k = spring constant & ℓ0 = natural length, then for cut parts

If they are stretched by same amount then work done in shorter part will be double than that in the
case of longer part.

Because,

4)

work = Area under the curve for displacement 1m

5)

By using work energy theorem, W = ΔKE

Wgravity + Wair-drag = m (v2 – u2)

⇒ mgh + Wair-drag = (1.96 gh – 0)

⇒ Wair-drag = – 0.02 mgh

6)
Kinetic energy at B = Potential energy at A
KB = mg(1)

mv2 = mg
2
v = 20
v= m/s
By conservation of energy,

mv2 – µ mgx = 0

(20) – µ(10)(3) = 0

µ=

7) Work done by conservative depends only on the initial and final position but not on the path
taken.
WA→C = 3 + 4 = 7J

8) May be positive or negative or zero

9)

Energy

10)

∵ F = 2x2 – 3x – 2
For equilibrium
F=0
2x2 – 3x – 2 = 0
2x2 – 4x + x – 2 = 0
2x(x – 2) + 1 (x – 2) = 0

x=2 x=

at

x=2 x=

unstable equil. stable equil.

​

11) F = = – (slope of U-x curve)

Hence option (1)

12) At x > x1, F is +ve, i.e. repulsive force.

x > x2, F is –ve, i.e. attractive force.

13) For the motion of person

Mg – N = Ma

⇒N= work done by normal reaction

= (N)(displacement)(cos 180º)

=–
= –4000 J
Hence option (2)

14)

on spring =

15) Energy stored in spring

U = 1/2 Kx2 as T = Kx

= 1/2 K

16) W = kx2 ⇒ W ∝ k ⇒ =2
⇒ W2 = 2W1

17)

Using work energy theorem,

 mgh =

x= = 0.1 m = 10 cm

18) Conceptual

19)
kx = Mg

20)

mg (h + x) =

21)

Gain in KE = Loss in P.E.

= mg ℓ cos 30°

22) v =

v1 = = =
 k= =

23) Watt

24)

w=
ΔKE = [64 – 16 + 4] – [8 – 4 + 2]
= 46 J

25) Since P' = n3P

∵ n=3 P' = 27P

26)

Concept Based:

Power

Formula Used:

Power, P = = ...(1)

Efficiency = ...(2)

Calculation:

Given:
Mass of water which is uplifted, M = 100 Kg
Height of which it is uplifted, h = 10 M
Time t = 5 sec
g = 10 M/s2

Efficiency 60% =

Output power, Poutput =

⇒ Poutput = = 2000 W

∴ Efficiency =

⇒ Pinput =
⇒ Pinput = 3.33 × 103 Watt or 3.33 KW

Final Answer:

The correct option is (1).

27) P = = 0.9 × 15 × 10 × 60 = 8100 W

28)

29) K.E.

30) Scalar quantity

31) kWh

32) Given, p2 = ∴ v2 =

As E ∝ v2 ∴ E2 =

Increase in K.E. =

33)

34) Kinetic energy . Since momentum p is same in both cases, therefore kinetic
energy of lighter body is more.

35)

A body at rest may have energy (potential energy etc)

36)

Negative

37)

Explain question : Find correct statement

Concept : This question is based on relation between kinetic energy and momentum
Explanation : Momentum is a vector quantity and kinetic energy is a scalar quantity we can
change the momentum by changing direction only.
In a system of two particles moving in opposite direction due to internal forces then kinetic
energy can be changed with out changing its momentum.
Final answer : Option 1

38) Asking abut :

Ratio of masses of two bodies given that their kinetic energy ratio is 4:1 and momentum is
equal.

Concept :
• Since momentum is the same, mass affects kinetic energy

Formula :

Calculation :

Given,
So, using the formula :

Therefore, m1 : m2 = 1 : 4

Final Answer : (1 : 4)

39)

Explain question : Find work done by a man to pull bucket full of water with rope.
Concept : This question is based on work done
Solution :
Work done to lift (water + bucket)
W1 = (MW + MB)gΔh
W1 = (2 + 8)10 × 5 = 500 J
Effective Work will be done to change the vertical height of the center of mass of the rope
W2 = (MR)gΔhcom

W2 = 1 × 10 ×
W2 = 25 J
Wtotal = W1 + W2
Wtotal = 500 + 25 = 525 J
Final Answer: (2)

40)

Explain question : work done by friction force in drawing a circle of radius r.

Concept : This question is based on work done by kinetic friction.
Solution :
Wk = fk (S) cosθ ∴ fk = μkN
Wk = μkN(2πr)cos180º ∴ S = 2πr
Wk = μkN (2πr)(–1) ∴ θ = 180º
Wk = –2π r μk N
Final answer:
Option (3)

41) Explain question : To find the work done by constant force.

Concept : This question is based on work with constant force.
Solution : given

W=
W = 3 + 4 + 4 = 115°
Final answer : option 2

42) Concept:
Work done by a force is given by W = F.d cosθ where:
F is the applied force.
d is the displacement.
θ is the angle between the force and displacement.

Formula:
W = Fd cosθ

Calculation:
Given:
• F = 10N
• d = 4m
• θ = 60°
 • cos 60° =

W = 10 × 4 ×
W = 20J

Final Answer: Option 4: 20 J

43) Consider the blocks shown in the figure to be moving together due to friction between
them.
The free body diagrams of both the blocks is shown below.

Work done by static friction on A is positive and on B is negative.

44) ∵ for equilibrium

and for minimum potential energy and stable equilibrium.

for maximum potential energy and unstable equilibrium.

45)

W.D = mg s cos θ
W.D1st = mg s1st
W.D2nd = mg s2nd
W.D3rd = mg s3rd
W.D1st : W.D2nd : W.D3rd:s1st : s2nd : s3rd: : 1 : 3 : 5

As snth = (2n - 1)

CHEMISTRY

46)

CO2

47)

All are properties of CO

48) Solution/Explanation:
Meta Boric Acid —→ HBO2
Structure HO — B = O (sp hybridization)
Orthoboric acid → H3BO3

Hence the correct answer is option (2)

49)

(i)

(ii)
(iii) Mg2C3 + 4H+OH– → 2Mg(OH)2 + C3H4

50)

Solution/Explanation:
BeCl2 —→

Solid state :

Polymer or chain structure

Chain and diner, respectively.
Hence the correct answer is option (1)

51)

Mg2C3 + 6H+ OH¯ → 2Mg(OH)2 + C3H4

52)

Solution/Explanation:
CCl4 does not act as lewis acid as C does not have any Vacant orbital for back bonding.
Thus correct answer is option (3)

53)

Solution/Explanation:
Calcium Carbide —→ CaC2
CaC2 —→ Ca+2 C2–2
C2–2 —→ [ :C Ξ C:] –2
As per structure if contains one sigma and two pi bonds.
Hence the correct answer is option (1)

54)
Terminal B–H bond is 2c–2e¯ bond

55)

Solution/Explanation:
BH3 does not exist in free form because it lacks a lone pair of e– on hydrogen which prevents
back bonding from occurring.
Thus BH3 is e– deficient and exist as diner form i.e. B2H6
Hence the correct answer is option (4)

56)

Solution/Explanation:
Inert Pair effect :
Due to inert pair effect elements of group 13 to 15 of higher periods i.e. period 6 form
compounds with ions having +ve charge of 2 less then the group oxidation no.
Group 13 —→ + 1 and + 3
Group 14 —→ + 2 and + 4
Group 15 —→ + 3 and + 5
Hence the correct answer is option (4)

57) 1. Asking about : trihalide which Cannot be hydrolysed to form [M(H2O)6]+3

2. Concept :
3. Formula :
4. Solution / Explanation : In [M(H2O)6]+3 ion, m+3 is forming six Covalent bonds with H2O
molecules
Boron (B) Cannot form Six Covalent bonds because it belongs to Period No. 2 of the periodic
table and can form a maximum of four bonds to only to non-availability of d-orbitals.

58)

Tl2O will be more stable because oxidation state of Thalium is +1 and it will be more stable in
+1 oxidation state due to inert pair effect.

59)
60)

Solution/Explanation:
BF3

Due to partial double bond character of Pπ – dπ interaction B. L. ↓ and B. S. ↑ and BET.

61)

Explanation -
The question asks to identify the correct set of resonance structures that represent the boron
trifluoride (BF₃) molecule.

Concept - Back Bonding

Solution -

Option 1 accurately depicts BF₃ resonance, illustrating π-back bonding where fluorine donates
a lone pair to boron's empty p-orbital, forming a partial double bond. The B⁺ and F⁻ formal
charges reflect electronegativity differences during this back bonding.

Final Answer - Option (1)

62) Explanation :
The question asks for the molecular geometry of trisilylamine, based on bonding and lone pair
interactions around the nitrogen atom.

Concept : Base - bonding

Solution :
In N(SiH3)3, the lone pair on nitrogen is delocalized into empty d-orbitals of the Si atoms. This
reduces lone pair repulsion and results in planar geometry.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

63) BF3 is a covalent compound

64)

Asking for : The number of bridged and terminal hydrogen atoms in diborane.

Concept : Diborane (B2​H6​) has a unique structure with bridging hydrogen atoms.

Solution/Explanation : The structure of diborane consists of two boron atoms and six
hydrogen atoms. Two of the hydrogen atoms bridge the two boron atoms, and the remaining
four hydrogen atoms are terminal, bonded directly to the boron atoms.

This results in two B–H–B bridge bonds and four terminal B–H bonds.

Answer : Option : 3

65)

In metal carbonyl, O.S. of metal is always zero.

66)

Fluorine always exhibits –1 O.S. in all compounds

67)

O.S. of sulphur in H2SO5 is +6

(Max. O.S. of sulphur is +6)

68)

In always, O.S. of metal is always zero.

69)

Fe0.94O = 0.94x – 2 = 0
0.94x = 2

70)

Ca2+ (OCl–) Cl1–

OCl– : –2 + x = –1 ⇒ x = +1
Cl– : –1
Oxidation states of Cl are –1 and +1

71)

KI = +1 + x = 0 ⇒ x = –1

KI3 = 1 + 3x = 0 ⇒ x =
IF5 = x + 5(–1) = 0
x = +5
KIO4 = 1 + x + 4(–2) = 0
x = +7
72)

Oxidation no. of C in graphite (free state) is zero

73) Explanation:- In a metal and non-metal reaction, metal oxidizes, and the non-metal
reduces.
Concept:- 6Li + N2 ——→ 2Li3N
Li ——→Li+
0 +1

N2 → N−3
0 −3

74)

75) (Disproportionation reaction)

(Disproportionation reaction)

76)

Question Explanation:
The question asks for the correct description of a redox couple.

Given Data:
No specific data is given, just the general concept of a redox couple.

Concept:
A redox couple consists of two species: one in its oxidized form and the other in its reduced
form.

Mathematical Calculation:

Not applicable, this is a conceptual question.

Final Answer:
The correct option is 3: Both the reduced and oxidized forms involving the same
element.

Question Level : Easy

77)
nf = no. of atoms x | change in O.S. |
= 2 × |0–(–3)| = 6
78)
= no. of atoms | change in O.N.|
= 1 × |5–(–1)|
=6

79)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
MnO4– + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O

n=5

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

80) NCERT Page no. 268.

81) All decomposition reactions are not redox reactions.

Eg.

84)

Both Statement-1 & 2 is correct.

85)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

86)

(A)–(Q); (B)–(R); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)

87)

(A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(R)

88)

(a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

89)

(a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)

 90) 5/2

BIOLOGY

91)

Pteridophyte

92) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 36 (para - 3.2.2)

93) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 36 para - 3.3

94) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 35

95)

Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath

96)

Archegonia

97) NCERT XI, Page # 36, Para-3.2.2

98)

Nucellus

99)

arises from a spore produced from the sporophyte

100)

Ans. 1

101) NCERT XI Pg. # 32

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 36

103)
(1) and (2) both

104)

Gymnosperm

105)

Ans. 3

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

107)

Meiosis occurs in spore mother cell

108)

Algae

109)

Mosses

110)

Rhodophyceae

111) NCERT - Pg # 36

112) NCERT Pg. # 38, Para-3.4

113)

Protonema

114)

Ovule

115)

Algae
116)

Bryophytes

117) NCERT XIth (E) Pg. # 38 (3.4)

118)

Stipe, hold fast, frond

119)

Nonvascular, haploid, multicellular, small mostly photosynthetic thalloid body

120) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38

121)

Adiantum

122)

Explain Question : The question is asking you to: Look at a diagram and identify which
organism it represent from the given options.

Concept : This question is based on Green algae

Solution : The correct answer is 1 – Ulothrix

Ulothrix is filamentous green alga found in freshwater.
It has:
– Unbranched filaments-Chloroplasts in girdle/bracelet shape
– Cell wall and basal holdfast

Final Answer : option (1) Ulothrix

123)

NCERT XI Page # 25

124) NCERT (XIth) Eng. med. Pg. # 34

Fig. : 3.2(c) only

125) NCERT Pg. # 39, fig.3.4

126)

A- Strobilus, B- Node, C- Branch

127) (NCERT PG. - 31)

128)

NCERT XI Pg # 39, Fig. 3.4 (b)

129) Fact based

130) Volvox : Oogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch

131)

NCERT Page No. 34, 34

132) NCERT Pg. # 35

133) The assertion is false because members of chlorophyceae are called green algae not
because they exhibit a variety of colors, but specifically because they are usually grass green
due to the dominance of pigments chlorophyll a and b. The reason is true as these pigments
are indeed localized in chloroplasts, which gives them their characteristic green color.
Therefore, A is false, but R is true.

134) The assertion is true as gemmae are indeed asexual reproductive structures that can
form new individuals when they become detached from the parent body. However, the reason
is false because gemmae are not produced within the capsule after meiosis; this is the process
by which spores are produced. Gemmae develop in structures called gemma cups on the thalli
and are not a result of meiosis.

135) Wolffia
ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT XI [Link] - 194

137) Explanation:
The question asks to match descriptions of heart-related conditions in Column I with their
corresponding medical terms in Column II.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
Option 1: A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II

A. A (Heart failure) - IV (Heart not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs
of the body): Heart failure occurs when the heart muscle is weakened and cannot pump
enough blood to support the body's needs.
B. B (Cardiac arrest) - V (Heart stops beating): Cardiac arrest is the sudden cessation of
heart function, meaning the heart stops beating.
C. C (Heart attack) - I (Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood
supply): A heart attack, also known as myocardial infarction, happens when blood flow to a
part of the heart muscle is blocked, causing damage.
D. D (Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)) - III (Atherosclerosis): CAD is often caused by
atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the
heart muscle.
E. E (Angina pectoris) - II (Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching the heart
muscles): Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart
muscle, often during physical activity or stress.

138) NCERT XI (E) Page 279

139)

NaHCO3 and H2CO3

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 278

141)

Albumin

142)

Megakaryocyte

143)

Total volume of RBCs in blood

144)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 283

146)

Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

147) NCERT, Pg # 288

148)

Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles

149)

Basophils

150)

Sympathetic nervous system

151)

Assertion is true but reason is false.

152)

Explanation/Solution :

Mature red blood cells (RBCs) in humans have a unique structure that maximizes their oxygen-
carrying capacity. To achieve this, they lack several cellular components:

A. Nucleus: The absence of a nucleus allows for more space to carry hemoglobin, the
protein that binds to oxygen.

B. Mitochondria: RBCs rely on glycolysis, a process that doesn't require mitochondria, for
energy production. This further maximizes their oxygen-carrying capacity.

C. Ribosomes: Without ribosomes, RBCs cannot synthesize proteins, which is consistent

with their specialized role in oxygen transport.
The correct answer is: 4. All of these

153)

What the Question Is Asking: The question asks to identify the main difference between red
blood cells (RBCs) in humans and frogs from the given options.

Solution: Let's compare the characteristics of human and frog RBCs:

A. Human RBCs: Mature human red blood cells are enucleated (lack a nucleus), are
biconcave in shape, and contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport. They also lack other
organelles.

B. Frog RBCs: Frog red blood cells are nucleated (have a nucleus), are oval in shape, and
also contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport. They are larger than human RBCs.

Human RBC are non-nucleated: This is correct. Mature human RBCs lack a nucleus.

Therefore, the main difference highlighted in the options is the presence or absence of a
nucleus. Human RBCs are non-nucleated, while frog RBCs are nucleated.

Final Answer : option (1). Human RBC are non-nucleated

154)

Explanation/Solution :

Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone primarily produced by the kidneys, specifically by cells in

the interstitial tissue between the tubules. It plays a crucial role in regulating red blood cell
production. When oxygen levels in the blood decrease, the kidneys detect this change and
release EPO into the bloodstream. EPO then stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red
blood cells, which increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

The correct answer is: 4. Kidney

155)

What the Question Is Asking: What happens to red blood cells (RBCs) when placed in a
hypotonic solution?

Solution: A hypotonic solution has a lower solute concentration compared to the inside of the
RBC. According to osmosis, water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area
of higher solute concentration across a semipermeable membrane

(like the RBC membrane). In this case, water will move into the RBC. This influx of water will
cause the RBC to swell and eventually burst due to the increased internal pressure. This
bursting of RBCs is called hemolysis
Final Answer : option (4) - increase in size and burst

156) NCERT Pg. # 279

157)

60–65%

158)

Ca++ + Thromboplastin

159) NCERT, Pg. # 196, 197

160) XI NCERT Page. No : 281

161) NCERT PG. No 280

162)

Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

163)

Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

164)

Thrombocytopenia

165)

What the Question Is Asking: Identify the incorrect statements regarding Rh incompatibility
and its effects.

Solution:

A. (i): Correct—Rh antigens of the foetus are separated from the mother’s blood during
the first pregnancy by the placenta.

B. (ii): Correct—During delivery, maternal blood may be exposed to Rh+ blood from the
foetus.
 C. (iii): Correct—The mother begins producing antibodies against Rh antigens after
exposure.

D. (iv): Correct—In subsequent pregnancies, these antibodies can cross the placenta and
destroy foetal RBCs.

E. (v): Incorrect—This condition is not fatal to the mother; it primarily affects the foetus
and can cause anaemia and jaundice in the baby.

F. (vi): Incorrect—The condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis, but not

erythroblastosis maternalis.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) (v) and (vi)

166) XI NCERT Page. No : 281

167)

Assertion and reason both are wrong.

168)

I - V - IV - II - III

169)

The correct matching is:

• a - s: The Superior Vena Cava brings deoxygenated blood from the upper body into the right
atrium.
• b - r: The Inferior Vena Cava brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right
atrium.
• c - p: The Pulmonary Artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
• d - q: The Pulmonary Vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

170)

Left ventricle

171)

Assertion and Reason are incorrect

 172)

Muscle fibres found in the ventricle wall.

173)

Systole of the left ventricle

174) NCERT Pg #283, 284

175)

Antigen

176)

Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

177)

A. During joint diastole, both the atria and ventricles relax, and blood moves freely from the atria
to the ventricles due to the pressure gradient.

178)

ligamentum arteriosum

179) NCERT - 286

180) NCERT Pg. # 286