JS 521

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE 2015 -16
Date of Examination: 22nd November, 2015
Time: 1500 to 1700 Hrs
Q. Paper Code: JS 521
Write the question paper code mentioned above on YOUR answer sheet (in
the space provided), otherwise your answer sheet will NOT be assessed. Note
that the same Q. P. Code appears on each page of the question paper.
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the appropriate bubble, as shown.

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answer.
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Instructions to Candidates (continued) –

Read the following instructions after submitting the answer sheet.
11. Comments regarding this question paper, if any, may be sent by email only to
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[Link] by 2nd December, 2015.
13. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –
Following certificates are awarded by the IAPT to students successful in NSEs
(i)Certificates to “Centre Top 10%” students
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Eligibility Clause in the Student’s brochure on our website.
16. Students eligible for the INO Examination on the basis of selection criteria
mentioned in Student’s brochure will be informed accordingly.

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 JS 521

Indian Association of Physics Teachers

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE 2015-2016

Total time: 120 minutes Marks: 240

Only one out of four options is correct

1) Which of the following graphs is correct for a particle moving in a circle of radius r at a speed
of v (where ‘a’ is magnitude of acceleration) ?
a) | a | b) | a | c) | a | d) | a |

v v v v

2) Electronic configuration of Na+ is (2,8) and that of sodium element is (2,8,1). Choose the
correct statements.
i. Na+(g) is more stable than Na(g).
ii. Na+(g) is less stable than Na(g).
iii. Na+(aq) is more stable than Na(aq).
iv. Na+(aq) is less stable than Na(aq).
a) ii, iii b) i, iii c) ii, iv d) i, iv

3) What will be the remainder if the number 72015 is divided by 25?

a) 1 b) 7 c) 18 d) 24

4) In humans, the digestion of carbohydrates happens/takes place in the following parts of the
digestive system:
a) Mouth, stomach and small intestine b) Mouth and small intestine
c) Small intestine alone d) Stomach and small intestine

5) Light travels from medium X to medium Y as shown in the adjacent figure.

a) both the speed and frequency decrease X
b) speed increases and frequency decreases
c) the speed decreases and wavelength decrease
d) the speed decreases and wavelength increases Y

6) Hess' Law states that ‘the heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction is the same
whether the process takes place in one or in several steps’

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Heat evolved in the combustion of one mole C(s) in excess oxygen is x kJ/mol, and that for the
combustion of H2(g) is y kJ/mol and for that of C6H6 (l) is z kJ/mol. Therefore, the heat change
(kJ/mol) involved in the formation one mole of C6H6 (l) from the given equation is
a) x+y+z b) 6x+3y-z c) 6x+3y+z d) x+y-z/6

7) If A(p, q + r), B(q, r + p) and C(r, p + q) are points then area of triangle ABC
1
a) p2 + q2 + r2 b) (p + q + r)2 c) (pq  qr  rp) d) zero
2

8) Photosynthesis in plants is carried out in

a) leaves b) leaves and stems
c) leaves, stems and aerial roots d) stems and roots

9) A particle moves along the x-axis according to the equation x = 6t2 where x is displacement
in meters and t is time in seconds. Therefore
a) the acceleration of the particle is 6 ms-2
b) the particle follows a parabolic path
c) each second the velocity of the particle changes by 9.8 ms-1
d) the velocity of the particle is 6 ms-1 at t = 0.5 s

10) What occurs when H2O(l) evaporates

(i) Covalent bonds are broken.
(ii) Only dipole-dipole forces are overcome.
(iii) Heat is absorbed by water from the surroundings.
(iv) It becomes oxygen and hydrogen gas.
a) Only (i) and (iii) occurs
b) Only (ii) and (iii) occurs
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) occurs
d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) take place

3 3 3 3 3
11)     ...  ?
4 28 70 130 9700
a) 0.97 b) 0.99 c) 1 d) 1.03

12) The following technique that can be used for deciphering the arrangement of nucleotides in
genes.
a) karyotyping b) nucleic acid sequencing
c) DNA finger printing d) transcription

13) The “reaction” force does not cancel the “action” force because
a) the action force is greater than the reaction force
b) the reaction force exists only after the action force is removed
c) the reaction force is greater than the action force
d) they act on different bodies

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14) Which of the following Lewis dot structures best describes the structure of peroxide ion of
sodium peroxide?

15) What is the sum of all three digit even numbers divisible by seventeen?
a) 18846 b) 18684 c) 14688 d) 16848

16) When a red blood cell was placed in an animal cell (RBC) in 3 different solutions, the
following morphological observations were made under a microscope.
Solution 1 Solution 2 Solution 3
Normal morphology Swollen and hemolysed Shrunken or cremated
The above three solutions can be classified in the order of
a) isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic b) hypotonic, isotonic and hypertonic
c) hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic d) isotonic, hypertonic and hypotonic
X
17) A stone is thrown horizontally and follows the XYZ path as
shown in the adjacent figure. The direction of the acceleration Y
of the stone at point Y is
Z
a)  b)  c)  d) 

18) Ionization Energy is defined as ‘the energy required for removing the most loosely bound
electron from an isolated gaseous atom or ion’.

Molar Ionization Energy for Element ‘A’ 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th
(kJ/mol) 1086.5 2352.6 4620.5 6222.7 37831 47277
Identify element A.
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Fluorine

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 JS 521

19) The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 30 cm and 20 cm. The length of one of the
diagonal is 40 cm. What is the length of the other diagonal?
a) 60 cm b) 10 10 cm c) 20 5 cm d) 8 30 cm

20) Genetic material (DNA) in plants occurs in which of the following cell organelles?
a) Nucleus b) Nucleus and chloroplast
c) Nucleus, chloroplast and mitochondria d) Chloroplast and mitochondria
N
21) The diagram shows total internal reflection.
Which of the following statement is not true?
a) Angle AON is the incident angle A B
b) AON = BON Medium 1
c) AON is the critical angle
d) the speed of light in medium 2 is greater than that in
medium 1 O
Medium 2

22) A chemist’s report on a batch of pharmaceutical products, Aspirin (C9H8O4) (250mg tablets)
and Paracetamol (C8H9NO2) (500mg tablets) indicated a ‘+0.5%’ weight error in each tablet.
Due to this error, the consumer gets extra ‘x’ molecules of aspirin per tablet and extra ‘y’
molecules of paracetamol per tablet. Choose the ‘best’ relation between x and y.
a) x=y b) x>y c) y>x d) x=2y

23) (41)16  (14)16 is a multiple of

a) 1485 b) 1584 c) 1845 d) 1854

24) The equation given below represents the process of photosynthesis.

(i) chlorophyll (ii)
6CO2    C6 H12 O6   
sunlight
Identify (i) and (ii).
a) b) c) d)
(i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii)

6H2O 6O2 6O2 6H2O 4H2O 4O2 4O2 4H2O

25) The centre of gravity of a body coincides with the center of mass
a) always
b) never
c) if the acceleration due to gravity is uniform over the body
d) if the body has a uniform distribution of mass

26) Sodium reacts with excess oxygen to form sodium oxide. A student wants to prepare 1.24g
of sodium oxide. While doing the calculations, he uses atomic number of sodium instead of
atomic mass. What is the approximate percentage error in the mass of sodium oxide
obtained due to this mistake?
a) 11% b) 23% c) 48% d) 60%

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 JS 521

27) What will be the remainder if the number (1000000)3 is divided by 143?
a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 0

28) Which of the following sequence depicts the flow of blood in human circulatory system?
a)
Lungs Left atrium Left ventricle

Right ventricle Right atrium Aorta to body tissue

b) Lungs Right ventricle Left atrium

Aorta to body tissue Right atrium Right ventricle

c)
Aorta to body tissue Left ventricle Left atrium

Right atrium Right ventricle Lungs

d)
Aorta to body tissue Left atrium Left ventricle

Lungs Right ventricle Right atrium

29) A body is in equilibrium under the combined action of several forces then
a) all the forces must be applied at the same point
b) all the forces form pairs of equal and opposite forces
c) the sum of the torques about any point must always be equal to zero
d) the lines of action of all the forces must pass through the centre of gravity of the
body.

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30) From the following pool of molecules

How many isomers are represented above

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

31) How many four digit numbers divisible by twenty nine have the sum of their digits 29?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 13 d) none of these

32) Choose the right combination of heart types and animals.

a) b)

2 chamber Sardine fish 2 chamber Sardine fish

3 chamber Amphibians 3 chamber Gharial reptiles

4 chamber Reptiles 4 chamber Owl / birds

c) d)

2 chamber Gharial reptiles 2 chamber Birds

3 chamber Birds / owl 3 chamber Gharial reptiles

4 chamber Human 4 chamber Fish sardine

33) A photo frame can be hung on the

wall with string in three different
ways as shown in the adjacent
figure below. The tension in the
string is
a) least in I b) greatest in II
c) greatest in III d) least in III

I II III

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34) Ionic radii of following species are

a) Si4+ > P5+ > S6+ > Cl7+ b) S6+ > P5+ > Si4+ > Al3+
c) N3- >O2- >F- >Na1+ d) Mg2+ > Na1+- >F- > O2-

35) How many triangles are there in this figure?

a) 50 b) 70 c) 84 d) 91

36) Raju Sharma, a 10th standard student participated in 100 meter sprint. During running he
developed painful muscle contraction and fell down. The physical education teacher rushed
to him and gave a hot water massage. Raju Sharma slowly recovered from the cramp. The
teacher explained the physiology behind the cramp and the sudsequent relief.
Identify the right explanation.
a) Because of the quick movement, the muscles looses its elasticity and are stressed. The
inflammation developed during this process causes cramp. After hot water massage the
inflammation subsides and the pain gets relieved.
b) During vigorous physical activity, aerobic respiration in the muscles increases which
leads to the accumulation of more CO2 in the muscles. This causes cramps. Later CO2 was
relieved upon hot water massage resulting in pain relief.
c) During vigorous physical activity, lactic acid accumulates in the muscles due to
anaerobic respiration. This causes the cramps. Hot water massage improves the
circulation of blood and O2 in the muscles. As a result lactic acid is converted into CO2 and
water. Thus the pain gets relieved.
d) During quick movements, the nerves will not co-operate with the muscles. There is a
stimulus which is taken to spinal cord and the effector function was done by motor
neurons which cause cramp. On hot water massage the stimulus was subsided. Thus the
pain gets relieved.

37) If a force acting is conservative only when

a) work done by this force is zero when the particle moves once around any closed path
b) it obeys Newton’s third law
c) its work is the change in the K.E of the particle
d) it is not a frictional force

38) Sati was studying neutralisation reaction. She accidentally dropped ‘x’ grams of a sodium
carbonate monohydrate into a 100 mL solution of HCl whose concentration was 0.25 M.
10mL from this final solution was taken and titrated against 0.05M NaOH solution to yield a
titre value of 20mL. What is the value of ‘x’.
a) 186mg b) 93mg c) 1860mg d) 930mg

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39) 8888888 * 8888888 this fifteen digit number is divisible by 22. Find the eighth digit in the
number.
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 8

40) The various parts of the human respiratory system are given below:
(i) Nasal passage (ii) Pharynx (iii) Wind pipe
(iv) Bronchus (v) Bronchioles (vi) Alveoli
Identify the right sequence of air passage during exhalation.
a) vi, v, ii, iv, iii, I b) vi, iv,v, iii, ii, i c) vi, v, iv, iii, ii, i d) vi, v, ii, iii, iv, i

41) A lift is moving up at constant speed. Consider the following statements:

I. The tension in the string is constant
II. The K.E of the elevator is constant
III. The gravitational P.E of the earth lift system is constant
IV. The acceleration of the elevator is zero.
V. The mechanical energy of the earth – lift system is constant.
Choose the correct option
a) Only II and V are true b) Only IV and V are true
c) Only I, II and III are true d) Only I, II and IV are true

42) Amongst the sixteen  and  marks, how many cases are incorrect?

Strip of Metal 0.5M MgSO4 0.5M ZnSO4 0.5M PbSO4 0.5M FeSO4
i) Mg    
ii) Zn    
iii) Fe    
iv) Pb    
means displacement reaction occurs
 means no displacement reaction occurs
a) 7 b) 11 c) 10 d) 9

43) In the adjoining figure segment AD, BE and CF are the altitudes of triangle ABC. Find AD  BC
if AB  AC = 409.6, BE  CF = 202.5.
A
E

B D C
a) 225 b) 256 c) 288 d) 312

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44) The testes of men lie in a small muscular pouch called scrotum located outside the
abdominal cavity; choose the correct reason.
a) Sperm formation in testes requires a higher temperature than the normal body temperature.
b) Seminal vesicles requires lower temperature to produce nutrients for sperm.
c) Sperm formation in testes requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature.
d) Sperm produced in scrotum is easily released out without going into abdominal cavity.

45) Two toy cars (a and b) fixed with spring at front, collide as shown in the figure below. ‘a’ has
a mass of 200 g and is initially moving to the right. Car ‘b’ has a mass of 300 g and is initially
at rest. When the separation between the cars is minimum,

a b
a) car b is at rest b) car a has come to rest
c) both cars have the same kinetic energy (K.E) d) the K.E of the system is at a minimum

46) What is the ratio of number of electrons gained by acidified KMnO4 and acidified K2Cr2O7 in
the reaction given below

a) 5:6 b) 6:5 c) 3:5 d) 5:3

47) If 338  288  m then m = ?

a) 50 b) 32 c) 18 d) 2

48) Which of the following is NOT produced by microbial activity?

a) Yoghurt b) Bread c) Vinegar d) Antiseptics

49) A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. if an object is placed 6 cm in front of
it, the position of the image is
a) 4 cm behind the mirror b) 4 cm in front of the mirror
c) 12 cm behind the mirror d) 12 cm in front of the mirror

50) Methylcyclobutane is a saturated alkane. What is its molecular formula?

a) C5H10 b) C5H8 c) C5H12 d) C5H6

51) 5901AB04 is an eight digit number divisible by 792. Find A + B = ?

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

52) Among the following, which is not true about vaccines?

a) Vaccines contain dead microbial cells or their parts.
b) Vaccines contain antibiotics to prevent diseases.

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 JS 521

c) Vaccine contain special proteins which evoke immune system against disease.
d) Vaccines contain inactivated micro-organisms.

In the following passage some concepts about electrical circuit analysis is discussed. Based on this
answer questions 53 to 56.
(i) When two or more conductors meet at a point it is called a junction. At junctions there
should not be any accumulation of charges. This implies that the net current entering the
junction should be equal to net current leaving a junction.
(ii) In a closed circuit having resistors and batteries, the sum of voltages across the resistors
will be equal to net electromotive force (emf). This follows from the principle of
conservation of energy.
With the help of above two concepts the current and voltage across different circuit elements can be
determined.
53) The current I in the branch shown in
the adjacent figure is

a) 3.0A b) 2.5A
c) 4.0A d) 4.5A

54) A closed circuit shown in the

adjacent figure includes a resistor of resistance and battery
of emf 3.0V and internal resistance of . The internal resistance
of the battery can be considered in series with it. The voltage drop
across the resistor of resistance is

a) 2.857 V b) 3.000 V c) 2.500 V d) 1.567 V

55) A circuit which is used for charging a battery is shown in the

adjacent figure. The battery ‘B’ has emf 6V and internal
resistance of . The charging battery ‘A’ has an emf of 9V and
internal resistance of . The voltage across the points Pand Q

a) 8V b) 7V c) 4V d) 4.2V

56) The circuit shown in adjacent figure consists of an external

resistance of connected across two batteries of emfs
6.0V and 9.0V with internal resistance of each. Find the
power dissipated by the resistor.

a) 6.5W b)5.1W c) 3.5W

d) 5.5W

57) Choose the correct sets which represent the oxides as acidic:basic:neutral:amphoteric
respectively
(i) CO2: MgO: N2O: H2O (iii) P2O5: ZnO: NO: Al2O3
(ii) SO2: NO: CO: Al2O3 (iv) SO3: CaO : N2O : PbO

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a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) iv & i

58) What is the smallest natural number when multiplied by 15 and divided by 63 gives
remainder 21?
a) 13 b) 14 c) 17 d) 20

59) Gram positive bacteria will have one of the specific characters. Identify it.
a) They have more peptidoglycon in their cell walls.
b) They show red colour on gram staining.
c) Flagella found all over the body.
d) They will have mesosomes as the extension of cell membrane.

60) A silver article turns black when kept open in air for few days. The article when rubbed with
toothpaste again starts shining because
a) Hydrogen peroxide present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver sulphate.
b) Hydrated silica present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver oxide.
c) Aluminium hydroxide present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver hydroxide.
d) Calcium carbonate present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver carbonate.

61) The sum of first four terms of an A.P is 56. The sum of last four terms of same A.P is 112. The
first term of the A.P is 11. Find the number of terms in that A.P.
a) 7 b) 8 c) 11 d) 13

62) Mitochondrial equivalent in prokaryotic bacterial cell is

a) ribosomes b) thylakoid
c) cytoplasmic plasma membrane d) cyanosomes

63) A compound ‘A’ when treated with a dilute mineral acid gives a gas which when passed
through a solution of B regenerates A. Further, a gas (C) that is obtained from the addition of
Concentrated HCl to KMnO4 crystals is used to react with B to give D. Identify A, B, C and D.
a) Na2CO3, NaOH, O2, Na2O. b) MgCO3, Mg(OH)2, OCl2 , Mg(OCl)2
c) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2, Cl2, CaOCl2 d) Al2(CO3)3, Al(OH)3, Cl2 , Al2O3.

64) If a : b = c : d then how many of the following statements are true?

(i) c(a + b) = a(c + d) (ii) d(a  b) = b(c  d)
 a 2   c2   2ac 
(iii) (a2 + b2) (ac  bd) = (a2  b2) (ac + bd) (iv)  2    2    
 b   d   bd 
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) All

65) Endemic species refers to

a) threatened wild animals and plants which belong to different areas.
b) species which are capable of inter breeding.
c) those species of flora and fauna which are found exclusively in a particular area.
d) all the plants and animals mentioned in the red data book.

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66) 5 g of a gas at 27 °C occupied the same volume as 0.250 g of dihydrogen at 17 °C at the same
pressure. Find out molecular weight of the gas.
a) 41.37 b) 20.68 c) 25.80 d) 39.87

67) Select any three distinct digits. Form a three digit number. Form the another number by
reversing the digits. Find the difference of these two numbers. What is the G.C.D of all such
differences?
a) 9 b) 11 c) 33 d) 99

68) Which of the following option is not true about the viruses?
a) Viruses have either DNA or RNA as these genetic material.
b) Viruses will not infect bacteria, fungi and algae.
c) Viruses use host machinery to produce their own proteins.
d) Viruses are useful in the preparation of vaccines.

69) The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of steel is 11X10-6/0C. The percentage change in
the length of the rod when temperature changes by 700C.
a) 0.077% b) 0.085% c) 0.0576% d) 0.00077%

70) An acid-base titration is a technique where a solution of known concentration of acid/base is

used to determine the concentration of an unknown solution of acid/base. These titrations
typically use a pH indicator solution to denote the end point of the reaction. A pH indicator is
a compound added in small quantities to
a solution to indicate the pH visually
(generally by appearance/disappearance
or change in colour). A typical procedure 13

is as follows: A certain volume ‘V1’ of

unknown concentration ‘M1’ of HCl is pH
taken in a conical flask, to which a few
7
drops of phenolphthalein indicator
solution is added. The solution remains Equivalence
colourless. From a burette (a graduated point
dropper) a solution of NaOH, whose 1
concentration is known, ‘M2’, is added Volume run down from burette

dropwise into the conical flask until a pale Volume run down from burette

pink colour is obtained and is termed as the end point. The amount of solution dispensed
from the burette to obtain the end point is noted as ‘V2’. Phenolphthalein indicator changes
its colour to pink only when the pH of the solution is above 9.5. Similarly, another indicator,
methyl orange, is red in colour below pH 3.7 and yellow above. Given below is a graph of pH
of the solution in the conical flask and the reading of the burette in the course of the
titration. The equivalent point is theoretically defined as the point in the graph where the
number of moles HCl in the conical flask becomes equal to the number of moles of NaOH
run down the burette. Note the difference between end point and equivalence point.

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Which is the correct graph that represents the titration of NH4OH (from burette) with HCl?

13
13
pH
pH
7
7

1
Volume run down from burette
Volume run down from burette 1
Volume run down from burette
a) Volume run down from burette
b)

Volume run down from burette

13

13
pH
pH
7
7

1
1
Volume run down from burette
Volume run down from burette Volume run down from burette
Volume run down from burette
c) d)
1
71) There are ten numbers in a certain A.P. The sum of first three terms is 321. The sum of last
three numbers is 405. Find the sum of all the ten numbers.
a) 1165 b) 1210 c) 1221 d) 1252

72) Regeneration in animal kingdom is observed in which of the following animals?

a) Frog b) Planaria (C) Birds (D) Snakes

73) A cube of side 4 cm made of wood is floating in water of density 1.00gcc-1. When a small
steel ball is embedded in the cube it just immerses in water. If density of wood is 0.76gcc-1,
then mass of the steel ball is
a) 12.65g b) 3.84g c) 15.36g d) 22.98g

74) Given below is the pH vs volume

curve for titration of Na2CO3 (in
conical flask) with HCl. 13

p
7
H

Volume run down from

15
st
burette 2nd Equivalence point
1 Equivalence point
 JS 521

Choose the correct statement based on the above graph

a) 1st equivalence point represents NaHCO3 getting protonated to H2CO3.
b) 2nd equivalence point represents NaHCO3 getting protonated to H2CO3.
c) 1st equivalence point represents deprotonation of HCl by NaHCO3 alone.
d) 2nd equivalence point represents deprotonation of HCl by Na2CO3 alone.

75) How many three digit numbers are divisible by 13 and having middle digit 5?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 13

76) In biology, Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) refers to which of the following option?
a) In vitro multiplication of nucleic acids molecules.
b) In vivo multiplication of nucleic acids molecules.
c) Continuous protein synthesis from peptide.
d) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA in vitro.

77) A swing playing with small amplitude can be considered as a simple pendulum. Such a swing
is set to oscillate with an amplitude a and frequency f. When it is at its mean position, a box
of same mass as that of the seat of the swing is dropped on it and its starts moving with the
swing. Choose the correct statement
a) Amplitude is reduced to half its initial value and frequency is doubled
b) Amplitude is reduced to half its initial value and frequency is unchanged
c) Amplitude doubles and frequency is unchanged
d) Amplitude remains same and frequency is half its initial value

78) The pH of the 10-8 M HCl solution is

a) Greater than 7 and less than 8 b) Exactly 8
c) Exactly 6 d) Greater than 6 less than 7

79) Two parallel chords 96 cm and 28 cm long are on the opposite side of the centre of the circle
with radius 50 cm. Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are the end points of
the chords.
a) 3488 b) 3848 c) 3844 d) 3484

80) Each chromosome contains

a) one long DNA molecule b) one long RNA molecule
c) one long sequence of amino acids d) a single gene for a protein

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 Examination Time: 1000 to 1200 Hrs. Question paper code: JS511

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE (NSEJS)
2018-19
Instructions to candidates – Read carefully and strictly follow each of them

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7. Question paper has 80 multiple choice questions. Each question has four alternatives, out
of which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble,
as shown:

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marks.
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12. Comments or queries (if any) regarding this question paper, may be sent by email only
to [Link]@[Link] till 2359 Hrs. of 23 Nov. 2018. The answers to this question paper
will be available at – [Link] by 02 Dec. 2018 after 1700 Hrs.
13. For certificates and awards – Please see the website of IAPT: [Link]

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 Question Paper Code: JS511
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QUESTION PAPER STARTS HERE

Q1. A tiny ball of mass m is initially at rest at height H above a cake of uniform thickness
h. At some moment the particle falls freely, touches the cake surface and then penetrates
in it at such a constant rate that its speed becomes zero on just reaching the ground (bottom
of the cake). Speed of the ball at the instant it touches the cake surface and its retardation
inside the cake are respectively

(a) 2𝑔ℎ and 𝑔 −1 (b) 2𝑔(𝐻 − ℎ) and 𝑔 −1

(c) 2𝑔ℎ and 𝑔 −1 (d) 2𝑔(𝐻 − ℎ) and 𝑔 −1

Q 2. Two sound waves in air have wavelengths differing by 2 m at a certain temperature T.

Their notes have musical interval 1.4. Period of the lower pitch note is 20 ms. Then, speed
of sound in air at this temperature (T) is
(a) 350 m/s (b) 342 m/s (c) 333 m/s (d) 330 m/s
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Q 3. Two plane mirrors M & M have their 1 2
reflecting faces inclined at θ. Mirror M1
receives a ray AB, reflects it at B and sends
it as BC. It is now reflected by mirror M2
along CD, as shown in the figure. Total
angular deviation 𝛿 suffered by the incident
ray AB is:

(a) 𝛿 = 90o + 2θ (b) 𝛿 = 180o + 2θ (c) 𝛿 = 270o - 2θ (d) 𝛿 = 360o - 2θ

Q4. In the adjacent figure, line AB is parallel to screen S.

A linear obstacle PQ between the two is also parallel
to both. AB, PQ and screen S are coplanar. A point
source is carried from A to B, along the line AB. What
will happen to the size of the shadow of PQ (cast due
to the point source) on the screen S?
(a) It will first increase and then decrease.
(b) It will first decrease and then increase.
(c) It will be of the same size for any position of the point source on the line AB.
(d) Umbra will increase and penumbra will decrease till central position.

Q5. Two particles P1 and P2 move towards origin O, along X and

Y-axes at constant speeds u1 and u2 respectively as shown
.
in the figure. At t = 0, the particles P1 and P2 are at distances
a and b respectively from O. Then the instantaneous
distance s between the two particles is given by the relation:

(a) s = [a + b + (u + u )t − 2t(au + bu )]
(b) s = [a + b + (u + u )t − 2t(bu + au )]
(c) s = [a + b + (u + u )t + 2t(au + bu )]
(d) s = [a − b + (u + u )t − 2t(au + bu )]

Q6. An electric generator consumes some oil fuel and generates output of 25 kW. Calorific
value (amount of heat released per unit mass) of the oil fuel is 17200 kcal/kg and efficiency
(output to input ratio) of the generator is 0.25. Then, mass of the fuel consumed per hour
and electric energy generated per ton of fuel burnt are respectively

(a) 0.5 kg, 20000 kWh (b) 0.5 kg, 5000 kWh
(c) 5 kg, 5000 kWh (d) 5 kg, 20000 kWh

Q 7. Image is obtained on a screen by keeping an object at 25 cm and at 40 cm in front of

a concave mirror. Image in the former case is four times bigger than in the latter. Focal
length of the mirror must be____.

(a) 12 cm. (b) 20 cm. (c) 24 cm. (d) 36 cm.

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Q 8. A glass cube of refractive index 1.5 and edge 1 cm has a tiny black spot at its center.
A circular dark sheet is to be kept symmetrically on the top surface so that the central spot
is not visible from the top. Minimum radius of the circular sheet should be
Given: = 0.707, = 0.577, = 0.447
√ √ √

(a) 0.994 cm (b) 0.447 cm (c) 0.553 cm (d) 0.577 cm

Q9. A metal rod of length L at temperature T, when heated to temperature 𝑇 , expands to

new length L'. These quantities are related as 𝐿 = 𝐿(1 + 𝛼[𝑇 − 𝑇]) where 𝛼 is a constant
for that material and called as coefficient of linear expansion. Correct SI unit of 𝛼 is___.
(a) m-K-1 (b) m-K (c) K-1 (d) 𝛼 is a pure number

Q 10. A paramedical staff nurse improvises a second’s pendulum (time period 2 s) by fixing
one end of a string of length L to a ceiling and the other end to a heavy object of negligible
size. Within 60 oscillations of this pendulum, she finds that the pulse of a wounded soldier
beats 110 times. A symptom of bradycardia is pulse < 60 per minute and that of tachycardia
is > 100 per minute. Then the length of the string is nearly ________ and soldier has
symptoms of _________.

(a) 1 m, bradycardia (b) 4 m, bradycardia

(c) 1 m, tachycardia (d) 4 m, tachycardia

Q11.

Each resistance in the adjacent

circuit is R Ω . In order to have an
integral value for equivalent
resistance between A & B, the
minimum value of R must be:

(a) 4 Ω (b) 8 Ω (c) 16 Ω (d) 29 Ω

Q 12. A block of wood floats on water with of its volume above water. It is now made
to float on a salt solution of relative density 1.12. The fraction of its volume that remains
above the salt solution now, is nearly______.
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.44 (c) 0.67 (d) 0.56

Q13. Suppose our scientific community had chosen force, speed and time as the
fundamental mechanical quantities instead of length, mass and time respectively and they
chose the respective units of magnitudes 10 N, 100 m/s and s. Then the unit of mass in
their system is equivalent to _______in our system.
(a) 103 kg (b) 10-3 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 10-1 kg
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Q 14.
Two equally charged identical pith balls are
suspended by identical massless strings as
shown in the adjacent figure. If this set up is on
Mercury (g = 3.7 m/s2), Earth (g = 9.8 m/s2) and
Jupiter (g = 24.5 m/s2), then angle 2θ will
be________.

(a) maximum on Mercury (b) maximum on Earth, as it has atmosphere

(c) maximum on Jupiter
(d) the same on any planet as Coulomb force is independent of gravity

Q15. Three objects of the same material coloured white, blue and black can withstand
temperatures up to 2000oC. All these are heated to 1500oC and viewed in dark. Which
option is correct?
(a) White object will appear brightest (b) Blue object will appear brightest
(c) Black object will appear brightest
(d) Being at the same temperature, all will look equally bright

Q 16. A car running with a velocity of 30 m/s reaches midway between two vertical parallel
walls separated by 360 m, when the driver sounds the horn for a moment. Speed of sound
in air is 330 m/s. After blowing horn, the first three echoes will be heard by the driver
respectively at______.
(a) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s (b) 1.0 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s
(c) 1.0 s, 2.0 s, 3.0 s (d) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.6 s

Q 17. Choose correct option from the following statements from electrostatics:
(I) If two copper spheres of same radii, one hollow and the other solid are charged to
the same electrical potential, the solid sphere will have more charge.
(II) A charged body can attract another uncharged body.
(III) Electrical lines of force originating from like charges will exert a lateral force on
each other, while those originating from opposite charges can intersect each other.

(a) Only (I) is correct. (b) Only (II) is correct.

(c) Only (I) & (II) are correct. (d) All (I), (II) & (III) are correct.

Q18.
Refer the adjacent circuit. The voltmeter reads 117 V
and ammeter reads 0.13A. If the resistance of
voltmeter and ammeter are 9 kΩ and 0.015Ω
respectively, the value of R is___.
(a) 500 Ω (b) 1kΩ (c) 1.5kΩ (d) 2 kΩ
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Q19. A bar magnet is allowed to fall freely from the same height towards a current carrying
loop along its axis, as shown in the four situations I to IV. Arrows show direction of
conventional current. Choose the situations in which the potential energy of the magnet
coil interaction is maximum_____.

(a) I, III (b) I, IV (c) II, IV (d) II, III

Q20. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4oC. Consider the following statements:
(I) Water will overflow if the beaker is cooled for some time.
(II) Water will overflow if the beaker is heated for some time.
Select correct option regarding (I) and (II).
(a) Only (I) is correct (b) Only (II) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (II) are correct (d) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct

Q21. P3- has a larger radius than atom of P because

(a) There is greater coulombic attraction between the nucleus and electrons in the P3- ion.
(b) The core electrons in P3- exert a weaker shielding force than those of a neutral atom.
(c) The nuclear charge is weaker in P3- than it is in P.
(d) The electrons in P3- have a greater coulombic repulsion than those in P atom.

Q22. A substance is dissolved in water, forming a 0.5 molar solution. If 4.0 L of solution
contains 240g of the substance, what is the molecular mass of the substance?
(a) 60g/mole (b) 120g/mole (c) 240g/mole (d) 480g/mole

Q23. A car battery was kept for charging and after getting fully charged density of the
battery acid (H2SO4) was measured and found to be1.28 g cm-3. If Initial molarity of battery
acid was 4.2 M then mass percentage will be around___.

(a) 28% (b) 30% (c) 32% (d) 34%

Q24. Element “X” with atomic mass 10 was allowed to react completely with element “Y”
of atomic mass 20 to form a compound. When this compound was analysed it was found
that it contains 60% of X and 40 % of Y by weight. The simplest formula of this compound
will be_____.
(a) X3Y (b) X2Y3 (c) Y3X (d) X6Y4

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Q25. 4.095 X 1024 nitrogen atoms are filled in an enclosed gas cylinder of capacity two
litre. The number of moles of nitrogen gas in the cylinder is___.
(a) 14.7 (b) 6.8 (c) 3.4 (d) 2.9

Q26. When a surface tension experiment with capillary tube is performed, water rises up to
0.1m. If the experiment is carried out in space, water will rise in capillary tube____.
(a) up to height of 0.1m (b) up to height of 0.2m
(c) up to height of 0.98m (d) along its full length

Q27. Deepa was studying properties of gases. She took a flask and filled it with sulphur di-
oxide gas, and weighed it at temperature T and pressure P. The weight of the flask
containing the gas was found to be W1. She then flushed the flask, cleaned and filled it with
methane at the same temperature and pressure. The weight of the flask containing oxygen
was found to be W2. She repeated the process with oxygen under the same conditions and
found the weight to be W3. The ratio of the weights W1 : W2 : W3 is
(a) 2 : 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4

Q28. Four gas jars filled with sulphur dioxide gas were inverted into troughs of water by
four students P, Q, R, S. The following observations and inference were reported by them.
P: Water did not enter the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.
Q: Water rushed into the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.
R: Water did not enter in the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is insoluble in water.
S: A small amount of water entered the gas jar slowly and sulphur dioxide is sparingly
soluble in water.
Then the correct set of observations and inference is reported by,

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

Q29. A solution of pure aluminium sulphate containing 0.170g of aluminium ions is treated
with excess of barium hydroxide solution. Total weight of the precipitate will be:
(a) 0.5g (b) 2.7g (c) 1.7 g (d) 0.54g

Q30. A region of one square meter area was given to each Suhas, Bobby, Sandy and Kimi
in a garden. The daffodil plants grow best in the soil having a pH range of 6.0 to 6.5. If the
soil has a pH 4.5, to grow daffodils, Suhas added common salt, Bobby added sodium
phosphate, Sandy added aluminium sulphate and Kimi added ammonium chloride in their
allotted area. Who was successful in growing daffodil?

(a) Suhas (b) Bobby (c) Sandy (d) Kimi

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Q31. Electrons in the last shell of X, Y, W and Z are 2, 6, 4 and 1 respectively. Which of
the following statement is correct?
(a) melting point of compound formed by X and Y is more than that of by W and Z.
(b) compound formed by X and Y is more volatile than that of by W and Z.
(c) melting point of compound formed by X and Z is more than that of by W and Y.
(d) Incomplete information so inference cannot be drawn.

Q32. W g of pure coal was combusted in pure dry oxygen. The carbon dioxide gas obtained
was absorbed in 0.1M KOH solution. The complete absorption of CO2 required 5cm3 of
0.1M KOH. The amount of coal combusted is

(a) 3mg (b) 6mg (c) 11mg (d) 12mg

Q33. Sulphur di-oxide gas and ammonia gas were mixed in different proportions. The pair
of gases containing same number of molecules at NTP is ________.

(a) 1120 cm3of SO2+ 0.85 g of ammonia (b) 0.25g mole of SO2 + 2240 cm3 of ammonia
(c) 1680 cm3 of SO2 + 1.7 g of ammonia (d) 0.25 g mole of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia

Q34. A strip of iron with mass 15.5 g is placed in a solution containing 21.0 g copper
sulphate. After some time the reaction stops. Iron strip was found to have mass 8.5 g. The
mass of copper formed was found to be 8.60g. Find the mass of ferrous sulphate formed in
this reaction.

(a) 19.40 g (b) 18.40 g (c) 17.40 g (d) 16.40 g

Q35. Sonu has N/2 HCl solution and Monu has N/10 HCl solution. They are asked to
prepare 2 litres of N/5 HCl solution. What volume of two solutions be mixed?

(a) (0.5 +1.5) litre (b) (1.0 +1.0) litre (c) (0.3 +1.7) litre (d) (0.2 +1.8) litre

Q36. A solution (P) was prepared by dissolving 6.3 g of oxalic acid in 100 ml water.
25 ml of this solution was taken and was further diluted to 250 ml to prepare solution (Q).
What weight of NaOH in ppm will be required to neutralize 10 ml of solution (Q)?

(a) 10 ppm (b) 20 ppm (c) 40 ppm (d) 80 ppm

Q37. Which of the following can improve the quality of petrol?

(a) n heptane (b) benzene (c) n hexadecane (d) iso-octane

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Q38. 2KBrO3 + 12H+ + 10e-  Br2 + 6H2O + 2K+
From above reaction the equivalent weight of KBrO3 can be calculated as (M is molecular
weight of KBrO3)
(a) M/5 (b) M/10 (c) M/12 (d) M/2

Q39. Shaila took about 10 cm3 of a diluted Potassium hydrogen carbonate solution in a test
tube. To this solution she added few drops of universal indicator. The colour of the solution
turned:
(a) orange (b) green (c) blue (d) yellow

Q40. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Chalcocite - Copper (b) Magnetite - Iron
(c) Calamine - Aluminium (d) Galena - Lead

Q41. Let AB be a diameter of a circle C1 of radius 30 cm and with center O. Two circles C2
and C3 of radii 15 cm and 10 cm touch C1 internally at A and B respectively. A fourth circle
C4 touches C1, C2 and C3. What is the largest possible radius of C4?
(a) 12 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm

Q42. A 5 x 5 x 5 cube is built using unit cubes. How many different cuboids (that differ in
at least one unit cube) can be formed using the same number of unit cubes?
(a) 1000 (b) 1728 (c) 2730 (d) 3375

Q43. What is the largest value of the positive integer k such that 𝑘 divides
𝑛 (𝑛 − 1) (𝑛 − 𝑛 − 2) for every natural number n?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48

Q44. A person kept rolling a regular (six faced) die until one of the numbers appeared third
time on the top. This happened in 12th throw and the sum of all the numbers in 12 throws
was 46. Which number appeared least number of times?
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1

Q45. In a square ABCD, a point P is inside the square such that ABP is an equilateral
triangle. The segment AP cuts the diagonal BD in E. Suppose AE = 2. The area of ABCD
is
(a) 4+2√3 (b) 5+2√3 (c) 4+4√3 (d) 5+4√3

Q46. Let n be a positive integer not divisible by 6. Suppose n has 6 positive divisors. The
number of positive divisors of 9n is
(a) 54 (b) 36 (c) 18 (d) 12

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√ √
Q47. The value of , when x = is:
√ √

(a) a (b) b (c) x (d) 0

Q48. Two regular polygons of different number of sides are taken. In one of them, its sides
are coloured red and diagonals are coloured green; in the other, sides are coloured green
and diagonals are coloured red. Suppose there are 103 red lines and 80 green lines. The
total number of sides the two polygons together have is:
(a) 23 (b) 28 (c) 33 (d) 38

Q49. A box contains some red and some yellow balls. If one red ball is removed, one
seventh of the remaining balls would be red; if one yellow ball is removed, one-sixth of the
remaining balls would be red. If n denotes the total number of balls in the box, then the
sum of the digits of n is
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

Q50. Let ABCD be a rectangle. Let X and Y be points respectively on AB and CD such
that AX:XB = 1:2 = CY:YD. Join AY and CX; let BY intersect CX in K; let DX intersect
AY in L. If m/n denotes the ratio of the area of XKYL to that of ABCD, then m + n equals
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c)13 (d) 15

Q51. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. The bisector of BAC meets the circumcircle
of ABC in D. Suppose DB + DC = 4. The diameter of the circumcircle of ABC is
(a) 4 (b) 3√3 (c) 2√3 (d) 2

Q52. Let Tk denote the k-th term of an arithmetic progression. Suppose there are positive
integers m ≠ n such that Tm = 1/n and Tn = 1/m. Then Tmn equals

(a) (b) + (c) 1 (d) 0

Q53. In a triangle ABC, let AD be the median from A; let E be a point on AD such that
AE : ED = 1 : 2; and let BE extended meets AC in F. The ratio of AF/FC is

(a) 1/6 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/3

Q54. If sin θ and cos θ are roots of the equation px2 + qx + r = 0, then:

(a) p2 - q2 + 2pr = 0 (b) (p + r)2 = q2 - r2

(c) p2 + q2 - 2pr = 0 (d) (p - r)2 = q2 + r2

Q55. For a regular k-sided polygon, let α(k) denotes its interior angle. Suppose n > 4 is
such that α(n-2), α(n), α(n+3) forms an arithmetic progression. The sum of digits of n is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

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Q56. The sum of 5 numbers in geometric progression is 24.
The sum of their reciprocals is 6. The product of the terms of the geometric progression is
(a) 36 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 18

Q57. Digits a and b are such that the product 4𝑎1 x 25𝑏 is divisible by 36 (in base 10). The
number of ordered pairs (a, b) is
(a) 15 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4

Q58. The integer closest to √111. . .1 − 222 … 2 , where there are 2018 ones and 1009
twos, is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q59. In a triangle ABC, a point D on AB is such that AD : AB = 1 : 4 and DE is parallel

to BC with E on AC. Let M and N be the mid points of DE and BC respectively. What is
the ratio of the area of the quadrilateral BNMD to that of triangle ABC?

(a) 1/4 (b) 9/32 (c) 7/32 (d) 15/32

Q60. The number of distinct integers in the collection , , ,….., ,

where [𝑥] denotes the largest integer not exceeding x, is

(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 15

Q61. True coelom is not present in animals of:

(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida (c) Echinodermata (d) Arthropoda

Q62. The intracellular organelle that is responsible for formation of acrosomal vesicle is:
(a) endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) mitochondrion (d) none of the above

Q63. The genetically modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:
(a) enhancing shelf life (b) insect-resistance
(c) drought-resistance (d) enhancing mineral content

Q64. A scientist observed few cells under a microscope with following characters:
i. Cells divided by binary fission or fragmentation, or budding
ii. Cells moved with the help of flagella
iii. Ether lipids were observed in cell membranes
iv. Peptidoglycans were noted in the cell walls
Which of the following category do the cells belong to?
(a) Archaea (b) Plant cells (c) Unicellular eukaryotes (d) Cyanobacteria

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Q65. Character(s) of acquired immunity is (are):
(a) differentiation between self and non-self (b) specificity of antigen
(c) retains memory (d) all the above

Q66. Instead of using chemical fertilizers in a paddy field, a farmer thought of employing
nitrogen fixation technique. Amongst the following which would be beneficial for his
cause?
(a) Glycine max - Rhizobium (b) Cycas – Nostoc
(c) Casuarina – Frankia (d) Azolla-Anabaena

Q67. An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges
on outside and inside of the axon membrane are reversed because:
(a) all potassium ions leave the axon
(b) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(c) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
(d) all sodium ions enter the axon

Q68. A geneticist was studying the pathway of synthesis of an amino acid ‘X’ in an
organism. The presence (either synthesized de novo or externally added) of ‘X’ is a must
for the survival of that organism. She isolated several mutants that require ‘X’ to grow. She
tested whether each mutant would grow when different additives, P, Q, R, S and T were
used. ‘+’ indicates growth and ‘-’ indicates the inability to grow in the mutants tested. Find
out the correct sequence of additives in the biosynthetic pathway of ‘X’.
Organisms Additives
P Q R S T
Wild-type + + + + +
Mutant 1 - - - - +
Mutant 2 - + + + +
Mutant 3 - - + - +
Mutant 4 - + + - +

(a) P → Q → R → S → T (b) P → R → S → Q → T
(c) T → P → Q → S → R (d) P → S → Q → R → T

Q69. In a case of mammalian coat color, the principal gene identified is ‘C’ which codes
for a tyrosinase enzyme. In case of rabbits four different phenotypes are observed Full
Color>Chinchilla>Himalayan>Albino (in order of the expression of gene ‘C’ and its
alleles). In a progeny obtained after crossing two rabbits, the percentages of Chinchilla,
Himalayan and Albino rabbits were 50, 25 and 25 respectively. What must have been the
genotypes of the parent rabbits?

(a) CchCch X Cchc (b) CchCh X Cchc (c) Cchc X Chc (d) ChCh X CchCch

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Q70. It was observed in a group of tadpoles of a mutant frog reared in a laboratory that their
development was arrested at a particular stage. The exact tissue that was affected by the
mutation is unknown. The development was then resumed and accelerated by injecting the
tadpoles with the extracts prepared from various tissues of the wild type frogs. The
observations of the experiment are given below.

Experiment No. Tissue Extract Observations

1 Anterior lobe of pituitary Development resumed
2 Posterior lobe of pituitary Development did not resume
3 Thyroid gland Development resumed
4 Anterior lobe of pituitary + Thyroid gland Development resumed
5 Anterior + posterior lobe of pituitary Development resumed
6 Posterior lobe of pituitary + Thyroid gland Development did not resume

From the above observations, find out the tissue that is affected by the mutation.
(a) Anterior lobe of pituitary (b) Posterior lobe of pituitary
(c) Thyroid gland (d) Both pituitary and thyroid gland

Q71. Group A Group B

Identify the odd ones from each
Salmon Alpine salamander
group (A and B) based on same
Bullfrog Spiny anteater
criterion.
Platypus Common toad
Bull shark Crocodile

(a) Platypus, Alpine Salamander (b) Bull shark, Alpine salamander

(c) Bullfrog, Crocodile (d) Platypus, Common toad

Q72. A patient was administered a chemical agent called Guanfacine hydrochloride after
the patient showed the symptoms like shortness of breath and headache. Guanfacine
hydrochloride is a known stimulant of central α2-adrenergic receptors of the medulla
regulating the sympathetic nervous system. The patient in this case must be suffering
from__.
(a) Hypertension (b) Hyperstimulation
(c) Hyperpolarization (d) None of the above

Q73. A bacterial dsDNA molecule, 2988 bp in length, was found to have the following
composition:
T C A G
Strand I 348 X 1400
Strand II 650 Y

The respective values of X and Y are:

(a) 1400 and 590 (b) 590 and 1400 (c) 590 and 590 (d) None of the above
______________________________________________________________________
Page 13 of 18
 Question Paper Code: JS511
______________________________________________________________________________
Q74. What would be the length of a polypeptide translated from mRNA which is encoded
by 2988 bp of a bacterial gene?

(a) 989 (b) 992 (c) 995 (d) 998

Q75. A student recorded the data for five types of cells as given below:

Character P Q R S T
Cell wall + + - - +
Centrioles - - - + -
Chloroplast - + - - -
Mitochondrion - + - + +
Nucleus - + - + +
Plasma membrane + + - + +
RNA / DNA + + + + +
Vacuoles + + - + +
The five cell types P, Q, R, S and T are:
(a) P- Bacterium, Q- Plant, R- Virus, S- Animal, T- Fungus
(b) P- Bacterium, Q- Plant, R- Virus, S- Fungus, T- Animal
(c) P- Fungus, Q- Plant, R- Bacterium, S- Animal, T- Virus
(d) P- Plant, Q- Bacterium, R- Virus, S- Animal, T- Fungus

Q76. An environment conservation group performed a survey of some diverse locations in

the country and represented it as under:

Endemism and habitat loss

Vascular Plants Endemic plants 265450

Original habitat sq. km Habitat lost sq. km

190000
160000
148200 132725

96000

11748
1562 9000 2700 8768 5682

1000 1624 1285 2968

Site A Site B Site C Site D

Which amongst these sites should be included as a biodiversity hotspot?

(a) Site A (b) Site B (c) Site C (d) Site D

Q77. A bacterium has a generation time of 50 minutes. A culture containing 108 cells per
mL is incubated for 300 minutes. What will be the number of cells after 300 minutes?
(a) 64 x 103 cells (b) 6.4 x 108 cells (c) 64 x 109 cells (d) 6.4 x 109 cells
______________________________________________________________________
Page 14 of 18
 Question Paper Code: JS511
______________________________________________________________________________
Q78. The blood grouping system is an example of ‘multiple allelism’. In order to find out
the gene products of various gene variants, different enzymes (codes used for the purpose
of experimentation are X and Y) from four blood samples were assayed. The enzymes were
quantified and the information obtained from these experiments is given in percentages in
the following table. ‘+’ indicates presence of an enzyme and ‘-’ indicates the absence of
that enzyme from the blood sample. The standard codes for dominant and recessive alleles
are considered. Identify the blood groups of subjects and choose the correct option of their
genotypes from given options. (In table: P means present, A means absent)

Subjects  Ramesh Ali Sophia Balwinder

Enzymes ↓ P / A % P / A % P / A % P / A %
X + 50 + 50 + 100 - -
Y - - + 50 - - + 100

(a) IAi, ii, IBi, IAIB (b) IAi, IAIB, IAIA, IBIB
(c) IBi, IAIB, ii, IBi (d) IBi, ii, IAIB, IAi

Q79. In an experiment, a scientist discovered a darkly stained chromatin body on the

periphery of nucleus of epithelial cells obtained from an eight year old boy. This is
indicative of a particular syndrome. Find out the best possible chromosome combination
of their parents from the options given below; which have the highest probability of
producing the child under investigation. ‘A’ indicates autosome. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ represent the
sex chromosomes.

(a) 22AA+XY, 22AA+XXX (b) 22AA+XXY, 22AA+XXX

(c) 22AA+XY, 22AA+XX (d) 22AA+XXY, 22AA+XX

Q80.
A millionaire Mr. Jim, died
recently. Two women, Mary and
Lou, claiming to have a child by
Jim approached the police
demanding a share in his wealth.
Fortunately Jim’s semen sample
was cryopreserved. The scientists
used DNA fingerprinting technique
to study the three highly variable
chromosome regions. The results
obtained are shown in the adjoining
figure:

After studying the DNA profile, which of the alleged heirs are children of Jim?
(a) Mary’s child (b) both are children of Jim
(c) Lou’s child (d) none are children of Jim
______________________________________________________________________
Page 15 of 18
 Question Paper Code: JS511
______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION PAPER ENDS HERE

ROUGH WORK BELOW THIS LINE

______________________________________________________________________
Page 16 of 18
 Question Paper Code: JS511
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________
Page 17 of 18
 Question Paper Code: JS511
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________
Page 18 of 18
 Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 51
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
[Link].12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
[Link].30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 08 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference .

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 51

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on [Link] on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
[Link] by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
[Link] after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website [Link] by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on [Link] by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 51

Question Paper Code: 51

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

2. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically, its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

3. Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

4. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

5. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

3
 51

6. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the value
of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

7. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
-
film [(CH3)2SiO]n, by the reaction; n(CH3)2SiCl2 + 2nOH  2nCl + nH2O + [(CH3)2SiO]n
where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is
needed to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The
density of the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

8. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of
C are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is
about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31 × 10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

9. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

10. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a

mixture containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some
time the solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

11. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy

phenol. It is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products
such as soaps, skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle
claims that it contain Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan
present in the bottle? (NA is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

12. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

4
 51

13. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

14. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

15. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

16. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?
(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air
(b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil
(d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

17. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

18. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

5
 51

19. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

A
20. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral
triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 )
B C

21. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

3
22. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

23. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is
(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

24. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  [Link] (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  [Link] (d) AD  [Link]

6
 51

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

25. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 4𝜋0 𝑟 , (where
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

26. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

27. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

28. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

29. Choose the correct statements from following options.

(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

7
 51

30. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

2 2
31. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

32. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.

8
 51

ROUGH WORK

9
 Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 52
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
[Link].12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
[Link].30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 8 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 52

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on [Link] on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
[Link] by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
[Link] after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website [Link] by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on [Link] by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 52

Question Paper Code: 52

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
film [(CH3)2SiO]n, by the reaction;
n(CH ) SiCl + 2nOH  2nCl- + nH O + [(CH ) SiO]
3 2 2 2 3 2 n

where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is needed
to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The density of
the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

2. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

3. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of C
are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31×10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

4. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy phenol. It

is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products such as soaps,
skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle claims that it contains
Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan present in the bottle? (NA
is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

5. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a mixture

containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some time the
solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

6. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

3
 52

7. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

8. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

9. Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

10. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

11. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

4
 52

12. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the
value of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

13. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

14. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

15. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is
(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

16. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral A

triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 )
B C
3
17. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

18. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  [Link] (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  [Link] (d) AD  [Link]

19. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

20. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?
(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air (b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil (d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

5
 52

21. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

22. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

23. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

24. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

6
 52

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

25. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

26. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

27. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 0 , (where
4𝜋 𝑟
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

28. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

2 2
29. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

7
 52

30. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.

31. Choose the correct statements from following options.

(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

32. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

8
 52

ROUGH WORK

9
 Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 53
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
[Link].12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
[Link].30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 8 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference .

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 53

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on [Link] on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
[Link] by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
[Link] after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website [Link] by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on [Link] by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 53

Question Paper Code: 53

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral A

triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 )
B C
2. Find the remainder when x is divided by x  3x  2
51 2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

3
3. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

4. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

5. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is

(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

6. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  [Link] (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  [Link] (d) AD  [Link]

7. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

8. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

3
 53

9. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?

(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air
(b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil
(d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

10. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

11. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

12. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

13. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

14. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically, its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

15. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

4
 53

16. Two illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

17. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

18. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the value
of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

19. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
film [(CH ) SiO] , by the reaction; n(CH ) SiCl + 2nOH  2nCl- + nH O + [(CH ) SiO]
3 2 n 3 2 2 2 3 2 n
where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is
needed to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The
density of the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

20. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of
C are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is
about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31 × 10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

21. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

5
 53

22. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a

mixture containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some
time the solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

23. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

24. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy

phenol. It is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products
such as soaps, skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle
claims that it contain Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan
present in the bottle? (NA is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

6
 53

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.
2 2
25. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

26. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.
27. Choose the correct statements from following options.
(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

28. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

29. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 4𝜋0 𝑟 , (where
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

7
 53

30. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

31. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

32. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

8
 53

ROUGH WORK

9
 54
Date of Examination: January 17, 2021
Time: 2:30 PM to 03:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 54
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same
Question Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, smart watches, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /result
in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown.
[Link].12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative
(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
d appropriate
bubble(s), as shown
a c
[Link].30
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 8 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

 54

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) –

You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on

the Inquiry/Grievance column on [Link] on the specified format till February
12, 2021.

13. The answers / solutions to this question paper will be available on the website
[Link] by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to the students successful in the Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2020 – 21 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1%”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend
OCSC – 2021 at HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website
[Link] after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS
will be displayed on the website [Link] by February 25, 2021. See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed
on [Link] by March 1, 2021.

Some useful physical constants and useful data

Physical Constant Symbol Magnitude with SI units
Gravitation Constant G 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
Solar mass M☉ 2×1030 kg
Acceleration due to gravity on earth g 9.8 ms- 2
Charge of an electron e 1.6 × 10-19 C
Mass of an electron m 9.1 × 10-31 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
An α particle is a doubly ionized He atom

2
 54

Question Paper Code: 54

Time: 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120
Attempt all the Thirty Two questions
PART: A – 1
OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS, ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Considering following characteristics, identify the correct inheritance pattern from the given
options.
 Most affected individuals are male.
 Affected sons result from female parents who are either affected or who are known to be
carriers because they have affected brothers, fathers, or maternal uncles.
 Affected daughters are born to affected fathers and either affected or carrier mothers.
 The sons of affected mothers should be affected.
 Approximately half the sons of carrier mothers should be affected.
(a) Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (b) Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
(c) Sex-Linked Recessive Inheritance (d) Sex-Linked Dominant Inheritance

2. In a marine ecosystem with rich diversity of fauna, which of the following images would be a
correct representation of pyramid of biomass?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

3. Curcuma longa, Azadirachta indica, Basmati Rice, Indian Ginseng are all related to which of the
following concepts?
(a) Bioterrorism (b) Biomagnification (c) Biopiracy (d) Biodegradation

4. The transpiration pull is maximum under which of the following conditions?

(a) Closed stomata, low light intensity, humid air
(b) Open stomata, dry air, moist soil
(c) Open stomata, dry air, dry soil
(d) Open stomata, high humidity in air, moist soil

5. Read following criteria carefully.

 Slow evolutionary change relative to similar entities
 Gross similarity to an ancestral fossil
 Very low taxonomic richness today compared to the past
 Phylogenetic inference of specific characters as plesiomorphic
 Phylogenetic inference of a genealogical divergence between other groups that diverged
in the distant past
 Known in the fossil record before being discovered alive
These criteria can be used to categorize a group of organisms the most probably into
(a) Connecting links (b) Living fossils (c) Endangered species (d) Extinct species

3
 54

6. If in a wheat mutant, the length of chromosome 1B was found to be 6.7 µm instead of 5.0 µm,
approximately how many additional base pairs are incorporated in the mutant chromosome?
(a) 0.5 X 104 bp (b) 5 X 104 bp (c) 1.7 X 104 bp (d) 5.78 X 104 bp

7. Six circles each of radius 3 cm are inscribed in an equilateral A

triangle ABC such that they touch each other and also touch
the sides of the triangle as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
height of triangle ABC is
(a) 6(2 3  3) (b) 3(2 3  6)
(c) 3(2 3  3) (d) 6(2  3 ) B C

8. If x 2  ax  b  0 and x2  bx  a  0 have one common root, then

(a) a  b  0 (b) a  b  1 (c) a  b  1 (d) a 2  b2  1

9. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(a) x (b) (251  2) x  2  251 (c) (251  1) x  2  251 (d) 0

10. If 10025  25 is written in decimal notations, then the sum of its digits is
(a) 444 (b) 442 (c) 424 (d) 422

3
11. If  1, where x is a real number, then
x2
(a) 2  x  5 (b) x  2 or 5  x (c) x  2 or x  5 (d) None of these

12. ABC is a triangle, the bisector of angle A meets BC in D. The relation between AD, AB and AC is
(a) AD  [Link] (b) AD  AB. AC (c) AD  [Link] (d) AD  [Link]

13. Given that at a certain temperature, in 1.5 L vessel, 5.0 mole of A, 7.0 mole of B and 0.1 mole of
C are present. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction: A+ B ⇌ 2C + heat is
about
(a) 7.22 × 10-4 (b) 2.31 × 10-4 (c) 7.22 × 10-5 (d) 6.11 ×10-4

14. An alcohol (A) on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at a high temperature yields compound (B). On
ozonolysis every molecule of compound (B) yields two molecules of acetaldehyde. Which of the
following is the starting alcohol (A)?
(a) 1- butanol (b) 2- butanol (c) propanal (d) 2-propanol

15. In one process for waterproofing, a fabric is exposed to (CH3)2SiCl2 vapors. The vapors react with
the hydroxyl groups on the surface of the fabric or with traces of water to form the waterproofing
film [(CH ) SiO] , by the reaction; n(CH ) SiCl + 2nOH  2nCl- + nH O + [(CH ) SiO]
3 2 n 3 2 2 2 3 2 n
where n stands for a larger integer. The waterproofing film is deposited on the fabric layer upon
layer. Each layer is 6 Å thick [the thickness of the (CH3)2SiO group]. How much (CH3)2SiCl2 is
needed to waterproof one side of a piece of fabric, 1m by 2m, with a film 300 layers thick? The
density of the film is 1.0 g/cm3.
(a) 0.63g (b) 0.36g (c) 6.3g (d) 3.6g

4
 54

16. In an experiment with 100 mL 0.1 M solution of Copper Chloride, by mistake 5 gm of a

mixture containing equal weights of Tin, Silver, Lead and Calcium, was added. Finally after some
time the solution gets completely decolorized. This is mainly due to:
(a) Silver reacts with Copper Chloride
(b) Calcium reacts with Copper Chloride
(c) All the metals react with Copper Chloride
(d) Only Lead reacts with Copper Chloride forming white precipitate of lead chloride

17. Suppose that A and B forms compound B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mole of B2A3 weighs 12 g and 0.1
mole of B2A weighs 10 g, what are the atomic weight of A and B respectively?
(a) 70 and 25 (b) 50 and 20 (c) 40 and 30 (d) 30 and 40

18. Triclosan (C12H7Cl3O2) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent. It is a polychloro phenoxy

phenol. It is widely used as a preservative and antimicrobial agent in personal care products
such as soaps, skin creams, and deodorants etc. A label on a 200 mL hand sanitizer bottle
claims that it contain Triclosan 0.2% w/v. What will be the number of molecules of Triclosan
present in the bottle? (NA is Avogadro’s Number)
(a) 1.4 X 1025 NA (b) 1.4 X 1024 NA (c) 1.4 X 1023 NA (d) 1.4 X 1022 NA

19. Two blocks A and B are in contact with each other and are placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A force of 90N is applied horizontally on block A (situation I) and the same force is
applied horizontally on block B (situation II). Mass of A is 20 kg and B is 10 kg. Then the correct
statement is

(a) Since both the blocks are in contact, magnitude of force by block A on B will be 90 N (situation
I) and magnitude of force by block B on A will also be 90 N (situation II).
(b) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 30 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 60 N (situation II).
(c) Magnitude of force by block A on B is 60 N (situation I) and magnitude of force by block B on
A is 30 N (situation II).
(d) The 90 N force will produce acceleration of different magnitudes in A and B.

20. Gravitational collapse is the contraction of an astronomical object under its own gravity. This
draws the matter inwards towards the centre of gravity. A neutron star is an example of the
collapsed core of a giant star. A certain neutron star of radius 10 km is of mass 1.5 M☉. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the neutron star is nearly
(a) 2.0 × 108 m/s2 (b) 2.0 × 1012 m/s2 (c) 2.6 × 1016 m/s2 (d) 2.6 × 1020 m/s2

[Link] illuminated point objects O1 and O2 are placed at a distance 24 cm from each other along the
principal axis of a thin convex lens of focal length 9 cm such that images of both the objects are
formed at the same position. Then the respective distances of the lens from O1 and O2 (in cm) are
(a) 12 and 12 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 14 and 10 (d) 16 and 8

5
 54

22. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is a very delicate component of the human ear. Typically, its
diameter is 1 cm. The maximum force the ear can withstand is 2.5 N. In case a diver has to enter
sea water of density 1.05 X 103 kg/m3 without any protective gear, the maximum safe depth for
the diver to go into water is about
(a) 12 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

23. In the adjoining circuit, R = 5 Ω. It is desired that

the voltage across Rx should be 6 V, then the value
of Rx should be
(a) 4 Ω (b) 12 Ω
(c) 16 Ω (d) 20 Ω

24. A nuclear reactor is working at 30% efficiency (i.e. conversion of nuclear energy to electrical
energy). In this reactor 235
92𝑈 nucleus undergoes fission and releases 200 MeV energy per atom.
If 1000 kW of electrical power is obtained in this reactor, then the number of atoms
disintegrated (undergone fission) per second in the reactor is
(a) 1.04 × 1017 (b) 6.5 × 1012 (c) 3.125 × 1012 (d) 3.25 × 1032

6
 54

PART: A – 2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS. BUBBLE ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

25. Choose the correct statements from following options.

(a) A robust adaptive immune response is initiated using weakened forms of the bacterium
known as live attenuated vaccines.
(b) Administration of a killed or chemically inactivated virus can trigger a weaker adaptive
immune response, but can be strengthened with booster doses.
(c) A conjugate or multivalent component always reduces immunogenicity of the vaccine.
(d) Inclusion of alum, cytokines, and/or lipids always reduces the immune response to a vaccine.

26. The minimum energy required to exist that is the energy required to perform chemical reactions
even when a person is at rest is called the basal metabolic rate (BMR), which accounts for about
50 to 70 per cent of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. It is influenced
by many factors. Some statements are made about these factors. Choose the correct
statements from the following options.
(a) Thyroid hormone decreases metabolic rate (b) Growth hormone increases metabolic rate
(c) Fever decreases metabolic rate (d) Malnutrition decreases metabolic rate

27. Given (a  b) 2  (a  c) 2  (b  c) 2 , then which of the following statements are true?

(a) equation is valid when b  c and a ≠ c
(b) equation is valid when a  b
(c) equation is valid when a  c
(d) Given equation is not valid when a, b and c are distinct.

2 2
28. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 and 81sin 𝑥 + 81cos 𝑥 = 30, then x =
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 2𝜋
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 3 6 3
[Useful information: πc = 180°, sin (180 – θ) = sin θ, sin θ ≥ 0 when 0 ≤ θ ≤ 180°]

29. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in four test tubes A, B, C, and D. In test tube A,
1M acetic acid is added; in test tube B, 1M HCl is added; in test tube C, 1M HNO3 is added; and
in test tube D, 1M NaOH is added. The observed results will be:
(a) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in A (b) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in B
(c) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in C (d) The fizzing occurs more vigorously in D

30. Acetylene torches and burners used by glassblowers produce intense ultraviolet light.
Glassblowers wear special glasses that contain which of the following elements to absorb the
UV?
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Cerium (d) Didymium

31. The ratio of the charge of an ion or subatomic particle to its mass (q/m) is called specific charge.
Then the correct options are
(a) SI unit of specific charge can be written as A⋅s /kg.
(b) If all the isotopes of hydrogen are ionized then tritium will have least specific charge among
them.
(c) specific charge of an α- particle will be greater than that of an electron.
(d) specific charge ratio of an electron is 1.75 × 1011 C/kg.

7
 54

32. An infinitely long conductor when carrying current I,

produces a magnetic field B around it. If such a conductor
is placed along the X-axis, then the magnitude of 𝐵 at a
𝜇 2𝐼
distance r is given by the relation B = 0 , (where
4𝜋 𝑟
𝜇0
4𝜋
=10-7 NA-2 is a constant). The following figure shows
such an infinitely long conductor placed along X-axis
carrying current I and B at S is 2 x 10-4 T, directed into the
plane of the paper at S. Given r = 1 cm. Then, the correct
statements are
(a) I = 10 A
(b) The number of electrons transported across the cross section of the conductor during time
1s is 6.25 ×1019
(c) The direction of current I is from X2 to X1.
(d) The electrons will flow in the direction X2 to X1.

8
 54

ROUGH WORK

9
 51

Time: 2:30 PM to 3:45 PM

Question Paper Code: 51
Student’s
Roll No:
Write the question paper code mentioned above on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the space
provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same Question
Paper Code appears on each page of the question paper.

Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK
CAPITALS as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries
and filling the bubbles.
5. Your 14-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /
result in Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2021-22 (Part I).
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.
[Link].12 a c d
c c
d
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 33) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of
alternative(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill
the appropriate bubble(s), as shown
[Link].30 a c
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done in the space provided. There are 09 printed pages in this paper
9. Use of non- programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & Candidate’s copy of OMR for your
reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS
NOT ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

1
 51

Instructions to Candidates (Continued) :

You may read the following instructions after submitting the answer sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on the
Inquiry/Grievance column on [Link] on the specified format till January 15, 2022
13. The answers/solutions to this question paper will be available on the website:
[Link] by January 14, 2022.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS:

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to students, successful in the
Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2021-22 (Part I)
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %” To be downloaded from [Link] after 15.03.22
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend OCSC – 2022 at
HBCSE Mumbai
Certificate for centre toppers shall be uploaded on [Link]

15. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS will
be displayed on the website: [Link] by February 06, 2022 See the
Minimum Admissible Score Clause on the student’s brochure on the web.
16. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQJS 2021-22 (Part II) shall be displayed on
[Link] by February 10, 2022.

Physical constants you may need….

Mass of electron me  9.10 10

31
kg Magnitude of charge on electron e  1.60 1019 C

34
27
Mass of proton m p  1.67 10 kg Planck’s constant h  6.625 10 Js

Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 ms-2 Density of seawater at   1.03103 kg m3

1  x 
11
Universal gravitational constant G  6.67 10 Nm2 Kg  2 n
 1  nx, if x  1

Universal gas constant R  8.31 Jmol 1 K 1 1eV 1.610 19 J

Boltzmann constant k  1.38 1023 J K1
sin  A  B   sin A cos B  cos A sin B
1
Avogadro’s constant A  6.02 10 mol
23
E  mc2 , It’s an equation which gives mass and
1
energy equivalence.
Speed of light in free space c  3.0 10 m s
8

One unit of electric power = 1kWh

2
 51

JUNIOR SCIENCE 2021-22 (Part I) (NSEJS 2021 – 22)

Time: 75 Minute Max. Marks: 126
Attempt All Thirty Three Questions
A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. Which of the following is not a function of mature RBCs?

(a) Help in classifying blood in different blood groups
(b) Help in transport of gases
(c) Synthesis of immunoglobulins
(d) Help in maintaining acid base balance in the body

2. In which of the following classes of vertebrates there are groups of animals without
limbs?
(a) Fish, reptiles and mammals (b) Reptiles only
(c) Reptiles and Amphibians (d) Amphibians only

3. Which of the following groups have only one pair of wings?

(a) Honey bee, beetle, ant (b) Butterfly, housefly, fruitfly
(c) Dragonfly, butterfly, fruitfly (d) Housefly, fruitfly, mosquito

4. During an expedition to planet ‘Imagitica’, scientists analysed the genetic material of

the organisms found there and noted the following features:
i. Amount of purines and pyrimidines is unequal
ii. Absence of thymine
iii. Unstable genetic material, with high frequency of mutation
iv. Rapid degradation at pH above 12
From the above data, what genetic material might the Imagitica inhabitants contain?
(a) ssDNA (b) dsDNA (c) ssRNA (d) dsRNA

5. Which of the following is most likely to show aerenchyma?

(a) Leaf base of mango (b) Petiole of water hyacinth
(c) Seta of moss (d) Stem of Opuntia

6. Given below are three statements about bryophytes:

i. Bryophytes are lower plants with plant body differentiated into root, stem and
leaves.
ii. Bryophytes are devoid of xylem and phloem.
iii. Bryophytes require water for completion of their life cycle.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true with respect to bryophytes?

(a) ii only (b) i and ii (c) i and iii (d) ii and iii

3
 51

7. Carbon fixation in most of the succulent plants takes place through which pathway?
(a) Calvin cycle (b) Glycolate pathway
(c) Crassulacean acid metabolism pathway (d) Hatch-Slack pathway

8. If a flower is large, wide-mouthed, white, showing anthesis after sunset, and emitting
fruity or musky fragrance, it is most likely to be pollinated by:

(a) Birds (b) Bats (c) Insects (d) Baboons

9. Coal is a common fossil fuel. It contains 0.2 to 5.0 percent sulphur which on burning produces
a gas responsible for acid rain. The number of atoms in one mole of this gas is-

(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 1.81 x 1023 (c) 1.81 x 1024 (d) 1.21 x 1024

10. The stomach fluid in human contains HCl, KCl and NaCl. The stomach fluid is highly acidic
and plays an important role in the digestion of food as well as killing of bacteria. The
increased acidity may lead to abdominal pain, nausea, bloating, and heartburn. Such a patient
is prescribed antacid tablet which mainly contains aluminium hydroxide (Mol. Wt. 78). If the
concentrations of HCl, KCl and NaCl are 0.01M each and the stomach fluid volume is 2 litre,
the amount of Al(OH)3 required to neutralize the fluid will be-

(a) 0.52 g (b) 1.08 g (c) 0.81 g (d) 2.16 g

11. A 0.500 g mixture of calcium carbonate and calcium oxide was strongly heated to produce a
non-combustible gas. If the weight of the residue obtained on heating is found to be 0.434 g,
the percentage of calcium oxide in the mixture is-

(a) 70% (b) 30% (c) 35% (d) 60%

12. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their metallic character Na, C, O, Li, Be

(a) C < O < Na < Li < Be (b) O < C < Be < Na < Li
(c) O < C < Be < Li < Na (d) C < O < Be < Li < Na

13. A 50 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid solution is taken in a beaker and two wires are dipped in it as
shown in following figure.
When electric supply is switched on, the bulb glows.
To this solution, distilled water is added slowly till the
volume doubles. During the addition of water, the
intensity of the bulb-

(a) remains unchanged

(b) goes on decreasing
(c) goes on increasing
(d) suddenly becomes zero

4
 51

14. A compound X when heated with NaOH solution produces a pungent gas that turns red litmus
blue. When an aqueous solution of X is treated with AgNO3 solution, a white precipitate Y is
obtained which on keeping in sunlight turns grey liberating pale yellowish green gas. The
aqueous solution of compound X is

(a) neutral (b) slightly acidic (c) slightly alkaline (d) strongly acidic

15. Equal masses of two gases among N2, NO, O2, CO, CO2 and SO2 occupy same volume at
STP. These two gases are:

(a) N2 and O2 (b) CO and NO (c) SO2 and CO2 (d) N2 and CO

16. When a solution and the pure solvent are separated by a semipermeable membrane, the
solution exerts a pressure on the membrane called as osmotic pressure. The osmotic pressure
increases with increase in number of particles (ions or molecules) in the solution. If 10
millimoles of each of the sulphate salts of sodium, magnesium and aluminium are dissolved in
1.0 litre of water in three different beakers labelled as P, Q and R respectively, the osmotic
pressure follows the order-

(a) P < Q < R (b) Q < P < R (c) P > Q > R (d) P > R > Q

17. The axes of a coordinate system S2 are inclined at an angle θ to those of another
coordinate system S1. The origins of both the systems are coinciding. A particle P1 at
rest in system S1, starts from point (-2, 0) and travels along positive direction of X1
axis with uniform acceleration of 1.25 m/s2 for 4 s and stops. In system S2, particle P2,
starts from rest from the origin and travels for 2 s along positive direction of X2 axis
with uniform acceleration 5 m/s2 and stops. If the final distance between P1 and P2 is
6 m, then the angle between +Y1 axis and +X2 axis is

(a) 36.8° (b) 53.2° (c) 106.8° (d) 126.8°

18. The variation of a certain physical parameter Z with variable u is given by the relation
Z= ( ) , where R and A are constants and the maximum value of u . Then to
find R, a student plots a graph of variation of Z (Y axis) against u (X axis). The graph
is a
(a) straight line passing through origin and slope =
(b) straight line with intercept and slope =
(c) straight line with intercept A and slope =
(d) straight line with intercept and slope = – 3R

5
 51

19. A submarine S1 is parked at a depth of 200 m in an ocean on earth. Assume oceans

exist on Mars. At about what depth a submarine S2 has to be parked in an ocean on
Mars so that S2 will experience same pressure as that of S1? Acceleration due to
gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s2. (Assume that sea water density on Earth and Mars is
same,   1.03  103 kg / m3 )

(a) 158 m (b) 435 m (c) 530 m (d) 616 m

20. In an oscillating system, damping results in dissipation of the stored energy. The
following figure shows the variation of displacement x with time t for an oscillating
system. Which of the following statements best describes this physical phenomenon.

(a) Oscillatory motion of an object without damping

(b) Oscillatory motion of an object with damping such that time measurement was
started when the system was at the mean position.
(c) Oscillatory motion of an object with damping with decreasing time period.
(d) Oscillatory motion of an object with damping such that time measurement was
started when the system had maximum potential energy.

21. In the adjacent circuit, the galvanometer G does not show any deflection. If R = 2 Ω,
the current drawn from the cell is

(a) 1 A
(b) 9 A
(c) 4 A

(d) A

6
 51

22. ‘Gear’ is a mechanical system used to transfer mechanical and rotary motion from one
mechanical system to another. As shown in the figure below the driving wheel A
drives the driven wheel B without slipping and thus forms the gear system. The wheel
A has 16 teeth and B has 24 teeth. Wheel B has a projection (shown by white ring in
Fig. 1 and also in the side view of Fig. 2) of radius cm.

A long massless, inextensible string can be wound / unwound over this circular
projection. A mass m is attached to the free end of this long string. If the wheel A
1
makes 6 revolutions per second in the clockwise direction, without slipping, then in
2
second the potential energy of the mass m in CGS unit

(a) increases by 32mg (b) decreases by 32mg

(c) increases by 16mg (d) decreases by 16mg

23. Canopus is the second brightest star in the night sky. It is about 300 light years away.
The energy is produced inside the star through nuclear reactions. If we receive
5.0 x 10 – 8 W/m2 energy from Canopus, how much mass does it lose per second?

(a) 1.70 x 10 – 6 kg (b) 1.91 x 109 kg (c) 5.62 x 1013 kg (d) 6.34 x 1031 kg

24. An average human adult radiates about 100 W energy mainly in infra-red region of
the electromagnetic spectrum. 50 persons are sitting in a hall with an air conditioning
system which is 50% efficient. How much electricity must be used to maintain
temperature of the hall at 25C for 4 hours?

(a) 5 units (b) 10 units (c) 20 units (d) 40 units

7
 51

A- 2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED

25. Given below are four statements about viruses. Which of the following statement/s is/are
incorrect?
(a) All known viruses contain RNA as the genetic material.
(b) During viral multiplication, a complementary DNA is produced in riboviruses.
(c) Viruses are the smallest, freely living cells found on the planet.
(d) DNA containing viruses are more susceptible to mutations when compared to RNA
containing viruses and hence show a very rapid evolution.

26. During a race, Ramesh was thrown off the horse back and suffered an injury in the front part
of head. Upon thorough examination, Ramesh was found to have injury to the front part of the
head. Which of the following can be the possible outcome/s of this injury?

(a) Trouble in speaking properly (b) Inability to smell

(c) Inability to walk on a narrow path (d) Inability to maintain blood pressure

27. Which of the following molecules are primarily responsible for structural support and
motility?

(a) Actin (b) Tubulin alpha (c) Lamins (d) Desmin

28. The types of bonding found in dry ice is/are

(a) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) Metallic (d) Vander Waal forces

29. The compound/s that raise/s the temperature of water (from room temperature) on dissolving
in it is/are-

(a) Ammonium chloride (b) Potassium hydroxide

(c) Glucose (d) Conc. HCl

30. Soaps and detergents are common agents used in laundry industry. They are long chain
hydrocarbons with ionic terminals of cationic or anionic nature. A 1% (w/v) soap solution X
and 1% (w/v) detergent solution Y were prepared in distilled water. Each of the solutions was
divided in two equal parts and labelled as X1, X2, Y1 and Y2. 1 g NaCl was added to X1 and Y1
each while 1 g CaCl2 was added to X2 and Y2 each. Which of the following observations
is/are correct?

(a) X1 shows slimy precipitate (b) X2 shows slimy precipitate

(c) Y1 shows slimy precipitate (d) Y2 shows slimy precipitate

8
 51

31. According to Einstein's theory, light can be assumed to be in the form of a large
number of discrete energy packets called 'photons'. In case of light of frequency ,
each photon carries energy E = hν. In a certain surgical procedure a surgeon uses
LASER beam of wavelength 650 nm in pulses of 30.0 ms duration. The average power
of each pulse is 0.6 W. Here h is Planck’s constant. Then
(a) the frequency of this LASER photon is 4.6 1014 Hz
(b) the energy in each pulse is 1.1 1017 eV
(c) energy of one photon is 3.1
(d) number of photons in each pulse is 5.9 1016

32. In the following circuit, R1 = 6 Ω, R2 = 12 Ω, V = 16 V. The currents I1 and I2 flow

through the resistances R1 and R2 respectively
(a) power generated across R1 is 42.6 watt
I1
(b) the ratio of 2
I2
(c) total current drawn from the cell is 4 ampere
(d) as R2 = 2 R1, the voltage across R2 will be twice
the voltage across R1

33. A glass plate of uniform thickness t and refractive index

µ is as shown in the diagram. AB is the incident ray and
FG is the emergent ray. The angles of incidence and
refraction are i and r respectively. The perpendicular
distance FC = x between the incident and the emergent
rays is called the lateral shift. Then

(a) x = t ( )

(b) x depends on refractive index µ

(c) x is independent of the wavelength  of light
(d) Maximum value of x = t when i is close to 90°

9
 51

ROUGH WORK

10
 B

21
Plant
pigment
Solvent
mixture
 Afferent arteriole Efferentarteriole

Distal
Glomerulus
convoluted 5
Bowman's tubule
capsule
Proximal
Collecting duct
1 convoluted
tubule
Thick segment of
Thin segmentof ascending limb
2 of loop of
descending limb
Henle
of loop of 4
Henle
Thin segment of
3
ascending limb
of loop of
Henle
 INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS
NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE (NSEJS) 2019 20
Q1: Let be the roots of . If for then the
value of is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q2: The number of triples such that any one of these numbers is added to the product of the other
two, the result is 2, is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) infinitely many

Q3: In rectangle ABCD, AB=5 and BC=3. Points F and G are on the line segment CD so that DF = 1
and GC=2. Lines AF and BG intersect at E. What is the area of AEB?

(a) 10 sq. units (b) 15/2 sq. units (c) 25/2 sq. units (d) 20 sq. units

Q4:
In the given figure, two concentric circles are shown with centre O.
PQRS is a square inscribed in the outer circle. It also circumscribes
the inner circle, touching it at points B, C, D and A. What is the ratio
of the perimeter of the outer circle to that of quadrilateral ABCD?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q5: How many positive integers N give a remainder 8 when 2008 is divided by N.

(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15

Q6: What is the product of all the roots of the equation ?

(a) - 64 (b) - 24 (c) 576 (d) 24.

Q7: LCM of two numbers is 5775. Which of the following cannot be their HCF?
(a) 175 (b) 231 (c) 385 (d) 455
Q8: If are distinct real numbers such that evaluate

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q9: If the equation has more than two roots, then

the value of is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) none of these

Q10: Mr. X with his eight children of different ages is on a family trip. His oldest child, who is 9 years
old saw a license plate with a 4-

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

Q11: How many numbers lie between 11 and 1111 which divided by 9 leave a remainder 6 and when
divided by 21 leave a remainder 12?

(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 8 (d) None of these

Q12: Two unbiased dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a sum which is neither 7 nor 11?

(a) 7/9 (b) 7/18 (c) 2/9 (d) 11/18

Q13: The solution of the equation is

(a) 73 (b) 76 (c) 70 (d) 74

Q14: If then value of is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q15: An observer standing at the top of a tower, finds that the angle of elevation of a red bulb on the top
of a light house of height H is . Further, he finds that the angle of depression of reflection of the
bulb in the ocean is . Therefore, the height of the tower is

(a) (b) (c) (d) H

Q16: The sum of the roots of is zero. The product of roots is

(a) 0 (b) (c) (d)

Q17: In the convex quadrilateral ABCD, the diagonals AC and BD meet at O and the measure of angle
AOB is If the areas of triangle AOB, BOC, COD and AOD are 1, 2, 8 and 4 square units
respectively, what is the product of the lengths of the diagonals AC and DB in sq. units?

(a) 60 (b) 56 (c) 54 (d) 64

Q18: If then which of the following is NOT a possible value of

cos ?

(a) 3 (b) -3 (c) -1 (d) -2

Q19: Find the remainder when is divided by

(a) (b) (c) (d) 0

Q20: In an equilateral triangle, three coins of radii 1 unit each are kept so that they touch each other and
also sides of the triangle. The area of triangle ABC (in sq. units) is

(a) (b) (c) 12 + (d) 3 +

Q21: Gymn

(a) Male gamete (b) Ovule (c) Ovary (d) Seeds

Q22: In case of mice coat colour, two genes are responsible for colour

hair shaft (agouti), whereas recessive allele produces no yellow band. There is another allele of A,
known as AY, which is embryonic lethal in homozygous condition only. In an experiment, two
yellow mice were crossed to obtain a progeny of 6 pups. What would be the most probable number
of agouti mice among them?

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) None of the above

Q23. A stain was developed by a group of scientists to stain a particular cell organelle. The stain was
tested on various tissues derived from an autopsy sample from a mammal. The organelles were
counted. The results showed maximum number of the organelles in cells of brain, lesser in cells of
heart, least in mature sperms and absent in erythrocytes. Identify the organelles from following
options.

(a) Nissl bodies (b) Mitochondria

(c) Golgi bodies (d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Q24: Pinus sylvestris grows at low temperatures in Russia. The plant survives under such freezing
conditions due to the presence of:

(a) Saturated lipids in plasma membrane (b) Glycoproteins in plasma membrane

(b) Glycolipids in plasma membrane (d) Polyunsaturated lipids in plasma membrane

Q25: In an experimental setup, certain pathogen caused a disease in primates with nasal congestion, sore
throat and fever being the common symptoms. The scientists injected an extract from blue-green
mold as the first line of action. However, the symptoms did not subside. The possible causative
agents of the disease were listed out as follows.
i. a virus ii. a fungus iii. a conjugation deficient bacterium iv. a tapeworm
Choose the correct option from the following that indicate the pathogen.

(a) i, ii (b) i, iii (c) ii, iv (d) iii only

Q26: An organism has 27 pairs of homologous chromosomes. In each daughter cell after completion of
mitosis and in each gamete after completion of meiosis II, _________ and _________
chromosomes would be present respectively.

(a) 27 and 27 (b) 54 and 27 (c) 108 and 54 (d) 54 and108

Q27: A group of students was studying development of an organism under controlled laboratory
conditions. Following observations were made by them.
i. The larvae had a rod-like supporting structure that separated the nervous system and the gut.
ii. A prominent central cavity was present in the transverse section of the part of the nervous
system of the larvae; while the adults had cerebral ganglia as the main component of the
nervous system.
iii. The eyes were prominently seen in larvae.
iv. The tails were absent in the adults, which the larvae had.
v. A lot of phagocytic activity was observed before conversion of larvae into adults.
vi. The adults had a cuticular exoskeleton.
The organism under study must be belonging to:

(a) Amphibia (b) Pisces (c) Protochordata (d) Arthropoda

Q28: A process is represented in the adjacent figure. The arrows

indicate the flow of a biochemical reaction. The arrowhead
points to the product, while the base of the arrow indicates
the template biomolecule. What do P, Q, R, and S represent?

(a) P : Replication, Q : Translation, R : Transcription, S : Reverse Transcription

(b) P : Transcription, Q : Replication, R : Reverse Transcription, S : Translation
(c) P : Reverse Transcription, Q : Replication, R : Translation, S : Transcription
(d) P : Reverse Transcription, Q : Replication, R : Transcription, S : Translation

Q29: The whooping cranes were on the verge of extinction with only 21 individuals in wild in 1941. After
conservation measures, the cranes are now included in the endangered category by IUCN. The
highlight of the conservation efforts is the reintroduction of the whooping cranes in wild. This was
possible due to raising of the young cranes in absence of their parents by biologists dressed in crane
costumes. Aircraft Guided bird migration technique was used for teaching the captive-bred cranes
to follow the scientists to learn the migratory route. What type of animal behaviour might be
responsible for these captive-bred cranes to follow the crane costume dressed scientists?

(a) Cognitive learning (b) Habituation (c) Operant conditioning (d) Genetic Imprinting
Q30: In the baking industry, when the dough is prepared, various ingredients are mixed together with the
flour. At one instance, the dough was fermented, but failed to rise sufficiently during the baking
process. Choose the correct cause(s) from following possibilities.
i. The salt was mixed before the fermentation process was completed
ii. The sugar was added in excess
iii. Yeast granules were not activated prior to mixing with the flour.

(a) i, iii (b) iii only (c) i, ii, iii (d) i, ii

Q31: Given below are four statements.

I. Prokaryotic cells are unicellular while eukaryotes are multicellular.
II. Histones are present in eukaryotes and absent in prokaryotes.
III. The nucleoid contains the genetic material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
IV. Prokaryotic flagellum is composed of flagellin while eukaryotic flagellum is composed of
tubulin.
Identify which amongst these are false.

(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) II and III (d) I and III

Q32: The students of a college were working on regeneration using Planaria (Platyhelminthes) and
Asterias (Echinodermata). Planaria was cut in three pieces, namely, a piece with head, with tail
and the middle piece. Asterias (bearing five arms) was cut in such a way that after separation, six
pieces were obtained, namely, an arm with a portion of the central disc, four pieces cut from tips of
each of the remaining arms and the remaining body. The animals were allowed to regenerate
completely. How many Planaria and Asterias respectively will be obtained after the completion of
regeneration in both?

(a) 1, 1 (b) 3, 2 (c) 3, 6 (d) 1, 2

Q33: Fecundity in animal world is the maximum possible ability of an individual to produce offsprings
during its entire lifetime. Following factors were checked for their effect on fecundity of different
animal models.
i. Availability of food during breeding season
ii. Mode of fertilization
iii. Population density
Which of these factor(s) can regulate fecundity?

(a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) i, ii, iii (d) None of the above
Q34:

(a) Ethylene (b) Abscisic acid (c) Auxin (d) Gibberellic acid

Q35: In case of peppered moths, pale and dark moths are observed. Pale variety is known to be the wild
type variety. During industrial revolution, industrial melanism led to prevalence of dark variety
around the cities and pale variety continued to be in majority in areas away from the industries.
After enforcement of regulations for controlling pollution, reappearance of pale moths in majority
was observed around cities again. Driving force(s) for these adaptive changes is/are:
i. Increased pollution around industries
ii. A stable transposition of a gene in moths
iii. Limitations of the vision of birds to differentiate dark moths on darkened barks and pale moths
in presence of lichens
iv. Ability of lichens to grow on barks in less polluted areas only.

(a) i, iv (b) i, iii, iv (c) i, ii (d) i, ii, iii and iv

Q36: Any damage or injury to a particular area causes nociceptors to release some chemicals, which carry
the signal to the higher centres in the nervous system for the processing and a subsequent action.
However, there is a difference in the way in which the stimulus is received which is related to the
acuity of the detection. Fingertips are more sensitive as compared to the forearm. Following
reasons for the observed phenomenon were suggested.

i. The receptive fields in the fingertip are smaller

ii. The number of nociceptors per receptive field in the forearm is lesser
iii. The amount of prostaglandins released by the nociceptors per receptive field is more in
fingertips
The most probable reason(s) for this may be:

(a) i (b) i, iii (c) ii, iii (d) i, ii, iii

Q37: On a study tour, plants with leathery leaves with thick cuticle, vivipary, salt glands, apogeotropic
roots, and stomata limited to abaxial surface were observed. The plants might be:

(a) Bromeliads (b) Cycads

(c) Mangroves (d) None of the above
Q38:

Rate of photosynthesis in hydrophytes depends

on various parameters. The adjacent graph
shows the effect of one parameter (while
keeping all the others constant) on the rate of
photosynthesis. Rate of photosynthesis is
plotted on Y axis. Identify the parameter
which is plotted along X axis:

(a) light intensity (b) wavelength (c) temperature (d) CO2 concentration

Q39: long bacterial cell was magnified and drawn to a dimension of 6 cm. How many times has it
been magnified?

(a) 1.5 x 103 (b) 15 x 104 (c) 1.5 x 104 (d) 1.5

Q40: Four different human body fluid samples were subjected to quantification of hydrogen ion
concentration. mEq/L is the unit of measurement for hydrogen ion concentration. The results of the
experiment were as follows:
Sample A: 1.6 X 102 units Sample B: 4.5 X 10 5 units
3
Sample C: 1 X 10 units Sample D: 3 X 10 2 units
Identify the samples in sequence from A to D.

(a) Gastric HCl, Venous blood, Intracellular Fluid, Urine

(b) Venous blood, Intracellular Fluid, Gastric HCl, Urine
(c) Urine, Gastric HCl, Venous blood, Intracellular Fluid
(d) Intracellular Fluid, Urine, Gastric HCl, Venous blood

Q41: Four gram of mixture of calcium carbonate and sand is treated with excess of HCl and 0.880 g of
carbon-di-oxide is produced. What is the percentage of calcium carbonate in original mixture?
(a) 40 % (b) 50% (c) 55% (d) 45%

Q42: How many sigma bonds are present between any two carbon atoms in fullerenes?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q43:
Gammaxene insecticide powder is
prepared by the reaction given in the
adjacent box. If 78 g of benzene when
reacted with 106.5 g of chlorine, how
much Gammaxene would be formed?

(a) 140 g (b) 154.5 g (c) 145.5 g (d) 160 g

Q44: An element Y is a white translucent solid at room temperature and exhibits various allotropic forms.
Some compounds of element Y find application in agricultural industry. Y forms two solid oxides
which dissolve in water to form comparatively weak acids. The element Y is:

(a) Sulphur (b) Nitrogen (c) Phosphorous (d) Carbon

Q45: A student was studying reactions of metals with dilute NaOH at room temperature. The student took
dilute NaOH in four different test tubes and added copper powder to test tube A, zinc dust to test
tube B, aluminium powder to test tube C and iron powder to test tube D and observed
effervescence in__.

(a) Test tubes A & B (b) Test tubes B & C (c) Test tubes C & D (d) Test tubes A & D

Q46. Which of the following polymeric material will be ideal for remoulding?

(a) Polythene and Melamine (b) Polyvinyl chloride and Polythene

(c) Melamine and Bakelite (d) Bakelite and Polyvinyl chloride

Q47: A magician performed following act: He dipped Rs. 50 note in a 50% solution of alcohol in water
and held it on the burning flame, but the note did not burn. The reason behind this is -

(a) The alcohol kept on dousing the fire (b) Air required for burning was not available
(c) The Rs 50 note failed to reach ignition temperature (d) The Rs. 50 note is fire proof

Q48. Which of the following is iso-structural with CO2?

(a) NO2 (b) N2O4 (c) NO (d) N2O

Q49: Substance X is white crystalline solid which melts after 10 seconds on burner flame. It is soluble in
water and insoluble in CCl4. It is a poor conductor of electricity in molten state as well as in the
form of aqueous solution, hence we conclude that substance X is
(a) an ionic compound (b) a non polar covalent compound
(c) a polar covalent compound (d) a pure element

Q50: In a beaker 50 ml of a normal HCl solution was taken and NH3 gas was passed through it for some
time. The contents of the beaker were then titrated, which required 60 ml of semi normal NaOH
solution. How much ammonia was passed through the beaker?

(a) 0.85 g (b) 0.34 g (c) 0.51 g (d) 0.4 g

Q51: Which is the correct order of metals with reference to their melting point in increasing order?

(a) Hg, Ga, Li, Ca (b) Ca, Li, Ga, Hg (c) Hg, Li, Ga, Ca (d) Hg, Ga, Ca, Li

Q52: Sodium tungstate has formula Na2WO4, lead phosphate has formula Pb3(PO4)2, formula for lead
tungstate should be:
(a) PbWO4 (b) Pb2(WO4)3 (c) Pb3(WO4)2 (d) Pb3(WO4)4

Q53: What is the ratio of reducing agent to oxidizing agent, if the following reaction is correctly
balanced? NH3 + O2 2O

(a) 4:5 (b) 5:4 (c) 5:3 (d) 3:5

Q54: Arrange following solutions in increasing hydronium ion concentration. The solutions are:
(P) 0.1 M HCl (Q) 0.1 M H2SO4 (R) 0.001 M NH4OH (S) 0.001 M Ca(OH)2.
The correct order will be

(a) P > Q > R > S (b) Q > P > S > R (c) S > R > Q > P (d) S > R > P > Q

Q55: In one litre of pure water, 44.4 g of calcium chloride is dissolved. The number of ions in one mL of
the resultant solution is:

(a) 7.23 ×1023 (b) 7.23 ×1020 (c) 4.82 ×1023 (d) 4.82×1020
Q56: A zinc rod was dipped in 100 cm3 of 1M copper chloride solution. After certain time the molarity of
Cu2+ ions in the solution was found to be 0.8 M. If the weight of zinc rod is 20 g, then the molarity
of chloride ions is_____.

(a) 2 M (b) 1.5 M (c) 1 M (d) 0.5 M

Q57: When four dilute solutions of (I) vinegar, (II) common salt, (III) caustic soda and (IV) baking soda
are tested with universal indicator which will be the correct observation

(a) I- Green, II - Violet, III - Blue, IV - Red (b) I - Green, II - Blue, III -Violet, IV- Red
(c) I - Red, II - Green, III - Violet, IV - Blue (d) I-Red, II- Violet, III - Green, IV Blue

Q58: Which of the following species is / are isoelectronic with Neon?

(i) N3 (ii) Mg2+ (iii) K+ (iv) Ca2+

(a) only (iv) (b) only (ii) (c) both (i) & (ii) (d) both (i) & (iii)

Q59: Which of the following gases will have equal volume at STP, if the weight of gases is
14.0 g?
(i) N2O (ii) NO2 (iii) N2 (iv) CO

(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)

Q60: Which of the following are not ionic?

(i) AlCl3 (ii) CaCl2 (iii) MgCl2 (iv) LiCl

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

Q61: Apples dropping from apple trees were observed by many people before Newton. But why they fall,
was explained by Isaac Newton postulating the law of universal gravitation. Which of the following
statements best describes the situation?

(a) The force of gravity acts only on the apple

(b) The apple is attracted towards the surface of the earth
(c) Both earth and apple experience the same force of attraction towards each other
and (c) is absurd
Q62:
A rectangular metal plate, shown in the adjacent

uniformly distributed over it. Then how much is the

charge over the shaded area? No part of metal plate
is cut. (Circles and the diagonal are shown for clarity
only.

(a) 45 µC (b) 450 µC (c) 15 µC (d) 150 µC

Q63:

In the adjacent circuit, the voltages across AD, BD

and CD are 2 V, 6 V and 8 V respectively. If
resistance RA = 1
RB and RC are _____ and ____ respectively.

(a)

Q64: A new linear scale of temperature measurement is to scale on which

the freezing and boiling points of water are 20 Z and 220 Z respectively. What will be the
temperatu scale corresponding to a temperature of 20º C on the Celsius scale?

(a) 10 Z (b) 20 Z (c) 40 Z (D) 60 Z

Q65: Consider the motion of a small spherical steel body of mass m, falling freely through a long column
of a fluid that opposes its motion with a force proportional to its speed. Initially the body moves
down fast, but after some time attains a constant velocity known as terminal velocity. If weight mg,
opposing force (Fv) and buoyant force (Fb) act on the body, then the correct equation relating these
forces, after the terminal velocity is reached, is:

(a) mg + Fv = Fb (b) mg = Fv - Fb (c) mg = Fv + Fb (d) none

Q66: A piece of wire P and three identical cells are connected in series. An amount of heat is generated in
a certain time interval in the wire due to passage of current. Now the circuit is modified by
replacing P with another wire Q and N identical cells, all connected in series. Q is four times longer
in length than P. The wire P and Q are of same material and have the same diameter. If the heat
generated in second situation is also same as before in the same time interval, then find N.

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 16 (d) 36

Q67:

Some waveforms among

I, II, III and IV superpose
(add graphically) to
produce the waveforms
P, Q, R and S. Among
the following, match the
pairs that give the correct
combinations:

Resultant Superposition of

P (K) III and IV

Q (L) II and IV
R (M) I, II and III
S (N) I and IV
(O) II and III

(a)
(c)

Q68: At any instant of time, the total energy (E) of a simple pendulum is equal to the sum of its kinetic
energy and potential energy , where, m is the mass, v is the velocity, x is the
displacement of the bob and k is a constant for the pendulum. The amplitude of oscillation of the
pendulum is 10 cm and its total energy is 4 mJ. Find k.

(a) 1.8 Nm-1 (b) 0.8 Nm-1 (c) 0.5 Nm-1 (d) data insufficient
Q69:
A rigid body of mass m is suspended from point O
using an inextensible string of length L. When it is
displaced through an angle , what is the change in
the potential energy of the mass? (Refer adjacent
figure.)

(a) mg L (1- cos ) (b) mg L (cos - 1) (c) mg L cos (d) mg L (1- sin )

Q 70:

Refer to the adjacent figure. A variable

force F is applied to a body of mass 6 kg
at rest. The body moves along x - axis as
shown. The speed of the body at x = 5 m
and x = 6 m is ___ and ___ respectively.

(a) 0 m/s, 0 m/s (b) 0 m/s, 2 m/s (c) 2 m/s, 2 m/s (d) 2 m/s, 4 m/s

Q71: When a charged particle with charge q and mass m enters uniform magnetic field B with velocity v
at right angles to B, the force on the moving particle is given by qvB. This force acts as the
centripetal force making the charged particle go in a uniform circular motion with radius r = .
Now if a hydrogen ion and a deuterium ion enter the magnetic field with velocities in the ratio 2:1
respectively, then the ratio of their radii will be__________.
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:1

Q72: A piece of ice is floating in water at 4º C in a beaker. When the ice melts completely, the water level
in the beaker will

(a) rise (b) fall (c) remains unchanged (d) unpredictable

Q73: In a screw-nut assembly (shown below) the nut is held fixed in its position and the screw is allowed
to rotate inside it. A convex lens (L) of focal length 6.0 cm is fixed on the nut. An object pin (P) is
attached to the screw head. The image of the object is observed on a screen Y. When the screw
head is rotated through one rotation, the linear distance moved by the screw tip is 1.0 mm. The
observations are made only when the image is obtained in the same orientation on the screen. At a
certain position of P, the image formed is three times magnified as that of the pin height. Through
how many turns should the screw head be rotated so that the image is two times magnified?

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14

Q74: A school is located between two cliffs. When the metal bell is struck by school attendant, first
echo is heard by him after 2.4 s and second echo follows after 2.0 s for him at the same position
near the bell. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms-1 at the temperature of the surroundings, then
the distance between the cliffs is approximately____.

(a) 0.488 km (b) 0.751 km (c) 1.16 km (d) 1.41 km

Q75: The triangular face of a crown glass prism ABC is isosceles. Length AB = length AC and the
rectangular face with edge AC is silvered. A ray of light is incident normally on rectangular face
with edge AB. It undergoes reflections at AC and AB internally and it emerges normally through
the rectangular base with edge BC. Then angle BAC of the prism is____.

(a) 24º (b) 30º (c) 36º (d) 42º

Q76: The radius of curvature of a convex mirror is 'x'. The distance of an object from focus of this mirror
y

(a) y2 / 4x (b) x2 / y (c) x2 / 4y (d) 4y2/ x

Q77: A physics teacher and his family are travelling in a car on a highway during a severe lightning
storm. Choose the correct option:

(a) Safest place will be inside the car as the charges due to lightning tend to remain on the metal
sheet / skin of the vehicle if struck by lightning.
(b)
accumulate on the surface and will generate a strong electric field inside the car.
(c)
a path to the charges for earthing.
(d) It is safer to exit the car and stand on open ground

Q78: A conductor in the form of a circular loop is carrying current I. The direction of the current is as
shown. Then which figure represents the correct direction of magnetic field lines on the surfaces of
the planes XY and XZ. (Consider those surfaces of the XY and XZ planes which are seen in the
figure.)

(b)
(a)

(d)
(c)
Q79: A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20 s after starting from rest. If it travels a distance
S1 in the first 10 s and distance S2 in the next 10 s, the relation between S1 and S2 is:

(a) S2=3S1 (b) S1=3S2 (c) S2= 2S1 (d) S1=10S2

Q80: A sound wave is produced by a vibrating metallic string stretched between its ends.
Four statements are given below. Some of them are correct.
(P) Sound wave is produced inside the string.
(Q) Sound wave in the string is transverse.
(R) Wavelength of the sound wave in surrounding air is equal to the wavelength of the transverse
wave on the string.
(S) Loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibrating string.
Choose the correct option.

(a) P (b) R and S (c) P and Q (d) S

1. Trigonometric ratios are defined for angles greater than 90º also.

2. The following identities may be useful:

3. Periodic Table of elements