27-08-2025

2302CMD303021250011 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ring of mass m, radius r having charge q uniformly distributed over it and free to rotate about
its own axis is placed in a region having a magnetic field B parallel to its axis. If the magnetic field is
suddenly switched off, the angular velocity acquired by the ring is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

2) A time varying uniform magnetic field passes through a circular region of radius R. The magnetic
field is directed outwards and it is a function of radial distance ‘r’ and time ‘t’ according to relation B
= B0rt. The induced electric field strength at a radial distance R/2 from the centre will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A conducting square wire frame ABCD of side ℓ is pulled by horizontal force so that it moves with
constant velocity v. A uniform magnetic field of strength B is existing perpendicular to the plane of
wire. The resistance per unit length of wire is λ and negligible self inductance. If at t= 0, frame is

just at the boundary of magnetic field. Potential difference across BC at time t = is :-

(1)

(2) Bvℓ

(3)
(4) None of these

4) A circular loop of wire with radius R is centered at the origin of the xy-plane. The magnetic field
at a point within the loop is, , where k is a positive constant of appropriate
dimensions. Neglecting the effects of any current induced in the loop, the magnitude of the induced
emf in the loop at time t is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two parallel conducting rails, separated by a distance ℓ, are placed horizontally in a region of
uniform magnetic field , perpendicular to the plane of the rails as shown in the figure. Two
conducting wires, each of length ℓ are placed so as to slide on parallel conducting rails without
friction. One of the wires is given a velocity v0 parallel to the rails. Loss in kinetic energy of the

system till the steady state is achieved will be :

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A uniform magnetic field of intensity B = sin 2t directed into the plane of the paper exists in the
cylindrical region of radius 1 m. A loop of resistance 10Ω folded in the form of equilateral triangle of
side length 2m is placed as shown in figure. Find the maximum potential drop in wire AB.
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

7) The magnetic flux through a stationary loop with resistance R varies during interval of time T as
. The heat generated during this time neglecting the inductance of loop will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A square loop of area 25cm2 has a resistance of 10Ω. The loop is placed in uniform magnetic field
of magnitude 40.0 T. The plane of loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work done in
pulling the loop out of the magnetic field slowly and uniformly in 1.0 sec, will be

(1) 2.5 × 10–3 J

(2) 1.0 × 10–3 J
(3) 1.0 × 10–4 J
(4) 5 × 10–3 J

9) The centres of two thin coaxial conducting loops of radius r each are separated by distance d(d
>> r). Then, the mutual inductance of the system is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) The value of time constant for the electric circuit shown in the figure is: (r is the internal

resistance of the cell of emf E).

(1) 15 s
(2) 1.5 s
(3) 0.15 s
(4) 0.015 s

11) A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed v = 20 m/s in a uniform
magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 μF is connected as

shown in figure. Then

(1) qA = + 800 μC and qB = –800 μC

(2) qA = –800 μC and qB = + 800 μC
(3) qA = 0 = qB
(4) charge stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time

12) The magnetic field inside a solid conducting long wire at distance r from its axis is given as B =
B0r3 where B0 is constant. Which of the following relations correctly represents current enclosed in

the loop of radius r shown in the figure ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) If the switch is closed at t = 0. The current through the inductance 3L varies with time as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)
If I = t2 + 2 then find potential difference between point A and B at t = 2 sec

(1) 22 volt
(2) 44 volt
(3) 66 volt
(4) 33 volt

15) An inductor (L = 0.03 H) and a resistor

(R = 0.15 kΩ) are connected in series to a battery of 15 V EMF in a circuit shown below. The key K1
has been kept closed for a long time. Then at t = 0, K1 is opened and key K2 is closed simultaneously.

At t = 1 ms the current in the circuit will be :

(1) 0.67 mA
(2) 100 mA
(3) 67 mA
(4) 6.7 mA

16) Initially, the capacitor shown is uncharged. The switch S is closed at time t = 0. Then,
(1) is increasing with time
(2) is decreasing with time
(3) is 2V always
(4) is zero always

17) Three resistances of magnitude R each are connected in the form of an equilateral triangle of
side a. The combination is placed in a magnetic field B = B0 e–λt perpendicular to its plane. The

induced current in the circuit is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) An elliptical loop having resistance R, of semi major axis a, and semi minor axis b is placed in a
magnetic field as shown in the figure. If the loop is rotated about the x-axis with angular frequency

ω, the average power loss in the loop due to Joule heating is :

(1)

(2) Zero
(3)

(4)

19) A 20 Henry inductor coil is connected to a 10 ohm resistance in series as shown in figure. The
time at which rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across resistance is equal to the rate at
which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

20) A wire bent as a parabola y = 4x2 is located in a uniform magnetic field of 2T, perpendicular to
xy plane. At t = 0, a connecting bar AB starts sliding from origin with constant acceleration of 2 m/s2
along +vc y-axis. Find the emf (in volts) induced in the loop thus formed at y = 2m.

(1) 8V
(2) 9V
(3) 10V
(4) 11V

21) A series L-R circuit is connected to a battery of emf V. If the circuit is switched on at t = 0, then

the time at which the energy stored in the inductor reaches times of its maximum value, is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD

are

(1) B to A and D to C
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D

23) An e.m.f. of 15 volt is applied in a circuit containing 5 henry inductance and 10 ohm resistance.
The ratio of the currents at time t → ∞ and at t = 1 second is:-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1–e–1
(4) e–1

24) A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side (L >> l).
The loops are coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) A circular coil is placed in uniform magnetic field such that its plane is perpendicular to field.
The radius of coil changes with time as shown in the figure. Then which of the following graph

represent the induced emf in the coil with time-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails 'ℓ' distance apart set at
an angle θ to the horizontal. At the bottom, the rails are joined by a resistance R.

There is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the rails. The terminal velocity of the
rod is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) In the given dig. conducting rod PQ is given some initial velocity then induced current through

rod when it travels a distance x is (L is self inductance of inductor) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A conducting rod AC of length 4ℓ is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field

directed into the paper. AO = ℓ and OC = 3ℓ. Then :-

(1)

(2)
2
(3) VA – VC = 4Bωℓ

(4)

29) Two identical conducting rings A & B of radius r are in pure rolling over a horizontal conducting
plane with same speed (of center of mass) v but in opposite direction. A constant magnetic field B is
present pointing inside the plane of paper. Then the potential difference between the highest points

of the two rings, is :

(1) zero
(2) 2 Bvr
(3) 4Bvr
(4) none of these

30) In the given circuit, key K is switched on at t = 0, the ratio of current I thourgh the cell at t = 0
to that at t = ∞ will be :-

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

31) Find the EMF induced in metal loop when it moves in non-uniform magnetic field

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A non conducting ring of radius 'r' has a charge Q. A magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of

the ring changes at the rate . The torque experienced by the ring is :-

(1) Zero

(2)
Qr2

(3) Qr2

(4)
πr2Q

33) Shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius r and resistance R. A variable magnetic field of
induction B = B0e–t is established inside the coil. If the key (K) is closed, the electrical power
developed right after closing the switch is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square loop of side a as shown In
figure will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A rigid conducting wire but bent as shown in the figure, is released to fall freely in a horizontal
magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. If the magnetic field strength is
B, then the emf induced across the points A and C when it has fallen through a distance h will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Two coils A and B having turns 300 and 600 respectively are placed near each other. On passing
a current of 3.0 A in A, the flux linked with A is 1.2×10–4 Wb and with B it is 9.0×10–5 Wb. The
mutual inductance of the system is

(1) 2×10–5 H
(2) 3×10–5H
(3) 4×10–5H
(4) 6×10–5H

37) Figure shows a uniform magnetic field B confined to a cylindrical volume and is increasing at a
constant rate. The instantaneous acceleration experienced by an electron placed at P is :-

(1) zero
(2) towards right
(3) towards left
(4) upwards

38) As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial conducting loops separated by some distance.
When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current IP flows in P (as seen by E) and an induced current
flows in Q. The switch remains closed for a long time. When S is opened, a current flows in Q.

Then the directions of and (as seen by E) are:-

(1) Respectively clockwise and anticlockwise

(2) Both clockwise
(3) Both anticlockwise
(4) Respectively anticlockwise and clockwise

39) A time varying magnetic field B (t) exists in a circular region of radius 'a' and is directed into the
plane of the paper as shown in figure. The magnitude of the induced electric field at a point 'P' at a

distance 'r' from the centre of the circular region :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The loops A and B, when both are moved (see figure) near a current carrying wire. Then

direction of induced current in A and B are

(1) No current, clockwise

(2) No current, anticlockwise
(3) Anticlockwise, clockwise
(4) Clockwise, anticlockwise

41) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s–1. The
induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is :-

(1) 2 µV
(2) 2πµV
(3) πµV

(4)
µV

42) A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving out as shown in following fig. from the magnetic

field, then which plate of the capacitor will be positive :-

(1) Plate - A
(2) Plate - B
(3) Plate - A and Plate - B both
(4) None of these

43) A long solenoid of radius 2 cm has 100 turns/cm and carries a current of 5A. A coil of radius 1
cm having 100 turns and a total resistance of 20 Ω is placed inside the solenoid coaxially. The coil is
connected to a galvanometer. If the current in the solenoid is reversed in direction, find the charge
flown through the galvanometer (nearly) :-

(1) 2 × 10–4 C
(2) 4 × 10–4 C
(3) 6 × 10–4 C
(4) 8 × 10–4C

44) In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time and then X is joined to Z. The total heat

produced in R2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A metallic rod of lenght 'ℓ' is tied to a string of length 2ℓ and made to rotate with angular speed
ω on a horizontal tabel with or end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field 'B' in the
region, the emf induced across the ends of the rod is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) [Pt(en)3]x [PtCl4]y possible value of x + y in complex will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

2) Total number of possible isomer of complex [Pd(NH3)2(ONO)2] :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 9

3)

Compound Total stereoisomers

(A) [Co(en)2Br2]+ (M) 2

(B) K3[Co(OX)3] (N) 3

(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (O) 4

+
(D) [Pt(NH3)3Br3] (P) 5

Correct is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) O M O O

(2) N M M M

(3) M O M M

(4) N N M M
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Match the column :

Column-I[Complex Ion] Column-II[Value of CFSE]

 +2
(1) [Cr(H2O)6] (a) Zero

(b) –0.4 Δ0
+2
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]

(c) –0.6 Δ0
+3
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]

(d) –1.6 Δ0 + P
3–
(4) [CoF6]
(1) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d
(2) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - a
(3) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
(4) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 – b

5) Match the column :-

(A) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO+]SO4 (P) PV = +2

(B) cis-Platin (Q) SV = 4

Flexidentate
(C) EDTA (R)
ligand

Hexacyano
(D) Prussian blue (S) complex of
iron

A B C D
(1) S R Q P,R
(2) P P,Q R P,S
(3) Q,P R S P
(4) P R R,S Q
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

6)

Which of the following order is not correct :-

(1) [Fe(H2O)6] < [Fe(CN)6] Δ0 order

+3 –3

–4 –3
(2) [Fe(CN)6] < [Fe(CN)6] Fe-C Bond length
(3) CN– < CO π-accepting tendency
(4) C2H4 > K[PtCl3(C2H4)] C-C bond length

7) A, B and C are possible complexes of CoCl3.6H2O. A shows maximum electrical conductance and C
has maximum percentage of nonionisable Cl– and shows conductivity Then incorrect statement is :-

(1) No weight loss, when A is treated with conc, H2SO4

(2) Order of number of moles of AgCl ppt on adding excess AgNO3 solution is A > B > C
(3) Complex C is [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
(4) Complex B is [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O

8) Which of the following is not a square planer complex ?

–2
(1) [Cu(CN)4]
2–
(2) [PtCl4]
2–
(3) [PtCN4]
–2
(4) [NiCl4]

9) Which of the following statement is correct?

2 3 4–
(1) With d sp hybridization [FeCl(CN)4(O2)] complex is diamagnetic
2–
(2) [NiCl4] complex is more stable than [Ni(dmg)2]
–
(3) [V(CO)6] is not very stable and easily reduces to [V(CO)6]
Ligands such as CO, CN–, NO+ are
(4) pie– donar due to the presence of filled
p-molecular orbital

10) Correct statement is __________ :

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical isomerism.
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium.
(D) Ethylene diamine is a monodentate ligand

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct options

(2) (A), (B), (C), are correct options
(3) (A), (B), (D) are correct options
(4) (A), (D) are correct options

11) Complex have diamagnetic behaviour :-

(1) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
–2
(2) [PtCl4]
+2
(3) [Ni(H2O)6]
+2
(4) [Ni(NH3)6]

12) Which of the following statement is incorrect:

(1) Gem stone ruby having impurity of Cr+3

3–
(2) [Mn(CN)6] having 2 unpaired electron
(3) In a all bond length are similar.
(4) [Co(NH3)6]Cl2 act as a reducing agent
13) The IUPAC name for ionisation isomers of
[Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)(I)] Cl is

(1) Triamminebromidochloridonitro platinum (IV) iodide

(2) Triamminebromidochloridoiodido platinum(IV) nitrite
Triamminechloridoiodidonitro platinum
(3)
(IV) bromide
(4) All are possible

14) A six coordinate complex of formula CrCl3.6H2O has green colour. A 0.1 M solution of the
complex when treated with excess of AgNO3 gave 28.7 g of white precipitate. The formula of the
complex would be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Assertion :- EDTA ligand is hexadentate and chelating ligand.

Reason :- EDTA have 4 'N' and 2 'O' donor atoms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.

16) Statement-I:- [Cr(H2O)6]Cl2 and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 are oxidising in nature.

Statement-II:- [Fe(CN)6]4– ion is an outer orbital complex.
Choose most appropriate answer from options given below:-

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is Incorrect but Statement-II is correct

17) The structure of [Cu(H2O)4]+2 ion is -

(1) Tetrahedral
(2) Square planar
(3) Octahedral
(4) Pyramidal

18) Match the following :-

Complex Property
2–
(A) [PtCl4] (P) dsp2
 3–
(B) [Co(CN)6] (Q) diamagnetic
+3
(C) [Co(H2O)6] (R) Paramagnetic
2+
(D) [Mn(NH3)6] (S) Octahedral
(1) A → P,Q, B → P,Q, C → Q,S, D → R,S
(2) A → R, B → P,Q, C → Q, D → S
(3) A → P, B → R, C → Q,R,S, D → P
(4) A → R,S, B → P,Q, C → Q,R, D → R,S

19) Some statement are given below–

(a) Coordination compounds [Pt(NH3)3(NCS)] and [Pt(NH3)3(SCN)] are examples of linkage
isomerism
(b) In the coordination compound K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation state of nickel is zero.
(c) The hybridization, shape and magnetic moment of K3[Cu(CN)4] are respectively dsp2, square
planar, 1.73 B.M.
(d) [Cr(NCS)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4] exhibits only Linkage isomerism

(1) only a, b, c are correct

(2) only a, b are correct
(3) only b, c, d are correct
(4) All are correct

20) The number of bridging carbonyl groups in [Co2(CO)8] and [Mn2(CO)10], respectively are

(1) 2 and 2
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 0 and 2
(4) 2 and 0

21) Select the correct M–C, Bond Strength?

– –2
(1) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4] > [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(2) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] < [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(3) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] = [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]

22) If metal 'M' form complex with O2 ligand shows synergic bonding then select the correct
statement regarding [M(O2)x]

(1) O – O B.L. increases

(2) O – O B.L. remain same
(3) O – O B.L. decreases
(4) O2 accepts e in σ BMO
–

23) Which of the following compound is Hetroleptic complex compound

(1) Zeise's salt
(2) Ferrocene
(3) Cromocene
(4) all of these are hetroleptic complex compounds

24)

Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding organometallic compounds?

(1) Tetraethyl lead is bonded organometallic compound

(2) Al4C3 is an organometallic compound
(3) Frankland reagent is bonded organometallic compound
(4) Metal carbonyls are organometallic compounds

25) Which ligand is used for remaining excess of copper and iron ?

(1) EDTA and DHG

(2) Cyanoamine and natphol
(3) D-pencillamine and deslerrioxime B
(4) Ph3P and NH3

26) Which complex has maximum spin?

3–
(1) [CoF6]
–4
(2) [Ni(CN)4]
–3
(3) [Co(ox)3]
+3
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

27) The solubility of AgBr in hypo solution is due to the formation of :-

(1) Ag2SO3
(2) Ag2S2O3
–
(3) [Ag(S2O3)]
3–
(4) [Ag(S2O3)2]

28) Which of the following complex ion is not expected to absorb visible light ?

2+
(1) [Ni(H2O)6]
2–
(2) [Ni(CN)4]
3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]
2+
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]

29) Select the incorrect statement(s) among the following :-

(a) If Δ0 < P, it becomes more energetically favourable for the fourth electron to occupy t2g orbital

with configuration for d4 ions.

(b) Nature of bonding in co-ordination compound cannot be explain by MOT.
(c) Solvated isomerism is a special class of co-ordination isomerism.

(1) b and c only

(2) b only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c

30) Which is correct for emerald ?

+3
(1) Cr ions occupy octahedral sites in Al2O3
(2) Cr+3 ions occupy octahedral sites in Mineral Beryl
(3) Co+3 ions occupy octahedral sites in Mineral Beryl
(4) All are incorrect

31) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic moments.
(2) When Δ0 < P, then d electron configuration is t2g eg
6 4 2

–3
(3) Complex [Co(OX)3] has zero magnetic moment
If the Δ0 for a Co(III) complex is 18000 cm–1 then Δt for Co(III) complex with same ligand will be
(4)
8000 cm–1

32) The color of light absorbed by an aqueous solutions of CuSO4 is :-

(1) orange red

(2) blue green
(3) yellow
(4) violet

33) Incorrect order of stability is :

3– 3+
(1) [Co(OX)3] > [Co(H2O)6]
–2 2–
(2) [PtF6] > [NiF6]
2+ 2+
(3) [Ni(trien)] > [Ni(en)2]
2+
(4) [Ni(NH3)6] > [Ni(dmg)2]

34) Total number of molecules/species from following which will be paramagnetic is ______.
, NO, NO2,CO,K2[NiCl4],
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3, K2[Ni(CN)4]

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) NONE
35) Identify the coordination complexes in which the central metal ion has d4 configuration.
(A) [FeO4]2–
(B) [Mn(CN)6]3–
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3–

(E) [NiF6]2–
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (C) and (E) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B) and (E) only

36) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-membered covalent chelate when treated with NiCl2
solution in presence of NH4OH.
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

37) The correct statements from following are :

A. The strength of anionic ligands can be explained by crystal field theory.
B. Valence bond theory does not give a quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of coordination
compounds.
C. The hybridization involved in formation of [Ni(CN)4]2–complex is dsp2.
D. The number of possible isomer(s) of cis-[PtC12 (en)2]2+ is one
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, D only
(2) A, C only
(3) B, D only
(4) B, C only

38) Which of the following option is correct regarding [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4?

(I) Fe in +2 oxidation state
(II) It obey's sidgwick EAN rule
(III) It is an outer orbital complex
(IV) NO ligand has +1 oxidation state.

(1) FFTT
(2) FTTT
(3) FFFF
(4) FTFT

39) When Ethane-1,2-diamine is added progressively to an aqueous solution of Nickel (II) chloride,
the sequence of colour change observed will be :

(1) Pale Blue → Blue → Green → Violet

(2) Pale Blue → Blue → Violet → Green
(3) Green → Pale Blue → Blue → Violet
(4) Violet → Blue → Pale Blue → Green

40) The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies
is :

2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(1) [Co(NH3)4] <[Co(NH3)6] <[Co(en)3] <[Co(NH3)6]
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(2) [Co(NH3)4] <[Co(NH3)6] <[Co(NH3)6] <[Co(en)3]
2+ 3+ 2+ 3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6] <[Co(NH3)6] <[Co(NH3)4] <[Co(en)3]
3+ 3+ 2+ 2+
(4) [Co(en)3] <[Co(NH3)6] <[Co(NH3)6] <[Co(NH3)4]

41)

Select appropriate ligand for given complex

; μ = 0 BM
2–
(1) C2O4
(2) en
(3) H2O
(4) F–

42) The oxidation state of Mo in its oxo-complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2(H2O)2]2– is:

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +5

43) The complex of Ni2+ ion and dimethyl glyoxime contains ______ number of Hydrogen (H) atoms.

(1) 14
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 5

44) Which of the following obey Sidgwick EAN rule ?

(1) Wilkinson catalyst
(2) cis-platin
(3) Brown ring complex
(4) Prussian blue

45) IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is :

(1) Hydrogen hexachloro platinate(IV)

(2) Dihydrogen hexa chloro platinate(IV).
(3) Hydrogen hexa chloroplatinic(IV) acid
(4) Hexa chloro platinic(IV) acid

BOTANY

1) The following diagram refers to Griffth's demonstration of transformation in Pneumococcus. A, B,

C and D indicate the fates of mice after they are injected with specific bacteria. Identify the fate of
mice.
S strain → Inject into mice → ...A...
R strain → Inject into mice → ...B...
S strain → Injected into mice → ...C...
(heat killed)
S strain → Inject into mice → ...D...
(heat killed) + R strain

(1) A-dies, B-dies,C-lives, D-lives

(2) A-lives, B-lives,C-dies, D-dies
(3) A-dies, B-lives,C-lives, D-dies
(4) A-lives, B-dies,C-dies, D-lives

2) The salient feature of DNA are:

(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains
(ii) Two chains have parallel polarity
(iii) Bases in two strands are paired through H-bond forming base pairs
(iv) The two chains are always coiled in left handed fashion

(1) i, iv
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) i, iii
(4) i, ii, iv

3) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II
ϕ × 174
a i 48502 bp
bacteriophage
Human cell
b ii 5386 bases
(Diploid)
c E. coli iii 6.6 ×109 bp
d λ-phage iv 4.6 × 106 bp
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

4)

Which one is not the criteria of genetic material:-

(a) It should be able to generate it's replica
(b) It should be chemically and structurally more unstable
(c) It should be single stranded
(d) It should have ability of mutation
(e) It should not be able to expresses itself in the form of Mendelian characters

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) b, c, e
(4) a, d

5) Choose correct one :-

a-DNA, b-H1-histone,
(1)
c-histone octamer, d-core of histone
a-core of histone, b-DNA,
(2)
c-H1 histone, d-histone octamer
a-Histone octamer, b-core of histone,
(3)
c-DNA, d-H1 histone
a-H1 histone, b-histone octamer,
(4)
c-core of histone, d-DNA

6) Choose the correct option about enzyme participate in replication of DNA

1 Helicase a Gyrase i To break hydrogen bond

2 Topoisomerase II b Unzipping ii Removal of supercoil

Removal of primer by
3 DNA polymerase III c Kornberg enzyme iii 5'–3'
exonuclease activity
 Main enzyme for
4 DNA polymerase I d iv 5' –3' polymerisation
replication
(1) 1–b–ii, 2–a–i, 3–d–iv, 4–c–iii
(2) 1–b–i, 2–a–ii, 3–d–iv, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–b–i, 2–a–iii, 3–d–ii, 4–c–iv
(4) 1–b–i, 2–a–ii, 3–d–iii, 4–c–iv

7) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) hn RNA is subjected to a process called splicing where the exons are removed.
(2) In capping an unusal nucleotides is added to the 3' end of hn RNA
(3) Splicing represents the dominance of DNA world
In tailing, adenylated residues are added at 3' end of hnRNA in a template independent
(4)
manner.

8)

There are 20% adenine among the bases in a DNA fragment measuring 6.8 nm in length. The
number of pentoses, nitrogen base pairs, phosphate groups and hydrogen bonds in this DNA
fragments are respectively :

(1) 52, 20, 20,52

(2) 40, 52, 40,40
(3) 20, 40, 52,48
(4) 40, 20, 40,52

9)

The ratio of in one strand of dsDNA is 0.8. The similar ratio in complementary strand is :

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.8
(3) 1
(4) 0.2

10) If a linear DNA molecule has 2000 bps then how many phospho-diester bonds and glycosidic
bonds would be present in it respectively ?

(1) 2000 and 2000

(2) 4000 and 4000
(3) 3998 and 4000
(4) 4000 and 8000

11) Read the following 4 statement (a-d) :-

(a) Nucleosome contain 200 base pair of DNA
(b) Nucleosome = Binding DNA + Histone Octamer + Linker DNA + H1 histone
(c) 6 Nucleosome units united to form Solenoid structure
(d) Histone octamer contain (H2A H2B H3 H1)2
How many above statement are right ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

12) During DNA replication which enzyme remove the RNA primer from DNA.

(1) Primase
(2) DNA polymerase II
(3) DNA polymerase I
(4) Helicase

13) The three structural formula A,B and C are given here. Identify them and select the correct

option

A B C

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

1
(N-base) (Nucleotide) (Nucleoside)

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

2
(N-base) (Nucleoside) (Nucleotide)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Adenine

3
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) (N-base)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Deoxyadenylic

4
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Identify A, B and C in given diagram :-

 A B C

Histone Histone
(1) DNA
H1 octamer

Histone Histone
(2) DNA
octamer H1

Histone Histone
(3) DNA
octamer H1

Histone Histone
(4) DNA
octamer H1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) A N15 – N15 DNA molecule is continuously replicated in N14 medium, then what is the % of heavy
DNA in 4th generation?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 100%

16) In the given picture correctly identify A, B and C :-

A = Sigma factor, B = Rho factor,

(1)
C = Terminator
A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor,
(2)
C = Promoter
A = Rho factor, B = RNA polymerase,
(3)
C = Terminator
A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor,
(4)
C = Rho factor

17) In Meselson and Stahl's experiment, bacterial cells with heavy DNA (N15/N15) is continously
grown in N14 medium for four generations. The ratio of N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 containing DNA in
fourth generation would be :-
(1) 1 : 1 : 0
(2) 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 7
(4) 0 : 1 : 3

18) Which of the following correctly represent DNA replication ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Assertion: RNA is unstable and mutates at a slower rate.

Reason: Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span, mutate and evolve faster.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

20)

A nucleoside is formed through a N-glycosidic linkage when

(1) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1' C pentose sugar

(2) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 5' C pentose sugar
(3) A phosphate group base is linked to the OH of 1' C pentose sugar
(4) A phosphate group is linked to the OH of1' C pentose sugar

21) If one strand of dsDNA consists of the sequence 5'-ATGCATGC-3' then the complementary
sequence must be :-

(1) 3'-ATGCATGC-5'
(2) 3'-TACGTACG-5'
(3) 3'-UACGUACG-5'
(4) 5'-TACGTACG-3'

22) Find out the correct statement about Meselson and Stahl experiment

The DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the transfer from 15N to 14N
(1)
medium had a hybrid or intermediate density.
DNA extracted from the culture after second generation was composed of equal amounts of
(2)
hybrid DNA and of ‘light’ DNA.
This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from the normal DNA by centrifugation in a
(3)
cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.
(4) All of the above.

23) Assertion: There is uniform distance between the two strands of the DNA helix
Reason : A purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine in a double stranded DNA

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is reason

24) Statement I : The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed due to sugar and phosphates.
Statement II : The nitrogenous bases linked to phosphate moiety project from the backbone.

(1) Both statements are incorrect.

(2) Both statements are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

25) If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, then what will be the number of base pairs of distance
between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) In one polynucleotide strand of a dsDNA molecule the ratio on A +T/G+C is 0.3. What is the A +
G/T+C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?

(1) 0.3
(2) 0.6
(3) 1.2
(4) 1

27) Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (c), (d) Only

(2) (b),(e) Only
(3) (a),(c),(e) Only
(4) (b), (d), (e) Only

28) Enzymes used in above processes A, B and C are

respectively :

A B C

DNA dependent RNA dependent DNA dependent

(1)
DNA polymerase DNA polymerase RNA polymerase

DNA dependent DNA dependent RNA dependent

(2)
DNA polymerase RNA polymerase DNA polymerase

DNA dependent DNA dependent RNA dependent

(3)
RNA polymerase DNA polymerase DNA polymerase

RNA dependent DNA dependent RNA dependent

(4)
DNA polymerase RNA polymerase DNA polymerase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Assertion : Watson and Crick provided experimental proof of semiconservative nature of DNA
replication.
Reason : DNA polymerase binds nucleotides in replication:

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) If Assertion is false but Reason if true

30)
Find the incorrect statement:
1. DNA helicase unwinds the DNA strands at the replication fork.
2. Primase synthesizes RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis.
3. DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments on the leading strand.
4. Topoisomerase relieves supercoiling during DNA replication.

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 3 only
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1, 3, and 4

31) Assertion : DNA replication is semi-conservative.

Reason : Each daughter DNA molecule consists of one parental strand and one newly synthesized
strand.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

32) Which enzyme joins the discontinuously synthesised fragments during DNA replication ?

(1) DNA Polymerase

(2) Primase
(3) DNA ligase
(4) Topoisomerase

33) A molecular biologist analysed a nucleic acid sample and found that it contain N2 bases in
following proportion A = 20%, T = 15%, C = 35%, G = 30%. This data indicates that –

(1) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded DNA

(2) Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded DNA
(3) Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded RNA
(4) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded RNA

34) Which of the following enzymes helps in DNA replication.

(a) Topoisomerase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) Helicase
(e) DNA ligase
(f) DNA gyrase

(1) a, c, d, e only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, d, e, f only
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f
35) Assertion (A) :- DNA polymerases are not only fast in polymerisation but also have catalyse the
reaction with high degree of accuracy
Reason :- Any mistake during replication would result into mutation
In light above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below -

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct

36) Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements (A – D) :-

A) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serves dual purpose.
B) On template 5' → 3', DNA replicates in continuous manner.
C) DNA polymerase has to catalyse the reaction with low degree of accuracy.
D) Any mistake during replication would result into mutations.

(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) A and B
(4) B and D

37) Which of the given is/are involved in the process of DNA replication?
A) Template DNA with polarity 3’ → 5’
B) Template DNA with polarity 5’ → 3’
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
D) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

(1) Only (A) and (C)

(2) Only (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

38) Identify the A & B in given below experiment.

(1) A = radioactive 35S labelled DNA, B = radioactive 32P labelled protein capsule
(2) A = radioactive 35S labelled protein capsule, B = radioactive 32P labelled DNA
(3) A = radioactive 35P labelled protein capsule, B = radioactive 32S labelled DNA
(4) A = radioactive 32S labelled protein capsule, B = radioactive 35P labelled DNA

39) Consider the following four statements and select the incorrect statement.

(1) Two nucleotides are linked through 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide
(2) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a ester linkage to form a nucleoside
The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This in addition to H-bonds
(3)
confers stability of the helical structure
(4) The nitrogenous bases linked to sugar moiety project from the backbone

40) Main steps of DNA replication are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
(A) Unwinding of DNA double helix
(B) Synthesis of DNA chain in 5' → 3' direction
(C) Synthesis of RNA primer
(D) Activity of DNA ligase
(E) Removal of RNA primer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A, B, D, C, E
(2) A, C, B, E, D
(3) A, C, D, E, B
(4) A, C, E, B, D

41) Assertion (A): Bacteria infected with viruses having radioactive sulfur became radioactive.
Reason (R): DNA from bacteriophage entered the bacteria during Hershey and Chase experiment.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

42) Statement-I : The process of transformation can occur naturally in some bacteria.
Statement-II : Transformation involves the uptake of foreign DNA by a bacterial cell.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

43)

Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not
radioactive protein because

(1) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not

(2) DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, but protein does not
(3) Protein contains radioactive sulphur, but DNA does not
(4) Protein contains radiactive carbon, but DNA does not

44) In the experiment conducted by Griffith regarding transforming principle, he observed that
___(i)____ bacteria injected into mice ___(ii)____ them.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and (ii).

(1) (i) Heat-killed R strain, (ii) Killed

(2) (i) Live S strain, (ii) Did not kill
(3) (i) Live R strain, (ii) Killed
(4) (i) Heat-killed S strain, (ii) Did not kill

45) Assertion (A) : A piece of DNA if propagated through recombinant DNA procedures requires a
vector.
Reason (R): Vector provides origin of replication.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct

ZOOLOGY

1) Read the following (a-d) statements :-

(a) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates formed and were active
(b) Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around 320 mya
(c) About 200 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared
(d) The first mammals were like elephant
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

2)

Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

Stabilisation
(a) (i) Two peaks form
selection

Directional Peak gets higher

(b) (ii)
selection and narrower
 Disruptive Peak shift in one
(c) (iii)
selection direction
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii

3) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist :

(1) Worked in Malay Archipelago

(2) Had conclusions similar to those of Charles Darwin
(3) Believed in fixity of species
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept ?

(1) Absence of limbs in snakes

(2) Presence of Webbed toes in aquatic birds.
(3) Melanization in peppered moth in industrial area
(4) Lack of pigment in cave dwelling animals

5) Find the total number of organisms evolved from Psilophyton in the following.
Bryophytes, Herbaceous lycopods, Sphenopsids, Ferns, Ginkgos, Conifers, Gnetales, Arborescent
lycopods, Zosterophyllum.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

6) What is the correct arrangement of periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in geological
time scale?

(1) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian

(2) Cambrian → Ordovician →Silurian →Devonian →Carboniferous →Permian
(3) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
(4) Silurian → Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

7) Select the correct statement:

(1) Darwinian variations are small and directionless

(2) Mutations are random and directional
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae

8) Genetic drift operates in

(1) Small isolated population
(2) Large isolated population
(3) Nonreproductive population
(4) Slow reproductive population

9) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Large difference arising suddenly in a population is called mutation.

(2) According to Darwin, adaptive ability is inherited.
(3) According to Darwin, evolution is saltation.
(4) Darwin challenged theory of special creation

10) Which of the following is not correct regarding the primate whose fossils have been discovered
in Ethiopia and Tanzania

(1) Man-like primates walked in Southern Africa

(2) They were probably no taller than 4 feet
(3) They walked upright about 3-4 MYA
(4) They are connecting link between apes and man

11) Which of the following factor does not effect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

(1) Genemigration
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Natural selection
(4) Random mating

12) Which of the following organism is phylogenetically a close living relative of birds ?

(1) Dinosaurs
(2) Crocodiles
(3) Mammals
(4) Thecodonts

13) Which of the following can be concluded from the below diagram :-
(1) Chimpanzee and humans do not share common ancestory
(2) Chimpanzee and human share common ancestor
(3) Chimpanzees are more close relative to human as compare to other modern day apes
(4) Both 2 and 3

14) First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body and use of hides to protect their bodies have
been found with which human ancestor ?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Australopithecines

15) Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by
him?

(1) De Vries – Theory of natural selection

(2) Darwin – Mutation Theory
(3) Weismann–Theory of continuity of germplasm
(4) Pasteur–Theory of inheritance of acquired characters

16) Assertion : Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into
distinct races.
Reason : During ice age between 75000-10000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Pre-existing advantageous mutations when selected by nature, after few generations, would
result in
(1) Migration
(2) Gene flow
(3) Speciation
(4) Founder effect

18) Large differences arising suddenly in a population is believed to be mutation by Hugo de Vries
based on his work on evening primrose in

(1) 1st decade of nineteenth century

(2) 2nd decade of nineteenth century
(3) 1st decade of twentieth century
(4) 2nd decade of twentieth century

19) Statement-I : In Hardy-Weinberg principle, allelic frequencies in a population are stable and is
constant from generation to generation.
Statement-II : In Hardy-Weinberg principle the gene pool remains constant.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

20) Statement-I : About 65 million years ago suddenly dinosaurs reappeared on the earth.
Statement-II : Triceratop was 3-horned dinosaur, had huge and longneck.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

21) The creature was called first human like being the hominid and was called :-

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Australopithecus

22) Which of the following is not a correct statement?

Rocks form sediments and a cross-section of earth crust indicates the arrangement of sediments
(1)
one over the other during the long history of earth.
Palaeontological evidences are the best evidences of organic evolution as they have physical
(2)
proof.
Evolution by natural selection, in a true sense would have started when cellular form of life with
(3)
difference in metabolic capabilities originated on earth.
(4) Cycads are ancestors of Dicotyledons.
23) Based on observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle round the
world, Darwin concluded that :-
(i) Existing living forms share similarities to varying degree not only among themselves but also with
life forms that existed million of years ago.
(ii) Many such life forms do not exist any more.
(iii)There had been extinctions of different life forms in the years gone by just as new forms of life
arose at different periods of history of earth.
(iv) There has been gradual evolution of life forms.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

24) Arborescent lycopods are not seen after which period :-

(1) Carboniferous
(2) Cretaceous
(3) Permian
(4) Devonian

25) Hardy weinberg's law fail when there is_____?

(1) Stablising selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) All of the above

26) Select the incorrect match for the fossil and it's feature :-

(1) Ramapithecus – Hairy and walked liked gorillas

(2) Australopithecines – Lived in East Africa grassland
(3) Homo habilis – Did not eat meat
(4) Homo erectus – Discovered in Africa

27) Pre historic cave art developed about around 18,000 years ago, was done by :-

(1) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis

(2) Homo sapiens fossilis
(3) Homo sapiens sapiens
(4) Homo erectus pekinensis

28) First angiosperm plant originated in which period :-

(1) Cretaceous
(2) Jurassic
(3) Triassic
(4) Carboniferous

29) If frequency of dominant allele (A) is 0.7 in a Hardy-Weinberg population, then what will be the
percentage contribution of recessive (aa) individuals ?

(1) 49%
(2) 42%
(3) 9%
(4) 91%

30) Which of the following facts develop suspicions in Lamarckism?

Human females are not born with bored ear pinna, although they have been bored for
(1)
thousands of years.
(2) Giraffe has long neck to eat leaves of tall trees.
(3) A stag can run fast to protect against the enemies.
(4) None of these.

31) Statement 1: The founder effect occurs when a new population diverges significantly in allele
frequency.
Statement 2: The original population always remains unchanged after migration.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

32) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Neanderthal man existed (i) 18,000 years ago,
(B) Agriculture started (ii) 1,00,000-40,000 years back
(C) Pre-historic cave art developed (iii) About 15 mya
(D) Dryopithecus existed (iv) 10,000 years back
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

33) Mark the correct order of evolution :

(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Neanderthal
(D) Australopithecus
(E) Dryopithecus

(1) D → E → B → A → C
(2) E → D → B → A → C
(3) E → D → A → B → C
(4) A → E → D → C → B

34) The most successful story is the evolution of

(1) Man with language skills and self-consciousness

(2) Insects with chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages
(3) Amphibians that lived on both land and water
(4) Birds which can live on land, in water and air

35) Genetic drift is

(1) An orderly change in gene frequency

(2) The appearance of only recessive alleles
(3) A random fluctuation of gene frequency
(4) Appearance of only dominant character in a directional manner

36) In a particular area,two types of rocks are found, dark coloured and white coloured. The mice
found in that area have different coat colour ranging from white to dark. Mice, in order to protect
themselves from predatory eagle, camouflage with colour of rocks. Which type of frequency curve is
expected after natural selection in this case:

(1) Directional
(2) Cyclic
(3) Disruptive
(4) Stabilising

37) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) The skull of adult chimpanzee is like that of modern adult human
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is like that of modern adult human
(3) The skull of baby chimpanzee is exactly similar to that of adult chimpanzee
(4) The skull of baby human is exactly similar to that adult chimpanzee

38) What is the term used to describe the effect when a new population is established by a very
small number of individuals from a larger population, leading to a change in allele frequency?

(1) Gene flow

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Founder effect
(4) Bottleneck effect

39) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Due to continental drift, when South America joined North America, the South
American mammals resembling horse, hippopotamus, bear, rabbit, etc., were overridden by North
American fauna.
Statement II: Pouched mammals of Australia survived because of the lack of competition from any
other mammal due to continental drift. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

40) The brain capacity of neanderthal man was :-

(1) 600 cc
(2) 900 cc
(3) 1650 cc
(4) 1400 cc

41) In a population that is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele for a
certain hereditary trait is 0.20. What percentage of the individual in the next generation would be
expected to show the dominant trait :

(1) 16%
(2) 32%
(3) 64%
(4) 96%

42) Statement I : T rex was the biggest dinosaur.

Statement II : T rex had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

43) We are still not very clear that evolution is a process or the result of a process. But when we
describe the story of this world we describe that evolution is a :-

(1) Process
(2) Consequence of natural selection
(3) Non known
(4) Both (1) and (2)

44) What are the main key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution ?
(A) Natural selection
(B) Branching descent
(C) Mutations
(D) Genetic variations

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) A, D

45) During an archaeological excavation, fossil remains of Stegosaurus were found in layer B of the
earth’s crust. Another fossil of a different animal was found in layer D, which was one of the layers
below the layer B. This new fossil can belong to all of the following, except

(1) Early reptiles

(2) Fishes
(3) Modern birds
(4) Advanced amphibians
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 1 4 1 1 2 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 3 (2) 4 3 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 1 4 1 3 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 1 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 2 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 1 4 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 1 3 4 4 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
Let switching time be
Δt so induced electric field

E=
torque = qEr

τ=
⇒ angular impulse = t Δ t

ω=

2)

3)

V = E – ir = Bℓv – =

4) Flux through a small elemental ring of radius r of thickness dr at any time t is

5) Net force on the system is zero hence momentum is conserved so
mv0 = 2mv
Both wires will have same velocity when steady state will be achieved.

6) The direction of induced electric field is circular and hence potential drop across wire OA
and OB is zero. Hence all induced emf will be in the wire AB.

e=–
∴ emax = 2 volt

7)

8)

l = 50 cm

t = 1 sec

i=
∴ F = Bil = 40 × 0.01 × 0.05

F = 0.02 N

∴ W = 0.02 × l = 0.02 × .05

∴ W = 1 × 10–3J

9)

10) Equivalent resistance across inductor

Req =

Req =
L = 100 × 10–3 H

11) qA = + (Bℓv) C = (4) (1) (20) (10 × 10–6) = 800 μC

qB = –qA = –800μC

12)

or [Note : B r3 is taken out of integration because it is not varying along

d]
or B0r3(2πr) =µ0Ien
or

13) Leq = 2L τ = 2L/R

Current through source ‘i’ =

Current divide in inverse ratio in parallel inductor circuit;

14) At t = 2 sec
I = 6A

15) As the inductor will behave as zero resistance after infinite time in LR circuit the current
will be :

As the switch K1 is opened and K2 is closed the inductor will behave as source and current at
any time can be found using KCL

.....(1)
Integrating the equation (1)

⇒
In LR decay circuit the current is given as

at time t = 1 ms current can be found by substituting L = 0.03 H

R = 150Ω
i = 0.67 mA

16) Current through LR branch :

Change on the capacitor =

zero

17)
18) ∈ = NABωcosωt

19)
As both resistor and inductor are connected in series, so same current will be flowing through
them
Energy dissipated by resistor = VRi
and energy stored in inductor = VIi
where Vi and VI are voltages across resistor and inductor.
As the energies are equal and current flowing is same, thus

We known that voltage across inductor at any times is an exponential function

Here, V0 = E when (t = 0)

We known that
So,

20) ε = BℓV

=B×2×
= 8V

21)
22)

23) At t → ∞ sec
I1 = I0(1 – e–2(∞)) = I0 (1 – 0) = I0
At t = 1 sec

0
I2 = I0 (1 – e–2(1)) = I

24) B due to outer loop =

=
Flux linked with smaller loop = B.A
(Assuming B as uniform since l <<<< L)

ϕ=

ϕ = MI So M=

So M=

25) ϕ = B.A.
ϕ = B(Ir2)

emf (e) =

e=

e = 2Bπr

From t = 0 to t = 1s,
 From t = 1s to t = 2s, = constant but r increases linearly.

26) Terminal velocity is attained when magnetic force is equal to mg sin θ

∴ Fm = mg sin θ
or = mg sin θ

or

or = mg sin θ

∴ vT =

27) VL = Vrod

L = vℓB

L = ℓB
Ldi = dx ℓB
Li = xℓB

i=

28)

0
V - VA =

0
V - Vc =
subtracting
_______________

VA -VC =
=4
29) Considering a projected length 2R on the ring in vertical plane.
This length will move at a speed v perpendicular to the field. This results in an induced emf :
e = Bv(2R) in the ring.

In Ring "A" : eA =B(-v)(2R)

In Ring "B" : eB = B(v)(2R)
Therefore, potential differnce between A & B = B(v)(2R) – B(–v)(2R) = 4 BvR.
Note : there wil be no p.d. across a diameter due to rotation.
Alternate – Considering rotation of diameter about lowest point :

e= = 2Bvr in A (since pure rotation).

and e = – 2Bvr in B. Hence (3)

30) At t = 0

At t = ∞

31)
Intentaneous induced emf in square metal loop is:-
enet = e1 – e2

= av(B1 – B2), where B1 = & B2 =

using the values of B1 and B2

enet =

(always non zero)

32)
Induced electric field at ring :-

E × 2πr =

E × 2πr = πr2 ⇒ E=

Force on ring F = QE =

Torque on ring t = rF =

33)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the electrical power developed in a circular
loop of radius r and resistance R when a time-varying magnetic field B = B_0 e^(-t) is applied
inside the loop and the switch connected to the loop is closed.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves electromagnetic induction, specifically Faraday's

law of induction, which states that a time-varying magnetic flux through a loop induces an
electromotive force (emf) in the loop. The induced emf causes current to flow through the
resistance, producing electrical power.
Relevant Formulas: Magnetic flux through the loop is given by Induced emf

is Power dissipated in resistance R by current due to emf E is Where

, is the radius, and is the resistance.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate magnetic flux: Step 2: Find

induced emf using differentiation: Step 3: Evaluate emf

right after closing switch (t=0): Step 4: Calculate power dissipated using

Tips and Tricks: Keep track of the negative sign in Faraday's law but note that power
depends on the square of emf, which makes it positive. Also, the area of the loop is , which
is essential to calculate flux.

Common Mistakes: Forgetting to differentiate the exponential term correctly or ignoring the
negative sign. Another mistake is calculating power using just emf without squaring it or
dividing by resistance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that do not square the magnetic field term or
the area, or that incorrectly include extra powers of r or constants, are incorrect. The correct
answer must have , , and in the numerator divided by .

34)
dϕ = BdA

ϕ=

MI = ln

M= ln

35)
e = Bvℓ
effective length =

36)

(ϕs)total = MIP
9 × 10–5 = M × 3
m = 3 × 10–5 H

37)

Due to increasing magnetic field direction of induced electric filed Anti clock wise so that due
to these elector accelerat in towards right.

38) When S is closed a clockwise current grows in loop P so an anticlockwise current is

induced in loop Q.
When S is opened the clockwise current in P decreases to oppose the change in flux a
clockwise current is induced in loop Q.

39)

E(2πr) = πa2 (dB/dt)⇒E =

40)

When velocity parallel to wire then change in flux zero so no EMI will be observed but in loop
B will be observed.

41) Explanation:
1. Problem Explanation:
A circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 0.005 T. The radius of the loop is
shrinking at 1 mm/s. We need to find the induced EMF when the radius is 2 cm.

[Link]:
Faraday's Law

[Link]:
The induced EMF is given by Faraday's Law:

where magnetic flux,

Φ = BA = Bπr2

[Link]:
Differentiating both sides:
e = B.
Since A = πr2,

so,

Given:
• B = 0.025T
• r = 2 cm = 0.02 m

• = –1 mm/s = -0.0001 m/s

Substituting values :
e = 0.025 × 2π × 0.02 × 0.01
e= π × 10–6 V = πμV

4. Correct Answer:
Option 3: π μV

42)

As loop is moving out from magnetic field So flux of loop decreases so induced current in loop
must flow clockwise (Magnetic field of it in same direction as of external)

43) induced charge =

=
= 2 × 10–4C

0
44) Steady-state current in L = I =
Energy stored in L

=
= heat produced in R2 during discharge.
 45) Consider an element of length dx of the rod at a
distance x from the fixed end of the string. e.m.f. induced in the element is de = B(ωx)dx

Hence, e.m.f. induced across the ends of the rod is

= Hence, correct answer is (b).

CHEMISTRY

46) C.N. = 6 C.N = 4 O.S. = +4 O.S. = +2

[Pt(en)3]2 [PtCl4]4
⇒ x + y ⇒ 2 + 4 or 1 + 2 = 3

47)

Explanation:
The question asks for the total number of possible isomers for a palladium complex,
considering both geometric and linkage isomerism.

Concept: (Possible isomers for palladium complex)

Combining the Isomers:

A. cis isomers:

A. cis-[Pd(NH3)2(ONO)2]
B. cis-[Pd(NH3)2(ONO)(NO2)]
C. cis-[Pd(NH3)2(NO2)2]
D. cis-[Pd(NH3)2(NO2)(ONO)]

B. trans isomers:

A. trans-[Pd(NH3)2(ONO)2]
B. trans-[Pd(NH3)2(ONO)(NO2)]
C. trans-[Pd(NH3)2(NO2)2]
D. trans-[Pd(NH3)2(NO2)(ONO)]

Counting:

A. There are 8 possible isomers. However, the cis-[Pd(NH 3 ) 2 (ONO)(NO 2 )] and cis-
 [Pd(NH3)2(NO2)(ONO)] are the same. Same for the trans version. So we have to eliminate one
from both set of isomers.
B. Therefore, the total number of isomers is 6.

Final Answer: Option (3)

48)

As per concept

49) Explanation - Match each complex ion with its corresponding Crystal Field Stabilization
Energy (CFSE) value, considering ligand field strength and d-electron configurations.
Concept - (CFSE)
[Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺:

A. Cr²⁺ has a d⁴ configuration.

B. In an octahedral field, it will have a t₂g³e¹ configuration.
C. CFSE = (3 × -0.4 Δ₀) + (1 × 0.6 Δ₀) = -1.2 Δ₀ + 0.6 Δ₀ = -0.6 Δ₀.
D. Therefore, 1 - c.

[Cr(NH₃)₆]²⁺:

A. Cr²⁺ has a d⁴ configuration.

B. NH₃ is a strong field ligand, resulting in a t₂g⁴e⁰ configuration.
C. CFSE = (4 × -0.4 Δ₀) + (0 × 0.6 Δ₀) + P = -1.6 Δ₀ + P.
D. Therefore, 2 - d.

[Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺:

A. Fe³⁺ has a d⁵ configuration.

B. H₂O is a weak field ligand, resulting in a t₂g³eg² configuration.
C. CFSE = (3 × -0.4 Δ₀) + (2 × 0.6 Δ₀) = -1.2 Δ₀ + 1.2 Δ₀ = 0.
D. Therefore, 3 - a.

[CoF₆]³⁻:

A. Co³⁺ has a d⁶ configuration.

B. F⁻ is a weak field ligand, resulting in a t₂g⁴eg² configuration.
C. CFSE = (4 × -0.4 Δ₀) + (2 × 0.6 Δ₀) = -1.6 Δ₀ + 1.2 Δ₀ = -0.4 Δ₀.
D. Therefore, 4, b.

Final Answer - Option (3)

50) is - platin
⇒ [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
Prussian Blue
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

51)

C-C bond length

C2H4 < K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
 52) A → [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
B → [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
C → [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O

53)

Question Explanation – The question asks to identify which complex is not square planar.

Concept – (Geometry Hybridisation, ligand field strength)

[Cu(CN)₄]²⁻:

A. Cu²⁺ has a d⁹ electron configuration and forms a square planar geometry with CN⁻
ligands, which are strong field ligands.

B. [PtCl₄]²⁻:

A. Pt²⁺ has a d⁸ electron configuration, which is typical for square planar complexes,
and chloride ions are weak field ligands.

C. [Pt(CN)₄]²⁻:

A. Pt²⁺ with d⁸ configuration also forms a square planar complex with CN⁻, which is a
strong field ligand.

D. [NiCl₄]²⁻:

A. Ni²⁺ has a d⁸ configuration, but Cl⁻ is a weak field ligand, which favors tetrahedral
geometry rather than square planar.

Correct Answer: Option 4: [NiCl₄]²⁻ is not a square planar complex; it is tetrahedral.

54) (1) In this compound Fe+2 → 3d6

but this compound is paramagnetic due to presence of superoxide as a ligand.

(2) [Ni(dmg)2] is more stable due to more chelate ring.
(3) EAN of [V(CO)6]
= 23 – 0 + 2 × 6
= 23 + 12 = 35
EAN [V(CO)6]–
23–(–1) + 2 × 6
24 + 12 = 36
After gaining 1e– [V(CO)6] reduces to [V(CO)6]– as it starts following EAN Rule
(4) CO, CN–, NO+ are σ-donor & p acceptor.

55) NCERT Pg. # 245

56)

Cl– behave as S.L. with Pt+2, so paring occur

57)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 261 (First paragraph)

58) Number of possible ionisation isomers of

[Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)(I)]Cl is :-
[Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)(Cl)]I …(1)
[Pt(NH3)3(Cl)(NO2)(I)]Br …(2)
[Pt(NH3)3(Cl)(Br)(I)]NO2 …(3)

59) 0.1 mole of complex gives 28.7 g m of AgCl.

Mole of AgCI formed

So the formula is

60) EDTA have 2 'N' and 4 'O' donar atoms.

61)

O.S. → Cr = 2, Fe = +2 and [F(CN)6]–4 is inner orbital complex.

62) Co3+ 3d6 in SFL t2g6eg° - hence diamagnetic

63) [PtCl4]2– dsp2, Diamagnetic , Square planar

[Co(CN)6]3– d sp3, Diamagetic
2

64)

[Cr(NCS)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4] exhibit linkage and coordination iso.

65)

66) M–C B.O./C–O B.L. –ve charge

67) Synergic bonding

68) Zn+4 & Hf+4 has same ionic size because of lanthanoid contraction.

69) Cis - platin

Prussian Blue

70) NCERT-XII, Page

71) NCERT XII, Unit 9 (2017), Pg # 248, Part-I

Weak ligand (F–) ⇒ No pairing

72)

73) Solution/Explanation:
In this question we have to check which complex ion is not expected to absorb visible light.

Concept:
(1) For the absorption of visible light, the presence of unpaired d - electrons is the necessity.
(2) In [Ni (CN)4]2– Ni P present as Ni2+ Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8 45°

Pairing occur because CN– is strong field ligand.

Since in [Ni (CN)4]2– , no unpaired is present in d - orbitals, it does not absorb visible light.

(1) [Ni (H2O)6]2+

Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8
 Have two unpaired electrons.

(3) [Cr (NH3O)6]3+

Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3
Have three unpaired electrons.

(4) [Fe (H2O)6]2+

Fe2+ = have four unpaired electrons.

74) NCERT, Pg. # 258

75) NCERT XII

Unit 9

76) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have zero magnetic moment.

77) complementary color

78)

Stability ∝ chelation effect

79) O2 → 2 unpaired electrons according to MOT

O2+ → 1 unpaired electrons according to MOT
O2– → 1 unpaired electrons according to MOT
NO → odd electron species
NO2 → odd electron species
K2[NiCl4] → Ni2+ ⇒ 3d8 weak Ligand, C.N. = 4
⇒ Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic with 2 unpaired electrons

80) Fe+6 = [Ar]3d2

Mn+3 = [Ar]3d4
Fe+3 = [Ar]3d5
Cr+2 = [Ar]3d4
Ni+4 = [Ar]3d6

81) Ni2+ + NH4OH + dmg →

2 Five member ring

Prussian Blue

82) B. VBT does not explain stability of complex

C. Hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4]–2 is dsp2.

83) Conceptual

84) [Ni(H2O)6]+2(aq) + en(aq) → [Ni(H2O)4(en)]+2(aq) + 2H2O

Green
[Ni(H2O)4(en)]+2(aq) + en(aq) → [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]+2(aq) + 2H2O
Pale Blue
[Ni(H2O)2(en)]+2(aq) + en(aq) → [Ni(en)3]+2(aq) + 2H2O
Blue / purple

85) Order of CFSE

SFL : NH3 < en

86) [Co(H2O)6]+3 H2O act as strong field ligand with Co+3 (CN=6)

87)

[MO2O4 (C2H4)2 (H2O)2]–2

2x + (–2)× 4 + 0 × 2 + 0 × 2 = – 2
2x = 6

x=+3

88) [Ni(dmg)2]

Number of H-atom = 14

89) Wilkinson catalyst – [RhCl(PPh3)3] = 52

 cis-platin – [PtCl2(NH3)2] = 84
Brown ring complex – [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 = 37
Prussian blue – Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 = 36

90) H2[PtCl6] is an acid, not salt hence its name : Hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid.

BOTANY

91) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 100

92)

Explanation:
(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains: This is correct. DNA is a double-stranded
molecule.
(ii) Two chains have parallel polarity: This is incorrect. The two chains have anti-parallel
polarity (running in opposite directions).
(iii) Bases in two strands are paired through H-bonds forming base pairs: This is
correct. Adenine pairs with Thymine via two hydrogen bonds, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine
via three hydrogen bonds.
(iv) The two chains are always coiled in left-handed fashion: This is incorrect. The most
common form of DNA (B-DNA) is coiled in a right-handed fashion.

Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (iii).

93) NCERT XII, Page # 99

94) NCERT Pg # 103

95) Explanation: Based on the user's statement that option 1 is correct for the unprovided
figure, 'a' represents the DNA molecule wrapped around the histones. 'b' labels the H1
histone, which is associated with the linker DNA and the nucleosome. 'c' refers to the entire
histone complex involved in the nucleosome structure, and 'd' specifically points to the central
octameric protein core of the nucleosome.
Answer: 1. a-DNA, b-H1-histone, c-histone octamer, d-core of histone

96)

NCERT XII Pg. # 90

97)

NCERT XII Pg # 94, 95

98)

NCERT Pg : 96, 2021 - 22

99)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 97

100)

NCERT Pg. No. 80

101)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 99

102)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 106

103)

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation: In given formula- A is adenine (a nitrogen base), B is adenosine (adenine +

ribose = a nucleoside), and C is adenylic acid (adenine + ribose + phosphate = a nucleotide).
Option 2 accurately reflects these identities.

104) NCERT XII Pg. # 99 Fig - 6.4 a

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 89

106) NCERT XII Pg # 93

107) NCERT XII Pg.# 105

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 107

109) Ncert Page 87.

 110)

Ncert Pg No: 96

111) NCERT, Pg. # 97

112) Ncert:103

113) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 82

114) NCERT : 97

115) Ncert Pg No. 99, module based

116) Ncert Pg No. 81 and Allen module.

117)

The question requires analyzing the given statements about chromatin structure and histones
to determine which ones are correct.
Concept :

A. (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin: Correct. Euchromatin is less

condensed, allowing for gene transcription.
B. (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active: Incorrect. Heterochromatin is tightly
packed and usually transcriptionally inactive.
C. (c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in the nucleosome:
Correct. The histone core is surrounded by negatively charged DNA in a nucleosome.
D. (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine: Correct. These amino acids are positively
charged and help histones bind to negatively charged DNA.
E. (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix: Incorrect. A nucleosome typically
contains about 200 bp of DNA.

Correct Answer: 1 - (a), (c), (d) Only

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 82

119) NCERT pg # 88

120)

NCERT-XII, Page # 89
 121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 89

122) NCERT Pg. # 90

123) Correct Answer: Option 1, Single-stranded DNA

Explanation:
Chargaff’s Rule (A = T, C = G) applies to double-stranded DNA.
Given A ≠ T (20% ≠ 15%) and C ≠ G (35% ≠ 30%), so it is not double-stranded DNA.
Thymine (T) is present, meaning it is DNA, not RNA.
Since Chargaff’s rule is not followed and T is present, it must be single-stranded DNA.

124) Module-09 Pg. No. 122, 123, 124

125)

NCERT XII (E)-90, (H)-100

126) NCERT XII, Pg. # 90

127)

NCERT- Page No.-106

128)

The correct answer is (2) A = radioactive 35S labelled protein capsule, B = radioactive 32P
labelled DNA
Explanation (Hershey-Chase Experiment, 1952)

A. Hershey & Chase conducted an experiment using bacteriophages (T2 phage) to confirm that
DNA is the genetic material.
B. They used two radioactive isotopes:
C. 35S (Sulfur-35) → Labels protein, as sulfur is found in proteins (but not in DNA).
D. 32P (Phosphorus-32) → Labels DNA, as phosphorus is found in DNA (but not in proteins).

Experimental Results:

A. A ( 35S-labelled protein) remained outside the bacterial cell (did not enter).
B. B ( 32P-labelled DNA) entered the bacterial cell and directed viral replication.

Thus, DNA (not protein) was confirmed as the genetic material.

129)

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 130) NCERT-XII Pg. # 106, 107

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

133)

Ncert Pg No: 85, 86

134) NCERT Pg No. 100

135) Ncert Pg No. 107

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT Page # (E/H) 138-140, 148-150

137) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-136, (H)-147

138) NCERT Page no 113

139) Allen module Ex : I, Question No : 75, Page no 134

140) Ncert page 138.

141)

The correct answer is 2) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous →

Permian.

142) Ncert Pg No. 134

143)

NCERT ( Pg 137)

144) NCERT XII, Page # 119

145) Module-3 Pg # 148

146) NCERT XII Bio Pg. # 137

147) NCERT Pg - 139

148) NCERT XII, Pg. # 140

149) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 124,125

150)

NCERT : PAGE 135

151) NCERT Pg. # (E)- 141, (H)-154

152) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII, Page No. 137

153) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII, Page No. 135

154)

NCERT : PAGE 137

155) NCERT Pg # 124

156)

NCERT-XII Pg#125

157) NCERT XII, Page # 129, 134

158) NCERT Pg. # 129

159) NCERT Pg. # 138

160)

NCERT Pg. # 137, Para-7.7

161) NCERT-XII, Pg # 140

162) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 141

163)

CLASS XII NCERT # Pg No. 122

164)

NCERT Pg no 120

165)

NCERT-XII, Page # 119

(Evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by use and disuse of organs.)

166)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 121

167) NCERT Pg # 124, 125

168) NCERT Pg # 140/141 Para. # 7.9

169) NCERT Reference Zoology-XII, Page No. 137

170) NCERT Reference Zoology-XII, Page No. 137

171)

NCERT : PAGE 136

172) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 141 / Fig. # 7.11

173) The founder effect occurs when a new population is started by a small number of
individuals who do not represent the allele frequencies of the larger source population. As a
result, the new population may have different allele frequencies, and sometimes this can lead
to the formation of a new species.

174) Statement I: Correct. The joining of South America to North America due to continental
drift led to the South American fauna being overridden by the more competitive North
American fauna.
Statement II: Correct. The pouched mammals of Australia survived and thrived due to the lack
of competition from other mammals, which was a result of Australia's isolation after
 continental drift.

175)

Neanderthal man (Homo sapiens neanderthalensis) They had a brain size of 1400 cc (similar
as modern man).

176) To solve this. let's use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. which states:
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Here:
p is the frequency of the dominant allele,
q is the frequency of the recessive allele (q = 0.20),
The proportion of individuals showing the dominant trait includes both dominant homozygous
(p2) and heterozygous (2pq) individuals.
Step 1: Calculate p
Since p + q = 1:
p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.20 = 0.80
Step 2: Calculate the proportion of individuals showing the dominant trait
The proportion showing the dominant trait is:
p2 + 2pq = (0.80)2 + 2(0.80)(0.20)
p2 + 2pq = 0.64 + 0.32 = 0.96
Step 3: Convert to percentage
0.96 × 100 = 96%
Correct Answer. 4. 96%

177) The correct answer is 4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Statement I: T-rex was the biggest dinosaur.

A. This statement is correct. While T-Rex was a massive predator, it was the biggest dinosaur.

Statement II: T-rex had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth.

A. This statement is correct. T-Rex is famous for its massive, powerful jaws and teeth, which were
designed for crushing bones and tearing flesh.

178) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 135

179) NCERT XII, Pg. # (E)-134, Para-4, (H)-144

180) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII, Page No. -130