06-08-2025

2302CMD303021250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) A wire carrying current I is bent in the shape ABCDEFA as shown, where rectangle ABCDA and
ADEFA are perpendicular to each other. If the sides of the rectangles are of lengths a and b, then
the magnitude and direction of magnetic moment of the loop ABCDEFA is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) An iron rod of volume 10–3 m3 and relative permeability 1000 is placed as core in a solenoid with
10 turns/cm. If a current of 0.5 A is passed through the solenoid, then the magnetic moment of the
rod will be :

(1) 0.5 × 102 Am2

(2) 50 × 102 Am2
(3) 500 × 102 Am2
(4) 5 × 102 Am2

3) A long conducting wire carrying a current I is bent into the shape as shown. The net magnetic

field at the centre 'O' of the circular arc of radius 'R' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A symmetric star shaped conducting wire loop is carrying a steady state current I as shown in the
figure. The distance between the diametrically opposite vertices of the star is 4a. The magnitude of
the magnetic field at the center of the loop is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A particle having charge of 10–9 nC is rotating in a circle of radius 1Å with a speed of 105 m/s.

What will be the magnitude of magnetic field at centre ?

(1) 1 T
(2) 0.1 T
(3) 10 T
(4) such situation is not possible

6) A particle of charge q and mass m is projected with a velocity v0 towards a circular region having
uniform magnetic field B having radius R and center is at O. If line OP makes an angle θ with the
direction of v0. then the value of v0 so that particle passes through O is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A constant direct current of uniform density is flowing in an infinitely long cylindrical conductor.
The conductor contains an infinitely long cylindrical cavity whose axis is parallel to that of the
conductor and is at a distance from it. What will be the magnetic induction at a point inside the
cavity at a distance from the centre of cavity?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Consider an annular region in x-y plane, in free space containing a uniform magnetic field in
the z-direction, schematically represented by the shaded region in the figure. A particle having
charge Q and mass M starts off from point P(a,0,0) in the +x-direction with constant speed v. If the
radii of inner and outer circles are a and b, respectively, the minimum magnetic field required so

that the particle returns to the inner circle is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A uniform magnetic field exists in region of space. A semicircular wire of

radius 1 m carrying current 1 A having its centre at (2, 2, 0) is placed in x-y plane as shown in fig.

The force on semicircular wire will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) A square loop of side 2a and carrying current I is kept in xz plane with its centre at origin. A long
wire carrying the same current I is placed parallel to z-axis and passing through point (0, b, 0), (b
>> a). The magnitude of torque on the loop about z-ax is will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A particle of specific charge (charge/mass) starts moving from the origin under the action of

an electric field and magnetic . Its velocity at . The value of x

is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Two infinitely long straight parallel wires are 5m apart, perpendicular to the plane of paper. One
of the wire, as it passes perpendicular to the plane of paper, intersects it at A and carries current 'i'
in the downward direction. The other wire intersects the plane of paper at B and carries current 'i' in
the outward direction. O is a point in the plane of paper as shown in figure. With x and y axes as
shown, magnetic induction at O in the component form can be expressed as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A charge (q, m) is thrown perpendicularly with speed v from a point at a distance r from an
infinite long current (I) carrying wire. If its maximum distance from wire is R then :

(1) R will be infinite

(2)
R will be

(3)
R will be
(4)
R will be

14) A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric
field and with a velocity . The speed of the particle will become 2v0 after a
time

(1)
t=

(2)
t=

(3)
t=

(4)
t=

15) A charge q is uniformly distributed on a hollow sphere of radius R. It is rotated with an angular
speed (ω) about an axis passing through the centre of mass of the hollow sphere. The magnetic
moment of the hollow sphere is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) qR2ω

16) Adjoining figure shows a rectangular loop of conductor carrying a current i. The length and
breadth of the loop are respectively a and b. The magnietic field at the centre of loop is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)
A wire carrying a current of 4A is bent in the form of a parabola x2 + y = 16 as shown in figure,
where x and y are in meter. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field tesla. The force
acting on the wire is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Line BA and BC are intersecting at B making angle at B. Point A and C are at large distance
from point B. An infinite wire carrying current ‘i’ is kept perpendicular to plane containing line BA
and BC and intersect the plane at point ‘P’. Current in the wire is into the plane of paper as shown in

figure. Then on line ABC will be equal to.

(1)

(2)

(3)

Information insufficient to calculate

(4)

19) Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current I, are held by the insulating threads of
length L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle 'θ' with the
vertical. If wires have mass λ per unit length then the value of I is :- (g = gravitational acceleration)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The figure shows a region of length 'ℓ' with a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in it and a proton
entering the region with velocity 4 × 105 ms–1 making an angle 60° with the field. If the proton
completes 10 revolution by the time it cross the region shown, 'l' is close to (mass of proton = 1.67 ×

10–27 kg, charge of the proton = 1.6 × 10–19 C)

(1) 0.11 m
(2) 0.22 m
(3) 0.44 m
(4) 0.88 m

21) A large metal sheet carries an electric current along its surface. If the current per unit length is
λ, then the magnetic field near the metal sheet is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) µ0λ

(4)

22) A semicircular wire of radius R, carrying current I, is placed in a magnetic field as shown in fig.
On left side of X´X, magnetic field strength is B0, and on right of X´X, magnetic field strength is 2 B0.
Both fields are directed inside the page. Then magnetic force experienced by the wire would be :-

(1) 3 IB0 R
(2) 2 IB0R
(3)
(4)

23) A thin circular disc of radius R is uniformly charged with density σ > 0 per unit area. The disc
rotates about its axis with a uniform angular speed ω. The magnetic moment of the disc is

(1) 2πR4σω
(2) πR4σω

(3)

(4)

24) A current I flows in an infinity long wire with cross-section in the form of a semicircular ring of
radius R. The magnitude of the magnetic induction along its axis is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A particle of charge per unit mass α is released from origin with velocity in a magnetic

field . The x-coordinates of the particle at time t = would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None
26) Equal current i flows in two segments of a circular loop in the directions shown in fig. Radius of

the loop is a. Magnetic field at the centre of the loop is :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

An infinitely long wire carrying current i is along Y-axis such that its one end is at point (0, b) while
the wire extends up to ∞. The magnitude of magnetic field strength at point P(a, 0) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z direction. The magnetic
vector field at a point having coordinates (x,y) in the z = 0 plane is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Two wires AO and OC carry equal currents i as shown in figure. One end of both the wire
extends to infinity. Angle AOC is α. The magnitude of magnetic field at a point P on the bisector of

these two wires at a distance r from point O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b
respectively. When a current I passes through the coil, the magnetic field at the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Consider a set of six infinite long straight parallel wires arranged perpendicular to the plane of
paper is a hexagon as shown. The length of the each side of the hexagon is 3 cm. What is the
magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at point :-

(1) 20 μT
(2)
μT

(3)
μT
(4) 80 μT

32) A thin insulated wire forms a plane spiral of N tight turns carrying a current i. The radii of inside

and outisde turns are equal to a and b. Find magnetic moment of the spiral :-

(1)
(b2+2ab+a2)

(2)
(a2+ab+b2)

(3)
(b2+ab+ba2)

(4)
(a2+ab+b2)

33) Figure shows a square current carrying loop ABCD of side 10 cm and current i = 10 A. The

magnetic moment of the loop is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A long hollow cylindrical wire carries a current Ι, having inner and outer radii 'R' and 2R
respectively. Magnetic field at a point which 3R/2 distance away from its axis is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Assertion (A): The surface integral of magnetic field over any closed surface is always zero.
Reason (R): Magnetic field, always exist in 'closed loops'.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

36) Assertion : Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic material is small and positive.

Reason : Cause of magnetisation for diamagnetism is orbital motion of electron.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

37) Assertion : Magnetic field at a point because of a straight current carrying wire decreases with
its distance from wire.
Reason : Magnetic field is produced by moving charge.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

38) Calculate magnetic moment of shown system.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) Infinite number of straight wires each carrying current I are equally placed as shown in the
figure. Adjacent wires have current in opposite direction. Net magnetic field at point P is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

40) The work done in rotating a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the external
magnetic field direction is 'n' times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°,
Where 'n' gives by :-

(1) 1/2
(2) 2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1

41) The cause of paramagnetism is :-

(1) Unpaired electrons

(2) Electron excess and spin motion of electrons
(3) Paired electrons and orbital motion of electrons
(4) Electrons and orbital motion of electrons

42) An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with inner radius R/2 and outer radius R carries a

uniform current density along its length. The magnitude of the magnetic field, as a function of the
radial distance r from the axis is best represented by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A charged particle of specific charge (charge/mass) is released from origin at time t = 0 with a

velocity given as The magnetic field in region is uniform with magnetic induction

Coordinates of the particle at time

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a
uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is , the force on the
arm AC is:
(1)

—
(2)

(3)
(4)

45) A particle having mass m, charge q enters a cylinder region having uniform magnetic field B in
the inward direction as shown. If the particle is deviated by 60° as it emerges out of the field then

what is the time spent by it in the field.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) It depends on the speed of particle.

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Colour of Nd+3 is due to f-f transition

(2) The colour of Nd+3 will be similar to Er+3
(3) Yb+2, Ce+4 and Lu+3 are diamagnetic
(4) Tb+4 is stable due to full-filled f-orbitals

2) Yellow solution of chromate ions is produced when:-

(1) CrO2Cl2 is hydrolysed

2–
(2) Cr2O7 solution is treated with alkali
(3) alkaline solution of Cr2(SO4)3 is treated with H2O2
(4) All of the above

3)

FeCr2O4+Na2CO3+O2 [X] [Y] [Z]

Which of the following statement is true for the compounds [X],[Y] and [Z] ?
(1) In all three compound, the chromium is in +6 oxidation state.
[Z] is a deep blue-violet coloured compound which decomposes rapidly in aqueous solution into
(2)
Cr3+ and dioxygen
Saturated solution of [Y] gives bright orange compound, chromic anhydride, with concentrated
(3)
H2SO4
(4) All of the above

4) Ln (Lanthanide) (X)

Ln (Lanthanide) (Y)

Ln (Lanthanide) (Z)
X, Y and Z are respectively :

(1) LnX3, Ln2O3, Ln3N

(2) LnX3, Ln2O3, LnN
(3) LnX2, LnO, LnN
(4) LnX2, Ln2O3, Ln3N

5) Correct order of stability :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which is correct :-

Process Result

(1) (Ti(H2O)6)Cl3 is heated Colour is intensified

(2) CuSO4 reacts with KCN K2[Cu(CN)4] is formed

(3) KMnO4 reacts with HF MnF6 is formed

KMnO4 (purple) and MnO2 (brown) is

(4) K2MnO4 reacts with CO2
formed
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which lanthanoid is hard like steel ?

(1) Eu
(2) Ce
(3) Yb
(4) Sm

8) Potassium chromate (K2CrO4) is used to identify :-

(1) Pb+2
(2) Ca+2
(3) Al+3
(4) All

9)

X and Y respectively are :-

(1) and

(2) and

(3) and
(4) and

10) Which of the following do not decolourise acidified KMnO4 ?

(1) NaF
(2) SnCl2
(3) Na2S
(4) NaBr

11) The stability of Cu2+ is more than Cu+ salts in aqueous solution due to -

(1) enthalpy of atomization.

(2) hydration energy.
(3) second ionisation enthalpy.
(4) first ionisation enthalpy.

12) Which compound does exist

(1) MnO3F
(2) K2[CuI4]
(3) MnF7
(4) CrF7

13) Which of the following order of given property is notcorrect :-

(1) V > Ti > Ni > Co : Enthalpy of atomisation

(2)
Ti > V > Mn > Cr : Reducing character
(3) Sc < Ti < V < Zn < Cr : Density
(4) Cr+3 > Ti+3 > V+3 > Fe+3 > Mn+3 : Oxidising character

14)

Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic numbers.

Which one of them is expected to have the highest oxidising character ( )?

(1) Cr(Z = 24)

(2) Mn(Z = 25)
(3) Fe (Z = 26)
(4) Co(Z = 27)

15) Find the correct option by identify the below equation.

(1) X may be MnO2

(2) Y can be K2MnO4
(3) Z can be KMnO4
(4) All of these

16) Why is the manganate ion paramagnetic, while the permanganate ion is
diamagnetic?

(1) has no unpaired electrons, but has one.

(2) has one unpaired electron, while has none
(3) Both ions are diamagnetic due to strong bonding.
(4) is diamagnetic and is ferromagnetic

17) Assertion(A): Metals of the second and third transition series show more frequently metal-metal
bonding.
Reason(R): These metals have greater enthalpies of atomisation than those of the first series.
(1) Assertion and Reason is true and reason correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason is true and reason is not correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion and Reason is both are false
(4) Assertion correct and Reason is false

18) Correct order of M+2 ionic radius is

(1) Mn+2 > Fe+2 > co+2 > Ni+2

(2) Mn+2 = cr+2
(3) Mn+2 > cr+2
(4) Both 1 & 2

19) NaCl + K2Cr2O7(s) + H2SO4 —→ ‘X’

conc. orange-red vapour
Orange red vapour of ‘X’ is :

(1) Cl2
(2) CrCl3
(3) CrO2Cl2
(4) Cr2(SO4)3

20) Both Lanthanoids & Actanoids reacts with boiling water but on reaction give uncommon product,
the uncommon product may be :-

(1) Ln(OH)3 & AcH3

(2) LnH3 & Ac(OH)3
(3) Ln2O3 & Ac2O3
(4) can't predicated

21) HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I– ions the pair of species formed is :

–
(1) HgI2, I
(2)
–
(3) Hg2I2, I
(4)
0
22) Total number of positive values of E for the given changes are
(1) Cr3+/Cr2+ (2) Mn3+/Mn2+
(3) Fe3+/Fe2+ (4) Co3+/Co2+
(5) Zn2+/Zn (6) Cu2+/Cu
(7) Ti2+/Ti
Correct code is :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 7

23) Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated
against it ?

(1) Co+3 < Fe+3 < Cr+3 < Sc+3 : Stability in equeous solution
(2) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation states
(3) V2+ < Cr+2 < Mn+2 < Fe+2 : paramagnetic behaviour
(4) Ni+2 < Co+2 < Fe+2 < Mn+2 : ionic size

24) Both N(SiH3)3 and NH(SiH3)2 compounds have trigonal planar skeleton. Incorrect statement
about both compounds is :-

(1) Si –N – Si bond angle in NH(SiH3)2 > N(SiH3)3

(2) N – Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 > N(SiH3)3
(3) N – Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 < N(SiH3)3
(4) Back bonding strength in NH(SiH3)2 > N(SiH3)3

25) In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken as a base compound. This is
because

(1) both O2 and Xe have same size.

(2) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.
(3) both O2 and Xc have almost same ionisation enthalpy.
(4) both Xe and O2 are gases

26) The carbide which does/do give propyne on hydrolysis is

(1) Al4C3
(2) CaC2
(3) Fe3C
(4) Mg2C3

27) Match the oxides (Column-I) with their property (Column-II)

Column-I Column-II
(A) Pb3O4 1. Neutral Oxide
 reacts with O3 and responsible for
(B) N2 O 2.
deplition of ozone layer

(C) Mn2O7 3. Acidic oxide

(D) Bi2O3 4. Good dehydrating Agent
(E) P4O10 5. Basic Oxide
(F) NO 6. Mixed Oxide
(1) (A) → 6; (B) → 1; (C) → 3; (D) → 5; (E) → 3, 4; (F) → 2, 1
(2) (A) → 2; (B) → 1; (C) → 6; (D) → 5; (E) → 3, 4; (F) → 2, 1
(3) (A) → 5; (B) → 1; (C) → 6; (D) → 2; (E) → 3, 4; (F) → 2, 1
(4) (A) → 6; (B) → 1; (C) → 3; (D) → 5; (E) → 2,1 ; (F) → 3, 4

28) There is no S–S bond in-

2-
(1) S2O4
2-
(2) S2O5
2-
(3) S2O3
2-
(4) S2O7

29) Assertion (A) : The bromine oxides (Br2O, BrO2, BrO3) are very powerful oxidising agents.
Reason (R) : A combination of kinetic and thermodynamic factors lead to generally decreasing
order of stability of oxides formed by halogen, I > Cl > Br.

(1) (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is NOT correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

30) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) White phosphorous is soluble in CS2 but red phosphorous is insoluble in CS2
(2) Both red and white phosphorous are soluble in water
(3) Red phosphrous glows in the dark
(4) Red phosphorous exists in descrete P4 unit

31) Correct acidic order ?

(1) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4

(2) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(3) H2SO3 > H2SO4
(4) SO2 > SO3

32)
Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Bond length = x > y

(2) Geometry = Planar
(3) Bond angle = α < β
(4) 3C – 4e– Bond

33)

Correct match is :

(1) Melting point B > Al

(2) Lewis acidic nature BCl3 > BBr3
(3) Atomic radii In >Tl
(4) Density Al > Ga

34) In between P4O6 and P4O10

Which of the following option is correct ?
[State (T) for true of (F) for false]

P Both having cyclic structure

Q Both having same number of pπ-dπ bonds.

R Both having same P—O—P bond length.

S Both having same hybridisation of P atoms.

(1) T F F T
(2) T T T T
(3) T F F F
(4) F T T T

35) Which of the following is the wrong statement for O3?

(1) Ozone is diamagnetic gas

(2) O3 is a weak oxidising agent than O2
(3) O3 molecule is bent
(4) Ozone is violet-black in solid state

36) Which of the following would have premanent dipole moment ?

(1) SiF4
(2) SF4
(3) XeF4
(4) BF3

37) Which of the following compounds is used as a reducing agent ?

(1) SnO2
(2) SnS2
(3) SnCl4
(4) SnCl2

38) I– can't exist with :-

(a) Cu+ (b) Pb+2 (c) Tℓ+3 (d) Bi+5
(e) Cu+2 (f) Pb+4 (g) Tℓ+1
Correct option is :

(1) b, c, d, f
(2) c, d, e, f
(3) b, d, e, f
(4) a, c, d, e

39) Which of the following is correct match :

H3PO2
two P–OH
(1)
two P–H
one P=O
H4P2O6
four P–OH
(2)
two P=O
one P–P
H4P2O5
two P–OH
(3)
one P–H
two P=O
H4P2O7
two P–OH
(4)
two P=O
one P–O–P

40) Ammonia can be dried by :

(1) conc. H2SO4

(2) P4O10
(3) CaO
(4) anhydrous CaCl2

41) In B3N3H6 compound, the correct option is (State ‘T’ for True and ‘F’ for False):
(P) ‘3’ pπ-pπ bond is present.
(Q) It can show back bonding.
(R) It is non-polar compound with non-polar bonds.
(S) More e— density is present at Boron atom.

(1) TTFF
(2) TTTT
(3) TTTF
(4) FTTF

42) Which of the following is correct about B2H6 :-

(1) Each ‘B’ atom is sp2 hybridised.

(2) It consists of two-”3 centre 2 electron bonds”.
(3) The two bridging H-atoms are in the plane of the molecule.
(4) All the above are correct.

43) The correct statement regarding molecular ion is :

(1) On decreasing value of 'n', 'Cl––O' bond order increases

(2) On increasing value of 'n', 'Cl––O' bond length increases
(3) On increasing value of n, oxidation number of central atom increases
(4) On increasing value of n, hybrid orbitals on central atom increase

44) ClF5 on hydrolysis give

(1) HOCl + HF
(2) HClO2 + HF
(3) HClO3 + HF
(4) HClO4 + HF

45) Which of the following species is more reactive?

(1) F2
(2) IBr
(3) ICl
(4) ClF

BOTANY

1) Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis-I
:-

(1) Synapsis of homolgous chromosomes

(2) Crossing over at pachytene
(3) Alignment of tetrad at the equator
(4) Seperation of homologs at anaphase-I

2) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
 Column-I Column-II

Multiple
(A) (i) Tt × tt
allelism

(B) Back cross (ii) Tt × TT

Human blood
(C) Test cross (iii)
groups

Non-parental gene
(D) Crossing over (iv)
combination

Non-sister
(E) Recombination (v)
chromatids
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E(iv)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)

3) Study the pedigree chart given below :-

What does it show ?

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

(2) Inheritance of a sex linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenyl ketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as it is not possible

4) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance :-

(1) X-linked recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

5) If two dihybrid plants (AaBb) are crossed, then find out the correct combinations of probabilities
of following offsprings :-
 A B C D

AaBb AABb AaBB aabb

(1) 8/16 2/16 2/16 1/16

(2) 4/16 2/16 2/16 2/16

(3) 1/4 1/8 1/8 1/8

(4) 1/4 1/8 1/8 1/16

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(AaBb × AaBb) (AaBbCc × AaBbCc)

Types of
1 (a) 9 (i) 8
Gametes

Types of
2 (b) 4 (ii) 8
Phenotype

Types of
3 (c) 4 (iii) 64
Genotype

Total possible
4 zygotic (d) 16 (iv) 27
combination
(1) 1 - c - ii, 2 - a - i, 3 - d - iv, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iii, 2 - d - ii, 3 - b - i, 4 - a - iv
(3) 1 - b - i, 2 - c - ii, 3 - a - iv, 4 - d - iii
(4) 1 - b - ii, 2 - c - i, 3 - d - iv, 4 - a - iii

7) A plant with genotype AaBbCc is self pollinated. The three genes are assorting independently,
what proportion of the progeny will show the genotype AaBbCc ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to
the offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a
single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-

(1) GTG, GAC, Val

(2) CAC, GTG, Val
(3) GTA, GAG, Val
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

9) The height of a plant is under control of polygenic inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb'
has 20 cm height and the height of plant having genotype AaBb is 50 cm. What will be the maximum
height of the plant?

(1) 45 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 15 cm

10) TtRr represents heterozygous tall, heterozygous pink. If this plant is self crossed then
I. 25% plant have red flower.
II. 25% plant have white flower.
III. 50% plant have pink flower.
IV. 75% plant are tall.
Choose the correct option.

(1) I and II
(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

11) What is not true for law of independent assortment?

(A) Applicable to all the dominant alleles only.
(B) Applicable to all genes on the same chromosome.
(C) Not applicable to genes present on the same chromosome.
(D) Applicable to all recessive alleles only.

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, D

12) Following are the statements regarding linkages of genes :-

(i) The strength of the linkage is determined by the distance between the 2 non allelic genes located
on same chromosome.
(ii) The strength of the linkage is inversely proportional to the distance between the two genes.
(iii) The two genes are said to be linked when they fail to show independent assortment
Out of these statements :-

(1) All are correct

(2) (i) & (ii) are correct
(3) (i) & (iii) are correct
(4) (ii) & (iii) are correct

13) Which of the following characters of Drosophila is not suitable for genetical studies ?
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny flies.
(d) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) Only d and e
(4) Only c and e

14)

A B

Occur in pairs Occur in pairs

Segregate at the time of Segregate at gamete

gamete formation such that formation and only one of
only one of each pair is each pair is transmitted to a
transmitted to a gamete gamete

Independent pairs segregate One pair segregates

independently of each other independently of another pair
Read the following statements :-
(a) All the statements of column A are true for chromosome
(b) All the statements of column B are always true for chromosome
(c) All these statements of column A are always true for gene
(d) All the statements of column B are always true for gene
How many statements are incorrect ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

15) A boy is colour blind. His sister is normal and non career.
(i) What are the chances that both his parents are normal ?
(ii) What are the chances of mother being career?
(iii) What are the chances of his younger brother being colour blind ?

(1) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-100%

(2) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-50%
(3) (i)-50%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-50%
(4) (i)-100%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-100%

16) A carrier female for colourblindness married to a haemophilic male. If they produce 8 children,
Then how many of them will be suffering from both haemophilia and colourblindness ?

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

17) A test cross of F1 flies +a/+b produced the following offspring

++/ab = 9 ab/ab = 9
+b/ab = 41 a+/ab = 41
What will be distance between linked gene :–

(1) 82 cM
(2) 18 cM (cis)
(3) 20 cM
(4) 18 cM (trans)

18) In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify
the type of given pedigree.

(1) X-linked dominant

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) Autosomal recessive

19) Genes A and b are present 24 cM far from each other on same chromosome, then a dihybrid
plant will produce :-

(1) 4 types of gamete is equal proportion.

(2) More Ab gametes as compare to AB gametes.
(3) More aB gametes as compare Ab gametes.
(4) Ab and ab gametes in equal proportion.

20) A colorblind girl is rare because she will be born only when :-

(1) Her mother and maternal grand father was colourblind

(2) Her father and maternal grand father was colourblind
(3) Her mother is colourblind but father is normal
(4) Both parents are normal but grand parents are colourblind

21) In a cross AaBb × Aabb, the genotype AABb : AaBB : aabb : aaBb will be obtained in ratio :-

(1) 1 : 0 : 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 1 : 0 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2

22) Identify the correct match from the column I,II and III :-

Column–I Column–II Column–III

(1) Monohybrid cross (a) Tt×tt (i) 9:3:3:1

(2) Dihybrid cross (b) Tt×TT (ii) 3:1

(3) Test cross (c) TT×tt (iii) 1:1

(4) Back cross (d) RRYY × rryy (iv) All tall

(1) l-a-ii, 2-d-i, 3-c-iv, 4-b-iii
(2) 1-b-iii, 2-a-i, 3-c-ii, 4-d-iv
(3) 1-c-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-b-iii, 4-a-i
(4) 1-c- ii, 2- d- i, 3-a-iii, 4-b-iv

23) Sickle cell anemia is an example of :-

(i) Mendelian disorder
(ii) Genetic disorder
(iii) Chromosomal disorder
(iv) Inborn error of metabolism
(v) Point mutation
(vi) Frame-Shift mutation
(vii) Sex-linked disease
(viii) Recessive disorder
(ix) Qualitative disorder
(x) Quantitative disorder
(xi) Autosomal disorder

(1) i, ii, iv, v, viii, x, xi

(2) i, v, viii, ix, xi
(3) i, ii, v, viii, ix, xi
(4) ii, iii, v, vii, ix

24) A yellow and round seeded pea plant is crossed with green and wrinkled seeded pea plant and
the F1 of this cross is backcrossed to the homozygous recessive parent. The progeny will appear in
the ratio of :-

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 4
(4) 12 : 3 : 1

25) Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Genotype of a plant is AaBb. First gene shows dominance while the second gene shows
incomplete dominance. This plant was self pollinated and 8000 progeny plant were produced. How
many of the plant will show dominant trait for first character and intermediate trait for second
character ?

(1) 3000
(2) 4000
(3) 1500
(4) 2000

27) Two sets of diagrams are given here :-

I II
Which of the following option is correct ?

I – Explains law of segregation

(1)
II – Explains law of dominance
(2) Both I and II explain law of segregation
I – Explains law of segreigation
(3)
II – Explains law of independent assortment
I – Explains law of segreigation
(4)
II – Explains nondisjunction

28) Which pedigree is not possible for myotonic dystrophy ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Read the following statements :-

(i) In Honey Bee, female workers are developed by the unfertilized eggs by parthenogenesis.
(ii) In XO types of sex determination, males have half number of total chromosome than the female.
(iii) In Human beings and Drosophila, females have a pair of X-chromosomes besides autosomes.
(iv) In haplodiploid type of sex determination system, the males do not have father and thus cannot
have sons.
Select the incorrect statements :-

(1) i, iii
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, ii
(4) iii, iv

30) What will be the genotypic ratio in the progeny of a cross between :- AaBb × AaBb

(1) (1 : 2 : 1)2
(2) (3 : 1)2
(3) (1 : 2 : 1)4
(4) (1 : 2 : 1)3

31) Human skin colour is the example of :-

I. Multiple gene inheritance
II. Three separate genes controlling this trait
III. Single gene controlling this trait
IV. Two gene controlling this trait
V. Environment plays a significant role in this trait
Choose the option which contains all correct statements.

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV
(3) III, IV and V
(4) I, II and V

32) Which of the four couples claiming the baby with O+ blood type are possibly the biological
parents of it?

(1) AB– and A+

(2) A+ and O–
(3) O+ and AB+
(4) B– and O–

33) Match the columns and choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

a. 1. Consanguineous mating

b. 2. Affected female

c. 3. Mating
 d. 4. Unaffected female

Parents with male child

e. 5.
unaffected

6. Sex unspecified
(1) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–5, e–4
(2) a–2, b–1, c–6, d–3, e–4
(3) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–5, e–2
(4) a–3, b–1, c–6, d–5, e–4

34)

How many of the given disorders can express equally in both males and females?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

35) The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is
20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear
chromosome ?

(1) d, b, a, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, c, b, d
(4) a, d, b, c

36) Identify the A, B & C in the following diagram w.r.t. segregation of chromosomes during germ
cells formation.

(1) A – G2 phase, B - Anaphase I, C - Anaphase II

(2) A – S phase, B - Metaphase I, C - Anaphase I
(3) A – G1 phase, B – G2 phase, C - Anaphase II
(4) A – G2 phase, B - Metaphase II, C - Anaphase II
37) Assertion : Male honey bees do not have father.
Reason : Male honey bees develop from an unfertilised egg by means of parthenogenesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Assertion : Morgan worked with Drosophila melanogaster.

Reason : Drosophila complete their life cycle in about 2 weeks.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Assertion : ZZ-ZW type of sex determination is found in most of the birds.
Reason : In birds male hetero gamety is present.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) Given pedigree chart shows inheritance of autosomal recessive trait (for eg - sickle cell anaemia)

then what will be genotype of parent ?

(1) Father - (Aa) Mother - (aa)

(2) Father - (aa) Mother - (aa)
(3) Father - (Aa) Mother - (Aa)
(4) Father - (AA) Mother - (AA)

41) Match the following columns.

Column - I Column - II

Autosomal linked
A. 1. Down's syndrome
recessive trait

Sex-linked recessive
B. 2. Phenylketonuria
disease

Metabolic error
C. linked to autosomal 3. Color blindness
recessive trait
 Additional 21st
D. 4. Sickle-cell anaemia
chromosome
Codes:
A B C D

(1) 4 1 2 3

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB & IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how
many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(1) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

(2) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

43) Polyploidy often seen in plants due to

(1) Failure of cytokinesis after telophase

(2) Failure of Karyokinesis
(3) Failure of segregation
(4) Change in single base pair in DNA

44) Choose the incorrect statement from the following w.r.t Morgan's investigations on fruitfly.

Morgan observed that the two genes segregated independently of each other in the cross
(1)
between yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males
The F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio in
(2)
Morgan’s investigations on fruit fly.
Morgan’s dihybrid crosses on Drosophila were similar to the
(3)
dihybrid crosses carried out by Mendel in peas.
Experiments on Drosophila by Thomas Hunt Morgan and his
(4)
colleagues, led to discovering the basis for the variation that sexual reproduction produced.

45) Which of the following is true for the location of Few genes of drosophila studied by T.H.
Morgan.

(1) y . w and m Gene are located on y chromosome

(2) y+ . w+ and m+ Gene are located on y chromosome
(3) y. y+, w . w+, m. m+ Genes are located on x-chromosome
(4) y . w and m Genes are an autosomal chromosomes

ZOOLOGY

1) Following are the two statements regarding fossils :

(a) Fossils are the impression or remains of the hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.
(b) Fossils are found only in rocks.
Which of the following option is correct regarding the above two statements ?

(1) Statement (a) is incorrect and statement (b) is correct

(2) Statement (b) is incorrect and statement (a) is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

2) In the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it observed that it is passed through a two
chambered fish like heart stage, 3 chambered frog like heart stage & finally to four chambered heart
stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?

(1) Hardy - Weinberg law

(2) Lamarck's principle
(3) Biogenetic law
(4) Mendelian principle

3) Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human do not show-

a. Similarities in the pattern of bones
b. Adaptive radiation
c. Analogous organs
d. Convergent evolution
e. Divergent evolution
f. Different structures evolving for same functions

(1) a, b and c
(2) c, d and f
(3) a and d
(4) a, d and c

4) Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :-

(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(b)The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) (a) is correct but (b) is false.

(2) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false.
5) Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:

(1) adaptive radiation

(2) Transduction
(3) Pre-existing variation in the population
(4) Divergent evolution

6) Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Sweet potato and potato is an example of homology.

(2) Analogy indicates common ancestry.
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs.
(4) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.

7) Among the following sets of examples for convergent evolution choose the correct option :-
(Replica of Q.155)

(1) Heart of vertebrates

(2) Brain of vertebrates
(3) Forelimbs of mammals
(4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins

8) Select the correct statement regarding Big-Bang theory of origin of universe.

(1) The universe is very old-almost 20 million years old

(2) Huge clusters of lunar systems comprise the universe
(3) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gases and dust
(4) Considering the size of earth, universe is indeed a speck

9) Select the correct order of geological time scale of earth.

(1) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic

(2) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Coenozoic
(3) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
(4) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic

10) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Intensive breeding programmes by humans have created breeds that differ from each
other but still belong to the same species.
Statement II: The biochemical and structural similarities among diverse organisms do not suggest a
shared ancestry. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

11) According to the text, which compounds were observed to form in experiments similar to the
ones that observed the formation of amino acids?

(1) Proteins and nucleic acids

(2) Sugars, nitrogen bases, pigments, and fats
(3) Enzymes and hormones
(4) Vitamins and minerals

12) Which fish, thought to be extinct, was caught in 1938 in South Africa?

(1) Goldfish
(2) Coelacanth
(3) Catfish
(4) Salmon

13) Dinosaurs originated

(1) Long before mammals

(2) Sometime after mammals
(3) In the same period along with mammals
(4) Before mammals and gave rise to them

14) The Bobcat and Tasmanian tiger cat found in Australia continent, exhibit the example of :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Both (1) & (3)

15) Assertion: When we see stars we apparently are peeping into the past.
Reason: Light emitted from stars started its journey millions of years back and reaching our eyes
now.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

16) Assertion : Excess use of herbicide pesticide resulted in selection of resistant verities.
Reason : Resistant appeared due to anthropogenic action.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Statement-I : Embryological support of evolution was proposed by Ernst Heckel.

Statement-II : Von Baer noted that embryos always passes through the adult stages of other
animals.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

18) Statement-I:- Convergent evolution can result in the development of similar traits in distantly
related species.
Statement-II:- convergent evolution occurs when different species develop similar traits in
response to similar environmental pressures.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

19) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A) :- Australian marsupials and placental mammals exhibit convergent evolution.
Reason (R) :- Placental mammals in Australia also exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into
varieties of such placental mammals each of which appears to be 'similar' to a corresponding
marsupials (eg. placental wolf and tasmanian wolf marsupial)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is not the correction explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

20) Primitive atmosphere was made up of the mixture of

(1) Oxygen, ammonia, methane, water

(2) Hydrogen, ammonia, methane, oxygen
(3) Hydrogen, steam, methane, ammonia
(4) Oxygen, methane, water, nickle

21) Wings of locust, pigeon and bat are example of

(1) Vestigial organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Homologous organ
(4) Exoskeleton
22) Theory of spontaneous generation stated that

(1) Life arose from living forms only

(2) Life can arise from both living and non-living
(3) Life arose from decaying and rotting material like straw, mud etc
(4) Life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from non-living

23) According to recapitulation theory which statement is correct :-

(1) Development of individual metazoan shown embryonic characters of ancestors

(2) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(3) Germplasm is immortal
(4) Every organism is produced by its parents

24) Which of the following structure is homologous to wings of Bat.

(1) Dorsal fin of shark

(2) Wings of Insect
(3) Hind limb of cat
(4) Flippers of dolphin

25) S. L. Miller an American scientist created electric discharge in a closed flask containing ...(A)...
at ...(B)... ?

(1) A-CH4, CO2 and H2O vapour B-800°C

(2) A-CH4, H2, NH3 & H2O vapour B-800°C
(3) A-CH4, H2, NH3 & H2O vapour B-600°C
(4) A-CH4, O2, NH3 & H2O vapour B-800°C

26) A zoology student carefully observing mouth parts of honey bee, butterfly, mosquito and
cockroach and he saw that all these insect have similar basic pattern of mouth parts. What can be
concluded from this :-

(1) These are homologous organ

(2) They show common ancestory
(3) They show divergent evolution
(4) All of these

27) Match the following :-

(1) A-iii, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-iv

(2) A-iii, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-ii, E-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-vi, D-iv, E-v

28) Sugar glider does not show adaptive radiation with :-

(1) Kangaroo
(2) Tiger cat
(3) Flying squirrel
(4) (1) and (2) both

29) According to Oparin's theory of origin of life :-

(1) Abiogenesis – Biogenesis – Abiogenesis forever

(2) Abiogenesis – Biogenesis – Biogenesis forever
(3) Biogenesis – Abiogenesis – Biogenesis forever
(4) Biogenesis – Abiogenesis – Abiogenesis forever

30) Assertion : Pasteur demonstrates that life comes from pre existing life.
Reason : Pasteur carefully performed swan neck experiment.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

31) Which of the following amino acids were formed in Stanley-Miller's experiment ?

(1) Alanine, Arginine, Glutamic acid

(2) Arginine, Aspartic acid, Glutamine
(3) Aspartic acid, Alanine, Glycine
(4) Aspartic acid, Glutamic acid, Arginine

32) Formation of protobiont in medium is a way of:-

(1) getting isolation in medium

(2) aquiring energy from sun
(3) forming organic compound
(4) All of the above

33) Which compounds were formed in the direction of the origin of life :

(1) Urea, nucleic-acid

(2) Urea, amino-acid
(3) Proteins, nucleic-acid
(4) Protein, amino-acid

34) Identify the correct match from column I and column II:

(1) a → i;b → ii;c → iii;d → iv

(2) a → ii;b → iii;c → iv;d → i
(3) a → iii;b → i;c → iv;d → ii
(4) a → iv;b → ii;c → iii;d → i

35) Which is not a vestigial organ in man-

(1) Third molar

(2) Nails
(3) Segmental muscles of abdoman
(4) Coccyx

36) Identify the correct sequence of changes in modes of nutrition in organism after origin of life on
earth:
(a) Non oxygenic photosynthesis
(b) Chemoheterotrophs
(c) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(d) Chemoautorophs

(1) (b), (a), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (b), (c), (a)
(3) (d), (c), (a), (b)
(4) (b), (d), (a), (c)

37) Assertion: The aquatic mammals like Dolphins, whales etc, do not contain gill slits.
Reason: their adaptation to aquatic life is secondary .

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

38) Which of the following proposes that units of life called ‘spores’ were transferred to different
planets including earth.

(1) Theory spontaneous generation

(2) Theory of Panspermia
(3) Theory of chemical evolution
(4) Big Bang theory

39) Choose the correct statement for the given experimental setup of Pasteur:

(1) This experiment was done to disprove the biogenesis

(2) Bacteria did not appear in the solution of flask B
(3) Bacteria appeared in the solutions of both the flask
(4) Bacteria appeared in the neck of flask A

40) Oparin of Russia proposed that the first form of life could have come from :

(1) Pre-existing live

(2) Other planet
(3) Decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
(4) Pre-existing non-living organic molecules, proceeded by chemical evolution

41) Which of the following conditions are needed for origin of life?

(1) Supply of replicators i.e. self producing molecules

(2) Copying of these replicators must have been subjected to error via mutation
(3) Perpetual supply of energy
(4) All of the above

42) Analysis of meteorite contents tells us that:

(1) Life came on earth due to meteorite hits

(2) Similar processes are occurring elsewhere in space that had occurred on earth
(3) All stars originated at same time
(4) Water is essential for origin of life

43) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a – Tendril, b – Thorn,
(1)
c – Cucurbita, d – Bougainvillea
a – Thorn, b – Tendril,
(2)
c – Bougainvillea, d –Cucurbita
a – Thorn, b – Tendril,
(3)
c – Cucurbita, d –Bougainvillea
a – Tendril, b – Thorn,
(4)
c – Bougainvillea, d –Cucurbita

44) Assertion :The ideas of conventional religious literature were strongly challenged during the
nineteenth century.
Reason : Charles Darwin concluded that existing living forms share similarities to varying degrees
not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago. Many such life
forms do not exist any more.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Assertion: We have no idea about how the first self-replicating metabolic capsule of life arose.
Reason: All life forms were in water environment only.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 4 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 4 2 2 4 4 1 4 1 2 1 4 4 4 2 1 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 3 4 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 4 1 2 1 4 4 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 2 2 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 1 1 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 4 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

M = NIA
N=1
For ABCD

For DEFA

= ab I

= ab I

2)

M = μrNiA
Here
μr = Relative permeability
N = No. of turns
i = Current
A = Area of cross section
M = μrNiA = μrnliA
M = μrniV = 1000(1000) 0.5 (10–3)
= 500 = 5 × 102 Am2

3) The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' of the circular arc is

4)
5) 10–9 nC = 10–18 C
Such charge is not possible

6)
2r sinθ = R

7)

8)

...(1)
From triangle OAC
(b – r)2 = a2 + r2
b2 + r2 – 2br = a2 + r2

...(2)
From (1) & (2)

9)

10)

If b >> a then
But among the given options (1) is most appropriate

11)
12)
M.F. in –ve x direction

13)
By impulse momentum theoram
fy = qvxB

......(i)

⇒ dx = vxdt

and
 [As magnetic field do no work vf = v]

rf =

14) is parallel to is perpendicular to both. Therefore path of the particle is a helix with

increasing pitch. Speed of particle at any time t is ....(i)

Here,
v = 2v0
putting this in equation (i)

and

15)

16) B1 = 2 sinθ

B1 =

B2 = =
Bnet = 2B1 + 2B2

= =
17)

18)

19)
consider balance of unit length
T cos θ = λg ......(i)
T sin θ = F ......(ii)

, = L sin θ

20)

total time t = 10 T
Kinematics

= 0.439

21)

Using Ampere's law,

Along the loop shown, we have
∴ B = μ0 λ/2

22)
The force on the semicircular wire is same as the force on straight wires PQ and QR. These are

and as shown in the figure.

The resultant force,

23)
24)

25)

⇒ θ = 60°

sin 60° =

26) Magnetic field at O due to arcs ACB and ADC are respectively
 and
The net magnetic field is

27) As shown in the figure take an element dl at C of wire, where OC = l.

Let PC = r and ∠OPC = ϕ
According to Biot-Savart's Law, the magnitude of magnetic field at P due to current element
at C is

Here, θ = 90° + ϕ, r = a sec ϕ

and l = a tanϕ
∴ dl = a sec2ϕdϕ
(after differentiating)

∴ dB =
The magnetic field induction at point P is

28) Magnetic field at P is , perpendicular to OP in the direction shown in figure.

So,

Here
 (as r2 = x2 + y2)

29)

x = r sin

30)

Number of turns per unit width = consider an elemental ring of radius x and
with thickness dx number of turns in the

ring = magnetic field at the centre due to the ring element.

∴ Field at the centre

31) Magnetic field at P will be zero due to b and e. field at P due to c and f.
32)
Magenetic moment of ring of radius r and number of turns dN
dM = (dN) Ipr2 ... (1)
No. of turns in thickness (b–a) are = N

∴ No. of turns in unit thickness are =

∴ No. of turns in dr thickness

(dN) = dN = .... (2)

From equation (1) & (2)

dM =

⇒ ⇒

M=

M=

33)

=μi
0
34)

B.2π B.3πR = ; B=

35)

Conceptual.

36)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to evaluate two statements: one about the
magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic materials and the other about the cause of
magnetization in these materials. It wants to know whether both statements are correct and if
the reason properly explains the assertion.

Underlying Concept: Diamagnetism is a form of magnetism that occurs in materials where

all electrons are paired. When an external magnetic field is applied, it induces a magnetic
moment opposite to the applied field, resulting in negative magnetic susceptibility. This
magnetization arises due to the change in the orbital motion of electrons in response to the
magnetic field.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: Diamagnetic susceptibility is always negative and very small.
Think about electron pairing and orbital motion when relating magnetic properties to physical
causes.

Common Mistakes: Confusing diamagnetic susceptibility as positive instead of negative;

assuming paramagnetic or ferromagnetic behavior for diamagnetic materials;
misunderstanding the cause of magnetization as spin magnetic moment instead of orbital
effects in diamagnetism.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing options that state susceptibility for
diamagnetic materials is positive is incorrect because the induced magnetic moment opposes
the magnetic field, leading to a negative susceptibility. Also, failing to correctly associate the
cause of magnetization with orbital electron motion leads to misunderstanding the nature of
diamagnetism.

37)

Explaining the question : In this question will have to find Assertion and reason are correct
or not
Concept : Based on Biot-Savart law and magnetic field due to moving charges.

Solution : Magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying wire:

B=

Explanation :

• The magnetic field decreases with distance r from the wire, confirming the assertion is
correct.

• The reason is also correct, as moving charges (current) produce a magnetic field.

• However, the reason does not directly explain why the magnetic field decreases with
distance.

Final Answer : (2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
39)

40) W1 = MB (cos0° – cos90°) = MB

W2 = MB (cos0° – cos60°) =
∴ W1 = nW2

MB = n ⇒n=2

41)

Electron excess and spin motion of electrons

42) Case 1.

Case 2.

Case 3.

So, option (D)

43) Particle rotates in a circle in y-z plane with radius of circle given as

Its time period of motion is given as

After time which is half the time period, particle would have completed half circle in

y-z plane, and will be at as shown in figure.

 Particle continuous to move with constant velocity in x-direction and will be at a location given
as

44)

Answer

45) For complex circular motion

Since it is deflection by 60°

CHEMISTRY

46)

Tb+4 is stable due to full-filled f-orbitals

47)

All of the above

48)

All of the above

49)

LnX3, Ln2O3, LnN

50)

51)

(1) When [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is heated, complex

becomes colourless due to removal of ligand.

and Cu2(CN)2 + 6KCN → 2K3[Cu(CN)4] is formed.

(3) KMnO4 + HF → KF + MnF2 + H2O + F2
(4) K2MnO4 + CO2 → KMnO4 + MnO2 + K2CO3

52) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 236

53)

Potassium chromate (K2CrO4) is used to identify is Pb+2

54) and

55)

Which of the following do not decolourise acidified KMnO4 is NaF

56) Cu(s) → Cu(g) → → →

ΔHatomisation IE1 IE2

Hydration
energy
Cu is more stable than Cu because released hydration energy is more in case of Cu+2 than
+2 +1

Cu+1.

57)
Which compound does exist is MnO3F

58)

Cr+3 > Ti+3 > V+3 > Fe+3 > Mn+3 : Oxidising character

59)

Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic

numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest oxidising character ( )
is Co(Z = 27)

60)

All of these

61) has one unpaired electron, while has none

62)

Assertion and Reason is true and reason correct explanation for assertion

63)

Both 1 & 2

64)

NaCl + K2Cr2O7(s) + H2SO4 —→ ‘X’

conc. orange-red vapour
Orange red vapour of ‘X’ is CrO2Cl2

65)

Ln(OH)3 & AcH3

66)

Explain Question : Identify the primary mercury and iodine confining species formed when
HgCl2 and I2 dissolve in I– solution
Concept : This Question is based on Formation of complex
Solution : HgCl2 and I2 dissolved in water forms ,
⇒
⇒
Final Answer option (2)

67)
0
Total number of positive values of E for the given changes are
(1) Cr3+/Cr2+ (2) Mn3+/Mn2+
(3) Fe3+/Fe2+ (4) Co3+/Co2+
(5) Zn2+/Zn (6) Cu2+/Cu
(7) Ti2+/Ti
Correct code is 4

68)

V2+ < Cr+2 < Mn+2 < Fe+2 : paramagnetic behaviour

69)

N – Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 > N(SiH3)3

70)

both O2 and Xc have almost same ionisation enthalpy.

71)

Mg2C3

72)

(A) → 6; (B) → 1; (C) → 3; (D) → 5; (E) → 3, 4; (F) → 2, 1

73)

S2O72-

74)

(A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

75) Red P ⇒ exist in polymeric form

⇒ Very loss reactive so does not glow in darke
⇒ Insoluble in both Cs2 and H2O
White P ⇒ exist in disorete P4 unit
⇒ More reactive and glows in dark
⇒ Soluble in CS2 but in soluble in water

76)

H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4

77)

Geometry = Planar

78)

Melting point B > Al

79)

TFFT

80)

O3 is a weak oxidising agent than O2

81)

Which of the following would have premanent dipole moment SF4

82)

SnCl2

83)

c, d, e, f

84)

85)
 Ammonia can be dried by :CaO

86)

TTFF

87)

It consists of two-”3 centre 2 electron bonds”.

88)

On increasing value of n, oxidation number of central atom increases

89)

ClF5 on hydrolysis give HClO3 + HF

90)

Which of the following species is more reactive F2

BOTANY

91) NCERT XII Pg.# 82

92) NCERT(XII) Pg. # 74, 78, 83

93) NCERT XII Pg.# 88

94) NCERT Pg. # 88

95) NCERT-Pg.62

96) NCERT XII Pg. # 61, 64

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

98)

Ncert Pg No. 74 (2022 edition) Figure 4.15

 99)

Explain Question – determine maximum height of plant (AABB).

aabb = 20 cm
AaBb = 50 cm

Concept – This question based on polygenic inheritance - a form of quantitative inheritanc.

Solution –
Contribution per dominant allele (AaBb)
= 50 – 10 = 40 cm

= = 20 cmm

→ Recessive allele (aabb) = = 5 cm

⇒ Maximum number of dominant alleles in genotype AABB (4 dominant allele).
= AABB
= 20 + 20 + 20 + 20
= 80 cm

Final Answer – Option (3) 80 cm

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 78-80

101) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 80

102) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 83

103) NCERT XII pg.# 67

104) NCERT Pg. # 82

105)

Explain Question – Given: boy is colour blind. sister is normal and carrier.

Concept – This question based on X- linked recessive inheritance.

Solution:
(i) Mother father
(XcX) (XY)
↓
Boy (XcY)
both phenotypically normal (100%)

(ii) Colour blind SO4 , mother have (XC) her genotype = XC X (carrier) (100% chances)
(iii) Carrier mother (XcX) and normal father (XY)

son: 50% Normal

50% Colour blind

Final Answer – Option (2) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-50%

.

106) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 289

107)

101 Module

108)

Explain Question – Identify the pattern of inheritance.

Concept – This question based on pedigree analysis.
Solution –

Final Answer – Option (4) Autosomal recessive

109)

The correct answer is 2. More Ab gametes as compared to AB gametes.

Explanation: Since genes A and b are 24 cM apart, they are linked but not very tightly. The
crossover frequency between them is 24%, so recombinant gametes (AB and ab) will be
produced 24% of the time, while the parental gametes (Ab and aB) will be produced 76% of
the time. However, because the genes are linked, the parental combinations (Ab and aB) will
be more frequent than the recombinant combinations (AB and ab). Thus, you will see more Ab
gametes compared to AB gametes.
 110) The correct answer is: 2. Her father and maternal grandfather were colorblind.

Explanation: The girl will be colorblind if:

A. Her father is colorblind (providing one X-chromosome with the colorblind allele).
B. Her maternal grandfather is colorblind (passing the colorblind allele to her mother)

Therefore, both her father and maternal grandfather must be colorblind for the girl to be colorblind.

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 78,79

112)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to match items from three columns related to genetic
crosses: Column I lists types of genetic crosses, Column II lists the parental genotypes
involved, and Column III lists the expected phenotypic ratios or outcomes. The task is to
correctly associate one item from each column that correspond to each other.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves Mendelian genetics, specifically different
types of genetic crosses used to study inheritance patterns: monohybrid (one trait), dihybrid
(two traits), test cross (crossing to a homozygous recessive), and back cross (crossing a hybrid
with a parent strain). Each cross results in characteristic genotype and phenotype ratios.

Tips and Tricks: Associate common ratios to cross types: 3:1 with monohybrid, 9:3:3:1 with
dihybrid, 1:1 with test cross, and uniform dominant phenotype with back cross. This helps in
quickly matching the columns.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the phenotypic ratio of a test cross (1:1) with that of a
monohybrid cross (3:1). Mixing up parental genotypes can also cause errors.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mismatch expected genotype crosses with
incorrect phenotypic ratios. For example, pairing TT×tt (a pure monohybrid cross) with 3:1
ratio is incorrect because TT×tt usually gives all heterozygous offspring, which are
phenotypically uniform.

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74

114)

Question Explanation:
A yellow and round seeded pea plant is crossed with green and wrinkled seeded pea plant and
the F1 of this cross is backcrossed to the homozygous recessive parent. The progeny will
appear in the ratio of :-
 Solution:
• Yellow (Y) and Round (R) are dominant traits, and green (y) and wrinkled (r) are
recessive.

• The F1 generation will be heterozygous for both traits (YyRr).

A. Backcrossing the F1 (YyRr) with the homozygous recessive parent (yyrr) will result in four
possible combinations:

A. YyRr (yellow, round)

B. Yyrr (yellow, wrinkled)

C. yyRr (green, round)

D. yyrr (green, wrinkled)

Hence,
Correct Option: (2)

115)

The correct answer is: (2) (a)-(ii) ,(b)-(iii) ,(c)-(iv) , (d)-(i)

Explanation :
(a) Dominance: One allele hides the other in heterozygotes. (ii)

(b) Codominance: Both alleles are fully expressed in heterozygotes. (iii)

(c) Pleiotropy: One gene affects many traits. (iv)

(d) Polygenic inheritance: Many genes affect one trait. (i)

116) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 73,76

117) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 75,82

118) NCERT XIIth Page-89

119) NCERT-XII, Page # 70

120) It is a dihybrid cross

121)
NCERT - XII, Pg. # 85

122) Solution/Explanation :
In option (1) and (3) AB blood group is present in parents. So option (1) and (3) not possible.
In option (4) Both parents are Rh– So not possible.
So the correct option is (2).
The couple A+ and 0- can have a child with O+ blood type. A+ can contribute an 0 allele and
the + Rh factor, while 0- contributes an O allele and Rh-. The child could inherit Rh+ from the
A+ parent, making the child O+.
Answer: 2. A+ and 0-.

123) NCERT XII Page No. # 88

124)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 89

(Hint = Autosomal disorder)

125) Recombination frequency is equal to the distance between the genes.

Distance between a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a &b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d
is 29%. Then the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome will be a, c, b, d.

126) NCERT Page No. 65

127) NCERT XII Pg#87 (E)

NCERT XII Pg#96 (H)

128) NCERT XII Pg#83 (E)

NCERT XII Pg#91 (G)

129) NCERT Pg. # 86

130) Asking About : Pedigree Analysis → Genotype

Concept :
In Autosomal recessive both parents have heterozygous genotype than affected progeny can
be obtained.

Solution / Explanation :
 Hence, option (3) is correct.

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. 82

132) Allen module page no. 87

133)

Ncert Pg No. 91

134) NCERT pg: 83

135) NCERT Page No. 68

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT(XII) Pg# 129 Para: 7.3

137)

• The Biogenetic law, also known as Recapitulation theory, was proposed by Ernst Haeckel.
• It suggests that the developmental stages of an embryo (ontogeny) reflect the evolutionary
history (phylogeny) of the species.
• In this context, the observation of the mammalian heart passing through stages
resembling a fish-like two-chambered heart, a frog-like three-chambered heart, and finally
a four-chambered heart in mammals aligns with this hypothesis.

The correct answer is option 3. Biogenetic law.

138)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Analogous organs: Forelimbs of these animals have different functions (swimming, flying,
running, and manipulating objects), but they share a similar underlying bone structure,
indicating they are not
analogous organs.
Convergent evolution: This is the process where unrelated organisms evolve similar traits
 due to similar environmental pressures. In this case, the forelimbs of these animals have
evolved for different
functions, so they are not an example of convergent evolution.
Different structures evolving for same functions: This is the opposite of what we see in
the forelimbs of these animals. They have similar structures but different functions.

139)

The correct answer is 3 Both (a) and (b) are correct.

Here's the explanation:

A. Statement (a): "The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green
and presumably anaerobes."
B. This statement is correct. Early life forms, likely appearing in the primordial environment,
were anaerobic (not requiring oxygen) because the Earth's atmosphere at that time had little
to no free oxygen. These organisms were non-green and would have relied on other
biochemical pathways for energy, such as fermentation or anaerobic respiration.
C. Statement (b): "The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never
released oxygen."
D. This statement is also correct. The first autotrophic organisms were likely chemoautotrophs,
which derive their energy from chemical reactions (e.g., oxidizing inorganic molecules like
hydrogen sulfide or ammonia) rather than from sunlight. These organisms did not release
oxygen because their metabolic processes did not involve water splitting, a feature necessary
for the production of oxygen (as seen in later photosynthetic organisms).

Together, both statements are accurate in describing the early stages of life on Earth.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Both (a) and (b) are correct.

140) Ncert Exampler question

141) NCERT Pg.# 114-115

142) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131

143) NCERT Pg. # 127, Para = 7.1

144)

The correct order of the geological time scale of Earth is:

A. Paleozoic Era
B. Mesozoic Era
C. Cenozoic Era

145) Statement I: Correct. Intensive breeding programmes have indeed resulted in the
creation of different breeds, such as various dog breeds, which are different from each other
but still belong to the same species.
Statement II: Incorrect. The biochemical and structural similarities among diverse organisms
are often used as evidence for a shared ancestry, supporting the theory of evolution.

146) In experiments similar to those that observed the formation of amino acids, other
researchers also observed the formation of sugars, nitrogen bases, pigments, and fats. This
evidence, along with the analysis of meteorite content revealing similar compounds, supports
the idea of chemical evolution occurring elsewhere in space.

147) The Coelacanth, a fish that was believed to be extinct, was caught in 1938 in South
Africa. It is significant because it is related to lobefins, which are ancestral to the first
amphibians that could live on both land and water.

148) Module

149) NCERT Pg. # 134

150) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 126

151) NCERT Pg#132 (E)

NCERT Pg#145 (H)

152) NCERT Page No. 113

153) NCERT Pg. # 134 (E)

NCERT Pg. # 145 (H)

154) NCERT-XII, Pg # 134(E), 145(H)

155)

Allen module

156) Allen module

157) NCERT Page no 111

158) Allen module exercise - I, Question no 27

159) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 131

160) NCERT Pg# 127

161) The correct answer is 4. All of these
Explanation:
Homologous Structures:
• The observation that different insects have similar basic patterns in their mouthparts
suggests a shared evolutionary origin.
• These mouthparts are considered homologous structures. Homologous structures are
structures that have a common ancestral origin but may have different functions in different
organisms.
Common Ancestory:
• The presence of homologous structures strongly indicates a common ancestry among these
insects. They all inherited these basic mouthpart structures from a shared ancestor.
Divergent Evolution:
• The variation in the specific functions of these mouthparts (e.g., chewing, sucking, piercing)
is evidence of divergent evolution. From a common ancestral form, these structures have
diversified to suit the specific feeding needs of different insect groups.

162) Module 3 Pg. # 119

163) Flying squirrel is placental mammal.

164)

Abiogenesis – Biogenesis – Biogenesis forever

165)

The correct answer is 1. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a
correct explanation of the assertion.
Assertion: Pasteur demonstrates that life comes from pre-existing life.
• This is true. Pasteur's famous swan-neck flask experiment disproved the theory of
spontaneous generation, which proposed that life could arise from non-living matter. His
experiments showed that life arises only from pre-existing life.
Reason: Pasteur carefully performed swan neck experiment.
• This is also true. Pasteur's experiments were meticulous and well-controlled. He used flasks
with curved necks that allowed air to enter but prevented microorganisms from reaching the
broth inside. This design was crucial to demonstrating that life did not spontaneously generate
in the broth. Since the reason (the swan-neck experiment) directly supports and explains the
assertion (life arises from pre-existing life), the correct answer is 1.

166)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 112

Allen module

167)

getting isolation in medium

168)

Proteins, nucleic-acid

170)

Which is not a vestigial organ in man is Nails

173) Ncert Pg No: 111

174)

Bacteria appeared in the neck of flask A

175) NCERT Pg. # 127

176)

All of the above

177)

Similar processes are occurring elsewhere in space that had occurred on earth

178)

NCERT Pg. # 115 (Fig.6.3 a)

179) NCERT Pg. # (E)- 128, (H)-141

180) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 127,137