07-07-2024

1901CMD303001240043 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If then find tan θ. Given that θ lies in the first quadrant

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The value of sin (330°) is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Maximum value of 3 sin θ + 4 cos θ is :

(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) 10

4)

Which of following can be correct for a value of θ ?

(1) sin θ = –2
(2) cos θ = 2
(3) tan θ = 1000
(4) All

5)

cos 75°

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Value of cos θ is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) means

(1) sin2x
(2) sin(x2)
(3) sin2x2
(4) All of these

8) cos (A + B) is equal to:-

(1) cos A sin B + sin A cos B

(2) cos A sin B – sin A cos B
(3) cos A cos B + sin A sin B
(4) cos A cos B – sin A sin B

9) Find value of θ = rad in degree.

(1) 760°
(2) 560°
(3) 660°
(4) 460°

10) The slope of the line AB is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

11) Graph of equation 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The distance between the points (6, 8) and (9, 4) is _

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 7
13) Calculate slope of shown line :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

14) Which of the following graph is the best representation for the given relation

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) The distance between points A(7, –2)m and B(4, –6)m is :

(1) 5m
(2) 10m
(3) 7m
(4) -5m

100
16) (e ) = ..........

(1) e100
(2) 0
(3) 100 e99
(4) None of these

17) If y = x5 + x3 + 10 ; then is equal to

(1) 5x4 + x2
(2) 5x4 + 2x2
(3) 5x4 + 3x2
(4) x4 + 3x2

18) is :

(1) 2x cos x
(2) 2x cos x + x2 sin x
(3) 2x cos x + sin x
(4) 2x sin x + x2 cos x

19) (x4 – 2 sin x + 3 cos x) =

(1) 4x3 – 2 cos x + 3 sin x

(2) 3x2 + 2 cosx + 3 sin x
(3) 4x3 + 2 cosx – 3 sin x
(4) 4x3 – 2 cos x – 3 sin x

20)

If then is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

21)

If y = sinx + cosx then is :-

(1) sinx – cosx

(2) cosx – sinx
(3) –(sinx + cosx)
(4) None of these

22)

If then sin θ + cos θ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Assertion : At local maxima, first derivative = 0 and second derivative < 0
Reason : At local minima, first derivative = 0 and second derivative > 0

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
24) The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.
time is :

(1) 0.2 cm/s

(2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 0.6 cm/s
(4) 0.8 cm/s

25) If rate of change of radius is 2 m/s, the find rate of change of area of circle when radius is .

(1) 3 m2/s
(2) 4 m2/s
(3) 2π m2/s
(4) 3 π m2/s

26) Find integrals of given functions

x2 – 2x + 1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) What will be value of

(1)

(2)

(3) 4x log(4x + 5) + c
(4) 4 e4x + 5 + c

28)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)

(1) 3x2 – x2 + C
(2) x3 – x2 + C
(3) 3x3 – 2x2 + C
(4) 3x2 – 2x + C

32)

Integrate the

(1)

(2)

(3) sin(10t – 50) + C

(4) –cos(10t – 50) + C
33)

Integrate the

(1) –cos60° + C
(2) sin60° + C

(3)

(4)

34) ⎰4 ex dx = ?

(1) ex + C
(2) e2x + C
(3) 4 ex + C
(4) e2

35) The approximate value of sin 1° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) then graph is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

2)

If y = 3x2 – 2x + 1, find the value of x for which

(1) x = 3
(2) x = 1/3
(3) x = 1/2
(4) x = 2

3)

If then graph between x2 and y2 is

(1) Parabola
(2) Circle
(3) Ellipse
(4) Straight line

4) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

5)

(1) sin θ
(2) –sin θ
(3) sin 2θ
(4) –sin 2θ

6) Value of tan(3°) =
(1) 3

(2)

(3)

(4) 3π

7) If y = x3 – log x – sin 4x then is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Calculate distance between following two points

A (0, 5, 1) & B (0, 1, 4)

(1) 7
(2) 11
(3) 5
(4) 1

9)

(1) -ax sin (ax + b)

(2) ax sin (ax + b)

(3)

(4)

10) If y = x3 then is -

(1) 6x2
(2) 6x
(3) 3x2
(4) 3x

11) Value of is ?

(1) cos120°
(2)

(3)

(4) zero

12) If y = sin2x + cos2x then is.

(1) 4sinx cosx

(2) 2sinx + 2cosx
(3) 0
(4) 1

13)

Find out value of sin (240º)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

The value of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Find value of a if distance between the points (–9 cm, a cm) and (3 cm, 3cm) is 13 cm.

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 1
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1)

Find the volume occupied by 8 gm of oxygen gas at STP

(1) 5600 ml
(2) 11200 ml
(3) 22400 ml
(4) none of the above

2) Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is 89600.
Calculate the number of iron atoms in one molecule of haemoglobin :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) can't be predicted

3) The volume of 0.2 mol CH4 at STP :-

(1) 4.48 mL
(2) 4480 mL
(3) 4480 L
(4) 2240 L

4) Number of atoms present in 7.1 g of Cl2 is :-

(1) 0.1 NA
(2) 0.2 NA
(3) NA
(4) 0.5 NA

5) 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 L of volume of NTP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

6) Calculate the number of molecules in 11.2 L of SO2 gas at STP :-

(1) 6 × 1023
(2) 3 × 1023
(3) 12 × 1023
(4) 18 × 1023

7) 5.6 L of unknown gas at STP/NTP weighs 8g. Find the unknown gas :

(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) CH4
(4) N2

8) Empirical formula of acetic acid is:

(1) CH3COOH
(2) CH2O2
(3) C2HO
(4) CH2O

9)

Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?

(1) 44 g of CO2
(2) 48 g O2
(3) 8 g H2
(4) 64 g SO2

10) 5 L of gas at STP weighs 6.25 g. What is its gram molecular weight ?

(1) 1.25
(2) 14
(3) 28
(4) 56

11) Relative density of a volatile substance with respect to CH4 is 4. Its molecular weight would be –

(1) 8
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 128

12) The volume of CO2 at NTP obtained by heating 10 g molecule of CaCO3 will be :-

(1) 224 L
(2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 0.224 L

13) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:3. Their molecular masses are in the ratio
of :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

14) Which of the following contains highest mass of H-atoms ?

(1) 10 mole CH3COOH

(2) 8 mole (COOH)2
(3) 2.0 mole C6H16O4
(4) 4 mole C2H4O2

15) 11.2 L of N2 reacts with excess of H2 at STP, to give ammonia gas, if the percentage yield is only
50%. How much volume of NH3 is formed at STP?

(1) 11.2 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 33.6 L
(4) 44.8 L

16)

Match the column:

Molecule Atomicity

(i) H2 (a) 3

(ii) CO2 (b) 5

(iii) CH4 (c) 4

(iv) SO3 (d) 2

(1) i–c, ii–b; iii–d; iv–a
(2) i–d, ii–a; iii–b; iv–c
(3) i–a, ii–b; iii–c; iv–d
(4) i–b, ii–c; iii–d; iv–a

17) 1 amu is equal to:

(1) 1.00758 g
(2) 0.000549 g
(3)
(4)

18) Which of the following statement is correct about the gram atomic mass of any element :-

(1) It is the mass of 1 molecule of the element in grams

(2) It is 1 g mass of an element
(3) It is the mass of 1 mol atom of an element in grams
(4) It is equal to the mass of 1 mol of element in amu

19) The mass of 112 cm3 of CH4 gas at STP is :

(1) 0.16 g
(2) 0.8 g
(3) 0.08 g
(4) 1.6 g

20) Empirical formula of glucose is:

(1) C6H12O6
(2) C3H6O3
(3) C2H4O2
(4) CH2O

21) One atomic mass unit in kilogram is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following contains maximum number of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 1 g of O
(2) 1 g of O2
(3) 1 g of O3
(4) all have the same number of atoms

23) One mole electron means

(mass of 1 electron = 9.1×10–31kg):-

(1) NA electrons
(2) 6.023 × 1023 electrons
(3) 0.55 mg electrons
(4) All of the above

24) One gram-molecule of N2 will not equal to :

(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecule

(2) 22.4 lit of N2 at STP
(3) 11.2 lit of N2 at STP
(4) 28 gm of N2

25) Number of atoms present is 50 amu of hydrogen is:-

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 1
(4) None of these

26) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 0.5 mol of HCl (g)

(2) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
(3) 1 mol of HCl (g)
(4) 2 mol of HCl (g)

27) Insuline contains 3.4% sulphur. Then, the minimum molecular mass of the insulin is about:

(1) 940 amu

(2) 9400 amu
(3) 3600 amu
(4) 970 amu

28) The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and its molecular weight is 120. The molecular
formula of the compound is

(1) C2H4O2
(2) C4H8O4
(3) CH2O
(4) C4H2O

29) If molecules are removed from 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of H2SO4
left are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) How many moles of Na3PO4 will contain 0.5 mole atoms of oxygen ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.125
(4) 0.0625

31) Which of the following has the same empirical formula as that of C6H12O6?

(1) C2H5OH
(2) H2C2O4
(3) C6H5OH
(4) CH3COOH

32) Volume of hydrogen required to completely react with 30 litre of nitrogen for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(1) 20 litre
(2) 40 litre
(3) 200 litre
(4) 90 litre

33) Number of atoms in 24 g of He is :-

(1) NA
(2) 2NA
(3) 4NA
(4) 6NA

34)

1 angstrom is equal to

(1) 10–10 m
(2) 10–8 cm
(3) 10–12 cm
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35)

5 mol of A and 12 mol of B are taken for a reaction shown by the equation, 'A + 3B → 2C'. How many
moles of C will be produced?
(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 8

SECTION-B

1) The charge on 1 gram ion of Al3+ is :-

(1)
NA e coulomb

(2)
× NA e coulomb

(3)
× NA e coulomb
(4) 3 × NA e coulomb

2) Vapour density of SO3 gas is :-

(1) 40 g/L
(2) 80 g/L
(3) 76 g/L
(4) 40

3) The empirical formula of a compound contains :

(1) The simplest ratio of moles of atoms

(2) The simplest ratio of number of atoms
(3) The simplest mass ratio of all atoms
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) 300°C is equal to

(1) 27 K
(2) 573°F
(3) 300 K
(4) 573 K

5) Sum of moles of protons, electrons and neutrons in 16 g of O is :-

(1) 24
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 16
6) What is gram molecular mass of glucose(C6H12O6) ?

(1) 180 amu

(2)
180 × g
(3) 180 g
(4) Both (1) an (2)

7) The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 × 1010 and 9.6 × 1010 respectively. Its empirical formula
is –

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO2
(3) Cr2O4
(4) CrO5

8) If V mL of the vapours of substance at NTP weight W g. Then molecular weight of substance is:-

(1) (W/V) × 22400

(2)
× 22.4
(3) (W - V) × 22400

(4)

9) The no. of moles present in 67200 ml of CO2 gas at STP.

(1) 4 mol
(2) 3 mol
(3) 5 mol
(4) 3000 mol

10) 1 amu =

(1) 1.67 × 10–24 kg

(2) 1.67 × 10–24 g
(3) 1.67 × 10–23 g
(4) 6.022 × 1023 kg

11) What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 :–

(1) 16 g
(2) 26.6 × 1022 g
(3) 2.66 × 10–23 g
(4) 16 NA g
12) How many atoms are contained in one mole of sucrose (C12H22O11) ?

(1) 45 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole

(2) 5 × 6.62 × 1023 atoms/mole
(3) 5 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole
(4) None of these

13) Which of the following is true for STP?

(1) T = 10°C, P = 1 atm

(2) T = 273 K, P = 2 atm
(3) T = 273 K, P = 1 bar
(4) T = 0°C, P = 2 bar

14) 500 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess of 02 gave 2.5 L of CO2 and 3.0 L of
water vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H8
(2) C4H10
(3) C5H10
(4) C5H12

15) Assertion : The number of O atoms in 16 g of oxygen & 16 g of ozone is same.

Reason : Each of the species represent 1 g - atom of oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Mitochondria produces for cell?

(1) ATP
(2) Protein
(3) Carbohydrate
(4) Lipid

2) Identify the non membrane bound cell organelle

(1) Golgi complex

(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) ER

3) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The Golgi complex remain in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
(2) RER is extensive and continuous with the inner membrane of nucleus.
(3) Cis and trans Face of Golgi bodies are completely different but interconnected
(4) ER divides the intracellular space into luminal and extra luminal part.

4) ______ are an exception to cell theory.

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Viruses
(4) Lichens

5)

Active transport involves

(1) Use of metabolic energy

(2) Passive diffusion
(3) Simple osmosis
(4) Any of the above

6) Diameter of mitochondria is :

(1) 0.5 μm – 1.0 μm

(2) 0.2 μm – 1.0 μm
(3) 1.0 μm – 4.1 μm
(4) 10 μm – 50 μm

7) The isolated lyosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all type of hydrolytic
enzymes optimally active at the:-

(1) pH = 7
(2) pH = 10
(3) pH = 5
(4) pH = 1

8) Identify the following cell organelle show belong as well as its structure and function and select
the right option for the two together :-
 Structure Functions
Double
Protein
(1) membrane
synthesis
bound
Network of
Mechanical
(2) protein
support
filaments
Glycolipids &
Many flat, disc
(3) glycoproteins
shaped-cisternae
synthesis
Granular
Protein
(4) (Attached
synthesi
ribosomes)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) In 70S and 80S ribosomes, 'S' stands for :-

(1) Sedimentation coefficient

(2) Svedberg unit
(3) Small unit
(4) Both (1) & (2)

10) Which is not properly paired?

Golgi apparatus– Breaking of complex

(1)
macromolecules
endoplasmic– Protein synthesis
(2)
reticulum
(3) Chloroplast – Photosynthesis
Mitochondria – Oxidative
(4)
phosphorylation

11) Which of the following is the largest isolated single cell ?

(1) Nerve cell

(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Ostrich egg
(4) RBCs

12) Mesosomes of prokaryotes are functionally similar to :-

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes

13)

Read the following statements carefully and select statements which are not correct.
(A) Mitochondria and chloroplast contain own DNA.
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum occupy 90% of space of plant cell.
(C) Leeuwenhoek discovered living cell.

(D) 50S subunit is a part of 80S ribosome.

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) A & C
(4) B & D

14) Who modified the hypothesis of Schleiden & Schwann to give the cell theory a final shape.

(1) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

(2) Robert Hook
(3) Robert Brown
(4) Rudolf Virchow

15) The inner most portion of mature plant cell wall is the :-

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Primary wall
(3) Secondary wall
(4) Cell membrane

16) Which one is an organelle within an organelle ?

(1) ER
(2) Mesosome
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Ribosome

17)

Who for the first time reported that the most striking difference between animal and plant is of cell
wall -
(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwan
(3) Virchow
(4) Nagelli

18) 9 + 2 organisation is present in:

(1) Flagella of bacteria

(2) Flagella and cilia of eukaryotic cell
(3) Basal body
(4) Centriole and basal body

19) Select the incorrect statement :-

Leucoplast is double membrane bound structure, having Chl- a , small, double stranded circular
(1)
DNA molecule and ribosomes (70S)
Mitochondrial matrix possesses single circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecule, 70S
(2)
ribosomes and the components required for the synthesis of proteins
Lysosomes are single membrane bound vesicular structure that very rich in almost all types of
(3)
hydrolases.
(4) In animal cells, lipid- like steroidal hormones are synthesized in smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

20) Choose the incorrect statement for nucleolus :-

(1) Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out lipid synthesis
(2) It is a site of active r-RNA synthesis
(3) It is a spherical structure present in nucleus
(4) It is not a membrane bound structure

21) Which of the given statement is incorrect for nucleus?

(1) Nucleus has two membranes.

(2) The perinuclear space is 10-50 nm.
(3) Nuclear pore is open and provide open access to any molecule.
(4) Nucleoplasm contains enzymes for DNA replication.

22) Identify A, B, C, D, E, F and G given in the figure.

 A-Satellite, B-Secondary constriction,
(1)
C-Centromere, D-Long arm, E-Short arm
A-Secondary constriction, B-Satellite,
(2)
C-Long arm, D-Centromere, E-Short arm
A-Centromere, B-Satellite, C-Long arm,
(3)
D-Short arm, E-Secondary constriction
A-Satellite, B-Short arm, C-Long arm,
(4)
D-Centromere, E-Secondary constriction

23) Which of the following statement regarding nucleus is incorrect ?

(1) Material of nucleus stained by basic dye was given the name chromatin by Robert Brown
(2) The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin
Nuclear envelop consists of two parallel membrane with a space between 10 to 50 nm called
(3)
perinuclear space
The outer membrane usually remains continuous with endoplasmic reticulum and also bears
(4)
ribosome on it.

24) The accompanying diagram shows a chromosome

Which of the following table refers correctly to the chromosome ?

No. of Centromere No. of Kinetochore No. of arms

(1) 2 1 4

(2) 1 2 4

(3) 2 2 4

(4) 1 2 3
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

25) A–form the basal body of cilia

B–form the basal body of flagella
C–form the spindle fibre
D–give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division.
How many functions are correct for centrioles in higher plant cells?

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Statement-A: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic both flagella are structurally similar.
Statement-B: The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.

(1) Statement A is true while statement B is false.

(2) Both statements A and B are true.
(3) Statement A is false while statement B is true.
(4) Both statements A and B are false.

27) Which one is not correctly matched ?

(1) Middle lamella – Developed between two adjacent plant cells

(2) Cristae – Shelves produced by foldings of inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) Plasmodesmata – Membranes surrounding vacuoles
(4) Grana – Stacks of membrane bound discs with chlorophyll and Carotenoids

28) Microtubules are the constituents of :-

(1) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

(2) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(3) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
(4) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

29) Match the following:

Column - I Column - II

(i) Plasmodesmata (a) Nuclear matrix

Thick and tough

(ii) Kinetochores (b)
glycocalyx

Disc shaped structure

(iii) Nucleoplasm (c)
on centromere

(iv) Capsule (d) Cytoplasmic connections

(1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c) , (iv) - (b)
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (b)
(3) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a) , (iv) - (b)
(4) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)
30)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Assertion (A) :- Nucleus is essentially required for all living cells, to regulate cellular activities.
Reason (R) :- Nucleus is a part of endomembrane system.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

32) Assertion : Secondary constriction gives appearance of a small fragment called the satellite.
Reason : Few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constrictions at a variable location.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason in not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

33) The Golgi apparatus is principally involved in ____________ materials.

(1) synthesis of lipids

(2) protein synthesis
(3) packaging
(4) DNA replication

34) The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) divides the intracellular space into two compartments: luminal
and ____________.

(1) mitochondrial
(2) perinuclear
(3) cytoplasm
(4) vacuolar
35) Assertion: Acrocentric chromosome has highest arm ratio.
Reason: In acrocentric chromosome centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremally
short and one very long arm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-B

1) Assertion :- Potato cells have amyloplast.

Reason :- Amyloplast stores protein.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Golgi apparatus is absent in :

(1) Higher plants

(2) Yeast
(3) Bacteria and blue-green algae
(4) None of these

3) Majority of the chloroplasts of the green plants are found in the :-

(1) Mesophyll cells

(2) Bundle sheath cells
(3) Cortical cells
(4) Epidermal cells

4) Which structure of chloroplast is called as unit of photosynthesis ?

(1) Quantasome
(2) Thylakoide
(3) Granum
(4) Frets

5) Which of the following is concerned with oxidative phosphorylation ?

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria
(3) E.R.
(4) Golgi body
6) 70 s type of ribosomes are absent in :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Bacteria
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

7) The quasifluid nature of ______enables_______ movement of proteins within the overall bilayer of a
plasma mambrane :-

(1) Protein, lateral

(2) Lipid, lateral
(3) Lipid, flip-flop
(4) Protein, flip-flop

8) Which of the following is true for cell wall of higher plants ?

(1) It may possess protein

(2) Primary wall is formed inner to the secondary wall
(3) Galactans, mannans and CaCO3 are present in abundance
(4) It is rarely traversed by plasmodesmata

9) The nucleus is separated from surrounding cytoplasm by a nuclear envelope, which is :-

(1) Double layered without pores

(2) Single layered with pores
(3) Double layered with pores
(4) Single layered without pores

10) Transport of substances through lipid bi-layer is known as :-

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Carrier mediated diffusion
(3) Tunnel mediated diffusion
(4) Active transport

11) Carotenoid pigments are found in :-

(1) Chromoplast
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Leucoplast
(4) Both (1) and (2)

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect for centrioles?

(1) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.

(2) Central proteinaceous hub is missing in a centriole.
(3) Each centriole has an organization like that of a cartwheel.
(4) Centrosome usually contains 2 cylindrical centrioles.

13) Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?

(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
(2) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and
(3)
that of the cytoplasm.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between
(4)
nucleus and cytoplasm.

14)

Match the columns and identify the correct option:

Column-I Column-II

Disc-shaped sacs in
(a) Thylakoids (i)
Golgi apparatus

Condensed
(b) Cristae (ii)
structure of DNA

Flat membranous
(c) Cisternae (iii)
sacs in stroma

Infoldings in
(d) Chromatin (iv)
mitochondria

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Middle lamella is composed mainly of :-

(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Calcium pectate
 ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Columnar epithelium is present in stomach and intestine

(2) Cilia move the particles in specific direction
(3) Cilia are present in fallopian tube and bronchioles
(4) In PCT simple squamous epithelium is present

2) Junctions that perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together is-

(1) Tight junction

(2) Adhering junction
(3) Gap junction
(4) Interdigitation

3) Stretchable and water proof epithelium is :

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Transitional epithelium
(4) Pseudo stratified epithelium

4) Which of the following statement is not true for microvilli?

(1) It helps in absorption

(2) They increase surface area.
(3) They are contractile and motile
(4) They are present in intestine, gall bladder and PCT etc.

5) Ciliated epithelium is found in :-

(1) Bronchiole
(2) Fallopion tube
(3) Air sacs of lungs
(4) Both (1) and (2)

6) Epithelium found in the linning of stomach and intestine is :-

(1) Columnar
(2) Cubical
(3) Cuboidal
(4) Squamous
7) Lining of body cavities, ducts and tubes are made up of

(1) compound epithelium

(2) simple epithelium
(3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(4) keratinised epithelium

8) Fibroblast cell is a connective tissue cell, the function of which is :-

(1) Phagocytic
(2) Absorption
(3) Antibody production
(4) Matrix production

9) Choose the correct option, pairing the principal cell with the tissue

(1) Mast cell - Adipose

(2) Fibroblasts - Areolar tissue
(3) Macrophages - Tendon
(4) Chondroclasts - Bone

10) Loose connective tissue is found in :-

(1) Bone
(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Blood
(4) Cartilage

11) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

12) It serves as a support framework for epithelium. It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast
cells. It is known as.

(1) Dense regular tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense irregular tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

13) Match the Column I and Column II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Tendon 1. Loose connective tissue

Dense regular connective

(b) Ligament 2.
tissue

Dense irregular connective

(c) Areolar tissue 3.
tissue

(d) Adipose tissue 4. Specialised connective tissue

(1) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(2) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(3) a-2, b-2, c-3, d-1
(4) a-2, b-2, c-1, d-1

14) Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of

(1) Nervous tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Dense irregular white fibrous connective tissue
(4) Dense regular fibrous connective tissue

15) Wall of Bowman's capsule in nephron is made up of :

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

16) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

17) Study of tissues is known as :

(1) Cytology
(2) Histology
(3) Anatomy
(4) Physiology

18) Cartilage, bone and blood are example of :-

(1) Loose connective tissue

(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Specialized connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

19) Which junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Gap junction

(2) Tight junction
(3) Adhering junction
(4) Inter digitation

20)

In which of the following tissues, the cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix ?

(1) Nervous tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

21) Ciliated epithelia in human can be observed in :-

(1) PCT
(2) Small intestine
(3) Bronchioles
(4) All of these

22) Which is correct statement for bones

(1) Bone have a hard and non–pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(2) The osteocyte cells are present in the spaces called lacunae
(3) The bone marrow in some bones in the site of production of blood cells.
(4) All of these

23)

The main function of ligament is :-

(1) Joining of two bones

(2) Joining of muscles
(3) Joining of muscle to bone
(4) Joining of muscle to nerves

24) The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of :

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Smooth muscle tissue
(4) Squamous epithelium

25) Collagen fibres of connective tissue are :

(1) White
(2) Yellow
(3) Colourless
(4) Red

26) Muscles are connected to Bone by means of :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Ligaments
(3) Tendon
(4) Adipose tissue

27) Mucus cells (Goblet cells) are :-

(1) Unicellular gland

(2) Multicellular glands
(3) Endocrine glands
(4) Parietal cells of gastric glands

28) ——tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.

(1) Epithelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Nervous

29) Which of the following cells is phagocytic in nature :

(1) Mast cell

(2) Podocytes
(3) Macrophages
(4) Fibroblast cells

30) Stratified squamous epithelium is found in :

(1) Buccal cavity
(2) Stomach
(3) Intestine
(4) Spleen

31) Which of the following tissue covers moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx ?

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Transitional epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

32) Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is found in :

(1) Skin
(2) Stomach
(3) Pharynx
(4) Intestine

33) Which of the following cells are found in areolar connective tissue ?

(1) Mast cells

(2) Macrophage
(3) Fibroblast
(4) All are correct

34) Glass like cartilage is :

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Fibrous cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Elastic cartilage

35) Hyaline cartilage is found in :

(1) Ear pinna

(2) Tracheal Rings
(3) Epiglottis
(4) Eustachian tubes

SECTION-B

1) Strongest cartilage is :

(1) White fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

2) Solid, pliable & compression resistance like characterstics of intercelluar matrix is found in :

(1) Bone of arm

(2) Radius bone
(3) Cartilage between adjacent bones of vertebral column
(4) Humerus & femur bones

3) Read the following statements and find out how many of these are related to given figure :-

a. Multilayered epithelium
b. Limited role in secretion and absorption
c. Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
d. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

4) Which of the following is made up of cube like cells ?

(1) Epithelium of blood vessels

(2) Epithelium of PCT
(3) Epithelium of stomach
(4) Epithelium of alveoli

5) Ducts of large glands like salivary ducts and pancreas are composed of :

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Stratified squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

6) Stratified and nonkeratinised squamous epithelium occurs in :

(1) Epidermis of skin

(2) Pharynx
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Both 2 and 3

7) Brush border epithelium occurs in :

(1) Trachea
(2) Stomach
(3) Small intestine
(4) Fallopian tube.

8) What type of epithelium is the Urothelium ?

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Stratified squamous keratinized
(3) Pseudo-stratified non ciliated
(4) Transitional

9) Which of the following have hard and non pliable ground substance ?

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Bones
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Areolar tissues

10) Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Smooth muscle
(4) Intercalated discs

11) Which of the following is not a connective tissue ?

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Cartilage
(3) Neuroglia
(4) Blood

12) Which of the following is the most abundant salt in bones?

(1) CaCO3
(2) Ca3(PO4)2
(3) Mg3(PO4)2
(4) All are equally abundant

13) Where is the following epithelium shown is present in the human body?
(1) Ducts of glands and proximal convoluted tubule of nephron in kidney
(2) Lining of stomach and thyroid follicles
(3) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(4) Wall of blood vessels and urinary bladder

14) Basement membrane is present below :

(1) Epithelium
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

15) Simple squamous epithelium is generally used for -

(1) Filtration & diffusion

(2) Diffusion & absorption
(3) Absorption & secretion
(4) Secretion & filtration
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 2 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 4 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 2 2 1 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 3 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 4 1 4 1 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 3 1 2 4 4 3 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

choose options according to Range.

5) cos75° = cos (45°+30°)

= cos45° cos30° – sin45° sin30°

8) Formula Based
cos(A+B) = cosA cosB - sinA sinB

9)

Multiply by

11) m = +ve
θ < 90 ; c = +ve

20)

22)

27)
 28)

39) Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ

Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

42)

CHEMISTRY

51) 32 gm of O2 = 22400 ml at STP

8 gm of O2 = ? (x)
x = 5600 ml at STP

52)

Mass % =

0.25 =

53)

0.2 mole CH4

⇒
Volume = 22.4 × 0.2 ⇒ 4.48 L
⇒ 4.48 × 103 mL
⇒ 4480 mL

54)

7.1 g of Cl2

Mole = ⇒ 0.1 mole of Cl2

 1 mole → 2 × NA atom of Cl
0.1 mole → 2 × NA × 0.1 atoms
= 0.2 NA atoms

55)

7.5 g of gas
Volume = 5.6 L

⇒ ⇒

Molar mass = 7.5 × 4 = 30

NO ⇒ 14 + 16 = 30

56)

11.2 L of SO2 gas

Moles = ⇒ mole
1 mole → 1 × NA molecules

mole → molecules

= × 6 × 1023 = 3 × 1023

57)

Mole = = =

Mole =

⇒ Molar mass = 8 × 4 = 32

58)

Empirical formula of acetic acid

Acetic acid → CH3COOH
Empirical formula C2H4O2 ⇒ CH2O

59) (1) No of molecules of CO2 = NA × mole = NA × = NA

(2) No of molecules of O2 = NA × mole = NA × = 1.5 NA

 (3) No of molecules of H2 = NA × mole = NA × = 4 NA

(4) No of molecules of SO2 = NA × mole = NA × = NA

60)

∵ at STP wt. of 5L of gas = 6.25 g

∴ at STP wt. of 22.4 L of gas

= × 22.4 g (g molecular wt.)

61)

V.D =

4=
m = 64

So, V.D. =
V.D. of substance = 4
but V.D. of CH4 = 8 ,
V.D. of substance = 32 mol wt. = 2 × 32

62) CaCO3(s) —→ CaO(s) + CO2(g)

10 mole 10 mole
V = 10 × 22.4

V = 224 L

63)

Vapour Density

64)

∵ 1 molecule of CH3COOH contains 4 atom of H

∴ 10 mole of CH3COOH contains 40 mole atom of H
= 40 × 1 g = 40 g
∵ 1 molecule of (COOH)2 contains 2 atom of H
∴ 8 mole of (COOH)2 contains 8 × 2 mole atom of H
= 16 mole atom of H
= 16 × 1g = 16 g of H
∵ 1 molecule of C6H16O4 contains 16 atom of H
∴ 2 mole of C6H16O4 contains 16 × 2 mole atom of H
= 32 mole atom of H
= 32 × 1 g = 32 g of H
∵ 1 molecule of C2H4O2 contains 4 atom of H
∴ 4 mole of C2H4O2 contains 4 × 4 mole atom of H
 = 16 mole atoms of H
= 16 × 1 g = 16 g of H

65)

11.2 L of N2 forms - 22.4 L of NH3

% yield is 50%

66) Fact.

67)

68)

Gram atomic mass of any element

Mass of 1 mole of an element in grams

69)

Mass = = 0.08 g

70)

Molecular formula of Glucose = C6H12O6

Empeirical formula is simplest ratio of atoms in molecule. [CH2O]

71) 1 amu = × 10–3 kg =

72)

(1) 1g of O = × NA atoms

(2) 1 g of O2 = × 2 NA atoms

(3) 1 g of O3 = × 3 NA atoms,
Hence all have the same no. of atoms

73)

1 mole is defined as the amount of matter that contains as many as objects (atoms, molecules,
electrons, protons or what ever objects we are considering) as the number of atoms in exactly 12 g
of C12 i.e. Avogadro's number.
 74) 1 g molecular = 1 mole = NA molecules = 22.4 litre at STP.

75)

1 atom of hydrogen = 1 a.m.u

50 atoms of hydrogen = 50 a.m.u.

76)

H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

22.4 lit. 11.2lit.

1 mole 0.5 mole

Cl2 is LR
So 1 mole of HCl will be formed.

77)

3.4 g sulphur is present in 100 g insulin

32 g sulphur will be present in insulin = 940

Molar mass of insulin is about 940 amu

78) Molecular formula mass = n × expirical formula mass

120 = n(30)
4=n
Molecular formula = n(empirical formula)
Molecular formula = 4(CH2O)
Molecular formula = C4H8O4

79)

Number of moles of H2SO4 left

80)

4 mol O atoms are present in 1 mole Na3PO4

∴ For 0.5 mol O atoms, required moles of Na3PO4

81) C6H12O6 and CH3COOH(C2H4O2) both have same empirical formula CH2O.
 82)

= 90 lit.

83)

Total number of atoms = total atomicity × n × NA

No. of atoms = = 6 NA

84) Refer Allen module

85)
Mol 5 12

LR LR
3 mole of B produced = 2 mole of C

1 mole of B produced =
12 mole of B produced

= mole of C

86)

1 gram ion = 1 mole

charge = 3 × e × NA

87)

V.D. of SO3
Mw = 2 × VD
80 = 2 × VD
VD = 40

88)

Empirical formula is the simplest ratio of atoms present in a compound.

89) Refer Allen module

90)
8 + 8 + 8 = 24

91)
 Gram molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6)
= (12 × 6) + (12 × 1) + (16 × 6) = 180 g

92)

E. f. Þ obtain from simples ratio of atom

Gives Cr = 4.8 × 1010 , 0 = 9.6 ×1010
Simplest ratio 1 : 2
Empirical formula = CrO2

93)

mass of gas = w(g)

Vol. of gas = V mL (at STP)

moles of gas =

moles of gas =

Mol. wt. =

94)

NCERT Pg. # 141

95)

1 a.m.u. = 1.67 × 10–24g

96)

1 molecule CH4 = 16 amu

1 amu = (1.66 ×10–24g)
mass of 1 molecule of CH4 = 16×(1.66 × 10–24g)
= 2.66 × 10–23g

97)

Each molecule of C12H22O11 contain 45 atoms.

No. of atoms = 45 NA
0
98) Standard temperature and pressure conditions are T = 273 K (0 C) and P = 1 bar

99)

Module
 100)

No. of atoms =

No. of atoms = .

BOTANY

101)

ATP

102)

NCERT page no. 136

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. #133

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 134

107)

NCERT Pg. # 134

111) NCERT XI Pg # 127

114)

Ncert Page 88.

122)

NCERT page no.139

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

125)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 138 (H/E)

129)

NCERT pg no.128,132,138,139

132)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140

135)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 139 (8.5.10)

136)

NCERT XI, Page # 136

141)

Module # 01 Pg. # 174

148) NCERT Pg no. 87, 138 - 140

ZOOLOGY

152)

NCERT Pg. No.101

155)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 101, Last Para

156)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

161) Tendocalcaneous is the strongest tendon of body which connects gastrocmemius muscle
of shank with calcaneum bone of ankle.

163)

NCERT (XI), Pg. # 103

166) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

168)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 104, Ist Para

169)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, Last para

171)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

 178)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 102

188) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102