10-08-2025

1902CJA101001250078 JA

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) Which of the following graph has negative slope?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
2) Position time curve of a particle moving along x-axis is as shown in x-t curve. The position of
particle at t = 4s will be,

(A)
(B)
(C) 2 m
(D) 1 m

3) =

(A) 1
(B) 0

(C)

(D)

4) If then find

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) Evaluate

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
6) If where u and a are constants. The value of is

(A) v = u – at2
(B) v2 – u2 = 2as
(C) v = u + at
(D) v = – u – at

7)

(A)
(B)
(C) 0
(D) e

8) If radius of a spherical bubble starts to increase with time t as r = 0.5t. What is the rate of change
of volume of the bubble with time t = 4s?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

9) If x = at2 and y = 2at, then dy/dx

(A) t
(B) 1
(C) 1/t
(D) 0

10) Graph of y = 3x2 – 4x + 1 is

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

11) A particle moves along the x-axis and has its displacement x varying with time t according to the
equation

where c0 and c are constants of appropriate dimensions. Then, which of the following statements is
correct?

(A) the acceleration of the particle is 2c0

(B) the acceleration of the particle is 2c
(C) the initial velocity of the particle is 4c
(D) the acceleration of the particle is 2(c + c0)

12) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds
of its ascent is

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D) ut

13) The coordinates of a moving particle at time t are given by x = ct2 and y = bt2. The speed of
the particle is given by :–
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

14) A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then moves with velocity 4 m/s
for another 20 seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the
average velocity of the particle?

(A) 3 m/s
(B) 4 m/s
(C) 5 m/s
(D) zero

15) A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity (u) from the top of a tower. It strikes the
ground with a velocity 3u. The time taken by the ball to reach the ground is given by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16) A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with a speed of 3 m/s. The other half
of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively.
The average speed of the particle during this motion is :

(A) 4.0 m/s

(B) 5.0 m/s
(C) 4.8 m/s
(D) 5.5 m/s

17) Acceleration-time plot of a particle undergoing one dimensional motion is given:

Determine average acceleration for the interval t = 0 to t =

20s.
(A) 0
(B) 2 m/s2
(C) 10 m/s2
(D) 5 m/s2

18) Equation of motion of a body moving along

x-axis at an instant t second is given by
x = 40 + 12t – t3. Displacement of the particle before coming to rest is :-

(A) 16 m
(B) 56 m
(C) 24 m
(D) 40 m

19) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration a versus time t is shown in the figure. The maximum

speed of the particle will be

(A) 80 ms–1
(B) 40 ms–1
(C) 18 ms–1
(D) 2 ms–1

20) A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position ‘x’ as a function of time ‘t’ is
given as x = (t3 – 6t2 + 20t + 15) m. The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes zero is :

(A) 4 m/s
(B) 8 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 6 m/s

SECTION-II

1)

A body is thrown up with a speed 49 m/s. It travels 5 m in the last second of its upward journey. If
the same body is thrown up with a velocity 98 m/s, how much distance (in m) will it travel in the last
second of its upward journey? (g = 10 m/s2)
2) A particle starts from rest from origin and moves along a straight line with an acceleration given
by a = 2(4 – x) where x is distance from starting point. Find the displacement of the particle when it
comes to rest again.

3) A balloon is going up with a velocity of 12 m/s. It releases a packet, when it is at a height of 65m
from the ground. How much time (in second) the packet will take to reach the ground if g =10 m/s2?

4) If f (x) = x2 + 2x + 5 then f '(2) is equal to 3K. What is the value of K?

5) Find the minimum value of

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Number of oxygen atoms in 46 g of N2O4 :

(A) NA
(B) 2NA
(C) 0.5NA
(D) 4NA

2) Number of molecules present is 1.7 g NH3(g) is :-

(A) 6.02 × 1023

(B) 6.02 × 1024
(C) 6.02 × 1022
(D) 6.02 × 1025

3) When an electron jumps from L to K shell

(A) Energy is absorbed

(B) Energy is released
(C) Energy is neither absorbed nor released
(D) Energy is sometimes absorbed and some times released

4) In order to prepare 500 mL of 0.2 M NaOH, the mass of NaOH required is

(A) 2 g
(B) 4 g
(C) 8 g
(D) 16 g
5) The nucleus of helium contains

(A) Four protons

(B) Four neutrons
(C) Two neutrons and two protons
(D) Four protons and two electrons

6) The value of plank’s constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. Which value
is closed to the wavelength in meters of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1.

(A) 3 × 107
(B) 2 × 10–25
(C) 5 × 10–18
(D) 3.75 × 10–8

7) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic weight = 10) and 50%
of element Y (atomic weight = 20) is

(A) XY
(B) X2Y
(C) XY2
(D) X3Y

8) The e/m ratio is maximum for :-

(A) D+
(B) He+
(C) H+
(D) He2+

9) Which of the following statement is correct :

(A) 1 mole of electrons has 1.6 × 10–19 C of charge

(B) 1 mole of electrons weighs 0.54 mg
(C) 1 mole of electrons weighs 5.4 mg
(D) 1 mole of electrons weighs 0.54 kg

10) An organic compound on analysis give the following data : C = 57.82%, H = 3.6% and rest is
oxygen. Its vapour density is 83, then calculate its molecular formula ?

(A) C8H6O6
(B) C8H6O4
(C) C4H3O2
(D) C6H6O6

11) Total no. of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are :-

(A) 3 NA
(B) 20 NA
(C) 24 NA
(D) None

12) At STP 5.6 litre of a gas weighs 60 gm. The vapour density of gas is

(A) 60
(B) 120
(C) 30
(D) 240

13) 20 moles of A and 14 moles of B are mixed and allowed to react according to the equation
A + 2B → 3C
What is the maximum number of moles of C which could be prepared :-

(A) 14
(B) 13
(C) 7
(D) 21

14) Ribose has the formula C5H10O5. What is the mass of ribose sample containing 1.25 × 1024 carbon
atoms :-

(A) 23.9 g
(B) 1.99 g
(C) 150.1 g
(D) 62 g

15) The mass of one molecule of C3H8 (propane), in gram, is :-

(A) 44
(B) 44 × 6 × 10–23

(C)

(D)

16) Mole fraction of ethanol in ethanol-water mixture is 0.25. Hence, percentage concentration of
ethanol (C2H6O) by weight of mixture is :-

(A) 25
(B) 75
(C) 46
(D) 54
17) Rakesh needs 1.71gm of sugar (C12H22O11) to sweeten his tea. What would be the number of
carbon atoms present in his tea?

(A) 3.6 × 1022

(B) 7.2 × 1021
(C) 0.05 × 1023
(D) 6.6 × 1022

18)

200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(A) 56 gm
(B) 200 gm
(C) 100 gm
(D) 112 gm

19) If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed ?

(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4

20) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively

(A) 20, 30
(B) 30, 20
(C) 40, 30
(D) 60, 40

SECTION-II

1) A 448 L vessel contains O2(g) & CO2(g) in 2 : 3 mole ratio at 1 atm & 0°C. Calculate the number of
moles of CO2(g) present in the vessel. Fill your answer as sum of digits (excluding decimal
places) till you get the single digit answer.

2) Calculate the number of Na+ ion present in 710 mg of Na2SO4 in aqueous solution.
"(NA = 6 × 1023)"
If your answer is x × 10y then fill ‘x’ in OMR. Where ‘x’ is single digit number.

3) A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. It's vapour density is 70 the value of x must be:
4) Wavelength of radio waves is 124 nm. Total number of photons per second produced by a source
that consumes energy at the rate of 16W is x × 1019. The value of x is -

5) On a metal with work function 2.0 eV light of wavelength 400nm falls, maximum velocity of
ejected photoelectrons are 6.22 × 10x m/s. Hence x is.

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1)

Solution set of is given by

(A) (–∞, –4) ∪ [–2, –1]

(B) (–∞, –4) ∪ (–2, –1)
(C) (–4, –3) ∪ (–3, –2] ∪ [–1,∞]
(D) (–4, –3) ∪(–3, –2) ∪ (–1,∞)

2)

Number of integral value of ' x ' satisfying is

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

3) Complete solution of inequality ||3x – 9| + 2 | > 2 is

(A)
(B) {3}
(C) R–{3}
(D)

4)
then the number of positive integral values of x is

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 4
5) The value of 'x' satisfying the equation |x + 2| = 2(3 – x) is in the form of where a & b are co-
prime numbers, then values of (a + b) is equal to

(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 9
(D) 8

6) Number of real solution of the equations is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

7) The number of real solution of the equation |x2 + x + 3| = x + 3 is

(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 3

8) The complete solution set of the inequality is ?

(A) x > –1
(B) x > 1
(C) x < –1
(D) None of these

9)

The least integral value 'α' of x such that then α is equal to

(A) 6
(B) –7
(C) 2
(D) –6

10) If , then set of all values of x will be :

(A) [–1,2) – {0}

(B) (–1,1] ∪ [3,∞) ∪ {2}
(C)

(D) (–2,–1) ∪ (0,5) – {2}

11) Solution of x2 – 20x + 91 < 0 is

(A) x ∈ (1, 7)
(B) x ∈ (20, 91)
(C) x ∈ (7, 13)
(D) x ∈ (4, 5)

12) Value of when [.] is GIF

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 3.14
(D)

13) If |x – 1| + |x – 3| = 3 then sum of the all possible values of 'x' is

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

14) The number of solutions for the equation x2 – 5|x| + 6 = 0 is

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

15) Solve for x, the inequalities in

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16) If 'x' is an integer satisfying x2 – 6x + 5 ≤ 0 and x2 – 2x > 0 then the number of possible value of x
is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

17) The exhaustive set of , x ∈ R, is

(A) (3, ∞)
(B) (–1, 0) ∪ (3, ∞)
(C) [–1, 1] ∪ [3, ∞)
(D) None

18) Value of [–e2] equals to : (where [.] → G.I.F.) :

(A) 8
(B) –7
(C) –8
(D) –6

19) If , the solution set for the equation is :

(A) {–1, 3}
(B) {–1, 2}
(C) {2, 5}
(D) {3, 4}

20) If |x| = k, then for what value of k, does the equation has exactly two solution

(A)

(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) –2

SECTION-II

1) If x2 - 5x + 6 < 0 , then the [ x ] equal to (where [ . ] denotes greatest integer function)

2) Consider equation |x – 2| + 2|x – 5| = 7 then sum of solutions is

3) If , then p(–1) equals :

4) Number of positive integral value of ‘x’ satisfying is :

5) The value of {2} equals to (where {∙} denotes fractional part function)
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. D A B C A C C A C C D A D B B A A A B B

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 5.00 8.00 5.00 2.00 1.00

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B C B B C D B C B B B B D D C C A D A C

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3.00 6.00 5.00 1.00 5.00

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C D C B A B C A D B C B A A A B B C A B

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 2.00 8.00 2.00 2.00 0.00
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1) To be given

2)

3)

4) To be given

5) To be given

6) To be given

7)

8)

=
=

9)

10) y = 3x2 – 4x + 1
11)

12) The distance covered by the ball during the last t seconds of its upward motion = Distance

covered by it in first t seconds of its downward motion from

[As u = 0 for it downward motion]

13)

at t = 0
=
=

14)

t=0
t = 4s

15) From v = u + gt,

we have 3u = u + gt or 2u = gt or t = 2u/g.

16) Let the total distance be S. The time taken to travel the first half, i.e., S/2 is .
Let t2 be the time taken to cover a distance S1 with speed 4.5 m/s and t3 that to cover distance
S2 with speed 7.5 m/s.
Total time taken

17) Since, area under a-t plot upto t = 20s is zero. So, <a> = 0.

18) v =
t = 2s
t = 0 ; xi = 40
t = 2 ; xf = 40 + 24 – 8 = 56
displacement = Δx = xf – xi = 56 – 40 = 16m

19)

The area under the acceleration-time graph gives change in velocity.

∴ v – u = area under a – t graph 1

or
Here, u = 0 ∴ v = 40 m/s

20) x = t3 – 6t2 + 20t + 15

v = 3t2 – 12t + 20

a = 6t –12
When a = 0
6t – 12 = 0; t = 2 sec
At t = 2 sec
v = 3(2)2 – 12(2) + 20
v = 8 m/s

21)

22)

⇒ v2 = 16x – 2x2
B⇒v=0⇒x=8
 23)

24) f '(x) = 2x + 2
f '(2) = 2 × 2 + 2 = 6
3K = 6
K=2

25)
Therefore, minimum value = 1.

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)

Correct answer is B

27)

Correct answer is C
28)

Higher orbit to lower orbit electron release energy

Correct answer is B

29)

30)

31)

32)

33)

34)

Correct answer is B

35)

36) Question Explanation:

We are asked to find the total number of electrons present in 48 g of Mg2+ ions.
Given:
 Mass of Mg2+ = 48g
Molar mass of Mg = 24g/mol
Charge on Mg2+ = 2+ (which means it has lost 2 electrons from its neutral state)
Avogadro's number (Na) = 6.022 = 1023
Concept:
Total Number of Electrons present. calculation by mole concept.

Explanation
The number of males of Mg2+ is found by dividing the mass by the molar mass of magnesium.
Each Mg2+ ion has 10 electrons because it loses 2 electrons from its neutral state.
To find the total number of electrons, multiply the number of males by 10 electrons per Mg2+
ion and then by Avogadro's number.
Moles of Mg2+ = 48g/24 = 2 mol
Number of Mg2+ ions = 2 mol × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.2044 × 1024 ; ions
Total number of electrons = 1.2044 × 1024 × 10 = 20Na
Final Answer:
Correct Option: (2) 20Na

37)

MW = = 240

V.D =

38) A. Question Explanation:

The question involves a stoichiometry problem where we need to determine the limiting
reactant to calculate the maximum amount of product C that can be formed.

B. Given Data:

A. 20 moles of A
B. 14 moles of B
C. Reaction: A + 2B → 3C

C. Concept: Limiting Reagent (L.R.)

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of B needed to react with 20 moles of A: From the balanced equation, 1 mole of A
reacts with 2 moles of B. So, 20 moles of A would require 20 moles A × (2 moles B / 1 mole A)
= 40 moles of B.
B. Moles of A needed to react with 14 moles of B: From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B
react with 1 mole of A. So, 14 moles of B would require 14 moles B × (1 mole A / 2 moles B) =
7 moles of A.
C. Identifying the Limiting Reactant: We have 20 moles of A, and we only need 7 to react
completely with all the available B. We have 14 moles of B, but we need 40 to react completely
with all the available A. Therefore, B is the limiting reactant
D. Calculating Moles of C: Since B is the limiting reactant, we use its moles to determine the
moles of C formed. From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B produce 3 moles of C. Therefore,
14 moles of B will produce 14 moles B × (3 moles C / 2 moles B) = 21 moles of C.

E. Final Answer:
The maximum number of moles of C that can be prepared is 21. So, the correct option is 4

39)

Correct answer is D

40)

Correct answer is C

41)

Ans : 46

42) Question Explanation:

We are asked to find the number of carbon atoms in 1.71 g of sugar (C12H22O11) .

Given:
Mass of sugar = 1.71 g
Molar mass of C12H22O11 = 342 g/mol
We need to find the number of carbon atoms in the given mass of sugar.

Concept:

Number of moles of sugar =

Calculation:

Moles of sugar =
Moles of carbon = 0.005×12= 0.06mol
Number of carbon atoms = 0.6×6.022×1023 = 3.6 ×1022
Correct option: (1)

43)

Question Explanation :
200 g of CaCO3 is heated and decomposes into CaO and CO2. We need to find the weight of the
residue which is CaO.

Concept :
Use the molar masses and stoichiometry of decompositon.
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

Solution :
Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40 (Ca) + 3 × 16 (O) = 100 g/mol
Molar mass of CaO = 40 (Ca) + 16 (O) = 56 g/mol
From 100 g CaCO3, we get 56 g CaO residue.

So, from 200 g CaCO3 , CaO residue = = 112 g

Final Answer :
Option (4)

44) Explanation :
How many moles of water are formed when 1 mole of H2SO4 reacts with NaOH.

Given Data :
Mole of H2SO4 = 1 mole
NaOH in excess

Concept :
Stoichiometry based concept

Calculation :
Reaction :- H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
According to stoichiometry -
1 mole of H2SO4 react with NaOH, gives 3 mole of H2O

45)

46)

5x = 20 , x = 4

47)
no of Na+ ions = 2 × 5 × 10–3 × 6 × 1023
= 6 × 1021

48)

Correct answer is 5
 49) Question Explanation:
Find total number of photons produced per second.

Concept:
This question is based on Planck's quantum theory.

Solution:

Energy of one photon =

Consumed energy = 16 J/sec

Number of photons produced =

=
= 1 × 1019
= x × 1019
∴x=1

Final Answer: 1

50) KEmax = hv – w0

=
= 3.1 – 2
= 1.1 ev

× 9.1 × 10–31 × U2max = 1.1 × 1.6 × 10–19

Umax = 6.22 × 105 m/s

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51)

52)

Correct answer is D

53) |3x – 9| + 2 > 2 or |3x – 9| + 2 < –2

54)

Correct answer is B

55)

|x + 2| = 2 (3 – x) RH : 0
–(x+2) = 2(3–x) – 2 x+2 = 6–2x
– x– 2 = 6 – 2x 3x = 4
– x = 8 ∈ – 2x 3x = 4/3 ∈ (– 2, ∞)
Not acceptable acceptable

i.e
a+b=7

56)

Correct answer is B

57)

Correct answer is C

58)

Correct answer is A

59)

Correct answer is D

60)

Correct answer is B

61) x2 – 20x + 91 < 0

(x – 7) (x – 13) < 0
⇒ 7 < x < 13

62)

63) Correct answer is A

64) Given equation x2 – 5|x| + 6 = 0

i.e., x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 and x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
x2 – 3x – 2x + 6 = 0 and x2 + 3x + 2x + 6 = 0
(x – 3) (x – 2) = 0 and (x + 3).(x + 2) = 0
x = 3, x = 2 and x = –3, x = –2.
i.e., Four solutions of this equation.

65) Correct answer is A

66)

Correct answer is B

67)

x ∈ (–1, 0) ∪ (3, ∞)

68) [–e2] = –8

69) |3x – 1| = |x + 5|
⇒ (3x – 1)2 – (x + 5)2 = 0
⇒ 9x2 + 1 – 6x – x2 – 10x – 25 = 0
⇒ 8x2 – 16x – 24 = 0
x2 – 2x – 3 = 0
(x – 3) (x + 1) = 0
x = 3, –1

70) Correct answer is B

71)

Correct answer is 2

72) |x – 2| + 2|x – 5| = 7
(i) x > 5 x – 2 + 2 (x – 5) = 7
3x = 19

(ii) 2 < x < 5 x – 2 – 2x + 10 = 7

x = 1 (rej)
(iii) x < 2 –x + 2 – 2x + 10 = 7
3x = 5
∴

73)
Correct answer is 2

74)

Correct answer is 2

75)

Correct answer is 0