Radioactive Isotope Activity and Decay Analysis
Radioactive Isotope Activity and Decay Analysis
1 minutes.
(a) Complete the graph below by plotting the remaining points and drawing an appropriate
curve.
(3)
half-life ____________________
(3)
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(c) Initially there were 1.1 × 105 atoms of the isotope present. Calculate the decay probability
of the isotope.
A detector and counter are used to measure the count rate from a gamma source.
2
(a) Complete the graph to show how the corrected count rate will vary with the distance, d,
between the source and the detector. One point has been plotted. To complete the graph
accurately, you should perform a suitable calculation to determine the position of one other
point on the graph.
(2)
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(1)
(ii) State one means by which you would ensure that the measurement of count rate is
accurate.
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(1)
(Total 5 marks)
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(a) Sketch a graph to show how the activity of a radioactive sample changes with time. You are
3 not expected to give any numerical values.
(2)
(b) The activity of 5.0 × 1016 nuclei of a radioisotope is 1.1 × 1014 Bq. Calculate the probability
of decay for a nucleus of the sample.
(3)
(Total 5 marks)
(a) Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the main features of the apparatus used in the
4 scattering experiment that provided evidence for the existence of a positively charged
nucleus.
(3)
(b) Explain how the outcome of this experiment supports the model of atoms having a small
positively charged nucleus.
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(2)
(Total 5 marks)
(a) The exposure of the general public to background radiation has changed substantially over
5 the past 100 years.
State one source of radiation that has contributed to this change.
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(1)
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(b) A student measures background radiation using a detector and determines that
background radiation has a mean count-rate of 40 counts per minute. She then places a γ
ray source 0.15 m from the detector as shown below.
With this separation the average count per minute was 2050.
The student then moves the detector further from the γ ray source and records the
count-rate again.
(i) Calculate the average count-rate she would expect to record when the source is
placed 0.90 m from the detector.
(ii) The average count per minute of 2050 was determined from a measurement over a
period of 5 minutes. Explain why the student might choose to record for longer than 5
minutes when the separation is 0.90 m.
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(1)
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(iii) When the detector was moved to 0.90 m the count-rate was lower than that
calculated in part (b)(i). It is suggested that the source may also emit β particles.
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(2)
(Total 7 marks)
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(2)
(b) A student sets up the arrangement, shown in the diagram below, to demonstrate the
principle of moderation in a nuclear reactor.
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A golf ball of mass 50 g is initially hanging vertically and just touching a hockey ball of mass
150 g. The golf ball is pulled up to the side and released. It has a speed of 1.3 m s−1 when
it collides head-on with the hockey ball. After the collision the balls move in opposite
directions with equal speeds of 0.65 m s−1.
(i) Calculate the height above its initial position from which the golf ball is released.
Assume that there is no air resistance.
height ____________________ m
(2)
(ii) Show that momentum is conserved in the collision and that the collision is perfectly
elastic.
(4)
(iii) Calculate the percentage of the kinetic energy of the golf ball transferred to the
hockey ball during the collision.
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(iv) Explain how this demonstration relates to the moderation process in a reactor and
state one way in which the collisions in a reactor differ from the collision in the
demonstration.
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(2)
(v) Name the substance used as the moderator in a pressurised water reactor (PWR).
______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 13 marks)
In stars, helium-3 and helium-4 are formed by the fusion of hydrogen nuclei. As the temperature
7 rises, a helium-3 nucleus and a helium-4 nucleus can fuse to produce beryllium-7 with the
release of energy in the form of gamma radiation.
Nucleus Mass / u
Helium-3 3.01493
Helium-4 4.00151
Beryllium-7 7.01473
(a) (i) Calculate the energy released, in J, when a helium-3 nucleus fuses with a helium-4
nucleus.
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(ii) Assume that in each interaction the energy is released as a single gamma-ray
photon.
wavelength ____________________ m
(3)
(b) For a helium-3 nucleus and a helium-4 nucleus to fuse they need to be separated by no
more than 3.5 × 10–15 m.
(i) Calculate the minimum total kinetic energy of the nuclei required for them to reach a
separation of 3.5 × 10–15 m.
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(ii) Calculate the temperature at which two nuclei with the average kinetic energy for that
temperature would be able to fuse.
Assume that the two nuclei have equal kinetic energy.
temperature ____________________ K
(3)
(c) Scientists continue to try to produce a viable fusion reactor to generate energy on Earth
using reactors like the Joint European Torus (JET). The method requires a plasma that has
to be raised to a suitable temperature for fusion to take place.
(i) State two nuclei that are most likely to be used to form the plasma of a fusion reactor.
1. ____________________________________________________________
2. ____________________________________________________________
(2)
(ii) State one method which can be used to raise the temperature of the plasma to a
suitable temperature.
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(1)
(Total 16 marks)
Page 9 of 31
In a geothermal power station, water is pumped through pipes into an underground region of hot
8 rocks. The thermal energy of the rocks heats the water and turns it to steam at high pressure.
The steam then drives a turbine at the surface to produce electricity.
(a) Water at 21°C is pumped into the hot rocks and steam at 100°C is produced at a rate of
190 kg s–1.
(i) Show that the energy per second transferred from the hot rocks to the power station
in this process is at least 500 MW.
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(ii) The hot rocks are estimated to have a volume of 4.0 × 106 m3. Estimate the fall of
temperature of these rocks in one day if thermal energy is removed from them at the
rate calculated in part (i) without any thermal energy gain from deeper underground.
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(7)
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(b) Geothermal energy originates as energy released in the radioactive decay of the
uranium isotope U deep inside the Earth. Each nucleus that decays releases 4.2 MeV.
Calculate the mass of U that would release energy at a rate of 500 MW.
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(5)
(Total 12 marks)
, where r0 is a constant.
Element R/10–15 m A
carbon 2.66 12
silicon 3.43 28
iron 4.35 56
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(a) Use the data to plot a straight line graph and use it to estimate the value of r0.
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(8)
(b) Assuming that the mass of a nucleon is 1.67 × 10–27 kg, calculate the approximate density
of nuclear matter, stating one assumption you have made.
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(4)
(Total 12 marks)
A space probe contains a small fission reactor, fuelled by plutonium, which is designed to
10 produce an average of 300 W of useful power for 100 years. If the overall efficiency of the reactor
is 10%, calculate the minimum mass of plutonium required.
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(Total 7 marks)
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11 In the reaction shown, a proton and a deuterium nucleus, , fuse together to form a helium
nucleus,
A 5.0 MeV
B 5.5 MeV
C 6.0 MeV
D 6.5 MeV
(Total 1 mark)
For a nuclear reactor in which the fission rate is constant, which one of the following statements
12 is correct?
B For every fission event, there is, on average, one further fission event.
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13 The reaction shown below occurs when a proton and a deuterium nucleus, H, fuse to form a
P + H He + Q
If the energy released, Q, is 5.49 MeV, what is the mass of the helium nucleus?
A 0.00589 u
B 3.01494 u
C 3.02083 u
D 3.02323 u
(Total 1 mark)
Which line, A to D, in the table gives a combination of materials that is commonly used for
14 moderating, controlling and shielding respectively in a nuclear reactor?
(Total 1 mark)
Which one of the following statements is not true about the control rods used in a nuclear
15 reactor?
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Mark schemes
(a) all plots correct to ½ small square
1 deduct 1 mark for one incorrect, 2 marks for 2+ incorrect
B2
line appropriate
B1
3
B1
154 ± 10 s
B1
B1
3
[allow λ = ln 2/t ½ ]
C1
A1
2
[8]
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(a) curve that has intercept on activity axis at t = 0 (not 0,0)
3 B1
(b) A = λN or A = – λN or
substituted values 1.1 × 1014 / 5.0 × 1016
C1
2.2 × 10–3
A1
(b) some backscattered (> 90°) => α's and nuclei both +ve
B1
few deflections / most pass through ∴ nuclei small
B1
(2)
[5]
(a) nuclear fallout / testing / weapons / nuclear accidents / Chernobyl / nuclear waste / nuclear
5 medicine / X-rays / specific uses of radioactive sources eg medical tracers CT scan etc. /
cosmic rays as a result of air travel ✔
(Any source of radiation that an individual may encounter which would not have existed
100 years ago)
No mark for general answers such as ‘medical’ or Nuclear Power /
nuclear plant.
If a list is given all must be correct but ignore generalisations such
as medical or nuclear power.
1
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(b) (i) /15CCR = 2050 – 40 = 2010 ✔
Use of inverse square law eg ICCR90 = ICCR15 = 2010 × (0.15 / 0.90)2 = 55.8
I90CR = 55.8 + 40
(ii) (reduce impact of) random error / decrease the (percentage) uncertainty / improve the
statistics (because the percentage error is proportional to the inverse square-root of
the count) ✔ (owtte)
The answer must be an uncertainty related statement and not
increases reliability / accuracy or increased chance of a reading
(although these ideas can accompany a correct answer) Ignore
comparisons with the background count.
1
(iii) use (sensible) absorber between source and detector ✔ (sensible absorber means it
must have a noticeable effect e.g. 1mm of metal / aluminium sheet / 5mm perspex
but do not allow metal foil / paper sheets. Also its effect must not be so great that it
reduces the gamma rays noticeably)
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(a) ANY 2 from
6
• Slow moving neutrons or low (kinetic) energy neutrons
B1
B1
C1
A1
2
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(ii) Correct equation for conservation of momentum
m1u1 (+ m2u2)= m1v1 + m2v2
or states momentum before = momentum after or pbefore=
pafter
B1
B1
B1
B1
4
C1
OR
% remaining = 100 × ½ m(1.32 − 0.652)/ ½ m1.32
or hockey ball = 0.0317 and initial ke = 0.04225
or their KE hb / 0.04225 or their KEhb / their KET
75(%) range 75 to 76
A1
2
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(iv) Demonstrates:
Slowing down / loss of KE of golf ball is like neutrons slowed
down / Neutrons can lose KE by elastic collisions also
B1
Differs:
Collisions in a reactor are not always / rarely head-on
or
KE loss is variable
or
Collisions are not always elastic
or
Ratio of mass of neutron to mass of nucleus is usually much
smaller in a reactor
B1
2
(v) Water
B1
1
[13]
C1
C1
C1
A1
4
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(ii) Use of E=hc / λ ecf
C1
C1
A1
3
C1
C1
2.6(3) × 10−13 J
A1
3
(ii) Uses KE = 3 / 2 kT: or halves KET, KE= 1.3 × 10−13 (J) seen
ecf
C1
C1
6.35 × 109 (K) or 6.4 × 109 (K) or 6.28 × 109(K) or 6.3 × 109
(K) ecf
A1
3
B1
B1
2
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(ii) Electrical heating / electrical discharge / inducing a current in
plasma / use of e−m radiation / using radio waves (causing
charged particles to resonate)
B1
1
[16]
(a) (i) heat water to 100 °C, energy (= 190 × 4200 × 79) = 63 (MJ) (1)
8 vapourise water, energy
(=190 × 2.3 × l06) = 440(MJ) (1)
(437MJ)
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(b) number of nuclei in 1 kg of 238 U = (1)
(1)
5
[12]
9 (a)
r0 (= gradient)⅓ (1)
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alternative:
r0 = gradient (1)
= 1.1(2) × 10–15 m (1)
[or plot lnR against lnA...]
(max 8)
M= πR3ρ (1)
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100y = 100 × 365 × 24 × 3600 (= 3.15 × 109 s) (1)
10
energy needed = 3.15 × 109 × 300 (1) × 10 (1) (= 9.46 × 1012 J)
B
11
[1]
B
12
[1]
B
13
[1]
D
14
[1]
B
15
[1]
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Examiner reports
(a) Graph drawing was poor in this question. Data points were misplaced, curves were
1 inappropriate or, more commonly, simply careless with kinks and double lines that avoided
being truly best-fit.
(b) Many candidates failed to obtain full credit because they only made one determination of
the half-life. Two or more with a clear calculation of the mean value were required for full
credit. Most values were within the tolerance of ± 10 s. A common error (treated as a lost
determination) was to assume that the t = 0 s count-rate was 500 s–1 not the 480 that was
both clearly stated in the table and also shown on the graph.
(c) Although most could calculate the decay constant with some facility, a correct unit (indeed,
any unit at all) was rare. Candidates evidently do not recognise the physics here with any
clarity even though they can jump through the arithmetic hoop.
(a) This was well answered by the majority of candidates. Weaker candidates were penalised
3 for showing no activity value at zero time or the curve intersecting the time axis or curving
upwards.
(b) Nearly all candidates were able to write down the equation for the probability of decay but
many confused the activity with the number of nuclei and calculated the reciprocal of the
correct answer. Few candidates gave the correct unit for probability of decay (s−1 ) and
many quoted their answer as a percentage.
(a) Virtually no candidates gained full marks for a description of the alpha scattering
4 experiment. Most candidates seemed unaware of the need for the chamber to be
evacuated and many failed to describe the scatterer as being a foil. Many candidates
simple regurgitated the well-love diagram of alpha particles approaching a nucleus at
different alignments.
(b) The description of the analysis of the alpha scattering results was often incomplete and not
helped when, in many cases, candidates referred to the bombarding particles as protons,
neutrons, electrons or as having a negative charge. This last version left candidates trying
to describe the repulsion of negative particles by positive nuclei – inevitable doomed from
the outset!
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(a) Acceptable answers were seen regularly and showed that many students understood the
5 nature of the question about how modern military, industrial and medical practices and also
the increased use of air travel by the public have led to an average increase in exposure to
background radiation. A significant number of students failed to gain the mark by being too
brief. They gave answers like, 'medicine' or 'flying'. With a few more words these could
have been converted into scoring answers. There were also some students that simply
quoted a source of background radiation such as 'cosmic rays' and 'radon gas'.
(b) (i) A majority of students could use the inverse relationship correctly. The main problem
came in dealing with the background. About half subtracted the background from the
2050 but following the calculation very few of those added the background to obtain
the expected reading.
(ii) A large number of students failed to refer to the randomness of the count-rate in any
respect. They instead focused on the number of counts being reduced because of
the distance from the source. Alternatively some tried to express the idea that the
background had more effect at larger distances. The idea that a larger count helps
reduce the statistical percentage uncertainty inherent in smaller readings proved too
much for the vast majority of students.
(iii) A range of approaches were accounted for within the mark scheme and a range of
responses were seen. The most direct, common and successful approach was the
use of a sensible absorber placed between the source and detector. There were a
number of students who did not know the approximate thickness of a material that
would absorb most of the beta particles. The most common alternative approach was
to consider the count- rate fall with distance. Using this approach a majority did not
compare the count-rate with the expected inverse square function in and out of the
range of beta particles. Most simply thought the count-rate would suddenly fall as the
detector moved out of range of the beta particles. While some non-standard
approaches could gain full marks, such as the use of magnetic/electric fields and
cloud chambers, students were expected to say exactly how the nature of the
suspected beta radiation would be revealed which proved too much for the majority
who took these routes.
(a) The majority of candidates were able to score at least 1 mark in this explanation. Only the
6 best candidates were producing quality answers that gained full credit. Many candidates
were unfamiliar with the term and offered answers suggesting that these were neutrons
that were produced due to heat.
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(b) (i) Surprisingly, only 50% of candidates gained full marks here. A significant proportion
of candidates attempted to use the equations of motion and consequently were
awarded no marks. Candidates must be aware that these equations only apply to
situations were acceleration is constant. Some candidates lost marks by rounding the
final answer to 1 significant figure. Many lower achieving candidates failed to
(ii) This was another “Show that...” style question and again it posed problems for many
candidates with just over 20% of candidates gaining 3 or 4 marks. A very large
proportion of candidates did not attempt the elastic collision part of the question and
limited themselves to 2 marks. Many of these candidates had difficulty with the vector
nature of momentum and their signs were often inconsistent or incorrect. Grade A
candidates typically presented well laid out workings that were easy-to-follow,
convincing.
(iii) Most candidates achieved both marks here. However, some had casual use of
powers of 10 errors on their KE calculations due to keeping the mass in grams. This
of course cancelled due to the ratio aspect of the question. A number of candidates
thought that 25% was the answer; this was due to not reading the question carefully
enough.
(iv) Most candidates gained 1 mark for stating how the demonstration related to the
moderation process. Only a small number of candidates were able to develop their
answer by providing information that was more than the converse of the information
provided, thus demonstrating a sound knowledge of the moderation process.
(v) Just under 80% of candidates knew that water was the moderator in a PWR. A few
candidates incorrectly thought that the moderator was heavy water.
(a) (i) These calculations were well known and competently completed by the vast majority
7 of candidates. Where mistakes occurred these were more common in part (i) with
significant number of candidates failing to convert their mass to kg or forgetting to
square the speed of light in E = m c2.
(ii) As above.
(b) (i) These calculations proved to be good discriminators with only the better candidates
able to achieve all 6 marks. There were a significant number of non-attempts, 10%
for this part.
(ii) There were a significant number of non-attempts, 23% for this part. There were lots of
mistakes in the formula for potential energy with r2 instead of r. Candidates were
unsure about how to proceed in this part with many neglecting to divide the total
kinetic energy by 2.
(c) (i) Just over 30% of candidates could recall that H-2 and H-3 were most likely. The most
common answer seen was hydrogen and helium.
(ii) Candidates enjoyed more success in this part with over 50% able to state a method
used to heat the plasma in the JET reactor.
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The calculation, in part (a) (i), of the energy needed to heat the water and to turn it to steam at
8 100°C was usually done correctly. Some failed by choosing an incorrect temperature change. In
part (ii), many candidates obtained full marks although some correctly worked out the
temperature change per second, but did not proceed to calculate the temperature change in one
day. A small minority of candidates used an incorrect density formula or an incorrect value of the
specific heat capacity.
In part (b) most candidates knew how to convert MeV into joules correctly and used the given
mass number correctly. They also knew how to calculate the total activity of the rocks from the
energy released per second and the energy released per decay. Many of these candidates
correctly used their activity value and the decay constant, worked out from the half-life, to
calculate the total number of atoms and their mass. Some lost a mark in their calculation of the
decay constant as a result of not converting the half-life into seconds. A significant number of
candidates considered their answer for the total activity to be the total number of atoms and
consequently lost two marks because they failed to use the total activity and the decay constant
to calculate the total number of atoms.
Almost all the candidates realised how to find r0 by graphical techniques. The most common
9
approach was to plot R against As expected, the weaker candidates misused of powers of 10
and surprisingly, gave incorrect units for r0.
Part (b) was generally done well, but many mistakes were seen in using standard form
calculations leading to ludicrous values of density. Some candidates did not know the equation
for density and “density = mass × volume” was not an uncommon statement.
Even weaker candidates often scored high marks in this question although, conversely, if a
10 question was omitted then it was usually this one. Mistakes in calculating the number of seconds
in a year were common, with much unnecessary concern about leap years and some uncertainty
about the number of weeks or days in a year. Commonly, the number of moles was calculated
correctly, although occasionally it was equated to the mass in kg, and most candidates could
then convert to the mass in g or kg. Some candidates dropped a mark for forgetting the 10%
efficiency, and those who gave no indication of their reasoning were penalised one mark,
although they often penalised themselves by losing the thread. Again, candidates who got
ridiculous answers, often by misplacing the Avogadro constant, rarely bothered to check.
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