SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

IQ

1. A big cube of side 6 cm is colored in a way that two adjacent surfaces are Red, two adjacent surfaces are blue
and two adjacent surfaces are unpainted. Then it is divided into small cubes of side 1 cm. How many small cubes
have no surface painted?
(1) 100 (2) 98
(3) 64 (4) 96
2. Three positions of a same dice are given below. Which symbol will come in place of "?"

(1) ϕ (2) # (3) α (4) ₹

3. Take the given statement(s) as true and decide which of the conclusion logically follows from the statements
Statement : All Bikes are Cars
No Car is Scooty
Some Scooty are Bus
All Train are Bus
Conclusions : (I) No Bike is Scooty
(II) Some Scooty are Trains
(III) No Car is Bus
(IV) Some Bus are not Car
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusion IV follows
(3) Only conclusion I & IV follow
(4) None follow
4. If in a month of December, there are exactly four Tuesday and four Friday, then what will be the first day of the
following year?
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday
(3) Friday (4) Cannot Determine
5. If in a coding language JANUARY is written as 44, JULY is written as 26, then in same coding language
AUGUST will be written as?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 1/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
6. How many triangles are in the given figure?

(1) 48 (2) 52 (3) 50 (4) 54

7. Find the missing number

(1) 383 (2) 483 (3) 384 (4) 484

8. Read the information given below to answer the questions that follow
(i) X % Y means X is mother of Y
(ii) X @ Y means X is husband of Y
(iii) X ≠ Y means X is daughter of Y
(iv) X $ Y means X is father of Y
Which of the following expressions indicates "M is sister of N"?
(1) M ≠ W@N%V (2) M$V ≠ W@N (3) M@V ≠ W$N (4) M ≠ W@V%N
9. If in a coding language
BEST OF LUCK = 32
ALL THE BEST = 36
NONE OF THE ABOVE = 120
then BUY ONE GET ONE FREE = ?
(1) 56 (2) 324 (3) 216 (4) 125
10. A person was facing East. He moves 20 m in East then take left turn & move 40 m. The he turn back & moves
100 m. Then he turns 225° clockwise & moves 1000 m and finally turn 135° anticlockwise. At last he was
facing -
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South
11. Samyak was born on third Monday of October 2000, the first day of this year being Saturday. What is the date of
birth of Samyak?
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17
12. What will be the angle between minute and hour hand at 20 minutes past 4?
(1) 0° (2) 5° (3) 10° (4) 20°
13. How many times the hour and minute hands of a clock form angles of 0 degree, 90 degree and 180 degree
respectively between 11 am to 5 pm?
(1) 6, 12, 6 (2) 5, 11, 6 (3) 6, 12, 5 (4) 5, 12, 6

2/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
14. In a coding language "MOUSE" is written as "NRZZN", "CLASS" is written as "DOFZB" then how will word
"HINDI" is written in that code?
(1) ILSRK (2) ISLRK (3) SILRK (4) ILSKR
15. In a coding language "TRAIN" is written as "MRZIG", "BIKE" is written as "VPRY" then what will be the code
for word "CHETAK"?
(1) PZVGSX (2) PZGVSX (3) ZPGVSX (4) PZXSVG
16. How many rectangles in the given figure?

(1) 120 (2) 122 (3) 124 (4) More than 124
17. If all the following given dices are standard dice, then what will be the sum of the numbers present on bottom
surface of each dice?

(1) 17 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 18

18. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question
K is 28 m to the East of J. C is 10m to the West of I. Point I is the midpoint of points C and B, such that points C,
I and B form a straight line. A is 12m to the South of point B.
A person moves 20m from point A in West, then what is his distance from point C?
(1) 12m (2) 24m (3) 10m (4) 5m
19. If 431514 is 810
356291 is 1412
782584 is 1719
then 964248 is ?
(1) 1915 (2) 9411 (3) 1419 (4) 1914
20. Read the given information carefully and answer the given question below
E # F means E is neither smaller nor equal to F
E * F means E is neither greater nor equal to F
E % F means E is equal to F
E @ F means E is not smaller than F
E © F means E is not greater than F
Statement : G © J @ I # W
Conclusion : (I) G % I (II) J # W
(1) Only conclusion (I) follow (2) Only conclusion (II) follow
(3) Both conclusion I & II follow (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follow

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 3/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
PHYSICS

21. A particle is moving along x-axis, its “v2 – t” graph is shown below. The acceleration at t = 1sec is :

1
(1) √ 2 m/s2 (2) m/s2
√ 2
1 2
(3) m/s2 (4) 2 m/s
2
22. A particle is moving along x axis with constant acceleration. At t = 0 sec, the particle is at x = 3 m and dx
= + 4 m/s.
dt
The maximum value of x coordinate of the particle is observed 2 sec later. Starting from t = 0 sec after what time
particle reaches its initial position again
(1) 4 sec (2) 6 sec
(3) 8 sec (4) 12 sec
23. A particle is projected with velocity v0 along x – axis from origin. The deceleration on the particle is proportional
to the square of the distance from the origin i.e., a = – α x2. The distance at which the particle stops is:
1
3v0 3v0 3
(1) √ (2) ( )
2α 2α
1

3v20 3v20 3

(3) √ (4) ( )
2α 2α

24. A particle starts from A with constant speed v on the circle of radius R. Find the magnitude of average velocity
from A to B:

2v 2√2v
(1) (2)
π 3π
2√2v v
(3) (4) πR
π

4/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI

25. A particle is projected as shown in figure. If the particle strikes at the wall after 1 sec, then the ratio x
y
will be
(approximately)

(1) 1 (2) 1.6

(3) 2.6 (4) 3

26. A swimmer swims in a flowing river,

→vs,r = velocity of swimmer w.r.t. river water,
→vr,g = velocity of river water w.r.t. ground and
→vs,g = velocity of swimmer w.r.t. ground
The swimmer intends to reach at the opposite bank of the river. It is possible only when :-
(1) vr,g > vs,r (2) vr,g < vs,r

(3) vs,g > vs,r (4) none of the above

27. A body is released from the top of a tower of height H m. After 2 s it is stopped and then instantaneously
released. What will be its height after next 2 s? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) (H – 5)m (2) (H – 100)m
(3) (H – 20)m (4) (H – 40)m

28. The position of a particle moving in a straight line is described by the relation, x = 5 + 16 t – 4t2. Here x is in
meters and t in seconds. The distance covered by particle in first 5 seconds is :
(1) 52 m (2) 57 m
(3) 15 m (4) 21 m

29. x – t graph for a uniformly accelerated motion is as shown in the figure. Then find the average velocity between
points J and K

(1) 3m/s (2) 2m/s

(3) 4 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 5/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
30. A person initially at rest throws a ball upward at an angle θ 0 with horizontal with an initial speed v0. He tries to
catch the ball by accelerating with a constant acceleration. He catches the ball at exactly the same height he
threw the ball. Let g be the gravitational acceleration. Which of the following graphs represents the above
situation?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

31. In the arrangement shown in the figure, mass of the block B and A is '2m' and 'm' respectively. Surface between
B and the floor is smooth. The block B is connected to the block C by means of a string-pulley system. If the
whole system is released, then find the minimum value of mass of block C so that A remains stationary w.r.t. B.
Coefficient of friction between A and B is µ.

m 2m + 1 3m 6m
(1) μ (2) (3) (4)
μ +1 μ −1 μ +1
32. A sphere of mass 'm' is kept in equilibrium with the help of several springs as shown in the figure. Measurements
→
show that one of the springs applies a force F on the sphere. With what acceleration the sphere will move
immediately after this particular spring is cut?

→
F
(1) Zero (2)
m
→
F
(3) − (4) Insufficient information
m

6/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
CHEMISTRY

33. Which of the following statement is not correct:

(1) Atomic no. of A, B, C are 40,57, 105 respectively.

(2) Group no of A, B, C are III B, IV B and V B respectively.
(3) Period no of A, B, C are, 4th, 5th and 6th respectively.
(4) C is a radioactive element
34. Which is correct statement according to MOT.
(1) The order of energies of molecular orbitals in F2 molecule is π b 2px > σ b 2 p z
(2) Be2 is stable molecule
(3) Bond strength of N2 is minimum amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules
(4) Same bond order of two species mean they have same bond energy

35. In a photoelectric effect experiment, irradiation of a metal with light of frequency 5.4 × 1014 s –1 yields electrons
with maximum kinetic energy 3.313 × 10 –19 J. Calculate the threshold frequency ( ν 0) for the metal.
(h = 6.626 × 10 –34 J sec)
(1) 4 × 1013 Hz

(2) 3 × 1014 Hz

(3) 1 × 1012 Hz

(4) 2 × 1013 Hz

36. The correct order of Basic nature is shown by :-

(1) Li2O < BeO < B2O3 < CO2 < N2O5
(2) Li2O > BeO > B2O3 > CO2 > N2O5
(3) B2O3 < Li2O < CO2 < BeO < N2O5
(4) B2O3 < Li2O < BeO < N2O5 < CO2

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 7/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
37. Which of the following relation is correct for Nitrogen element.
Here P = Period number of Nitrogen
N = Number of valence electrons in Nitrogen
(1) (P + 1) > N (2) (P + 1) < N
(3) (P + 1) = N (4) P = N
38. For conversion of N2O4 → 2NO2 degree of dissociation of N2O4 is 0.5. Find molecular weight of this mixture ?
(1) 57.5 (2) 65.7
(3) 61.3 (4) 51.3

39. In a ABxLy (sp3d-Hybridisation of A) have Linear shape geometry. What will be the geometry of molecule if A
forms AByLx type molecule ?
(B = Bond, L = Lone pair)
(1) ''T'' shape (2) See-saw
(3) T.B.P. (4) Linear

40. Correct order of extent of overlapping is :-

(1) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p
(2) 2p – 2p > 2p – 2s > 2s – 2s
(3) 1s – 1s < 2s – 2s < 3s – 3s
(4) 3s – 3s > 3s – 3p > 3p – 3p

41. Chloride of metal is MCl. The formula of its carbonate will be :-

(1) M2CO3 (2) M3(CO3)2
(3) M2(CO3)3 (4) MCO3
42. The bond order of H2 and He2 are respectively :
(1) 0, 1 (2) 1, 0
(3) 0.5, 0.5 (4) 0.5, 0
43. 20 g of a compound containing 4 nitrogen atoms per molecule on combustion gives 2.8 g of N2 gas. Molecular
mass of compound is :
(1) 200 (2) 400
(3) 600 (4) 800
44. Total number of elements of 6th period which have one or more than one 4p electrons :-
(1) 10 (2) 16
(3) 32 (4) zero

8/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
BIOLOGY
[NEET-UG Student Will Attempt Biology Only]
45. Specificity of a protein in enzyme action depends upon:
(1) Active sites (2) Linear sequence of amino acids
(3) Km constant (4) Turnover number
46. Saasha, a student of class X, while working on a project, found that more than 50% of world population
experience some form of "Lactose intolerance". In further enquiry she found that the condition is due to an
"enzyme A" related to lactose digestion.
Enzyme A mentioned above belongs to which class ?
(1) Oxidoreductases (2) Transferases (3) Hydrolases (4) Lyases
47. Five products are formed from five substrates by one enzyme in five minutes.
What can be found after 10 minutes in a test tube containing thirty substrates and two enzymes?
(1) Products and 10 catalysed molecules of substrate only
(2) Only products
(3) 10 uncatalysed molecules of substrate, enzymes and products
(4) Products and enzymes only
48. In the absence of enzyme "carbonic anhydrase", 200 molecules of H2CO3 formed in an hour when carbon
dioxide reacts with water. But the enzyme accelerate this reaction by about 10 million times. This is achieved by
(1) Increasing the thermal stability of substrate
(2) Increasing energy difference between product and transition state
(3) Lowering down the energy difference between substrate and product
(4) Lowering down the energy difference between substrate and a specific altered structural state
49. Select the set of correct statements for given figure.

(A) Oil gland is present at the base of tail.

(B) Crop and gizzard are present in digestive tract.
(C) It is poikilothermic animal.
(D) Air sacs connect to lungs to supplement the respiration.
(1) Only A and B (2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A, B and D (4) ABC and D

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 9/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
50. Labeo, Pila, Saccoglossus, Pheretima, Bombyx, Felis, Canis, Rana, Apis, Trygon, Ascidia
How many of these have closed circulatory system ?
(1) Five (2) Six
(3) Three (4) Seven
51. In which of the following groups, all animals are monoecious ?
(1) Tapeworm, Nereis, Pheretima
(2) Leech, Tapeworm, Earthworm
(3) Ascaris, Tapeworm, Earthworm
(4) Star fish, Pheretima, Sepia

52. How many have 2-chambered heart and Scaly skin ?

Cuttle fish, Flying fish, Dog fish, Hag fish, Angel fish
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five

53. Assertion (A) :- Hemichordates are placed as separate phylum under non-chordates.
Reason (R) :- They have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called stomochord, which was found to be
not notochord.
(1) A & R both correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) A & R both correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

54. Notochord is present in all, except

(1) Larva of Ascidia
(2) Adult Salpa
(3) Larva of Branchiostoma
(4) Adult of Pristis

55. Statement-1: Ctenophores reproduce only sexually.

Statement-2: Development is direct in these animals.
(1) Both Statements true.
(2) Both Statements false.
(3) Only statement-1 true.
(4) Only statement-2 true.

10/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
56. Identify the following cells of connective tissue.

(1) a = plasma cells ; c = macrophage ; d = lymphocyte

(2) a = plasma cells ; b = macrophage ; d = lymphocyte
(3) b = macrophage ; c = fibroblast ; d = monolocular adipocyte
(4) b = macrophage ; c = fibroblast ; d = multilocular adipocyte
57. How many statements are true for loose connective tissue in the following ?
(i) Cells and fibers are loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance.
(ii) Areolar tissue serves as a supporting framework for epithelial tissue.
(iii) It is found beneath the skin.
(iv) It is found in tendon and ligament.
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One
58. The type of cell junction, which facilitates cell to cell communication with rapid transfer of ions is :-
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction
(3) Gap junction (4) Desmosomes
59. In the given four statements, select the options which includes all the incorrect ones :-
(a) Secretory duct is present in endocrine glands and secretes hormones
(b) Mammary glands can be found in Pteropus
(c) Mucous glands present in the skin helps in respiration in Reptiles
(d) Salivary glands are unicellular glands
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d (4) b, d
60. Select the option of location in which the given epithelium is found :-

(1) PCT (2) Wall of blood vessels

(3) Lining of stomach (4) Fallopian tubes

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 11/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
MATHEMATICS
[JEE Student Will Attempt Mathematics Only]
61. If α , β , γ are the roots of x3 + x + 1 = 0, then the value of α 3 + β 3 + γ 3 + 3 is :
(1) 0 (2) 3
(3) – 3 (4) None
62. If for all real values of a, one root of the equation x2 – 3ax + f(a) = 0 is double of the other. Then, f(3) equals :
(1) 6 (2) 9
(3) 18 (4) 2 √3

63. For which of the following graphs of quadratic expression f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, the term a
is positive :
bc

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

64. If x+7
+
3x + 1
> 0, then the smallest integral value of x is :
x−5 2
(1) 1 (2) – 2 (3) 2 (4) 4

65. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 – 2x – 5 = 0, then the equation whose roots are α
and
β
is :
α −1 β −1
(1) 6x2 – 12x + 5 = 0 (2) 2x2 + 8x – 5 = 0
(3) – 2x2 + 8x – 5 = 0 (4) 6x2 + 12x – 5 = 0

66. The equation π –x = – 2x2 + 6x – 9 has :

(1) one solution (2) two solution
(3) infinite solution (4) No solution

67. If both the roots of the equation x2 – 6ax + 2 – 2a + 9a2 = 0 exceeds 3, then least integral value of 'a' is :
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

12/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI

68.
3 4
x2 (3x − 4) (x − 2)
The number of positive integral solution of ≤ 0 is :
(x − 5)5 (2x − 7)6
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) Only one

69. If 1
x
< π , then x satisfies :
1
(1) ( , π) (2) ( – ∞ , ∞ )
π
1 1
(3) ( – ∞ , 0) ∪ π , ∞( ) (4) (
π
, ∞)

70.
2 4
(x + 1) (x − 1)
The solution set of inequality ≤ 0 is :
x102 (x + 9)1000
(1) [ – 1, 1] (2) ( – 1, 1) (3) ϕ (4) { – 1, 1}

71. If the equations x2 + px + q = 0 (p, q ϵ R) and x3 + 3x2 + 5x + 3 = 0 have two roots common, then the value of
p+q
is :
q−p
(1) 1 (2) – 1 (3) 3 (4) 5

72. If α , β , γ are distinct real numbers such that,

a α 2 + b α + c = (sin θ ) α 2 + (cos θ ) α
a β 2 + b β + c = (sin θ ) β 2 + (cos θ ) β
a γ 2 + b γ + c = (sin θ ) γ 2 + (cos θ ) γ .
Then range of (a + b) is :
(1) [ −√2, √2] (2) [ – 1, 1] (3) [ – 2, 2] (4) [0, 1]

73. Let Sn denotes the sum of n terms of an A.P. If S2n = 3Sn, then the value of S3n
Sn
equals :
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

74. The sum of 'n' terms of series

1 4 3 2
1·4·7 + 4·7·10 + 7·10·13 + ....... = (an + bn + cn + dn), then a + b + c + d equals :
4
(1) 100 (2) 212 (3) 112 (4) – 112

75. Minimum value of

an
bn
+
bn
cn
+
cn
an
, (for real positive numbers, a, b, c) and n ∈ N is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

76. The largest common term to the arithmetic progressions 3, 7, 11, .... 407 and 2, 9, 16, ....709 is :
(1) 14 (2) 387 (3) 397 (4) 487

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 13/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
ACHIEVER SECTION
According to your stream selection, you can attempt Mathematics or Biology. NEET-UG students must attempt
Biology (Question No. 89-96) and skip Mathematics, while JEE students must attempt Mathematics (Question No.
97-104) and skip Biology.
77. An airplane is moving horizontally with constant acceleration 5 m/s2 with a block of mass 2kg is hanging with it,
which is at rest w.r.t. plane find angle θ which string makes with vertical?

(1) tan θ = 2 (2) cot θ = 2 (3) 1 (4) 1

sin θ = cos θ =
2 2
78. In the figure shown (neglecting friction and mass of pulleys), what is the acceleration of mass B?
(g = acceleration due to gravity)

g 5g
(1) 3
(2)
2
2g
(3) g (4)
5
79. In the figure shown, initially spring is relaxed. Spring constant of spring is k = 100 N/m. Find minimum value of
µ (coefficient of friction) between surface & block so that block remains in equilibrium in final stage :-

(1) µ = 0.1 (2) µ = 0.2

(3) µ = 0.4 (4) µ = 0.5

14/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
80. A block lying on a long horizontal conveyor belt moving at a constant velocity receives a velocity 6 m/s relative
to the ground in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the conveyor. After t = 2 sec, the velocity of
the block becomes equal to the velocity of the belt. The coefficient of friction between the block and the belt is
0.4. Then the speed of the conveyor belt is :-

(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s (3) 3 m/s (4) 6 m/s

81. In the diagram shown, neglect mass of string and friction between pulleys and string. Masses of both the free
pulleys are 1 kg each and the fixed pulley is massless. Tension in the string is :-

(1) 6N (2) 8N (3) 10 N (4) Zero

82. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction, which suggests that
(1) Action and reaction always act on different bodies
(2) The forces of action and reaction cancel to each other
(3) The forces of action and reaction cannot cancel to each other
(4) Both (1) and (3)
83. Which of the following set of atomic number represents representative elements :-
(1) 5,13,30,53 (2) 11,33,58,84 (3) 5,17,31,54 (4) 9,31,53,83
84. Which systematic diagram correctly defines the given change ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 15/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
85. Haemoglobin contains 0.167% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is approximately 67200.
The number of iron atoms (Atomic mass of Fe is 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin is –
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 2
86. Correct order of Bond angle is
(1) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2 – (2) BeCl2 > BF3 < CF4
(3) NH4+ < NH3 < NH2 – (4) OCl2 > OH2 > OF2
87. Calculate the number of atoms present in one drop of water having mass 36 mg.
[dH2O = 1 gm/mL]
(1) 0.3 NA (2) 0.03 NA (3) 0.006 NA (4) 0.0003 NA
88. Select correct diagram about the size of isoelectronic ions :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

89. If a meiocyte has 2n = 24 chromosomes and DNA content is 2C then correct option for each cell of dyad of cells
is
(1) n = 12, C (2) 2n = 24, 4C (3) n = 12, 2C (4) n = 12, 4C
90. Consider the given two statements:
I. During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.
II. During G2 phase, tubulin proteins are synthesized and cell growth continues.
Of the two statements:
(1) Both I and II are correct. (2) Both I and II are incorrect.
(3) Only I is correct. (4) Only Il is correct.
91. If the number of tetrads are 23 during meiosis, what shall be number of chromosomes in each nucleus of
telophase I and anaphase II?
(1) 23, 23 (2) 23, 46 (3) 46, 23 (4) 46, 46
92. A new bacterium isolated from fresh water body was found to have a generation time of 35 minutes. If 105 cells
are allowed to divide for 3 hours 30 minutes, number of cells at the end of this time would be
(1) 35 × 105 cells (2) 6 × 105 cells
(3) 64 × 105 cells (4) 210 × 105 cells
16/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
93. Statement-1 : In meiosis, DNA replication occurs once whereas centriolar duplication occurs twice.
Statement-2 : Crossing over occurs in the stage that lasts up to months or years in oocytes of some vertebrates.
(1) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is also true but statement-2 is not correct explanation of
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are false.
94. In the following diagram of a cell undergoing meiosis, assume that crossing over occurs only at the chiasma
indicated

Which of the following gametes will not be formed from this cell ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

95. Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option :-
(A) Zygotene – Pairing of non homologous chromosomes
(B) Pachytene – Bivalent clearly visible
(C) Diplotene – Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads
(D) Diakinesis – Terminalization of chiasmata takes place
(1) A & C (2) A & D (3) A & B (4) B & D
96. Select the incorrect statement :-
(1) Cell plate formation occurs in plant cell during cytokinesis
(2) Direction of cytokinesis in plant cell is centripetal
(3) Liquid endosperm of coconut is formed by free nuclear division
(4) Peripheral ring formation occurs in animal cell during cytokinesis

97.
40
1 1 b
If ∑ √ 1+ + =a+ where a, b, c ∈ N, b < c, gcd (b, c) = 1, then what is the value of b + a?
2 c
k=1 k2 (k + 1)
(1) 78 (2) 79 (3) 80 (4) 81
98. 77th term of the sequence √ 2, √10, 5√2, . . . . . is :

(1) 125√10 (2) 25√2 (3) 125 (4) 2 .538

(√ )

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 17/20
 TALLENTEX_2026
99. 1 1 1
The product 2 4 ⋅ 4 16 ⋅ 8 48 ⋅ 16 128 ⋅
1
. . . . to ∞ is equal to n
√2 . Then, n is equal to :
1 1
(1) 2 (2) 24 (3) 22 (4) 1
100. The first term of an infinite G.P. is 1 and every term is equal to the sum of the successive terms, then its fifth
term will be :
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 16 4 8
101. If cos(2x) – asinx = 2a – 7 has a solution for a ϵ [p, q] and r = tan9° + tan63° + tan81° + tan27°. Then, the value
of p·q·r is :
(1) 30√5 (2) 40√5 (3) 32√5 (4) 48√5

sin3 ( 32π + x) − cos( π + x)

102. The expression simplifies to :
cos3 ( 32π + x)

(1) sin x (2) cos x (3) tan x (4) cot x

103. The minimum value of the expression 3sec2x + cot6 x is :
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 4

104.
n
1
Let fn ( θ ) = ∑ sin4 (2r θ ), then which of the following option is correct ?
r=0
4r

f2024 (
π)=0 π 1 π 1 π √ 2−1
(1) (2) f2024 ( ) = (3) f2024 ( ) = (4) f2024 ( ) =
2 4 4 2 2 8 2 √2

18/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI 19/20
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

20/20 SAMPLE_PAPER_CLASS_XI