17-09-2025

2321CMD303033250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ball is getting inflated at a constant rate of 12 m3/sec. Find the rate of increase of its radius

(Consider it to be spherical in shape) when radius is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 9

2) If y = ex . logx then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) For the graph shown in fig. value of is :-

(1) 5
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) Zero

4)

Graph of 2x + 3y – 6 = 0 is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

1+ + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) (0.97)1/3 is approximately equals to :-

(1) 0.99
(2) 1.01
(3) 0.985
(4) None

7) If Fg, FN, FW and FE be the gravitational, nuclear, weak and electromagnetic forces respectively,
then arrange them in proper order as per their strength.

(1) Fg > FN > FW > FE

(2) Fg < FW < FE < FN
(3) FE > FN > FW > Fg
(4) FW < Fg < FE < FN

8) If the unit of mass, length and time are doubled; unit of angular momentum will be :
(1) doubled
(2) tripled
(3) quadrupled
(4) 8 times of the original value

9) If L, M and N are physical quantities with different dimensions, then which of the following
combinations can never be a meaningful quantity

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Zero error of an instrument introduces

(1) Systematic errors

(2) Random errors
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of these

11)

Physical quantity . If maximum precentage error in x, y and z are 1%, 2% and 3%

respectively. Find % error in Q.

(1) 8%
(2) 7%
(3) 6%
(4) 11%

12) The diameter of a spherical bob is measured using vernier calipers, whose 9 divisions of main
scale are equal to 10 divisions of vernier scale, also one main scale division is 1 mm. During
measurement, main scale, reading is 8 mm and 6th division of vernier scale was found to coincide
exactly with one of the main scale division. If the given vernier calipers has negative zero error of
0.02 cm, then the radius of bob will be :

(1) 0.48 cm
(2) 0.96 cm
(3) 0.44 cm
(4) 0.88 cm

13) In an experiment to find out thickness of a sheet using screw gauge, the following observation
were noted
(a) Screw moves 1 mm on main scale in two complete rotations.
(b) Total divisions on circular scale = 50
(c) Main scale reading is 1.5 mm
(d) 35th division on circular scale coincide with pitch line.
(e) Instrument has negative zero error of 0.02 mm.
Thickness of plate will be :

(1) 0.67 mm
(2) 0.87 mm
(3) 0.53 mm
(4) 1.87 mm

14) and are always :-

(1) Parallel vectors

(2) Equal vectors
(3) Collinear vectors
(4) Coplanar vectors

15) are vectors each having a unit magnitude. If , then

will be :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

16) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

17) If |A| = 2 and |B| = 4, then match the relations in column I with the angle θ between A and B in
column II.

Column-I Column-II

(p) |A × B| = 0 (i) θ = 30°

(q) |A × B| = 8 (ii) θ = 45°

(r) |A × B| = 4 (iii) θ = 90°

|A × B| =
(s) (iv) θ = 0°
Mark the correct choice from the given codes.
Codes

(1) p - ii, q - iii, r - i, s - iv

(2) p - iv, q - iii, r - i, s - ii
(3) p - i, q - iii, r - iv, s - ii
(4) p - iii, q - iv, r - i, s - ii

18) The vectors from origin to the point A and B are and ,
respectively. The area of the ΔOAB is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A balloon is going upwards with velocity 12 m/sec. It releases a packet when it is at a height of
65 m from the ground. How much time the packet will take to reach the ground (g = 10 m/sec2)

(1) 5 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 7 sec
(4) 8 sec

20) A particle is moving towards East with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to
10 m/s. Northwards. The average acceleration during this period is :-

(1) m/sec2 along North-East direction

(2) m/sec2 along North-West direction

(3)
m/sec2 along North-East direction

(4)
m/sec2 along North-West direction

21) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0
22) Two trains A and B, 100 m and 60 m long, are moving in opposite directions on parallel
tracks. The velocity of shorter train in 3 times that of the longer one. If the trains take 4s to cross
each other, the velocities of the trains are :

(1) VA = 10 m/s, VB = 30 m/s

(2) VA = 2.5 m/s, VB = 7.5 m/s
(3) VA = 20 m/s, VB = 60 m/s
(4) VA = 5 m/s, VB = 15 m/s

23) Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction
along a straight line. The velocity-time graph of two cars is shown in figure. The time when the car B

will catch the car A, will be :

(1) t = 21 sec
(2) t = sec
(3) 20 sec
(4) none

24) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) If a ball is thrown with speed V0 at angle θ with horizontal then find average velocity of ball till it
reach topmost point.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A projectile is thrown at two different angles from same point with same speed such that range
is same for both throws. find wrong statement :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The equation of projectile is (origin is point of projection); (x → horizontal; y →

vertical)

Column-I Column-II

A. Initial velocity P. S.I. unit

B. Range of projectile Q. 10 S.I. unit

Maximum height
C. R. 3.75 S.I. unit
of projectile

D. Angle of projection S.
S.I. unit
(1) A-Q; B-P; C-R; D-S
(2) A-R; B-S; C-P; D-Q
(3) A-P; B-R; C-S; D-Q
(4) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R

28) Value of θ for which the swimmer starting from point A will reach point B directly :-

(1) 30º
(2) 45º
(3) 60º
(4) 90º

29) A flag is mounted on a car moving due to north with velocity of 20 km/hr. Strong wind is blowing
due east with velocity of 20 km/hr. The flag will point in the direction :-
(1) East
(2) North-East
(3) South-East
(4) South-West

30) A ship is traveling due east at a speed of 15 km/h. Find the speed of a boat heading 30° east of
north if it appears always due north from the ship.

(1) 30 km/h

(2)
km/h
(3) km/h
(4) 20 km/h

31) The rate of mass of the gas emitted from rear of a rocket is initially 0.1 kg/sec. If the speed of the
gas relative to the rocket is 50 m/sec and mass of the rocket is 2 kg, then the acceleration of the
rocket (in m/sec2) is :- (Rocket is in gravity free space)

(1) 5
(2) 5.2
(3) 2.5
(4) 25

32) In the situation shown in figure all surfaces are smooth then acceleration of 2 kg block is :–

(1) 2 m/s2 downwards

(2) 2 m/s2 upward
(3) 5 m/s2 downward
(4) 5 m/s2 upward

33)
Find acc. of 5 kg block ?

(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 3 m/sec2
(3) 4 m/sec2
(4) 5 m/sec2
34) If block is moving down with speed v then find speed of ring :-

(1)

(2) v sinθ

(3)

(4) v cosθ

35) A man pulls a bucket full of water from h metre deep well. If the mass of rope is m and mass of
bucket full of water is M, then work done by the man is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (M + m) gh

36) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 3 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 1m/s, respectively,
as shown. If the spring constant is 75 N/m, the maximum compression of the spring is :-

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm

37) Assertion : The work done by a non-conservative force is always negative.

Reason : When a non-conservative force is involved in a system, it always dissipates energy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
38) A particle is released from a height of 1.8 m on a smooth curved track whose flat surface is
rough with friction coefficient 0.3 & length 3m. At what distance from P. Particle finally comes to

rest?

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 0 m
(4) 0.5 m

39) A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joules is

(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

40) Find force at (1,2) if potential energy is given by U = x3 + 2y :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) If the force applied is F and the velocity gained is , then the average power developed will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A body starts motion under the action of a constant force along a straight line. The instantaneous
power developed by this force with time t is correctly represented by –

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The linear momentum P of a body varies with time and is given by the equation P = x +
yt2 where x and y are constants. The net force acting on the body for a one dimensional motion is
proportional to-

(1) t²
(2) a constant

(3)

(4) t

44) A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is connected to its lower end (see

figure). The string C stretched slowly then :-

(1) The portion AB of the string will break

(2) The portion BC of the string will break
(3) None of the strings will break
(4) The mass will start rotating

45) Tension in the string is :-

(1) 4N
(2) 6N
(3) 3N
(4) 10N

CHEMISTRY

1)

The dimensions of Planck's constant are the same as that of

(1) energy
(2) angular momentum
(3) work
(4) power

2)

Which of the following has the highest (e/m) ratio

(1) He2+
(2) H+
(3) He+
(4) H

3)

What is the potential energy of an electron present in N-shell of the Be3+ ion?

(1) –3.4 eV
(2) –6.8 eV
(3) –13.6 eV
(4) –27.2 eV

4)

What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in second orbit of hydrogen atom to third orbit of He+ ion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

5)

The ratio of angular momentum in third orbit and orbital angular momentum of 3d-orbital is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Which is the de-Broglie equation ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7)

Which of the following are correct about Heisenberg uncertainty principle where all terms have
their usual meanings :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

8)

For which of the following, the radius will be same as for H-atom having n = 1 ?

(1) He+, n = 2
(2) Li2+, n = 2
(3) Be3+, n = 2
(4) Li2+, n = 3

9) Magnetic moments of V (Z = 23), Cr (Z = 24), Mn (Z = 25) are x, y, z. Hence :-

(1) x = y = z
(2) x < y < z
(3) x < z < y
(4) z < y < x

10) When electrons jump for = 4 to n = 1 state in the hydrogen atom, the number of spectral lines
will be :
(1) 15
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 6

11) According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum to an electron in 5th orbit is :

(1) 25 (h/π)
(2) 1.0 (h/π)
(3) 10 (h/π)
(4) 2.5 (h/π)

12) The graph representing two nodes is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) 10 g of a sample of CaCO3 gave 3.3 g of CO2 on treatment with an excess of HCl. The percentage
purity of the sample is :-
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O

(1) 50
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 75

14) Which of the following pairs of substances illustrates the law of multiple proportions?

(1) CO and CO2

(2) NaCl and NaBr
(3) H2O and D2O
(4) MgO and Mg(OH)2

15) 20 kg of N2 and 3 kg of H2 are mixed to produce NH3(g). The amount of NH3(g) formed is:

(1) 17 kg
(2) 34 kg
(3) 20 kg
(4) 3 kg

16) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of
XY2 weighs 10 gm and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 gm, the atomic weights of X and Y are:

(1) 40, 30
(2) 60, 40
(3) 20, 30
(4) 30, 20

17) Which of the following contains maximum number of atoms?

21
(1) 6.023 × 10 molecules of CO2
(2) 22.4 L of CO2 at S.T.P.
(3) 0.44 g of CO2
(4) None of the above

18) Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two reactions :

S8(s) + 8O2(g) —→ 8SO2(g)
2SO2(g) + O2(g)—→ 2SO3(g)
How many gram of SO3 are produced from 1 mole S8 ?

(1) 1280
(2) 640
(3) 960
(4) 320

19) Which of the following is an endothermic process?

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4) All

20) Which has maximum first ionization potential :-

(1) C
(2) N
(3) B
(4) O

21) Match List I with List II with correct code :-

List I List Il

IE1 IE2 IE3

A 1510 - - 1 H

B 495 6500 10200 2 Li

C 840 1630 13100 3 Be

D 600 2050 3100 4 B

(IE in KJmol–1)
(1) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

22) The correct order of IE2 is :-

(1) Ne > F > O > N

(2) O > F > Ne > N
(3) Ne > O > F > N
(4) O > Ne > F > N

23)

Select the correct statements –

I. 3rd group of Modern P.T. contain 32 elements
II. 14th group contain all three types of elements (metal/nonmetal/metalloids)

III. 5th period contain elements in three states of matter

(1) only I
(2) I and II only
(3) All correct
(4) N.O.T.
24)

Correct match is :-

Column-I Column-II
(Type of elements) (Outer electronic confi.)

(A) Inert gas elements (P) ns1-2 np 0–5

(B) Representative elements (Q) 1s2 and ns2 np6

(C) Transition elements (R) (n–2)f1-14 (n–1)d0-1 ns2

(D) Inner transition elements (S) (n–1)d 1–10 ns0–2

(1) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(2) (A) → (Q); (B) → (R); (C) → (P); (D) → (S)
(3) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (S); (D) → (R)
(4) (A) →(Q); (B) → (S); (C) → (P); (D) → (R)

25) Total number of molecules or ions which have any bond angle of 120°.
I3–, BCl3, PCl5, CO3–2, CH3–, SF6, XeF'2, SO3

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

26) The correct order of bond angle

(1) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3

(2) PF3 > PCl3 < PBr3 = PI3
(3) PF3 = PCl3 < PBr3 > PI3
(4) PF3 = PCl3 = PBr3 = PI3

27)

Select the compounds/species those can be exists :

H2S, OF6, BF4–, PH5, XeF5, CCl6–2, PCl5

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

28)

Match the column :-

 Column-I Column-II

(P) (i) Paramagnetic

(Q) (ii) B.O. = 2.5

(R) (iii) Diamagnetic

(S) Be2 (iv) B.O. = 0

Option :
(1) P-i, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv
(2) P-i,ii, Q-i,ii, R-iii, S-ii
(3) P-i, Q-i,ii, R-iii, S-iv
(4) P-i,ii Q-i,ii, R-ii, S-ii

29) In which of the following process the change in bond angle is maximum ?

(1) BH3 + H —→ BH4

(2) NH3 + —→

(3) PH3 + —→
H2O + —→
(4)

30) How many of the following molecules are polar?

CH4, CCl4, CH2Cl2, H2O, NH3, H2O2, O2F2

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 1

31)

Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
(Molecule) (Shape)
(A) PCl5 (p) See saw
(B) NH3 (q) Bent shape
Trigonal
(C) SF4 (r)
Bipyramidal
(D) H2O (s) Pyramidal
(1) A-(r), B-(s), C-(p), D-(q)
(2) A-(s), B-(r), C-(q), D-(p)
(3) A-(p), B-(s), C-(r), D-(q)
(4) A-(q), B-(p), C-(r), D-(s)
32) Out of and O3 the linear species is/are :

(1) and
(2) and O3
(3) and
(4) and

33) Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons ?

2–
(1) O2
(2) B2
–
(3) N2
(4) O2

34) Which of the following species is not paramagnetic ?

(1) O2
(2) B2
(3) NO
(4) N2

35) How many molecule have zero dipole moment:

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) In the reaction :

xBrO3– + yCr3+ + zH2O → Br2 + CrO42– + H+
the coefficients x, y and z are :

(1) 6, 10, 11
(2) 6, 10, 20
(3) 6, 8, 22
(4) 6, 10, 22

37) In the following reaction,

P4 + 3KOH + 3H2O → 3KH2PO2 + PH3

(1) P is oxidised only

(2) P is reduced only
(3) P is oxidised as well as reduced
(4) none of the above
38) Oxidation number of Fe in Fe0.94O is :

(1) 200

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

39) What is the following statements is not correct regarding NO2 molecule :-

(1) Paramagnetic behaviour decreases when it undergoes in dimerisation

(2) It is coloured in its dimeric form
(3) The colour is due to the presence of unpaired electron
(4) The free electron is present in one of the sp2 hybrid orbital

40) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) XeF4 is polar compound

(2) BF3 is planar due to back bonding
(3) NO is an anhydride of nitrous acid
(4) All of these

41) How many S–S bonds, S–O–S bonds, σ bonds, π-bonds are present in trimer of sulphur trioxide:-

(1) 0, 3, 16, 2
(2) 0, 3, 12, 6
(3) 0, 6, 12, 16
(4) 0, 4, 12, 6

42) In which of the following molecule back bonding is present ?

(1) BF3
(2) H2O
(3) NH3
(4) HF

43)

The percentage of p-character in the orbital forming P–P bonds in P4 is :-

(1) 25
(2) 75
(3) 33
(4) 100

44) What is the hybridization on the central atom of SiO2 ?

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d

45)

There is no S-S bond in :-

–2
(1) S2O3
–2
(2) S2O5
–2
(3) S2O6
–2
(4) S2O7

BOTANY

1) Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in –

(1) Grana
(2) Pyrenoid
(3) Stroma
(4) Both grana and stroma

2) Cytoskeleton is made up of :-

(1) Proteinaceous filaments

(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosic microfibrils

3) How many function can perform by mesosomes

(i) DNA replication
(ii) Respiration
(iii) DNA distribution to daughter cells
(iv) Secretion
(v) Increase the surface area
(vi) Contains enzymatic content.
(vii) Cell wall formation.

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

4) How many of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell ?

Basal body, Cell Membrane, Chromatophore, Lysosome, Ribosome, Nucleolemma, Cytoplasm.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Seven

5) Assertion (A) : "Taxonomic categories are distinct biological entities and not merely morphological
aggregates".
Reason (R) : Kingdom, Phylum or division (for plant), class, order, family, genus and species are
common categories of taxonomical studies.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false

6) Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is referred to as :-

(1) 9 + 2
(2) 2 + 9
(3) 11 + 0
(4) 9 + 0

7) Match the List-I and List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Ribosomes (I) Mitochondria

(B) Lysosome (II) Store protein

Single membrane cell

(C) Aleuroplasts (III)
organelles

Double membrane Without membrane

(D) (IV)
all organelles cell organelles

(V) Chloroplast
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I),(IV)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I),(V)
(3) (A)-(I),(IV), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I),(V)

8) Identify structure A,B,C and D is given below in diagram :-

 A B C D

Stroma Outer
(1) Granum Stroma
lamella membrane

Outer Stroma
(2) Granum Stroma
membrane lamella

Outer Stroma
(3) Granum Stroma
membrane lamella

Stroma Outer
(4) Stroma Thylakoid
lamella membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) A Chromosome has centromere in almost centre, B chromosome has centromere slightly

away from centre, C chromosome has centromere very near to one end of chromosome while D
chromosome has centromere on one end.
What is A, B, C & D ?

A B C D

(1) Metacentric Submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric

(2) Metacentric Submetacentric Telocentric Acrocentric

(3) Metacentric Acrocentric Submetacentric Telocentric

(4) Metacentric Acrocentric Telocentric Submetacentric

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The M-phase starts with the nuclear division corresponding to the seperation of daugther
chromosomes called A and usually ends with division of cytoplasm called B .
A B
(1) Cytokinesis Interkinesis
(2) Karyokinesis Cytokinesis
(3) Interkinesis Karyokinesis
(4) Cytokinesis Karyokinesis

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

11) Which one is the correct sequence of a cell cycle ?

(1) G2 → M → G1 → S
(2) G1 → M → G2 → S
(3) M → S → G1 → G2
(4) G1 → S → G2 → M

12)

Arrange the events of cell cycle in the correct sequences

(i) Cytokinesis

(ii) Replication of DNA (iii) Tubulin protein synthesis

(iv) Karyokinesis
(1) i → ii →iii → iv
(2) ii → iii → iv → i
(3) iv → iii → ii → i
(4) iii → iv → ii → i

13) Anaphase stage of mitosis is correctly represented by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which one of the following stage is correctly described with its event.

The bivalent chromosomes

(1) Anaphase I
align on the equatorial plate
 Beginning of dissolution of
(2) Diakinesis
synaptonemal complex.

Spindle fibres attach

(3) Metaphase to kinetochores of
chromosomes

Appearance of
(4) Zygotene
recombination nodule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Read the following statements and find out how many statements are not correct :
(A) In telophase-I the nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear, cytokinesis follows and this is
called as dyad of cells.
(B) Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to
the next.
(C) In zygotene stage chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called
crossing over.
(D) Diakinesis represents transition to metaphase-I.

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Four

16) Assertion (A) :- M-Phase represents the phase when the actual cell division occurs.
Reason (R) :- Interphase represents the phase between two successive M phases.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

17) Metaphase is best stage for study of chromosome, which one is not character of metaphase ?
(A) Spindle fibres attach to chromosome
(B) Condensation of chromosome complete in this phase
(C) Sister chromtid held with kinetochore
(D) In metaphse I number of bivalent is equal with number of chromosome in metaphase II

(1) C & D
(2) Only C
(3) A, C & D
(4) All

18) If in a cell two tetrads are present in prophase-I then what will be the number of chromatids in
anaphase-I and metaphase-II in each cell ?
(1) Anaphase-I = 4, Metaphase-II = 4
(2) Anaphase-I = 8, Metaphase-II = 4
(3) Anaphase-I = 8, Metaphase-II = 8
(4) Anaphase-I = 4, Metaphase-II = 8

19) About how many species are known and described ?

(1) 30 million
(2) 1.7 to 1.8 million
(3) 0.2 million
(4) 17 million

20)

Match Column I with Column II for Mango classification and select the correct option using the
codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Class (i) Anacardiaceae

(b) Division (ii) Dicotyledonae

(c) Order (iii) Angiospermae

(d) Family (iv) Sapindales

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

21) Assertion : Potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum.
Reason : Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in
comparison to species of other genera.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22)

Read the following statements carefully about binomial nomenclature, identify the
incorrect statement :-

(1) Biological names are generally in latin and printed in italics.

The first component in biological name represent the species while second component denotes
(2)
the genus.
 Both the words in a biological name, when hand written, are separately underlined or printed in
(3)
italics to indicate their latin origin.
The first word denoting genus starts with a capital letter while specific epithet start with a small
(4)
letter.

23) Which taxon is not related to wheat :-

(1) Sapindales
(2) Poaceae
(3) Monocotyledonae
(4) Triticum

24) Assertion : Panthera leo is the scientific name of lion.

Reason : Panthera indicates generic name while leo indicates specific epithet for lion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification was not the :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

26) In five kingdom system bacteria are included in monera but acellular organism like viruses and
viroids, and lichens are included in :-

(1) Kingdom - Fungi

(2) Kingdom - Animalia
(3) Kingdom - Protista
(4) Not mentioned in any kingdom

27)

Select the wrong statement.

(1) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

(2) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
(3) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
(4) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.

28) Read the following statement regarding phycomycetes :-

(A) Members are found in aquatic habitat
(B) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
(C) A zygospore is formed by reduction division
(D) They show all type of syngamy
Correct statements are :-

(1) A & B
(2) A, B & C
(3) A & D
(4) A, B & D

29) In which of the following plasmogamy is followed by Karyogamy immediately, so dikaryophase is

absent ?

(1) Ustilago
(2) Puccinia
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Albugo

30) Given below is the diagram of a virus. In which one of the options A, B and C are correct ?

A B C
(1) RNA Capsid Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(2) DNA Capsid Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(3) RNA Lipid Tobacco Mosaic Virus
(4) RNA Protein HIV

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31)

Mumps, small pox, herpes disease caused by :-

(1) Bacteria and virus

(2) Virus and fungi
(3) Virus
(4) Bacteria, fungi and protozoa

32) The predominant stage of the life cycle of moss is gametophyte which consists of two stages they
are respectively :-
(1) Protonema, Prothallus
(2) Spore mother cell, protonema
(3) Protonema, leafy stage
(4) Protonema, Zygote

33) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(Group of plant) (Examples)

A Algae I Solanum tuberosum

B Fungi II Equisetum

C Angiosperm III Cycas

D Pteridophyte IV Chlamydomonas

E Gymnosperm V Rhizopus
(1) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III
(2) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II

34) Statement-I :- Prions are an agent consisting of abnormally folded protein and cause
neurological diseases.
Statement-II :- Virus does not contain both DNA & RNA together.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

35) Read the following statements carefully and select the option which includes the correct ones
only.
(A) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas earlier placed in algae but according to five kingdom system,
they are protista.
(B) Earliest classifications were made instinctively according to human need or use like food, shelter
and clothing.
(C) Chlorella and Saccharomyces are unicellular green algae
(D) Red algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes and spermatophytes exhibit only oogamous fertilisation.

(1) A,B and C

(2) A,B and D
(3) A,B only
(4) A,B,C and D

36) Statement-I :- Sporophytes of moss is more elaborate than liver worts.

Statement-II :- Dikaryon stage present in both ascomycetes and phycomycetes.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

37) Fucoxanthin is found in :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae
(4) BGA

38) Identify the brown algae given below labelled as A, B and C:

(1) A = Fucus, B = Dictyota, C = Laminaria

(2) A = Dictyota, B = Laminaria, C = Fucus
(3) A = Laminaria, B = Dictyota, C = Fucus
(4) A = Laminaria, B = Fucus, C = Dictyota

39) Which one of the following does not differ in [Link] and Chlamydomonas ?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Chromosomal organisation

40) Oogamous type of reproduction found in :-

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Chlorella
(3) Fucus
(4) Anabaena

41) Identify the following figures (A-D).

 (A) (B) (C) (D)

A B C D

Chlamydo-
(1) Euglena Funaria Salvinia
monas

(2) Paramoecium Chara Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Euglena Chara Marchantia Pteridium

Chlamydo-
(4) Paramoecium Funaria Selaginella
monas
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Two kingdom system of classification is mainly based on:-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Phylogeny

43) In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in :

(1) Plantae
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) Algae

44) Find the incorrect statement with respect to gymnosperms :

(1) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed.
(2) The giant redwood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species.
(3) Sporophylls which are arranged spirally along an axis to form lax or compact strobili or cones.
(4) The megaspore mother cell is differentiated from one of the cells of male strobili.

45) Read the following statements and select how many statements are correct?
(A) T. Schwann first explained that cells divided & new cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
(B) Quiescent phase exit the cell cycle at the end of M-phase.
(C) Isogamous and non-flagellaed gametes are found in Eudorina.
(D) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic to animals only.
(E) "Animals", "Mammals" and "Dog" represent different taxa at different level.

(1) Only A
(2) Only A, B, E
(3) Only A, E
(4) Only A, C, E

ZOOLOGY

1) Match column I and II and choose correct option :-

Column I Column II
Adhering Help to stop substances from
A I
junction leaking across tissue
Perform cementing to keep
B Gap junctions II
neighbouring cells together
Facilitate the cells to
C Tight junctions III
communicate each other
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II

2)

Which of the following includes connective tissues?

(a) Cartilage
(b) Exocrine Glands
(c) Endocrine Glands
(d) Blood

(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and d
(4) All a, b, c and d

3) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Tall and Cuboidal

a. 1. K. Bronchioles
slender cells epithelium

Flattened cells
Columnar Tubular parts
b. with irregular 2. L.
epithelium of nephrons
boundaries
 Cilia on their Squamous Lining of
c. 3. M.
free surface epithelium intestine

Cube like Ciliated Walls of

d. 4. N.
cells epithelium blood vessels
(1) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—K, d—1—L
(2) a—2—K, b—1—L, c—4—M, d—3—N
(3) a—4—M, b—3—L, c—1—K, d—1—N
(4) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—L, d—1—K

4) Read the following statements and find out how many of these are related to given figure :-

(a) Multilayered epithelium

(b) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(c) Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
(d) They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

5) Read the following four statements (A–D)

(A) Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance,
for example, areolar tissue.
(B) Adipose tissue is another type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
(C) Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues.
(D) Bones and blood are various types of specialised connective tissues.
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

6) Assertion: Striated muscles are smooth in appearance and said to be involuntary in nature.
Reason: Striated muscles can not be moved according to will.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) The three diagrams (A, B and C) are given, which represent three different types of muscles found
in human body. Which option gives correct information about type of muscle, its location and

nature?

Type
Location Nature
of muscle

(1) B Skeletal muscle Heart Voluntary

(2) A Visceral muscle Limbs Involuntary

(3) C Cardiac muscle Heart Involuntary

(4) B Visceral muscle Intestine Voluntary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which of the following options correctly represents the name of 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the given diagram
of neuron?
(1) 1- Axon, 2- Dendrites, 3- Node of Ranvier, 4- Myelin sheath
(2) 1- Dendrites, 2- Axon, 3- Node of Ranvier, 4- Myelin sheath
(3) 1- Dendrites, 2- Cell body, 3- Myelin sheath, 4- Node of Ranvier
(4) 1- Axon, 2- Cell body, 3- Dendrites, 4- Node of Ranvier

9) Cholesterol is represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called optimum
temperature.
Statement-II : Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate which closely resembles the
substrate succinate in structure. Such competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of
bacterial pathogens.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

11) Match column P to Q :-

Column-P Column-Q
A Lecithin i Present in genetic material
B Cholesterol ii Phospholipid
C Serine iii Derived lipid
No rotation of Plane Polarised
D Deoxyribose iv
light (Amino acid)
E Glycine v Alcoholic Amino acid
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-v, E-i
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii, E-iii

12) A : Analysis of compounds gives an idea of kind of organic and inorganic constituents of living
tissue.
R : Ash analysis is performed to identify organic components of living tissue.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

13) Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds.
(c) Lipids are not strictly macromolecules.
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglyceride is formed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (d) and (e) only

(2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

14) Match the given secondary metabolites correctly with their category

a. Alkaloid (i) Ricin

 b. Toxin (ii) Morphine

c. Lectin (iii) Concanavalin A

d. Polymeric substance (iv) Gums

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

15) Above diagram showing the concept of activation energy. If in this

diagram energy level of ‘P’ become higher than the energy level of ‘S’ then which of the following
will not apply for this diagram ?

(1) The process will be endothermic

(2) Activation energy with enzyme will be less than activation energy without enzyme
(3) Energy difference between transition state and product will be more than activation energy
(4) The substrate will go through the transition state

16) In the process of chemical analysis of organic compounds in living tissue the acid insoluble
fraction has :-

(1) Proteins, Nucleic acids, Carbohydrates and calcium

(2) Proteins, Nucleic acids, Polysaccharides and lipids
(3) Proteins, Nucleic acids, Glucose and calcium
(4) Aminoacids, Nucleotides, monosaccharides

17) Identify the sugars A and B :

(1) A = Glucose, B = Deoxyribosc

(2) A = Glucose, B = Ribose
(3) A = Pentose, B = Hexose
(4) A = Non-reducing sugar, B - Ribose
18) Type of linkage present in Glycogen is :​​

(1) α-1,4 Glycosidic linkage

(2) α-1,6 Glycosidic linkage
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) α-1,1 Glycosidic linkage

19)

A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :-

only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate group is
(1)
also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate
(2)
group is also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a
(3)
glycerol molecule
only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycol molecule to, which a phosphate group is also
(4)
attached

20) Find out the correct match :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Stability is something related to energy status of the molecule. Transition state is high energy
state as compared to substrate. So we can conclude that :-

(1) Transition state is more stable than substrate

(2) Substrate is more stable than transition state
(3) Both substrate and transition state are very much unstable.
(4) Stability can not be compared.

22) Study the flow chart given below and identify X and Y according to the statements (i-v) provided:

(i) Monomers are present.

(ii) Polymers are abundant.
(iii) Molecular weight more than 10,000 Daltons or above.
(iv) Molecular weight between 18-800 Daltons.
(v) Amino acids, nucleotides, monosaccharides.

X Y
(1) (ii), (iii) (i), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (v)
(4) (i), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Two strands of DNA double helix are

(1) Parallel & complementary

(2) Antiparallel & complementary
(3) Parallel & Non-complementary
(4) Antiparallel & Non-complementary

24) Choose the incorrect one :-

(1) Some nucleic acid can behave as enzymes (eg. ribozymes)

(2) An 'active site' of an enzyme is a crevice or pocket into which the substrate fits
Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at low temperature while enzymes get damaged at low
(3)
temperature
(4) All are incorrect
25) Match the column-I, II and III and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Amount of air which

remains in lungs
1. TV a. 1200 ml
after forceful
expiration.

(ii) Amount of air

2. VC b. 3000 ml which is normally
inspired.

(iii) Amount of air

which is forcefully
3. IRV c. 500 ml
expired after
forceful inspiration

(iv) Additional volume

of air, a person can
4. RV d. 4600 ml
inspire by forceful
inspiration
(1) 1-a-i, 2-d-ii, 3-c-iv, 4-b-iii
(2) 1-c-ii, 2-d-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-a-i
(3) 3-b-i, 4-a-ii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-iii
(4) 3-b-ii, 4-a-i, 2-d-iii, 1-c-iv

26) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is :-

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TV + IRV
(3) TV + ERV + IRV
(4) ERV + RV

27) The respiratory centre in the brain is stimulated by :-

(1) CO2 concentration in venous blood

(2) O2 concentration in arterial blood
(3) CO2 concentration in arterial blood
(4) O2 concentration in venous blood

28) X and Y occur at :-

(1) Both at tissue level
(2) Both at alveolar level
(3) X at tissue and Y at alveolar level
(4) X at alveolar and y at tissue level

29) In the given diagram which factors induces the movement of CO2 from blood to alveoli's O2 from

alveoli to blood.

(1) Pressure or concentration gradient, solubility of gases and thickness of diffusion membrane.
(2) The solubility of CO2 is high and the concentration gradient is also high is the only factor.
(3) Only the concentration gradient.
(4) Only the thickness of diffusion membrane.

30) Statement I :- In asthma, wheezing occurs during breathing.

Statement II :- In this, alveolar wall is damaged.

(1) Statement I true, but II false.

(2) Statement I false, but II true.
(3) Statement I false and II also false.
(4) Statement I and II true.

31) Respiratory organs in frog (adult) are :-

(a) Lungs (b) Gills
(c) Moist skin (d) Buccal cavity

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c & d
(4) Only a & d

32) 1st and 2nd heart sound due to respectively :-

(1) Closure of semilunar valves, AV valves

(2) Closure of AV valves, Semilunar valves
(3) Closure of Dorsal aorta and Pulmonary Artery
(4) Closure of Tricuspid valve and Bicuspid valve

33) Match the following columns :-

 Column-I Column-II

Heart muscle is
suddenly damaged
(A) Heart failure I.
by inadequate
blood supply.

Chest pain due

to inadequate O2
(B) Cardiac arrest II.
reaching the
heart muscles.

(C) Heart attack III. Atherosclerosis.

Heart not
pumping blood
Coronary
effectively
(D) Artery Disease IV.
enough to meet
(CAD)
the needs of the
body.

Heart stops
(E) Angina pectoris V.
beating
(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

34) Select the incorrect match w.r.t. human heart-

(1) Inter-Atrial septum Thin, muscular wall

(2) Inter - ventricular septum Thick - walled muscular
(3) Atrio - ventricular septum Thick, fibrous tissue
(4) Right ventricle Thicker than left ventricle

35) ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization processes during the cardiac cycle. In the
ECG of a normal healthy individual, one of the following waves is not represented ?

(1) Depolarization of atria

(2) Repolarization of atria
(3) Depolarization of ventricles
(4) Repolarization of ventricles

36)

In human heart, identify the correct statements :

I. Volume of both the atria is the greater than the volume of both ventricles.
II. Volume of both the ventricle is greater than the volume of both the atria.
III. Inter-ventricular septum separates the right-and the left atria.
IV. Atrio ventricular septum don't separates the atrium and ventricle.

Choose the correct option accordingly.

(1) All except I are wrong
(2) All except II are wrong
(3) All except III are wrong
(4) All except IV are wrong

37) How much % volume of blood receive by ventricle during Atrial systole?

(1) 20%
(2) 30%
(3) 60%
(4) 70%

38) Identify the correct representation w.r.t. blood groups.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39)
Find out the value of A, B, C and D in the above figure

(1) A = 40 mmHg, B = 95 mmHg, C = 40 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg

(2) A = 45 mmHg, B = 40 mmHg, C = 104 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg
(3) A = 95 mmHg, B = 45 mmHg, C = 40 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg
(4) A = 40 mmHg, B = 95 mmHg, C = 45 mmHg, D = 40 mmHg

40) When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

(1) slow and deep.

(2) faster and deeper.
(3) shallower and slow.
(4) there is no effect on breathing.

41) Amount of oxygen transported by one gram of haemoglobin is :-

(1) 1.34 ml
(2) 13.4 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 3.7 ml

42) Match column-I elements with column-II elements and select the correct option from below ?

Column-I Column-II

(i) Inter atrial septum (a) Thin

(ii) Inter ventricular septum (b) Thick

(iii) Atrio-ventricular septum (c) Muscular

(d) Fibrous
(1) (i)-a, d and (iii)-b, c
(2) (ii)-b, c and (iii)-b, d
(3) (i)-a, c and (iii)-b, c
(4) (i)-b, c and (ii)-b, d

43) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a blood corpuscle identify them and select the correct
option about them

A B C D
Lymphocyte Neutrophil Basophil Monocyte
(1) 20-25% 60-65% 0.5-1% 6-8%
of TLC of TLC of TLC of TLC
Monocyte Neutrophil Basophil Lymphocyte
(2) 6-8% of 60-65% 0.5-1% 20-25%
TLC of TLC of TLC of TLC
Basophil . Neutrophil Lymphocyte Monocyte
(3) 5-1% (60-65% 20-25% 6-8%
of TLC of TLC) of TLC of TLC
Basophil Lymphocyte Neutrophil Monocyte
(4) .5-1% 20-25% (60-65% 6-8%
of TLC of TLC of TLC) of TLC
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance.
Reason (R): Matrix of bones is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

45) How many statements among the following is/are correct.

(i) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can increase the duration of inspiration.
(ii) Pons region of brain can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre and hence can
alter the respiratory rate.
(iii) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
(iv) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognize changes in CO2 and
H+ concentration.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 4 4 2 1 2 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 1 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 2 2 1 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 3 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 2 3 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 3 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 3 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 4 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

y = [Link]

3) = area under the curve from

x = 0 to x = 4

4) 2x + 3y – 6 = 0
3y = – 2x + 6

5)

S= =

6)
y = (.97)1/3
y = (1 – .03)1/3 = 1 – .01 = .99

7)

Strength of fundamental forces is

Gravitation Force < Weak nuclear force < Electromagnetic force < Strong force.

8) Angular momentum = [ML2T–1]

New unit = (2M) (2L)2 (2T)–1 = 4 [ML2T–1]

9)

Using principle of homogeneity different physical quantity never subtracted and added

10) concept: Zero error of an instrument introduces systematic errors. It affects the accuracy
of the instrument but not its precision. (unless the error varies)

11)

∴
= 2(1) + 3(2) + 3
= 11%

12) LC = 1 mm = 0.1 mm,

ZE = – 0.02 cm
MSR = 8 mm,
VSR = 6th div × 0.1 mm = 0.6 mm
Corrected reading (CR) = MSR + VSR – ZE
= 0.8 cm + 0.06 cm – (– 0.02 cm )
diameter = 0.88 cm ⇒ radius = 0.44 cm.

13) Pitch = = 0.5 mm

LC = = 0.01 mm

14) Question explanation: to find out the types of given two vectors.
Concept: Types of vector
Solution: As two vector may lie in a single plane so two vectors are always copanar.
15)

16)

Direction of cross product of 2 vectors is always perpendicular to their vector sum.

17) Given |A| = 2 and |B| = 4

(p) |A × B| = AB sin θ = 0
⇒ 2 × 4 × sin θ = 0
⇒ sin θ = 0 = sin 0° ⇒ θ = 0°
Hence, option (p) matches with option (iv)
(q) |A × B| = AB sin θ = 8
⇒ 2 × 4 sin θ = 8
⇒ sin θ = 1 = sin 90° ⇒ θ = 90°
Hence, option (q) matches with option (iii).
(r) |A × B| = AB sin θ = 4 ⇒ 2 × 4 sin θ = 4

= sin 30° ⇒ θ = 30°

Hence, option (r) matches with option (i)
(s) |A × B| = AB sin θ =
⇒ 2 × 4 sin θ =

⇒ = sin 45° ⇒ θ = 45°

Hence, option(s) matches with option (ii)

18)

Now, area of the

Given that,
and
19) b = –65 m
v = 12 m/s
a = –10 m/s2

–65 = 12t – × 10 × t2
t = 5 sec

20)

21)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

22) 3vA = VB, Srel = vrelt 100 + 60 = (vA + vB) × 4

Solve to get, vA = 10 m/s and vB = 30 m/s

23) When B catches A then position of both is same.

10t = (1) t2 – 10.5

t2 – 20 t – 21 = 0

t=

t=

24) Let the car accelerate at rate α for time t1 then maximum velocity attained, v = 0 + αt1 =
αt1
Now, the car decelerates at a rate β for time (t – t1) and finally comes to rest. Then
0 = v – β(t – t1) ⇒ 0 = αt1 – βt + βt1

⇒ t1 =

∴v=

25)
26) T1 =

→ H1 + H2 =
→ H1 H2

27) Given equation

Equation trajectory
By comparition

(1) ⇒
(2) R =

(3) ⇒

(4) Hmax = ⇒ ⇒ u = 10 m/s

28) 4 cosθ = 2 ⇒ cosθ =

θ = 60º

29)

as car is moving due to north with 20 km/hr flag points in south.

So,

30)
vb/s is along north
vb/s is resultant of vb/g and vs/g in opposite direction
 v cos 30° = vb/s v sin 30° = 15 ⇒ v = 30 km/h

31) =0.1 kg/s, vgas = 50 m/s,

mass of the rocket = 2 kg, Mv = constant

or acceleration = × 50 × 0.1 = 2.5 m/s2 .

32)

a= = 2 m/s2 upwards.

33)
a = 4 m/s2

34) Tv0cosθ – Tv = 0
Tv0cosθ = Tv

v0 =

35)

Work done by the man = change in potential energy

CMB → center of mass of bucket
CMR → center of mass of rope

= Mg hCMB + mg hCMR

= Mgh + mg
=
Hence option (3)

36) Due to spring force, velocity of 1 kg decreases and that of 3 kg increases. At the maximum
compression, both the blocks move with same velocity.

Bythe momentum conservation

1 × 2 + 3 × 1 = (1 + 3) v ⇒ v = m/s
By the energy conservation

37) It may be positive, negative or zero.

38)

Wfriction = ΔKE

....(1)
Here ....(2)
[Here h = 1.8 m]
From (1) & (2),

means after one complete round trip particle comes to rest at 'P'

39)

= (35 – 25 + 125) – 0
= 135 J
40)

41)

By, v = u + at

.....(1)

42) P = F. V
= ma (at)
= ma2 t
P∝t
(∵ v = u + at
⇒ v = at (∵ u = 0))

43) F = = 0 + 2yt
So, F is proportional to t

44) The portion AB of the string will break

45) Problem Explanation:

Two 3 kg blocks are connected by a sting on a rough horizontal surface. Forces 15 N and 5
N act on them in opposite directions. We need to determine the tension in the sting.

Concept Used:
The system moves as a whole with a common acceleration. Using Newton's Second Law, the
net force on the system determines its acceleration.

Formulas Used:
Net force on the system: Fnet = F1 – F2

Acceleration of the system: a =

Calculation:
Net force acting on the system: Fnet = 15N – 5N = 10N
Total mass of the system: mtotal = 3 + 3 = 6 kg

Acceleration of the system: a = m/s2

 Tension in the string (considering the right block, opposed by 5N force):

T= +5
T = 5 + 5 = 10N

CHEMISTRY

46)

h and mvr have same units kg m2s–1

47)

Mass of H+ is minimum

48)

P.E. = 2E

E = –13.6 × eV
Z = 4, n = 4
E = –13.6 eV
PE = 2 × (–13.6) eV
= –27.2 eV

49)

50)

Angular momentum in 3rd orbital

= 3·
Orbital angular momentum of 3d orbital

=
 Ratio =

51)

λ=
[h = p . λ]

52) x· p ...(i)

x.m v ...(ii)

x·Δv ...(iii)

Also, E = m( v)2 = m ...(iv)

From (ii)

x·m·

...(v)
From (iv) and (v)

53)

r = 0.529 Å ×
For H-atom (n = 1)

=1
For option (3)

54)

Magnetic moment = B.M.

n = no. of unpaired e–
No. of unpaired electron ∝ magnetic moment
Check by option

55) Number of spectral lines

56)

57)

As per theory [For graphs of 15 to 25]

58)

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O

1 mole CO2 → 1 mole CaCO3
44 g CO2 → 100 g CaCO3

3.3 g CO2 → CaCO3

% purity of CaCO3 = = 75%

59) In CO : C O 12 : 16 In CO2 12 : 32

60)
Let N2 is completely consumed.

Amount of NH3 formed will be =

Let H2 is completely consumed.

Amount of NH3 formed will be =

Since H2 gives least amount of product hence it will be limiting and the amount of NH3 formed
will be 17 kg.

61)

Let atomic masses of X and Y are a and b respectively.

0.1(a + 2b) = 10
a + 2b = 100 …(i)
0.05(3a + 2b) = 9
3a + 2b = 180 …(ii)
From eqns. (i) and (ii) a = 40, b = 30.

62)

6.23 × 1021 molecules of CO2 º 3 × 6.023 × 1021 atoms

22.4 L CO2 at STP = 3 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms

0.44 g CO2 ≡ × 6.023 × 1023 × 3 = 3 × 6.023 × 1020 atoms

63) From the given reaction, it is clear that, 1 mole S8 will give 8 moles of SO3.
∴ Mass of SO3 formed will be = 80 × 8 = 640 g.

64)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given electron attachment processes
(adding an electron to nitrogen, neon, or beryllium atoms or ions) is endothermic, meaning it
requires energy input to occur.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves electron affinity and ion formation. Adding
an electron to an atom or negative ion can either release energy (exothermic) or require
energy (endothermic). Elements with stable electron configurations resist adding electrons,
making the process endothermic. Negative ions further repel additional electrons, increasing
the energy needed.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that half-filled or fully filled subshells are stable electron
configurations, so adding an electron to such atoms usually requires energy. Also, adding an
electron to a negatively charged ion is generally harder due to electron-electron repulsion.

Common Mistakes: Assuming that adding an electron to any atom or ion is always
exothermic. Overlooking the stability of the electron configuration can lead to wrong answers.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing a specific process instead of 'All' ignores that
each reaction individually requires energy input due to electronic stability or repulsion. For
example, adding an electron to neon's negative ion is not exothermic because of increased
repulsion.

65)

NCERT-XI (part-1) Pg. # 89

66)

Max. I.E. is of N. metal (H)

 Min. I.E. is of alkali metal (Li)

67) Question Explanation :

question is asking about which order is correct for 2nd IP
Concept : Order of ionization potential.
Explanation & Solution : The correct order of second ionization energies (IE₂) for Ne, O, F,
and N is Ne > O > F > N.

Answer : Option 3

68)

Explain Question : Question is asking about correct statements.

Concept : This question is based on General facts of modern periods Table

Solution :
3rd group → Consists of Inner Transection elements also so total 32 elements are there.
14 group → Consists of all three types →
th

Carbon = Non-Metal
Lead = Metal
Germanium = Metalloid
5th period → It does not consists of element which is liquid. so, this is incorrect.

Final Answer : option (2)

69)

(A) Inert gas → (Q) 1s2 & ns2np6 A → Q

(B) Representative elements → (P)ns1–2np0–5 B → P
(C) Transition elements → (S) (n–1)d1–10ns0–2 C → S

(D) Inner transition elements → (R)(n–2)f1–14 (n–1)d0–1ns2 D → R

70)

BCl3, PCl5, CO32–, SO3

71) Concept

72)

73)

P-i, Q-i,ii, R-iii, S-iv

 74)

75) CH4, CCl4 → non–polar (μnet = 0)

CH2Cl2, H2O, NH3, H2O2, O2F2 → polar (μnet ≠ 0)

76)

Explanation:
Question is asking about matching of compounds with their hybridisation
Concept:
Solution:

Molecule B.P L.P Hyb. Shape

PCl5 5 0 sp3d Trigonal

NH3 3 1 sp3d Pramidal (a)

SF4 4 1 sp3d See-saw(q)

H2O 2 2 sp3d Bent (q)

Answer: 1

77) NCERT XI Pg. # 99

78) NCERT XI Pg. # 120

79) NCERT XI Pg. # 123

80)

81)

xBrO3– + yCr3+ + zH2O → 3Br2 + CrO42– + H+

6BrO3– + 10Cr3+ + 22H2O → 3Br2 + 10CrO42– + 44H+
xBrO3– + yCr3+ + zH2O → Br2 + CrO42– + H+ Coefficients x, y, z

∴ x = 6, y = 10, z = 11 Ans.

82) It is disproportionation in which phosphorus is oxidised as well as reduced.

83)

Fe0.94O ⇒ 0.94x – 2 = 0
0.94x = 2

x= ⇒

84) NO2 is brown coloured gas while in dimer it is colourless

85)

Asking for: The incorrect statement among the given options.

Concept:
Polarity: Depends on molecular geometry and dipole moments.
Back Bonding: Involves the donation of lone pair electrons from a ligand to a central atom's
vacant orbital.
Anhydride: A compound formed by the removal of water from another compound.

Solution/Explanation:

A. XeF4 :
XeF4 has a square planar geometry.
Due to its symmetrical structure, the dipole moments cancel each other out, making it a
nonpolar compound.
Therefore, the statement "XeF4 is a polar compound" is incorrect.

B. BF3 :
BF3 has a trigonal planar geometry
There is back bonding in BF3 but it is planar due to sp2 hybridization. Because if we do
not consider back bonding in BF3, then also BF3 will be a planar molecule due to SP2
hybridisation.
The statement "BF3 is planar due to back bonding" is incorrect. The planarity is due to
sp2 hybridization.

C. NO and Nitrous acid (HNO2) :

Nitrous acid (HNO2) decomposes to form NO, H2O, and other products.
NO is not the direct anhydride of nitrous acid.
 The statement "NO is an anhydride of nitrous acid" is incorrect.

D. Analysis of options.
Option 1,2, and 3 are all incorrect.

Answer: Option : 4

86) Explanation - question is asking about the number of s-s bond, s-o-s bonds, σ & π bonds in
trimer of So3.
Concept - Types & no. of bonds.
Solution - (So3)3 = structure

So, accordingly we can see there are

0 S-S bonds.
3 S-O-S bonds
12 σ bonds
6 π bonds (S = 0)

Final Answer - 2

87)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which molecules among BF₃, H₂O, NH₃, and HF
exhibit back bonding, a specific type of bonding interaction where a lone pair from one atom
donates electron density into an empty orbital of another atom.

Underlying Concept: Back bonding occurs when a ligand with lone pairs donates electron
density into an empty orbital (often a p-orbital) of a central atom, creating a resonance or
partial double bond character. This typically requires a central atom with an empty p-orbital
and a ligand that can donate lone pairs. It affects molecular stability and bonding
characteristics.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that boron in BF₃ is electron-deficient with an empty p-orbital
and fluorine has lone pairs. This combination facilitates back bonding. Hydrogen atoms cannot
accept electrons as they lack vacant orbitals.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all molecules with lone pairs exhibit back bonding; ignoring
the need for an empty orbital on the central atom; confusing hydrogen as an acceptor of back
bonding.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: H₂O and NH₃ have lone pairs but no empty orbitals
for back bonding. HF's hydrogen has no empty orbital, so back bonding cannot occur. Only
BF₃ has an electron-deficient central atom with an empty p-orbital suitable for back bonding.

88) In P4, sp3 hybridisation ∴ %p = = 75

89) SiO2 is a giant molecule it means one Si atom with four oxygen atom and one oxygen atom

combine with two Si atom hybridisation of Si = sp3

90)

BOTANY

91)

Question Asking About:

Chrophyll is the green pigment that helps plants absorb sunlight for photosynthesis. It is found
inside chloroplasts, but the question asks where exactly in the chloroplast it is located.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Chlorophyll is found in the grana, which are stacks of thylakoids (disk-like structure) inside the
chloroplast. These thylakoids contain chlorophyll in their membranes, where light is captured
for photosynthesis.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 98

93)

The correct answer is:

1. 7
Explanation:
Mesosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane found in prokaryotic cells, particularly
bacteria. They are involved in several functions:
1. DNA replication:
• Mesosomes are involved in the replication of DNA in prokaryotes.
2. Respiration:
• Mesosomes participate in cellular respiration by housing enzymes involved in energy
production.
3. DNA distribution to daughter cells:
• They assist in the distribution of DNA to daughter cells during cell division.
4. Secretion:
• Mesosomes are involved in the secretion of proteins or other substances, though this
function is not their primary role.
5. Increase the surface area:
• The folded structure of mesosomes increases the surface area, which is important for
cellular processes like respiration.
6. Contains enzymatic content:
• Mesosomes contain enzymes that are essential for various cellular activities, including
respiration and cell division.
7. Cell wall formation:
• Mesosomes also assist in cell wall formation during cell division.
Final Answer:
7 functions are performed by mesosomes.

94) NCERT, Page No. # 128-129

95) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 129, XIth para - IInd line

96)

Allen Module Page No. 159

97) NCERT Pg. # 98, 96, 97

98)

Explain Question : The image shows a diagram of a chloroplast, the organelle responsible for
photosynthesis in plant cells. The question asks to identify the structures labeled A, B, C, and
D.
Concept : This question is based on Plastid
Explanation :
A: Granum
A granum (plural: grana) is a stack of thylakoids, which are the sites of the light-dependent
reactions of photosynthesis.
B: Outer membrane
The outer membrane is the outermost boundary of the chloroplast, enclosing the entire
organelle.
C: Stroma
The stroma is the fluid-filled space within the inner membrane of the chloroplast, where the
light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) occur.
D: Stroma lamella
Stroma lamellae (also known as intergranal thylakoids) are unstacked thylakoids that connect
adjacent grana.
Final answer : 3

99) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 139 Para : II

100) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 163

101) NCERT XI Pg.# 163-10.1.1

102) NCERT XI, Page # 163

103) NCERT XI, Page # 165

104)

NCERT Pg # 166,167,169

105) NCERT-XI, Pg # 169,170

106) NCERT-XI, Pg # 163

107)

NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.2

108) NCERT Page # 169/170

109) NCERT XI Pg. # 6

110)

NCERT XI, Pg # 11

111) NCERT Pg # 09

112) NCERT XI Pg.# 7

 113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 09

According to binominal system the name of any organism made up of generic name & specific
opithat according to Assertion panthera is generic name & bio is specific epithet, therefore
reason is correct explanation of given assertion.

115)

Whittaker classified organisms based on the following criteria:

A. Cell structure (i)

B. Body organization (ii)
C. Mode of nutrition (iii)
D. Mode of reproduction (iv)
E. Physiological characters (vii)

116)

In five kingdom system, virus, viroid, prion and lichens were not mentioned.

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

118) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 23

119) NCERT (XI) Pg # 23

120) NCERT XI, Page # 26

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 36

123) NCERT Page No.: 30 to 40

124) NCERT-XI, Pg # 26,27

125) Hint : NCERT XI Bio Page. No. 18, 16, 32

Spirullina is unicellular but not the green alga.

126) NCERT-XI, Pg # 23,35

 127) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Solution:
Fucosanthin present in brown algae.
The correct answer is: 2

128)

NCERT pg no. 31

129) NCERT Pg.# 18, 128

130) NCERT Pg. # 30, Para-3.1

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21,34,37

132)

Solution:

The Correct answer is : 1. Cell wall

133) Protista

134) NCERT (XI) Page No. #39

135) (A) T. Schwann first explained that cells divided & new cells are formed from pre-existing
cells.
(E) "Animals", "Mammals" and "Dog" represent different taxa at different level.

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

137)

NCERT-XI-102, 103

138)

NCERT - XI. Pg # 101

139)

Let's analyze the statements and the image:

Image Description: The image shows a multilayered epithelial tissue, characteristic of

stratified epithelium.

Statement Analysis:

A. (a) Multilayered epithelium: Correct. The image clearly shows multiple layers of cells,
indicating a stratified epithelium.

B. (b) Limited role in secretion and absorption: Correct. Stratified epithelium is primarily
for protection, not secretion or absorption.

C. (c) Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses:
Correct. This is the primary function of stratified epithelium.

D. (d) They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx:
Correct. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in these locations.

Conclusion:

All four statements (a, b, c, and d) are related to the given figure of stratified
[Link], the correct answer is 2. Four.

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

141) NCERT XII Page No. 303

142)

NCERT Page no. 105

143) In the given diagram of neuron, the part marked as I, II, III and IV are respectively
dendrites, cell body, myelin sheath and nodes of Ranvier. Neuron is a specialized, impulse-
conducting cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system, consisting of the cell body
and its processes, the axon and dendrites.

144)

Concept:
Cholesterol is a type of lipid molecule classified as a sterol. It has a characteristic four-ring
steroid structure with a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached.
 Explanation:
Among the given options, option 3 correctly represents the molecular structure or type
corresponding to cholesterol.

145) NCERT Pg. # 157, 158

146) NCET XI Pg.# 145 (E)

147)

Question Explanation:
Chemical analysis helps in identifying the components of living tissue, including organic and
inorganic substances.

Explanation:

A. The assertion is true because analyzing compounds helps determine the organic and
inorganic components of living tissue.

The reason is false because ash analysis is used to identify inorganic components, not organic
ones. Organic components are usually identified through biochemical tests.

Correct Answer: Option (3)

Assertion is true but Reason is false

148)

NCERT [Link]. 106,108

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 108

150)

NCERT Pg. # 156

151)

Question Explanation:
The acid-insoluble fraction consists of macromolecules that do not dissolve in acids during
chemical analysis.

Explanation:
The acid-insoluble fraction contains biomacromolecules like proteins, nucleic acids,
polysaccharides, and lipids, as they are large molecules that do not dissolve in acid, unlike
small molecules such as amino acids, nucleotides, and monosaccharides.
Correct Answer:
Option (2) Proteins, Nucleic acids, Polysaccharides, and Lipids

152)

Concept:

A. Glucose = A hexose (6-carbon monosaccharide)

B. Ribose = A pentose (5-carbon sugar found in RNA)

C. Deoxyribose = Found in DNA

D. Glucose is reducing; Ribose is also reducing

Explanation:
Among the options, the most biologically consistent and commonly paired sugars are:
✅ A = Glucose
✅ B = Ribose
→ Seen together in nucleotide metabolism and energy cycles (e.g., ATP has both)

Final Answer: Option (2) A = Glucose, B = Ribose

153)

Glycogen is a highly branched polysaccharide composed of glucose units, and it has two types
of glycosidic linkages:1 α-1,4 Glycosidic Linkage → Forms the linear chain of glycogen.
2 α-1,6 Glycosidic Linkage → Forms the branch points in glycogen (occurring every 8–12
glucose units).

Final Answer : Option (3) Both (1) and (2)

154)

Explanation :

A phosphoglyceride always has:

A. Glycerol backbone * Fatty acids (can be saturated or unsaturated) attached to the

glycerol.

B. The phosphate group is also attached to the glycerol.

Basically, it's a glycerol with fatty acids and a phosphate group attached.
The correct answer is option 2.

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

156) NCERT XI Eng. Page # 156 (1st para)

ू रा पे राग ाफ)
िहदी पे ज # 156 (दस

157) NCERT XI, Pg. # 142, 143

158) Concept :
• Antiparallel : Strands running in opposite directions (one 5' to 3', the other 3' to 5').
• Complementary : Bases on opposite strands pair specifically )A with T, and G with C)

Explanation :
• The two strands of DNA run in opposite direction, meaning they are antiparallel.
• The nitrogenous bases on opposite strands pair in a specific manner (A with T, G with C),
making them complementary.

159) Module No. 3, Pg. # 121

160)

Explain Question : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on Respiration volume and capacities.

Solution :
1 – c – ii,
2 – d – iii,
3 – b – iv,
4–a–i

Final Answer : option (2)

161) Explaining :
Asking about "definition of vital capacity

Concept :
This question is based on Respiratory volume and capacity

Solution: The maximum volume of air a person con breathe in after a forced expiration is
called as Vital capacity, It is equal to VC = TV + ERV + IRV

Hence,
 Option (3) is correct : TV + ERV + IRV

162) NCERT XI Pg. # 275

163)

NCERT Pg. # 274, Fig. # 17.5

164)

NCERT Page No. # 273

165) NCERT Pg. # 190

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An electrocardiogram (ECG) records the electrical activity of the heart. The major waves and
complexes in a normal ECG correspond to specific electrical events:

A. P-wave: Represents the depolarization of the atria.

B. QRS complex: Represents the depolarization of the ventricles. Atrial repolarization also
occurs during this time but is usually masked by the much larger ventricular depolarization
signal.
C. T-wave: Represents the repolarization of the ventricles.

Therefore, the repolarization of the atria is the electrical event that is typically not
represented by a distinct and separate wave in a standard ECG. Its signal is usually
overshadowed by the prominent QRS complex, which signifies ventricular depolarization.

Looking at the options:

A. Depolarization of atria (represented by the P-wave)

B. Repolarization of atria (not represented by a distinct wave)
C. Depolarization of ventricles (represented by the QRS complex)
D. Repolarization of ventricles (represented by the T-wave)

Final Answer : (2) Repolarization of atria

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Explanation :

Each gram of hemoglobin (Hb) can bind to 1.34 ml of oxygen (O₂).

In a normal healthy adult, there are about 15 grams of Hb per 100 ml of blood.

So, the total oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is:

1.34 ml/g × 15 g/100 ml = ~20.1 ml O₂ per 100 ml of blood

Final Answer : (1)

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