15-06-2025

1103CMD303021250056 MD

PHYSICS

1) 4 cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance of 1Ω are connected in parallel to a load resistor of
2Ω. Then the current through the load resistor is :

(1) 2A
(2) 1.5A
(3) 1A
(4) 0.888A

2) Determine the currents I for the network shown below (Fig.) :-

(1) 3A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 4.5 A
(4) 1A

3) To get maximum current through a resistance of 2.5 , one can use m rows of cells, each row
having n cells. The internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 . What are the values of n and m if the
total number of cells is 45 ?

(1) m= 3, n = 15
(2) m= 5, n = 9
(3) m= 9, n = 5
(4) m= 15, n = 3

4) If the length of the filament of a heater is reduced by 10%, the power of the heater will :-

(1) increase by about 9%

(2) increase by about 11%
(3) increase by about 19%
(4) decrease by about 10%

5) A bulb rated 200 W, 200V is used at 100 V. Then the number of electrons passed through bulb in
one seconds is

(1) 3.125 × 1017

(2) zero
(3) 3.125 × 1018
(4) 6.25 × 1018

6) If 2 bulbs rated 2.5 W – 110 V and 100 W – 110 V are connected in series to a 220 V supply then

(1) 2.5 W bulb will fuse

(2) 100 W bulb will fuse
(3) both will fuse
(4) both will not fuse

7) The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20 Ω. It requires 0.01 A current for full - scale
deflection. The value of resistance to convert it into a voltmeter of the range 20 V will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) In the circuit given below, the voltmeter reads 30 V. What is the resistance of the voltmeter ?

(1) 300 Ω
(2) 400 Ω
(3) 700 Ω
(4) 1200 Ω

9) In an ammeter 10% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of

galvanometer is G then resistance of ammeter is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire AB of 60 cm length fixed at both ends. In order
to get zero reading in the galvanometer G, the free end of J is to be placed from B at :
(1) 36 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 24 cm

11) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If α > β then at eqilibrium which of the

following may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & m1 = m2

(2) q1 = q2 & m1 = m2
(3) q1 > q2 & m1 < m2
(4) q1 = q2 & m1 > m2

12) Two point charges of + 2 μC and + 6μC repel each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given an
additional charge of – 4 μC, then force will become :-

(1) 4N (attractive)
(2) 60 N (attractive)
(3) 4 N (Repulsive)
(4) 12 N (attractive)

13) A semi circular arc of radius a is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is λ. The
electric field at the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14)

The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of charge q and radius
R will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A cube have a point charge q on its centre and 2q & 3q point charges on vertices, as shown in

the diagram. Electric flux passing through the shaded face is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

16) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net elecric

potential at the centre of curvature is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) Three charges Q,(+q) and (+q) are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ as
shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to :-

(1)

(2) (– q)
(3) (+ q)
(4) Zero

18) In bringing an electron towards another electron, electrostatic potential energy of the system :

(1) Deceases
(2) Increases
(3) Becomes zero
(4) Remains same

19) The equation of an equipotential line in an electric field is y = 2x, then the electric field strength
vector at (1, 2) may be:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of with an electric field intensity It

experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is:-

(1) 5 mC
(2)
(3) 8 mC
(4) 2 mC

21)

Three charges are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 'a' as shown in figure. The
net dipole moment of the system is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It
experiences a torque equal to 4Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2cm, is :

(1) 7 µC
(2) 8 mC
(3) 2 mC
(4) 5 mC

23) Two spheres A and B of radius 4 cm and 6 cm are given charges 80 μC and 40 μC respectively. If
they are connected by a conducting wire, the amount of charge flowing through wire is

(1) 20 μC from A to B
(2) 32 μC from A to B
(3) 16 μC from B to A
(4) 20 μC from B to A

24) Three conducting concentric spherical shells of radius R, 2R and 3R have charges Q, and – 2Q
respectively. The intermediate shell is now grounded. Find the charge flow into the earth.

(1)

(2)

(3) Q
(4) 0

25) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend upon:

(1) Medium between the plates

(2) Separation between the plates
(3) Charge on the plates
(4) Area of plates

26) A parallel plate capacitor is charged using a battery. After the capacitor is fully charged, the
battery is disconnected and the plates are moved apart, then :-

(1) the charge on the plates increases

(2) the potential decreases
(3) the capacitance increases
(4) the electric fields strength remains constant.

27) Capacity of the capacitor of plates area A1 and A2 (A2 < A1) in front of each other is given by
(plate separation is d)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. A is
given a charge +Q while B is earthed. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is :

(1)

(2) 4πε0(a + b)
(3) 4πε0b

(4)

29) Five capacitors together with their capacitances are shown in the adjoining figure. The potential
difference between the points A and B is 60 volt. The equivalent capacitance between the point A

and B and charge on capacitor 5μF will be respectively –

(1) 44 μF, 30 μC
(2) 16 μF, 150 μC
(3) 15 μF, 200 μC
(4) 4 μF, 50 μC

30) Find net capacitance between X and Y :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1μf

31) Three capacitors of capacitance 3μF, 10μF and 15μF are connected in series to a voltage source
of 100V. The charge on 15μF is :

(1) 50 μC
(2) 160 μC
(3) 200 μC
(4) 280 μC

32) In the given circuit, if point b is connected to earth and a potential of 600 V is given to a point a,
the charge on capacitor is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Four plates of equal area A are separated by equal distance d and are arranged as shown in

figure. The equivalent capacity is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) In the circuit diagram, potential difference between points A and B is 200 volt, the potential

difference between points a and b when the switch S is open, is:-

(1) 100 volt

(2)

(3)

(4) 50 volt

35) Minimum number of capacitors of 2μF capacitor each required to obtain a capacitor of 5μF
will be :

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

36) Find net capacitance between A and B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) A capacitor of capacity 10μF is charged by 5 volt and then connected to an uncharged capacitor
of capacitance 40μF. The charge of both capacitor will be.

(1) 10μc, 40μc

(2) 25μc, 25μc
(3) 40μc, 10μc
(4) 1μc, 1μc

38) Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in a circuit as shown in figure. The potential difference

(VA – VB) is:

(1) 8 V
(2) –8 V
(3) 12 V
(4) –12 V

39) A capacitor of capacitance 5 μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of

the cell is 0.5 Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plate is :

(1) 0
(2) 5 μC
(3) 10 μC
(4) 25 μC

40) In the circuit shown in figure, the battery is an ideal one with emf V. The capacitor is initially

uncharged. Switch S is closed at time t = 0. The final charge Q on the

capacitor is :

(1)
(2)

(3) CV

(4)

41) The same mass of copper is drawn into two wires 2mm and 3mm thick. The two wires are
connected in series & current is passed through them. The ratio of heats produced in the two wire is
:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find

the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In the given circuit, current flowing through 25V cell is :

(1) 7.2A
(2) 10A
(3) 12A
(4) 14.2A

44)

In the circuit shown here, the voltmeter reads 30V. What is the resistance of the voltmeter
(1) 1200 Ω
(2) 700 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 300 Ω

45) An ammeter reads upto 1A. Its resistance is 0.81 Ω. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of
the required shunt is :-

(1) 0.03 Ω
(2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω
(4) 0.09 Ω

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of following is correct set of homologue:-

(1) HCN and CH3CN

(2) CH3NH2 and CH3NHCH3
CH3–CH2–OH and
(3)

(4)

and

2) Which numbering is right for IUPAC naming.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) IUPAC name of given compound is –

(1) 5–Ethyl–3, 3–dimethyl hexene

(2) 5–Ethyl–3, 3–dimethyl cyclohexene
(3) 4 –Ethyl–6, 6–dimethyl cyclohexene
(4) 3–Ethyl–5, 5–dimethyl cyclohex–2–ene

4) IUPAC name of the compound is:

(1) 1-Amino-3, 4-dihydroxybutan-4-one

(2) 4-Amino-2-hydroxybutanoic acid
(3) 4-Amino-1, 2-dihydroxybutanone
(4) 1-Amino-3-hydroxybutanoic acid

5) The correct decreasing order of preference of functional groups during the IUPAC nomenclature
of polyfunctional compounds is:

(1) ―COOH, ―CONH2, ―CHO, ―OH

(2) ―OH, ―COOH, ―CONH2, ―CHO
(3) ―CHO, ―COOH, ―OH, ―CONH2
(4) ―CONH2, ―CHO, ―OH, ―COOH

6) The state of hybridization of C1, C3, C4 and C6 of the hydrocarbon,

is in the following sequence:-

(1) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp

(2) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
(3) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2
(4) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3

7) Assertion :- is called cyclohexanecarboxylic acid

Reason :- It is a heterocyclic compound.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

8) The species given below that does not show disproportionation reaction is

(1) BrO–
–
(2) BrO2
–
(3) BrO3
–
(4) BrO4

9) Oxidation states of each carbons in C3O2 are respectively.

(1) +2, 0, +2
(2) +3, 0, +1
(3) +4, –2, +2
(4) –1, +3, +2

10) Choose the set of coefficients that correctly balances the following equation :

x y z a b
(1) 2 14 6 2 7
(2) 1 14 6 2 7
(3) 2 7 6 2 7
(4) 2 7 6 1 7
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11)

Equivalent wt of FeC2O4 in
FeC2O4 → Fe+3 + CO2

(1) M
(2) M/6
(3) M/2
(4) M/3

12) In which of the following the oxidation number of oxygen has been arranged in increasing order?

(1) OF2 < KO2 < BaO2 < O3

(2) BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2
(3) BaO2 < O3 < OF2 < KO2
(4) KO2 < OF2 < O3 < BaO2

13) Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) For the following :

(a) I– (b) Cl– (c) Br–
the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be:

(1) Cl– < Br– < I–

(2) I– < Cl– < Br–
(3) Br– < Cl– < I–
(4) I– < Br– < Cl–

16) Alkyl fluorides are synthesised by

(1) Finkelstein reaction

(2) Swart reaction
(3) Kolbe reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction

17) CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by :

(1) Benedict test

(2) Iodoform test
(3) Tollen's reagent test
(4) Fehling solution test

18) Rate of will be negligible in:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Reactivity order for SN1 reaction :-

(1) d > c > b > a

(2) a > b > c > d
(3) a > d > c > b
(4) b > c > d > a

20) Find reactivity towards E2 reaction :-

(1) P > Q > R

(2) R > Q > P
(3) Q > P > R
(4) Q > R > P

21) Which alcohol is most reactive towards Lucas reagent.

(1) Benzyl alcohol

(2) p-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
(3) Allyl alcohol
(4) Propan-1-ol
22) What are the major products from the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Predict the major product of the following reaction? A

(1) 2, 4–dinitrophenol
(2) 3,4–dinitrophenol
(3) 1 and 2 both
(4) None

24) P give positive test with P

(1) Ceric ammonium nitrate

(2) aq. NaHCO3
(3) Neutral FeCl3
(4) Fehling solution

25) Identify C in the following scheme

(1) Propyne
(2) Propene
(3) 2-propanol
(4) Propanone
26) A C2H5OH B, A and B respectively are :-

(1) Alkene, alkanal

(2) Alkyne, alkanal
(3) Alkanal, Alkene
(4) Alkene, alkyne

27) The major product of following reaction will be:-

product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In following reaction product is

product is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 reacts with hot and excess HI, then formed product is :-

(1) CH3CH2I and CH3CH2OH

(2) CH3CH2OH (2 moles)
(3) CH3CH2I (2 moles)
(4) None of above

30)

Which one is correct for dehydration of alcohol?

(A) Reaction proced at high temperature.
(B) Reaction support by entropy and opposed by enthalpy.
(C) Formation of classical carbocation in the R.D.S.

(D) In general Reaction follow E1 path

(1) Only A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) All

31) Major product of the following reaction :

+ Br2 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
32) (P) (Q) (R) (S)
Final product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) In which reaction 2° Alcohol is obtained :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

34) product:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35)
Final product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Ph3CH

(4)

36) Most reactive with HCN is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Suppose the following reaction.

(Mixture of product).
The dominant component of product will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) CH3–Br X Y

(1) (CH3)3C–OH

(2)

(3) (CH3)3C–NH2

(4)

39)
R is :-

(1) CH3–
(2) CH3–CH2–

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–

40) Match List-I and List-II

List-I List-II

A (i) SnCl2 + HCl

B (ii) Zn-Hg/Conc. HCl

C (iii) H2/Pd-BaSO4

D (iv) Cl2/Red-P

(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

(2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)

41) The reagent used for the separation of acetaldehyde from acetophenone is :

(1) NaHSO3
(2) C6H5NHNH2
(3) NH2OH
(4) NaOH + I2

42) In the reaction,

the product C is

(1) C6H5OH
(2) C6H6
(3) C6H5COONa
(4) C6H5ONa

43)
Product C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which combination of compounds undergo esterification reaction at fastest rate ?

(1) Methanol & Formic acid

(2) Ethanol & acetic acid
(3) Butan-2-ol & propanoic acid
(4) All will react at equal rate
45) , B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) A double stranded DNA was found to contain 39% of adenine bases. The % of G + C in this DNA
will be –

(1) 58%
(2) 42%
(3) 11%
(4) 22%

2) In a double stranded DNA, if base sequence in one strand is ATTAGA then find out ?
(A) Total no. of hydrogen bond
(B) Total no. of phosphodiester bond
(C) Total no. of sugar molecule
(D) Total no. of nitrogen base

(1) (A)-13, (B)-12, (C)-12, (D)-12

(2) (A)-12, (B)-11, (C)-10, (D)-10
(3) (A)-13, (B)-10, (C)-12, (D)-12
(4) (A)-12, (B)-12, (C)-10, (D)-10

3)

Identify the following molecule shown below with their nature and occurance from the given table.
 Molecule Nature Occurance

(1) Uracil Nucleotide Found in RNA

(2) Uridine Nucleoside Found in both RNA and DNA

(3) Uridylic acid Nucleotide Found in RNA

(4) Uridine Nucleoside Found in t-RNA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) What is the correct about given chemical compound :- (i) It can be present in
both RNA and DNA.
(ii) It is purine type N-base.
(iii) It is nucleoside.
(iv) It is cytosine.

(1) Only iii and iv

(2) Only i and ii
(3) Only i and iii
(4) Only ii and iv

5) The length of DNA having 23 base pairs :-

(1) 72 Å
(2) 87.4 Å
(3) 78.2 Å
(4) 74.8 Å

6) Which of the following match is correct.

 No. of
Organism
nucleotide

ϕ × 174
(i) (A) 4.6 × 106 bp
Bacteriophage

Lambda
(ii) (B) 3.3 × 109 bp
bacteriophage

(iii) [Link] (C) 5386 N bases

(iv) Human (D) 48502 bp

(1) (i) = D, (ii) = C, (iii) = B, (iv) = A
(2) (i) = B, (ii) = D, (iii) = A, (iv) = C
(3) (i) = A, (ii) = D, (iii) = C, (iv) = B
(4) (i) = C, (ii) = D, (iii) = A, (iv) = B

7) DNA fragments are :

(1) Negatively charged

(2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(4) Positively charged

8) (A) Histone octamer is made up of 5 types of Histone proteins.

(B) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA Helix.
(C) Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.
(D) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
How many statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) Following are the two statements regarding the chromatin :-

(a) Some region of chromatin are loosely packed and are referred to as euchromatin.
(b) The chromatin that is more densely packed and stain light are called Heterochromatin.
Of the above statements which one of the following option is correct

(1) (a) is correct but (b) is false

(2) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(3) Both (a) and (b) correct
(4) Both (a) and (b) false

10) Fill in the blanks A and B.

Kingdom → Phylum → [A] → Order → [B]

(1) A - Genus; B - Species

(2) A - Family; B - Class
(3) A - Class; B - Family
(4) A - Species; B - Division

11) Which one of the following is the first step in taxonomy?

(1) Naming
(2) Description
(3) Identification
(4) Classification

12) The salient feature of DNA are :

(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chain
(ii) Back bone is constituted by sugar and nitrogen base
(iii) Two chains have parellel polarity
(iv) Bases in two strands are paired through H-bond
(v) The two chains are coiled in left handed fashion

(1) i, iv
(2) i, ii, iii, v
(3) i, iii, v
(4) i, ii, iii, iv, v

13)

Read the following statements (A–D) :

(A) In binomial nomenclature, name of author should be italicised
(B) In a family less characters are common in comparison to genus
(C) Gas vacuoles are inclusion bodies in cyanobacteria
(D) Diatoms have plated cell wall

Which of the above statements are NOT correct?

(1) A, C
(2) B, C
(3) A, D
(4) B, D

14) Consider the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Biological names are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin.
(B) Animals, mammals and dogs are different taxa at the different level
(C) By using artificial system of classification, we can get evolutionary relations in organisms.
(D) Bacteria cannot be considered as biological species according to the biological concept of
species
Which of the above statements(s) are correct?

(1) A, B & D
(2) B, C & D
(3) B & C only
(4) A & B only

15) In 1969, R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom system of classification. On which basis he
classified organisms into five kingdoms i.e. monera, protista, fungi, plantae and animalia ?

(1) Cell structure & body organisation

(2) Body organisation & the mode of nutrition
(3) Reproduction & phylogenetic relationship
(4) All the above

16) Chlorella, Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium, Amoeba were earlier placed with plants and
animals respectively but after Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, they should be brought together
in:-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

17) Single protective unit of bacteria is made up of:-

(1) Cell wall and cell membrane

(2) Glycocalyx, cell wall and flagella
(3) Cell wall, cell membrane and pili
(4) Capsule, cell wall and cell membrane

18) Some characteristics are given below :

Unicellular, Aquatic, Autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition and asexual reproduction by
binary fission, Eukaryotic
Above mentioned characters are related to which kingdom ?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Animalia

19) Which of the following statement is not correct about fungi ?

(1) Fungi show a great diversity in morphology and habitat.

(2) A zygospore is formed by fusion of two spores.
(3) The asexual spores are conidia produced exogenously.
(4) The basidiospores are exogenously produced on the basidium.

20) Assertion (A) : Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic autotrophs.

Reason (R) : Some of cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called
heterocysts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

21) R.H. Whittaker included how many of the following properties in kingdom fungi ?
Autotrophs, Heterotrophs, Multicellular, Unicellular, Saprophytes, Parasites, Prokaryotes,
Eukaryotes.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven

22) How many of following statements are incorrect ?

(A) Albugo is a parasitic fungi belonging to basidiomycetes.
(B) Chrysophytes are the chief producers in the oceans.
(C) Red tides are caused by dinoflagellates.
(D) Slime moulds form fruting bodies bearing spores in favourable condition.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

23) Given below the following statements :

(a) Cell wall of fungi composed of chitin & polysaccharide.
(b) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is aseptate & unbranched & Asexual reproduction is performed
by conidia.
(c) In ascomycetes, conidia are produced exogenously on conidiophores.
(d) Trichoderma belong to class basidiomycetes.
(e) Bread and beer are manufactured by Yeast
How many statements are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4
24) Read the following statement (A-D).
(A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin.
(B) Most fungi are heterotrophic
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association with algae as lichens and with roots of higher
plants as mycorrhiza
(D) Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy
How many of the above statement are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

25)

Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance ?

(1) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
(2) Factors occur in pairs
(3) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(4) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other recessive

26) Which of the following correctly indicates about A, B, C of given diagram?

(1) A-Hemizygous, B-Heterozygous, C-Homozygous

(2) A-Heterozygous, B-Heterozygous, C-Homozygous
(3) A-Heterozygous, B-Homozygous, C-Heterozygous
(4) A-Hemizygous, B-Homozygous, C-Heterozygous

27)

If first child of a normal parents is albinic then what will be the probability of their second child to
being normal.

(Albinism is an autosomal recessive disorder):-

(1) 100%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 50%

28) Bonding between deoxyribose and base in pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is:

(1) 1' – 1' glycosidic linkage

(2) 1' – 6' glycosidic linkage
(3) 1' – 9' glycosidic linkage
(4) 1' – 4' glycosidic linkage

29) Given below is the diagram of a monohybrid cross between round and wrinkled seeded pea
plants. The round allele (R) is dominant over wrinkled allele (r). From the given diagram identify a,
b, c, d & e :-

(1) a = R, b = r, c = RR, d = rr, e = RR

(2) a = R, b = r, c = Rr, d = rr, e = RR
(3) a = r, b = R, c = rr, d = Rr, e = RR
(4) a = R, b = r, c = Rr, d = Rr, e = Rr

30) How many of the given traits in garden pea are dominant ?
Yellow seed, Round seed, Terminal flower, Dwarf plant, White flower

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

31)

Read the following statement and choose correct option :

(A) Recessive gene present in X chromosome of human male express in hemizygous condition

(B) Recessive gene present in X chromosome of human female express in homozygous condition
(1) A is correct but B is incorrect
(2) Both A and B incorrect
(3) A is incorrect but B is correct
(4) Both A and B correct

32)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When many alleles of a single gene govern a character, it is called polygenic
inheritance.
Statement II : In Polygenic inheritance, the effect of each allele is additive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

33) Assertion: Male honeybees do not have father & sons, but have a grandfather & can have
grandsons.
Reason: Male honeybees develop from unfertilized egg by the process of parthenogenesis.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

34) Match Column - I with Column- II :

Column - I Column- II

(a) Phenylketonuria (i) Complete dominance

(b) Trait of sickle cell anaemia (ii) Pleiotropic gene

(c) Flower colour of dog plant (iii) Incomplete dominance

(d) Pod colour of pea plant (iv) Co dominance

(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

35) Assertion: The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a gene on
metabolic pathways which contribute towards different phenotypes.
Reason: An example of this is the disease phenylketonuria, which occurs in humans. Choose the
correct option:

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true

36) In a dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation. How many
plants will show dominant trait for both characters ?

(1) 218
(2) 324
(3) 123
(4) 576

37) Following given table is regarding ABO blood group, Identify W, X, Y, Z.

W X Y Z
A 0 B 0 0 0
(1) I I I I I I AB
0 0 0 0
(2) IA I IB I AB I I
0 0 0 0
(3) IB I IA I AB I I
0 0
(4) IB IA I A IA AB I I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38)

Persons with HbAHbs genotype are called carrier of the disease sickle cell Anaemia. This is due to-

They are apparently unaffected but having 50% chance of transmission of mutant gene to
(1)
progeny
(2) They are affected with 100% chance of transmission of mutant gene to progeny
(3) Only females exhibits this sickle cell trait
(4) Only males exhibit this sickle cell trait

39) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Haemophilia is X- linked recessive disorder.

In human a pair of x-chromosome are present in the female, whereas the presence of an X and Y
(2)
chromosome are determinant of male characteristic.
(3) Eggs fertilised by sperms having X chromosome become male.
(4) In human beings and in Drosophila the males have one X and one Y chromosome.

40) Select the correct statements about sickle cell anaemia.

(A) There is a change in gene for beta globin.
(B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the place of Lysine.
(C) It is an example of point mutation.
(D) In the normal gene U is replaced by A.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (B), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

41) Given pedigree show the inheritance of :-

(1) Autosomal recessive

(2) Autosomal Dominant
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) X-linked Dominant

42) If a colourblind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the
probalility of their son being colourblind is :-

(1) 0
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.75
(4) 1

43) Study the two cases carefully.

Mother Father Children

With
Case 1 Normal Sons always with disease
disease

With Sons and daughters

Case 2 Normal
disease could show disease

The correct interpretation of the two cases is

(1) Case 1 : X-linked recessive disease ; case 2 : autosomal recessive disease
 Case 1 and 2 : X-linked recessive disease ;
(2)
Case 2 : X-linked recessive disease
(3) Case 1 : Y-linked recessive disease; case 2 : X-linked recessive disease
(4) None of these

44) The minimum weight of tomatoes obtained from a plant is 20g. The maximum wt. of tomatoes
obtained is 120g. What will be the weight of tomatoes obtained by crossing plants with genotype
AAbb × aabb

(1) 45g
(2) 70g
(3) 100g
(4) 25g

45) Given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal dominant disorder. What would be the genotype

of individuals 5 and 6 ?

(1) AA, aa
(2) aa, AA
(3) aa, Aa
(4) Aa, Aa

46) Which of the following is not included in cellular barrier of innate immunity ?

(1) Monocyte
(2) P.M.N.L. neutrophils
(3) T killer cell
(4) Macrophage

47) Full form of MALT is

(1) Macrophages associated lymphoid tissue

(2) Macrophages associated lymphoid tumor
(3) Mucosa associated lymphoid tumor
(4) Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

48) Acquired immunity is

(1) Pathogen specific

(2) Pathogen non-specific
(3) Congenital
(4) Non-effective

49) Histamine in the blood is secreted by:

(1) Monocytes
(2) Macrophages
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Basophils

50) The ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health was disproved by the

(1) discovery of blood circulation

(2) discovery of compound microscope
(3) demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with black bile
(4) both (a) and (c)

51) Choose the incorrect statement about health

(1) Health can simply be defined as absence of disease.

(2) Healthy people are more efficient at work.
(3) Health increases productivity.
(4) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality.

52) Innate immunity is a ________ type of defense mechanism.

(1) Specific
(2) Non-specific
(3) Congenital
(4) Both (2) and (3)

53) Vaccine is included in :-

(1) Natural passive acquired immunity

(2) Natural active acquired immunity
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity

54) Match the columns

Select the correct options

A B C D
(1)
2 4 3 1
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 1 3 2 4

55) When readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is
called…..

(1) cell-mediated immunity

(2) passive immunity
(3) active immunity
(4) innate immunity

56) What is the correct sequence of origin of mammals?

(1) Sauropsids Pelycosaurs Therapsids Mammals

(2) Synapsids Pelycosaurs Therapsids Mammals
(3) Sauropsids Synapsids Thecodonts Mammals
(4) Synapsids Sauropsids Therapsids Mammals

57) The change in gene frequency occurred by chance is called as:

(1) Mutation
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene migration
(4) Gene flow

58) Identify the correct match from column I and column II:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

59) What was the cranial capacity of java man :

(1) 400 cc
(2) 650 cc
(3) 900 cc
(4) 1450 cc

60) Big Bang theory attempts to explain.

(1) Origin of earth

(2) Origin of life
(3) Origin of universe
(4) Origin of environment

61) Which is not a vestigial organ in man ?

(1) Nictitating membrane

(2) Tail vertebrae
(3) Vermiform appendix
(4) Nails

62) Select homologous organs from the following.

(1) Forelimbs of lizard and wings of birds

(2) Wings of birds and insects
(3) Wings of pterodactyl and insect
(4) Vermiform appendix and sacrum in human

63) The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :

(1) lack of random mating
(2) random mating
(3) lack of migration
(4) lack of mutations

64) Genetic drift radpidly operates in :-

(1) Small isolated population

(2) Large isolated population
(3) Fast reproductive population
(4) Slow reproductive population

65) According to Darwin, the driving force of evolution is

(1) mutation
(2) natural selection
(3) gene flow
(4) migration

66) Evolution by natural selection requires

(1) presence of acquired variations among the individuals

(2) presence of genetic variations among the individuals
(3) isolated habitat
(4) constant environmental conditions

67) Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution.

(1) Fossils
(2) Morphology
(3) Embryo
(4) Vestigial organ

68) Mutation are :

(1) Random and directionless

(2) Small and directional
(3) Small and directionless
(4) Random and directional

69) ______________ is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.

(1) Mutation
(2) Fitness
(3) Adaptation
(4) Acclimatization
70) Which of the following options correctly represent the two key features of Darwin’s theory of
evolution?

(1) Mutation and natural selection

(2) Artificial and natural selection.
(3) Branching descent and natural selection.
(4) Branching descent and mutation.

71) Saltation is referred as-

(1) Single step small mutation

(2) Multiple step small mutation
(3) Single step large mutation
(4) None of these

72) Select the correct option regarding Lamarck’s principles of evolution

(1) Use and disuse, inheritance of acquired characters.

(2) Natural selection , fitness.
(3) Mutation , inheritance of acquired characters.
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters , gene flow.

73) Correct sequences of evolution of Man

(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Modern man
(D) Neanderthal

(1) A – B – D – C
(2) A – D – B – C
(3) B – A – D – C
(4) B – A – C – D

74) Match the column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Homo habilis (P) Ate meat

(B) Homo erectus (Q) 650–800 cc

(C) Neanderthal (R) 900cc

East and central

(S)
Asia
(1) (A)–Q, (B)–P,R, (C)–S
(2) (A)–Q, (B)–P, S (C)–R
(3) (A)–R, (B)–Q, (C)–P, S
(4) (A)–P, S (B)–Q, (C)–R
75) Suddenly appearance of ancestral character is know as

(1) Analogy
(2) Homology
(3) Connecting link
(4) Atavism

76) Match to cloumn X with Y

Cloumn-X Cloumn-Y

(A) Invertebrate (P) 350 mya

(B) Jawless fish (Q) 1938

(C) sea weeds (R) 500 mya

(D) Coelacanth (S) 320 mya

(1) (A)–R, (B)–P, (C)–S, (D)–Q
(2) (A)–R, (B)–P, (C)–Q, (D)–S
(3) (A)–R, (B)–S, (C)–P, (D)–Q
(4) (A)–P, (B)–R, (C)–S, (D)–Q

77) Which factor not included in hardy-weinberg equilibrium

(1) Gene flow

(2) Genetic Drift
(3) Survival fittest
(4) Natural Selection

78) Identify the animal-A in the family tree of dinosaurs in the adjacent figure ?
(1) Stegosaurs
(2) Pelycosaurs
(3) Triceratops
(4) Brachiosaurs

79) Darwin finches are example of :-

(1) Analogous organs

(2) Palaeontological evidence
(3) Embryological evidence
(4) Biogeographical evidence

80) Among the following, how many statements are correct ?

(A) Hugo de vries called single step large mutation is saltation
(B) The essence of Darwinian theory of evolution is natural selection
(C) About 2000 million years ago, the first cellular form of life appeared on earth
(D) Brain capacity of Homo erectus is around 600 cc

(1) A, B
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C

81) 'Founder effect' is related to:-

(1) Gene recombination and Natural selection
(2) Genetic drift and origin of new species
(3) Isolation and Natural selection
(4) Hybridization and origin of new species

82) Use and disuse theory is related to :-

(1) Darwin
(2) Lamarck
(3) Oparin
(4) Haldane

83) Observe the following table about human evolution and choose the correct option.

Human/Human
Options Characteristic
ancestor
(1) Neanderthal man Per historic cave art
Cranial capacity
(2) Homo habilis
650-800C.C.
Used hide to protect
(3) Australopithecus
their body
Cranial capacity
(4) Homo erectus 900C.C. probably did
not eat meat
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84)

Who did an experiment to prove that "The organic compounds were the basis of life"?

(1) Darwin
(2) Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey
(3) Melvin
(4) Fox

85)

Wings of insect, bird and bat are example of

(1) Vestigial organs

(2) Analogous organs
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Exoskeleton

86)
Golden age Dinosaurs was during:

(1) Cenozoic era

(2) Palaeozoic era
(3) Archeozoic era
(4) Mesozoic era

87) Mammals like reptile orginated in :-

(1) Jurassic
(2) Triassic
(3) Creraceous
(4) Permian

88)

Decent with modification is the basis of which theory:

(1) Recapitulation theory

(2) Oparin's theory
(3) Theory of organic evolution
(4) Cell theory

89)

Larget cranial capacity was found in:

(1) Peking man

(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Java man
(4) Cromagnon man

90) Homo habilis refers to:

(1) Wandering species

(2) Ancient man
(3) Modern man
(4) Tool-maker
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 3 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 1 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 2 1 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 1 4 3 4 1 4 4 1 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 2 2 4 4 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) I = = = = 0.888A

2)

3)

4)
As power

Where

= = 11%
5)

6)

R1 = R 2.5 w =

R2 = R100 W =

V1 : V2 = R1 : R2 : = 100 : 2.5 = 40 : J

V1 = (220V) = 214 volt

For bulb B1 : V1(214 v) > Vp(110V)
Hence will get fused.

7) S = (n – 1) G here n=
S = 99 × 20 = 1980Ω = 1980 Ω

8)

1200 Ω

9)
10% of I = 0.1 I

0.9 I × S = 0.1 I G ⇒ S =
Req = S || G

∴ Req =
10)
8 (x) = 12(60 – x)
2x = 180 – 3x Þ 5x = 180 x = 36 cm

11)

Concept Based:
• Electrostatic Force: The repulsive force between two charged bodies due to their charges.
• Tension in the Strings: The force exerted by the strings the balls, which has both
horizontal vertical components.
• Equilibrium of Forces: Conditions for horizontal vertical forces to balance in a static
system.
Formula :
• Horizontal equilibrium:
The electrostatic force Fe must balance the horizontal Component of tension:

Fe = T1sin(α) for ball and Fe = T2 sin(θ) for ball 2

Vertical equilibrium:
The vertical forces (gravitational forces) are balanced by the vertical components of the
tension:
m1 = T1cos (α) for ball 1 and m2g cos(ß) for ball 2
Calculation:
• Horizontal equilibrium:
Since a > b this implies sin (a) > sin (b), so the tension T1 in the string of ball 1 must be than
the tension T2 in the string of ball 2. Therefore, We have:

T1 < T2
This means that the tension in the string of ball 1 is less than the tension in the string of ball 2.
• Vertical equilibrium:
Since T1 < T2 and cos(a) < cos(ß), it follows that the mass m1 of ball 1 must be less than the
mass of m2 of ball 2.
Hence:

m 1 < m2
• Relating the charges:
The greater horizontal displacement of ball 1 implies that the electrostatic force on ball 1 is
larger. This can only happen if q1 ≥ q2 (the charge on ball 1 is greater than to the charge on
ball 2).

From the analysis, we conclude the correct answer is Option 3: q1 > q2 ​ & m1 < m2
12) F1 = = 12N repulsion
After adding charge (–4µC)

F2 = = 4N attractive

13) here

14) , for maximum

⇒ R2 + x2 = 3x2 ⇒

15)

For shaded portion – ϕ = ϕq + ϕ2q + ϕ3q

16)

17) Usystem =
 ⇒ 2Qq = –q2

⇒Q=

18)

In bringing an electron towards another electron, electrostatic potential energy of the system
incrreases.

19)
E is perpendicular to EPS.

20)

21)

22)

τ = pE sinθ

So coulomb
23) q'A = q × = 120 × = 48 μC
Δq = (80 – 48) = 32 μC. This goes to B.

24) Let a charge flows into earth ,a=0

25) (A) Question Explanation : The problem asks which factor does not affect the
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
(B) Concept : Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor

(C) Formula :
where:
C is capacitance
ε is permittivity of the medium,
A is plate area,
d is plate separation.
(D) Calculation :
Capacitance depends on plate area A, separation d, and medium permittivity ε.
However, it does mot depend on the charge stored on the plates.
(E) Final Answer : (3)

26)

Question Explanation:
We need to comment what happens to physical quantities associated with parallel plate
capacitor, when first it is charged by battery, then battery is removed and then, plates moved
apart.

Concept : Physical quantities related to parallel plate capacitor.

Solution :
As the battery is disconnected, charge on the capacitor (Q) remains constant.

⇒ remains constant

Note :
d (Increases) ⇒ C (decreases)

Final Answer : option (4). the electric fields strength remains constant.
27)

28)
E = 0 for r < a
E = 0 for r > b
potential of outer sphere = 0
potential of inner sphere is V1

V = V1 – V2 = V1 – 0

29)
Equivalent circuit.

Ceq. = 4 µF
Charge on 5 µF capacitor

30) 1. Explanation:
We are given a network of capacitors connected between x and y. we need to find equivalent
capacitance.
2. Concept:
Salving the series and parallel mixed combination circuit.

3. Formula: Capacitors in series

 .....

A. Capacitor's in parallel.

Ceq = C1 + C2 .....
4. Mathematical calculation:

Simplify the circuit.

1 μf and are in parallel

Caq = C1 + C2 = 1μf + 1 μf = 2μf

A. 2μf and 1 μf are in series.

A. and 2μf are connected in parallel

Ceq =

Ceq =
A. Correct Answer with option: (3):
B. Estimate time: 2-3 min
C. Level: Medium

31) Question Explanation:

Three capacitors 3μF, 10μF, 15μF are connected in series to a 100V source. We need to find
the charge on the 15μF capacitor.

Concept:
Capacitors in series - same charge on each capacitor

Formula:

Calculation:

All capacitors in series have same charge:

Correct Option: 3

32)

33) Using plate connection method

All 3 capacitors are in parallel so net capacity

CAB = 3C =

34)
35) The possible arrangement may be

36) Let CAB = X

1 + x = 2x + x2
x2 + x – 1 = 0

x=

x= µF

37)
q1 = C1V = 10μF × 1 = 10μC
q2 = C2V = 40μF × 1 = 40μC
38)

39) When capacitor is fully charged. There will be no flow of current through capacitor.

So I = =1A
P.D. across upper branch = 2Ω × 1A = 2V
and same voltage on lower branch VC + V2Ω = 2V
{but voltage on 2Ω = 0 as no current}
VC = 2V, So Q = 2V × 5μF = 10 μC

40) In steady state VC = VAB = capacitor voltage

= V/2
Calculation of time constant (τC)
effective resistance across C = 3R

q=q , q0 = C ⇒q=

41)

Mass = Volume × density

m = Vd = Aℓd

ℓ∝

∵ R=

In series H = I2Rt ⇒ H ∝ R ∝
 = 81 : 16

42)

J = dI/dA ⇒ dI = JdA

I= =

=2πJ

0
=2πJ0 = R2J

43)

Use Nodal method

25 + 30 – 11i1 = 0

→ i1 = = 5 Amp.
25 – 20 – 5i2 = 0 → i2 = 1 Amp.

25 + 5 – 10i3 = 0 → i3 = = 3 Amp.

25 – 10 – 5i4 = 0 → i4 = = 3 Amp.
So total current I = i1 + i2 + i3 + i4

= 5 + 3 + 3 + 1 = 12 Amp.

44)

1200 Ω

45) S = = 0.09 Ω
CHEMISTRY

46)

CH3–CH2–OH and

47)

Example follow lowest sum rule.

48)

5–Ethyl–3, 3–dimethyl cyclohexene

49)

4-Amino-2-hydroxybutanoic acid

50) The decreasing order of the priority of functional group is :

―COOH, ―CONH2, ―CHO, ―OH

51)
C1-sp ; C3-sp3 ; C4-sp2 ; C6-sp3

52) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

53)

BrO4–

54)

+2, 0, +2

55)

x-1, y-14, z-6, a-2, b-7

56)

M/3

57)

58)

For SN1 reaction check stability of carbocation.

59)

60)

Cl– < Br– < I–

61)

Swart reaction

62) Compounds containing gives iodoform test.

63)

64)

Reactivity of SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation.

Stability carbocation :
65) Reactivity towards E2 ∝ stability of product (alkene)

Stability :
(Q) (P) (R)

66)

Rate of SN1 reaction ∝ Stability of carbocation.

67)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 348

68)

2, 4–dinitrophenol
69) Voilet colour solution.

70)

71)

Alkanal, Alkene

72)

73)

74)

CH3CH2I (2 moles)

75)

All

76)

77)
78)

79)

80)

81) Asking about : Most reactive carbonyl compound with HCN

Concept : Rate of NAR

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
⇒ Rate of NAR ∝ Electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon.
∝ –I/–M group Attached to carbonyl carbon

∴ Order of Rate of NAR with HCN is :-

2 > 3 > 4 > 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
82)
⇒ Product 'A' is formed by GATTER MANN KOCH REACTION & product 'B' is formed by
CANNIZZARO REACTION.

83)

84)

Since product is

∴ B is -

Conclusion
Hence option (2) is correct
 85)

86)

NaHSO3

87)

C6H6

88)

89)

Methanol & Formic acid

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

22%

92)

(A)-13, (B)-10, (C)-12, (D)-12

93)

94) NCERT Pg. # 145

95)

78.2 Å

96)

NCERT XII Pg # 80

97) NCERT Pg #-149, 151

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83

99)

(a) is correct but (b) is false

100)

A - Class; B - Family

101)

Identification

102)

i, iv

103)

A, D

104)

A, B & D
105)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. All of the above

106)

Solution:

The correct answer is:2. Protista

According to Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, organisms like Chlorella (alga),
Chlamydomonas (alga), Paramoecium, and Amoeba (protozoans) are all unicellular eukaryotes
and should be classified under Protista, which is a separate kingdom for such organisms.

107) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 128

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

109)

NCERT Pg # 16, 17, 18

110) NCERT-XI Pg.#19

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 17, 18

Heterotrophs, Multicellular, Saprophytes, Parasites, Eukaryotes.

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 15,17

113)

NCERT XI, Pg # 23 to 24

114)

NCERT XI, Pg # 22

115)

Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
116)

A-Hemizygous, B-Homozygous, C-Heterozygous

117)

75%

118)

1' – 1' glycosidic linkage

119)

a = R, b = r, c = Rr, d = Rr, e = Rr

120) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71

121)

Both A and B correct

122) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

123) XII-NCERT Pg.71

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-69,74,79, (H)-77,82,83

125)

Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

127) NCERT-XII Pg#61

128) NCERT Pg #74

129) NCERT, Pg. # 70

130) Asking About :
Statement about sickle cell Anemia

Concept :
SCA → Autosomal recessive disorder
→ Glutamic acid replaced valine

Solution / Explanation :
Point Mutation, change in β - chain.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

131)

Autosomal Dominant

132)

133)

Case 1 : X-linked recessive disease ; case 2 : autosomal recessive disease

134)

45g

135)

Aa, Aa

136)

T killer cell

137)

Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

138)

Pathogen specific

139)
Basophils

140)

both (a) and (c)

141)

Health can simply be defined as absence of disease.

142)

Both (2) and (3)

143)

Artificial active acquired immunity

144)

A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

145)

passive immunity

146)

Synapsids Pelycosaurs Therapsids Mammals

147)

Genetic drift

148)

a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

149)

900 cc

150)

Origin of universe
151)

Nails

152)

Forelimbs of lizard and wings of birds

153)

lack of random mating

154)

Small isolated population

155)

natural selection

156)

presence of genetic variations among the individuals

157)

Fossils

158)

Random and directionless

159)

Fitness

160)

Branching descent and natural selection.

161)

Single step large mutation

162)
Use and disuse, inheritance of acquired characters.

163)

A–B–D–C

164)

(A)–Q, (B)–P,R, (C)–S

165)

Atavism

166)

(A)–R, (B)–P, (C)–S, (D)–Q

167)

Survival fittest

168) NCERT XI Pg.# 130, Fig.7.2

169)

Biogeographical evidence

170)

A, B, C

171)

Genetic drift and origin of new species

172)

Lamarck

173)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 140, 141

174)

Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey

175)

Analogous organs

176)

Mesozoic era

177)

Permian

178)

Theory of organic evolution

179)

Cromagnon man

180)

Tool-maker